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The Released Test Item Bank includes both retired and active test items that have been utilized since 1994 on previous examinations. The Released Test Item Bank includes test items in both English and French. Please note that the proportion of test item categories within the Written Examination Blueprint is not necessarily representative of the Released Test Item Bank. Furthermore, the content of the released test items is not necessarily representative of any given form of past written examinations. Please also be aware that some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science, grammar and content errors. All released test items are the property of the NDEB and are copyrighted.

An endomorph is characterized as a person who A. B. C. D. E. is short and fat. is tall and thin. is muscular. matures early. matures late.

Mandibular overdentures are used to A. B. C. D. increase the strength of the denture. maintain the alveolar ridge morphology. improve periodontal health of abutment teeth. decrease costs.

Function(s) of the dental pulp include(s) 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. defensive. sensory. circulatory. dentin repair. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The layer of intermingled collagen and resin located beneath a restoration is called the A. B. C. D. smear layer. hybrid layer. Weil layer. decalcification layer.

An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with Sutures can be 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. used to hold soft tissues into position. used to stretch soft tissues into position. used to control bleeding. resorbable or non-resorbable. (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) All of the above. A. B. C. D. Class I cuspid relationship. Class II cuspid relationship. Class III cuspid relationship. Class I molar relationship.

Laboratory examination of the blood of a patient with an acute bacterial infection would show A. B. C. D. E. lymphocytosis. leukocytosis. monocytosis. leukopenia. eosinophilia.

Cephalosporin antibiotics 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. may be cross-allergenic with penicillin. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin. have a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillin. may cause cholestatic hepatitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The success of replantation of an avulsed tooth is dependent upon A. B. C. D. length of time between avulsion and replantation. completion of endodontic therapy before replantation. immersing the tooth in fluoride solution before replantation. using calcium hydroxide as a treatment root canal filling.

Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice in pulp exposures of asymptomatic vital teeth with incompletely formed apices. Pulp capping is the recommended procedure for carious exposures on primary teeth. A. B. The first statement is true, the second false. The first statement is false, the second true. Both statements are true. Both statements are false.

A bite wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating two thirds into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to A. B. C. D. place an amalgam restoration. place a porcelain inlay. place a direct composite restoration. apply topical fluoride and monitor.

C. D.

Dental plaque is composed of A. B. C. D. E. desquamated epithelial cells. components from oral secretions. bacteria and their products. cuticle or pellicle. All of the above.

For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local anesthesia A. B. C. D. affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. is responsible for bacteremia. None of the above. The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is A. B. C. D. the same as the proportional limit. decreased by work hardening. the same as the stress at fracture. higher than the proportional limit.

Geographic tongue is characterized by A. B. C. D. congenital deformity of tissue. atrophic filiform papillae. association with scrotal tongue. predominance in elderly patients.

If a polyvinyl siloxane material is used to make the final impression for a maxillary cast restoration, the impression tray must 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. be rigid. have occlusal stops. be coated with an appropriate adhesive. cover the hard palate. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A rubber dam should be used in A. B. C. D. E. pulp capping procedures. amalgam placement. composite placement. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. all of the above.

The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is to The survey of the diagnostic cast that is done as part of a removable partial denture design procedure is needed to 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. determine the path of insertion of the removable partial denture. evaluate the retention potential of the abutment teeth. evaluate the modifications needed to create parallel guiding planes. locate the height of contour abutment teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. B. C. D. prevent hemorrhage. protect the wound. stabilize the teeth. protect the sutures.

Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched enamel results in A. B. C. D. E. decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin. decreased crack formation in the enamel. reduced microleakage. elimination of post-operative sensitivity. improved wear resistance of the composite.

Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the A. B. C. cervical third of the root. middle third of the root. apical third of the root.

Aphthous stomatitis 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E. is considered to be an autoimmune condition. is more frequent in men than in women. may be related to the menstrual cycle. is rarely seen clinically with vesicle formation. is of three to four days duration. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5)

Which of the following is/are common to both gingival and periodontal pockets? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Apical migration of junctional epithelium. Fibrotic enlargement of marginal tissue. Bleeding upon probing. Increased depth upon probing. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which impacted mandibular third molar is easiest to remove? A. B. C. D. Mesio-angular. Horizontal. Disto-angular. Inverted.

The use of an etchant and bonding system before insertion of a composite resin restoration results in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. improved retention of the restoration. decreased marginal leakage. reduced polymerization shrinkage effect. greater strength of the restoration. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Dentin sensitivity is associated with which of the following? A. B. C. D. Free nerve endings. Golgi receptors. Ruffini and Pacini receptors. Odontoblasts.

Which of the following would you NOT prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Acetylsalicylic acid. Metronidazole. Erythromycin. Codeine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is most likely to be a squamous cell carcinoma? A. B. C. D. Sore shallow ulcer, present for a few days. Burning red plaque, present for several weeks. Asymptomatic gray macule, present for several months. Occasionally tender normal coloured nodule, present for several years.

The gingivectomy approach to pocket elimination results in A. B. C. D. healing by primary intention. adequate access to correct irregular osseous contours. retention of all or most of the attached gingiva. None of the above.

Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs from melanoma because melanoma A. B. C. D. is macular. contains melanin. affects the gingiva. undergoes clinical changes.

A zinc oxide and eugenol cement placed beneath a metallic restoration serves as a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. thermal insulator. electrical insulator. cavosurface margin seal. medicinal benefit to the pulp. (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3)

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers? A. B. C. D. Amelogenesis imperfecta. Regional odontodysplasia. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

All primary teeth have normally erupted by the age of: A. B. C. D. 16 to 20 months. 20 to 30 months. 30 to 36 months. 36 to 48 months.

A bitewing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to A. B. C. D. place an amalgam restoration. place a porcelain inlay. place a direct composite restoration. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene.

Epinephrine is one drug used in the management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it A. B. C. D. E. relaxes bronchial muscles. stimulates heart muscle and increases heart rate. increases systolic blood pressure. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. All of the above.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers? A. B. C. D. Amelogenesis imperfecta. Regional odontodysplasia. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

Hypothyroidism in adults is associated with A. B. C. D. E. exophthalmos. weight loss. generalized edema. tachycardia. mental defects.

Following the removal of a vital pulp, the root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient returns with apical periodontitis. The most common cause is A. B. C. D. E. overinstrumentation. lateral perforation. incorrect medication. pulp tissue left in the root canal. infection.

The choice and number of abutments for a fixed partial denture is influenced by the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. length of the span of the fixed partial denture. crown-root ratio of the abutments. amount of periodontal support of the abutments. position of the abutments in the arch. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The quantity of radiation output in a dental Xray apparatus is a function of 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. time. kVp. ma. filtration. (3) and (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) (1) (2) (3) All of the above.

In chronic gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium A. B. C. D. E. is a barrier to bacterial invasion. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. may be ulcerated. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes. All of the above.

In x-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. contrast. speed of electrons. penetrating power of radiation. amount of radiation produced. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (4) only All of the above. In applying pit-and-fissure sealants, which of the following steps are necessary to ensure sealant retention? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Clean the tooth surface. Air abrade the pits and fissures. Dry the tooth surface. Perform enameloplasty with a diamond bur. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epiniphrine? A. B. C. D. Methylparaben. Water. Sodium metabisulphite. Sodium chloride.

The body of the mandible increases in length to accommodate the second molar by A. B. C. D. apposition of bone in the condyle. resorption of bone along the anterior border of the ramus and apposition of bone on the posterior border of the ramus. apposition of bone on the alveolar margin and lower border of the body of the mandible. apposition of bone at the symphysis and posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. anterior growth.

The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. provide for visual access. provide for instrument access. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. be semilunar in shape. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E.

A large pericoronal radiolucency associated with an impacted third molar tooth is most likely a/an A. B. C. D. E. ameloblastoma. odontogenic keratocyst. eruption cyst. dentigerous cyst. calcifying odontogenic cyst.

Tetracyclines 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. have no side effects. may increase susceptibility to superinfections. are safe to use during pregnancy. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Postoperative bleeding in thrombocytopenic purpura is due to a deficiency of A. B. C. D. vitamin C. vitamin K. prothrombin. platelets.

Which drug is most adversely affected by ingestion of antacids? A. B. C. D. Cephalexin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Penicillin V.

B. D. 4. Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in A. infection of tooth 5. This was most probably caused by a/an A. E. C.5mm deep. planing root surfaces. stellate reticulum. Cell rests of Malassez are thought to originate from A.5 during the development of tooth 1. the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to A. has a large carious lesion on a permanent molar. facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins must just clear contact with the adjacent tooth. C. B. generalized calcium deficiency. B. decreases 0-1mm.A 7-year old child who complains of pain when eating. gingival cavosurface margin must clear contact with the adjacent tooth. vitamin D deficiency. dental papilla. increases 3-4mm. termination of the lingual flange. In patients with an Angle Class I malocclusion. C. A 15-year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1. proximal walls diverge occlusally. B. height of the occlusal plane.5. C. In complete dentures. prophylactic odontotomy. D. B. C. 2. hereditary factor. indirect pulp capping. eliminate the need for internal retention. D. removal of supragingival calculus. the external oblique line is used as a guide for the A. A radiograph reveals no periapical change. removal of subgingival calculus. decreases 3-4mm. A. aid in finishing. D. . D. D. E. C. vital pulpotomy. B. All other teeth are normal. axial wall should be 1. For an acid-etched Class III composite resin. improve convenience form. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. Hertwig's root sheath. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. It usually A. increase the surface area for etching. direct pulp capping. B. D. 3. termination of the buccal flange. Your treatment is A. In determining the ideal proximal outline form for a Class II amalgam cavity preparation in a molar the 1. position of the posterior teeth. removal of toxins from cementum. arch length in the mandible changes between 5 and 18 years of age. B. stratum intermedium. C.5. D. C. increases 0-1mm.

widening of the periodontal ligament space. relaxes bronchial muscles. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. D. E. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. D. One drug that you would use is epinephrine because it A. A patient develops an acute anaphylactic reaction in your office. cell numbers. D. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. immediate localized (Type 1) contact urticaria and erythema. immediate generalized (Type 1) bronchospasm and anaphylaxis. B. immediate generalized (Type 1) conjunctivitis and rhinitis. D.Amphetamines 1. have no effect on psychomotor activity. are useful in controlling arrhythmias. C. 3. are analeptics. stimulates heart muscle and increases heart rate. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. sensitivity. B. B. D. 4. alteration of the lamina dura. (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The most common form of latex allergy is a/an A. E. calcification. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. C. C. and D. ankylosis. increases systolic blood pressure. hypercementosis. epigenetic. vascularity. B. C. Healthy attached gingiva A. delayed (Type IV) contact dermatitis. C. contains elastic fibers. C. B. environmental. D. 2. functional. Aging pulps show a relative increase in A. D. D. C. completely eliminates skin bacteria. reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is A. A. A. root resorption. 4. . has no basal cell layer. All of the above. has no rete pegs. E. The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. A. B. The earliest radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is A. B. 2. E. genetic. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 3. C.

B. C. D. Having just completed endodontic treatment on a maxillary central incisor. E. dentinoenamel junction. D. 4. D. C. 3. D. osteoarthritis. You would A. cement the post using zinc-oxyphosphate cement. D. 2. C. before insertion of the dentures. B. Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. extract the tooth. B. Chronic obstructive pulomonary disease. This history is suggestive of A. chronic inflammation of the pulp. Sinus infection. B. gout. when the vertical dimension is correct. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is A. pulpal abscess. B. B. rheumatoid arthritis. Poor flap design. C. Still's disease. .Newly constructed complete dentures should be returned to the articulator by means of new interocclusal records for occlusal refinement A. Ulcerative colitis. Blowing the nose. dentin. then raise a flap and seal the defect surgically with amalgam. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an A. Vitamin B12 deficiency. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. B. if the patient complains of cheek biting. C. rheumatic fever. early apical abscess formation. cement the post. Acute thyroiditis. C. acute inflammation of the pulp. after the patient has worn them for one week. cementoenamel junction. C. re-prepare the canal so the post is now totally within the canal and cement the post. E. Chronic renal failure. you are preparing the canal for a post when you inadvertently perforate the labial surface of the root. cementum. A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. A. D. Which of the following can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism? A. D. Excessive tissue tension.

5 other permanent teeth. epithalamus.r. E. 7 other permanent teeth. Allergy to benzoyl peroxide.r. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. . Locally delivered antimicrobials used to treat infected periodontal pockets include all of the following EXCEPT A. D. 4. Assuming daily maximums are not exceeded. Clindamycin (Clinix®).n. E. hypothalamus.6 hours p. B. Generalized aggressive periodontitis is characterized by attachment loss affecting the first molars and incisors and at least A. A. which of the following is/are appropriate for pain management following an emergency pulpectomy for an adult with a history of severe asthma and nasal polyps? 1.Composite resin is contraindicated as a posterior restorative material in cases of: 1. 1 other permanent tooth. D. metathalamus. Naproxen 250mg. host resistance. Hydrocolloid impression materials must be poured immediately because they A.n. B. A. bacterial virulence. are subject to syneresis and inbibition. Doxycycline fibres (Actisite®). B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. presence of balancing occlusal interferences. The severity of periodontitis depends upon the The autonomic nervous system is primarily controlled by the A. 4. C. C. subthalamus. D. D. begin to swell immediately after removal from the mouth. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 . level of salivary amylase. C. C. C. lose strength and disintegrate if left unpoured. C. B. Inability to maintain a dry operating field. 1.n. 3 other permanent teeth.r. 2. every 6 . Lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. D.8 hours p. D. 3. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 .6 hours p.n. A. E. 3. B.r. E. C. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. 2. Bruxism. adhere to plaster and stone if not poured immediately. Metronidazole (Elyzol®). thalamus. 4. Doxycycline polymerics (Atridox®). Ketorolac 10mg every 4 . 2. Chlorhexidine (Periochip®).6 hours p.

Procaine. A. D. increased object-film distance. 2. irrigation of canals. B. 3. slippage and injury to adjacent teeth. surgical excision. D. D. decreased mA. Lidocaine. A draining fistula of short duration related to a tooth undergoing endodontic therapy requires A. the resin is autopolymerizing. parotitis. Hodgkin’s disease. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. decreased kV. C. C. C. B. Beaks should be applied parallel to the long axis of the tooth. D. E. D. which of the following applies (apply)? 1. 4. acute osteitis. Nasociliary. condensing osteitis. D. an apical radiolucency. there is an adequate ferrule. 3. C. B. Spontaneous hemorrhage from the gingiva may be indicative of A. D. normal lamina dura. 2. Mepivacaine. Bupivacaine. B. Prilocaine. E. root resorption. With respect to forceps extraction of teeth. Composite resin is a satisfactory core material for endodontically treated teeth provided A. Increased radiographic density is caused by A. B. E. C. the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 1.A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. antibiotics. Which of the following local anesthetics is subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? A. Anterior superior alveolar. diabetes. C. B. . leukemia. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum. Nasopalatine. D. Poor placement can lead to tooth fracture. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. E. A. C. Sphenopalatine. Beaks should be placed on the root of the tooth. E. C. Beaks should be moved apically during extraction. B. The radiograph will show A. no special treatment. None of the above. decreased target-object distance.

30-40%. B. The reason for this is that A. D. D. 4. C. placed over firm bone where possible. is non-vital and endodontic therapy may save the tooth. the holes were placed too far apart. . Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. B. 3. Appropriate treatment is to A. D. force the patient to drink coffee. B. Ossifying myositis. Masseter hypertrophy. Periapical abscess. 60-90%. This finding indicates that the tooth A. they should be 1. He becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Osteosarcoma. B. a rubber dam frame was used. Repeated facial trauma can cause a/an: A. E. inequity between tooth size and supporting bone. is non-vital and should be extracted. C. Lateral periodontal cyst. E. probably has a root fracture and is not amenable to root canal therapy. E. Suppurative myositis. congenitally missing teeth. interrupted. discoordinate growth of the dental arch. E. 15-25%. A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam intravenously. A. tight enough to produce immediate hemostasis. C. may be only temporarily non-responsive and should be checked at a later date. C. the holes were placed too close together.The most common cause of a Class I malocclusion is A. B. a light weight dam was used. D. B. Ossifying periostitis. and his respirations are depressed to 10 per minute. E. When sutures are used to reposition tissue over extraction sites. administer ephedrine. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching. D. 15mm apart. On a periapical radiograph. A 9-year old boy is brought to the office for treatment immediately following a facial injury with a fracture of enamel only of a maxillary central incisor. D. Radicular cyst. C. The tooth tests completely negative to an electric pulp tester. D. maxillary incisor crowding. B. support respiration with oxygen. the teeth were not individually ligated. Dentigerous cyst. 2. B. C. C. After placement of the rubber dam you notice that the interdental papilla is protruding from beneath the rubber dam. C. what reduction in mineral content must be lost to detect a change? A. observe the patient. D. Periapical cemental dysplasia. insufficient tooth size. 5-10%.

which of the following is/are true? 1. A cross-bite with a lateral functional shift. dentinogenesis imperfecta. saliva with low buffering capacity. B. D. The underlying tissue dissection is performed bluntly. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. D. inclination of maxillary incisors. . 3. lactic acid in his mouth. Steam autoclave. C. Division 1. B. Which of the following malocclusions should be corrected as soon as it is diagnosed? A. C. 2. observe it until it exfoliates. D. Chemical autoclave. B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.When performing an intraoral incision and drainage of a dentoalveolar abscess. In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected. C. extract it. A severe Class II. B. a high lactobacillus count. minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. supernumerary teeth. anterior teeth. observe it until it becomes symptomatic. A severe Class II. B. severity of the Class II malocclusion. E. D. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). "Dens in dente" (dens invaginatus) is associated with A. maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). C. plaque on his teeth. Chemical solutions. The incision should be only large enough to allow placement of a drain. A diastema between the maxillary central incisors. 4. molar relationship. B. amount of overbite. A Class II Division I malocclusion can be differentiated from a Class II Division II malocclusion based upon the A. amount of crowding present. Which is the LEAST effective method of instrument sterilization? A. non-restorable first primary molar is to A. C. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). C. The scalpel incision should be made superficially through mucosa. E. C. In radiography. The purpose of a drain is to keep the incision open. A. amelogenesis imperfecta. osteogenesis imperfecta. Dry heat. Division 2. D. D. D. B. C. E. extract it and place a space maintainer. B. D.

C. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated. Cyclic neutropenia. there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. Which of the following structures may be associated with the role of the central nervous system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism? A. B. B. aphthous stomatitis. idiopathic fibromatosis. the same as the stress at fracture. A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. B. aggressive periodontitis. the same as the proportional limit. fiery-red. Sphenopalatine ganglion. Petrous nerves. D. E. Which of the following drugs is most addictive? A. B. C. diffuse ground glass appearance. Residual. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. E. The most appropriate management would be to A. diffuse gingivitis is A. B. . D. punched out radiolucent lesions. D. C. E. no bone alteration. Oxycodone. multiple radiopaque lesions. B. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful.The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. D. C. Lateral periodontal. 3. The radiographic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is A. Meperidine. E. generalized hypercementosis. A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored maxillary central incisor. C. D. Morphine sulfate. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. D. B. decreased by work hardening. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. Dentigerous. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. Hydromorphone HCl. Which of the following systemic diseases does/do NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis? 1. C. fabricate a porcelain veneer. Codeine. B. An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. higher than the proportional limit. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). Radiographically. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. A delta and C nerves. Periradicular. C. 2. Diabetes mellitus. D.

osteitis deformans. chronic. Class I. C. D. acute necrotizing gingivitis. periodontal disease. squamous cell carcinoma. B. 4. D. carcinoma in situ. has topical anesthetic properties. Class III. 2. has anticonvulsant properties. is an antiarrhythmic agent. B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) 1. disuse atrophy. B. microleakage. chronic marginal gingivitis. osteopetrosis. acidic primers. D. 2. acanthosis. increased mitosis. Blue sclera is characteristic of A. 4. D. Pathological migration of teeth is a clinical feature of A. B. is a local anesthetic agent. The primary purpose(s) of relining a distal extension base of a removable cast framework partial denture is/are to improve A furcation involvement in which bone loss allows the probe to extend completely through the furcation is classified as A. B. endothelioma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. C. aberrant dentinal tubules that cross the dentinoenamel junction. D. D. C. C. B. The most common cause of persistent post operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is A.Enamel spindles are A. C. structural faults that span the entire thickness of the enamel. 1. intact basal cell layer and chronic inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in A. fibrous dysplasia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. papillofibroma. B. tissue adaptation. 3. C. E. B. seen as perikymata on the surface of newly erupted teeth. E. Hyperkeratosis. dysplasia. responsible for the incremental lines in enamel. fit of the framework. Class II. D. function. . residual caries. osteogenesis imperfecta. incipient. occlusion. A. hyperocclusion. 3. D. C. A. C.

Concerning hand-wrist radiographs. B. B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. 3. level of histamine. C. B. C. Enamel pearls form when A. Endodontic treatment. and C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. 3. D. B. C. When using ultra high speed cutting instruments for cavity preparation. use of air and water spray. improper tooth brushing technique. . chronic bruxism. epithelial cells endothelial cells. 4. Anticariogenic because of fluoride release. C. A. D. number of mast cells. D. E. there is an increase in the A. existing pulp pathology. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast vesicles. cigarette smoking. C. cementoblasts. Stainless steel band. 2. Guided tissue regeneration surgery selectively promotes the growth of all of the following EXCEPT A. duration of cutting. B. the heat generated is directly related to the 1. B. speed and sharpness of the bur. osteoblasts. Gingival recession at the buccal surface of a tooth is most likely caused by A. Which of the following properties apply to glass ionomer cements? 1. A. Periodic observation. Non-irritating to pulpal tissue at moderate depth. Bone age is estimated by the presence or absence of osseous centres in particular bones and compared with standards. which of the following statements is correct? A. and B. C. 2. D. size. Splinting of teeth. Chemical bonding to etched dentin. D. D. C. B. ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. improper flossing technique. The hand-wrist radiograph is of little value in orthodontic diagnosis. A. number of plasma cells. E. In acutely inflamed gingival tissue. The information obtained from radiographs alone is enough to make an accurate determination of skeletal age. C. D. (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above. D. Hand-wrist radiographs are a precise measure of progress in skeletal development in normal children. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a tooth displaying crazing of the enamel? A. A.

E. zinc oxyphosphate. zinc oxide and eugenol. porosities inside the veneering porcelain. C. B. 4. Extrusion of the rubber stopper of a local anesthetic cartridge is most likely caused by A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely due to a/an A. B. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. granulocytic. internal maxillary artery. None of the above. D. unaltered. contamination of the metal prior to porcelain application. lymphocytic. The most likely cause of fracture of the veneering porcelain. 2. on a porcelain fused to metal bridge is A. is a benzodiazepine. the most appropriate cement for a band and loop space maintainer is A.A patient with a white blood cell count of 34. A. trauma to the maxillary primary central incisor. E. polycarboxylate cement. retromandibular vein. that leaves the underlying metal exposed. D. In a child with a high caries incidence. B. C. tetracycline therapy. E. high fluoride intake. faulty manufacturing. breakdown of the anesthetic solution. B. glass ionomer. A. B. After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection. Following very early loss of a primary tooth. storage in a disinfectant solution. veneering porcelain that is more than 2mm thick. dietary deficiency. monocytic. overglazing of the porcelain. flexure of the bridge under the occlusal load. Diazepam (valium) 1. exposure to excessive heat. the eruption time of the permanent successor could be A. is anxiolytic. C. endocrine deficiency. D.000/mm3 has a differential of lymphocytes 62%. internal pterygoid muscle. 3. is contraindicated in a patient with glaucoma. C. accelerated. pterygoid plexus of veins. B. D. . produces muscle relaxation when given orally. D. B. B. C. delayed. a patient would develop seventh nerve paralysis if the injection was made into the A. E. retroparotid space. D. C. D. aleukemic. plasma cell. lymphoblasts 4% and polymorphonuclear leukocytes 34%. C. C. The most likely form of leukemia is A. E. D.

B. C. D. C. antiarrhythmic). 2. B. D. Supracrestal. treated with combined surgical and nonsurgical root canal therapy. E. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. Analgesics. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. C. 3. Nifedipine (antihypertensive). Doxepin (antipsychotic). 3. Following orthodontic rotation of teeth. B. treated with nonsurgical root canal therapy. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. definite finish line. Enlargement. Pain threshold. Bleeding. B. calcification. 4. C. D. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. . Horizontal.Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing? 1. cell numbers. 3. Oblique. 2. 3. C. C. Atrophy. Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia? Aging pulps show a relative increase in 1. B. Diagonal. Recent trauma. which of the periodontal ligament fibres are most commonly associated with relapse? A. D. A. Ulceration. margin well below the gingival crest. D. B. rough surface for improved bonding. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. Patient anxiety. C. 2. A fistula found in association with a non-vital tooth should be 1. 2. Phenytoin ( anticonvulsant. 4. fibrous elements. cauterized to remove the epithelium. Cyclosporine ( immunosuppressive agent). 1. traced to source with a gutta-percha point on a radiograph. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must create a/an A. B. Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to cause gingival hyperplasia? A. E. vascularity. E. A.

speed of electrons. apex pointing to the enamel surface apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction. A rheumatic. 4. temperature of the cathode filament. 5. E. B. A diabetic. C. C. 2. 3. laterally. 3. periodontal pockets. The elderly. amount of radiation produced. A. D. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) and (4) 1. 2. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best accomplished with a/an A. chloral hydrate or an antihistamine to control the anxiety. B. base at the dentino-enamel junction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. vertically. Diplopia. The Green Vermillion Index measures A. C. apically repositioned flap. 4. C. base facing toward the pulp. C. kilovoltage controls 1. A. 2. Pain. D. Which of the following may be associated with a fracture of the mandible? In X-ray equipment. E. not clearly distinguishable. free gingival graft. 4. A. E. horizontally. coronally positioned flap. laterally positioned sliding flap. B. A vertical cross-section of a smooth surface carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the A. the normal alveolar crest on a young adult is A. penetrating power of radiation. oral hygiene. C. at the cementoenamel junction. double-papilla pedicle graft. B. D. In which of the following would you expect an exaggerated response to the use of these drugs? 1. D. D. C. Malocclusion. A patient with chronic renal disease. obliquely. B. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. On bite-wing radiographs. B. Swelling of the orbit.A very apprehensive patient experiencing pain may be prescribed a barbiturate. periodontal disease. bone level. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. D. B. D. contrast. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. D. B. 3.

C. mesiopulpal. metastasizes to the submental lymph nodes. C. D. C. mylohyoid. removal of all caries at the enamel-dentin junction. lateral pterygoid. B. Posterior palatine foramen. survey line. B. D. All of the above. C. metastasizes to the cervical lymph nodes. A. E. buccopulpal. D. A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1. amount of radiation produced. line of greatest torque. the same as the function of the curve of Spee. The success of indirect pulp capping is dependent upon A. B. a well sealed restoration. B. metastasizes to the submaxillary lymph nodes. E. . B. C. linguopulpal. D. the muscle determining the form of the lingual flange in the molar region is A. D. contrast. C. For a mandibular denture impression. C. C. to aid in establishing an incisal guide plane. E. D. kilovoltage controls 1. use of calcium hydroxide. B. 2. B. D.In x-ray equipment. Which of the following can be mistaken on a radiograph for a chronic alveolar abscess? A. 3. The function of the compensating curve is A. geniohyoid. metastasizes to the pre-auricular lymph nodes. B. None of the above. Basal cell carcinoma A. medial pterygoid. 4. Mental foramen. E. All of the above. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded. penetrating power of radiation. None of the above. Cementoma in its early stages. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (4) only All of the above. genioglossus. D.6 is A. terminal line. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. axiopulpal. The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. speed of electrons. does not normally metastasize.

B. D. C. B. . . There is a short lower anterior face height. C. there is no archlength(tooth size) discrepancy. the procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration. A. D. gingival recession. after etching. Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate for a patient with a compound fracture of the mandible? A.Which antibiotic is CONTRAINDICATED for a patient with a history of a Type 1 anaphylactic reaction to penicillin? A. Periapical radiolucency. D. Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. gram-negative anaerobes. Azithromycin (Zithromax®). gram-positive anaerobes. D. 2. Improper temporary coverage of bridge abutments can cause A. D. Penicillin. Clindamycin (Dalacin®). D. The treatment of a Class II. B. gram-positive aerobes. B. Erythromycin. cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because 1. E. Cephalexin (Keflex®). D. B. Erythromycin (Eryc®). E. B. 3. a bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching. increased tooth sensitivity. C. 4. E. a bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. occlusal prematurities. All of the above. C. the bonding agent reduces microleakage. Chloromycetin. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. Pain upon biting pressure. C. tooth migration. there is a satisfactory relationship of maxillary and mandibular apical bases. Tetracycline. there is labial tipping of the maxillary incisors. B. Division 1 malocclusion has the best prognosis when A. The predominant micro-organisms associated with periodontitis are A. C. gram-negative aerobes. No response to electric pulp testing. All of the above. C. For composite resin preparations.

C. D. 0%. D. D. Which pontic type is best for a knife edge residual ridge where esthetics is not a major concern? In general. B. incisional biopsy. C. 3. C. osteoclastoma. buccinator and styloglossus muscles. A. If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured. electrocautery. 10 – 15%. a pigmented macule measuring 4mm in diameter should be treated by A. 100% relative humidity. Warthin’s tumour. A.1 – 1. Ridge lap. Conical. it should be placed in A. 5. An acute lateral periodontal abscess can be differentiated from an acute abscess of pulpal origin by the A.0%. E. 4. B. acinic cell carcinoma. carbon dioxide laser. D. D. intensity of pain. B.The most likely diagnosis of a 1cm mobile mass in the parotid is A. . C. mylohyoid. degree of tooth mobility. B. buccinator. response to a vitality test. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. E. mylohyoid and buccinator muscles. Sanitary. D. C. D. 0. The volumetric polymerization shrinkage of a hybrid composite resin is in the order of Multinucleated giant cells are associated with 1. None of the above. water. C. odontogenic myxoma. D. mylohyoid. B. tuberculosis. styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles. excisional biopsy. pleomorphic adenoma. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the attachment of the A. type of exudate. C. Modified ridge lap. E. exfoliative cytology. B. B. C. mucoepidermoid carcinoma. 2. hyperparathyroidism. superior constrictor. E. 2 – 8%. plasmocytoma. B. buccinator and genioglossus muscles. nature of swelling. adenoid cystic carcinoma (cylindroma). (1) (3) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (3) (4) (5) (2) (4) (5) A.

A. B. All of the above. A small. has topical anesthetic properties. design. assess occlusion more accurately. the tissue is too acidic. C. sclerosing osteitis. amount of attached gingiva. B. 4. C. Which of the following would NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. a radicular cyst. 3. . E. Acetylsalicylic acid. Metronidazole. visualize the direction of the forces. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) In periodontal flap surgery. plan the pontic design. is a local anesthetic agent. B. presence of infrabony defects. 2. C. bacteria can metabolize the local anesthetic. is an antiarrhythmic agent. biocompatibility of the material. B. E. has anticonvulsant properties. Local anesthetic injected into dental abscesses is rarely effective because Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest temperature? A. well-circumscribed. C.Lidocaine (Xylocaine) 1. D. D. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. B. D. B. immediate loading. Codeine. the design of the incision is influenced by the A. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. All of the above. a periapical granuloma. 3. B. depth of the vestibule. periapical radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is clinically asymptomatic and responds normally to vitality tests is most likely A. D. C. there is excessive vasoconstriction. 4. Steam autoclave. periapical cemental dysplasia. E. Success of an endosseous dental implant is dependent upon 1. A. Dry heat oven. A. Glass bead sterilizer. Erythromycin. 2. Diagnostic casts for a fixed bridge allow the dentist to A. C. 4. C. D. Alcohol autoclave. a period of non-function. D. edema dilutes the local anesthetic. Ethylene oxide method. A. frenum attachment. D. D. E.

4. D. . Pain. are analeptics. A. A 50 year old patient presents for extraction of an asymptomatic tooth. erythromycin stearate. Which of the following is ançare oral clinical sign(s) of leukemia? A. dividing strain by stress. are useful in controlling arrhythmias. C. D. C. then 150mg six hours after initial dose. Amphetamines 1. refer to a physician for preoperative evaluation. With the development of gingivitis.5g six hours after initial dose. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic with epinephrine. D. Ulceration. multiplying proportional limit by strain. B. The modulus of elasticity of a material is determined by A. 3. D. gram-negative organisms. C. B. The preoperative blood pressure is 198/111 mmHg. B. C. Tissue pallor. then 1. D. The current recommended regimen of antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to penicillin is A. the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by A. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour before procedure. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic without epinephrine. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before procedure. Requires endodontics or extraction. 2. C. The most appropriate treatment is to A. extract the tooth and refer to a physician. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour before procedure only. squaring proportional limit and dividing by strain. gram-positive organisms. B.Which of the following is characteristic of periapical cemental dysplasia? A. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. D. E. Biopsy is NOT usually necessary. Expansion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. C. spirochetes. have no effect on psychomotor activity. C. dividing stress by strain below elastic limit. 2g orally two hours before procedure only. diplococcal organisms. All of the above. B. B. E. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before procedure only. Swollen soft gingiva.

2. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (2) (1) (4) (5) (1) and (5) (3) (4) (5) The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth. increases the thickness of gold. protect the cement from moisture. the tooth may A. C. C. D. D. D. 0. improves marginal adaptation. improve detail. A. Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. If there is insufficient arch space for a permanent tooth to erupt. retard the final set. B. E. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. E. increases retention. B. B. B. E. E. inferior alveolar block. 3. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. D. Eosinophils. erupt out of position. 1. 4. at the cemento-enamel junction. on the enamel. increase the quantity of X-rays necessary to produce a certain photographic effect on silver. D. create a smooth finish. 3. at the gingival margin. Intensifying screens are used when exposing extra-oral radiographic films to A. posterior superior alveolar block. 5. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. protects the enamel. C. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. C. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. Neutrophils. The most common causes are A. None of the above. A. 4. 2. Macrophages. B. Lymphocytes. cause resorption of the root of another tooth. All of the above.During the administration of local anesthesia. long buccal nerve block. C. B. decrease exposure time. positive aspiration of blood will occur most often in a/an A. not erupt. at least 1mm supragingivally. a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. hasten the final set. D. After initial setting. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap. decrease scatter radiation. anterior superior alveolar block. C. C. For a cast gold restoration. B. C. should be placed A. . mental or incisive block. with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance. B. E. Plasma cells.5mm subgingivally. D. a chemically cured glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. E.

For composite resin preparations. it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. B. improves marginal adaptation. 4. 2. protects the enamel. 3. D. The treatment of choice is to A. cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because 1. D. None of the above. precedes alveolar bone loss. B. reposition the mandible forward. a bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching. E. E. A. E. the aesthetic considerations. the type of impression materials to be used. necessitate relief to the partial denture. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (4) only . increase vertical dimension. a bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin. 2. A. D. B. B. expand the dental arches. 4. C. increases retention. increases the thickness of gold. C. C. D. Upon examination of an edentulous patient. For a cast gold restoration. In treatment planning for a fixed bridge. In treatment of an Angle Class~II. retract the maxillary molars. make impression-taking difficult. D. B. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. the bonding agent reduces microleakage. 2. an evaluation of the forces of mastication. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. A.During periodontal disease activity. cause difficulty in tooth selection. C. after etching. B. the necessary clinical data should include 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. D. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. the loss of clinical attachment A. a knife-edge bony ridge will A. C. the Frankel functional regulator is designed to perform all the following EXCEPT A. B. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. In treatment planning for a removable partial denture. Division 2. 4. C. a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. follows alveolar bone loss. 3. the procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration. an assessment of any discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relation.

C. tensile strength of amalgam. C. One week after an amalgam restoration is placed in the mandibular first premolar. An 8-year old with no abnormal oral habits. A. cannot be seen on a radiograph. Cephalosporin antibiotics 1. The most likely diagnosis is A. E. E. reversible pulpitis. compressive strength of enamel. has the same radiopacity as amalgam. D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. to perform space analysis. B. 4. . C. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year old child is A. a 90 cavosurface angle accommodates the 1. acute periradicular periodontitis. D. 4. D. C. D. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral habits. B. condensing of amalgam. has the same radiopacity as gold. The most common complication of a venipuncture is A. may cause cholestatic hepatitis. C. 3. E. An 8-year old with a previous thumb habit. B. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. extraction of the opposing molar. 2. pulpal microabscess. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. A zinc phosphate cement base A. thrombophlebitis. insertion of a space maintainer. regular assessment of arch development. 2. embolus. A. B. is less radiopaque than amalgam. have a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillin. B.Which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors? 1. B. compressive strength of amalgam. 4. C. the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold. hypercementosis. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet. may be cross-allergenic with penicillin. E. syncope. D. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin. D. hematoma. 3. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. For amalgam restorations.

C. D. decreases systolic blood pressure. A. B. 2. destruction of the posterior pituitary or associated hypothalamic centres. existing pulp pathology. atrophy of the islands of Langerhans. E. 4. 3. relaxes bronchial muscles. the heat generated is directly related to the 1. Metabisulfite. speed and sharpness of the bur. E. B. 2. vascularity of the gingiva. 2. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. vertical dimension of occlusion. is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process. All of the above. destruction of the adrenal cortex. use of air and water spray. is lengthened if the powder is mixed with the liquid as quickly as possible. 2. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. Epinephrine. melanin pigmentation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. C. D. Hydrochloric acid. 1. Which of the following constituents of a local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to be allergenic? A. A. C. decreases heart rate. B. D. hypersecretion of the posterior pituitary.When using ultra high speed cutting instruments for cavity preparation. D. C. C. inter-condylar distance. E. All of the above. 3. C. B. B. 4. None of the above. size. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. horizontal condylar inclination. 4. 3. C. Diabetes mellitus is the result of A. B. E. D. A facebow is used to record the Epinephrine is used in the management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it 1. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the 1. 4. thickness of the epithelium. A. D. . produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. epithelial keratinization. 3. duration of cutting. Lidocaine. The working time of zinc-phosphate cement A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled. B. D.

the number of walls. hydroxylation and oxidation.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100. Pain on percussion. D. reduction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing 1. 1. Diabetes mellitus. Successful repair of bony defects is dependent upon A. affect the blood supply to gingiva. C. C. oxidation. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. affect the progression of periodontitis.0 mg. B. B. Following root planing. B. The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. D. the distance between the buccal and lingual walls. Ludwig's angina may cause death by A. C. B. 3. Leukemia. A. Golgi receptor. D. posterior maxilla. Cementoblasts. Spontaneous throbbing pain. . B. 4. Prolonged pain initiated by heat. paralysis of muscles of respiration. anterior mandible. D. initiate periodontitis. periodontitis. C. a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. C. C. 0. Free nerve endings. D. 18.0 mg. multiple caries. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. asphyxia. E. D. B. sequestration in the body fats. 2. burning mouth.8 mg. D. C. Odontoblastic processes. the distance from the crest of the defect to the cemento-enamel junction. AIDS. 0. Increased pain by cold. its depth. convulsions. the amount of vasoconstrictor is A. Trauma from occlusion may A. B. D. pyemia. 180. B.18 mg. B. periapical abscesses and candidiasis. posterior mandible. A 55 year old female patient complains of dry. D. The clinical and radiological examination shows xerostomia. Multiple myeloma. C. initiate marginal gingivitis. anterior maxilla. Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the A. heart failure. E. E.018 mg. C.000.Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of acute pulpitis? 1.

assist in post-operative healing. A rubber dam should be used in A. B. E. A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. D. systemic corticosteroids (Prednisone). Which of the following is a depressor of the mandible? A. a viral infection. Nystatin. composite resin. 2. all of the above. B. E. candidiasis. E. All of the following are well documented initiating factors of hairy tongue EXCEPT A. not palpable. D. radiotherapy to the head and neck. C. C. C. composite placement. C. silicophosphate cement. B. diffuse gingivitis is A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. decrease absorption of the anesthetic. B. Lateral (external) pterygoid. B. aggressive periodontitis. D. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. polycarboxylate cement. C. C. soft. Fluconazole. assist hemostasis at the site of injection. 2. D. D. 3. Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution will 1. Clindamycin. A tooth with a mild pulpitis should be sedated with A. 3. D. mouth rinses.Chronically inflamed submandibular lymph nodes are A. prolong the action of the anesthetic agent. E. A. zinc-oxide-eugenol cement. Medial (internal) pterygoid. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. amalgam placement. B. 4. Sickle cell anemia is A. a drug reaction. D. D. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful. aphthous stomatitis. fiery-red. pulp capping procedures. Masseter. Temporalis. firm. B. a genetic disease. fixed. Which of the following drugs is/are appropriate to manage this condition? 1. Ketoconazole. B. C. caused by exposure to radiation. A. an auto-immune disease. antibiotics. B. idiopathic fibromatosis. E. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. . He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis.

Calculus. the measurement is taken from the A. reinforces the root. D. using a high speed film. 5. using low kVp.1/2. When restoring an endodontically treated tooth.4. B. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. C. C. B. Cortical bone. 2. Reversible pulpitis. B. 3. Enamel. Diphenhydramine elixir 12. Dexamethasone elixir 0. E. D. E. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a draining fistula? A. D. Composite restoration. Appropriate management for the relief of symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1.3.5mg/ml. Marginal ridge.4/2. Which of the following is most radiopaque? A. Cemental tear. retains the core. C. E. C. C. D. decreasing target-film distance. D. D. Mesial of teeth 1. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. Cemento-enamel junction. B. 4. B. 4.3/2.2. Mesial of teeth 1. Traumatic bone cyst. A. 3. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth. using an aluminum filter. D. B. Carabelli cusp. On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth. The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. C. E. increasing target-film distance. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase®. C.1. Lamina dura. needs to end within 1mm of the apex. B. A. .5mg/5ml. Chronic periapical periodontitis. Gold inlay. B. C. Mesial of teeth 1.2/2. Hypercementosis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. the post A. which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. Mesial of teeth 1. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction.Which of the following root surfaces are most likely to have flutings/concavities that will make thorough root debridement difficult? A.

E. C. polycarboxylate cements are used as a base because they are A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. biocompatible. C. to perform space analysis. associated with a root penetrating cavity. extraction of the opposing molar. B. Aging. 2. A. Setting not affected by moisture. Bonding to enamel. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. uniformity of particle size. the degree of keratinization. A.Which of the following are characteristics of restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. fusion temperature. D. A. E. C. Ankylosis is commonly A. C. nodules. found in permanent teeth. B. B. C. B. Irritating to pulpal tissues. D. C. The redness of inflamed gingiva is due to A. bone is less porous superior to the root apex. Wedge biopsies should be used to diagnose A. the result of a root fracture. None of the above. C. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. 4. insertion of a space maintainer. out of occlusion. macules. D. resulting in a submerged tooth. B. D. cysts. subgingival deposits. thoroughness of condensation. 3. plaques. . D. Release of fluoride. the principal factor is the Which of the following can be characterized by a narrowing of pulp chambers and root canals? 1. The most logical explanation for causing swelling beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary canine is that the A. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. B. B. ratio of flux to feldspar. 3. C. the root apex lies superior to the attachment of the caninus and levator labii superioris muscles. E. The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is A. D. D. D. 2. neutral in colour. E. infection has passed into the angular vein which has no valves. D. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (2) and (3) All of the above. increased collagen fiber density. In composite resin restorations. B. 4. Taurodontism. C. Chronic trauma. regular assessment of arch development. B. increased vasodilation. Dentinal dysplasia. In minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain. associated with a non-vital pulp.

C. B. 2. the results of vitality testing. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. Oxycodone. Which of the following is necessary for collagen formation? Two important wound healing principles for guided tissue regeneration are A. B. C. nausea. D. generalized edema. Lack of space in the maxillary anterior area. A. E. B. D. the mobility of the teeth. Which occlusal parameter is the most useful to determine if a posterior crossbite is of skeletal or dental origin? A. 4. C. root surface biomodification and intramarrow penetration. Insulin reaction is characterized by 1. . E. Vitamin D. exophthalmos. If hypothyroidism occurs in the adult. Codeine. Acetylsalicylic acid. diphenhydramine. mental defects. Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called A. Anterior overbite. D. tachycardia. C. 4. In the treatment of an acute anaphylactic reaction. epinephrine. D. a keloid. C. Vitamin E.The most important diagnostic element in assessing the periodontal status of a patient is A. Buccolingual angulation of affected teeth. Vitamin C. Sagittal molar relationship. B. D. sweating. 2. the depth of periodontal pockets. A. B. the first drug that should be administered is A. Lack of space in the mandibular arch. space creation and wound stabilization. E. weight loss. C. B. C. hydrocortisone. D. space creation and intramarrow penetration. Ketorolac. C. hydroxyzine. a fibro-epithelial polyp. 3. root surface biomodification and wound stabilization. epithelial hyperplasia. tachycardia. Vitamin A. it can be associated with A. a fibroma. B. D. mental confusion (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. 3. A. B. D. E. Vitamin K. the radiographic appearance. Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. E.

D. attach the cells to the basement membrane. neutrophils. high viscosity. Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed partial dentures because of A. B. C. C. neutrophils. lymphocytes. late primary dentition. Bitewing. C. C. plasma cells. D. D. C. seal off the dentin from the pulp. D. C. E. Weakening of the enamel. C. D. basophils. prophylactic odontotomy. after the eruption of third molars. eosinophils. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. B. during the period of greatest growth velocity. D. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of vital bleaching with 10% carbamide peroxide? A. The treatment of choice is A. Periapical. B. C. high solubility in saliva. . C. B. 2 4 6 8 10 The optimal time for orthodontic treatment involving growth manipulation for skeletal class II malocclusions is during A. B. B. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. D. adhere the cells to one another. low pH. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. Sore throat. A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. B. monocytes. E. Occlusal. Reversible tooth sensitivity. B.What is the maximum number of cartridges (1. Panoramic. D. Odontoblast gap junctions A. B. after skeletal growth is complete. E. The genial tubercles are best visualized on which type of radiograph? A. no treatment. adverse pulp response. conservative Class I amalgams. application of cyanoacrylate pit and fissure sealants. D. permit lateral cell-cell communication.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic solution that can be administered without exceeding a total dose of 300mg? A. fibroblasts. lymphocytes. Soft tissue sloughing. application of BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealants. The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are A.

E. radicular cyst. C. 3. occlusal adjustment. B. C. Radiographically. a functional shift. The most appropriate treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis in a patient with lymphadenopathy is 1. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. B. E. 2. D. 3. C. Fibroma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. protrusive interocclusal record. 2. Which of the following nerves are anesthetized by an infraorbital nerve block? 1. A. C. E. Osteoma. D. A. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. In complete denture fabrication. lingually situated supernumerary teeth. D. cuspal inclination of the teeth selected. D. Labial. B. D. 4. 3. Lipoma. oral hygiene instruction. E. C. 4. unexplainable genetic factors. nasopalatine cyst. C. E. 2. Zygomatico-temporal. Zygomatico-facial. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) An anterior cross-bite of a permanent maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is often associated with A. A. 5. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. branchial cyst. D. B. nasolabial cyst. E. 4. A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A. centric relation interocclusal record. Pyogenic granuloma. B. the angulation of the horizontal condylar guidance plane of the articulator is determined by the A. prolonged retention of a primary incisor. periodontal debridement. B. orientation of the occlusal plane. Papilloma. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. E.Which of the following lesions has a tendency to bleed easily? A. premature eruption of a maxillary incisor. the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. C. B. fracture of the zygomatic arch. Lateral nasal. . incisal guidance. antibiotic therapy. D. craniofacial dysjunction. Palpebral.

postpone treatment and recheck status periodically. B. Oral lesions may be an early manifestation of 1. producing a systemic reaction. D. C. A patient's 4 mandibular incisors were traumatized 3 years ago in an accident. A. B. 4. pernicious anemia. E. frontomaxillary suture. B. anticonvulsant. leukemia. median palatine suture. antihypertensive. . discolouring gingival tissue. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. pterygopalatine suture. B. 2. 3. absolute alcohol. All of the above. B. extract and place a bonded bridge. C. D. None of the above. 3. The recommended treatment is to A. E. C. D. A major secondary therapeutic use of the phenothiazines is as an A. phenol. C. C. D. chlorhexidine. A. Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the application of A. D. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an acute periradicular abscess? A. obstructive jaundice. B. D. E. causing tissue necrosis. zygomaticomaxillary suture. Radiographs now show apical radiolucencies associated with all 4 teeth. Pain on percussion. 70% ethyl alcohol. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the potential of A. Pain to a cold stimulus. test the pulp vitality and perform root canal therapy on teeth with no response. C. interfering with the setting of the impression material. . antidepressant. perform root canal therapy and curette the area. C. Tooth feels elongated. 2. B. infectious mononucleosis. antiemetic. 4. D. Pain on palpation.The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include the 1.

there can be perforation of the periosteum. E. C. Meperidine. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) (3) (4) Plaque accumulation on tooth surfaces is affected by A.bisecting angle technique. C. D. E. panoramic film. placing a removable bite opener. B. D. extracting the primary mandibular second molars. B. disking the mesial surfaces of the primary mandibular second molars. C. position and surface characteristics of the teeth. friction at the tooth surface from the diet. Lupus arthritis.If a flush terminal plane converts to a mesial step terminal plane (Class I occlusion) without orthodontic intervention. D. Rheumatoid arthritis. a squamous cell carcinoma in that jaw. Chloral hydrate. The first premolars are also erupting. A. E. Suppurative arthritis. C. the architecture of the gingival tissues and their relationship to the teeth. The primary second molars are large and firmly in place. Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can best be seen radiographically in a A. Which of the following does NOT relieve pain? A. Radiographically. Degenerative arthrosis. 2. B. A 10 year old patient has mandibular canines erupting into a space deficient by 2mm. . bite-wing film.paralleling technique. C. D. mesial movement of the mandibular first permanent molars following exfoliation of the mandibular second primary molars. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. extracting the first mandibular premolars. D. C. Methadone. one more than the normal number of teeth in that jaw. All of the above. C. B. Codeine. the margins are defined and demarcated. maxillary forward growth exceeding mandibular forward growth. 4. a benign bone neoplasm can be differentiated from a malignant one because in the benign lesion 1. there is likely to be A. the absence of mandibular primate space. 3. B. lips and tongue. the normal number of teeth in that jaw. the anatomy. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is A. periapical film . C. Hydromorphone. distal movement of the maxillary first permanent molars following eruption of the maxillary second bicuspids. D. the margins are irregular and fade into the surrounding bone. When a diagnosis of a primordial cyst is made. periapical film . D. the cortex remains intact. Psoriatic arthritis. a primordial cyst situated symmetrically on the opposite side. D. B. one less than the normal number of teeth in that jaw. B. B. it is primarily a result of A.

D. When a mandibular second molar that has tipped mesially following extraction the adjacent first is uprighted by fixed orthodontic therapy (e. 2. is more susceptible to dental caries. C. D. C. a 62 year old insulindependent diabetic. 3. administer 50 dextrose intravenously. Topical antifungal therapy. A. pterygomandibular space. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4.g. C. 3. retrosternal pain. crushing. D. should be extracted. extrusion of the second molar. E. D. C. E. E. parapharyngeal space. should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. 4. monitor the patient. 45. D. B. suddenly complains of severe. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. may remain for years with no significant resorption. A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. C. incision and debridement at fracture site. submandibular space. Antibiotic therapy. B. E.g. The Glycemic Index of foods should be used when planning the diet. 2. lingual tipping of the second molar. 3. Sucrose up to 10% of total daily energy intake (e. 2.The principles of closed fracture management are 1. The appropriate initial management would be to stop treatment and 1. Analgesic and hydration therapy. A. 2. The fat content of the diet should be 3035% of energy intake. B. A. 44 and 43) the following tooth movements usually occur: 1. 4. . intrusion of the anchor unit. A. D. D. in the absence of its permanent successor. Topical antiviral therapy. Which of the following statements about the nutritional management of diabetes is correct? A. B. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis? A. buccal tipping of the anchor unit. reduction of fracture. A diet planned according to Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating must be modified for a person with diabetes. A. 50% of 2000 kcal/day) is acceptable. fixed appliance on 47. will undergo normal root resorption. administer 100 oxygen. administer sublingual nitroglycerin. During dental treatment. A primary molar. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) 4 only All of the above. submental space. restoration of occlusion. immobilization of fracture. E. 3. 4. B.

C. A. C. 3. greater expansion during setting. E. B. Various psychological factors. C. reduced strength. A. osteitis fibrosa cystica. C. Prolonged recovery times. normal cell turnover. examine to locate source of bleeding. D.If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured. D. methicillin. 4. streptomycin. B. B. Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a result of A. increased flow. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. Your first step is to A. B. myositis ossificans. drug induced. inject the area with local anaesthetic. A. C. D. Paget's disease. Which of the following make the elderly difficult to treat? 1. osteogenesis imperfecta. E. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in Longer trituration of alloy and mercury will result in an amalgam restoration which will have A. 100% relative humidity. have patient bite on gauze saturated with epinephrine. 2. B. it should be placed in A. E. D. C. benign neoplasia. The drug of choice for prophylactic antibiotic therapy for dental patients with a past history of rheumatic fever and a history of penicillin sensitivity is A. inflammation. D. 4. E. B. C. The presence of multiple diseases. B. clindamycin. give 10 mg of Vitamin K intramuscularly. 3. a developmental abnormality. tetracycline. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. . A patient returns with persistent bleeding 5 hours after a tooth has been removed. predisposing to dental diseases. refer the patient for bleeding and coagulation tests. Xerostomia can be 1. Under-reporting of symptoms. 2. associated with diabetes. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. None of the above. abnormal formation of osteoid. D. B. C. found in the elderly. water.

C. C. Healthy gingiva does not bleed. aminopyrine therapy. Further systemic evaluation is required. Hypochromic anemia is associated with A. D. sensitivity. D. A. The most appropriate management for a patient in an early mixed dentition stage with mild anterior crowding is to A. 3. B. a radicular cyst. 5. Stippling in healthy gingiva varies with location. iron deficiency. 4. Your diagnosis is A. C. no different. a naso-alveolar cyst. a median alveolar cyst. The area should be re-assessed in 2 weeks. vascularity. Healthy gingiva is bright red in color. The enlargement is most likely amyloidosis. vitamin B12 deficiency. C. B. . enlargement of the left foliate papilla.5mm/week) are A. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation and management for this condition? A. regain space in the arch. more skeletal expansion and less dental expansion. smooth. Such enlargements often occur in this area and the change can be safely ignored. Lymphoid tissue occurs in this area and it might be enlarged in response to the flu. greater stability. a carious lesion with pulp degeneration. E. There was a recent history of severe flu. cell numbers. D. B. B. strip all proximal contacts. In children and adolescents. a cracked tooth. folic acid deficiency. E. (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (2) and (5) (2) and (3) (1) and (5) A 29 year old male patient presents with a moderate. the anterior palatine foramen may be mistaken for Aging pulps show a relative increase in A. B. 2. an incisive canal cyst. B. a globular maxillary cyst. B. D. calcification. C. C. perform a space analysis. Pain is relieved by warmth and direct pressure.Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. D.5mm/day) compared to slow palatal expansion (0. B. A patient complains of tooth pain which is sharp and stabbing when chewing sweet or cold foods. C. traumatic occlusion. the long term effects of rapid palatal expansion (0. a carious lesion with pulpal inflammation. less stable. extract the deciduous canines. Radiographically. D. He first noted this change 2 days previously. 1. D. The interdental papillae in the posterior regions are broader than in the anterior region. D. C. less skeletal expansion and more dental expansion. This is a common site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma and a biopsy is urgently indicated.

pulpotomy. pulpectomy. D. B. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. retrofilling and replantation. B. C. D. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. Diet soft drinks and potato chips are an acceptable snack. Closure of a 2mm maxillary midline diastema by orthodontic treatment is best accomplished A. necrosis. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. after complete eruption of the maxillary canines. It produces a typical dependence syndrome. C. Retroclined maxillary lateral incisors. during intra-oral emergence of the maxillary canines.A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates A. Division 2 malocclusion? A. Which of the following conditions is usually present in an Angle Class II. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl alcohol. Brush your teeth well after snacks. prior to complete eruption of the maxillary central incisors. Retroclined maxillary central incisors. a periodontal abscess. Distoclusion of permanent maxillary first molars. B. extraction. E. D. The treatment for an 11-year old who has intermittent swelling and pain associated with a central incisor which was traumatized 6 months ago should be A. Which statement(s) is/are true about diazepam? 1. vitality. . C. E. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. B. Eat a bigger lunch and do not snack. prior to eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors. C. D. Open bite. periodontal involvement. Which of the following dental health recommendations is consistent with the general nutrition guide on healthy eating for Canadians? A. 2. B. after complete eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors. A piece of fruit and plain yogurt is an acceptable snack. 3. B. observation over 6 months to monitor the progression of resorption. observation. apical resection. D. D. It improves performance rating of fine motor skills. D. C. A. E. an acute alveolar abscess. C. It is available without prescription in Canada. E. extraction. C. B. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage.

B. amount of carious material removed. enamel. . dentin. C. D. supraorbital ridges and air sinuses suggest A. remove the sulcular lining of the pocket. B. B. The occlusal parameter most likely associated with maxillary anterior spacing is a/an A. B. The "smear layer" is an important consideration in A. fibroedematous. apical resection. B. What is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether or not to use pulp protection? A. D. associated with exudate formation. C. C. Class III skeletal malocclusion. D. A. pulp. D. C. C. B. continued growth of the mandibular condyles. fibrotic. C. the initial incision is made to The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. edematous. D. In an adult. extraction. B. condensation technique. D. amount of amalgam used. depth of the pulpal floor. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. dentin bonding. E. aldosteronism. accentuated maxillary curve of Wilson. D. cavity outline. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. feet. Class II Division 2 dental malocclusion. E. pulp regeneration. aid in healing. E. pituitary adenoma. location of the carious lesion. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. D. periodontal ligament. an increase in size of the bones and soft tissues of the hands. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. plaque accumulation. reverse maxillary curve of Wilson. excise the keratinized gingiva. B. In periodontal flap surgery.The tissue which cannot be seen on dental radiographs is A. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. B. thickness of the remaining dentin. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is A. observation over 6 months for further resorption. D. retrofilling and replantation. carving technique. C. cementum. The residual mercury content of the amalgam restoration is significantly affected by A. C. formed within an infrabony pocket. caries removal. hyperthyroidism. C.

Sodium metabisulphite. Medical history. retard the set. C. D. a sedative. D. Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad? 1.Which of the following is NOT a component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100. Cold developer. B. Lean body weight. Buccinator. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a tranquilizer. A. C. 2. Palatoglossus. Streptococcus mutans. E. C. 4. D. Improper safety light. D. Sodium chloride. accelerate the set. Excessive developing time. prevent distortion of the hydrocolloid material. Lateral (external) pterygoid. D. Staphylococcus aureus. C. A. Gender. C. spaces between deciduous or permanent incisors are called A. vertical relationships in the lower face. D. 4. leeway spaces. freeway spaces. Water. E. Lactobacillus acidophilus. B. 2. The micro-organisms of dental caries are 1. B. 3. B. β-hemolytic streptococci. Prior to pouring a stone model. physiological spaces. C. an amnesic. a full complement of teeth. inhibit the formation of bubbles. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. C. Over exposure. A. B. 3. D. Age. B. In a normally developing occlusion. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. antero-posterior relationship of maxillary and mandibular first permanent molars. B. primate spaces. Oral flurazepam is superior to oral diazepam as Angle's classification of occlusion is based on A. B. the immersion of a hydrocolloid impression in 2~percent potassium sulphate for 2~to~5~minutes will A. antero-posterior skeletal relationship of maxilla to mandible. . Methylparaben. Which one of the following factors is least important in determining the appropriate dose of drug for a patient? A. a muscle relaxant. C.000 epinephrine? A. D. B. Superior constrictor. a hypnotic. D.

Generalized chronic periodontitis. 2. The best time to begin interceptive orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion is A. C. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars. Hyperparathyroidism. In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography. Paresthesia. D. B. Generalized loss of lamina dura. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) All of the above. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed. Demineralization of teeth. 5. Generalized aggressive periodontitis. A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte adherence deficiency and is also affected with generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his primary teeth. Pain. . A. several months prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt. Edema. C. Infectious mononucleosis. immediately following complete eruption of the deciduous dentition. C. B. B. D. Which of the following could be immediate postoperative complications of periapical surgery? 1. 3. C. less bone loss. facial swelling and diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the diagnosis? A. D. B. C. cigarette smokers are more likely to have A. the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the A.Compared to nonsmokers. Rampant caries. weakness and fatigue. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease. more attachment loss. maxillary sinus. less gingival recession. D. D. E. more bleeding on probing. D. Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors. the nuclei for crystallization are more numerous. after skeletal maturity. A 42 year old lethargic patient complains of constipation. Hypothyroidism. some of the water is removed by the vacuum. less water is required for vacuum mixing. palatine bone and the zygoma. Haemorrhage. A model prepared from a vacuum mixed stone has higher strength because A. E. C. What is the most significant radiographic finding in hyperparathyroidism? A. D. E. Multiple myeloma. there is less porosity. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts. C. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla. B. D. Mucocele. Addison’s Disease. 4. Hypercementosis. The clinical examination reveals dry skin. B. B. B.

reactor. 2. pentazocine A. buccal and palatal infiltration. contraction. produces sedation. C. an infra-orbital block. E. E. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. B. The local anesthetic technique of choice is A. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. A patient with bruxism is likely to demonstrate A. Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. has anti-inflammatory properties. E. functional. 4. D. B. . D. reduces elevated temperature. using low kVp. produces peripheral vasoconstriction. D. D. disinfectant. A 3 year old requires the extraction of a deciduous maxillary second molar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) 1. 3. D. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. loss in compressive strength. malalignment of teeth. C. decreasing target-film distance. A. C. C. 3. sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the A. B. Upon setting. C. increasing target-film distance. using an aluminum filter. The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is 1. B. genetic. 3. radiographic evidence of the widening of the periodontal ligament. B. premature wear of occlusal surfaces. C. 2. increased mobility of teeth. In addition to analgesia. D. expansion. A. a posterior superior alveolar block. E. 4. patient movement during the exposure. 2. B. D. C. TMJ discomfort. B. a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit A. gain in moisture content. environmental. D. C. B. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal infiltration of the mesio-buccal root. epigenetic. cross linking agent.In alginate impression materials. 4. using a high speed film. retarder. 5. All of the above. catalyst.

D. B. Cold developer. The patient has loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival recession. C. The most likely diagnosis is A. Excessive developing time. 5. all of the above. A panoramic radiograph shows diffuse widening of the periodontal ligament. hyperparathyroidism. changes in gingival colour are present only in periodontitis. erythematous rash. nerve tissue. composite placement. D. Gorlin-Goltz’s syndrome. A. C. B. radiographic changes are present only in periodontitis. 2. C. D. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (3) (4) (5) (4) and (5) The difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is A. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. erythema multiforme. B. vascularity of the gingiva. 2. D. C. B. B. C. fibrous elements. cicatricial pemphigoid. A. scleroderma. D. E. C. Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome. . pulp capping procedures. 3. epithelial keratinization. E. D. Gardner’s syndrome. Multiple congenitally missing teeth may be characteristic of A. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. thickness of the epithelium. changes in gingival colour are present only in gingivitis. asthmatic attack. The first sign of a toxic reaction to an injected local anesthetic solution would be A. excitement. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the 1.A rubber dam should be used in A. Aging of the pulp is evidenced by a relative increase in 1. Improper safety light. C. ectodermal dysplasia. 4. advanced adult periodontitis. cell numbers. Over exposure. calcification. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. amalgam placement. cleidocranial dysplasia. E. B. A 52 year old patient presents with a limitation of mouth opening. 4. C. melanin pigmentation. E. . convulsions. B. radiographic changes are present only in gingivitis. vascularity. D.

All of the above. shortening of bleeding time. D. magnesium. lymphocytes. The inorganic ion which is the chief offender in hypertension is A. sodium. Problems arising from impacted teeth include A. C. proclined and laterally flared permanent lateral incisors. D. E. eosinophils. B. C. biocompatible. 4. C. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. potassium. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. D. B. C. basophils. compatible with the expansion of composite resins. premolar drifts distally. C. reduction of fever. All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid EXCEPT A. B. D. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. maxillary second molar erupts and moves forward. In composite resin restorations. B. C. C. B. pain. neutrophils. B. Bradykinin. D. delayed exfoliation of primary canines. predisposition to fracture. A. 3. Acetaminophen. midline central diastema. Acetylsalicylic acid. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. monocytes. B. Codeine. overbite increases. ammonium.A bacterial infection causes the most significant increase in A. D. A clinical diagnostic indication of palatal impaction of maxillary permanent canines does NOT include A. E. C. infection. D. D. lack of canine buccal bulges in a 10 year old patient. . suppression of inflammatory response. glass ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. neutral in colour. Which of the following lower(s) the body temperature increased by bacterial pyrogens? 1. 2. B. If a patient loses a maxillary first permanent molar before the age of 10 the A.

Increased overjet.0mm Which of the following. D. B. 3. B. Fracture. B. C. apical area of a devitalized tooth. The greatest period of cranial growth occurs between Which of the following is the most probable postoperative complication of intracoronal bleaching a tooth that has not been adequately obturated? A. enamel matrix. 2. E. C. increase in crevicular fluid. Internal resorption. C. Spironolactone. 10 and 12 years. C. increased vascular permeability. B. dilation of small blood vessels. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. if left untreated. 2. C. E. Methyldopa. E. C. Acute apical periodontitis. cementum. E. C. B. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. Phenothiazine. A. B. midline of the hard palate. 4. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. premolar area. Retrograde pulpitis. Discolouration. proliferation of small blood vessels. Maxillary crowding. birth and 5 years. Acute suppurative pulpitis. The most frequent location of a dentigerous cyst is the A. Reversible pulpitis. External cervical root resorption. D. Children receiving systemic fluoride will exhibit the highest fluoride concentration in the A. A.5mm maxillary “6” excess of 3. C. which of the following will elicit the most rapid response in a patient? . enamel surface. With respect to local anesthetic. dentino-enamel junction. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) All of the above. Reduced overjet. D. B. B. A Bolton relationship has determined a   maxillary “12” excess of 3. 6 and 8 years. D. 3. 14 and 16 years. Digitalis. What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. Deeper overbite. A. D. D. Propranolol. third molar area.The effects of plaque on vascularity of the gingival connective tissue result in 1. E. is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. symphysis of the mandible. 4. Which of the following drugs potentiates the action of sedative drugs? A. D.

Slow elimination. D. between l0 and 20 years of age. Pain. B. C. B. rise in body temperature above 39C (102ºF). facial swelling. C. B. thrombosis.5mm to lingual while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. acute periradicular abscess. suppurative periradicular periodontitis. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. C.A. During routine examination. after age 30. B. between 20 and 30 years of age. Rapid absorption. D. . surgical emphysema. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. before age 10. 4. shortness of breath. pitting edema of the ankles. edema. it is noted that a premolar is erupting ectopically 3. D. the most obvious clinical sign will be A. extract the ectopically erupting premolar. E. B. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. Which characteristic is NOT related to aphthous ulcers? A. E. C. B. epistaxis. C. 2. D. D. D. D. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis most frequently occurs A. hematoma. If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space. swelling in the submandibular area. Inflammation. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. Too large a dose. B. Slow biotransformation. The most appropriate management is to A. rhinophyma. 3. C. Pseudomembrane. Serous vesicles. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. embolism. E. Intravascular injection. acute periodontal abscess. A. B. D. In children. the most common cause of a fistula is a/an A. Swelling related to increased tissue fluid is called A. trismus. C. C. E. dentigerous cyst. At any age.

Salivary gland. The causative organism in most acute alveolar infections is A. correct the condition immediately surgically. Enamel. A daily dose of 80mg of acetylsalicylic acid is used for its A. B. mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles. anti-inflammatory function. lactobacillus. B. C. streptococcus. Pentobarbital. be sure the overjet is sufficient for retention. secondary dentin. correct the condition immediately orthodontically. D. mounting of the casts in the articulater. secondary cementum. C.The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is established at the A. actinomyces. primary dentin. C. E. Which of the following medications increases a patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis? A. B. unknown. D. C. analgesic properties. E. B. A 7 year old child has a lingually-locked maxillary permanent central incisor. D. processing of acrylic. Cyclosporine. staphylococcus. C. Class I cuspid relationship. D. There is sufficient room for the tooth to move labially into proper alignment. B. The etiology of erosion of the teeth is A. The most appropriate management is to A. None of the above. Class II cuspid relationship. B. excessive ingestion of citrus fruits. candida albicans. A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. B. C. C. . Oral mucosa. deficiency of vitamins A and D. D. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles. D. Class I molar relationship. monitor until all permanent anterior teeth have erupted. Pilocarpine. antipyretic effect. antiplatelet action. D. Ibuprofen. C. D. A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. Warfarine (Coumadin®). C. An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with A. hyperacidity of the saliva. Which of the following tissues is LEAST sensitive to ionizing radiation? A. D. pulp stones. C. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles. B. B. Bone. B. registration of condylar guidance. D. Class III cuspid relationship. registration of jaw relation records.

subgingivally. C. supragingivally. silver cone. estrogen. 4. spontaneous ache relieved by cold. Which of the following maxillary incisor angulations complicates a functional appliance construction bite? A. A small. zinc oxyphosphate. The most likely diagnosis is A. a radicular cyst. possibility of intravascular administration. When probing a healthy gingival sulcus with a 20g force. C. B. D. D. coronal to the junctional epithelium. pulpal necrosis. . Proclined lateral incisors. to treat moderately deep pockets with mild intrabony defects. B. The material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary tooth is A. at the level of the junctional epithelium. B. Whenever possible. gutta percha. hydrocortisone. A. a periapical granuloma. zinc-oxide eugenol. periapical radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is clinically asymptomatic and responds normally to vitality tests is most likely A. B. E. C. on cementum. D. a cracked tooth. B. apical to the junctional epithelium. periapical cemental dysplasia. reversible pulpitis. C. D. C. C. Retroclined central incisors. Retroclined lateral incisors. thyroxin. B. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull. D. a vertical root fracture. to eliminate the suprabony pockets when the pocket wall is fibrous and firm. 2. well-circumscribed. C. A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. chronic apical abscess.Decreased alveolar bone density is associated with decreased levels of A. Gingivectomy is recommended A. E. D. C. the tip of the periodontal probe is most likely located A. the margins of a restoration should be placed 1. parathyroid hormone. B. Aspiration is carried out prior to a local anaesthetic injection in order to reduce the A. E. B. C. when the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction. sclerosing osteitis. on enamel. possibility of paraesthesia. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. paper point medicated with formocresol. Proclined central incisors. D. B. 3. D. at the level of the supra crestal fibers. toxicity of local anaesthetic. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

approach 45 degrees. D. a longer mixing time. be eliminated after the FPD has been made. mucous membrane. In fixed partial denture (FPD) fabrication. Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption? A. B. buccinator muscle. Widening of the periodontal ligament space. B. D. 4. B. D. Apicoectomy. C. B. Pulpectomy. C. precursors of sarcoma. The (long) buccal nerve supplies all of the cheek structures EXCEPT the Which of the following radiographic findings are attributable to trauma from occlusion? 1. D. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. B. skin. 2. Widening of the lamina dura. movement of a distal extension base away from the tissues. C. warm mixing water. be eliminated before the FPD is made.Oral peripheral giant cell lesions of the periodontium are usually considered to be A. central incisors below their apices. Vertical destruction of the interdental septum. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating agent. central and lateral incisors above their apices. B. The most practical method to significantly reduce the setting time of stone and plaster is to use A. B. incisors above their apices. malignant neoplasms. Narrowing in width of the periodontal ligament space. Pulp capping. Pulpotomy. The function of an indirect retainer is to prevent The radiographic image of the incisive foramen is located between the roots of the maxillary A. tuberculomas. C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. B. movement of the denture base toward the tissues. D. significant premature occlusal contacts on teeth other than the abutment teeth should A. D. D. not be eliminated. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. occlusal interferences. A. A. be chamfered. C. approach 90 degrees. non-neoplastic granulomatous lesions. C. benign neoplasms. 3. C. be bevelled. E. B. C. C. buccal gingiva of the mandibular molars. A. D. D. be eliminated while the FPD is being made. . central and lateral incisors below their apices. E. tissue resorption.

respiratory depression. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region. C. D. E. normally developing occlusion. B. E. The most common complication of a venipuncture is In the mixed dentition. palpitations. maxilla. C. B. Class III malocclusion. B. Erythromycin per os. degreasing with acetone. . A. bacterial infection. blood clotting defect. acid etching with phosphoric acid. A. D. Clindamycin per os. B. 4. Intravenous ampicillin. D. roughening the surface with a diamond bur. Which is the most appropriate prophylactic antibiotic for a patient with mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation undergoing a surgical dental procedure? A. C. hematoma. C. Class II malocclusion. syncope. Intravenous administration of epinephrine results in 1. B. free nerve endings terminate on odontoblasts at this region. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. acid etching with hydrofluoric acid. Intravenous vancomycin. thrombophlebitis. D. Amoxicillin per os. increased systolic pressure. D. embolus. sandblasting. B. C. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction. an end-to-end first permanent molar relationship is indicative of A. E. A high neutrophil count is indicative of a/an A. C. mandible. decrease in antibody production. alveolar bone. ideal molar occlusion. The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because A. palate. B. D. increased heart rate. 2. The preconditioning of an all-ceramic restoration prior to bonding is achieved by A. D. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells. C. allergic reaction. B.If a child's teeth do not form. the primary effect will be on the growth of the A. 3.

hard palate. When preparing a cavity in a primary molar. Prolonged clotting time. D. zygoma. Calculus. B. 40% 60%. soft palate. B. 5. Macrophages. Prolonged bleeding time. E. D. which of the following laboratory findings is typical? A. C. The incidence of a second mesiobuccal canal in the maxillary first molar is A. Carabelli cusp. C. Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. base and restoration.Excessive forces used to move teeth will cause 1. C. D. stimulate secondary dentine formation. C. B. The primary stress bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the A. D. Cemento-enamel junction. 3. E. decrease tooth discolouration. C. 2. C. 4. A. The most appropriate treatment is A. 4. a tooth to move faster. B. 2. B. Plasma cells. alveolar ridge. B. Marginal ridge. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. extraction and space maintenance. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. decrease marginal leakage. damage to the periodontal tissues. bone to be added uniformly on all surfaces. D. which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. 4. D. 3. A. root elongation. A. Prothrombin time 30 of normal. E. 3. D. pulpectomy and restoration. . pulp capping with calcium hydroxide. 100%. 80%. The use of cavity varnish under an amalgam restoration will 1. a base and restoration. Neutrophils. B. Abnormally low blood platelet count. there is a small mechanical exposure of one of the pulp horns. On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth. have a bactericidal effect. Cemental tear. C. (1) (3) (4) (2) and (4) (2) (4) (5) (2) and (5) In a Factor VIII hemophiliac. There is a slight hemorrhage and the dentin surrounding the exposure is sound. Lymphocytes. D. C. a tooth to move slower.

C. C. maxillary protrusion. facial height. The primary consideration in the management of a patient with multiple deep abfraction lesions is A. Lateral periodontal. add additional water. World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. D. D. 10 . C. add potassium sulfate. D. B. D. D. An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. teeth with open apices. Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in children under the age of 12 years is most likely to be successful for A.The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the A. 4. extend spatulation time. number of bony walls. 30 . A. B. 65 . C. 3. presence of a furcation involvement. E. D. add a small amount of borax. teeth that are symptomatic. provision of an occlusal splint. occlusal adjustment. E. . Dentigerous. B. 20 . B. Fainting. measurement of the defect. E. B. Rash. location of the epithelial attachment.20 years. The intrusion of a permanent central incisor can cause 1. mandibular angle. root resorption. Radiographs of a periodontally-related osseous defect can be used to confirm the Which of the following is a sign of local anesthetic overdose? A. overbite. use cold water. Periradicular. tooth brushing modification. The best means of extending the working time of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is to A. diet counselling. Wheezing. loss of pulp vitality. B. upper incisor inclination. Residual. C. C. laceration of the periodontal membrane. necrotic pulps. D. E. (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (5) (2) (4) (5) All of the above.50 years. None of the above. E. C. C. over 75 years.30 years. C. Convulsions. discoloration of the tooth. 2. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size. Swelling. 5. A. B. D. ankylosis. D. B.75 years. B.

B. D. drainage. B. 2. 3. C. Sjögren’s syndrome. may remain for years with no significant resorption. The main purpose of flux in soldering is to Hydrolysis of anesthetic salts is facilitated by A. D.0. the pterygoid plexus to the inferior ophthalmic vein. A. D. 4. should be extracted. E. . will undergo normal root resorption. are taking anticoagulants. prevent recrystallization and grain growth.A patient with pain. C. supportive therapy. D. and B. B. D. lipophilic properties of the nerve fibres. D.0 and 7. is more susceptible to dental caries. A. E. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. acute bacterial sialadenitis. fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has A. Mumps. E. B. A. A. D. In the management of a patient with an acute odontogenic infection. B. a tissue pH between 5. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. sarcoidosis. None of the above. sialolithiasis. C. C. tetanus immunization. Upper face infections can communicate with the cavernous sinus through A. B. B. 24 to 48 hours. are over age 80. a tissue pH below 5.0. 1 to 2 weeks. A primary molar. elimination of the cause. D. should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. The minimum time to wait before placing composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. dissolve surface oxides and lower the melting range. prevent oxidation and lower the melting range of the solder.0. 4 to 5 weeks. 1 to 2 hours. the angular vein to the superior ophthalmic vein. 3. B. C. in the absence of its permanent successor. C. C. a tissue pH above 7. dissolve surface oxides and prevent further oxidation. A. Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in patients who 1. 2. have unrepaired cleft palates. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. C. the treatment should include: 1.

C. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. A-beta. chronic periradicular periodontitis. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. C. Periapical. . D. A-alpha. D. C. D. Pulp vitality. B. Panoramic. B. B. B. What is the maximum number of cartridges (1. Which radiograph best depicts the buccal cortex of the mandible? A. E. the most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure is to use A. Decreasing the mixing time. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. Radiography. Percussion. D. a lead apron. ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. A. collimation. C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. In dental radiography. 3. Bite-wing. added filtration. Palpation. 4.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic solution that can be administered without exceeding a total dose of 300mg? A. B. A-delta and C. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast vesicles. Occlusal. The sensory nerve fibers that are associated with this form of pain are A. 2. 2 4 6 8 10 A patient complains of lip and tongue hypersensitivity (allodynea) following intake of hot. Using warmer water. A-gamma. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. B.Which of the following tests is most useful in differentiating between an acute apical abscess and an acute periodontal abscess? A. D. C. spicy food. D. traumatic injury. high speed film. Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. excessive orthodontic forces. B. Enamel pearls form when A. C. C. E. C.

permit eruption or elongation of teeth. B. 4. D. formation of collagen. Endodontic instrumentation beyond apex. E. C. B. B. internal maxillary artery. fluctuant swelling. C. B. adhesive resin cement. phosphate cement. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. analgesics. A rubber dam drain may be placed and sutured to assist drainage. C. a patient would develop seventh nerve paralysis if the injection was made into the A. E. A. retromandibular vein. 2. Postoperative suture removal. absorb moisture. adapt the matrix to the gingival margin. B. cementum. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. During matrix placement for a Class II cavity preparation. D. removal of caries and placement of a sedative restoration. 3. dentin. A. After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection. antibiotic therapy. 2. separate the teeth. reduce pocket formation. E. phenolic cement. C. Relief of the pressure and pain is immediate after treatment. E. C. C.Which of the following is/are true statements about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess? 1. Making an alginate impression. C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an A. . pterygoid plexus of veins. E. B. aid in the creation of a contact. D. All of the above. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. Inferior alveolar nerve block. D. The most appropriate treatment for a child with a primary tooth that caused a severe. extraction of the tooth. retroparotid space. The procedure is only indicated with a localized. osteoid. B. D. reduce unfavorable forces on teeth. Which of the following procedures requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve? A. E. A removable full-arch occlusal splint is used to A. 3. throbbing toothache the previous night is A. a wedge is placed to 1. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is not always possible. Vitamin C is essential for A. resin modified glass ionomer cement. D. C. Restoration of occlusal caries. B. D. allow for individual tooth movement. 4. D. internal pterygoid muscle. polyalkenoic acid cement.

B. C. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. C. difficulty achieving anesthesia. B. B12. E. intraligamentary. can appear cystic radiographically. 3. 2. affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A major reason for NOT removing a third molar with acute pericoronitis is the risk of For a patient with cardiovascular disease.3. are metastatic lesions. middle superior alveolar. C. 3. E. C. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. Nance appliance. increasing the parallelism of walls. Hemangiomas of the jaws A. placing a gingival bevel. adding an occlusal dovetail. osteomyelitis. lengthening the axial walls. quadhelix appliance. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The tooth must be extracted. . C. local anesthesia A. never occur in bone. D. are malignant. A. None of the above. 4. K. D. Diabetes mellitus. the most appropriate local anesthetic technique would be A. B. A. 4. There is an acute periradiuclar abscess on tooth 1. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. D. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. D. spread of infection. B. The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by 1. 2. D. vestibular infiltration. B.The appliance best suited to achieve rapid maxillary expansion (palatine suture stretching) is a A. E. bacteremia. is responsible for bacteremia. Cyclic neutropenia. B. D. C. C. C. fixed Hyrax appliance. removable appliance with an expansion screw. Which of the following systemic diseases does/do NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis? 1. D. B. infraorbital. A. C. In addition to a palatal injection.

3. C. excessive thyroid hormone. maxillary curve of Wilson.Myxedema is associated with A. D. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. provide retention for a cast crown. C. E. cortical drift. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy. A cast post and core is used to 1. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. insufficient thyroid hormone. The most common cause of malocclusion with a Class I molar relationship is A. Hypoglossal nerve XII. Down's syndrome. D. E. D. C. redirect the forces of occlusion. molar sagittal relationship. strengthen a weakened tooth. Trigeminal nerve V. 4. area relocation. fracture. E. translatory growth. Facial nerve VII. The highest incidence of congenitally missing lateral incisors is most likely seen in a patient with A. a thumbsucking habit. C. mandibular anterior lack of space. A. C. C. mandibular curve of Wilson. A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. B. improper eruption of permanent first molars. Vincent’s angina. 4. B. B. D. C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. dentoalveolar abscess. mandibular curve of Spee. D. B. excessive parathyroid hormone. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called A. Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow 1. The occlusal parameter that is most useful to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the A. insufficient parathyroid hormone. Which nerve is involved? A. 3. B. D. provide intraradicular venting. congenital heart disease. D. B. A. radiotherapy. C. D. . unilateral cleft lip and palate. 2. crossbite in the posterior segments. B. remodeling. hyperthyroidism.

B. In a child. E. positive chemotaxis. D. C. Down's syndrome. C. B. a fixed expansion quadhelix is used for treatment. Von Recklinghausen's disease. Progesterone. . C. D. In achieving hemostasis. D. orthodontic tooth movement. A draining fistula of short duration related to a tooth undergoing endodontic therapy requires A. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium. surgical excision. B. C. Estradiol. Prednisolone. A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome. D. D. correction of a bilateral posterior constriction of the maxillary arch has the WORST long term prognosis for stability if A. C. Acquired pellicle A. antibiotics. calcium. chloride. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone Which of the following steroids can produce Cushing's syndrome? A. C. potassium. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by interfering with ionic movement of A. D. B. hyperparathyroidism. Testosterone. sodium. irrigation of canals. there is a functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. no special treatment. the maxillary posterior teeth are centred on the alveolar process. accelerated healing. Diethylstilbestrol. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction. B. B. E. D. B. normal occlusal function. increased vascular permeability. B. Gardner's syndrome.Hypercementosis at the root apex is often associated with A. B. takes 24 hours to establish. D. is difficult to remove. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation. does not contain elastic fibres. a transient vasoconstriction. C. there is a history of prolonged thumb sucking. C. is composed of salivary glycoproteins. external cold application produces Multiple neurofibromatosis and "café au lait" spots on the skin are typical of A. Paget's disease. E. D. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone. C. A. causes inflammation. hypothyroidism.

cephalometric. decreasing expansion. Osteosarcoma. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action. C. C. nitrous oxide may 1. B. All of the above. D. D. Fibrous dysplasia. D. C. retarding setting rate. D. cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. photographs. cause the patient to sweat. produce numbness of the extremities. 4. E. C. have a horizontal handle. A lateral cephalometric projection. B. The custom tray used in making a final complete denture impression must A. Which of the following bone lesions of the mandible is/are malignant? 1. B. A. A computer tomograph (CT) of the mandible. family history. chemical irritation. photographs. extend to the bottom of the vestibule. 2. photographs. D. produce signs of inherent myocardial depression. . 3. 3. D. B. Calculus contributes to periodontal disease through A. cephalometric. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. panoramic and periapical radiographs. Ewing's tumor. increasing early strength. B. When used for conscious sedation. photographs. be stored in water until ready for use. The diagnostic information for a 10 year old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include A. family history. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. 2. A decrease in the particle size of the amalgam alloy will affect the amalgam by A. 4.Which of the following radiographic investigations results in the lowest effective dose? A. C. mechanical irritation. B. bacterial plaque retention. increasing flow. D. A panoramic radiograph. create adequate space for the impression material. Osteochondroma. panoramic and periapical radiographs. An 18 film intraoral series. C.

E. and with open proximal contacts is A. B. E. type of exudate. Herpetic gingivostomatitis. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. several months prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt. Nitrous oxide. a periradicular abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by A. The most appropriate radiographic examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies. C. All of the above. Fluothane. The best time to begin interceptive orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion is A. Chloroform. after skeletal maturity. Cyclopropane. In the early stage. 4. D. pain. a pair of posterior bite-wings. E. C. When used ALONE. the most important emergency procedure is to A. A. D. D. . tenderness to percussion. C. B. maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. D. B. D. B. which of the following agents will not produce satisfactory anesthesia? A. spontaneous bleeding. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. prescribe appropriate antibiotics. D. immediately following complete eruption of the deciduous dentition. C. They are impacted. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. B. B. Leukoplakia. ulceration. Which one of the following oral conditions is NOT caused by a virus? A. 3. 2. radiographic examination. E. atrophic thinning of the oral mucosa. Pain. B. C. D. Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for malignancy include When an acute periapical abscess is present. thoroughly ream the root canal. perform immediate pulpectomy and apical curettage.Which of the following isare (an) indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. D. C. C. establish drainage. necrosis. B. Recurrent pericoronitis. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. accompanied by pain and a fluctuant swelling. C. as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed. no radiographic examination.

causes vasoconstriction. B. The most common cause of trigeminal neuralgia is A. mandibular second molar. B. D. Soft diet. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. 4. periodontal ligament invasion. having a porous surface. 3. A. Application of cold. C. Rest. C. C. injury to cranial nerve V during dental treatment. maxillary canine. C. A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of injury could be a potential analgesic because ATP A. In a normal eruption pattern. thermal sensitivity. liver upon hydroxylation. D. Calculus contributes to gingival inflammation by A. inhibits nociceptors. show decreased flow when the tin mercury phase is increased. activates nociceptors. intestinal mucosa upon absorption. which of the following would be CONTRAINDICATED? A. pulp exposures. maxillary first molar. all of the above. Immediately after the extraction of a tooth. cranial nerve V neuropathy in diabetes. mandibular canine. Frequent rinsing of the socket. D. a viral infection of cranial nerve V. prevents vasoconstriction. C. C. Analgesics. C. cracks in the teeth. having cytotoxic bacterial products. contain nickel to increase the yield strength. 2. compression of the cranial nerve V sensory root. maxillary second molar. D. C. B. B. B. E. Dental amalgam restorations A. B. E. B. contain zinc to reduce galvanic corrosion. Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of 1. D. D. D. E.Vitamin D is activated in the A. . the last primary tooth to be lost is the A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the sun. kidney upon hydroxylation. B. show decreased corrosion and marginal breakdown when the copper tin phase is increased. promoting bacterial colonization.

denture porosity is most likely to appear in the A. C. 4. A. Oral hairy leukoplakia. The electric pulp tester might be of some value in determining whether 1. D. Epstein-Barr virus is accociated with A. B. flexible enough to permit easy insertion. Infectious mononucleosis. 3. 2. B. palatal area. follicular cyst. D. shingles. E. B. E. B. 2. fibroblasts. C. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp. rubeola. completely replace the missing hard and soft tissue. B. In the processing of methyl methacrylate. B. Fixed partial denture pontics should A. C. herpetic gingivostomatitis. periapical cemental dysplasia. 3. D. periradicular granuloma. D. C. parallel to the root surface. D. buccal surface. B. a pulp polyp consists of 1. a mass of collagenous fibres. carefully polished on the interior. . E. have minimal soft tissue coverage. Shingles. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. C. Chickenpox. C. rigid. B. thickest portion. polymorphonuclear leucocytes. held in place by the patient. 4. D. periradicular abscess. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following? 1. 2. A circumscribed radiolucent area at the apex of a vital mandibular incisor is indicative of a C. A. the pulp is vital or nonvital. with a firm lateral motion. have a concave surface touching the mucosa. Histologically. the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic. 3. A. The periodontal probe should be inserted into the sulcus A. periradicular cyst. 5. A. D. there is a partial or total pulpitis. 4. Russell bodies. D. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above. E. with a firm pushing motion.Impression trays should be A. C. infectious mononucleosis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. hide the porcelain-metal junction on their gingival aspect. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. D. thinnest portion. proliferating capillaries.

The predominant organism(s) associated with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Determined by the extent of the carious lesion. D. palatine bone and the zygoma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. pallor. 4. D. emphysema. D.A physical sign of impending syncope is A. C. C. C. Crohn’s disease. Prevotella intermedia. She has tremors. penicillin V. D. C. E. C. The outline form for a Class V composite resin preparation is: A. B. asthma. rhinophyma. You would suspect A. B. vancomycin. the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the A. . She complains of weight loss and diarrhea. Iron deficiency anemia. B. concentration of fluoride in public water supplies. In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography. D. elevation of blood pressure. cephalexin. A 37 year old female patient presents for routine dental treatment. Her skin is smooth and warm. Determined by the facial height of contour. cardiac insufficiency. D. C. degree or severity of mottled enamel. Viral hepatitis. B. 2. degree of protection offered against dental caries by fluoride supplements. D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. E. maxillary sinus. the drug of choice is A. Hyperparathyroidism. In an infection caused by non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus. opposition to fluoridation by citizens' groups. Helicobacter pilori. Hyperthyroidism. E. B. tetracycline. B. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. fast pulse. palpitations and excessive perspiration. D. Extended proximally to the line angles of the tooth. C. All of the above. A. A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. C. Porphyromonas gingivalis. B. B. total amount of fluoride ingested. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla. The Fluorosis Index is used to measure the A. 3. Extended 1mm subgingivally.

number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted. C. D. B. 4. B. A metal in the wrought condition differs from the same metal in the cast condition in that A. excessive bottle use. widening of the periodontal space. Percussion. lack of systemic fluoride. C. Radiography. A. All of the above. D.For prevention of cross infection. the development of inflammation in response to plaque accumulation is A. reduced. B. B. be parallel to each other. The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show 1. B. Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling A. None of the above. eruption time of a given tooth. . B. C. E. C. throughout life. C. B. Polysiloxane. until the end of mixed dentition. poorly formed enamel. When smokers are compared to nonsmokers. The term "dental age" refers to the A. converge toward the occlusal surface. All of the above. Cervical caries on the maxillary primary incisors in a 12-month old child is most likely caused by A. Polyether. 2. C. state of dental maturation. D. increased. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in deciduous teeth should A. which of the following impression materials can be treated with a disinfecting spray solution/agent? A. the yield strength and hardness are increased. the same. B. the grains are deformed and elongated. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth. D. B. not follow the direction of the enamel rods. a circumscribed radiolucency. C. Pulp vitality. diverge toward the occlusal surface. 3. Palpation. D. Polysulfide. D. D. lack of calcium during pregnancy. through the primary dentition. Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate). recrystallization can occur. E. if heated sufficiently. D. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. calcification of the periodontal membrane. Which of the following tests is most useful in differentiating between an acute periradicular abscess and an acute periodontal abscess? A. loss of lamina dura. C.

rheumatic heart disease. B. Difficulty in seating a stainless steel crown following the preparation of a primary molar is most likely a result of A. antimalarials. B. B. The temporalis muscle attaches to the lateral surface of the coronoid process. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. cardiac arrhythmia. D. “ledging” at the gingival area of the preparation. B. impingement of gingival tissue under the crown margin. E. A. show syneresis. Dark chocolate. D. D. The genial tubercles are attachments for the anterior bellies of the digastric muscles. 4. shrink when stored in air.When a patient fails to demonstrate effective plaque control during initial periodontal therapy for moderate periodontitis. antifungals. D. B. D. D. the best course of action is A. The angle formed by the junction of the ramus and the body of the mandible is an acute one. D. expand when stored in water. C. All of the above. C. C. high blood pressure. C. Cheese. C. The mandibular foramen lies in the centre of the mandibular ramus both in the vertical and horizontal planes. Alginate hydrocolloids A. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (1) and (3) (1) (3) (4) Which of the following foods is the most cariogenic? A. E. Toffee. corticosteroids. C. Which of the following statements are true concerning the adult mandible? 1. Most cases of erosive oral lichen planus are effectively treated with A. B. antibacterials. an apically positioned flap. A. coronary artery disease. The characteristics of "group function" occlusion are: A patient who uses nitroglycerine has A. 2. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. gingivectomy. Jam. inadequate lingual reduction. 3. C. supraeruption of the opposing molar. C. cytotoxics. D. gingival curettage. B. B. continued initial therapy. asthma. . The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion.

buccal mucosa. higher kVp. E. remove K+ ions from saliva. Extruded teeth. gingiva. E. C. Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the A. C. Incomplete polymerization of composite resin will occur when the resin comes in contact with A. glass ionomer cements contain A. zinc oxide and distilled water. C. zinc-oxide-eugenol base. insert a habit-breaking appliance. Systemic evaluation. C. You would A. B. D. B. D. Wide occlusal tables resulting from excessive wear. D. Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration? A. C. D. C. C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid. One function of the striated ducts in the parotid and submandibular glands is to A. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. add bicarbonate ions to saliva. provide needed support to abutment teeth during a period of added stress. collimation of the X-ray beam. glass ionomer lining. In the analysis of occlusion. C. polycarboxylate cement. E. Clasps should be designed so that upon insertion or removal of a partial denture the reciprocal arms contact the abutment teeth when the retentive arms pass over the height of contour in order to A. C. zinc-phosphate cement. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. add Na+ ions to saliva. tongue. An 11-year old child has an open bite caused by active thumbsucking. D. Laboratory tests. B.The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is A. encourage the child to accept help in discontinuing the habit and observe periodically. help form a hypertonic saliva ( relative to serum ). History of the oral lesion. All of the above. which of the following is potentially damaging? A. refer to an orthodontist. D. D. calcium-hydroxide lining. proper filtration. B. refer to a psychologist for evaluation. B. D. add salivary amylase to saliva. assure complete seating of the framework. B. prevent distortion of the clasps. Cytological smear. B. . B. high speed film. Marginal ridge discrepancies. Deep overbite with minimal overjet. Generally. floor of the mouth. B.

dissipate vertical forces. endocrine deficiency. B. C. Which mucogingival surgical procedure does NOT increase the zone of attached gingiva? A. Coronally positioned flap. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary. D. D. tendon of the temporalis muscle. act as a stress-breaker. B. B. A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. D. is found only at the apices of non-vital teeth. tetracycline therapy. hypoglycemia. C. connect rigidly the component parts of the partial denture. carotid sinus reflex. high fluoride intake. E. C. a hyperactive thyroid. B. fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. early osteoarthritis. masseter muscle. nocturnal bruxism. Hard palate. The most likely cause is A. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. None of the above. occurs in infants. D. trauma to the maxillary primary central incisor. C.A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. Laterally positioned flap. C. Soft palate. buccinator muscle. mandibular subluxation. adrenal insufficiency. The most likely cause is A. B. atrophy of the posterior pituitary. Free autogenous gingival graft. hyperplasia of the parathyroids. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. dietary deficiency. D. B. D. B. Gigantism is caused by A. Subepithelial connective tissue graft for root coverage. D. C. E. None of the above. Which of the following mucosae is normally keratinized? A. hyperglycemia. C. is caused by a virus. The shape of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is determined primarily by the A. The major connector of a removable partial denture should be designed to A. B. is a non-lipid reticulo-endotheliosis. A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely due to a/an A. Ventral tongue. D. syncope. C. E. Lateral tongue. C. . B. Eosinophilic granuloma A.

2. prolong the action of the anesthetic agent. declomycin. D. assist in post-operative healing. . the occlusion. Genial tubercle. E. C. Class II Division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. B. greater absorption when given orally. increase tensile strength of an amalgam restoration. overextended borders of the partial. cleidocranial dysostosis. Gingivoaxial. Pierre Robin syndrome. Which line angle is NOT present in a Class V amalgam cavity preparation? A. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. Coronoid process. strengthen the amalgam. aureomycin. erythromycin. Occlusoaxial. Zygomatic process. cleft palate. B. Mesioaxial. inadequate polishing of the framework. B. If a patient is allergic to penicillin. slower renal excretion. Malar process. B. assist hemostasis at the site of injection. a selfthreading pin will A.Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution will 1. D. E. streptomycin. E. improper path of insertion. C. None of the above. ampicillin. 3. C. Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? A. C. ectodermal dysplasia. B. B. D. C. A. cause pulpal inflammation. When placed into sound dentin. D. The most likely cause is A. E. C. 4. D. decrease absorption of the anesthetic. Class II Division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. Distoaxial. Which of the following structures affects the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture? A. broader antibacterial spectrum. C. B. Which of the following congenital problems most often results in a malocclusion? A. C. a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. greater resistance to penicillinase. increase the retention of an amalgam restoration. D. B. D. At his first post insertion appointment. B. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit. Axiopulpal. E. Mylohyoid ridge. E. the alternative antibiotic would be A. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. C. D. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A.

direct access for thorough debridement. delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. The benefits of flap curettage include A. place amalgam restorations over the next few months. Which of the following can increase the chances of successful osseointegration of a dental implant? 1. A. None of the above. E. A. 2. C. restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months. a primordial cyst will show A. D. 2. 4. B. A good initial stability of the implant.The initial treatment of choice for a 16 year old patient. All of the above. Radiographically. image definition. rough surface. 3. D. C. D. A. definite finish line. a radiolucency. E. B. C. is to place the patient on a preventive regime and to A. space for the veneer material. mixed radiolucency and radiopacity. E. increased opportunity for reattachment. B. radiographic contrast. C. 2. scattered radiation. Proper collimation of the useful x-ray beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce 1. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. . 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. pocket reduction. B. C. a radiolucency around the crown of an impacted tooth. D. 4. C. who presents with multiple extensive carious lesions. A. An atraumatic surgical approach. The availability of dense cancellous bone. B. and B. D. excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. 3. E. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. B. Immediate loading of the implant. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a radiolucency containing multiple rudimentary teeth. patient dose.

the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. but also A. The major disadvantage of zinc phosphate used to cement crowns is the A. B. improve convenience form. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) (2) (3) (5) Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. C. . Increased strength. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. low crushing strength. B. C. E. 4. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. debridement of fracture site. B. the fronto-maxillary suture. Increased hardness. The binder in casting investments not only strengthens the investment. D. 5. increases the thermal expansion of the mold. B. incision at fracture site. The principles of closed fracture management are 1. eliminate the need for internal retention. B. D. 3. 4. D. the mandible.For an acid-etched Class III composite resin. tends to reduce both hygroscopic and thermal expansions. C. development of heat during setting. lack of edge strength. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. Corrosion resistance. B. change the catalyst/base ratio. cartilage. the alveolus. add oleic acid. Pressure and tension have little effect on growth of A. increase the surface area for etching. reduction of fracture. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. D. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. aid in finishing. 3. reduce mixing time. C. C. C. restoration of occlusion. The best way to increase the working time of a polyvinylsiloxane is to A. D. refrigerate the material. B. immobilization of fracture. Lowered specific gravity. 2. creates a reducing atmosphere in the mold. D. A. pulp irritation. A. contributes to the overall expansion of the mold. 2. E. C.

2. Suture removal. A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00. E. Circular. typical features of bone involvement are 1. D. staphylococci. B. viruses.The organisms associated with a carious pulpitis are A. B. The blood pressure is 80/60. C. grow to large size and remain within their capsule. A toxic reaction to lidocaine. 3. B. C. Which of the following fibre groups are attached to bone? 1. The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. The respiration is slow. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. An impending adrenal insufficiency. A. spirochetes. Mandibular block anesthetic injection. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above. 4. renal stones. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. The radial pulse is slow and steady. E. C. 3. D. D. B. 4. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic. D. reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. Taking periapical radiographs. invade and metastasize. A. Oblique. subperiosteal erosion of the phalanges. Apical. Alveolar crest. 2. In hyperparathyroidism. C. streptococci. Impressions for partial dentures. osteopetrosis. remain localized. B. D. 2. D. E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. C. Incipient syncope. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. Which procedure requires antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial endocarditis? A.000. A characteristic of malignant tumors is the ability to A. A. C. B. B. C. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. pathological fractures. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. All of the above. grow slowly. completely eliminates skin bacteria. D. . 4.

inadequate condensing forces. decreased overjet. 2. 130/100. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. D. Following orthodontic rotation of teeth. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. Horizontal. Lidocaine. C. Diagonal. C. B. mandibular canine. An open proximal contact on an amalgam restoration could have been caused by 1. Organ transplant. C. mandibular second molar. E. A. B. D. B. B. D. E. C. Metabisulfite. Epinephrine. 175/95. approach 45 degrees. approach 90 degrees. C. C. be bevelled. inadequate wedging. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations. Valvular heart disease. Persistent odontogenic fistula. C. Immunosuppressive therapy. loss of intercanine space. D. overtightening the matrix band. .The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually the A. increased intercanine space. which of the periodontal ligament fibres are most commonly associated with relapse? A. Supracrestal. 4. 3. D. B. Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. B. C. The extraction of a maxillary deciduous central incisor at the age of 6 years will cause A. D. be chamfered. 185/94. Which of the following constituents of a local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to be allergenic? A. Which of the following would be considered normal blood pressure for a healthy 75 year old? A. Hydrochloric acid. 138/86. Cardiac prosthesis. maxillary first molar. Oblique. D. B. maxillary canine. no change in intercanine space.

E. cell-cell adhesions. The purpose of a temporary restoration in an anterior tooth is to The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should A. C. B. intercellular spaces. Mikulicz's disease. prevent tooth movement. The protective role of junctional epithelium is aided by its increased number of For a patient with complete dentures. be 2mm into the dentin. be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth. D. D. surgically reducing the retromolar pad. E. Mandibular incisors. C. C. B. maintain aesthetics. protect dentin and pulp. prevent gingival inflammation and recession. D. Mandibular posteriors. E. The central action of caffeine is principally on the Which of the following teeth are at greatest risk for developing root caries? A. surgically reducing the maxillary tuberosity. medulla. not covering the tuberosity with the maxillary base. B. A. Mandibular growth A. 3. D. A. B. collagen fibres. avoiding covering the pad with the mandibular base. D. is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. Maxillary posteriors.Which of the following is/are associated with xerostomia? 1. C. B. Atropine administration. B. 2. D. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. C. B. hypothalamus. cell layers. 4. C. D. Maxillary incisors. corpus callosum. C. . cerebral cortex. D. spinal cord. A. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp plane. slope apically from mesial to distal. Sjögren's syndrome. Acute anxiety state. All of the above. insufficient space between the maxillary tuberosity and the retromolar pad will require A. B. A.

density of the object. coupled with labioversion of the maxillary incisors. collimate the useful beam of rays. thrombocythemia. Space closure following early primary tooth loss occurs most frequently in which of the following areas? A. D. C. None of the above. D. A. tertiary dentin. E. E. primary dentin. D. None of the above. E. kilovoltage. D. maxillary protrusion. C. prevent secondary radiation. D. only mildly abnormal. 4. Maxillary first premolar. after 24 hours. conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. D. C. B. D. 3. A lead diaphragm in X-ray units serves to A. overbite. C. Mandibular second premolar. 3. C. has open gingival embrasures. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Maxillary lateral incisor. A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. B. milliamperage. The term applied to a low white blood cell count is A. B. thrombocytopenia. B. B. B. severely abnormal. immediately. bilateral. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 2. 2. facial height. gingival surface is concave and adapts closely to the ridge. Mandibular central incisor. pulp stones. B. All of the above. D.Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer to a malocclusion in which the abnormal molar relationship was A. 4. C. exposure time. mandibular angle. after 30 minutes. produce a more homogeneous X-ray beam. D. secondary cementum. leukocytosis. gingival surface is convex in all directions. A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that it(s) 1. The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the A. unilateral. E. C. B. upper incisor inclination. C. . leukopenia. A. If an impression were taken with a mercaptan rubber base material of teeth exhibiting severe external undercuts a stone model should be poured A. E. The depth of penetration of any object by xrays is determined by 1.

permit use of the long cone technique. E. C. C. The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray beam is to A. A lesion extending into dentin on a bitewing radiograph. permit the use of lower kilovoltage during exposure. congenital deformity of tissue. Reduce bleeding during the surgery. D. D. pigmented teeth. B. B. reduce exposure time. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint? A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. Fordyce's granules. B.Two separate root canals are LEAST likely to be found in the A. filter out useless short rays. maxillary first molar. A brown spot lesion with a hard surface. palatal root of the maxillary first molar. C. . A. B. ptyalism (excessive saliva). mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar. Increase the width of keratinized tissue. mandibular central incisor. Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of A. C. B. C. A small cavitated lesion with exposed dentin. E. Increase the attachment levels. D. Trauma. C. supernumerary incisors. B. B. blue sclerae. D. E. Intra-articular injection of steroids. herpes simplex. D. C. Chronic subluxation. Which of the following is consistent with the features of an arrested carious lesion in an occlusal fissure? A. submaxillary cellulitis. maxillary central incisor. C. maxillary first premolar. erythema multiforme. D. association with hairy tongue. Which of the following is a reason to perform initial periodontal debridement before periodontal surgery? A. reduce the diameter of the primary beam. Reduce infrabony pockets. D. mandibular canine. atrophic filiform papillae. Anterior disc dislocation. predominance in elderly patients. A white spot lesion with a frosty surface. mandibular second molar. Systemic or topical cortisone therapy is used in the treatment of Geographic tongue is characterized by A. peg lateral incisors. C. D. B. B. D. Space closure is LEAST LIKELY to occur following the loss of the deciduous A.

C. B. when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics. mesognathic relationship. B. D. D. D. protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue. Needle deflection increases as A. B. D. The likely cause is A. C. hemangioma.In the mandibular dental arch of a 12-year old boy. B. needle length increases. B. D. C. C. prognathic relationship. when conventional endodontics is impractical. The physical properties of alginate impression materials will be adversely affected by A. casting porosity from inclusion of gases. casting porosity during solidification. volumetric changes in the casting. teeth too large for the dental arch. granular cell tumor (myoblastoma). papilloma. faulty lingual eruption of the second premolars. vascular spaces. Microscopic examination reveals a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose. red. The treatment of choice is A. premature loss of deciduous second molars. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. the permanent first molars are in contact with the first premolars and the crowns of the second premolars have erupted lingually. Profile features of extreme overjet. ankylosis of the mandibular second premolars. "tumbling" the alginate container prior to filling the dispensing scoop. recessive chin and deep labial mento-labial sulcus in the chin are referred to as A. All of the above. using room temperature water. D. The use of a reservoir on the sprue of a wax pattern decreases A. The diagnosis is A. retrognathic relationship. application of pit and fissure sealants. B. needle gauge increases. C. crossbite relationship. preventive resin restorations. C. no treatment. All of the above. E. D. C. D. mixing beyond the recommended time. when a root perforation needs to be sealed. B. lack of space. A retrograde filling is indicated A. conservative Class I amalgams. fibrous connective tissue with many thin-walled. prophylactic odontotomy. pleomorphic adenoma. A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. C. A patient has a smooth. fibroma. adding powder to the water in the mixing bowl. casting porosity from inclusion of foreign bodies. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. E. . depth of injection increases. E. B.

complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. Subgingival restoration. C. loss of pulp vitality. apical resection. D. Mandibular block anesthesia. Incisional biopsy. E.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100. B. B. E. Supragingival calculus removal.000 epinephrine. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. Duration. observation over 6 months for further resorption. Which of the following factors is(are) related to a malocclusion caused by thumbsucking? A. B. . extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. administer Benadryl (diphenhydramine) 50mg. B. C. tooth mobility. before the maxillary second permanent molar. administer glucagon 1. C. B. B. He is quite pale. before the mandibular permanent canine. extraction. after the maxillary second permanent molar. Frequency. The initial management of this patient is to A. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Signs and symptoms of occlusal traumatism are 1. 3. C. radiographic evidence of increased periodontal space. D. D. elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen. call 911 and begin CPR. pain. E.Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. The permanent maxillary canine erupts D. A. a nervous 22-year old male with well controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads of sweat have accumulated on his forehead and upper lip. 4. C. 2. flat and with an obtuse angle to the proximal surface of the tooth. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. Following the injection of 1. D. before the maxillary first premolar. An occlusal rest preparation should be A. D. retrofilling and replantation. C. B.5mg. rounded and spoon shaped. C. Intensity. All of the above. angular and box shaped with parallel vertical walls. administer epinephrine 0.0mg.

a radicular cyst. ankylosed primary canines. decreased marginal leakage. E. multiple radiopaque lesions. an eosinophilic granuloma. C. C. B. Clinical examination of a 15-year old girl shows permanent central incisors. The curing of polysulphide and silicone rubbers will not be complete throughout the mass if A. bounded by an even radiopaque border. 2. C. mandibular first molar. D. The most likely cause is A. E. punched out radiolucent lesions. C. the coronoid process is most likely to be superimposed over the apices of the A. mandibular third molar. the mixture is not heterogenous. maxillary second molar. improved retention of the restoration. B. The radiographic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is A. an equal amount of catalyst is not present. lower film thickness. odontoblastic matrix. The use of an etchant and bonding system before insertion of a composite resin restoration results in 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. maxillary third molar. B. invaginating cap. congenitally missing permanent lateral incisors. D. greater strength of the restoration. D.The appearance of a circumscribed radiolucent area sharply outlined. B. 3. the mixture is not homogenous. lower solubility in oral fluids. On a periapical radiograph. is consistent with A. D. rarefying osteitis. D. located at the apex of a non-vital tooth. A. maxillary canine. generalized hypercementosis. C. . Tooth development begins when the basal layer of cells proliferates to form a ridge called the A. C. fluoride release. no bone alteration. impacted permanent lateral incisors. D. D. dental lamina. D. C. periradicular cemento-osseous dysplasia. 4. B. E. B. Glass ionomer cement is superior to zinc phosphate cement because it has A. diffuse ground glass appearance. ankylosed permanent canines. C. reduced polymerization shrinkage effect. heat is not supplied to the reaction. permanent canines and primary canines all in contact and anterior to the premolars. higher compressive strength. dental papilla. B. B.

be self-correcting with the discontinuance of an associated habit. pterygomandibular raphe. C. sore. Internal pulpal.000 epinephrine. external oblique ridge. B. Irreversible hydrocolloid. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100. D. upward only. A tooth with a non-vital pulp may occasionally present radiographically with shortening or blunting of the apical tip of a root. B. B. Condensation silicone. B. correct itself when the permanent teeth erupt. upward and facially. B. temporal tendon. buccinator muscle. B. Ankylosis. A maxillary posterior buccal crossbite in the deciduous dentition will most likely A. 5. erythema multiforme. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. leukoplakia. E. Prescription of penicillin V. 4. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) (1) and (5) (4) and (5) In an edentulous maxilla. pemphigoid. erosive lichen planus. candidiasis. be associated with inadequate arch length. D. D. Polyvinylsiloxane. uniform in all directions. The form of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is modified by 1.A patient on broad spectrum antibiotics for four weeks presents with widespread. Which of the following impression materials has the best dimensional stability? A. D. Replacement. Surface. C. E. red and white oral mucosal lesions. A 25 year old female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. 3. 2. . The most likely diagnosis is A. C. D. A. D. B. The loss of apical cementum and dentin would be classified as what type of resorption? A. D. C. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management. C. C. the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is A. C. be present when the permanent teeth erupt. masseter. upward and palatally. Prescription of a radiograph. Inflammatory. E. Polysulfide rubber.

All of the above. releasing calcium ions. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. Use of mechanical condensation. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss. A. precedes alveolar bone loss. All of the above. subgingival proximal extension. A. B. B. vertical dimension of occlusion. A facebow is used to record the 1. C. stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts. B. mandibular incisors tipping lingually. . 4. D. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium. development of a closed bite. C. persistent spacing at extraction sites. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy. inadequate isthmus depth. An anatomical wedge. 4. C. E. 3. canines tipping distally and second premolars tipping mesially. which of the following is/are essential? 1. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. 2. B. a stepped buccal or lingual wall. C. inter-condylar distance. stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin. stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order. 2. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation. D. does not contain elastic fibres. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction. E. horizontal condylar inclination. follows alveolar bone loss. D. A thinner matrix band.The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone A. inadequate isthmus width. the loss of clinical attachment A. Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system). C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates secondary dentin formation in direct pulp cappings is by A. D. During periodontal disease activity. B. B. D. C. B. A larger sized condenser. D. Serial extraction may result in A. E. is most likely due to a preparation with A. E. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.

He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis. Nystatin. A. a face-bow headgear with an expanded inner bow. C. 4. A. Image sharpness of radiographs can be improved by A. D. may be ulcerated. Lower lip. In chronic gingivitis. Fluconazole. zygomaticomaxillary suture. A substantial increase in maxillary arch width is best obtained by placing A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. Clindamycin. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. using a larger diaphragm opening. 2. E. A. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Gingiva. anteroposterior radiograph of the skull. increasing the target(source)-film distance. using a larger focal spot. All of the above. A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. is a barrier to bacterial invasion. lingual archwires. D. D. clinical examination.Fractures of the maxilla can best be diagnosed by 1. D. D. posterior intermaxillary cross-elastic bands. 3. C. . B. 3. evidence of periorbital edema. B. E. Buccal mucosa. C. Ketoconazole. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. 2. E. C. 3. E. increasing the object-film distance. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. the sulcular epithelium 1. median palatine suture. pterygopalatine suture. B. 4. frontomaxillary suture. E. Retromolar area. Which of the following drugs is/are appropriate to manage this condition? 1. C. 3. 2. 2. D. a rapid palatal expansion appliance. 4. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the best prognosis? A. lateral jaw radiographs. Hard palate. C. B. The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include the 1. D. B. A.

3. E. . admitting the patient to hospital for extraction with general anesthesia. E. B. less density of tissue at the cementoenamel junction. The patient's centric occlusion and centric relation do not match. D. 2. Treatment should include A. increases the thickness of gold. thickened epithelium. C. changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the 1. D. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. 3. admitting the patient to hospital for extraction with local anesthesia. gingival recession. the undercut and non-undercut areas. The patient shows signs of a temporomandibular disorder. B. how many external chest compressions are given per minute? A. White lesions of the oral mucosa can result from 1. The vertical dimension of occlusion will be modified on the articulator. With two rescuers performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient. improves marginal adaptation. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. mycotic infection. E.When designing a removable partial denture. 2. extracting the tooth in the office using preoperative sedation and local anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor. Cervical radiolucency at the cemento-enamel junction is most likely due to A. A centric relation record must be used to articulate casts in which of the following cases? A. A healthy 66 year old patient who had a myocardial infarct eight years previously requires an extraction. the position of the survey line on the cast. A. D. More than one third of the patients occlusal contacts are to be restored. C. B. C. bone loss at the alveolar crest. A. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. increased keratin. 3. A. 4. D. 2. D. B. C. B. extracting the tooth in the office using local anesthesia with a vasoconstrictor. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 4. protects the enamel. C. D. C. chemical burn. increases retention. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. 40 60 80 100 For a cast gold restoration. D. caries at the site. 4.

12 years. 0. In periodontal flap surgery. E. B. refer for orthodontic consultation. excise the keratinized gingiva. expose the sulcular lining of the pocket. with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance. Palatoglossus. C. B. fluoride. at the gingival margin. D. C. 2.5mm subgingivally. 8 years. The management of this patient should be to A. B. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. 1. D. D. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars. Porion and orbitale. Nasion and sella. D. on the enamel. sodium. B. D. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. The Frankfort-horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks? A. Porion and sella. C. C. 4. buffering action. B. D. 3. Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad? The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. use a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. E. the initial incision is made to A.Saliva is most potent in minimizing the effect of an acid challenge by its A. antimicrobial effect. at least 1mm supragingivally. C. aid in healing. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth. C. place patient on appropriate recall schedule. fluoride concentration. magnesium. B. D. 10 years. potassium. Superior constrictor. Porion and nasion. Lateral (external) pterygoid. An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars and good alignment of the lower incisors. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. C. . at the cemento-enamel junction. should be placed A. B. B. Later than 12 years. C. Buccinator. lubrication function.

prior to taking the final impressions. 4. an anterior and a posterior bar. advise vigorous exercise of the mandible. thick layer of cortical bone. C. B.A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when A. the maxillary and mandibular incisors are in a forward position to the basal bone. retained natural colour of the tooth. reduced microleakage. D. D. after the restoration is completed. 3. a thin broad palatal strap. C. the major connector should A. improved wear resistance of the composite. decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin. B. B. the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are: 1. Radiographically. thin radiolucent line around the roots of the teeth. act as a stress-breaker. C. after the framework has been constructed. D. C. D. B. formation of pulp stones. D. D. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. refer for joint surgery. this should be performed A. a thick narrow major connector. . thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. C. When a partial denture is to be constructed where occlusal adjustment of the natural teeth is required. None of the above. B. completion of root formation. A. the management of this patient should be to A. 2. B. narrow horseshoe shaped. decreased crack formation in the enamel. a large overjet of the maxillary central incisors exists. After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8-year old child. the maxillary dentition is in a forward position to the basal bone. prior to registering centric relation but after final impression taking. A patient presents with a dislocated mandible after an accident. E. After reduction. D. rigidly connect the bilateral components. inject the joint with hydrocortisone. secondary dentin bridge formation. dissipate vertical forces. B. C. D. In partial denture design. recommend mandibular movement be minimized. B. C. thin radiopaque line around the roots of the teeth. A. the lamina dura is a Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched enamel results in A. not interfere with lateral forces. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A.

periradicular cyst. E. their use removes the hazard of rapid injection and provides a distinct saving of time. Medial pterygoid. C. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) All of the above. For removable partial dentures. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. amide. nasopalatine cyst. C. Pulpectomy. B. the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. Which of the following is the most powerful jaw-closing muscle? A. B. Heat treatment alters a gold alloy's A. C. A. 3. E. C. tricyclic antidepressants. D. branchial cyst. 2. 4. ester. C. B. 4. B. D. phenothiazines. acid. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.Radiographically. Apicoectomy. aldehyde. 4. C. B. Masseter. position of the survey line in relation to the horizontal plane. D. A. D. barbiturates. aspiration of blood is proof that the needle is in an intravascular location. The most appropriate oral drugs for control of anxiety in a dental patient are A. The use of aspirating syringes for the administration of local anesthetics is recommended because 1. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. percentage elongation. C. direction of dislodging forces. Pulp capping. path of insertion. B. location of the undercut and non-undercut areas of each tooth. Lateral pterygoid. C. benzodiazepines. B. Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption? A. All of the above. the effectiveness of local anesthesia is increased. D. . their use reduces the frequency of accidental intravenous injection. Temporalis. 2. hardness. proportional limit. B. 3. nasolabial cyst. D. 3. D. tilting of the cast during surveying procedures alters the 1. A. Pulpotomy.

D. Enamel hatchets. B. decreased when the metal has a high yield point. B. Increased bleeding. Small diamond disks. D. D. 4. retards platelet function. ferrule and amalgam bonding. has strong anti-inflammatory properties. Carbide finishing burs. A. the bond between the materials is A. Incomplete anesthesia. 2. C. Which of the following anatomic spaces is most likely to be involved as a result of an apical infection of a mandibular third molar? A. 3. a pulp chamber. C. . an adequate pulp chamber and ferrule.An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for endodontically treated molar teeth requires A. Submasseteric. D. 4. C. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration. A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a 4 unit fixed partial denture and it has 2mm of remaining coronal tooth structure. D. Hypoglycemic shock. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. E. C. E. Diabetic acidosis. has antipyretic properties. B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. mainly chemical. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. the presence of a post. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. B. produces CNS stimulation. Which of the following could be a complication when performing a dental extraction on an insulin-dependent diabetic patient? A. E. B. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. B. Sublingual. mainly mechanical. the use of retentive threaded pins. Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses 1. 3. A. Margin trimmers. Submental. Which of the following instruments can be used for placing gingival bevels on inlay preparations? 1. decreased by oxides on the metal surface. Submandibular. In metal-ceramic crowns. a bonded amalgam. B. C. C. D. C.

C. D. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A chronic alcoholic. prosthesis design. late primary dentition. E. An adult with liver cirrhosis. disturbance of the hemostatic plug. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. Cylindroma. be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. C. B. Squamous cell carcinoma. D.000mg of acetaminophen? A. D. The most likely cause of this bleeding is a/an A. a patient presents with severe bleeding from the extraction site. C. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. extraction. Twenty-four hours following the simple extraction of tooth 4. B. infection of the socket. retrofilling and replantation. apical resection. A. E. self correct. early mixed dentition. involve the presence of mesiodens. all of the above. C. A 15kg. early permanent dentition. A diabetic. malalignment of teeth. E. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. The optimal time for orthodontic treatment involving growth manipulation is during A. B. late mixed dentition. The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely A. D. D.7. C. 2. 4. D. B. observation over 6 months for further resorption. D. B. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. dry socket. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. B. Which of the following is best removed by curettage? A. B. require orthodontic treatment. Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1. Pleomorphic adenoma. Full coverage wth veneer crowns. patient movement during the exposure. splinting with adjacent teeth. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. C. Abutment teeth for a removable partial denture may be best preserved by A. undiagnosed coagulopathy. 4 year old child. D.Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. be associated with hypodontia. Central giant cell granuloma. C. Ameloblastoma. B. . 3. C.

lathe cut. and in a position of 5% overbite. thyroid hormone. Which of the following are mechanisms of growth of the naso-maxillary complex? A. C. . C. D. rhinitis. E. Correction of the lingual crossbite of tooth 1. 2. The type of amalgam requiring the least volume of mercury for its setting reaction is A. The rate of orthodontic tooth movement is greater in adolescents compared with adults due to A. high copper. B. Excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. D. closure of root apices. B. ideally inclined. insulin. and in a position of 5% overbite. C. salicylate poisoning. lingually inclined. Appositional. Cartilaginous.2 with a finger spring on a removable appliance has the best long term prognosis for stability if tooth 1. D. An odour of acetone on the breath may indicate 1. and in a position of 50% overbite. D. 3. C. and in a position of 50% overbite.A 9 year old female patient presents with a Class I malocclusion with generally good alignment and interdigitation except tooth 1. E. B. bronchiectasis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. Delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. B. C. All of the above. D.2 is A. higher metabolic rate in adults. adrenalin. completion of growth. B. C. ideally inclined. Restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months. differences in tissue bone reaction. lingually inclined. After initiating preventive management for a 16 year old patient with multiple extensive carious lesions. Sutural. A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A. parathyroid hormone. 4. D. adrenocortical hormone. low copper.2 is in lingual crossbite but has sufficient mesiodistal space for movement into the correct position. B. which of the following restorative treatments is most appropriate? A. E. D. B. spherical. admixed. C. Place amalgam restorations over the next few months. diabetes mellitus.

B. C. increased lower anterior face height and narrow maxillary arch. submit the tissue for histological analysis. B. prepare the residual ridge for dentures. order blood tests. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above. D. Granuloma pyogenicum. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. A. D. Which of the following is caused by a specific microorganism? The effect of chronic nasal restriction or mouth breathing on facial growth and development is A. D. narrow maxillary arch and lower incisor crowding. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. 3. Presence of enamel on the entire periphery. B. provide intraradicular venting. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges following tooth removal. An alveoplasty is performed to 1. Depth of the restoration. B. facilitate removal of teeth. Geographic tongue. E. redirect the forces of occlusion. strengthen a weakened tooth. 3. Median rhomboid glossitis. E. Distal drift of second premolar. D. culture the fluid. A. Candidiasis. 4. 2. C. examine the fluid under a microscope. Size of the restoration. C. D. increased lower anterior face height. B. 3. Following loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8. difficult to evaluate. 2.What is the best predictor of success for a composite resin restoration? A. perform a cytologic smear. The best method to diagnose a cystic tumour is to A. C. Presence of flat dentinal walls. . A. C. B. C. E. which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. D. increased lower anterior face height. D. C. No movement of second premolar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. provide retention for a cast crown. B. A cast post and core is used to 1. 4. No movement of second permanent molar. A.

C. D. D. D. In a removable partial denture. All of the above. 2. Healthy attached gingiva A. E. E. E. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.A possible consequence for patients taking cyclosporine is A. prevent inflammation of the gingival tissues. B. epithelial sloughing. 3. B. D. A. 3. Gingival hyperplasia may occur in patients taking 1. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. the major connector should begin 3-6mm from the free gingival margin in order to A. Reduced flow or creep. No change in compressive strength but lower tensile strength. cyclosporine. C. is attached by collagen fibres to the cementum. is bound firmly by the periosteum to the alveolar bone. Which of the following would occur if a zinc containing amalgam is contaminated with saliva during condensing? 1. D. Increased surface pitting. fibrous gingival hyperplasia. phenytoin. 4. carbamazepine. B. All of the above. has a keratinized surface. Isoproterenol. improve phonetics. displays varying degrees of stippling. Increased expansion. C. . dentures are tried in to A. C. D. B. A. 4. C. Propoxyphene. B. erythematous gingivae. nifedipine. evaluate esthetics. C. verify the maxillomandibular records. While the teeth are set in wax. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. loss of soft tissue attachment. prevent rotation of the major connector in an antero-posterior direction. C. 2. allow sufficient length for the minor connectors. B. D.

Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED when A. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick. 4. Amalgams containing zinc should be used when contamination with moisture is unavoidable during condensation. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. to refuse recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily. A. to accept recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to zinc containing amalgams? A. dentin repair. connective tissue vascularity. B. 2. persist with soreness for one week. B. circulatory. 3. High copper amalgam restorations containing zinc demonstrate better overall survival rates. more than one tooth is involved. hold dentures properly when cleaning. Patients with new dentures should be instructed to 1. 2. 4. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth. D. sensory. 3. Amalgams containing zinc produce a significantly better seal than zinc-free amalgams. D. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) and (2) (2) and (4) All of the above. the patient is diabetic. D. 2. amount of melanin pigmentation. B. .Function(s) of the dental pulp include(s) 1. 4. to refuse recommmended beneficial treatment with an understanding of forseeable consequences. continuous and light. E. D. correct minor soreness by filing dentures. E. intermittent and light. E. C. continuous and heavy. Forces for orthodontic tooth movement should ideally be A. B. C. In the context of informed consent. choice means the ability A. intermittent and heavy. A. C. B. Zinc is added during the manufacturing operation to increase the solubility of tin in silver. C. A. periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support. the degree of keratinization. C. defensive. D. clean dentures over a bowl of water. The color of gingiva is influenced by 1. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. then return for an appointment. subgingival deposits. C. 3. C.

zinc-oxide-eugenol cement. Codeine. cleaned and the process repeated. D. C. C. is over expanded. C. B. Biopsy. 3. Files are more effective than reamers for removing necrotic debris from root canals. D. 2. Branch of the mandibular. excess water in the investment mix will result in a casting which A. Trauma from occlusion A. B. Odontogenic keratocyst. C. D. Median palatal cyst. white patch on the oral mucosa. D. C. Which of the following methods of examination is most likely to lead to a diagnosis? A. Atropine. rotated one complete turn. acrylic resin cement. A patient has an asymptomatic. The parasympathetic post ganglionic fibers leaving the otic ganglion will travel along which cranial nerve? A. Glossopharyngeal.In a hygroscopic investment technique. B. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to root canal instrumentation? A. has deficient margins. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Temporal. B. To decrease abutment tooth sensitivity. D. E. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion. Incisive canal cyst. B. D. increased vascularity of the jaws. removed. B. Exfoliative cytology. Nasoalveolar cyst. glass ionomer cement. Acetylsalicylic acid. C. Use of a reamer must be followed by use of a corresponding file. . E. C. affects the blood supply to gingivae. None of the above. Application of methylene blue. B. E. D. B. deformity of the jaws. B. initiates marginal gingivitis. Which of the following drugs has/have antisialagogue properties? 1. 4. is under expanded. D. C. none of the above. Culture. poly-carboxylate cement. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. Methantheline. Reamers only are used in curved canals. reduced vascularity of the jaws. C. shows microporosity. All of the above. a fixed bridge may be temporarily seated using A. Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence? A. Reamers or files are placed in the canal to its determined length. A. Facial. increased brittleness of the jaws. initiates periodontitis. D.

peg-shaped teeth. B. inferior alveolar block. E. Carbonate. Protein. An analgesic. Clindamycin.Which of the following is the most effective pharmacologic treatment for angular cheilosis? A. A. A systemic antibiotic. During tooth development. hardening the emulsion. which of the following teeth is most likely to spread infection to the submandibular space? A. D. B. partial anodontia (hypodontia). Erythomycin. Penicillin. D. E. D. D. B. fibroblast. enamel hypoplasia. B. C. E. C. Mandibular third molar. D. B. Mandibular second bicuspid. A topical antibiotic. The fixing solution serves the purpose of 1. . Nystatin. D. Hutchinson's incisors. dentinogenesis imperfecta. removing unexposed silver salts. Mandibular lateral incisor. Calcium. E. C. After tooth eruption. posterior superior alveolar block. histiocyte. None of the above. C. B. B. long buccal block. D. C. During the administration of local anesthesia. carrying on development. vitamin A deficiency may result in A. odontoblast. which of the following medications is the most effective? A. 2. Maxillary third molar. 3. B. Mandibular first molar. In an acute periapical abscess. anterior superior alveolar block. C. C. The cell of the dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells is the A. Tetracycline. Chloride. D. E. E. An anti-inflammatory. which of the following materials gradually decreases in concentration from the enamel surface ? A. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above. incisive block. In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with associated lymphadenopathy. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell. an intravascular injection will occur most often in a/an A. Fluoride. C.

ankylosis. B. Carious pulp exposure. D. pain. the presence of multiple canals in various stages of pulp pathosis. Periapical infection from a mandibular second molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. B. translation. An 8 year old patient has a 3mm diastema between the erupting permanent maxillary central incisors.After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement you can expect to have 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. supernumerary tooth in the midline. A. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. sterilized the root canal. machined the canals to a microscopically smooth channel. 3. submandibular space. left some areas of the root canal system incompletely cleaned. the mesiobuccal cusp rotating buccally. C. 4. C. rotation. 2. 2. E. C. tipping. poor contact between the electrode and the tooth. failure to isolate and dry the tooth. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. C. B. D. the mesiobuccal cusp rotating lingually. C. All of the above. D. buccal space. removed all tissue from the entire root canal system. 4. A. E. E. B. C. D. D. pulpal calcification. D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp). caused some temporary inflammation. 3. B. Migration of the permanent maxillary first molar following the premature loss of the primary second molar is usually mesial with Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate 1. sublingual space. A. This is most likely due to a/an A. A. buccal tilt of the crown. failure of fusion of the premaxillae. 4. abnormal labial frenum. . B. Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp test results can be explained by A. 5. buccal vestibule. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pain? A. B. B. vitality. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. Acute pulpitis. Apical periodontitis. normal eruption pattern. All of the above. torque. C. E. 2. mobility. D.

C. B. B. A patient has suffered a blow resulting in the loosening of three maxillary incisors.One of the mechanisms for bacterial adherence to the dental pellicle is through A. Antidepressants. into the marrow spaces of the crestal bone. D. Vitality tests give negative readings. lies apically and lingually to primary teeth in the anterior region. In the restoration of a tooth. D. B. E. C. the sulcular epithelium has the following characteristics EXCEPT A. transfer of thermal changes. Antibiotics. A. D. perivascularly. has a more protrusive path of eruption in the anterior region. Diuretics. 2. 1. is a barrier to bacterial invasion. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. D. C. C. All of the above. hydrophilic interactions. may show deviated eruption times if the primary tooth is lost prematurely. D. treat endodontically. The most appropriate management would be to A. fill the root canals and replant. splint the teeth. interaction of cations such as calcium. D. B. the pathway of inflammation is A. devitalization of the teeth. splint the teeth and treat endodontically immediately. may be ulcerated. cavity varnish reduces A. The developing permanent tooth A. 3. 4. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes. galvanic stimulation of the pulp. B. All of the above. remove the teeth. . amalgam corrosion. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. C. D. C. perform pulpectomies on the teeth. Which of the following drug groups can cause xerostomia? In horizontal alveolar bone loss. hyalinization of periodontal ligament. through the periodontal ligament. C. undermining resorption of alveolar bone. ion migration from amalgam to tooth. B. interaction of salivary anions. In chronic periodontitis. through the cortical bone of the alveolar process. through the epithelial attachment. check vitality in one month and if negative. C. positively charged bacteria. Heavy orthodontic forces will cause A. D.

C. topical steroid therapy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. 2. sodium peroxide. hydrogen peroxide. an osseointegrated dental implant. Widened periodontal ligament. an organic heart murmur. D. Fremitus. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. central incisor. Coronary heart disease. D. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. 3. phosphorus pentoxide. 2. B. at a right angle to the major connector. Temporalis.5cm anterior open bite. A. C. remain the same. parallel to the path of insertion. carbon disulfide. D. the anterior open bite will. D. Digastric. B. Inadequate space for the eruption of the maxillary second premolar is most frequently caused by the premature loss of the deciduous A. C. Gingival recession. a functional heart murmur. C. D. decrease. at a right angle to the occlusal plane. E. antibiotic therapy. E. Buccinator. increase. 3. Which of the following is classified as a muscle of mastication? A. . guiding planes are made A. D. first molar. Tooth migration. mitral valve prolapse. Dental polysulfide rubber impression materials are polymerized with the following initiator: A. D. B. over time. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for periodontitis? A. Smoking. A 4 year old with a thumbsucking habit presents with a 1. Which of the following is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma? A. C. periodontal debridement. oral hygiene instruction.Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is indicated for patients with 1. lead peroxide. The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is 1. canine. most likely A. 4. second molar. A. In the design of a removable partial denture. Mylohyoid. D. If the habit ceases within six months. B. B. Poor oral hygiene. a unilateral posterior crossbite and a 5mm midline deviation. B. C. C. Poorly controlled diabetes. D. decrease and the midline will correct. B. 4.

restore teeth back to original precarious form. Cortical. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material is prone to fracture. 5. C.According to functional matrix theory of growth. 4. radiographic contrast. B. B. Odontogenic myxoma. C. D. 2. Primordial cyst. A. Bundle. C. C. Regardless of the target-film distance employed for intraoral surveys. D. C. Adeno-ameloblastoma. the size of the lead diaphragm. E. radiation received by patient. the longest side of the film. To control the progression of dental caries. control the presence of cariogenic bacteria. D. Pindborg's tumor. intensity of central beam. Which of the following types of bone contain the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres? A. respond by compensation to translational forces. . the most appropriate action is to A. increase the amount of fluoride available for re-mineralization. are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development. primary sites A. image definition. alter the diet to reduce the intake of refined carbohydrates. D. D. D. C. Woven. B. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition the bevel would be worn away. B. D. the diameter of the primary beam at the patient's skin surface should not be greater than A. in addition to the bony skull are the major influences of growth. 3. B. Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce 1. C. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above. the size of the filter. A bevel is CONTRAINDICATED on the cavosurface margins of a Class I amalgam cavity preparation because A. B. secondary radiation. 7cm. cause expansion and growth. Ameloblastoma. Lamellar. the restoration is more difficult to polish. Which of the following is NEVER associated with an impacted tooth? A. E. B. this type of margin would tend to leak.

more resistant than HIV. Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis show A. C. protect the restorative material from moisture in the dentinal tubules. . E. C. B. D.A radiograph reveals a radiolucency associated with the apex of tooth 1. 4. B. B. a worm-eaten pattern of bone destruction. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. increasing its length. A. A. E. prevent pigments in the composite resin from staining the tooth. There is a large restoration but the tooth is asymptomatic and the associated soft tissues appear normal. 3. D. D. All of the above. C. E. polishing the preparation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. Acute periradicular periodontitis. A. surface polymerization is inhibited by carbon dioxide (CO2). The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is 1. in higher numbers in blood than HIV. C. 2. 2. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. radiopaque islands of bone that represent formation of sequestra. D.5. Propoxyphene. reducing its taper. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 3. Chronic suppurative periradicular periodontitis. When light-cured composite resins are placed A. Isoproterenol. D. minimize irritation of pulp tissue. Meperidine hydrochloride. bind or adhere the composite resin to the cavity wall. D. the degree of conversion is 85-95%. utilizing grooves or boxes. thickening of the cortex. C. A cavity lining under a composite resin restoration is used to A. C. The retention form of a full crown preparation can be improved by 1. autoclave resistant. B. 4. D. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. more transmissible through saliva. polymerization shrinkage increases with filler content. C. B. and B. increments of resin should not exceed 2mm. Acute periradicular abscess.

can be prevented by a post-alignment circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy. C. 3. B. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? In a xerostomic patient. A. Medial pterygoids. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. Parotid. If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's SNA is 90 degrees. Sublingual and submandibular. D. which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. D. a dead soft matrix band. C. decreased condensing pressure. A. a non-rigid connector is placed in the fixed partial denture. B. Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration? 1. B. E. C. CO2 (dry ice). maxillary prognathism. can be prevented by wearing retainers until mandibular growth is complete. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which nerve is involved? A. D. a coping and telescopic crown are used on the abutment. B. D. 4. Accessory. C. D. can be prevented by removal of the third molars. it undergoes orthodontic uprighting first. Temporalis. D. C. B. . B. C. A. 2. Facial nerve VII. A. 2. Labial. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base. 3. C. C. its long axis is within 25° of the long axis of the other abutments. Air jet. 4. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Ice water. D. protrusive maxillary incisors. Hypoglossal nerve XII. Geniohyoids.A tilted molar can be used as a fixed partial denture abutment if 1. A. Trigeminal nerve V. Lateral pterygoids. cannot be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. B. Crowding of the lower incisors following orthodontic alignment 1. mandibular prognathism. a larger diameter condenser. E. this would likely indicate A. E. . Ethyl chloride. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. an anatomical wedge. Which of the following muscles contribute to the protrusion of the mandible? A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. B. 4.

4. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by A. B. D. exaggerated due to a change in the type of infecting microorganism. C. diameter of the primary beam of radiation. C. Appropriate treatment is to A. D. treat malocclusions. 3. D. All of the above. Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. exaggerated due to an altered host immune response. C. C. C. An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in A. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. C. B. Gingival response to plaque microorganisms in elderly patients is A. A. D. decreased due to circulatory changes. and his respirations are depressed to 10 per minute. B. near the junction of the body and the ramus. eburnated bone. B. Which of the following is true about “putative periodontal pathogenic bacteria”? A. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. the mandible. and C. observe the patient. decreased due to an altered host immune response. D. B. D. pulpitis. He becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli. the anterior region of the maxilla. B. 2. E. The most common causes are A. aid in diagnosis and case analysis. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. parathyroid hyperplasia. . in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline. administer ephedrine. A critical mass is needed to trigger development of periodontitis. B. the posterior region of the maxilla. filter thickness. D. E. study growth changes.The discontinuity of the lamina dura on a radiograph may be a consequence of 1. A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam intravenously. B. E. C. force the patient to drink coffee. All individuals will respond the same way to the same concentration of these organisms. metastatic carcinoma. Their presence indicates a patient has periodontitis. support respiration with oxygen. D. This refers to 2 specific organisms. A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. C. type of timer. line voltage fluctuation. tissue density.

D. C. B. cementum deposition. apply a radiation protection badge. aid in retention of the denture. B. nitroglycerine. C. The most effective drug for relief of angina pectoris is A. . D. hypothyroidism. improve tissue contact. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child. B. The best time to correct a permanent maxillary central incisor cross-bite is A. after the permanent lateral incisors erupt. produce a stronger framework. Panoramic radiographs reveal an abnormal tooth eruption pattern. B. hyposecretion of growth hormone. hypoparathyroidism. digitalis. Nance expansion arch. the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. glass ionomer. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. crowding of the primary and permanent teeth. B. Dental development is equivalent to 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is Following root canal therapy. C. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament. the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. hypogonadism. delayed eruption of the permanent canines and absence of the premolars. The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. D. E. E. D. B. morphine. B. C. during the eruptive stage of the central incisors. pentobarbital sodium. D. B. C. A 12 year old female patient has a developmental age of 8 years. delayed growth of the cranial vault and reduced facial height. form a finish line between metal and acrylic. quinidine. band and loop space maintainer. Major connectors of a cast maxillary partial denture are beaded at the periphery in order to A. self-cured resin. E. D. A.The best choice of cement for luting a ceramic veneer is A. C. Radiographic examination reveals mandibular dysplasia. after the permanent canines erupt. light-cured resin. C. lingual arch. zinc phosphate. take a panoramic film only. dentin deposition. after the permanent central incisors erupt. connective tissue capsule formation. use high speed film. retain the acrylic to the metal of the framework. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. C. D. distal shoe space maintainer. D.

C. The most likely cause of this finding is A.A 7 year old presents with tooth 4. dysphoria. ectopic eruption of permanent first molars. Class I or Class III molar relationship. dry teeth. D. E. sharp explorer to probe pits and fissures. visual inspection of clean. C. All of the above. thyroid hormone. 4. A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A. B. C. increased anterior growth of the mandible. D. as soon as possible. gastrointestinal perfusion. C. C. mucosa of the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. presence of other substances in the gastrointestinal tract. adrenocortical hormone. D. mental clouding. A mesial step relationship of the primary second molars will result in A. A. severe temporomandibular dysfunction. formulation of the drug. D. adrenalin. maxillary anterior teeth. Bioavailability of orally administered drugs may be influenced by A. after eruption of the permanent mandibular cuspids. . caries-disclosing dyes on the occlusal surface. Anesthetic solution deposited at the infraorbital foramen will NOT anesthetize the A. after the eruption of all permanent incisors. a fine. A patient. C. pH of the gastrointestinal tract. loss of arch length in the mandible. Therapeutic doses of morphine administered intramuscularly may produce 1. B. This should be treated A. E. C. 3. euphoria. parathyroid hormone. Detection of early occlusal caries in pits and fissures is best performed by use of A. D. B.1 in crossbite. when in full intercuspation. occlusal interference and functional shift. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. high quality bite-wing radiographs. constipation. B. skin and conjunctivum of the lower eyelid. median strip of skin of the nose. B. 2. B. B. E. when all the permanent teeth have erupted. two ideal occlusions. C. skin and mucous membrane of the upper lip. Class II dental occlusion. At initial contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites and coincident midlines. true unilateral crossbite. E. shows a right side posterior crossbite and a lower midline that is deviated to the right. insulin. D. E. D. B.

C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. place patient on appropriate recall schedule. The management of this patient should be to A. the pH of the saliva is too high. 2. 3. B. is tall and thin. C. B. C. A. An endomorph is characterized as a person who A. B. E. Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria. D. less marginal breakdown. matures early. None of the above. is muscular. 4. C. B. D. the subgingival microflora shifts toward A. less corrosion. refer for orthodontic consultation. Gram-positive bacteria. buccal or lingual. E. The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the A. matures late. . 2. when the caries visually appears as a ‟white spot”. C. is short and fat. E. The curing tip should be within 2mm of the material. 4. the surface is cavitated. B. Curing of composite resin cannot occur through enamel. C. C. use a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. the caries has progressed to the dentinoenamel junction. D. buccal. In long-standing gingivitis. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Light intensity is inversely proportional to the distance from the material. A. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars. High copper amalgam alloys are superior to conventional alloys in that they have 1. A darker shade of material requires longer curing time. D. D. E. dentin is demineralized. A carious lesion can NOT be re-mineralized when A. aerobic bacteria. lingual.An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars and good alignment of the lower incisors. lower creep. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding light curing of a composite resin? 1. higher 1 hour compressive strength. D. B.

E. permanent second molar. pulp tissue left in the root canal. B. B. A. neoplastic invasion of the inferior mandibular nerve. bacterial diseases. C. a primary traumatic occlusion. viral diseases.Following the removal of a vital pulp. D. D. remain distorted. the restoration is more difficult to polish. and C. second premolar. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material is prone to fracture. this type of margin would tend to leak. B. C. C. C. fracture. Bleeding on probing. D. 3. The most probable cause is A. The elastic limit of a material is the greatest load to which a material can be subjected to in order that it will A. permanent first molar. defective occlusal contacts. overinstrumentation. Loss of stippling. A. first premolar. A patient wearing complete dentures complains of tingling and numbness in the lower lip bilaterally. B. B. return to a point beyond its original dimension. This is often an indication of A. B. infection. C. incorrect medication. allergy to denture base material. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. E. D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition the bevel would be worn away. A bevel is CONTRAINDICATED on the cavosurface margins of a Class I amalgam cavity preparation because A. C. a root canal is medicated and sealed. lateral perforation. The mesiolingual groove is found on the mandibular A. Mobility of teeth WITHOUT loss of bone support suggests A. an atrophic condition of the periodontium. C. Gingival hyperplasia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. D. return to its original dimension. 2. Increased probing depth. C. a secondary traumatic occlusion. The patient returns with an acute periradicular periodontitis. D. parasitic infestations. impingement of denture on mandibular nerve. D. . impingement of denture upon mental nerve. E. B. rickettsia. B. D. Inclusion bodies in the nucleus or cytoplasm of cells are diagnostic of A.

C. D. decrease with the eruption of the permanent incisors. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration. B. increase with the eruption of the permanent canines. pleomorphic adenoma. A. transitional cell carcinoma. toxicity of the restorative material. is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. D. There is some mobility. increase with eruption of the premolars. melanoma. C.A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. B. In a patient with liver disease. acute serous pulpitis. D. C. E. the length of the mandibular arch from the permanent left first molar to the permanent right first molar will normally A. Epinephrine (Racord®). B. decrease with the eruption of the premolars. when used as a luting agent for cast restorations. E. C. has which of the following properties? 1. The most likely diagnosis is A. C. Aluminum sulphate (Pascord®). Zinc phosphate cement. overheating during the finishing process. E. Chemical adhesion. D. remain the same. Which of the following hemostatic agents is most likely to create a systemic reaction? A. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. basal cell carcinoma. D. acid etching of dentin. C. E. B. B. Mechanical retention. allergic reaction to the anesthetic solution. D. acute suppurative pulpitis. D. Between the ages of 6 and 12. The most common malignancy found in the oral cavity is A. tendency for the tooth to intrude. severe mobility of the tooth. . postoperative infection. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. C. The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with use of a finger spring to tip the crown of an anterior permanent tooth is A. Anticariogenicity. C. 3. a possible complication is A. D. acute periradicular abscess. Ferric sulphate (Astringedent®). Aluminum chloride (Hemodent®). lateral periodontal abscess. prolonged bleeding. The most likely cause of postoperative sensitivity with Class II composite resin restorations is A. B. squamous cell carcinoma. 2. microleakage at the interface. pain. B. gingival irritation. syncope or shock. Insolubility. B.

increased expansion and decreased strength. D. B. There are no other symptoms. D. A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child. pulp was exposed. C. When a removable partial denture is fabricated to occlude with natural teeth. C. Promote wound healing. pulpotomy. decreased expansion and decreased strength. B. need to produce a fully balanced occlusion. D. C. D. bounded by an even radiopaque border. the occlusal form of the artificial teeth is influenced by the A. endodontic condition of the abutment teeth. a radicular cyst. restoration is leaking. . pulpectomy.Using more water when mixing dental stone will result in a cast that exhibits A. primary retention. C. restoration is in supra-occlusion. B. Twenty-four hours after placement of a Class II amalgam restoration. extraction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A periodontal dressing is placed following a gingivectomy to: A. achieve hemostasis. periapical cemental dysplasia. It is most likely that the A. decreased expansion and increased strength. rarefying osteitis. A. B. Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a cast metal removable partial denture provide Dental porcelain has 1. B. B. pulp capping. an eosinophilic granuloma. occlusal force transmission. D. prevent microbial colonization of the wound. D. lateral force transmission. protect the wound from mechanical injury. low compressive strength. None of the above. A. D. amount of base material is inadequate. D. B. is consistent with A. high hardness. a patient returns complaining of discomfort when "biting". The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. C. C. The appearance of a circumscribed radiolucent area sharply outlined. 3. increased expansion and increased strength. E. located at the apex of a non-vital tooth. high tensile strength. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a/an A. C. 4. occlusal form of the remaining teeth. indirect retention. low impact strength. B. C. 2.

The most likely cause of the problem is A. dental needs. dental caries. D. C.8 was permanently relined with acrylic resin. B. Localized and generalized forms. E. outerwear and gloves. A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3. . 3. B. use of splint or lower denture with circumferential wiring. B. C. D. glossitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. K-wire insertion without immobilization. B. the patient’s tissues have remodelled. handwashing. D. bluish purple discolouration of the oral mucosa. B. B. 2. when the rests of the framework are fully seated on the abutment teeth the denture base does not contact the supporting tissues. The single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmitting organisms to patients is A.8 and 4. pain. D. angular cheilitis. 3.3. D. open reduction and lower border wiring without immobilization. extent of dental neglect. Familial aggregation. C. 4. Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. Preoperative evaluation of a healthy patient requiring elective oral surgery in hospital should include 1. D. 4. tooth mortality.4. a physical examination. A. Presence of Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. excess pressure was placed on the denture base area during the impression procedure.5 . C.The best method of treatment of a nondisplaced fracture of the body of the mandible in an edentulous patient is A. open reduction and lower border wiring plus immobilization. appropriate radiographic examination. At the delivery appointment. an oral examination.5 . introduction of single use instruments and disposables. 5. DMF-S is an index for expressing A. appropriate laboratory tests. use of personal protective barriers: masks. sterilization of instruments and disinfection of the operatory. A. D. Necrotic tissue. eyewear. B. (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. a complete history. Which of the following is NOT a feature of aggressive periodontitis? A. E. C. the denture reline resin shrunk during polymerization. C. 2. excess pressure was placed on the rests during the impression procedure.

alveolar bone. E. D. Exclusive of third molars. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. E. . It does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration. reduction in pocket depth is due to A. decreases systolic blood pressure. cementum. 2. 3. shrinkage of the gingival tissue. symphysis and condyles. B. C. D. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary central incisors. B. B. The arrangement and character of the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament are modified by A. Just prior to the eruption of the first permanent molars. 2. All of the above. D. C. 18 to 21 years. C. D. A. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. the permanent dentition is usually completely erupted by the age of A. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary canines. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth. posterior border of the ramus and the alveolar crest. Following curettage and root planing. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. condyles and posterior border of the ramus. 4. All of the above. 9 to 11 years. healing of connective tissue. 15 to 17 years. The mandible grows primarily at the A. E. C. Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone. B. B. D. B. condyles and lateral border of the body.A 3 year old has been diagnosed with an inverted mesiodens. reattachment. Immediately. C. 3. D. tooth morphology. occlusal function. Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites. A. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam? 1. 12 to 14 years. D. B. Epinephrine is used in the management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it 1. symphysis and posterior border of the ramus. decreases heart rate. What is the most appropriate time to extract the mesiodens? A. E. 4. C. relaxes bronchial muscles.

The "smear layer" is an important consideration in A. aminide. incisional biopsy. D. ester. C. D. D. an acute inflammation of the dental pulp characterized by intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become continuous. 3. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. B. 4. C. C. cytologic examination. B. dentin bonding. large buccal cusp. an excessive accumulation of blood in the pulp resulting in vascular congestion. vertical root fracture. amide. C. observation. plaque accumulation. The most common benign neoplasm of the salivary glands is a/an A. internal root resorption. adenocarcinoma. B. large buccal pulp horn. ethamine. B. The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be delayed by A. Hyperemia of the pulp is A. periapical abscess. B. aspiration biopsy. dense fibrous tissue. C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. a retained deciduous incisor. that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently become ulcerated is A. D. excisional biopsy. B. small lingual lobe. a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the pulpal tissue. E. D. B. mucocele. In the mandibular first premolar. prominent transverse ridge. B. . the occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam preparation is usually not extended into the mesial fossa because of the A. 5 x 3mm in size. D. 2. aldehyde. pulp regeneration. adenolymphoma. E. caries removal. Differential diagnosis for short term pain and swelling of the gingiva associated with an endodontically treated tooth should include 1. All of the above. E. C. D. pleomorphic adenoma. periodontal abscess. a supernumerary tooth. The appropriate management for an avascular white lesion. a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged for long periods creating temporary episodes of pain. C. A.

abnormal formation of osteoid. Granulation tissue is composed of A. C. E. Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention phenomenon? A. D. What is the most likely diagnosis of an ulcerated gingival lesion whose biopsy report confirms epithelial basal layer separation from the lamina propria? A. C. C. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in Which of the following is NOT suggestive of a diagnosis of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)? A. C. In chronic periodontitis. In a xerostomic patient. Periodontal pocketing. Pemphigus. Bleeding from the gingiva. “Punched-out” papillae with necrotic slough. C. B. the causative organisms are found in A. Areas of isolated gingival recession are most frequently seen on teeth that are A. C. the alveolar bone. B. thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. moderately mobile. osteogenesis imperfecta. A. D. plasma cells and giant cells. thin radiopaque line around the roots of the teeth. osteitis fibrosa cystica. non vital. D. B. D. B. B. Pemphigoid. D. ankylosed. Nicotine stomatitis. Accessory. C. B. the periodontal pocket. D. labially prominent in the arch. Parotid. which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. Bad breath. Labial. Paget's disease. epithelioid cells and tissue phagocytes. and D. Ranula. myositis ossificans. Metallic taste. E. An aphthous ulcer. C.Radiographically. capillaries and chronic inflammatory cells. E. Nasopalatine cyst. B. the connective tissues of the gingiva. Residual cyst. D. thin radiolucent line around the roots of the teeth. B. the periodontal ligament. the lamina dura is a A. Erosive lichen planus. fibroblasts and eosinophils. Sublingual and submandibular. . B. fibroblasts. D. A. D. Koplik’s spots. C. E. thick layer of cortical bone.

Which statement is FALSE? A. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. 1 . E. B. Immediately prior to cementation of a fixed bridge. However. free gingival autograft. C. it is important to check Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by A. firmness and location of contact points. the child complains that the “tooth ring” is hurting. preventing formation of thromboplastin. Wait 15 minutes until more profound anesthesia is achieved. apically positioned flap. B. D.000R. 150 . B. during placement of a rubber dam clamp on the first permanent molar.600mR.5ml of lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine. laterally positioned pedicle graft.Using current radiographic techniques.1. Lingual nerve. Examination reveals an area of gingival recession that exposes a wide area of denuded root. Proceed with treatment without rubber dam. The early signs of mercury intoxication suggest that the most sensitive organs are the central nervous system and the kidney. coronally positioned flap. C. The procedure of choice to obtain coverage of this root surface is A. D. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with the remaining lidocaine. incorporating ionic calcium. B. . Submandibular duct. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve with the remaining lidocaine. C. D. B. A child has received a successful inferior alveolar nerve block using 1. occlusal relationships. pressure of pontics against soft tissues. Lingual vein. Which of the following structures lies inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the level of the mandibular second molar? A. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. Lingual artery. C. a satisfactory intraoral radiograph can be produced with skin exposures as low as A. C. C. A. B. D. C. The early mercury toxic threshold may be expressed in relation to the quantity of mercury excreted in urine. 1 . The total contirbution of the environment and amalgam restorations to the urinary excretion of mercury remains below 4 microgrammes/gramme of creatinin. D.10mR. D. D. B. 100 . The best way to appraise the risk to the health of a person who has amalgam restorations is to measure the mercury vapors in his mouth. All of the above.5R. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. The early sign of mercury intoxication may appear as urinary mercury concentration reaches 50 microgrammes/gramme of creatinin.

In an 8 year old patient the most appropriate treatment of a vital permanent molar with a large carious exposure is A. B. Which of the following is NOT a direct physiological response to additional forces placed on abutment teeth? A. E. A. Which of the following procedures is NOT indicated for the management of infrabony defects? A. unrelated. B. Pindborg tumor. Which of the following is necessary to make a diagnosis of an odontogenic keratocyst? A. is associated with a vital tooth. D. D. 4. D. greater than the normal. D. Radiographic examination. Increase in width of cementum. C. D. C. Increase in trabeculation. Flap surgery. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. . D. 3. B. D. Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. B. 2. irreversible pulpitis. A radicular cyst A. exposed cervical dentin. ameloblastoma. the angle ANB is frequently used. indirect pulp capping. Decrease in width of periodontal ligament. direct pulp capping. pulp necrosis. D. C. Histologic examination. compound odontoma. Gingival graft. B. E. Gingivectomy. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. pulpotomy. B. Exfoliative cytology. C. C. Resorption of bone. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. B. a normal pulp. D. Increased density in cribiform plate. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. complex odontoma. C. E. In patients with severe Class~II malocclusion.After a thermal stimulus has been removed from a tooth persistent pain suggests A. Cementoblastoma. C. cannot cause cortical bone expansion. contains fluid. Aspiration. this angle is A. E. C. B. pulpectomy. Regenerative surgery. less than the normal. normal. E. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. C. enlarges rapidly. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. infiltrates bone. reversible pulpitis. B.

A. 3. acne rosacea. an evaluation of liver function performed. D. excess sodium. be treated in the complete permanent dentition. B. B. D. be observed and treated when the cuspids have erupted. rescheduled at the end of the day for infection control. it is usually associated with abrasion. an antibiotic prescribed prophylactically. Early anoxia is characterized by 1. A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier presents for an extraction. The extraction should be delayed and A. D. D. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. C. self-correct. C. D. the patient referred to a hospital dental department. Which of the following principle fibre groups of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and provides the main support for the tooth? A. B. A salivary gland mucocele results from A. excess calcium. B. be treated with a removable appliance. D. hyperplasia of the duct. tachycardia (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above. Transseptal. bradycardia.A "butterfly-rash" of the face can sometimes be found in A. excess iodine. C. C. the age of onset is younger. D. C. damage to the duct. E. B. Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. lupus erythematosus. erythema multiforme. B. C. B. Oblique. pemphigus vulgaris. cyanosis. hypersecretion. Gingival. insufficient fluoride. A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year old should A. dental plaque is not involved. E. Cemental caries differs from enamel caries because A. it progresses more quickly. 2. Horizontal. C. aplasia of the duct. B. C. insufficient iodine. . D.

4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. high fluoride intake.7 retainer. 4. increase heart rate. C. A.4. C. 3. D. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion. reduce inflammation. D. . D. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. 2. A 12 year old patient with a complete dentition has enamel hypoplasia of tooth 1. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. B. the duration of the operation. Mesial of the 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3. using a high speed film. C. A. 3. B. C.Adrenal corticosteroids A. Distal of the 3. D. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. A survey of the master cast shows that the 3. C. a febrile illness. systemic tetracycline. The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. eliminate the need for internal retention. E. E. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. aid in finishing. Which of the following are characteristics of restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. C. Mesial of the 3. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. increasing target-film distance. This condition was most likely caused by A. C. low calcium intake.7. Setting is affected by moisture. B. increase protein synthesis. B. B. an abscessed tooth 5. cause vasodilation. Irritating to pulpal tissues. D. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. E.5 and 3. Bonding to enamel.4. The selection of a vasoconstrictor for a local anesthetic depends upon A.6 pontic. the need for hemostasis. B. The characteristics of "group~function" occlusion are: A. D.5 retainer. improve convenience form. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. D. Release of fluoride. the medical status of the patient. C. all of the above. increase the surface area for etching. For an acid-etched Class III composite resin. using an aluminum filter. using low kVp. the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to A. B.

interradicularly. A. erythromycin. E. C. C. C. longer working time. C. E. plasma cells. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. clindamycin. pericoronally. B. pseudomembranous colitis. complex odontoma. 3. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. Place a pilot hole at the dentino-enamel junction. Pindborg tumour. increased compressive strength. Remove caries and unsupported enamel. 4. eosinophils. recall the patient in one month. 3. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Compared with zinc-phosphate cement. A. metronidazole. A. observe the patient yearly. periradicular cemento-osseous dysplasia. The most appropriate antibiotic to be used prophylactically is A. D. tetracycline. E. E. A biopsy of a clinically suspicious malignant lesion fails to support the clinical diagnosis. superior biologic compatibility. D. amoxicillin. polycarboxylate cement has Dentigerous cysts are usually found A. Potential side-effects of all systemic antibiotics used for the treatment of periodontitis include 1. make a cytological smear. mid-root. lymphocytes. B. C.In the presence of an acute bacterial infection. ameloblastoma. allergic reactions. A patient has a prosthetic heart valve and is allergic to penicillin. assure the patient that there is no malignancy. B. B. lower film thickness. B. B. D. E. E. C. laboratory tests will show an increase in A. C. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. compound odontoma. Which of the following should be done prior to pin hole placement in an extensive amalgam preparation? 1. B. The most appropriate management is to A. 2. development of resistant organisms. Examine the radiograph. D. D. periapically. superinfection with commensal organisms. Determine the subgingival anatomic contours. monocytes. B. 4. D. . take a second biopsy. D.

C. early apical abscess formation. with periodontitis. placement of chemical-impregnated cords into the gingival sulcus. double glove before starting any surgical procedures. the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The epithelial attachment A. is located at the cementoenamel junction. A. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. D. use hot packs over the swelling. treat the patient in the same way as all other patients. E.Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection. . C. otorrhea. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea. The most appropriate management is to A. moves apically along the root surface as periodontal disease progresses. a firm tray material. E. D. D. B. D. refer the patient to a hospital. Effective tissue displacement with elastic impression materials can be accomplished by 1. E. B. D. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously. B. a 3-walled infrabony defect. B. C. 3. C. All of the above. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. 3. The immediate treatment should be to A. D. pulpal abscess. None of the above. 4. A. 4. acute inflammation of the pulp. B. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement. “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating 1. use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. subconjunctival haemorrhage. schedule appointments at the end of the day. injection of the material into the gingival sulcus. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an A. E. B. C. impaired hearing. horizontal bone loss. 2. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) A 30 year old HIV positive patient presents for the removal of an abscessed second molar. B. refer to another dentist because universal infection control procedures are insufficient. in health. In periodontal therapy. D. A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of the zygoma is A. C. electrosurgical means. 2. is composed of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. All of the above.

D. Correction of a bilateral posterior constriction of the maxillary arch has the best long term prognosis for stability if: A. C. Propantheline. B. the maxillary posterior teeth are centered on the alveolar process. 3. the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. periapical granuloma and an apical cyst. E. rounded axiopulpal line angles. C. The physiologic rest position of the mandible is 1. Corrected transcranial. fixed expansion quad-helix is used. depth of cross-bite. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. C. A. D. Ipratropium. Pilocarpine. aid in finishing. lateral walls parallel to the external surface of the tooth. C. used when making a centric interocclusal record. space available mesiodistally. D. B. cementoma and an incisive canal cyst. cavity preparations should have 1. cementoma and a periapical granuloma. there is a history of prolonged thumbsucking. 4. B. B. Which of the following radiographic techniques is NOT useful for assessing temporomandibular joint space? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. C. periapical granuloma and the mental foramen. 2. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a fairly constant position throughout life. E. B. Corrected tomography. a position determined by the musculature. D. 4. shape of the tooth involved. slow. Vitality tests are used to differentiate between A. Arthrography. concave pulpal floors.For an acid-etched Class III composite resin. A. used in determining occlusal vertical dimension. 4. B. 3. eliminate the need for internal retention. 3. D. Which of the following is the most appropriate agent for management of xerostomia associated with Sjögren’s syndrome? A. C. C. . Panoramic. D. D. The significant factor in the correction of an anterior cross-bite is the A. increase the surface area for etching. age of patient. 2. Neostigmine. rounded proximal retention grooves. there is no functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. B. improve convenience form. To minimize fractures of amalgam restorations in deciduous teeth. 2. A. B.

B. C. E. D. dental and neuromuscular. C. parapharyngeal space. if the heavy bodied tray material begins to set before seating. the resultant die will A. exert no pressure on the ridge. . D. not be affected dimensionally. D. Chronic periodontitis. 3. Porphyromonas. C. C. dental. A. Prevotella. B. be contoured by scraping the master cast. alveolar bone. B. be located on a centric contact. If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration. skeletal. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. Early childhood caries. C. D. increase retention of the partial denture. develop a rough surface texture. B. D. cement dissolution will lead to leakage. be extended for retention. Aggressive periodontitis. D. develop bubbles at the interface of the syringe and tray material. submental space. Which disease is associated with a higher proportion of Fusobacterium. E. be overall smaller. direct forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment. In taking an impression with polysulfide or silicone materials. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form. B. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis. The etiology of this patient's malocclusion is A. C. B. 4. have a large surface area in contact with the ridge. A removable partial denture rest should A. A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. Root caries. The arrangement and character of the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament are modified by A. skeletal and neuromuscular. the preparation will lack retention form. D. tooth morphology. submandibular space. E. be overall larger. C. contact nonkeratinized tissue. 2. neuromuscular. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. C. E. A pontic should A. occlusal function. A. and spirochetes? A. pterygomandibular space. cementum.A 12-year old male with a history of thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar relationship with a SNA = 83 and a SNB = 79. D.

C. Which of the following could cause clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers? A. D. D. B. centric occlusion coinciding with centric relation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The most common site of intra-oral squamous cell carcinoma is the A. D. Microbial virulence factors Root caries risk in adults is A. B. tachycardia. include exotoxins. D. 4. large buccal pulp horn. C. C. Excessive vertical dimension. Hyposalivation. floor of the mouth. B. A. mental confusion. Excessive buccal flange thickness. group function. 2. balanced occlusion. Which of the following condition(s) increase(s) susceptibility to dental caries? 1. Nonbalanced occlusion. Hereditary fructose intolerance. B. buccal mucosa. C. palate. the occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam preparation is usually not extended into the mesial fossa because of the A. are caused only by Gram-positive microbes. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. gingiva. B. A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. unstrained position and all teeth meet in maximum intercuspation simultaneously. C. E. 4. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth development. endotoxins and enzymes. Vitamin K deficiency during tooth development. greater in adults who have high streptococcus mutans counts. 3. 3. B.Hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. D. 3. capsules. C. E. In the mandibular first premolar. the condition is described as A. D. sweating. D. 1. centric occlusion. associated with previous enamel caries experience. D. 4. nausea. C. When the mandible makes hinge closure in its most retruded. are produced by non-pathogenic microbes. prominent transverse ridge. B. A. reduced in communities with fluoridated water. E. similar in institutionalized and noninstitutionalized patients. . small lingual lobe. C. are always pathogenic. 2. large buccal cusp. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite). 2.

C. D. Proper collimation of the useful beam for film size and target-film distance reduces A. C. The appearance of a rash. secondary radiation. 2. formation of pulp stones. A. E. subepithelial connective tissue graft. pulpal necrosis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. . B. D. dentin bridge formation. a metal base is preferred to an acrylic base because metal is A. image definition. Calcium hydroxide. the root apex lies superior to the attachment of the caninus and levator labii superioris muscles. C. Amalgam. D. The application of cold to a tooth will temporarily relieve pain in A. The most logical explanation for causing swelling beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary canine is that the A. tolerance. Which of the following materials is most radiolucent? A. B. double papilla pedicle graft. idiosyncrasy.For a removable partial denture. B. less irritating. 3. All of the above. radiographic contrast. C.3. B. the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are 1. bone is less porous superior to the root apex. B. internal resorption. C. teratogenicity. C. itching. The most predictable surgical procedure to achieve root coverage on this tooth is a A. After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8 year old child. B. allergy. free gingival graft. more hygienic. C. D. acute suppurative pulpitis. D. Zinc phosphate cement. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. A patient presents with 5mm of gingival recession on the labial of tooth 1. C. completion of root formation. stronger. 4. B. D. infection has passed into the angular vein which has no valves. D. bronchoconstriction and fever after the administration of a drug are the result of A. D. acute apical abscess. lateral sliding pedicle graft. chronic pulpitis. intensity of the central beam. a better thermal conductor. B. Gold foil. E.

E. Hereditary fructose intolerance. This is diagnostic of A. A 5 year old child presents with yellow pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow fluorescence. D. Which of the following condition(s) increase(s) susceptibility to dental caries? 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A tongue thrust when swallowing. E. sleeping habits. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex. producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause A. D. C. macrophages. re-excision with wider margins. B. D. C. C. growth discrepancy. undifferentiated cells. no additional therapy. B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy. A hypertrophic labial frenum. When odontoblasts are destroyed. A thumb sucking habit. C. lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex. A removable orthodontic appliance. tetracycline pigmentation. 3. This patient should have A. B. C. Vitamin K deficiency during tooth development. neural crest cells. A Class III malocclusion is normally associated with A. conservative preparation for a resinmodified glass ionomer restoration. C. enamel hypoplasia. D. radium implantation around biopsy site. new odontoblasts are derived from A. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown. An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in diameter on the lateral border of the tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. B. C. B. D. 4. trauma. Hyposalivation. A Class II canine relationship. A. E. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth development. B. amelogenesis imperfecta. The presence of a mesiodens. .jaw size discrepancy. Early detection of a non-cavitated smooth surface caries lesion allows for a A. intrusion of the central incisor. D. existing odontoblasts. C. preventive regimen to be implemented to arrest the demineralization. hemisection of the tongue. conservative preparation for a bonded composite resin restoration.Which of the following is NOT related to an interincisal diastema? A. D. pigmentation associated with chromogenic bacteria. B. 2. conservative preparation for an amalgam restoration. D. B. tooth size .

The three unit fixed bridge replacing the mandibular first molar should be fabricated A.8mm into the space of the missing tooth. kilovoltage controls 1. B. amide. D. A. D. D. D. C.Which diagnostic method is most appropriate to differentiate a “white spot” lesion associated with carious demineralization from enamel hypoplasia on the facial enamel? A. 4.6. acid. temperature of the cathode filament. after extracting tooth 1. which was extracted many years ago. Rewetting the dried surface. speed of electrons. C. Dentigerous cyst. C. 3.6 to a more normal plane of occlusion. Cleidocranial dysplasia. 2. D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth 1. D. B. B.6 has extruded 1. contrast. Pulp polyp. Following the insertion of complete dentures. impingement on the buccal frenum. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. C. C. amount of radiation produced. C. Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth may be associated with A. high muscle attachments. Which of the following is NOT a sign of congenital heart disease? A. Tactile examination with a sharp explorer. Telangiectasia. C. E. . Cyanosis. penetrating power of radiation. B. Ectodermal dysplasia. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome. B.6 and replacing it with a fixed partial denture. Gorlin’s syndrome. aldehyde. excess border thickness. B. C. A 60-year old patient requests the replacement of tooth 4. Tooth 1. ester. D. Gardner’s syndrome. Right ventricular hypertrophy. after restoring tooth 1. Clubbing of the fingers and toes. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. 5. to the existing occlusion. B. B. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) and (4) The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. Bite-wing radiograph. Transillumination. Heart murmur. a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by A. Inadequate interocclusal distance. Lateral periodontal cyst. E.6 for a cast crown. D. In X-ray equipment.

D. Composite resin restoration. Prevotella. Aluminum chloride impregnated cord. Glycerol. the number of teeth to be replaced. with pulpal involvement. C. the patient's age. Ceramic inlay. D. Gingival inflammation may result from For removable partial dentures. which of the following lesions has the WORST prognosis? A.Which of the following teeth is the LEAST desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a fixed partial denture? A tooth A. D. Crown. Verrucous carcinoma. with a short. Broadbent's point. B. A. If untreated. Xylitol. B. rotated and tipped out of line. C. D. plaque. B. All of the above. trauma. the length of the edentulous span. B. the use of cast restorations on abutment teeth is based on A. the most stable point in a growing skull is the A. Bonded amalgam restoration. D. C. D. tapered root and a long clinical crown. . Melanoma of the soft palate. Porphyromonas. The microorganisms that initially colonize the tooth surface are associated with the genus Which of the following is/are acceptable technique(s) for displacing the gingival tissue prior to taking an impression? A. B. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for an endodontically treated mandibular first molar with a previously placed MOD amalgam restoration? A. D. In cephalometry. B. A. C. D. Basal cell carcinoma of the nose. oral hygiene. caries risk and tooth contour. Bolton point. Alum saturated cord. nasion. C. D. Displacement cords. Streptococcus. Actinobacillus. whether the abutment tooth is to occlude with porcelain or acrylic teeth. B. Electro-surgery. Ameloblastoma. chemical irritation. C. Mannitol. B. Sorbitol. Which of the following sweeteners used in sugarless gum is most effective in preventing caries? A. B. C. C. All of the above. with minimal coronal structure. E. C. sella turcica. .

Digitalis. overjet. the crowns of all permanent teeth are completely calcified at the age of A. Methyldopa. an antibiotic prescribed prophylactically. In a "cuspid guided occlusion" A. C. Phenothiazine.With the exception of third molars. Premature loss of mandibular deciduous cuspids in Class I and Class II cases results in increased 1. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. re-booked at the end of the day to allow for appropriate sterilization of the instruments and office. D. A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier presents for an extraction. 2. 8 to 9 years. edema. D. B. 10 years. 12 years. B. Spironolactone. the posterior teeth make no contact on lateral excursions on the working side. C. None of the above. D. removal of all caries. C. Propranolol. the patient referred to a hospital dental department. removal of all pulp horns. 8 years. D. 11 to 12 years. the teeth on the non-working side make contact on lateral excursions. B. One of the mechanisms of bacterial adherence to the dental pellicle is through A. C. arch width. The extraction should be delayed and A. cratering. B. C. interaction of cations such as calcium. an evaluation for cirrhosis be performed. D. . straight line access to the canal. preservation of tooth structure. B. Which of the following drugs potentiates the action of sedative drugs? A. A. C. D. D. 3. B. E. D. E. E. Later than 12 years. interaction of salivary anions. C. 4. altered texture. overbite. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. bleeding. 6 to 7 years. B. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is A. The most reliable diagnostic sign of gingival inflammation is A. hydrophilic interactions. positively charged bacteria with the pellicle. B. D. B. C. 4 to 6 years. the teeth on the working side make contact on lateral excursions. retractability. C. leeway space.

and angled away from interproximal contacts. 5. you should consider 1. . D. B. Invasion. B. C. B. Teeth. Which of the following histopathological features would be the most reliable indicator of the malignancy of a neoplasm? A. D. Hair. D. B. C. with a firm pushing motion. All of the above. Heavily restored abutment. Class II malocclusion. During drug-receptor interaction. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. multiple fractures and blue sclera. D. C. B. E. C. Fingernails. angulation. Calcium. D. Which of the following would be a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)? A. (1) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. Encapsulation. parallel to the vertical axis of the tooth. Degeneration. local anesthetics interfere with the transport of which of the following ions? A. B. 4. osteoporosis and anemia. C. with a firm lateral motion. depth in the alveolus.A periodontal probe should be inserted into the sulcus A. Sodium. punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. C. Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by A. 3. C. Sweat glands. D. E. root width. Potassium. Hyperchromatism. B. B. Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships? When assessing the difficulty of removal of an impacted mandibular third molar. Chloride. Previous orthodontic treatment. C. A. D. Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. Tooth-to-tooth. Magnesium. An opposing free end saddle removable partial. Tooth-to-bone. D. size of the pulp chamber. Pleomorphism. E. Salivary glands. A. Bone-to-bone. 2. periodontal ligament space.

Upon examination of an edentulous patient. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. buccal to the premolars. The second radiograph is taken from a more anterior angle. Decrease in arterial pH. B. C. Tetracaine hydrochloride (Pontocaine). reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. D. 4. B. brittleness of the composite. on the same place as the premolars. the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of A.Two radiographs have been taken of a supernumerary tooth in the maxillary premolar region. A. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. Decrease in arterial oxygen. E. B. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine). Increase in arterial carbon dioxide. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. Butethamine hydrochloride (Monocaine). C. cusp height. distal to the premolars. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. Increase in arterial oxygen. Which of the following is the strongest stimulus to respiration? An altered cast impression technique for freeend extension mandibular partial denture cases is done primarily to 1. it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. B. D. A. 2. prevent displacement of the retromolar pad. anterior teeth only. inadequate moisture control during placement. The most frequent cause for composite resin restoration failure is A patient has a proven allergy to para-amino benzoic acid derivatives. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps. If the image of the supernumerary tooth appears to have shifted distally on the second radiograph. C. D. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide. C. In restoring occlusal anatomy. B. 3. C. D. excessive polymerization shrinkage. Which local anesthetic solution can be used safely? A. capture soft tissue in a supporting form. capture the retromylohyoid area. Procaine hydrochloride (Novocaine). mesial to the premolars. B. D. lingual to the premolars. The treatment of choice is to A. C. D. E. E. C. allow jaw relation records to be made simultaneously with impression making. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. A. D. presence of voids within the material. . this indicates that the supernumerary tooth lies A.

fracture of the root apex and a necrotic pulp. E. D. D. C. B. opened by the tensor tympani muscle. Periapical surgery is CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth that has a A. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. which of the following statements is true? A. After one week. poorly adjusted appliances.5mm. E. thoroughness of the curettage of the root surface. closed by the superior constrictor muscle. heavy forces. opened by the tensor veli palatine muscle. B. use of an appropriate antibiotic. Limitation of jaw motion. During the act of swallowing. D. closed by the tensor tympani muscle. a favourable prognosis is most affected by the A. D. Lead oxide is used as an activator in silicones. a low pain threshold. fistula related to a periapical lesion. incisal reduction of 0. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a/an A. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. rigidness of the splint. D. polyether and addition cured silicone impression materials. large periapical rarefaction. C. Discomfort during orthodontic therapy could be a result of A. All three of the materials contract slightly during curing. C. C.Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. Radiographic changes of the joint. In comparing polysulfide. vertical root fracture. C. . length of time the tooth has been out of the mouth. E. closed by the levator veli palatine muscle. effectiveness of the irrigation of the socket. butt joint gingival margin. C. the auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube is A. Muscle tenderness. a post and core retained crown. B. fully developed permanent tooth that has been reimplanted. D. E. C. B. For an avulsed. Pain. All the materials expand slightly upon cooling from mouth temperature (37 degrees C) to room temperature (20 degrees C). All of the above. addition cured silicones will undergo more distortion than polysulfides. B. B. D. B. space for the veneer material.

Which lesion(s) may appear radiographically as multilocular radiolucencies? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Ameloblastoma. Odontogenic myxoma. Primordial cyst. Keratocyst. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The radiographic appearance of internal resorption is A. B. C. D. E. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity. radiolucency around the apex of the root. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity. radiopacity around the apex of the root.

One week following the placement of a small, Class II composite resin, the patient returns with pulpitis. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D. microleakage. hyperocclusion of the restoration. polymerisation expansion of the restoration. incomplete curing.

Following premature deciduous tooth loss, space problems occur MOST frequently in the area of the A. B. C. D. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor. mandibular second premolar. maxillary first premolar.

Dental plaque developing on tooth surfaces will result in A. B. C. D. demineralization of enamel. periodontal disease. amelogenesis imperfecta. A. and B.

Which of the following procedures will increase the retention of a Class III composite resin restoration in primary incisor and canine teeth? A. Keeping the preparation as small as possible. B. Using labial or lingual dovetails. C. Etching the preparation for an additional 30 seconds.

Which of the following should be checked first when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot be seated on its abutment? A. B. C. D. The occlusal contacts. The taper of the preparation. The proximal contacts. The impression used to pour the cast.

Aging pulps show a relative increase in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. fibrous elements. cell numbers. calcification. vascularity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Doubling the diameter of a round stainless steel orthodontic wire decreases its springiness how many times? A. B. C. D. 4 8 12 16

In the management of a patient with an acute odontogenic infection, the treatment should include: 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. elimination of the cause. drainage. supportive therapy. tetanus immunization. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following should be done prior to pin hole placement in an extensive amalgam preparation? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Examine the radiograph. Determine the subgingival anatomic contours. Remove caries and unsupported enamel. Place a pilot hole at the dentino-enamel junction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In primary molars, radiographic bony changes from an infection are initially seen A. B. C. D. at the apices. in the furcation area. at the alveolar crest. at the base of the developing tooth.

Dislodgement of a maxillary denture may be caused by A. B. C. D. underextension. improper occlusion. overextension. All of the above.

Shortly after the administration of a local anesthetic for the removal of tooth 2.8, the patient complains of a tenseness in the left cheek and left cheek swelling is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D. Surgical emphysema. Immediate allergic reaction. Herniation of buccal fat pad. Hematoma.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma? A. B. C. D. Fremitus. Gingival recession. Widened periodontal ligament. Tooth migration.

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity IS NOT significant. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely primary site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly? A. B. C. D. Dorsum of the tongue. Floor of the mouth. Lateral border of the tongue. Tonsillar fossa.

A 20 year old female patient is suspected of having bulimia. Which of the following signs will help confirm the diagnosis? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior teeth. Enlargement of the thyroid gland. Calluses on the dorsum of the fingers. Bulky clothing to disguise weight loss. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal A. B. C. D. E. radiolucency of the bifurcation. normal radiographic appearance. periapical bone rarefaction. altered periodontal ligament space. internal resorption.

A metal in the wrought condition differs from the same metal in the cast condition in that A. B. C. the grains are deformed and elongated. the yield strength and hardness are increased. if heated sufficiently, recrystallization can occur. All of the above.

During a normal chewing cycle, which of the following has/have maximum EMG activity when the teeth are in maximum intercuspation? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Medial pterygoid muscles. Masseter muscles. Lateral pterygoid muscles. Digastric muscles. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

D.

The most common site in the oral cavity for a squamous cell carcinoma is A. B. C. D. floor of the mouth. buccal mucosa. palate. gingiva.

Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A. B. C. D. Masseter. Geniohyoid. External (lateral) pterygoid. Buccinator.

The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. B. C. D. sodium. fluoride. potassium. magnesium.

When a pit-and-fissure sealant is placed over early but non-cavitated caries A. the sealant retention rate is greatly reduced. B. bacterial loads generally increase under the sealant. C. it significantly reduces the likelihood of the caries progression. D. it will arrest the caries only if it is a primary tooth.

A patient presents with apparent paralysis of one side of the face which appeared the day before. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D. Glossodynia. Bell's palsy. Myasthenia gravis. Trigeminal neuralgia.

The masseter muscle originates from the A. B. C. D. angle of the mandible. coronoid process. pterygoid fossa. zygomatic arch.

The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in A. B. C. D. cyst formation. abscess formation. epithelial hyperplasia. increased calculus formation. The radiographic appearance of internal resorption is A. B. C. D. E. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity. radiolucency around the apex of the root. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity. radiopacity around the apex of the root.

The use of complete dentures by older people most frequently causes 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. denture induced hyperplasia. alveolar ridge resorption. angular cheilitis. stomatitis. leukoplakia. (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

The areas that may be adjusted during a laboratory occlusal correction of complete dentures with teeth set in a normal horizontal overlap relationship without changing the vertical dimension of occlusion are the A. B. C. D. maxillary lingual cusps. mandibular buccal cusps. central grooves of mandibular posterior teeth. maxillary buccal cusps.

Which of the following drugs has/have sedative properties? A. B. C. D. Benzodiazepines. Barbiturates. Meperidine. All of the above.

The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. completely eliminates skin bacteria. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

There is a risk for significant complications from an acute overdose of acetaminophen due to A. B. C. D. depression of the respiratory centre. severe gastric bleeding. hepatic toxicity. anaphylactic shock.

Multiple supernumerary teeth are most commonly found in A. B. C. D. E. cherubism. cretinism. hypothyroidism. cleidocranial dysplasia. Down's syndrome.

A 6-year old child presents with a non-vital mandibular deciduous second molar which has a draining fistula in the bifurcation area. Your treatment of choice is A. B. C. D. extraction. observation. pulpotomy. direct pulp capping.

The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be delayed by A. B. C. D. a supernumerary tooth. dense fibrous tissue. a retained deciduous incisor. All of the above.

Paget’s Disease is A. limited to craniofacial bones. B. associated with decreased alkaline phosphatase. C. associated with a ground glass radiographic appearance. D. commonly associated with bone pain. E. most commonly seen in the mandible.

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. malalignment of teeth. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. patient movement during the exposure. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Salicylates for post-operative pain can affect coagulation of blood by A. B. C. D. E. exhibiting a coumadin - like effect resulting in an increase of vitamin K dependent factors. exhibiting a coumadin - like effect resulting in a decrease of vitamin K dependent factors. interfering with normal platelet functions resulting in a prolonged bleeding time. (A) and (B) (A) and (C)

Vita shade A1 The highest incidence of congenitally missing lateral incisors is most likely seen in a patient with A. B. C. D. unilateral cleft lip and palate. congenital heart disease. Down's syndrome. hyperthyroidism. A. B. C. D. is more chromatic than A4. has a different hue than A4. has higher value than A4 has the same translucency as A4.

What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second premolar can be confirmed? A. B. C. D. 2 years. 4 years. 6 years. 8 years.

The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed by the maxilla and which other bone? A. B. C. D. Temporal. Sphenoid. Frontal. Occipital.

A 10-15 second application of 37% phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will result in all of the following EXCEPT Using less water for mixing plaster of Paris will result in set plaster that A. B. C. D. contracts. is stronger. is more porous. is less brittle. A. B. C. D. elimination of the smear layer. increased diameter of the dentinal tubules. demineralization of the superficial dentin. elimination of the collagen fibres.

In an 8-year old child, the four maxillary incisors are tipped lingually and are in crossbite. The optimum time for treatment is A. B. C. D. as soon as possible. after the maxillary canines are in position. after the maxillary premolars erupt. following completion of jaw growth.

The vertical relation of rest is A. B. C. D. the same as the vertical relation of occlusion. greater than the vertical relation of occlusion. less than the vertical relation of occlusion. the same as the interocclusal distance.

In complete denture construction, a custom tray should be selected so that the impression will ascertain that A. B. C. D. E. the flanges are not overextended. the distal extension is adequate. there is relief for muscle attachments. the tray has adequate space for the impression material. All of the above.

The curve of Spee is greater in individuals with A. B. C. Class I malocclusion. Class II malocclusion. Class III malocclusion.

Which thermal property is most important in selecting a restorative material to protect the pulp from excessive temperature changes? A. B. C. D. conductivity. diffusivity. expansion coefficient. modulus.

Which drug is most adversely affected by ingestion of antacids? A. B. C. D. Cephalexin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Penicillin V.

A patient with a malocclusion with a deep overbite has A. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth. B. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. C. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. increased eruption of the poterior teeth.

Orthodontic treatment using growth modification should be A. started as early as possible. B. individualized to maximize effect. C. delayed until the eruption of the permanent dentition. D. used in adult patients.

The best means of extending the working time of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is to A. B. C. D. E. extend spatulation time. add additional water. use cold water. add a small amount of borax. add potassium sulfate.

4. Recurrent aphthae. dentinogenesis process. D. 3. D. Ectodermal dysplasia. C. C.18 mg. bradycardia. histiocyte. Fibrous dysplasia. thermal conductivity of dentin.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100. tachycardia (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above. C. Space shortage. (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of a maxillary midline diastema? A. 2. E. perform a pulpectomy and fill immediately with gutta-percha and restore. . Dens invaginatus. D. Herpes simplex. D.Cytologic examination may aid in the diagnosis of 1. You would A. C. D. odontoblast. B. Early anoxia is characterized by 1. 3. Gemination. 1.0 mg. Mesiodens. D. 2. E. B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell.018 mg. Which of the following lesions of the oral or maxillofacial region is premalignant? A.8 mg. C.000. A. cyanosis. E. 180. B. He is brought to your office within one hour of the injury. B. B. 0. A periapical radiograph reveals that the root of the tooth is complete but the apex is open. the amount of vasoconstrictor is A. The cell of the dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells is the A. D. Focal fibrous hyperplasia. Smoker’s melanosis. C. D. C. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and restore. 5. fibroblast. Pemphigus vulgaris. B. C. A. Carcinoma in situ. B. Erosive lichen planus. 18. Epithelial dysplasia. A 9-year old boy sustains a fracture of the crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp exposure. B. hydrodynamic theory. neurogate mechanism. inorganic component of dentin. perform a pulpotomy and seal temporarily. perform a pulpectomy and seal temporarily.0 mg. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing 1. 0. Sensitivity related to a noncarious cervical lesion is best explained by the A.

B. A. 3. D. the concentration of the drug increases with time. a drug accumulates in the body at a faster rate than it is destroyed or removed. 4. C. block out and relief is placed on the A. A. bruxism. adding an occlusal dovetail. remount cast. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. E. D. E. respiratory depression. Intravenous administration of epinephrine results in 1. D. The crown margin should be placed The most prevalent inflammatory cells found in gingival tissue 24 hours following flap surgery are A. cusp replacement. a functional shift. D. C. palpitations. C. D. A. B. B. 3. C. In drug synergism A. An anterior cross-bite of a permanent maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is often associated with A. B. 4. lingually situated supernumerary teeth. B. 2. placing a gingival bevel. increased systolic pressure. E. prolonged retention of a primary incisor. C. a drug acts beneficially in conjunction with another drug. 2. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. monocytes. B. a drug produces active metabolites. increased heart rate. A lower molar requiring a crown has an extensive MOD amalgam restoration. B. a drug is concentrated in the kidneys. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo-surface margin. D. at the amalgam/tooth junction. refractory cast. lengthening the axial walls. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. C. macrophages. on the existing amalgam. D. C. E.The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. premature eruption of a maxillary incisor. C. diagnostic cast. inability to maintain a dry operating field. B. 4. unexplainable genetic factors. increasing the parallelism of walls. master cast. E. . During the fabrication of a removable complete denture. lymphocytes. A. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. C. Using a high speed dental handpiece WITHOUT water coolant will A. Immunosuppressive therapy. D. stainless steel crowns. acid etch composite resin techniques. cephalosporin. metronidazole. A.The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous maxillary incisor is most likely due to A. B. decrease pulpal damage if used with light pressure. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. dislodge food particles from between teeth. Clinically normal-appearing mucosa. B. root caries. The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by A. Burning mouth syndrome is associated with: Water irrigation devices have been shown to A. pulpal involvement. placing distal rests on distal abutments. E. Cloxacillin. Persistent odontogenic fistula. C. increase frictional heat. Fractured incisal angles in the permanent teeth of adolescent patients are best restored using A. full coverage restorations. E. atrophicappearing mucosa. D. Which of the following should NOT be prescribed to a pregnant patient? A. ectodermal dysplasia. ampicillin. Tetracycline. C. recurrent pocketing. C. C. cleidocranial dysostosis. Keratinocytes with enlarged nuclei on cytologic smears. reduce debris accumulation. E. . using cast clasps on distal abutments. Clinically erythematous. C. D. D. Cephalosporins. B. Erythromycin. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. C. C. B. amelogenesis imperfecta. Organ transplant. eliminate plaque. The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is A. D. D. B. D. penicillin V. erythromycin. Cardiac prosthesis. The antibiotic of choice for a periradicular dental abscess is A. produce a smoother surface. Valvular heart disease. C. B. root sensitivity. B. trauma. hypophosphatasia. regular relining of the distal extensions. B. C. Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. gold castings. D. B. D. D. E. reduce clogging of dental bur. prevent calculus formation. B. Candidal pseudohyphae on cytologic smears. E.

considered a manifestation of the nutritional needs of the child. diplococcal organisms. B. soft. E. An infected root is accidentally displaced into the maxillary sinus. concavity in the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown. C. E. posterior third of the tongue. accelerating the eruption timetable. ignored. E. they are enlarged. A. of concern beyond 5 years of age. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. C. Based on the evidence available. C. B. C. spirochetes. Which of the following statements applies to the submandibular lymph nodes? 1. 2. 4. 2.A Class II. gram-negative organisms. D. C. Examination of the socket reveals perforation of the sinus lining with an oro-antral communication. 4. antibiotic coverage and observation. Division 1 malocclusion is often associated with a thumbsucking habit. Therapy should consist of 1. D. thumbsucking should be A. soft palate. acrylic template to cover socket opening and saline rinses. buccolingual width of the tooth's mesial marginal ridge. D. They discharge into the internal jugular nodes. interfering with jaw growth. unusual position of the contact area. B. When draining an area of acute infection. delaying the eruption timetable. considered a primary cause of this type of malocclusion. B. 3. the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by A. B. size of the interproximal gingival embrasure. With the development of gingivitis. They are found medially to the mandible. (1) only (3) only (4) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by A. nontender. antrostomy for retrieval of root. C. well defined and movable. Special attention is given to matrix adaptation for the insertion of amalgam in a MO cavity in a maxillary first premolar because of the A. D. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. . All of the above. gram-positive organisms. restoration being in the esthetic zone. They drain the anterior palatine pillar. D. closure of oro-antral communication and antibiotic coverage. 3. A.

The features of aggressive (rapidly progressive) periodontitis are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. rapid attachment loss. suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. onset before the age of 35. ulcerations of the gingiva. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures A. B. C. D. quantity of plaque at the gingival margin. colony forming units of Gram-negative bacteria. weight of plaque obtained from facial surfaces. weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crowns.

Generally, glass ionomer cements contain A. B. C. zinc oxide and distilled water. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. fluoro aluminosilica powder and orthophosphoric acid. fluoro aluminosilica powder and polyacrylic acid.

In taking a polysulfide impression for a cast restoration in the maxilla, the tray must 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. be rigid. have occlusal stops. cover the hard palate. be coated with an adhesive cement. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (4) All of the above.

D.

In a Class II, division 1 occlusion, the most common finding is A. B. C. D. maxillary prognathism. mandibular prognathism. maxillary retrognathism. mandibular retrognathism.

Lack of ramus height is caused by faulty development of A. B. C. D. membranous bone. endochondral bone. Meckel’s cartilage. temporomandibular joint.

A healthy, 23 year old male patient experiences a warm sensation, diaphoresis, nausea, light headedness and then loses consciousness approximately 30 seconds following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine for an inferior alveolar nerve block. What is the most likely diagnosis for his situation? A. B. C. D. Allergic reaction to local anesthetic. Overdose of local anesthetic. Syncope. Intravascular injection of local anesthetic.

Following root canal therapy, the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. B. C. D. cementum deposition. connective tissue capsule formation. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament. dentin deposition.

In the design of a removable partial denture, the objectives of surveying the diagnostic cast are to A. B. C. D. E. determine the path of insertion. locate tooth surfaces that can act as guiding planes. locate retention areas. locate the height of contour. All of the above.

A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. who are elderly. with acute infection. consuming a high protein or fat diet. taking systemic antibiotics. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Nystatin is the drug of choice for A. B. C. D. aphthous stomatitis. candidiasis. periodontal abscess. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Which one of the following agents does NOT cause gastric irritation? A. B. C. D. E. Acetylsalicylic acid. Alcohol. Ibuprofen. Indomethacin. Acetaminophen.

Unconsciousness in syncope results from A. B. C. D. electrolyte imbalance. neurogenic shock. cerebral hyperemia. cerebral hypoxia.

A removable partial denture is preferable to a fixed bridge when the A. B. C. D. E. edentulous areas are large. abutment teeth have large undercuts. abutment teeth are rotated. residual ridges are severely resorbed. abutment teeth are tipped.

The central action of caffeine is principally on the A. B. C. D. E. cerebral cortex. corpus callosum. hypothalamus. spinal cord. medulla.

A decrease of which of the following is indicative of hypoparathyroidism? A. B. C. D. Serum phosphorus. Serum calcium. Thyroid activity. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. eliminate the need for internal retention. improve convenience form. aid in finishing. increase the surface area for etching. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The levels of mutans streptococcus have been shown to be significantly higher in the proximal plaque adjacent to which type of posterior restoration? A. B. C. D. Glass ionomer. Composite resin. Amalgam. Gold castings.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess? 1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality tester. A positive reaction of short duration to cold. A positive reaction to percussion. Presence of a draining fistula. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The physiopathology of sleep apnea is most likely related to A. B. C. D. excessive oropharyngeal muscular tonus during sleep. central nervous system respiratory neuron depression. obstruction in lower airways. a severe Class III malocclusion.

2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Median anterior maxillary cysts occur in the Displacement of fractures is influenced by A. B. C. D. E. nasal bone. incisive canal and in the palatine process. zygomatic process. hamular process. None of the above. 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. direction of the blow. muscle attachments. direction of fracture line. hemorrhage. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

When smokers are compared to nonsmokers, probing depths after surgical periodontal treatment are A. B. C. greater. smaller. the same.

In facial injury management, the most important first aid measure is to A. B. C. D. control the bleeding. prevent shock. establish and maintain an airway. control infection.

Proximal retention grooves are most necessary to provide resistance for proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restorations when the A. occlusal extension is wide faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. B. restoration is a pin-retained cusp replacement. C. occlusal extension is narrow faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. D. bonded amalgam technique is not being used.

A preparation for a porcelain fused to metal crown with a porcelain butt joint margin should have a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. 90o cavosurface margin. subgingival finish line. 1.2mm shoulder. 90o axiogingival angle. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most damaging characteristic of an Angle Class II, division 2 malocclusion is the A. B. C. D. E. deep overbite. crowding of the mandibular incisors. relationship of the molars. impaction of the maxillary canines. malposition of the maxillary lateral incisors. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has A. B. C. D. E. Mumps. sialolithiasis. acute bacterial sialadenitis. Sjögren’s syndrome. sarcoidosis.

The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. act as an indirect retainer. stabilize the abutment teeth. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Following subgingival curettage, the amount of gingival shrinkage depends upon A. B. C. D. E. the thickness of the free gingiva. the degree of edematous hyperplasia present. whether the pocket orifice is broad or narrow. the degree of suppuration present. All of the above.

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases A. B. C. D. E. ductility. yield strength. coring. elastic modulus. malleability.

A 75 year old male patient whose wife died 10 months ago presents for his recall appointment. Looking wasted and fatigued, he confirms he has lost about 6kg in the last 8 months but is otherwise in good health. The most appropriate management for this patient is to A. B. C. D. recommend that he drink 3 cans of a nutritional supplement each day. refer him to a qualified dietician/nutritionist and follow up after his appointment. refer him back to his physician requesting a more thorough assessment. provide him with a copy of Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating.

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. B. C. D. E. Epulis fissuratum. Lingual varicosities. Squamous cell carcinoma. Median rhomboid glossitis. Prominent fungiform papillae.

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. protects the enamel. increases retention. improves marginal adaptation. increases the thickness of gold. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following most likely causes pulpal irritation with posterior composite resin restorations? A. Seepage of residual monomer to the pulp. B. Inadequate calcium hydroxide dentin coverage. C. Leakage of bisphenol-A from bis-GMAbased resin composites. D. Separation of composite resin from acidetched dentin.

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis affects MAINLY the A. B. C. D. E. attached gingivae. gingival papillae. alveolar mucosa. buccal mucosa. epithelial attachment.

Post-immunization serological test results for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B reveals that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. B. repeat the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. C. refrain from performing any exposureprone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. D. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection.

Crowding of the lower incisors following orthodontic alignment A. B. C. D. E. cannot be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. can be prevented by removal of the third molars. can be prevented by wearing retainers until mandibular growth is complete. can be predicted if alignment was obtained by expansion of the transverse intercanine width. can be prevented by a post alignment circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy.

The most likely origin of a metastic carcinoma of the mandible is a primary lesion of the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. lung. breast. prostate. nasopharynx. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An enameloma is A. B. C. D. an odontoma. an ameloblastoma. a pearl of enamel. an enamel hypocalcification.

The premolar with the occlusal groove pattern simulating the letter “Y” is the A. B. C. D. maxillary first premolar. mandibular first premolar. maxillary second premolar. mandibular second premolar.

The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed. may remain for years with no significant resorption. may remain for years partially resorbed. are always resorbed. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Trismus is most frequently caused by A. B. C. D. tetanus. muscular dystrophy. infection. mandibular fracture.

An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies of the jaws is A. B. C. D. deformity. reduced vascularity. increased vascularity. increased brittleness.

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. glossitis. angular cheilitis. pain. erythematous oral mucosa. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Epidemiology of disease is best described as the A. B. C. D. data obtained from sickness surveys. usual low level of disease normally found within a population. control of disease. study of disease patterns in a population.

The most important factor contributing to the long term success of the restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is the A. B. C. D. type of post utilized. remaining coronal tooth structure. presence of extracoronal coverage. type of core material used.

The signs of chronic periodontitis include 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E. inflammation. degeneration. bone resorption. no bone resorption. periodontal pockets. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5)

Adjustment of the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture should be completed A. B. C. D. after the teeth have been set on the trial denture. immediately after making the final casts. upon delivery of the denture. after the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.

The most appropriate management technique to avoid aspiration of blood or debris during general anesthesia, is A. B. C. D. insufflation. open drop. endotracheal intubation. intravenous barbiturate with nitrous oxide and oxygen.

Under normal conditions, the most definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. B. C. D. E. applying warm gutta percha to the crown. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. performing an electric pulp test.

A 24 year old patient has slightly retrusive lips and inadequate attached lower labial gingival. This patient requires labial movement of lower incisors to eliminate crowding and decrease overbite and overjet. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. B. Change the treatment to an extraction type so lower incisors can be retracted. Inform the patient of the possibility of bone dehiscence and gingival recession during orthodontic treatment and the need for mucogingival surgery post-treatment. Arrange for corrective mucogingival surgery prior to the start of orthodontic treatment. Encourage the patient to practice meticulous oral hygiene to prevent the gingival recession. Move the teeth more slowly and with less force to minimize the amount of gingival recession.

Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) with aging? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the gastric pH. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced liver mass. Distribution is altered by a decrease in total body fat. Excretion is reduced because of lessened renal blood flow. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

C. D. E.

C. At the delivery appointment. leaving the site undisturbed for a period of 3 months. Pindborg tumor. ameloblastoma. C. Centric relation is a A. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A.Following periodontal surgery. Urinalysis.5 . radiation therapy. C. compound odontoma. B. B. D.3. undergo high shrinkage during the first 24 hours. B. horizontal relationship of the mandible to the maxilla. complex odontoma. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. The most appropriate management is A. rest position of the mandible. contain an accelerator consisting of a stannous sulfate. a salt water rinse. D. observation. and B. D. C. C. The most likely cause of the problem is A. C.8 was permanently relined with acrylic resin. polymerize more slowly. when the rests of the framework are fully seated on the abutment teeth the denture base does not contact the supporting tissues. excess pressure was placed on the denture base area during the impression procedure. vertical relationship of the mandible to the maxilla. The anterior component of force may be observed clinically as A.5cm white patch after incisional biopsy is severe epithelial dysplasia. B. B. A. complete excision. . A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3. D. D. the most important factor to promote healing is A. C. the patient’s tissues have remodelled. liberate ethyl alcohol as a byproduct of the polymerization reaction. D. C.8 and 4. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Silicone impression materials that set by condensation polymerization A. the denture reline resin shrunk during polymerization. Differential white cell count. thorough plaque control. distal movement of a permanent mandibular cuspid. B. relation of the maxilla to the rest of the skull. Which one of the following tests is used to confirm the presence of an acute infection? A.4. E. The diagnosis of a 1. None of the above. B. Serum alkaline phosphatase. repeat biopsy. mesial movement of a permanent maxillary first molar. excess pressure was placed on the rests during the impression procedure. gingival massage. B. D.5 . D.

has topical anesthetic properties. a Class III molar relationship on the affected side. C. Acute apical abscess. delayed eruption of the permanent first molar. avitaminosis. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. Papules. D. B. None of the above. alveolar bone loss. D. Apical cyst. Chronic apical periodontitis. 4. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which one of the following is seen in primary herpetic stomatitis. A. For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat. lactic acid in his mouth. D. viral disease. plaque on his teeth. C. herpes simplex. protean disease. E. 2. C. Pustules. 3. B. A characteristic of a true periodontal pocket is A. C. B. non-specific bacterial infection. a Class II molar relationship on the affected side. Histoplasmosis is a A. labially displaced maxillary canines. allergy to denture cleanser. Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to (an) A.Premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by A. D. B. moniliasis. B. a high lactobacillus count. C. D. Vesicles. B. C. has anticonvulsant properties. herpes zoster and varicella? A. D. saliva with low buffering capacity. cold and electric pulp test? A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) 1. E. fungal disease. gingival edema. C. C. D. is a local anesthetic. anterior crowding. D. . ill fitting denture. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. is an antiarrhythmic agent. B. gingival hyperplasia. Macules.

hypoglycemia.6 months. at a right angle to the major connector. C. D. C. A 45 year old with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus comes for a morning dental appointment. C. endothelial proliferation of capillaries in the area. the patient complains of being lightheaded and weak. Increase in ductility. The patient is most likely experiencing A. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy. 3. Increase in hardness. oral epithelium proliferating apically from a periodontal pocket. frontal bone. B. Immuno-suppressive therapy. nasal bone. B. apical surgical intervention. The last bone in the craniofacial complex to stop growing is the A.Pulpal response to cavity preparation depends upon 1. hyperglycemia. observation and re-evaluation in 3 . C. B. E. Radiographic examination reveals early evidence of internal resorption. immediate pulp extirpation. syncope. guiding planes are made A. D. B. remaining dentin thickness. 2. Increase in resistance to corrosion. hyperventilation. sharpness of the bur. Cardiac prosthesis. Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. C. A. metaplasia of histiocytes and/or cementoblasts. D. B. C. The treatment of choice would be A. Organ transplant. C. B. immediate pulpotomy. E. Decrease in ductility. 2. D. parallel to the path of insertion. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) . 1. coolant used while cutting. D. E. Which of the following are effects of cold working a metal? In the design of a removable partial denture. Persistent odontogenic fistula. duration of the operation. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. A. D. maxilla. 4. the epithelial cell rests of Malassez. C. D. B. at a right angle to the occlusal plane. The epithelial lining of a radicular cyst is derived from A. Valvular heart disease. (1) and (3) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) All of the above. 4. 3. mandible. cerebrovascular accident. During the examination. D. B. Sweating is observed.

C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. apical to the level of the alveolar crest. C. Vitamin A maintains the integrity of mucous membranes. availability of mineral ions in saliva. B. but leaving voids in the pulp chamber for possible recontamination or infection. Periodontitis D. is associated with continuous destruction of the alveolar bone. at the level of the alveolar crest. E. goes through stages of tissue destruction and quiessence. Vitamin D promotes intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption. B. The polishing of an amalgam restoration A. D. is more permanent if the surface is heated during the procedure. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 2. completely prevents tarnish from occurring. Underfilling refers to the complete filling of the canal space. The success of remineralization of "white spot" lesions is dependent upon the 1. In an infrabony periodontal pocket. the tip of the periodontal probe is located A. A. C. E. Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a surplus of material extruding beyond the apical foramen. 2. 3. D. D. Underextension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material regardless of its completeness of obturation. 5. 3. B. D. . The main functions of fat soluble vitamins are: 1.Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics? A. frequency of the cariogenic challenge. 4. between the gingival margin and the functional epithelium. B. removes the mercury rich surface layer of the amalgam. A. Vitamin E is an important antioxidant. viscosity of the saliva. results in occlusal traumatism. at the cemento-enamel junction. Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an accessory canal. Vitamin K catalyzes the synthesis of prothrombin. All of the above. B. Vitamin A is important in the formation of visual purple. develops from gingivitis. should not be performed before 24 hours after insertion. pH of the saliva. (1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. 4. C. 3. A. C. 1. C. 4.

C. suppression of white blood cells. cancer in occupationally exposed females. 2. C. abortions in females. (1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (5) None of the above. Bradykinin. relieve the internal angles of the inlay before insertion. Mandibular first molar. D. C. D. SNA. D. questionable because of variations in vertical relationships in the lower face. ask the patient to lightly tap on the restoration until the occlusion is comfortable. Substance P. 5. The angles. mix the cement rapidly to allow ample time for insertion. A.Prolonged use of nitrous oxide has been shown to produce 1. good because these landmarks can be identified accurately on the cephalometric radiograph. B. D. SNB and ANB are often used to describe relationships of the maxilla and mandible. E. E. apply a firm pressure on the inlay until the cement is set. Maxillary central incisor. 4. low compressive strength. Mandibular central incisor. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The eruption of which of the following permanent teeth signals the beginning of the mixed dentition stage? A. high hardness. 3. Dental porcelain has 1. The reliability of interpretations based on these angles is A. high tensile strength. C. A. 3. C. D. good because research has proven their accuracy. B. liver disease in occupationally exposed males. D. When cementing a gold inlay with a zinc phosphate cement. C. Maxillary canine. E. low impact strength. questionable because of variations in head posture. B. Histamine. . birth defects in exposed females. B. 4. B. B. force the restoration in place with an orange wood stick and mallet. Prostaglandin. Which chemical mediator of inflammation is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)? A. the best way to ensure accurate seating is to A.

E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The electric pulp tester might be of some value in determining whether 5. Tetracyclines have all of the following properties EXCEPT A. 2. D. rheumatic heart disease. they may be substituted for amoxicillin in patients that require coverage to prevent subacute bacterial endocarditis. promoted by a higher pH. 8. C. D. 5. D. 4. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp. 2. 7. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. bleeding upon probing. asthma.Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur 1. B. inhibited by a higher buffering capacity. D. B. 6. D. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. 4. A. The tooth has internal root resorption. the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic. promoted by a higher buffering capacity. within minutes after drug administration. C. Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form calculus is A. 3. when the drug is administered orally. high blood pressure. they predispose patients to candidial infection. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A patient who uses nitroglycerine has A. coronary artery disease. E. C. D. 3. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. there is a partial or total pulpitis. D. 3. inhibited by a higher pH. A. The tooth is hypermobile in an area of cavernous hemangioma. The patient is severely hyperthyroid and not under treatment. Which of the following is/are contraindication(s) for a single tooth extraction in your office? 1. C. C. tooth mobility. B. when the drug is administered parenterally. B. The patient is a well-controlled diabetic. A. they form stable complex with the developing tooth matrix. C. the pulp is vital or nonvital. C. cardiac arrhythmia. 2. E. E. 4. absorption is impaired when taken with milk. a periodontal pocket. Clinical diagnosis of periodontitis requires the presence of 1. B. loss of periodontal attachment. A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. . E.

gingival fibrosis. D. Polycarboxylate cement. C. 2. C. E. juvenile periodontitis. B. the force per unit area will be kept to a minimum. B. 5. Analgesics. A. pulpal microabscess. B. acute periodontitis. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. 4. The base of a distal extension partial denture should cover the maximum support area because A. . (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) (3) (5) All of the above. The most likely diagnosis is A. D. C. 3. B. acute periradicular periodontitis. 1. poor oral hygiene may result in 1. 2. ulcerative gingivitis.During orthodontic treatment. 2. enhances strength. D. strength of the base is increased. Pain threshold. C. Patient anxiety. enhances tarnish resistance. Glass ionomer cement. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement. 3. maximum number of artificial teeth can be placed. E. reduces flow. reversible pulpitis. 4. 3. phonetics is improved. speeds the amalgamation rate. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. The presence of tin in an amalgam alloy modifies the reaction and physical properties of the amalgam in that it A. One week after an amalgam restoration is placed in the mandibular first premolar. Recent trauma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. E. Zinc phosphate cement. A. A. C. B. C. marginal gingivitis. Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing? Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. D. hypercementosis. D. 4. the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold.

No change in compressive strength. the pin holes should be parallel to the Saliva is most effective in minimizing an acid challenge by its A. osteoarthritis. Reduced flow. B. A loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by 1. C. Shade of composite resin. B. C. long axis of the tooth. fracture in the mandibular first molar region. 3. A. when the root is within cortical bone. axial wall. A. This history is suggestive of A. antimicrobial effect. Increased setting expansion. B. 2. metastatic malignancy to the body of the mandible. rheumatoid arthritis. C. 4. B. D. 3. D. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. Proximity of light source. pulp chamber. E. when the PDL has areas of calcification. Bell's palsy. 4. when the root is within alveolar bone. B. D. buffering action. . rheumatic fever.Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include 1. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide. 2. palliative treatment. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Orthodontic tooth movement is most efficient A. E. Thickness of composite resin. trigeminal neuralgia. B. chronic polyarthritis. A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. D. lubrication function. 2. C. 4. D. B. nearest external surface. In pin-retained restorations. A. B. C. in brachycephalic patients with strong muscular patterns. C. A. (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above. E. Intensity of the light source. Increased surface pitting. fluoride concentration. E. D. D. Which of the following affect(s) polymerization of visible light cured composite resins? 1. steroid therapy. C. control of secondary infection. C. Contamination with saliva during placement of a zinc-containing amalgam restoration results in: A.

at the level of the junctional epithelium. D. E. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth. becomes brittle. C. a thin broad palatal strap. work hardens. 4. E. C. The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by A. B. throughout life. Impressions for partial dentures. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. corrodes. contracts. an anterior and a posterior bar. Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling Which tooth movement is NOT possible with a removable appliance? A. C. A. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. the tip of the periodontal probe is most likely located A. C. D. 2. D. 3. B. D. Crown tipping. apical to the junctional epithelium.The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. D. Which of the following conditions produces a radiolucent image? A. Odontoma. B. Which procedure(s) require(s) antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial endocarditis? 1. B. regular relining of the distal extensions. coronal to the junctional epithelium. E. a thick narrow major connector. B. at the level of the supra crestal fibers. D. B. Sialolithiasis. C. C. Mandibular block anesthetic injection. B. placing distal rests on distal abutments. . using cast clasps on distal abutments. through the primary dentition. C. D. When gold or a gold alloy changes from a liquid to a solid state it A. until the end of mixed dentition. narrow horseshoe shaped. Suture removal. None of the above. Periodontal surgery. A. Root uprighting. Internal resorption. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. expands. Osteosclerosis. When probing a healthy gingival sulcus with a 20g force. E. B. C. Crown rotation.

C. remove plaque. A 12 year old child presents with characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. D. disappearance.g. frequent bleeding. C. an ulcerated area on buccal mucosa. B. Typical history of a mucocele is A. D. The rate of "set" of polysulfide impression materials is accelerated by A. adding oleic acid to the mix. This is a result of A. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A.Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels. Hypoparathyroidism. Signs and symptoms of diabetic patients include 1. D. 6 years. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. D. injecting the solution too rapidly. D. remove debris. D. thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. B. remove calculus. B. stimulating sympathetic nerves around an artery. recurrence. 2. C. a trauma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. glycosuria. the patient complains of a sharp pain in the cheek which blanches. Hyperthyroidism. Which of the following may affect probing depth measurements of a periodontal pocket? 1. 4 years. swelling. 4. 1 year. B. 3. injecting too much solution. A. E. B. Probing force. polydipsia. None of the above. E. Hyperparathyroidism. Hypothyroidism. intravenous injection. Diameter of the probe tip. D. prevent bacteremia. before birth. C. B. E. B. increasing the mixing temperature. 3. After giving buccal infiltration anesthesia for the removal of a maxillary premolar. prevent plaque formation. 4. decreasing the mixing temperature. a slowly growing tumor mass. C. polyuria. Regular use of oral irrigators (e. A. E. C. D. Subgingival calculus. dysphagia. B. rupture. "Water Pik") will A. Angulation of the probe. C. . a pain immediately before eating.

To improve denture stability. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. B. Total removal of subgingival calculus in pockets more than 5mm deep is best achieved by A. neoplasia.5. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. over the buccal shelf area. panoramic. C. C. central rays. C. D. D. D. B. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. root planing with hand instruments. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. 4. To determine the location of an impacted maxillary cuspid. Radiographically. 2. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. fabricate a porcelain veneer. periapical and occlusal. A. subgingival irrigation. surgery and scaling. ultrasonic scaling. A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored upper central incisor. tuberculosis. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated. occlusal. infection of tooth 5. aluminum filtered rays. The X-rays which are most apt to be absorbed by the skin and cause an injury are A. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. D. periapical. D. B. All other teeth are normal. 3. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge. mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed A. Oral lesions failing to heal may be related to 1. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. B.5. D. . perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown.5 during the development of tooth 1. deep penetrating rays. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. B. rays of long wave-length. E. diabetes. E. B. C. generalized calcium deficiency. C. there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. hereditary factor. the radiographic view(s) required is/are A. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. D. C. vitamin D deficiency. syphilis. This was most probably caused by a/an A.

C. higher kVp. D. Hypoglossal. insertion of a space maintainer. D. B. Conventional speed and water spray. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong. B. Upon setting. gain in moisture content. proper filtration. Most of the somatosensory information from the oral cavity reaches the brain through which nerve? A. D. adenoma. mobile teeth should be splinted in order to A. C. The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is A.The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is A. D. loss in compressive strength. Ultra high speed and water spray. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. D. B. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal line angle. choriocarcinoma. Which of the following methods of cavity preparation is most likely to cause damage to the pulp? A. None of the above. collimation of the X-ray beam. Trigeminal. C. chondroma. lipoma. vagal stimulation. D. B. Conventional speed and no water spray. is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam. In patients with advanced periodontitis. reduce gingival inflammation. should result in a long bevel. E. B. B. E. to perform space analysis. D. . D. The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an A. Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth A. Glossopharyngeal. papilloma. C. extraction of the opposing molar. C. D. C. expansion. accelerate epithelialization after periodontal surgery. B. Cardiovascular collapse caused by a high circulating dose of a local anesthetic is due to A. E. histamine release. regular assessment of arch development. B. C. a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit A. Ultra high speed and no water spray. high speed film. C. medullary stimulation. Trochlear. enhance formation of a new connective tissue attachment after surgery. B. myocardial depression. contraction. should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture. C.

In primary teeth. D. low elastic recovery. is better than that of hydrocolloids. the swelling causes increased pressure on the nerves. proximal surface caries. greater penetrability. there is pain on percussion. imbibition. D. will cause internal resorption. All of the above. an increase in the kilovoltage is accompanied by A. Hydrocolloid impressions are removed from the mouth with a snap because they exhibit A. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal. The accuracy of the mercaptan polysulfide and silicone rubber impression materials A. It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in the presence of infection near the injection site because A. E. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent. is inversely proportional to temperature and humidity. there is pain to thermal stimuli. viscoelasticity. 2. 3. 1. cervical caries. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior teeth. C. D. . the coronoid process may A. is the treatment of choice for small mechanical exposures. a pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide A. B. limit the distal extensions of the maxillary denture. C. occlusal carious lesions. is successful treatment in 90 percent of cases. will stimulate apical closure. increased blood supply carries the anesthetic solution away too fast. E. B. hyperemia of the pulp. the radiograph shows an apical radiolucency. C. low tear strength. B. syneresis. C. is less than that of alginates. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture. B. In teeth with complete pulp necrosis. D. Bitewing radiographs are most valuable for detecting A. B. In dental radiography. an increase in the quantity of radiation. B. C. B. D. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down. D. the periapical area is involved if In an edentulous patient. C. E. B. E. compares favorably with reversible hydrocolloids. D. is contra-indicated. 4. C. the ability to decrease exposure time. D. will cause an acute inflammatory reaction. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent.

white sponge nevus. synaptic inhibition in the dorsal column. 3. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum. the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure.Asymptomatic. have no side effects. reticular. there is an adequate ferrule. E. 4. B. pemphigus. B. easier placement into the cavity preparation. D. initially produce an organic nonmineralized matrix. may increase susceptibility to superinfections. D. C. C. are polarized in opposite directions. B. The treatment should be to A. composite resins can be used as a core material for endodontically treated teeth to be crowned provided A. discoid lupus erythematosus. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. A. C. B. B. better adaptation to the cavity walls. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. E. release of adrenal steroids from the adrenal cortex. For a patient who exhibits bruxism. antagonism of histamine. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. . In a developing crown. Tetracyclines 1. Assuming there is adequate tooth structure remaining. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity. C. local anesthetic effect on pain fibres. D. erythema multiforme. 2. D. the resin is autopolymerizing. B. a cast gold inlay is superior to an amalgam because the inlay has A. D. A significant mechanism by which acetylsalicylic acid produces its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect is A. greater thermal conductivity. perform a pulpectomy. B. E. C. ameloblasts and odontoblasts A. grayishwhite linear lesions of the buccal mucosa most likely represent A. D. better ability to withstand masticatory forces. lichen planus. C. bilateral. A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old. begin to produce matrix simultaneously. have rapid cell division. are safe to use during pregnancy. C. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. prescription of an analgesic. Deep vertical anterior overlap. A. cyanosis of tissue. the presence of minimal attached gingiva. C. D. 2. allowed to erupt into cross-bite and then corrected. 3. B. (An) important clinical sign(s) of gingivitis is/are 1. 3. D. the buccinator muscle. Narcotic and non-narcotic analgesics are equipotent. B. B. ignored because pressures of the lip will cause the problem to recur. the external oblique ridge. extends from the Porion to the Orbitale. A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. allowed to erupt until all incisors can be banded. E. prescription of an antibiotic. A zirconia-based ceramic fixed partial denture is indicated for which of the following clinical conditions? A. The Frankfort plane 1. A. D. corrected before it reaches the occlusal plane. B. 4. C. B. 4. initial treatment must include A. C. 2.The shape of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is determined by 1. For an otherwise healthy patient. Non-narcotic analgesics are safer and less toxic. the tendon of the temporal muscle. with an acute localized periodontal abscess. . B. bone loss. C. (1) only (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (l) and (2) Which of the following statements are correct? 1. 2. Non-narcotic analgesics do not alter consciousness. Long clinical crowns. 4. Cantilever pontic. D. D. D. B. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) and (4) All of the above. E. the masseter muscle. C. Non-narcotic analgesics produce less side effects. A maxillary central incisor erupting in a lingually directed path should be A. Evidence of bruxism. describes the cranial base dimensions. is parallel with the maxillary plane. occlusal adjustment. A. ignored because pressures of the tongue will correct it as it erupts. D. E. 2. Periodontally involved abutment teeth. bleeding on gentle probing. 3. E. 3. scaling and root planing. C.

D. increased incidence of pulp stones. D. B. 3. A 78-year old patient presents with several carious lesions on the root surfaces of the maxillary posterior teeth. Pain upon biting pressure. crossbite relationship. 8 years. microfilled composite resin. decrease the immune response. soft tissue necrosis. C. B. fracture. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. C. D. D. osteomyelitis. 2 years. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. increased tendency to pulpal fibrosis. cause diabetes. C. 4. glass ionomer cement. In an 80 year old patient you would expect 1. B. 1. E. D. an increased pulpal vascularity. recessive chin and deep labial mento-labial sulcus in the chin are referred to as A. C. silver amalgam. actinomycosis. cause retention of sodium and fluid. 4. mesognathic relationship. 2. 3. extraction of mandibular teeth is most likely to result in A. B. D. prognathic relationship. B. 4 years. Periapical radiolucency. 2. Absent vitalometric response. C. E. Inverted. 6 years. Horizontal.What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second bicuspid can be confirmed? A. B. development of malignancy. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol cement. Mesio-angular. Following radiation therapy to the mandible. Disto-angular. heighten the immune response. A. B. C. a reduced size of the pulp chamber. Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. E. A. C. Profile features of extreme overjet. hybrid composite resin. The restorative material of choice is A. D. retrognathic relationship. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. E. Adrenal corticosteroids Which impacted mandibular third molar is easiest to remove? A. B.

girls two years ahead of boys. wide suprabony pocket. B. narrow infrabony pocket. B. C. placement of a maxillary repositioning splint. D. E. activator. infected with Candida albicans.Oral leukoplakia has the most favourable prognosis when it is A. an increase in supernumerary teeth. greater collimation. The basic design principles for a mucoperiosteal flap are 1. girls one year ahead of boys. B. boys six months ahead of girls. All of the above. B. Light-cured dental composites set when exposed to light. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch. D. more gamma radiation. adequate access. (1) (2) (3) (2) and (4) (3) and (4) All of the above. reactor. That difference is A. observation until the permanent teeth erupt. B. girls six months ahead of boys. . broad based. D. D. Polycarboxylate. wide infrabony pocket. C. In patients with cleft palates there may be A. terminator. B. D. E. C. a higher incidence of crown defects. able to be repositioned over bone. The best prognosis for new attachment (reattachment) of periodontal ligament is in a A. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is A. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch. B. narrow suprabony pocket. Increasing the kilovoltage setting in the dental x-ray machine results in A. Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? A. E. Calcium hydroxide. present in a non-smoker. D. catalyst. D. 3. initiator. A 7 year old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. D. B. C. D. C. accompanied by pain. unilateral expansion of maxillary arch. C. speckled in appearance. an increase in congenitally missing teeth. more penetration. Light is the A. C. greater secondary radiation at the level of the skin. C. C. There is a differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. Zinc phosphate. adequate blood supply. 4. B. on the hard palate. 2. A.

C. . pulpal necrosis. 4. Lingual (palatal). Fluorides taken systemically are 1. 175ml unsweetened orange juice. his speech becomes slurred and he is less alert than usual. Mesial. Bacteroides forsythus. gingival to the contact area. 15g of glucose as tablets or in solution. Apical. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. E. 2. B. lingual to the contact area. C. reduce occlusal trauma. appointment. B. Rotational. generally have lower compressive strength.m. D. occlusal to the contact area. 175ml of diet cola. (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (4) All of the above. 5. deposited in the nails and teeth. eliminate crowded and tilted teeth. deposited in teeth only. Prevotella intermedia. 4. C. A 50 year old obese patient with type 2 diabetes takes oral hypoglycemics. D. C. Which periodontal pathogen can use the hormone estrogen as a growth factor? A. Which of the following basic forcep movements is NOT used for extracting teeth? A. make adequate dietary and nutritional adjustments. have higher concentration of the tinmercury phase. compared to those made from alloys containing 13 percent copper 1. Dismissal of the patient to have his breakfast.The primary objective of initial periodontal therapy is to A. A. D. B. 3. D. B. 3. D. remove the colonized masses of microorganisms and calculus. D. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient? A. (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) and (2) (4) and (5) (1) and (4) An incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located A. C. deposited in bone only. 2. B. D. post-extraction infection. demonstrate less creep or flow. are more resistant to tarnish and corrosion. facial to the contact area. excreted in the urine. B. E. demonstrate less marginal breakdown in clinical service. B. C. B. C. C. A dento-alveolar abscess most frequently originates from (a) A. A. During his 8:30 a. D. He is frequently skipping meals in order to reduce his weight. Porphyromonas gingivalis. Dental amalgams that are made from alloys containing 6 percent copper. periodontal cyst. trauma.

Irreversible hydrocolloids. C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Polyvinyl siloxanes. pseudomembranes. C. 4. as contrasted with functional cross-bite. deviated closure to centric occlusion. C. exophthalmos. D. Masseter. improved aesthetics compared to traditional bridges. D. pain. marked wear facets. B. Mentalis. C. economy. E. Which muscle is LEAST likely to dislodge a mandibular denture? A. None of the above. Polysulfides. Buccinator. B. Mylohyoid. Poor denture base adaptation. Insufficient posterior palatal seal. Which of the following materials are LEAST suitable for impressions for cast gold restorations? A. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. tooth structure conservation. What is the most likely cause of a maxillary denture dislodging when the patient opens wide or makes extreme lateral excursions? A. vesicle formation. A. Pronounced midpalatal raphe. B. B. 4. 3. inflammation. Advantages of resin bonded bridges are 1. 2. shortness of breath. 4. E. D. interference free closure to centric occlusion. 3. B. . C. A. Labial frenum impingement. pitting edema of the ankles. 2. short chair-side time. Polyethers. Aphthous ulcers are characterized by 1. Coronoid process interference. A. D. A skeletal cross-bite.A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. C. (3) and (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. B. D. usually demonstrates A. epistaxis. D. 3. E. C. 2.

B. Central cementifying fibroma. A gingivectomy may be performed when there is/are A. C. Sensitivity of gingiva and tongue. C. no intrabony defects. 2. The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should slope apically from A. lingual to buccal. first premolars. Periapical radiolucencies are not always indicative of loss of pulp vitality. B. D. D. C. C. A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level. A. distal to mesial. the most common order of tooth removal is 1. E. mesial to distal.Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. D. E. 3. horizontal bone loss. hardness. A definitive diagnosis of an apical lesion cannot be made on radiography alone. 4. melting point. D. B. Weight loss. D. Periapical cemental dysplasia (periapical cementoma(s)). 3. Salivary gland. A. C. 4. B. Ameloblastoma. D. B. E. primary first molars. a gingival pocket. A. Lethargic appearance. The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. Radiographs cannot differentiate between infected and non-infected periapical lesions. C. Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in the anterior region of the mandible? A. Exophthalmos. Swallowing. C. buccal to lingual. D. primary canines. strength. . 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Tachycardia. resistance to corrosion. All of the above. In serial extraction. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (2) (2) (1) (3) (3) (1) (2) Which is a characteristic of a patient with myxedema? A. Taste. 2. C. an adequate zone of attached gingiva. D. E. Which function is NOT affected if the lingual nerve is anesthized distal to the anastomosis of the lingual and chorda tympani nerve? A. Heat intolerance. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg’s tumour). 3. B.

Narrowing in width of the periodontal ligament space. Phenobarbital.. The antibiotic of choice for a periapical dental abscess is A. C. Widening of the lamina dura. trigeminal neuralgia. A loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by 1. E. erythromycin. 4. Periapical cyst. B. D. E. Pentobarbital. elastic fibres. D. D. B. B. Which of the following is used in the management of a patient with grand mal seizures? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. metronidazole. A. keratinized squamous epithelium. Which of the following is most often associated with a non-vital tooth? A. collagenous fibres. Amobarbital. and C. Bell's palsy. Hyperplastic pulpitis. B. A. periapical. B. B. D. occlusal. fracture in the mandibular first molar region. Secobarbital. C. A. C. B. C. 3. Mandibular cuspid. D. D.Which one of the following teeth is most frequently impacted? A. 2. ampicillin. E. and B. B. pen V. C. E. metastatic malignancy to the body of the mandible. Which of the following radiographic findings are attributable to trauma from occlusion? 1. Periapical cementoma. cephalosporin. The most appropriate radiograph for examining an interproximal vertical bony defect of the alveolar process is the A. 4. bitewing. Internal resorption. C. C. . Attached gingival tissue is primarily composed of A. panoramic. D. Maxillary first premolar. 3. A. Widening of the periodontal ligament space. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. Maxillary cuspid. Mandibular second molar. C. Vertical destruction of interdental bone.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection reduces the The best way to disinfect gutta-percha cones prior to obturation is to A. distorted by rapid removal of the impression from the mouth. B. immerse in ethyl alcohol. amelogenesis imperfecta. thumbsucking. E. C. used in uneven thickness. stabilize opposing teeth. Which of the following would occur if a zinc containing amalgam is contaminated with saliva during condensing? 1.The dimensional stability of polyether impression material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is A. C. D. . D. Reduced flow or creep. toxicity of local anesthetic. cleidocranial dysplasia. discoloured composite restoration. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. 2. No change in compressive strength but lower tensile strength. 3. C. external resorption. B. 4. ectopic eruption. D. The most frequent cause of malocclusion is A. chromogenic bacteria. E. A. A. D. B. Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels. Increased surface pitting. immerse in a 5. possibility of intravascular administration. C. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Hyperparathyroidism. C. protect abutment teeth through its flexibility. C. C. dentinogenesis imperfecta. D. B. allowed to absorb water after setting. mouth breathing.25% sodium hypochlorite solution. provide for visual inspection of the margins of the retainers. neonatal hypoplasia. B. This condition is typical of A. D. dehydrated. D. autoclave for a full cycle. contaminated with latex. A. heredity. B. C. Hypothyroidism. B. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze. B. Hypoparathyroidism. possibility of paresthesia. Following trauma. D. A properly designed pontic should A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth. B. Hyperthyroidism. thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. bluish-grey discolouration of the crown is due to A. Increased expansion. C. pulpal hemorrhage. but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. completely occupy the space of the extracted tooth.

Exophthalmos. E. deposition of pigment in the cells of the odontoblast layer. Temperature elevation. an optical phenomenon related to the difference in the refractive indices of the normal and affected areas. expansion. the presence of hyperplastic vascular pulp tissue. B. to reduce the formation of chromium oxide during soldering. E. 4. Slow pulse rate. C. B. C. C. A. lower film thickness. a mesiodens. increasing the parallelism of walls. to lower the melting range of the solder. increased peripheral chemoreceptor activity. 2. contraction. D. Which is NOT a sign of thyrotoxicosis? Each of the following can cause maxillary midline diastema EXCEPT A. B. Tremor. a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. a thumb-sucking habit. Leucite is added to porcelain fused to metal crowns to A. 3. absence of primate spaces. addition of an occlusal dovetail. lower solubility in oral fluids. stretching of lung tissue. D. B. lengthening the axial walls. C. D. . D. D. congenitally missing lateral incisors. B. Glass ionomer cement is superior to zinc phosphate cement because it has A. fluoride release. a tongue thrust habit. to reduce the copper-oxide content of the alloy. A. B. D. C. B. C. lowered arterial CO2. decrease the fusing temperature. D. Retention of a gold inlay is improved by 1. the function of the fluoride flux is A. In soldering nickel-cobalt-chromium alloys and stainless steel. C. decrease the thermal expansion coefficient of porcelain. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. loss in compressive strength. increase strength to the porcelain. B. The characteristic colour seen in the crowns of teeth with internal resorption is due to A.During the setting phase. Respiration is depressed by E. gain in moisture content. placing a gingival bevel. C. D. D. B. the degeneration and necrosis of the pulp tissue. to stop the flow of the molten solder onto undesired areas. a change in the consistency of the dentin. increase the translucency. A. higher compressive strength. acidemia.

Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical retreatment. B. Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of a barbed broach? A. carotid sinus reflex. B. B. Streptococcus mutans. hyperglycemia. A patient wearing complete dentures has angular cheilosis. A. B. Actinomyces viscosus. The most likely cause is A. could be retained and the first premolar removed to allow the canine to erupt. The most likely cause is A. C. In an otherwise acceptable occlusion. Lactobacillus acidophilus. Gingival tissue with edematous red interdental papillae. B. hypoglycemia. All of the above. Class II furcation involvement in maxillary molars. D. Removal of vital or non-vital pulp tissue. C. B.Subgingival plaque in deep periodontal pockets consists primarily of A. Gingival tissue with 1mm pocket labial to a mandibular incisor. gram-positive microorganisms. D. A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. D. D. aerobic microorganisms. decreased vertical dimension. C. could be surgically exposed to speed its eruption. Debridement of the pocket. Streptococcus salivarius. viruses. excessive vertical overlap (overbite). B. C. insufficient horizontal overlap (overjet). Removal of paper points and cotton pellets. gram-negative microorganisms. adrenal insufficiency. C. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is A. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. D. Removal of food debris from the canal. increased vertical dimension. C. an impacted maxillary canine A. could be extracted. syncope. Firm gingival tissue with generalized 5 and 6mm pockets. . Occlusal adjustment. D. B. E. C. Prescription of an antibiotic. Surgical pocket reduction. Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis? What is the most appropriate initial management of a localized periodontal abscess? A. C. D. E. constitutes a problem requiring consultation with an orthodontist. D.

Fibrous dysplasia of the jaws A. E. A thinner matrix band. B. D. B. B. late stage of acute pulpitis. You would suspect A. D. A larger sized condenser. B. C. mandible. occlusal relationship. Focal periapical osteopetrosis (dense bone island) differs from focal sclerosing osteomyelitis in that it is A. emphysema. C. is of known etiology. 2. E. C. E. 3. systemic fluoride treatment. Use of mechanical condensation. A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. C. asthma. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy. None of the above. fremitus. tooth position. which of the following is/are essential? 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. E. B. chronic pulpitis. D. the mental foramen. Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. B. radiopaque. E. D. B. expansile. opacity of the sealant. 3. traumatic occlusion. 4.A risk factor for gingival recession is A. D. The lesion may be 1. a pulp polyp. D. . A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. a periapical cyst. type of polymerization reaction. E. D. D. pulp hyperemia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The efficacy of pit and fissure sealants is affected by A. A. bony chin. C. Gonion. C. cardiac insufficiency. C. a periapical granuloma. begins in the fifth decade. vitality. chronic apical abscess. B. B. 4. D. a chronic periapical abscess. menton and pogonion are all cephalometric landmarks located on the A. stage of tooth eruption. An anatomical wedge. has monostotic and polyostotic forms. cranial base. rhinophyma. A. C. caused by pulpitis. maxilla. periapical. is bilaterally symmetrical. 2. is premalignant.

The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A. traumatic injury. teeth with open apices. open the pulp chamber. B. D.An ankylosed tooth is usually A. nonvital. C. B. 3. B. gingival hyperplasia is present. place a provisional (temporary) crown. B. occlusal trauma is present. C. A. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. D. Prothrombin time. teeth that are symptomatic. E. B. necrotic pulps. Clotting time. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. B. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. Anterior teeth that are too long. D. chronic periradicular periodontitis. associated with a root fracture. D. 4. Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin. Coagulation time. 3. D. The fracture occurred one hour previously. gingival recession is present. C. C. . Advanced ridge resorption. Excessive bulk in the palatal area. D. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. A 22 year old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. 2. Which of the following could cause phonetic problems for patients with removable dentures? 1. C. excessive orthodontic forces. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. 4. A midfacial probing depth measurement where the base of the pocket extends beyond the mucogingival junction indicates that A. A. E. Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in children under the age of 12 years is most likely to be successful for A. C. B. Bleeding time. clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. C. 2. Posterior teeth placed in a buccal position. infraerupted. there is no attached gingiva. found in the permanent dentition. which of the following should be evaluated? A.

4. B. 4 year old child. benign migratory glossitis. red patch devoid of filiform papillae. casting error. occlusal force transmission. C. indirect retention. a fibroma. alveolar bone loss. 2. The histopathologic changes in chronic gingivitis are characterized by A. located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. patients receiving corticosteroids. insufficient retention. C. young adults. patients receiving antibiotics. D. An adult with liver cirrhosis. B. B. E. D. median rhomboid glossitis. E.000mg of acetaminophen? A. A smooth. C. patient protection from radiation is MOST important for A. D. A. D. E. 3. Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1. and B.Gingivitis is characterized by A. B. bleeding on gentle probing of the gingival sulcus. A 15kg. B. primary retention. apical migration of the junctional epithelium. E. D. The framework fit the master cast well but when tried in the mouth. C. C. an inflammatory infiltrate of plasma cells and lymphocytes. hyalinization of the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament. a stable fit could not be achieved. D. B. The possible cause(s) of the problem is/are 1. B. In the use of the dental X-ray machine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. improper pour of the master cast. A chronic alcoholic. pregnant women. A dental laboratory has returned a removable partial denture framework. a granular cell tumor. iron deficiency anemia. loss of rete pegs and destruction of the basement membrane. D. A diabetic. . elevated. distortion in the final impression. C. an inflammatory infiltrate in which polymorphonuclear cells predominate. swollen marginal gingiva. lateral force transmission. Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a cast removable partial denture provide A. individuals over fifty-years of age. C. A.

errors in centric occlusion are best adjusted by A. early metastasis to distant organs. The tissues of the epithelial attachment A. The orientation of the occlusal plane. None of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. E. D. C. having the patient close in centric occlusion and making a transfer record to the articulator. D. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. Disto-angular. 2. E. During the fabrication of new complete dentures. 4. exhibit a high rate of biologic turnover. bringing the teeth into occlusion. Codeine. The condylar inclination. mental foramen. E. 3. 4. The cusp inclination. D. metastatic carcinoma. which of the following can be modified to achieve the desired occlusion? 1. Acetaminophen Tetracycline. B. 2.Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. directing the patient to close the jaws. D. Horizontal. A periapical radiolucency can represent a 1. B. Mesio-angular. B. C. For a patient with new complete dentures. are dynamic rather than static. which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. slow growth but tendency to local recurrence. C. 3. Penicillin V. . C. B. B. rapid growth with early death of patient. radicular cyst. Vertical. C. C. The compensating curve. Pleomorphic salivary adenomas are most likely to exhibit A. All of the above. B. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism? 1. C. having the patient leave the dentures out of the mouth for 24 hours. B. 2. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar. periapical granuloma. remounting the dentures in the articulator using remount casts and new interocclusal records. E. A. D. A. early ulceration and hemorrhage. D. D. can be reconstituted by repair. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

place calcium hydroxide over the exposure. B. B. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. Ludwig's angina. Melanoma. Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur 1. an epidemic parotitis. . D. C. a small mechanical exposure occurs. kidneys. The majority of nitrous oxide is eliminated from a patient's circulatory system through the A. a blockage of Stensen's duct. In periodontics. B. D. perform a pulpectomy. Osteosarcoma. C. Osteoarthritis. E. C. B. Regarding dental caries. D. Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of A. two-wall infrabony pockets. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. when the drug is administered parenterally. D. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. within minutes after drug administration. C. B. D. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. The correct procedure is to A. 4. E. Ameloblastoma. B. Which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival? A. three-wall infrabony pockets. which of the following is correct? A. Adenocarcinoma. D. A. D. a ranula. C. A. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. liver enzymes. C. swab the exposure with eugenol. Anemia. 3. E. a blockage of Wharton's duct. B. B. perform a pulpotomy. Obesity. suprabony pockets. 2. one-wall infrabony pockets. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. Increased dietary fat increases the risk. C. 3. 4. C. intestinal gas.During cavity preparation under rubber dam. plasma enzymes. the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of A. Which of the following conditions can make an older patient short of breath on mild exertion? 1. Cardiac failure. lungs. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. E.

. 3. bruxism. D. Hyperparathyroidism. Swallowing and respiration neuronal activity. 2. None of the above. C. C. prolong the action of the anaesthetic agent. D. B. Which disorder is associated with hypercementosis of teeth? A. assist haemostasis at the site of injection. gingival recession. B. Paget’s disease. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Methadone. tooth sensitivity. D. prevent rapid absorption of the anaesthetic. E. Epinephrine in a local anaesthetic solution will 1. The most effective drug for relief of angina pectoris is A. Reflexes between jaw closing and opening muscles. C. Codeine. morphine. D. Hydromorphone. 2. nitroglycerine. tooth migration. None of the above. not be detectable. A natural alkaloid obtained from opium is A. 4. Periodontal receptor stimulation. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. E.Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. A. be minimized by use of a bonding agent. unsatisfactory temporary crown restorations may result in A. D. B. assist in post-operative healing. E. quinidine. decrease with longevity. 4. B. Meperidine. B. B. Chewing “automatism” is dependent on which mechanism? A. occlusal prematurities. C. C. 3. For teeth prepared as abutments for fixed bridges. cusp replacement. All of the above. B. pentobarbital sodium. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will A. Cherubism. A. D. C. inability to maintain a dry operating field. C. digitalis. D. Reticular formation neuronal activity. Fibrous dysplasia. C. D.

C. retrofilling and replantation. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. 2. A. History of the oral lesion. B. D. eliminate plaque. Laboratory tests. Water irrigation devices have been shown to A. C. high surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid. D. Cytological smear. spraying a surfactant on the impression. D. trifurcation area. . C. 24 to 48 hours. using a hydrophilized addition silicone. B. bifurcation area. 3. E. D. Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the A. apical resection. branchial cyst. Radiographically. cervical third of the root. apical third of the root. nasopalatine cyst. The minimum time to wait before placing composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. 4. E. C. periradicular cyst. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. C. middle third of the root. D. low surface tension of a silicone impression material. B. B. 1 to 2 hours. B. prevent calculus formation. nasolabial cyst. D. Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration? A. the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. C. 1 to 2 weeks. B.Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely the result of A. D. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. 4 to 5 weeks. dislodge food particles from between teeth. C. B. observation over 6 months for further resorption. Systemic evaluation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction. E.

D. A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. space for the veneer material. . anti-depressant. D. reduce the incidence of post-operative pain. D. 7. B. increasing corticosteroid intake for one week. acceptability for both young and old. Porphyromonas gingivalis. B. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.8. E. B. increasing corticosteroid intake for the day of operation. E. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. stopping corticosteriod therapy for the day of operation. can be used routinely because of their antibacterial action. antibiotic. C. are considered to be below the standard of care in Canada. adequate length of operating time. 2. E. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. Prior to the surgery. 3. C. 3. Heliobacter pilori. D. Thiopentone sodium (Pentothal) provides all of the following advantages EXCEPT A. 2. rapid recovery. D. E. B. smooth pleasant induction. rough surface. A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2. 8. analgesic. B. (1) only (2) only (2) and (3) (4) only Root canal filling pastes containing paraformaldehyde A. Prevotella intermedia. 4. B. anti-inflammatory. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. D. bonded amalgam core build-up. do not cause systemic toxicity. C. 6. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. D. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration. stopping corticosteroid therapy for one week. The predominant organism(s) associated with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are 1. this patient’s drug therapy should be modified by A. A.A patient receiving daily corticosteroid therapy for the past six months requires surgical extraction of tooth 3. B. 1. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.0mm remaining coronal tooth structure. Flurbiprofen is an The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 5. definite finish line. good sleep production. are well tolerated by periradicular tissues. C. C. 4.

C. C. Pontic design for a porcelain fused to metal bridge should 1. A. pain on vessel puncture. bright red blood on aspiration. control thermal conductivity. enlargement of the marginal gingiva. hydrogen peroxide irrigation of socket. location of the epithelial attachment. An accidental injection of diazepam into an artery instead of a vein may cause A. B. Heated impression modeling compound is "tempered" in warm water before placement in the mouth in order to A. provide for a rigid restoration. B. . A. reduce contraction error. C. placement of a dressing in the socket. horizontal loss of alveolar bone.. allow for complete coverage of the metal by the porcelain. Maxillary central incisor. Mandibular canine. A. B. 2. E.A suprabony pocket is associated with A. Maxillary canine. B. D. D. 4. severe pain in the limb extremities. minimize distortion. and C. D. B. D. measurement of the clinical attachment loss. E. D. religious beliefs. E. initiate a chemical reaction. 2. physical handicap. All of the above. C. B. Mandibular central incisor. D. avoid burning the soft tissues. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. A. 3. gangrene of the limb. spontaneous bleeding. Which of the following is immediately distal to the intermaxillary suture? A. a prescription for antibiotics. B. vigorous curettage of the socket. D. place the porcelain metal joint away from the soft tissues. subgingival calculus. As a dentist in Canada. 3. E. C. Management of a “dry socket” should include Radiographs of a periodontally related osseous defect can be used to confirm the A. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge. 4. B. number of bony walls. B. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. presence of a furcation involvement. C. infectious disease. it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1.

B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. immediate endodontics and apicectomy. A carious maxillary central incisor with acute suppurative pulpitis requires A. may manifest as a seizure. the margins extended 1mm into the gingival crevice. Where fluoride occurs in the water naturally. incision and drainage. Local anesthetic toxicity A. 4. occlusal function. C. D.Fluoride supplements. chronic serous pulpitis. a provisional crown must restore the 1. B. B. All of the above. D. should NOT be recommended for A. D. A. is more likely to occur in adults. E. C. The cavity is filled with pink tissue which bleeds when punctured by the explorer. pterygoid fossa. Which of the following is most radiopaque? A. coronoid process. acute ulcerative pulpitis. children under the age of 3. This is indicative of A. In order to prevent gingival recession. C. D. C. The masseter muscle originates from the A. persons with DMFS scores less than 2. esthetics. D. opening of the canal and drainage for one week. axial contours of the tooth. normal contour reproduced. C. pulpotomy. C. B. All of the above. There are cases on record of parasthesia following overextrusion of such a paste in the vicinity of the mandibular nerve. Ameloblastoma. 3. Which of the following is/are true regarding a tooth filled with a formaldehyde-containing paste? In order to fulfill all of its roles. if vitamin supplements are recommended. A. B. B. proximal contacts. Fibrous dysplasia of bone. C. C. E. D. A. The drug manufacturer may be liable. Calcifying odontogenic cyst. zygomatic arch. a slightly narrow food table. a full gold crown should have A child has a carious exposure of the pulp in the first molar. . periapical osteofibrosis. a slightly overcontoured tooth form. B. D. C. B. along with the dentist. Complex composite odontoma. angle of the mandible. B. The tissue is slightly sensitive to touch. 2. D. Formaldehyde-containing pastes have a high antigenic potential. Formaldehyde-containing pastes remain non-approved. is more likely to occur with the addition of epinephrine.

hypophosphatasia. the dental lamina. D. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. failure of formation of the enamel matrix. genioglossus muscle. conjunctivitis. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced liver mass. C. geniohyoid muscle. E. The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the A. A. C. hyperpyrexia and submaxillary lymphadenitis. D. Overhanging margins of restorations at the gingival margin contribute to gingivitis in all cases EXCEPT A. B. cause irritation. thickening of the epithelium. B. B. cystic degeneration of the stellate reticulum early in the formation of the tooth. C. mouth ulcers. White lesions of the oral mucosa may be produced by 1. 3. C. retain food debris. Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) with aging? 1. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is a disease characterized by A. mylohyoid muscle. lymphadenitis. hyperthyroidism. 4. D. 4. 3. retain dental plaque. A. fibres of the digastric muscle. C. fever. C. 2. B. coagulation by heat or chemicals. ameloblastic fibromas. recurrent ulcers and enlargement of gums and symptoms of malaise and fever. mycotic infection. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. D. fever and mouth ulcers. C. inflamed gums. Excretion is reduced because of lessened renal blood flow. parotid swellings and hypertrophic gingivitis. 2. an extension of pulpal inflammation after death of the pulp. cherubism. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the gastric pH. ameloblastomas. increase of the keratinized layers. create excessive pressure. B. B. B.The primordial cyst probably results from A. mouth ulcers. E. E. epithelial remnants in the periodontal ligament. D. . Distribution is altered by a decrease in total body fat. The most likely diagnosis for a 5 year old patient with multiple well-defined multilocular radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible is A.

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of A. B. C. D. E. lichen planus. aphthous ulceration. herpes simplex. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. erythema multiforme.

The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. B. C. D. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. disclosing solution. probing with a fine instrument. visual inspection.

Smooth surface caries begins at localized areas on the A. B. C. D. E. outer surface of enamel and dentin. inner surface of the enamel. outer surface of the dentin. outer surface of the enamel. inner surface of the dentin.

A mandibular right second molar has tipped mesially into the adjacent edentulous space. Which of the following tooth movements will most likely occur when uprighted by fixed orthodontic therapy (fixed appliance on teeth 4.7, 4.5, 4.4 and 4.3)? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Extrusion of the second molar. Lingual tipping of the second molar. Intrusion of the anchor unit. Buccal tipping of the anchor unit. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Mucoceles are most commonly found in the A. B. C. D. E. upper lip. lower lip. tongue. buccal mucosa. soft palate.

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. B. C. D. E. Epulis fissuratum. Lingual varicosities. Squamous cell carcinoma. Median rhomboid glossitis. Prominent fungiform papillae.

The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome refers to the destructive changes associated with the long term wear of a mandibular distal extension removable partial denture opposing a complete upper denture. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT normally characteristic of this syndrome? A. Reduction in morphologic face height. B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge resorption. C. Down growth of the maxillary tuberosities. D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption under the posterior partial denture base areas.

A full coverage all-ceramic anterior crown requires A. B. C. D. a sloping shoulder (long bevel) margin. a minimum margin depth of 0.5mm lingually. rounded internal line angles. a minimum incisal reduction of 1.0mm.

Compared to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt A. B. C. D. lingually. facially. distally. mesially.

Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. B. C. D. E. Lateral periodontal cyst. Dentigerous cyst. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Periradicular abscess. Periradicular cyst.

In removable partial denture design, the surface of the abutment tooth most often altered to provide clasp reciprocity is A. B. C. D. E. mesial. distal. occlusal. buccal. lingual.

A dentist must be prudent in deciding how far to follow a patient’s informed choice for suboptimal treatment because A. the law protects a patient’s right to make poor decisions. B. a patient’s informed choice must always be honoured. C. the principle of do-no-harm overrides the patient’s personal choice.

A chronic alcohol abuser has just been diagnosed with Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome. He complains of pain and burning mouth and presents with angular cheilitis and glossitis. He is suffering from a severe deficiency of A. B. C. D. vitamin A. ascorbic acid. vitamin K. thiamin.

In necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis the deepest penetrating microorganisms are A. B. C. D. cocci. spirochetes. diplococci. filamentous rods.

Digitalis is prescribed for the treatment of A. B. C. D. E. nephritis. angina pectoris. coronary occlusion. congestive heart failure. None of the above.

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of induction during inhalation anesthesia? A. B. C. D. E. Pulmonary ventilation. Blood supply to the lungs. Hemoglobin content of the blood. Concentration of the anesthetic in the inspired mixture. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.

Which drug is most adversely affected by ingestion of antacids? A. B. C. D. E. Cephalexin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Sulfisoxazole. Penicillin V.

When two teeth have Class III lesions adjacent to each other, the operator should prepare the A. B. C. D. larger lesion first and restore the smaller one first. smaller lesion first and restore the smaller one first. smaller lesion first and restore the larger one first. large lesion first and restore the larger one first.

A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D. marginal gingivitis. painful, burning gingivae. hyperplastic gingivitis. drifting of the teeth.

What is the most likely age (in years) of a patient with the following dentition? Final treatment planning for the combined surgical-orthodontic correction of a dentofacial deformity should include A. B. C. D. predetermined occlusion on dental models. mock surgery on appropriately mounted models. cephalometric analysis with prediction tracing. All of the above. FDI NUMBERING SYSTEM
PERMANENT TEETH PRESENT INTRAORALLY
1. 6 4. 6 1. 5 4. 5 1. 4 4. 4 1. 3 4. 3 1. 2 4. 2 1. 1 4. 1 2. 1 3. 1 2. 2 3. 2 2. 3 3. 3 2. 4 3. 4 2. 5 3. 5 2. 6 3. 6

RIGHT

LEFT

DECIDUOUS TEETH PRESENT INTRAORALLY

RIGHT

LEFT

Heavy cigarette smoking significantly increases the incidence of A. B. C. D. E. aphthous stomatitis. geographic tongue. lichen planus. atrophic glossitis. mucosal pigmentation.

A. B. C. D. E.

8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Which of the following statements concerning root canals and their foramina is NOT true? A. B. C. D. E. Root canals bifurcate and have dual foramina. The major foramen is precisely at the apex of the tooth. The root canals may join and have a single foramen. The dentino-cemental junction is precisely at the apex of the tooth. A cross section of the canal in the apical region is relatively round.

INITIAL treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis includes 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. debridement. oral hygiene instruction. occlusal adjustment. gingivoplasty. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4)

Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. B. C. D. Dentigerous cyst. Lateral periodontal cyst. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Pulp polyp.

The test(s) diagnostic for primary hyperparathyroidism in a patient with multiple brown tumours is/are A. B. C. D. E. parathyroid biopsy. multiple jaw biopsies. radiographic skeletal survey. serum calcium and PTH level. creatine clearance and BUN.

Which of the following conditions should NOT commonly be treated during the mixed dentition stage? A. B. C. D. Anterior cross-bite. Posterior cross-bite. Maxillary incisor rotation. Class II molar relationship.

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely A. B. C. D. a periradicular periodontitis. a dentigerous cyst. a rarefying osteitis. the mental foramen.

The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. B. C. D. Nance expansion arch. lingual arch. band and loop space maintainer. distal shoe space maintainer.

Which of the following drugs is(are) used to suppress pain? 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D. E. Benzodiazepines. Barbiturates. Narcotic analgesics. (1) only. (2) only. (3) only. (1) and (3) (2) and (3)

Which of the following is/are desirable in an overdenture abutment? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Absence of extensive restorations. Pre-existing endodontic treatment. A 1:1 crown to root ratio. A large band of attached gingiva. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient complains of dull, constant pain in his jaws upon awakening. You would suspect A. B. C. D. acute pulpitis. sinusitis. bruxism. chronic gingivitis.

For amalgam restorations, a 90 cavosurface angle accommodates the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. condensing of amalgam. compressive strength of amalgam. tensile strength of amalgam. compressive strength of enamel. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient complains of the discolouration of an upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. B. C. D. perform root canal treatment and non vital bleaching. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

The choice and number of abutments for a fixed partial denture is influenced by the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. length of the span of the fixed partial denture. crown-root ratio of the abutments. amount of periodontal support of the abutments. position of the abutments in the arch. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

E.

Tetracycline therapy instituted either in the second trimester or post partum in the infant is responsible for A. B. C. D. discoloration of deciduous teeth. discoloration of permanent teeth. minor changes in the hydroxyapatite of the enamel. A. and B.

In which of the following conditions is there a risk of malignant change after repeated surgical interventions? A. B. C. D. Fibrous dysplasia. Mucocele. Lymphangioma. Torus palatinus.

A child has a carious exposure of the pulp in the first molar. The cavity is filled with pink tissue which bleeds when punctured by the explorer. The tissue is slightly sensitive to touch. This is indicative of A. B. C. D. acute ulcerative pulpitis. chronic serous pulpitis. chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. periapical osteofibrosis.

To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements contain A. B. C. D. E. salicylic acid. phosphoric acid. maleic acid. tartaric acid. itaconic acid.

A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year old should A. B. C. D. E. self-correct. be treated with a removable appliance. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. be treated in the complete permanent dentition. be observed and treated when the cuspids have erupted.

If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration, A. B. C. D. A. cement dissolution will lead to leakage. B. the preparation will lack retention form. C. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. D. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form.

In a safe general anesthetic mixture, the MINIMALLY acceptable percentage of oxygen is A. B. C. D. E. 5 percent. 10 percent. 20 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

Amphetamines A. B. C. D. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. have analgesic properties have no effect on psychomotor activity. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

A properly designed pontic should A. B. C. D. stabilize opposing teeth. protect abutment teeth through its flexibility. be the same size as the extracted tooth. provide for visual inspection of the margins of the retainers.

A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. slower healing. foreign body inflammatory reaction. wound dehiscence. necrosis of bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In a post-endodontic restoration, the function of the post is to insure A. B. C. D. distribution of forces along the long axis. resistance of the tooth to fracture. sealing of the root canal. retention of the definitive restoration.

Which of the following snacks has the lowest cariogenic potential? A. B. C. D. Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat bread, green salad, 2% milk. Chicken sandwich on white bread, diet cola, avocado. Pretzels, potatoe chips, juice. Hard-boiled egg, celery and carrot sticks, diet cola.

The fluoride ion 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. is excreted rapidly by the kidney. passes the placental barrier. is deposited in teeth. is deposited in bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Displacement of mandibular fractures is dependent upon 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E. direction of fracture line. proprioceptor nerve action. muscle pull. tooth in line of fracture. direction of blow. (1) and (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) All of the above.

Which of the following has analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? A. B. C. D. Acetaminophen. Acetylsalicylic acid. Bradykinin. Diazepam. Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in defects in the A. B. C. D. zygomatic bones and external ears. mandible and external nose. maxilla and muscles of facial expression. palate and hyoid bone.

The location of a crown margin is determined by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. esthetic requirements. clinical crown length. presence of caries. presence of an existing restoration. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. The treatment of choice is A. B. C. D. E. The most common cause of long-term post operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is A. B. C. D. hyperocclusion. microleakage. acidic primers. residual caries. application of pit and fissure sealants. Conservative Class I composite restoration. conservative Class I amalgam restorations. prophylactic fissurotomy. no treatment.

C. hybrid layer. A. D. absolute alcohol. D. C. Dental diastema. An unerupted supernumerary tooth between the permanent maxillary central incisors is commonly associated with which of the following clinical observations? A. Yield strength. E. C. B. The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth would MOST likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the A. D. B. 3. C. Hypertrophied labial frenum. phenol. Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the application of A. The layer of intermingled collagen and resin located beneath a restoration is called the A. absorb moisture. E. E. A. developmental. mesial of a mandibular first premolar. . adapt the matrix to the gingival margin. B. D. B. idiopathic. 4. distal of a mandibular first molar. C. Median palatine cysts are classified as A. Tensile strength. C. aid in the creation of a contact. D. a wedge is placed to 1. odontogenic. B. C. Thermal coefficient of expansion. B. During matrix placement for a Class II cavity preparation. None of the above. space for the veneer material. B. E. D. 2. 70% ethyl alcohol. In a porcelain fused to gold restoration.The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. Delayed exfoliation of primary maxillary lateral incisors. definite finish line. 4. D. which property must be modified between porcelain and gold to reduce the bond shear stress? A. Absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors. smear layer. separate the teeth. distal of a mandibular first premolar. C. rough surface. chlorhexidine. Weil layer. D. B. residual. mesial of a mandibular first molar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Modulus of elasticity. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. decalcification layer. Compressive strength.

Which of the following provide the longest duration of anesthesia? A. . Stylomandibular. B. The first statement is true.sp 1 Radiographically. Lupus arthritis. C.5% with 1:200. cap the exposed pulp horn with calcium hydroxide. B. diet. rheumatoid arthritis. C. D. heredity. is situated 1~to~2mm apical to the cemento-enamel junction. heredity. E. B. Lidocaine 2% with 1:100. 4. A. D. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? In health. All of the above. institute endodontic treatment. 3. Articaine 4% with 1:100. habits. The needle has penetrated through which ligament? A. C. All heart murmurs. A. the treatment of choice is to A. Suppurative arthritis.000 epinephrine. Pterygomandibular. B. D. B.000 epinephrine. place a temporary restoration and observe. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with which of the following? 1. Sphenomandibular. middle ear infection. C. . D. the second is true. Both statements are true. Cardiac pacemaker. C. A. B. the patient exhibits facial paralysis. D. B. Prilocaine 4% with 1:200. In determining a patient's skeletal growth pattern. Temporo Mandibular Joint disease in children results from A. C. the most important factor is When removal of carious dentin results in an exposure of non-vital pulp. Rheumatoid arthritis. Both statements are false. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. occlusion. C. E.000 epinephrine. A. the normal alveolar crest should parallel an imaginary line drawn between the cemento-enamel junction of adjacent teeth. occlude the cavity with a light packing of cotton moistened with eugenol. Bupivacaine 0. trauma. the crest of the alveolar bone. The first statement is false. B.000 epinephrine. C. as seen in a radiograph. D. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation. 2. the second is false. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. Immediately following an inferior alveolar nerve block. Stylohyoid. D. Prosthetic heart valves.

D. D. C. soft tissue necrosis. this patient’s drug therapy should be modified by A. D. stopping corticosteroid therapy for one week. B. B. calcium sulfate. Following radiation therapy to the mandible. having the patient create a positive pressure. D. C. fracture. E. increasing corticosteroid intake for one week. a slow teasing motion. Resin. Type of core material. twisting and rocking. An anterior endodontically treated tooth has been restored with a carbon fibre. increasing corticosteroid intake for the day of operation. the powder particles are replaced by crystals of Xerostomia can be associated with A. Developing malocclusion is predictable since only the primate space should be present. D. potassium phosphate. C. C. Prior to the surgery.8. B. Alloy composition of the post. emotional problems. Zinc phosphate. What is the most important factor influencing the prognosis of this tooth? A. A patient receiving daily corticosteroid therapy for the past six months requires surgical extraction of tooth 3. B. development of malignancy. C. osteomyelitis. C. a quick snap. D. . actinomycosis. Polycarboxylate. extraction of mandibular teeth is most likely to result in A. Which of the following statements is correct? A. stopping corticosteroid therapy for the day of operation. Which one of the following cements is anticariogenic because of fluoride ion release? A. a direct restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal crown. The situation is normal. An appliance should be constructed before the eruption of the permanent teeth to close the spaces. Glass ionomer. A. B. All of the above. D. potassium sulfate. B. E. B. D. The parent should be advised that orthodontic treatment will be necessary in the mixed dentition stage. trisodium phosphate.Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best removed from the mouth by A. B. C. hypertension and anxiety. When gypsum is mixed with water and sets to form a dental cast. A mother is concerned with the slight spacing between the anterior teeth of her 3 year old child. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure. Type of luting cement. C. adverse effects of medication. hormonal imbalance.

3. backward placement of the film. 2. C. Hyaluronidase. Beaks should be placed on the root of the tooth. 4. . Thickness of composite resin. C. Endotoxin. D. A. overexposure. E. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (3) (4) (5) Excessively dark radiographs will result from 1. Paget’s disease. 3. A. D. excessive milliamperage. Proximity of light source. Sjögren’s syndrome. B. Which of the following bacterial products have been implicated in the initiation of inflammatory periodontal disease? 1. 2. Desxyribonuclease. Administer epinephrine 1/1000 sublingually. D. A type 2 diabetic patient is having a surgical extraction. B. Which condition is associated with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary hydroxyproline levels? A. Administer or have the patient administer insulin. C. slippage and injury to adjacent teeth. fibrous dysplasia. underdevelopment. Protease. What is the most appropriate treatment? A. D. 4.Which of the following affect(s) polymerization of visible light cured composite resins? 1. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. B. Beaks should be applied parallel to the long axis of the tooth. E. 5. Gardner’s symdrome. the patient starts sweating. Administer a source of rapidly absorbable glucose. E. 4. 3. Shade of composite resin. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Ten minutes after the injection of local anesthetic. A. A. Poor placement can lead to tooth fracture. C. B. C. Beaks should be moved apically during extraction. C. Recline the chair and administer oxygen. D. which of the following applies (apply)? 1. 2. Neuraminidase. B. D. Intensity of the light source. 3. 4. With respect to forceps extraction of teeth. becomes pale and agitated and has an increased heart rate.

C. no new physical limitations. B. 3. C. What is required to obtain informed consent for an elective invasive procedure? A. Mepivacaine 3% plain. phenytoin sodium. D. C. . 3. D. 2. E. with epinephrine 1:100.8? A. D. nifedipine. 4. C. 3. There is no history of trauma. prednisolone.5%. The availability of dense cancellous bone. Immediate loading of the implant. A patient assessed as “low-risk” for new caries would have 1. B. right submandibular lymphadenopathy and a temperature of 39C (102°F).8. His daughter. C. who is his legal guardian. Which of the following can increase the chances of successful osseointegration of a dental implant? 1. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.000. The most likely diagnosis is A. is unavailable. Gingival enlargement may result from the administration of 1. D.000. possible presence of arrested caries lesions. Articaine 4%. 4. cyclosporine. E. E. A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia presents with his personal care worker. C. The patient’s presence implies consent. Lidocaine 2%. 2. A.000. epidemic parotitis. with epinephrine 1:200. A 19 year old patient presents with pain. no restorations replaced due to recurrent caries in the past 5 years. peritonsillar abscess. E. no change in dietary habits. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. Bupivacaine 0. An atraumatic surgical approach. D. Prilocaine 4%. B. E. B. Obtain consent from the patient’s daughter. pericoronitis of tooth 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. with epinephrine 1:200. trismus. B. D. with epinephrine 1:100. A. Obtain written consent from the patient. 4. submandibular space infection. Obtain written consent from the personal care worker. stenosis of the parotid duct. A good initial stability of the implant.000.Which local anesthetic formulation should be used to achieve prolonged pain relief for a patient requiring the surgical extraction of tooth 3. A.

B. A. the indicated treatment is to A. The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show 1. B. 2. A removable orthodontic appliance. B. D.The most common type of collagen found in the gingival connective tissue. replacing the teeth too soon after extraction. a pair of posterior bite-wings. 3. E. C. type II. and with open proximal contacts is A. B. type III. B. 3. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. D. positioning anterior teeth incorrectly. D. D. C. B. (1) and (3) (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (2) only If a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy requires the immediate replacement of a large MOD amalgam restoration with extensive recurrent caries and thermal sensitivity. C. C. produce unconsciousness. A sedative drug should A. producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause A. D. D. type IV. and cementum is composed primarily of A. 2. restore with a posterior composite resin. . lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown. restore with amalgam. maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. type I. no radiographic examination. C. a circumscribed radiolucency. intrusion of the central incisor. cause excitement. delay treatment until after the baby is born. C. lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex. 4. Speech defects associated with a maxillary partial denture can be caused by 1. A. produce a mild state of central nervous system depression. The most appropriate radiographic examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies. C. D. B. restore with reinforced zoe. widening of the periodontal space. periodontal ligament. providing excessive bulk of denture base. calcification of the periodontal membrane. eliminate all sensation. loss of lamina dura.

Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. E. Infected dentigerous cyst. D. malaise. C. incorrect centric relation position. D. 3. B. stratified. C. the most frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is A. anorexia and lowgrade fever. increased sulcular fluid flow. D. phosphate cement. D. B. In patients wearing complete dentures. lingual surface of posterior teeth. tuberculosis. C. D. The most likely diagnosis is A. resin modified glass ionomer cement. unbalanced occlusion. squamous. infectious mononucleosis. polyalkenoic acid cement. 4. D. nonpermeable. actinomycosis. 2. incisal edges. B. The most objective measurement of successful scaling and root planing is 1. A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats. B. Clinical examination shows a nodular. dentin. absence of plaque. A. 2. copper plated. B. dentinoenamel junction. C. (1) and (5) (2) and (4) (1) (4) (5) (1) and (4) The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is A. B. B. excessive occlusal vertical dimension.Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. nonkeratinized. 5. E. weight loss. ulcerated lesion on the palate. C. C. C. viral hepatitis. Chronic periapical abscess of a mandibular third molar. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. C. reduction of pocket depth. lack of vertical overlap. Middle face cellulitis. facial surfaces of teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. nervous tension. E. silver plated. adhesive resin cement. 3. A. . root smoothness. cementum. 4. cementoenamel junction. B. Acute periapical abscess of a mandibular central incisor. Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an A. D. C. absence of bleeding upon probing. Impressions made with thiokol (polysulfide) rubber may be Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious? A. poured directly in die stone. All of the above. A. phenolic cement. D.

high incidence of palatal clefts. red. spleen. translation. An ankylosed tooth is usually A. Periodontal involvement is most likely to develop when a Class II restoration has A. D. odontogenic keratocysts. C. B. swollen and covered with debris. B. no proximal contact. puncture of a blood vessel. advanced destructive chronic periodontitis. C. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. depression of respiration is a manifestation of A. 3. Actinomyces viscosus. fragile bones. Streptococcus salivarius. C. tipping. C. Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with A. C. D. D. use of non-isotonic solution. D. In local anesthesia. 2. buccal space. juvenile periodontitis. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. found in the permanent dentition. The periodontal condition showing localized advanced vertical bone loss involving the first molars and the incisors is diagnosed as A. red. with a median rhomboid glossitis. B. associated with a root fracture. B. D. deficient occlusal anatomy. C. desquamative gingivitis. B. acute periodontitis. infraerupted. Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the A. D. rotation. B. trauma to a nerve trunk by the needle. E. been placed supragingivally. a flat marginal ridge. kidneys. smooth and glossy. Periapical infection from a mandibular second molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. 4. small intestine. torque. nonvital. B. pancreas. Actinomyces naeslundii. C. D. . B. D. E. submandibular space. B. Lactobacillus casei. toxic effects of the solution.Which microorganism does NOT contribute significantly to the progression of dentinal caries? A. thickly coated and pale. multiple supernumerary teeth. sublingual space. D. A. B. The tongue of a patient suffering from extreme vitamin B deficiency will usually appear A. C. C. buccal vestibule. liver.

What is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether or not to use pulp protection? A. An excessive occlusal vertical dimension. E. An increased heart rate may be associated with Which of the following could cause clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers? 1. increased caries susceptibility. several missing teeth. 2. location of the carious lesion. C. chronic periodontitis. C. A lack of denture retention. C. Lingual of mandibular first premolars. amount of carious material removed. B. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which of the following root surfaces have concavities that make root planing difficult? A. C. midline deviation. mandibular shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. C. D. thickness of the remaining dentin. Distal of the palatal roots of maxillary molars. D. D. B. asymmetrical arches. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. recurrent periodontitis. A nonbalanced occlusion. B. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Mesial of maxillary incisors. C. There is no clinical or radiographic evidence of further attachment loss. enhanced plaque retention. D. 4. E.A patient successfully treated 8 years ago for moderate chronic periodontitis now presents with generalized erythematous and edematous gingiva with bleeding on probing. A. Mesial of maxillary first premolars. 4. prolonged corticosteroid therapy. . D. A. B. 2. 3. A. The most common clinical characteristic/s of a buccolingual functional crossbite is/are 1. A. Down syndrome. A reduced horizontal overlap. B. B. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. depth of the pulpal floor. gingivitis. 3. hyperthyroidism. Overhangs on restorations predispose 1. hypothyroidism. enhanced food retraction. aggressive periodontitis. D. 4. 3. 2. restricted plaque removal.

dentinogenesis imperfecta. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge. infectious disease. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 . A lower molar requiring a crown has an amalgam restoration extending 1. A pH lower than 6.6 hours p. ameloblastic fibromas.8 hours p. ectodermal dysplasia. A. Ketorolac 10mg every 4 . The position of a needle in the lumen of a vein is confirmed by A.0 mm subgingivally. pain associated with vessel puncture. rapidity of filling of the syringe upon aspiration. Assuming daily maximums are not exceeded. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.n. B. . ameloblastomas. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin. D. 3. the color of the blood upon aspiration. hyperthyroidism. Decreased buffering capacity. at the amalgam/tooth junction.r. C. B. C. 4. 3. it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1.n. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. The crown margin should be placed A. A.6 hours p. Increase of fermentable carbohydrates. C. is hypothyroid. hypophosphatasia. D. C. E.r. Which of the following factors decrease the cariogenic potential of food? A.Multiple well-defined multilocular radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible in a 5 year old is most likely A. religious beliefs. D. D. B. has a Factor VIII deficiency. every 6 . E. 2. This is characteristic of A. congenital hypothyroidism. had a myocardial infarct two months ago. None of the above. D. D. C. B.6 hours p. E.r. A. B. 2. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E.n. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 . Naproxen 250mg. 3. cherubism. B. which of the following is/are appropriate for pain management following an emergency pulpectomy for an adult with a history of severe asthma and nasal polyps? 1. is 4 months pregnant. B. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.r. C. D. As a dentist in Canada. A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and presence of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. C.n. cleidocranial dysplasia. C. physical handicap. Low protein content. on the existing amalgam. B. Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who 1. 2.

Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by A. B. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. Which of the following can be considered to compensate for the lack of parallelism between abutments when a severely tilted second molar is to be included in a fixed bridge? 1. C. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. may take longer to form. E. may form only after the adjacent gingiva has become inflamed. occlusal of the mandibular arch. Hemisecting the second molar. Upper medial.To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. C. D. serial extraction is best applied to patients with Class I occlusions with crowding of A. 3. lingual of the mandibular arch. B. C. possibility of intravascular administration. D. B. approach 45 degrees. A gluteal intramuscular injection may be safely administered in which quadrant? A. D. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. D. Including a non-ridge connector in the fixed partial denture design. does not have a definite predelection for a specific site or sites. C. D. be beveled. C. All of the above. C. be chamfered. C. lingual of the maxillary arch. Using a coping and telescopic crown as the retainer on the second molar. Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection reduces the A. D. B. Lower lateral. delaying the eruption timetable. Upper lateral. distal of the maxillary arch. approach 90 degrees. The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible to caries are A. B. B. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. D. B. B. interfering with jaw growth. In its classic form. Subgingival calculus differs from supragingival calculus in that it A. Lower medial. Orthodontic uprighting of the second molar. possibility of paresthesia. 2. C. A. mesial of the maxillary arch. . toxicity of local anesthetic. accelerating the eruption timetable. E. 4.

require orthodontic treatment. Light-cured dental composites set when exposed to light. 3. primary herpetic ulceration. recurrent aphthous ulceration. Metronidazole can be used to treat A. . require orthodontic treatment. C. Neutrophils. be associated with hypodontia. B. be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. reactor. D. D. denture stomatitis. C. catalyst. Supragingival calculus is most often found on the Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. E. D. involve the presence of mesiodens. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. E. terminator. activator. C. The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely A. D. A. B. lingual of mandibular molars. is associated with root caries. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. Lymphocytes. self correct. C. D. lingual of mandibular anterior teeth. C. lingual surface of posterior teeth. Juvenile periodontitis A. B. palatal of maxillary molars. B. B. B. self correct. D. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. D. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. A. be associated with hypodontia. C. has a definite predilection toward males. is associated with gram-positive anaerobic flora. 2. 4. Plasma cells. involve the presence of mesiodens. increase the shearing action in mastication. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). A. is associated with gram-negative anaerobic flora. D. E.The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. Light is the A. initiator. incisal edges. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. facial surfaces of teeth. buccal of mandibular anterior teeth. Macrophages. B. C. D. B. C. E. B. C.

have more bacterial plaque. B. D. do not respond to treatment as well. orthodontics to close the space. B. . Which of the following is NOT associated with Cushing’s disease? A. distal to mesial. 4. What ADA type die stone should be used to pour dies for porcelain fused to metal crowns when a polyvinylsiloxane impression material is used? A. C. Type III. Hirsutism. placement of a space maintainer with bands cemented on the lateral incisors. B. Type I. have an increased risk of development of periodontitis. D. An advantage of glass ionomer cement is E. The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should slope apically from A.The significance of dental calculus in the etiology of periodontal diseases is that it A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. wear resistance. B. buccal to lingual. B. lingual to buccal. C. acts as an irritant to the periodontal tissues. adhesion to hard tooth tissues. mesial to distal. C. C. distends the periodontal pocket wall. E. The cariogenicity of carbohydrates is affected by 1. E. type of carbohydrate. 2. inhibits the ingress of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN’s). An 8 year old patient has lost both maxillary central incisors in an accident. B. Which of the following is true of smoking and the risk of periodontal disease? Smokers 1. 4. Type IV. D. C. A. C. Type II. retentiveness of the food. develop more severe periodontitis. The most appropriate treatment is A. phosphate and fluoride. D. low incidence of sensitivity. construction of a fixed bridge. D. frequency of ingestion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Diabetes insipidus. B. 2. B. low solubility. E. presence of protective factors like calcium. Buffalo hump. A. observation. C. Hypertension. C. D. D. construction of a removable partial denture. 3. Osteoporosis. 3. A. D. acts as a niche which harbours bacterial plaque.

4. never varies in volume. place the porcelain metal joint away from the soft tissues. .A lower molar requiring a crown has an extensive MOD amalgam restoration. Caries in older persons is most frequently found on which of the following locations? A. B. C. allow for complete coverage of the metal by the porcelain. 2. B. The crown margin should be placed A. immobilize for ten days. D. 3. epithelial hyperplasia. D. a keloid. B. Root surfaces. Incisal dentin. Pits and fissures. a fibroma. is an exudate. A. E. Pontic design for a porcelain fused to metal bridge should 1. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin. control thermal conductivity. inadequate ceramic thickness. mobility of the tooth. discoloration of the crown. C. C. use of an inappropriate luting material. E. B. have the patient exercise the mandible to avoid trismus. a fibro-epithelial polyp. C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. B. inject the joint with a sclerosing solution. pain on percussion. provide for a rigid restoration. excessive occlusal load. After reduction. at the amalgam/tooth junction. A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by 1. and D. is derived from mast cells. D. 3. D. B. D. 2. lymph node enlargement. A. on the existing amalgam. is a transudate. inject the joint with hydrocortisone. B. Proximal enamel. A. 4. D. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. presence of a cellulitis. C. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called Gingival crevicular fluid A. B. The most common clinical finding in the diagnosis of an acute periapical abscess is A patient dislocates his mandible for the first time. E. D. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. E. you should A. A. B.

D. C. C. For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat. B. at the time of each restorative procedure. D. Horizontal fracture in the apical one-third of the root. Chronic apical periodontitis. Adenocystic carcinoma. Horizontal fracture 1-2mm subgingivally. level of the Frankfort plane. intercondylar width. Streptococcus mutans. B. C. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresis study. the most significant effect on the occlusal anatomy of a restoration arises from alteration of the A. Pleomorphic adenoma. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma. B. interferences should be corrected A. before starting any restorative treatment.Which one of the following is the most common tumour of the salivary glands? A. A large encapsulated tumor is removed from the hard palate. D. D. . Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis? A. C. The deciduous enamel is thinner and appears whiter. The deciduous molar roots flare more. When using a semi-adjustable articulator. Which of the following bacterial types is implicated in the initiation of gingivitis? A. B. B. (A) and (C) All of the above. E. The deciduous root trunk is shorter. during treatment. D. B. culture the fluid and examine for bacterial growth. cold and electric pulp test? A. Adenoma. examine the fluid under a microscope. C. Vertical root fracture. C. E. It is filled with fluid. Leptothrix buccalis. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. Streptococcus salivarius. E. B. posterior wall of the fossae. Acute apical abscess. C. The best method of determining the nature of this lesion is to A. B. D. D. The difference(s) between deciduous and permanent teeth isçare best described by the following statement(s): A. Actinomyces viscosus. immediate side shift. position of the incisal pin. submit the tissue for histological examination submit the tissue for exfoliative cytological study. after all restorative procedures are completed. C. Horizontal fracture in the mid-root. If a complete occlusal adjustment is necessary. Apical cyst.

3.The best time to correct a permanent maxillary central incisor cross-bite is A. can metastasize. 2. 4. Forcep movement should be principally in the palatal direction. after the extraction without the denture in the mouth. Forcep movement should be principally in the buccal direction. before the extraction with the denture in the mouth. D. D. can be managed conservatively. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. B. (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (3) and (5) (1) and (5) (2) and (3) Benign neoplasms 1. A. after the canines erupt. restrict anterior tooth movement. Buccal bone is easier to expand. grow slowly. 4. B. Class II molar relationship. D. 3. after the extraction with the denture in the mouth. B. removing the denture from the impression then pouring the impression. enhance maxillary forward growth. which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Anterior cross-bite. C. The impression to add a tooth to the denture should be made A. are generally painless. 2. 3. after the central incisors erupt. during the eruptive stage of central incisors. C. removing the denture from the impression then pouring the impression. C. B. B. D. A. E. C. E. enhance mandibular forward growth. A mandibular central incisor is to be extracted and added to a partial denture. Posterior cross-bite. restrict maxillary forward growth. D. after the lateral incisors erupt. When using forceps for extraction of a maxillary first molar. C. E. 2. Maxillary incisor rotation. A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. after the extraction with the denture in the mouth and pouring the impression leaving the denture in the impression. . Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone. Which of the following conditions should NOT commonly be treated during the mixed dentition stage? A. Occipital and/or cervical extra-oral anchorage is used to 1. D. 5. encourage anterior tooth movement.

Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. B. Chronic trauma. C. Gingival inflammation. 2. Mobility. retrognathic maxilla. pure methyl alcohol. Ageing. differences in cooperation.What are the characteristics of "group function" occlusion? A. distilled water. Acute irreversible pulpitis. the correct viscosity is achieved by mixing the porcelain powder with A. B. 4. D. a mild detergent. D. B. pain in a tooth lasts for approximately 10 minutes. Taurodontism. B. Oral foci of infection are of greatest concern in patients with which of the following conditions? A. Which of the following Class II Division 1 malocclusion(s) is/are most likely to be corrected with a cervical headgear? After the application of heat. all of the above. Retrognathic mandible. Total pulpal necrosis. 3. For application of porcelain to a ceramo-metal alloy. C. Open bite. Which of the following indicates a failure of a dental implant? A. C. Increased lower anterior face height. Hypertension. Rheumatic heart disease. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. differences in tissue/bone reaction. B. D. D. increased over bite. Which of the following is/are characterized by an obliteration of pulp chambers and root canals? 1. C. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. differences in growth. decreased lower face height. . Type 2 diabetes. a porcelain modifier. open bite. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion. A. C. Orthodontic tooth movement in an adolescent is easier than an adult because of A. retrognathic maxilla. D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. D. E. prognathic mandible. Increased probing depths. C. prognathic maxilla. B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of the implant length. Acute periradicular abscess. A. C. C. Early periradicular periodontitis. prognathic mandible. D. Prognathic maxilla. Dentinal dysplasia. Iron deficiency anemia. B. D.

B. periodontal involvement. E. D. B. In order to manage the diastema. A 6-year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. pigmented teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. D. 4. necrosis. a Class II molar relationship on the affected side. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. supernumerary incisors. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde filling. B. E. cortical bone. A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates A. Fordyce's granules. periodontal abscess. E. D. D. after its complete eruption. an acute alveolar abscess.Infrabony defects occur most frequently in A. vitality. Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of A. once the patient has reached the age of 12. as soon as possible. E. peg lateral incisors. D. The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by 1. C. B. 2. B. adding an occlusal dovetail. The most appropriate treatment for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is A. C. labially displaced maxillary canines. 2. cancellous bone. a periodontal abscess. C. . D. bundle bone. apexification with calcium hydroxide. placing a gingival bevel. decreased osseous support. Premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by A. E. delayed eruption of the permanent first molar. 4. D. interseptal bone. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. increasing the parallelism of walls. excessive occlusal force. D. gingival inflammation. C. E. A. a Class III molar relationship on the affected side. C. root canal therapy using gutta-percha. lengthening the axial walls. A. C. anterior crowding. 3. you should extract the mesiodens A. C. Tooth mobility may be due to 1. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. apexification with zinc oxide. B. B. blue sclerae. C.

D. 4. C. buccal space. D. overexposure. . 3. D. E.A "broken stress" or "non-rigid" type fixed prosthesis is indicated when A. giant cell granuloma. removal of supragingival calculus. buccal vestibule. E. birth. in non-extraction versus extraction cases. 2 or 3 teeth are to be replaced. 3 to 6 months. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Excessively dark radiographs will result from 1. An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. A. B-hemolytic streptococci. D. C. squamous cell carcinoma. The microorganisms of dental caries are 1. D. submandibular space. The primary muscle of the cheek is the Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in A. B. E. 2. pterygomandibular space. C. streptococcus mutans. B. C. E. removal of toxins from cementum. orbicularis oris. The most likely diagnosis of a proliferative lesion found at a denture periphery is a/an A. lactobacillus acidophilus. removal of subgingival calculus. constructing a mandibular fixed prosthesis. underdevelopment. when the correction is accomplished by protrusion and intrusion of the lower anterior teeth. 4. C. B. B. 1 to 4 months in utero. A. D. epulis granulomatosum. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. epulis fissuratum. masseter. C. B. A. D. staphylococcus aureus. 3. Long term stability of the orthodontic correction of a deep anterior overbite is better A. B. the abutments cannot be prepared in parallel without excessive removal of tooth structure. zygomaticus major. in growing children compared to adults. D. when a low interincisal angle is established as a result of orthodontic correction. 2. D. B. 7 to 11 months. Permanent first molars begin calcification at A. C. in patients with a high mandibular plane angle. backward placement of the film. 12 to 15 months. C. planing root surfaces. the retainers can be so designed as to have equal retentive qualities. C. excessive milliamperage. buccinator. B. B.

A. 1. cochlea effect. E. A. Maxillary midline diastema can be caused by C. when the dentures have been stored in tap water at room temperature. 4. dysphoria. 3. Excessive bulk in the palatal area. B. E.In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy. C. 2. increased pressure in the middle ear. peripheral action on the eardrum. Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the A. E. Which of the following could cause phonetic problems for patients with removable dentures? 1. E. when a complete denture opposes natural teeth. superficial enamel demineralization. A. Posterior teeth placed in a buccal position. Anterior teeth that are too long. Composite resin cement. B. Glass ionomer cement. The greatest dimensional change in denture bases will occur A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Use of nitrous oxide analgesia produces tinnitus as a result of A. C. D. a tongue thrust habit. Bilaterally undercut ridges. D. B. D. Use of mechanical condensation. A larger sized condenser. congenitally missing lateral incisors. D. B. D. C. a thumb-sucking habit. E. D. C. kidneys. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. C. small intestine. 4. B. cytotoxicity. C. Which one of the following luting agents has been shown to reduce the incidence of fracture in an all-ceramic restoration? A. Resin modified glass ionomer cement. tooth sensitivity. Zinc phosphate cement. B. B. a mesiodens. A thinner matrix band. B. at the time the dentures are removed from the flask. central nervous system reaction. . which of the following is/are essential? 1. 2. C. after the dentures have been in the mouth 24~hours. D. pancreas. soft tissue reaction. 4. 3. The most common risk associated with vital bleaching using 10% carbamide peroxide in a custom tray is A. D. 2. spleen. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. liver. A properly placed wedge.

C. the distance between the bottom of the sulcus and the alveolar crest is A. gain in moisture content.5-1mm. The accuracy of alginate impression materials will be improved if A. C. B. improve convenience form. B. Upper first bicuspid. E. None of the above. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2.Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur 1. a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. loss in compressive strength. expansion. within minutes after drug administration. D. C. 1.5-2mm. aid in finishing. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. During the setting phase. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. A. allergenicity. 3-5mm. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to For which of the following teeth is the risk of root fracture increased if a rotational force is used during extraction? A. B. B. narrow spectrum of activity. B. A. Upper canine. Lower first bicuspid. B. C. eliminate the need for internal retention. C. B. In clinically normal gingiva. rapid development of tolerance. A major clinical problem of penicillin therapy is its A. the space between the tray and the teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate. E. 2. B. D. E. A 6 year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. For an acid-etched Class III composite resin. increase the surface area for etching. D. D. E. when the drug is administered parenterally. 3. C. the impression is removed slowly from the undercuts around the teeth. you should extract the mesiodens A. C. D. the impression is soaked in water for 1 hour. 0. 4. induction of nephritis. In order to manage the diastema. as soon as possible. . the space between the tray and the teeth is 1-2mm. D. 4. 3. 1. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. contraction. after its complete eruption. C. D. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. Upper lateral incisor. high toxicity. once the patient has reached the age of 12. Lower canine.

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A. touch. 2. B. B. A. apply pressure. 3. pressure. A. increase contrast. E. B. reduce exposure time.The first sensation lost after administration of a local anesthetic is A. C. C. Scopolamine. D. aid in retention of the denture. 2. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with which of the following? 1. Reserpine. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove 1. Major connectors of a cast maxillary partial denture are beaded at the periphery in order to A. produce a stronger framework. C. D. C. E. D. E. B. Immediately following a left posterior superior alveolar nerve block injection. B. Prosthetic heart valves.3mg epinepherine (sublingually). administer 0. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. reduce patient radiation dose. 3. retain the acrylic to the metal of the framework. 4. pain. B. Which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer? A. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. E. 3. 2. proprioception. contaminated cementum. A. Diazepam. D. C. calculus. apply a cold compress. Calcium carbonate. B. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Silica gel. C. reduce film density. form a finish line between metal and acrylic. refer for immediate medical treatment. C. improve tissue contact. E. the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. . D. crevicular epithelium. Cardiac pacemaker. The immediate treatment should be to 1. plaque. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation. All heart murmurs.

D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. ameloblastoma. C. E. C. D. the drug of choice is A. C. This is often an indication of A. impingement of denture on the mental nerve. D. conservative preparation for an amalgam restoration. buccal to the premolars. Paget’s disease. A hemorrhagic bone cyst (traumatic cyst) is a radiolucency most frequently seen A. . tetracycline. in the maxillary premolar area. preventive regimen to be implemented to arrest the demineralization and remineralize. this indicates that the supernumerary tooth lies A. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may 1. potential for systemic reaction. in the mandibular ramus. A. on the same plane as the premolars. Early detection of a non-cavitated smooth surface caries lesion allows for a Hypercementosis may be associated with A. 2. E. C. distal to the premolars. E. The use of a retraction cord impregnated with 8 percent racemic epinephrine may be hazardous for some patients because of its A. D. conservative preparation for a resinmodified glass ionomer restoration. C. E. impair tooth movement. defective occlusal contacts. D. B. B. posteriorly to the maxillary molars. local astringent action. In an infection caused by non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus. A patient wearing complete dentures complains of tingling and numbness in the lower lip bilaterally. B. C. local caustic action on the gingival tissue. D. neoplastic invasion of the inferior mandibular nerve. 4. B. vancomycin. cephalexin. hypophosphatasia. 3. C. multiple myeloma. penicillin V. allergy to denture base material. mesial to the premolars. None of the above. C. B. None of the above. from the symphysis to the ramus of the mandible.If the image of a supernumerary tooth appears in a second radiograph to have shifted distally from the position shown on the original radiograph. D. B. D. conservative preparation for a bonded composite resin restoration. cause hyalinization. B. A. lingual to the premolars. impingement of denture on the mandibular nerve. B. crush the periodontal ligament. cause root resorption.

Which of the following. A gastric ulcer. An allergy to acetaminophen. Bone age is estimated by the presence or absence of osseous centres in particular bones and compared with standards. advanced alveolar atrophy. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis. A mandibular fracture during normal mastication is most likely to occur in a patient with A. C. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid. to eliminate toxins from the patient. B. E. Concurrent use of Penicillin V. B. C. amelogenesis imperfecta. 24 months. The hand-wrist radiograph is of little value in orthodontic diagnosis. . osteoporosis. The information obtained from radiographs alone is enough to make an accurate determination of skeletal age. D. slightly more. C. B. B. on request from an informed patient. B. D. anterior teeth. the recommended time interval between bitewing radiographic examination for the detection of dental caries is A. is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations A. B. to reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease. B. osteogenesis imperfecta. D. slightly less. D. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. C. significantly less. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. Internal resorption. dentinogenesis imperfecta. an impacted tooth at the inferior border. "Dens in dente" (dens invaginatus) is associated with A. None of the above. Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of Tylenol 3®? A. D. C. D. 6 months. Reversible pulpitis. 12 months. Acute suppurative pulpitis. a large intraosseous lesion. supernumerary teeth. if left untreated. which of the following statements is correct? A. dependent upon caries risk.For an adult patient. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal relative to the porcelain for constructing a ceramometal (porcelain fused to metal) crown should be A. D. the same. C. Concerning hand-wrist radiographs. C. E. B. Hand-wrist radiographs are a precise measure of progress in skeletal development in normal children. E. D. C.

B. D. Coronoid process. E. plaque. E. B. crazing of the denture base around the necks of the teeth. calculus and contaminated cementum.Which of the following landmarks are recognizable in periapical radiographs of the mandible? 1. D. free gingival margin to the mucogingival line minus the periodontal pocket depth. 3. Mylohyoid ridge. C. A. calculus. B. None of the above. C. All of the above. 1. D. may aid in the prediction of permanent tooth malocclusion. plaque. D. External oblique ridge. 2. 2. C. E. determines the amount of leeway space. The distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine. shrinkage of the denture. free gingival margin to the mucogingival line. A. 4. D. Normal articulation of primary canines is end-to-end. all cementum associated with periodontitis. 3. C. 4. plaque and calculus exclusively. Which of the following represents the normal relationship of the primary canines? A. volumetric expansion of the denture causing an open bite. calculus and crevicular epithelium. is normal if there is a flush terminal plane. The interocclusal relationship of the primary second molars The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. A. . (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (4) (5) (2) (4) (5) (3) (4) (5) In processing (polymerizing) an acrylic denture in a water bath. 5. porosity due to boiling of the monomer. a correct temperature control is desired because of the possibility of A. does not affect the resultant permanent molar relationship. warpage. free gingival margin to the depth of the periodontal pocket. C. B. Incisive canal. D. contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. E. The clinical width of attached gingiva is determined by measuring the distance from the B. C. plaque. The mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine. B. Mental foramen. free gingival margin to the mucogingival line plus the periodontal pocket depth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only.

E. . The mesial furcation of maxillary permanent first molars is best probed from the A. D. associated with the absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors. C. medial (internal) pterygoid muscle. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated. C. spirochetes. temperature of the patient. D. there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. B. curved roots. The postnatal increase in width of the maxilla results from A. lymphadenopathy. lingual. All of the above. A. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. cocci. pulp stones. C. B. B. rods. B. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with A. fabricate a porcelain veneer. A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored upper central incisor. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be differentiated clinically by (the) A. (1) and (2) (3) and (4) (1) only (1) and (3) All of the above. upper fibres of the buccinator muscle. motile rods. B. pain. location of the lesions. D. sutural growth. Radiographically. 4. E. E. appositional growth. buccal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. associated with a large labial frenum. lateral (external) pterygoid muscle. mandibular growth. 3. C. both appositional and sutural growth. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fibres of the masseter muscle. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. normal. B. B. accessory canals. constricted root canals. C. C. A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be A. D. The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint is moved by the A. D. temporal muscle.The predominant organisms associated with active periodontitis are 1. E. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. inadequate periodontal support. B. D. C. 2. buccal or lingual. C.

Hairy leukoplakia. Smoking is a risk factor for both. D. respiratory depression. Genetic risks are similar. growth of the mandible is greatest A. Which conditions are associated with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)? 1. C. (1) (2) (3 (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. at the symphysis. C. absence of primate spaces. The retentive arm of a combination clasp (wrought wire retentive arm and cast lingual arm) is better than a cast arm because it A. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region. C. constipation. congenitally missing lateral incisors. . 3. can be used to engage deeper undercuts because of a high modulus of elasticity. between canines. is economical to fabricate. 4. D. drowsiness. B. After the age of 6 years. E. posterior to first molars. B. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells. D. A. C. There is a direct causal relationship. Side effects of therapeutic doses of codeine can include 1. a tongue thrust habit. a mesiodens. produces less stress on the abutment tooth during removal and insertion. 3. Which of the following statements regarding the association of coronary artery disease and periodontal disease can NOT be supported by scientific evidence? A. A. The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because A. Acute marginal periodontitis. C. free nerve endings terminate on odontoblasts at this region. B. has a lower yield strength. B. D. D. 2. C. Geographic tongue. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which of the following conditions CONTRAINDICATES routine dental treatment in the dental office? A. B. Recent (15 days) myocardial infarct.Each of the following can cause maxillary midline diastema EXCEPT A. nausea. There is a strong statistical association. 2. D. E. along the lower border. Second trimester pregnancy. C. 4. B. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction. D. C. D. B. E. Hypothyroidism. a thumb-sucking habit. Candidiasis. B. Insulin-dependent diabetes.

two-wall infrabony pockets. retain the restoration. orthodontic tooth movement. continue to enlarge. . burst and then heal. the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of A. C. D. C. reinforce the remaining crown. All of the above. mandibular curve of Spee. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum. three-wall infrabony pockets. D. composite resins can be used as a core material for endodontically treated teeth to be crowned provided A. D. B. one-wall infrabony pockets. D. D. Which of the following sedative barbiturates is also useful in reducing the frequency of seizures in persons with grand mal epilepsy? A. D. D. Phenobarbital. mandibular curve of Wilson. mandibular anterior lack of space.In periodontics. nickel is an allergen. E. B. C. the resin is autopolymerizing. None of the above. myocardial infarction. there is an adequate ferrule. Secobarbital. scleroderma. B. Thiopental. B. B. obturate the canal. Paget's disease. shrink over time. A post cemented with zinc phosphate cement is used in an endodontically treated tooth to A. but then recur. D. the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. suprabony pockets. remain unchanged. If left untreated. C. Widening of the periodontal space is NOT seen radiographically in A. C. B. Nickel-chromium alloys designed for porcelain bonded to metal crowns should be used with caution because A. E. subacute bacterial endocarditis. Patients with a history of rheumatic fever and known heart valve damage should be given prophylactic antibiotic coverage before dental extractions because of the risk of A. strengthen the root. C. C. heal. burst. Amobarbital. maxillary curve of Wilson. Assuming there is adequate tooth structure remaining. B. C. The occlusal parameter that is most useful to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the A. E. trauma from occlusion. molar sagittal relationship. C. these alloys cannot be soldered. the modulus of elasticity is low. . cardiac arrest. a pyogenic granuloma will most likely A. Pentobarbital. D. B. B.

On Monday morning. Pain. C. B. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. E. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest. Dentin dysplasia type II. D. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore with a MOD amalgam. coronal fracture with pulp exposure of the maxillary left central incisor. C. the enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. Limitation of jaw motion. Ethyl chloride.6 with the best prognosis is to A. Air jet. A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because A. a seven-year old child presents with a 3 mm. CO2 (dry ice). B. C. Long source-film distance. D. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin. The tooth is sensitive to hot and cold fluids. Radiographic changes of the joint. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. E. Dentin dysplasia type I. gutta-percha pulpectomy. C. Ice water. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? A. D. C. B. Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting bulbous crowns. Muscle tenderness.6 but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated final restoration. C. B. gutta-percha pulpectomy followed by an apicoectomy. D. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy. On a semi-adjustable articulator. Short object-film distance. C. B. A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam restoration has just had endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. B. direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide and a suitable protective restoration. . visibility and access are better. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. All of the above. the incisal guide table represents A. B. C. D. Which of the following will increase image sharpness on radiographs? A. Small focal spot. cervical constriction and obliterated pulp canals and chambers? A. The treatment of choice is A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. restore with a MOD amalgam. Amelogenesis imperfecta. D. D. the cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and restore with a MOD amalgam. which occurred during a football game Sunday afternoon. D. Interim restorative management of 4. B. root-end induction.

1. C. Mesial of the 3. D. C. causes less soft tissue inflammation. 3. B. When compared to a conventional complete denture. C. D. a cracked tooth. A survey of the master cast shows that the 3. D. B.6 pontic. B. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. cleaned with water and air dried. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull. A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2. sustaining oral hygiene and treating the elevated temperature. the incisal guide table represents A. Blood pressure. cleaned with hydrofluoric acid. Distal of the 3. The treatment of choice for a patient with generalized acute herpetic stomatitis is Which of the following are vital signs? A. Body temperature. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. pulpal necrosis. debridement of mouth.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. preserves more alveolar bone. prescribing 300. thoroughly dried with warm air.000 units of penicillin orally. Prior to the placement of polycarboxylate cement as a base for a restoration. reversible pulpitis. is more fracture resistant. On a semi-adjustable articulator. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. A. D. an overdenture A. . 2. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. is less expensive. D. D. B. devitalization followed by a post and core restoration. Pulse rate and respiration.7.0mm remaining coronal tooth structure. D. bonded amalgam core build-up. B. the cavity preparation should be A.A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. E. C. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth.7 retainer. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. prescribing corticosteroids locally and systemically. chronic apical abscess. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. C. spontaneous ache relieved by cold. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. same as for acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. Pupil size. 4.5 retainer. Distal of the 3. D. Mesial of the 3. C. B. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. painted with cavity varnish. a vertical root fracture. C. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A.5 and 3. C. E.6 pontic.

B. E. withdrawal of the medication. C. It is usually best to treat which of the following conditions as early as possible? A. the incisor malrelationship should be corrected now. future growth is likely to correct this problem. B. change in color of the attached gingiva. erythema multiforme. 4. sinusitis. if the malrelationship is corrected now. 3. D. vitamin deficiencies. 4. white blood cell count. 3. 2. the use of analgesics to control pain. B. hemoglobin level. Dentitions with an end-to-end bite. external hot compresses. A. the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge-to-edge. A l0-year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor cross-bite when in centric occlusion. B. C. drainage. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. C. B. bleeding on probing. Rotated incisors. D. A. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation. elimination of the cause. lichen planus. E. extraction of the teeth. Cross-bites with midline discrepancies. C. Clinical management of gingival enlargement caused by Phenytoin (Dilantin®) therapy includes A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. anemia. Bacterial infection may be confirmed by 1. increased tooth mobility. C. platelet count. a mouth guard to control mouth breathing. C. D.Management of a patient with an acute periapical abscess should include 1. the child has a growth problem and occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete. supportive therapy. E. future growth will likely undo the correction. E. C. change in consistency of the attached gingiva. Teeth in poor axial inclination. D. You should advise the parent that A. Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of A. . D. A diastema between the upper central incisors. gingivectomy and maintenance of good oral hygiene. erythrocyte sedimentation rate. D. E. B. D. The earliest clinical sign of gingivitis is A.

D. In the development of gingivitis. A. signature of a witnessed form just prior to treatment. Hydroxyapatite 1. Panoramic radiograph. C. Gardner’s. dimensional stability. D. placing a gingival bevel. addition of an occlusal dovetail. B. D. B. disclosure of all probable complications. C. Periapical radiographs of maxillary teeth. Informed Consent includes all of the following EXCEPT A. when conventional endodontics is impossible due to calcified canals. 5. the fibre groups first lost are A. when a root perforation needs to be sealed. is osteogenic. oblique. is resistant to fracture. Hyperplasia of the gingiva. allowing for questions posed by the patient. C. 2. Which of the following radiographs is most appropriate for the diagnosis of a fracture of the maxilla? A. 2. C. C. transeptal. E.A retrograde filling is indicated A. All of the above. D. horizontal. B. increasing the parallelism of walls. wear resistance. B. lengthening the axial walls. D. C. Anteroposterior radiograph of the skull. Peutz-Jeghers. free gingival. alternative treatment options. Sjögren’s. Gorlin-Goltz. including no treatment. B. D. D. (1) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) (4) (5) All of the above. C. is biocompatible. B. Generalized loss of lamina dura. Giant cell tumours of bone. B. 3. hardness. Retention of a gold inlay is improved by 1. 4. is derived from coral. B. can be used to eliminate osseous undercuts. C. 4. when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics. B. Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better than composite resins for long span. temporary bridges because of superior A. 3. D. A. In primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism. C. D. fracture toughness.. Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws? A. . Occlusal radiograph. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Alteration of the trabecular bone pattern. which of the following will NOT be found? A.

in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. D. A skeletal cross-bite always results from a discrepancy in A. External (lateral) pterygoid. prevent extrusion of opposing teeth. age related changes in cementum composition. the pin holes should be parallel to the A. Masseter. B. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 5. prevent the eruption of the permanent teeth. delayed eruption of the succeeding premolar. Diabetes mellitus. B. within minutes after drug administration. E. when the drug is administered parenterally. An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is most likely to occur 1. B. functional centric. eruption patterns. B. Trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome). D. . 3. All of the above. nearest external surface. A space maintainer in the posterior segment will: A. C. A. E. Buccinator. chronic periodontal disease. 3. the architecture at the CEJ. changes in dietary pattern. Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A. E. long axis of the tooth. C. 4. axial wall. C. B. C.Which systemic disease does NOT especially predispose to periodontitis? 1. 4. In pin-retained restorations. maintain arch length. This is most likely the result of A. 2. C. E. A healthy 78 year old patient presents with three new carious lesions on root surfaces. difficulty with extraction. 2. B. alteration of arch length. retard eruption of the permanent teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. mandibular and maxillary bone structure. age related decrease in salivary flow. D. when the drug is administered orally. Aquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Geniohyoid. A. B. An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause A. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. D. tongue position (low posture). B. D. D. pulp chamber. Cyclic neutropenia. C. D. facial musculature patterns.

shape of the tooth involved. Hypothyroidism. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. better colour. less shrinkage. C. 2. fungal. B. B. D. C. space available mesiodistally. C. Koplik's spots. B. B. C. anesthesia of the mental nerves. D. E. C. inability to bring posterior molars into contact. The significant factor in the correction of an anterior cross-bite is the A. protozoan. first molars and first premolars. cancrum oris. B. depth of cross-bite. age of patient. E. Which permanent teeth will normally be present in an 8-year old child? A. The etiologic agent for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is A. most frequently affects molars. The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is A. oral candidiasis. D. All central and lateral incisors and first molars. A. D. more translucency. Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels. All central and lateral incisors.Bilateral dislocated fractures of the mandibular condyles result in 1. B. thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia) A. E. affects non vital teeth in the majority of cases. C. viral. is most often confined to the apical half of the root. The prolonged use of antibacterial lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to the development of A. Hyperthyroidism. D. geographic tongue. (A) and (C) (B) and (C) . 4. D. C. anterior open bite. Mandibular central and lateral incisors and first molars. B. Maxillary and mandibular central and lateral incisors. aphthous ulcers. bacterial. Hyperparathyroidism. 3. inability to protrude the mandible. Hypoparathyroidism. D. increased strength. B. C.

B. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc phosphate cements. Which parameter is a CONTRAINDICATION for serial extraction? A. require shorter trituration time. Crowding of 7mm or more per quadrant. Actinomyces viscosus. D. are stronger (24 hour compressive strength). D. D. Coordinated dental arches. B. tarnish more. Actinomyces naeslundii. Class I skeletal relationship. Pre-extraction control of pericoronitis. E. B. B. Advanced alveolar bone resorption under the posterior partial denture base areas. E. Use of a pre-operative mouthrinse of 0. C. vitamin C deficiency. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns. E. All of the above. Class I molar relationship. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. C. traumatic occlusion. Down growth of the maxillary tuberosities.Which microorganism does NOT contribute significantly to the progression of dentinal caries? A. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT normally characteristic of this syndrome? A. C. Lactobacillus casei. Post-extraction socket dressing with topical tetracycline. ankyloglossia. When compared with admixed amalgams. Which of the following clinical approaches would reduce the tendency to the postextraction complication of dry socket? A. B. Reduction in morphologic face height. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxide and eugenol cements. D. bond mechanically to calcium in enamel and dentin. B. do not require a protective liner. Localized gingival recession of a mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by A. C. such as calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. D. Conventional glass ionomer cements A. C. C. . have better resistance to marginal fracture. E.2 percent chlorhexidine gluconate. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge resorption. B. spherical amalgams A. D. require less condensation pressure. D. The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome refers to the destructive changes associated with the long term wear of a mandibular distal extension removable partial denture opposing a complete upper denture. Skeletal deepbite. Streptococcus salivarius. C.

C. 7. cleidocranial dysplasia. trephination. The most appropriate emergency management of a mature permanent tooth with acute irreversible pulpitis is A. highly translucent. dissolve surface oxides and lower the melting range. collagen. B. dissolve surface oxides and prevent further oxidation. potency. These changes may be A. 8mm in the maxilla. toxicity. C.5mm in the mandible. D. duration of action. D. antibacterial spectrum. This condition is typical of A. pulpotomy. D. prevent recrystallization and grain growth. The actual space loss is A. D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. E. diffusion into the cerebrospinal fluid. procaine and benzathine salts of penicillin G is their A. but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear.5 and tooth 7. B. ‟punched out” radiolucent lesions. 2mm in the maxilla. The principal component of the fibres of the periodontal ligament is A. D. C. apical surgery.A 7-year old patient is missing tooth 5. A current mixed dentition analysis yields the following data: R -5mm -3mm L -3mm -4. a "hair on end" effect.5. . B. C. C. A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth. D. D. pulpectomy. B.5mm in the mandible. elastin. unaffected by moisture during the setting reaction. reticulin. The major advantage of glass ionomer cement as a restorative material is that it is A. B. B. neonatal hypoplasia. fibronectin. C. gross irregularities with exostosis formation. C. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. A person who has sickle cell anemia may show certain radiographic changes in the bones of the skull.5mm The principal difference between potassium. E. B. a fluoride releasing material. The main purpose of flux in soldering is to A. D. prevent oxidation and lower the melting range of the solder. Space maintainers were not placed. a moth-eaten appearance of the bone. C. incision and drainage. amelogenesis imperfecta. highly esthetic. B. 4.

Immediate treatment is to A. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. 2. a more heterogenous beam of X-rays. oral hygiene status. C. B. pulp necrosis. C. make the patient comfortable without disturbing the teeth. do not readily pass the blood-brain barrier. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. E. A. carefully remove both incisors. B. 4. 3. (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (3) All of the above. B. C. . reposition the intruded teeth. E. reposition and splint the intruded teeth. B.The maxillary central incisors of a 2 year old child have been traumatically intruded 4mm. a parallel technique or right angle technique as opposed to a bisecting angle technique will result in 1. Secondary dentin formation may be stimulated by A. The cause of a cleft lip is failure of the union of the Elimination or reduction of periodontal pockets will occur by planing and curettage alone if the patient's periodontal condition includes A. C. maxillary processes. D. selectively interfere with the propagation of action potentials in nociceptive fibres. In radiography. hyperemic and edematous gingival tissue. vitamin D therapy. None of the above. D. gingival hyperplasia due to Dilantin therapy. A. B. D. less dimensional distortion. less gonadal radiation. B. B. D. chronic periodontal pockets. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. fluorosis. greater entrance dosage. C. D. gingival sulcus depth. D. 3. Maintenance care for a patient treated for periodontal disease includes periodic assessment of 1. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. A. C. A. B. maxillary and lateral nasal processes. D. attrition. signs of gingival inflammation. do not have an effect on any other tissue than the nervous tissue. Local anesthetics Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. tooth mobility. interfere with the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibres. E. 2. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. C. D. palatine processes. C. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. All of the above. 4.

Which of the following is the most important factor in the preoperative evaluation of a patient? A. causing traumatic occlusion. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. D. A. cause impairment of liver function. 3. D. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations. 2. Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. increasing food retention. 2. D. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. 4. 4. delay healing. C.An open proximal contact on an amalgam restoration could have been caused by 1. Medical history. which of the following is correct? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. Electrocardiogram. D. E. C. increasing plaque retention. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Penicillin V. Acetaminophen Tetracycline. B. B. C. B. C. decrease the effectiveness of local anesthetics. Chronic alcoholism will 1. E. inadequate wedging. C. D. inadequate condensing forces. 3. causing pressure atrophy. 4. B. Regarding dental caries. Increased dietary fat increases the risk. Laboratory data. Pulse and blood pressure. . C. increase tendency to hemorrhage. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. A. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism? 1. B. E. B. 2. overtightening the matrix band. D. Codeine.

D. B. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. B. C. tenderness of posterior maxillary teeth to percussion. Elimination of local etiologic factors through plaque control. C. Acute maxillary sinusitis is associated with 1. D. 4. All of the above. Changes in direction of groups of enamel prisms A. D. E. B. B. extend to the enamel surface. 2. 4. After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8 year old child. B. reduce clogging of cutting instruments. B. formation of pulp stones. internal resorption. D. C. 4. increase of pain when bending over. Scaling. a well sealed restoration. pain in the posterior maxillary teeth. Which of the following is essential for successful periodontal treatment? A.The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will 1. Final evaluation and maintenance on a one-year recall. Periodontal surgery. A. 2. 3. slightly higher than εceramic. A. the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are 1. slightly lower than εceramic. E. result from incremental growth. decrease pulp damage. significantly lower than εceramic. 3. D. E. equal to εceramic. completion of root formation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. make enamel resistant to fracture. have no functional importance. The success of indirect pulp capping is dependent upon A. keep the operating site clean. nasal discharge. reduce frictional heat. . C. dentin bridge formation. ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal significantly higher than εceramic. C. The desirable relationship between the coefficients of thermal expansion of an alloy (ε metal ) and a ceramic (εceramic) used for a metalloceramic restoration is A. D. removal of all caries at the enamel-dentin junction. C. D. use of calcium hydroxide. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. 3. C.

3. C. 2g orally two hours before procedure only. then 150mg six hours after initial dose. C. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. Macrophages. then 1. vitamin A deficiency may result in A. Macrophages. increased rate of calculus formation. Plasma cells and monocytes. 2. erythromycin stearate. the radiograph shows an apical radiolucency. D. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke. stain development. C. increased rate of plaque formation. B. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before procedure. Lymphocytes. Hutchinson's incisors. E. C. B. The current recommended regimen of antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to penicillin is A. E. Melting point. Dark chocolate. Which of the following foods is the most cariogenic? During tooth development. A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Toffee. In teeth with complete pulp necrosis. Elastic strength. 4. dentinogenesis imperfecta. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down. C. D. Ductility. there is pain on percussion. Mast cells. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour before procedure only. . peg-shaped teeth. C. D. E. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. B. E. Percentage of gold present in the alloy. B. B. B. E.Gold casting alloys are classified as Type I-IV according to which of the following physical properties? A. D. E. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before procedure only. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. enamel hypoplasia. Cheese. there is pain to thermal stimuli. Surface hardness. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour before procedure. Jam. Plasma cells and monocytes. D. partial anodontia (hypodontia).5g six hours after initial dose. D. D. Continued smoking will impair wound healing following a surgical procedure because of A. Lymphocytes. contraction of peripheral blood vessels. D. B. the periapical area is involved if 1. Mast cells. B. C. E.

. C. D. root canal therapy using gutta-percha. B. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. E. The location of a crown margin is determined by 1. presence of an existing restoration. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde amalgam filling. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. 3. D. presence of caries. Coronally positioned flap. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. E. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. There is no indication that this tooth requires periodontal treatment. early osteoarthritis. mandibular subluxation. B. Localized gingivectomy. You would expect to find a decreased incidence of 1. The most appropriate treatment for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is A. overextended borders. xerostomia. 4. apexification with calcium hydroxide. B. D. osteoporosis. B. E.On a semi-adjustable articulator. Which of the following periodontal procedures is indicated on a maxillary canine that will receive a full crown with subgingival margins when the abutment has 1mm of attached gingiva. hyperparathyroidism. B. B. 3. the incisal guide table represents A. group function occlusion. dental caries. Paget's disease of bone. C. A 70-year old female has consumed optimal levels of fluorides all her life. no sign of inflammation or loss of attachment? A. E. Curettage and root planing. C. fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. C. Movement of a mandibular distal extension (Class 1) partial denture away from the denture bearing tissues when the patient opens is primarily caused by A. A. non-passive retentive arms. C. C. 4. D. A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. clinical crown length. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. apexification with zinc oxide. nocturnal bruxism. The most likely cause is A. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. 2. B. D. esthetic requirements. C. Autogenous connective tissue graft.

D. has topical anesthetic properties. immediate. A vertical cross-section of a smooth surface carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the A. B. D. B. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. base at the dentino-enamel junction. Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? The psychomotor recovery time from nitrous oxide sedation is A. A 25 year old female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. administer a CNS stimulant.000 epinephrine. reduced vascularity of the jaws. increased vascularity of the jaws. The most important therapeutic measure to be taken in a case of barbiturate poisoning is to A. E. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong. is a local anesthetic agent. A. C. A. C. Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. deformity of the jaws. C. D. D. base facing toward the pulp. alkalinize the urine. increased brittleness of the jaws. C. should result in a long bevel. 1 to 2 minutes. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal line angle. D. C.Lidocaine (Xylocaine) 1. Zinc phosphate. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management. Calcium hydroxide. 4. aspirate stomach contents. D. is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam. 30 minutes. Prescription of penicillin V. 2. B. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above. D. has anticonvulsant properties. assure adequate respiration. 3. B. is an antiarrhythmic agent. C. C. Polycarboxylate. apex pointing to the enamel surface apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction. B. Prescription of a radiograph. 10 minutes. B. E. B. should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture. A. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100. D. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol. . C. B.

a granular cell tumor. xerostomia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. red patch devoid of filiform papillae. Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. ethamine. iron deficiency anemia. E. apicoectomy. (1) (2) (3 (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no pre-existing periapical pathology. median rhomboid glossitis. amide. Side effects of therapeutic doses of codeine may produce 1. an apical radiolucency. a fibroma. 2. C. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.A healthy 38 year old has a 4mm in diameter. condensing osteitis. aldehyde. pain. 3. aminide. The most appropriate management is A. extraction. D. elevated. B. well defined radiolucency at the apex of tooth 4. C. nausea. acute osteitis. angular cheilitis. D. 4. 2. C.1. B. D. incision and drainage. respiratory depression. B. located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. The radiograph will show A. spontaneous hemorrhage of the gingiva. C. B. E. observation. open the tooth for drainage. 3. B. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. D. periapical granuloma. C. drowsiness. ester. E. none of the above. B. 2. A. 4. E. 3. benign migratory glossitis. D. D. constipation. 4. D. excessive orthodontic forces. C. A. . traumatic injury. E. root resorption. Oral signs and/or symptoms of advanced vitamin C deficiency include 1. The tooth has a normal response to vitality tests. A. E. cementoma. A smooth. C. B. E.

increased exposure time. C. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children? A. D. patient’s symptoms. C. A. and C. B. Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. tongue. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores. gingiva. A. 3. buccal mucosa. E. D. lip. Properties of glutaraldehyde include 1. D. encroaching upon the central incisor space. (4) only (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (1) only None of the above. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria. B. C. minimal effect on pulp tissues. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. palate. C. more radiation affecting the silver halide crystals. B. Cementoblastoma. 2. B. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) All of the above. An 8-year old boy has lost tooth 11. B. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin. D. B.A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of 1. results of the biopsy. A. decreased density of tissue. . D. C. The crown margin should be placed A. 3. Severe enamel hypoplasia. 3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. D. The lateral incisors have partially erupted. 4. without encroaching upon the space. C. C. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. 4. A lower molar requiring a crown has an extensive MOD amalgam restoration. Deficiency of vitamin D. Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. response to percussion testing. 2. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. D. B. B. and the left central incisor will encroach upon the space. 4. You would expect that tooth 12 will erupt A. A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated from a periradicular cyst by the A. E. on the existing amalgam. C. D. at the amalgam/tooth junction. increased density of tissue. E. B. radiographic appearance. A syphilitic gumma is most commonly found on the A. 2.

A patient has spontaneous pain and intense sensitivity to cold with lingering pain. D. D. C. Fatigue. . A. C. 2. D. The most likely diagnosis is A. E. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. is usually l0 mm in the premolar region. B. C. B. B. Petechiae of the palate. 5. chronic periradicular periodontitis. B. 6 months in utero. viral hepatitis. restore tooth function. The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A. acute periradicular periodontitis. 3. malaise. C. B. is the difference between occlusal vertical dimension and hinge-axis registration. D. Tetracycline will cause crown discolouration when prescribed at the age of 1. weight loss. cause difficulty in swallowing. cause injury to the abutment teeth. D. acute irreversible pulpitis. Gingival enlargement. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. D. The interocclusal distance (freeway space) A. is the difference between occlusal vertical dimension and rest vertical dimension. is the distance between centric occlusion and centric relation. be biologically acceptable. increase the shearing action in mastication. Pharyngitis. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) An excessively thick palatal bar of a maxillary partial denture will A. reduce thermal conductivity. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. restore aesthetics. 14 years. distort under occlusal stress. infectious mononucleosis. E. ulcerated lesion on the palate. actinomycosis. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. 2. Lymphadenopathy. Clinical examination shows a nodular. C.A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats. anorexia and lowgrade fever. tuberculosis. C. irritate the palatal tissues. D. B. reduce galvanic reactions between abutments and other restorations. 7 years. Which of the following is NOT associated with infectious mononucleosis? A. 4. A. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. D. chronic irreversible pulpitis. 2 years. 4. B. 3. A fixed bridge pontic should 1.

E. 4. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin. C. Retrusive. When the developer solution in the film processor is not changed and becomes oxidized. D. Protrusive. Lack of instruments or equipment for this procedure. a dentist may refuse to treat a patient with HIV infection for a specific procedure for the following reason(s). at the amalgam/tooth junction. Infection control procedures that are not designed for infectious patients. clinical attachment loss. D. gray. The crown margin should be placed A. A lower molar requiring a crown has an amalgam restoration extending 1. B. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Inadequate knowledge of the specific procedure. removing unexposed silver salts. Smoking. 2. C. A. Clinically. blue. A. D. . A small hinge articulator was used for the fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4. black. Which of the following movements will result in the greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient? A. C. C. carrying on development. on the existing amalgam. depth of periodontal probing. processed radiographs will appear A. severity of gingival inflammation. The fixing solution serves the purpose of 1. 3.6. B. None of the above. Mediotrusive. number of bleeding sites on probing. Diabetes mellitus. 2. D. D. Inadequate experience in the specific procedure.According to the principles of ethics that are generally accepted in Canada. C.0 mm subgingivally. B. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above. Medications. Laterotrusive. 1. 3. the progression of periodontitis can be determined best by the increasing A. B. B. D. hardening the emulsion. E. Blood pressure. C. Candidal superinfection of lichen planus is NOT related to: A. B. D. brown. C.

mandibular shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation with midline deviation.6 is A. B.7 has extensive distal caries and apical rarefying osteitis. D. cortical drift.7. C. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called A. 4. is approximately 3. The most common clinical characteristic/s of a buccolingual functional crossbite is/are A. E. 2. occurs with premature loss of primary molars. B. C. B. atherosclerosis. occlusive coronary artery disease. C.7. buccopulpal. radiotherapy.7 crown and assess 4. remove 4. A major difference between stable angina pectoris and myocardial infarction is that stable angina pectoris does NOT involve . D. root canal therapy.4. crushing substernal pain. hemi-mandibulectomy.The most appropriate treatment for a unicystic ameloblastoma of the posterior mandible in an 18 year old patient is A. Prilocaine (citanest). D. B. Lidocaine (xylocaine). section the bridge at 4. prescribe an antibiotic and an analgesic and reappoint the patient. D.5mm in the mandibular arch. perform endodontic therapy through the 4. Mepivicaine (carbocaine). asymmetrical arches. 3. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. C. remodeling. D. area relocation. A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1. B. will provide space for eruption of the permanent incisors. is greater in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch. axiopulpal. C. A patient presents with pain from tooth 4. mesiopulpal. None of the above. B.7 which is an abutment for a 4 unit bridge from 4. remove entire bridge and assess restorability of abutments. C. C. D.4 to 4. Procaine. curettage. C. B. D. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (2) (1) only All of the above. E. several missing teeth. A. E. Clinical and radiographic examination reveal tooth 4.7 crown. E. allows accommodation of premolars that are larger than the primary molars. The leeway space in an 8 year old child A. block resection. females under the age of 80 years. A. ischemic myocardial necrosis. translatory growth. linguopulpal. The most appropriate initial management is to A.

allowed to absorb water after setting. B. C. marginal gingivitis. A bitewing radiograph of an early mixed dentition should include the following proximal surfaces. D. dehydrated. 3. An 8 year old patient has a permanent maxillary right first molar extracted because of caries. Pits and fissures. Proximal enamel. wait for the second molar to erupt into the space. Mesial of the primary first molar to mesial of the permanent first molar. The dimensional stability of polyether impression material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is A. D. In infectious mononucleosis you are most likely to find 1. B. increased tooth mobility. B. palatine petechiae. a positive Paul Bunnel test. D. D. B. E. Distal of the primary canine to distal of the permanent first molar. leukopenia. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the patient. extract the permanent maxillary left first molar to maintain symmetry in the upper arch. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease. the disease usually being fatal within one year. B. Patients with known prion diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are characterized by A. A clenching habit may be a factor in A. Root surfaces. B. C. A. lymphadenopathy. extract the permanent mandibular right first molar to equalize the tooth size ratio on the right side. D. A. Incisal dentin. C. distorted by rapid removal of the impression from the mouth. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an infected patient. 2. C. suprabony periodontal pocket formation. C. C. generalized recession. D. place a space maintainer. D. 4. contaminated with latex. The most appropriate management to prevent a malocclusion is to A. Mesial of the primary first molar to distal of the permanent first molar. Distal of the primary canine to mesial of the permanent first molar.Caries in older persons is most frequently found on which of the following locations? A. B. C. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

lingual contour. connective tissue destruction results from direct action of A. malalignment of teeth. C. B. lichen planus. A. marginal ridge contour. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. expansile. C. C. Occlusal traumatism. C.A white. matrix metalloproteinases. E. C. 3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. bacterial toxins. erythrocyte sedimentation rate. alveolar ridge. Periodontal atrophy. white blood cell count. D. leukoedema. Which has the WORST prognosis? A. B. Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2. E. premalignant. cytokines. Periapical cemental dysplasia is . C. A. The primary stress bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the A. hard palate. C. platelet count. 2. In placing an amalgam. 4. painful. B. white sponge nevus. Bacterial infection may be confirmed by 1. associated with vital teeth. 2% glutaraldehyde. B. B. a 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite. E. D. wrinkled appearance of the buccal mucosa which diminishes in prominence or disappears upon stretching is indicative of A. D. 3. D. In periodontal disease. C. B. gingival contour. C. B. B. 10% ethyl alcohol. diffuse. A recommended method for disinfecting alginate impressions is to immerse the impression for 10 minutes in A. hemoglobin level. Chronic periodontitis. B. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. buccal contour. D. patient movement during the exposure. D. Gingivitis. D. candidiasis. zygoma. linea alba. 4. a complex phenolic. D. Aggressive periodontitis. median palatal raphe. A. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. interproximal wedging will be most effective in controlling the A. organic acids. E.

Which of the following complications might occur after administration of a local anesthetic agent? 1. All of the above. 2. C. interproximal gingival retraction. E. alteration of arch length. C. (1) and (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) All of the above. B. Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A. D. 3. B. myxedema. A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is A. D. C. B. D. Nausea. hyperparathyroidism. drifting of the teeth. difficulty with extraction. 4. delayed eruption of the succeeding premolar. The microscopic appearance of the central giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. C. hyperparathyroidism. D. No hemorrhage at the exposure site. burning gingivae. A. asthma. The exposure site is uncontaminated. D. Convulsions. access to the operating field. contrast between the tooth and the operating field. 2. girls two years ahead of boys. boys six months ahead of girls. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The exposure is small. hyperthyroidism. C. E. B. A. Paget's disease. B. C. B. girls one year ahead of boys. marginal gingivitis. hyperplastic gingivitis. C. D. Which muscle is primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position? . Which of the following clinical findings will give the most favourable prognosis for successful direct pulp capping? 1. 3. protection from fluid contamination. cleidocranial dysplasia. D. The tooth is hypersensitive to heat. 4. Respiratory depression. An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause A. That difference is A. painful. Cardiovascular collapse. hyperpituitarism. There is a differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. D. B. B. girls six months ahead of boys. The principal use of the rubber dam during placement of a composite resin restoration is to provide A.

Would not interfere with ensuing restorative procedures. C. B. decreased object-film distance. the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by A. Ice water. D. A. E. B. D. When exposing radiographic film. A. The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is A. C. an allergy to the denture material. The full palatal strap major connector is indicated where A. Paget’s disease. E. Hypophosphatasia. B. Root tip size less than 2mm. pulpal involvement. D. 2. palatal tissue is soft and compressible. C. B. undercut palatal torus is present. The full palatal major connector is indicated where Under what circumstances would you consider leaving root tips in the socket of a primary tooth? 1. Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to . there is a high. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. undercut palatal torus is present. development of diastemas and/or a poorly fitting denture? A. Rickets. No infection in the area. CO2 (dry ice). Medial pterygoid. 4. D. D. B. root caries. Would not interfere with development or eruption of succedaneous teeth. narrow palatal vault. C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. C. narrow palatal vault. B. B. failure to remove the denture at night. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? A. a well-defined. recurrent pocketing. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.A. there is a high. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. C. A. Buccinator. C. palatal tissue is soft and compressible. Which of the following diseases may cause an enlargement of the jaws. D. E. B. Osteoporosis. C. Ethyl chloride. C. root sensitivity. a candida infection. decreased target-object distance. Masseter. B. 3. Temporalis. Lateral pterygoid. a well-defined. Air jet. D. collimation. an ill fitting denture. Phantom bone disease. D.

Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. lateral condylar inclination. B. D. Cleidocranial dysostosis is distinguished by A. All of the above. D. persistence of deciduous teeth. treat bruxism. D. D. D. C. Lingual vein. Which of the following structures lies inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the level of the mandibular second molar? A. evaluate esthetics. B. D. at the gingival crest. While the teeth are set in wax. The gingival tissues remain healthier when margins of crowns are placed A. about 5mm below the gingival crest. Which one of the following describes the position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. E. 7. C. B. permit eruption or elongation of teeth. clavicles absent or maldeveloped. D. prevent pulpitis. C. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. Nasociliary. verify the maxillomandibular records.Occlusal (night) guards are used to A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. A. A hinge axis facebow records A. Submandibular duct. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. Nasopalatine. B. usually shortened skull. 6. All of the above. Anterior superior alveolar. centric relation. about lmm below the gingival crest. C. Lingual artery. dentures are tried in to A. B. Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. B. . B. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. horizontal condylar inclination. D. B. Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 5. delayed suture closure. C. Bennett angle. C. above the gingival crest. 8. C. reduce pocket formation. Sphenopalatine. opening and closing axis of the mandible. E. Lingual nerve.

2. Circulating inflammatory protein levels. E. fluctuant swelling. B. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is not always possible. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form. A. C. observe. D. Extrusion Intrusion Luxation Subluxation . The management of this patient should be to A.1? An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. nerve damage. fracture of the malar ridge. In a 17 years old. D. Coronary artery disease. 3. C. the preparation will lack retention form. 3. A. which traumatic dental injury is most likely to result in pulp necrosis on tooth 1. D. Patient’s smoking habits. C. B. D. fracture of the tuberosity. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. C. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. D. Studies have established links between the incidence of periodontal disease and which of the following? 1. future anteroposterior positions of permanent first molars. D. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. D. C. D. A. E. Relief of the pressure and pain is immediate after treatment. C. C. The procedure is only indicated with a localized. Which of the following are true statements about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess? 1. a dry socket. A rubber dam drain may be placed and sutured to assist drainage. B. A. A. A. 4. B. Cerebral vascular accidents. 4. vertical dimensions of the mandible upon eruption of permanent first molars. arch length between permanent second molars. B. 2. The terminal plane relationship of primary second molars determines the The most likely complication associated with the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is A. C. amount of leeway space that is available for permanent premolars and canines. B. B. plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. cement dissolution will lead to leakage.

spaced maxillary incisor teeth. narrow suprabony pocket. C. 3. corrected with palatal expansion. C. B. All of the above. locates the marginal ridges of each tooth. D. B. lack of normal tonicity of the labial musculature. None of the above. Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. D. a rarefying osteitis. stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae. Labioversion of maxillary incisor teeth is associated with A. D. a periradicular periodontitis. thumbsucking. 2. A. a dentigerous cyst. a bilateral constriction of the maxilla. The radiolucency is most likely A. E. A unilateral cross-bite involving the permanent maxillary first molar may be A. B. keeps the teeth from having any movement during function. wide suprabony pocket. wide infrabony pocket. B. B. (4) only (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (1) only None of the above. the result of chronic inflammation. C. C. A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of 1. amide. D. insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency. C. the mental foramen. caused by premature degeneration of Hertwig's root sheath. aldehyde. increased exposure time. E. tooth pain upon percussion. B.A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. B. C. ethamine. . a normal anatomical structure. increased density of tissue. B. B. C. Acellular cementum on a root is A. All of the above. a defective cementoid substance. Fremitus is A. D. decreased density of tissue. D. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it A. D. ester. 4. The best prognosis for reattachment of periodontal ligament is in a A. aminide. tooth mobility of grade II. C. vertical tooth mobility. mobility during occlusion. E. more radiation affecting the silver halide crystals. associated with a mandibular shift. D. C. narrow infrabony pocket. D.

A. analgesic properties. hasten the final set. there is greater assurance that all microorganisms are destroyed. If a cast is tripoded it serves as a useful method of A. C. In cementing a full crown. D. D. D. C. E. B. create a smooth finish. nature of acellular cementum. position on the abutment tooth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.When root canals are treated topically with antibiotics rather than with disinfectants 1. B. C. After initial setting. A characteristic of the periodontium which allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is the A. have excess cement covering the margins. treatment may be completed in fewer appointments. location of the occlusal rest. . passive eruption. D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. elasticity of bone. B. using low kVp. C. E. A. C. All of the above. 4. 2. D. anti-inflammatory function. C. locating the height of contour. modified continuous eruption of the teeth. retard the final set. the same rules of mechanical preparation and filling must be observed. length of the retentive arm. apply continuous occlusal loading. glass ionomer cements should have a coating agent applied in order to A. E. The flexibility of a retentive clasp arm is affected by the A. using an aluminum filter. determining the path of insertion. 5. D. it is desirable to A. locating unfavorable tissue undercuts. B. 4. B. antipyretic effect. a greater success rate results. The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. location of the reciprocal arm. 3. B. using a high speed film. (1) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) and (5) All of the above. A daily dose of 80mg of acetylsalicylic acid is used for its A. 2. retard the set of the cement. 3. antiplatelet action. D. protect the cement from moisture. B. increasing target-film distance. C. returning the cast to the surveyor. D. there is a danger of sensitizing patients to antibiotics. B. C.

Ibuprofen. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A bite wing radiograph of tooth 1. causing traumatic occlusion. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child. 2. increasing food retention. A. B. C. C. Destructive occlusal forces can be reduced by Where cavity preparations are extensive. tooth extraction. place an amalgam restoration. place a direct composite restoration. increasing plaque retention. C. attaches to the crown of a tooth. zygomaticomaxillary suture. use high speed film. 3. E. D. Acetaminophen. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. D.4 reveals caries penetrating two thirds into the mesial enamel. B. 2. it interacts with setting amalgam to form a weak chemical union. 3. it is biocompatible with the pulp. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include the 1. D. E. pterygopalatine suture. median palatine suture.4 is to A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. C. 4. 2. selective grinding. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. B. E. develops in place of a tooth. D. attaches to the apex of a tooth. restorative treatment. it is compressible when set. All of the above. D. 4. Acetylsalicylic acid. B. Which drug(s) control(s) pain and reduce(s) inflammation? 1. D. C. its pH stimulates secondary dentin formation. remains after the tooth is extracted. C. 1. B. Meperidine HCl. B. apply a radiation protection badge. take a panoramic film only. frontomaxillary suture. A primordial cyst A. causing pressure atrophy. the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. A. place a porcelain inlay. C. E. B. A. D. orthodontics. C. polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base material because A. . 4. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. The most appropriate management of tooth 1. 3. apply topical fluoride and monitor.

monocytes. A topical antibiotic. produce a smoother surface. In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) with associated lymphadenopathy. vitamin C deficiency. that the patient have no food or drink for four hours previously. which of the following medications is the treatment of choice? A. A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats. A systemic antibiotic. it cannot be detected in the bloodstream. decrease pulpal damage if used with light pressure. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. D. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. lymphocytes. Localized gingival recession of a mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by A. C. traumatic occlusion. Class II malocclusions can be prevented by A. that the patient possess an electrocardiogram. preventing thumbsucking and lip biting habits. increase frictional heat. (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) All of the above. malaise. infectious mononucleosis. ankyloglossia. C. B. macrophages. you would require 1.The most prevalent inflammatory cells found in gingival tissue 24 hours following flap surgery are A. D. C. All of the above. B. tuberculosis. B. C. viral hepatitis. ulcerated lesion on the palate. An anti-inflammatory. it is a potent analgesic with a euphoriant activity equal to morphine. D. correcting mouth breathing as early as possible. in combination with alcohol its effects are greatly intensified. B. Using a high speed dental handpiece WITHOUT water coolant will A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). weight loss. Propoxyphene (Darvon) has become an important drug of abuse because A. D. 2. C. that oxygen is available. B. E. D. C. For either nitrous oxide analgesia or intravenous sedation using diazepam (Valium) in a healthy adult patient. E. 4. E. A. 3. reduce debris accumulation. 5. C. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D. None of the above. reduce clogging of dental bur. D. maintaining the integrity of the primary dentition. B. actinomycosis. anorexia and lowgrade fever. that the patient be supine. D. C. Clinical examination shows a nodular. B. An analgesic. . that emergency drugs are available.

temperature of the patient. Bradykinin. C. small and convex in all directions. A 9 year old boy sustains a fracture of the crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp exposure. B. D. The accident occurred one hour prior. Which of the following malocclusions is most commonly associated with mouth breathing? A. C. Division 2. Movement of a mandibular distal extension (Class 1) partial denture away from the denture bearing tissues when the patient opens is primarily caused by A. lymphadenopathy. E. D. microcytic hyperchromic anemia. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be differentiated clinically by (the) A. Class II. convex only in the mesiodistal direction. location of the lesions. pain. Class I. group function occlusion. The most appropriate treatment is to A. C. microcytic hypochromic anemia. None of the above. B. E. D. C. Division 1. D. overextended borders. D. Acetominophen. B. B. and B. The gingival aspect of a pontic which touches the alveolar ridge should be A. glass ionomer cements contain A.An anemia in which the red blood cells are smaller and less intense in color than normal is called a A. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid. Generally. A. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. fabricated to produce slight tissue compression. Which of the following has/have analgesic. B. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. xerostomia. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and restore. B. C. zinc oxide and distilled water. perform a pulpectomy and seal temporarily. None of the above. perform a pulpotomy and seal temporarily. C. concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally. D. C. B. non-passive retentive arms. A periapical radiograph reveals that the root of the tooth is intact but the apex is open. Class III. C. B. Acetylsalicylic acid. D. antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? A. Class II. macrocytic hypochromic anemia. . perform a pulpectomy and fill immediately with gutta-percha and restore. D.

4. 3. D. D. increase their mass to reflect functional stress. continuous deposition of cementum. D. B. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. guided tissue regeneration. B. redness. cicatricial pemphigoid. 4. rearrange themselves in the direction of functional pressures. 3. C. A 52 year old patient presents with a limitation of mouth opening. All of the above. None of the above. erythema multiforme. D. A panoramic radiograph shows diffuse widening of the periodontal ligament. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. scaling and root planing (debridement). 2. glass ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. continuous deposition of dentin. biocompatible. Periodontal pockets CANNOT be reduced by A.Bone elements (Wolff's law of bone) will A. neutral in colour. bone deposition. D. E. hyperparathyroidism. occlusal interference. B. E. loss of function. C. pain. C. C. C. decrease their mass to reflect functional stress. force application. swelling. open flap curettage. . A. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. B. bone resorption. D. diameter of the wire segment. scleroderma. compatible with the expansion of composite resins. occlusal adjustment. In clinical dentistry. In composite resin restorations. C. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. D. advanced adult periodontitis. C. length of the wire segment. A. stiffness of wire is a function of The rate limiting step of tooth movement is A. C. All of the above. The patient has loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival recession. decreased blood supply to the pulp. increased porosity of enamel. A. . alloy composition. B. B. D. 2. B. Normal aging changes in the hard tooth tissues include 1.

local periodontium. at the dentino-enamel junction. secondary radiation. In a young patient living in an area with communal water fluoridation. Increased pain while lying down. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. picovirus. E. Carbide finishing burs. 3. 4. E. E. 4. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. retrovirus. pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae. image definition. B. C. the palatine raphe and the posterior border of the palatine bone. All of the above. 4. residual space for a pontic. A. C. pterygomaxillary notches and the posterior nasal spine. . Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of acute suppurative pulpitis? 1. Which of the following instruments can be used for placing gingival bevels on inlay preparations? 1.The anatomical landmarks used to help establish the location of the posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture include the A. Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce 1. Increased pain by cold. B. D. radiation received by patient. B. A. the fluoride concentration of an erupted tooth is greatest A. consideration must be given to the A. B. coronavirus. adenovirus. 3. D. A. Small diamond disks. 3. B. E. vertical changes due to tipping of the molar. Enamel hatchets. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. use of fixed appliances for optimum control. radiographic contrast. C. posterior border of the tuberosities and the posterior border of the palatine bone. D. anterior border of the tuberosities. 2. D. C. on the surface of the clinical crown. When uprighting a molar to be used as a bridge abutment. Margin trimmers. Spontaneous throbbing pain. Prolonged pain initiated by heat. 2. B. D. C. D. 2. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a/an A. evenly throughout the enamel. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp chamber.

D. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide. high percentage of blood oxygen. 5. atrophy of the posterior pituitary. C. B. The term "dental age" refers to the A. A. D. maxillary molars. Displacement of fractures is influenced by 1. hemorrhage. C. C. C. E. B. B. E. A. mandibular molars. D. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. state of dental maturation. 3. An allergy to acetaminophen. has no basal cell layer. D. eruption time of a given tooth. 2. mandibular premolars. E. direction of fracture line. a hyperactive thyroid. C. C. periodontal ligament space. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (5) The incidence of tooth loss due to periodontal disease is highest for A. contains elastic fibers. angulation. B. B. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. Healthy attached gingiva A. Gigantism is caused by A. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid. root width. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary. None of the above. 4. D. 2. hyperplasia of the parathyroids. number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted. The major stimulator of respiration is A. has no rete pegs. E. mandibular incisors. B. C. Concurrent use of alcohol.Which of the following should be considered when assessing the difficulty of removal of an impacted mandibular third molar? 1. B. D. depth in the alveolus. D. Which one of the following is NOT a contraindication to ibuprofen? A. . 4. C. direction of the blow. D. maxillary premolars. muscle attachments. A gastric ulcer. age. none of the above. 3. low blood pressure.

C. B. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. Double lip. Cleft palate. E. A. (1) (2) (3) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The vibrating line of the palate is Which of the following is the most frequent major congenital malformation of the head and neck? A. 3. 3. increases the thickness of gold. E. B. C. D. improves marginal adaptation. a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 3. E. Mycobacteria. Staphylococci. B. always on the hard palate.For a cast gold restoration. D. impair tooth movement. B. . C. B. A. Commissural pits. 4. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may 1. D. easily located on a cast. Cystic hygroma colli. is non-explosive and non-flammable. be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. Following orthodontic alignment. cause hyalinization. D. Nitrous oxide 1. relapse of the mandibular incisors cannot A. 4. increases retention. 2. 1. Clostridia. provides rapid induction and recovery. cause root resorption. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. C. 3. E. A. C. is a potent anesthetic. D. Diplococci. occur if a supracrestal fiberotomy is performed. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis. C. A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 2. 2. 2. protects the enamel. occur if the second or third molars are removed. crush the periodontal ligament. provides good muscle relaxation. D. B. 4. Which of the following bacterial groups is anaerobic? A. occur if retainers are worn until the mandibular growth is complete. E.

remove 4. prescribe an antibiotic and an analgesic and reappoint the patient. C. D.4 to 4. . cover the hard palate. B. 2. B.Bar clasp and circumferential clasp arms are similar in that both 1. B. may remain for years partially resorbed. be rigid. A patient presents with pain from tooth 4. sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed. A. originate above the height of contour. provide retention by the resistance of metal to deformation rather than frictional resistance of parallel walls. A. polymerization shrinkage. B. section the bridge at 4. The most appropriate initial management is to A. C. terminate in a retentive undercut lying gingival to the height of contour. E. are always resorbed. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. may remain for years with no significant resorption. 3. C. A. poor shade selection. D. E. high thermal conductivity. 4. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. In taking a polysulfide impression for a cast restoration in the maxilla. originate from the framework and approach the tooth undercut area from a gingival direction.7 crown. Most of the problems associated with direct posterior composite resin restorations are related to A. 2.4. 2. The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors 1. D. 3. 4.7 which is an abutment for a 4 unit bridge from 4. perform endodontic therapy through the 4.7. D. D. 4. B. remove entire bridge and assess restorability of abutments.7 has extensive distal caries and apical rarefying osteitis. 3. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (4) All of the above.7. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal tooth 4. traverse a portion of the suprabulge and approach the tooth undercut from an occlusal direction. C. have occlusal stops. be coated with an adhesive cement.7 crown and assess 4. the tray must 1. galvanic conduction.

less soluble than glass ionomer cements. C. B. D. 2. C. E. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. D. reduction of fever. refer for a sleep assessment. Bradykinin. C. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. 4. Substance P. C. Which chemical mediator of inflammation is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)? All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid except A. insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency. D. provide adequate posterior inter-arch space. B. A. allow placement of teeth over the residual ridge. inter-occlusal relationship. facilitate reliable impression making. C. In the initiation of dental caries. horizontal condylar inclination. B.Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it A. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. B. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. 1. suppression of inflammatory response. lactobacilli are A. vertical dimension of occlusion. the only acid-forming bacteria in the mouth. Prostaglandin. stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae. 3. abundant in calculus. All of the above. D. both acidogenic and aciduric. less soluble than zinc phosphate cements. B. C. increase the supporting surface area . B. Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are A. A. D. D. capable of surviving without nutrients. shortening of bleeding time. C. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical procedure used to A. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. locates the marginal ridges of each tooth. D. more soluble than zinc phosphate cements. B. D. C. fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring. Histamine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. B. overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. A facebow is used to record the A 45 year old. keeps the teeth from having any movement during function. as soluble as zinc phosphate cements.

The most appropriate treatment would be to A. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. rough surface. cleidocranial dysplasia. . 3. appositional proliferation only. B. sutural and interstitial proliferation. buccinator. C. E. Petrous nerves. perform root canal treatment and non vital bleaching. just before the beginning of the prepubertal growth spurt. E. B. D. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. C. D. A delta and C nerves. masseter. hyperparathyroidism. Mandibular condylar region grows by A. lateral (external) pterygoid. Which of the following structures may be associated with the role of the central nervous system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism? A. interstitial and appositional proliferation. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. A patient complains of the discolouration of an upper central incisor. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. C. definite finish line. D. just after eruption of the second permanent molars. E. just before eruption of the second permanent molars. B. A. appositional and sutural proliferation. D. D. temporalis. The microscopic appearance of the central giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. Radiographically. B. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). C. fabricate a porcelain veneer. E. B. Paget's disease. B. Sphenopalatine ganglion. C. D. B. The muscle primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position is the A. 4. just after the end of the prepubertal growth spurt.The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. D. D. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. B. On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30. medial (internal) pterygoid. C. space for the veneer material. at the cementoenamel junction. The most appropriate time for surgical treatment in a female patient with mandibular prognathism is A. hyperpituitarism. interstitial proliferation only. after the completion of growth. the normal alveolar crest is A. 2. not clearly distinguishable.

E. D. B. enhance the bond between a porcelain veneer and the resin cement. A. D. 4. 3. B. enhance use of a heat cured composite resin inlay. facilitate the soldering of gold castings. hypothyroidism. B. cleidocranial dysplasia. indirect retention. The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by 1. 2. cherubism. direct retention. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. control polymerization shrinkage in composite resins. mandibular first premolar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Down's syndrome. 4. C. A. It is available without prescription in Canada. less dimensional change with time. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. It improves performance rating of fine motor skills. D. A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partial denture will provide 1. cretinism. placing a gingival bevel. B. . E. maxillary first premolar. C. stabilization. It produces a typical dependence syndrome. C. B. longer shelf life. lengthening the axial walls. 2.Which statement(s) is/are true about diazepam? 1. superior surface on the cast. resistance to horizontal force. C. maxillary second premolar. D. B. 3. D. adding an occlusal dovetail. E. C. reduce the surface tension when investing a wax pattern. C. A. D. Multiple supernumerary teeth are most commonly found in A. 4. superior accuracy. increasing the parallelism of walls. C. D. The principal advantage of polyether impression materials over polysulfide polymer impression materials is A. The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A silane coupling agent is used to A. A. 2. mandibular second premolar. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl alcohol. E. 3.

a small mechanical exposure in a vital primary molar would be treated by A. extraction of the tooth. a pulp capping with calcium hydroxide. B. B. Which of the following would you use to determine the status of the pulp of a tooth with a porcelain jacket crown? 1. equal to εceramic. a component of remineralization and demineralization. subgingival curettage. 4. Maintenance of an apical gutta percha seal. Crown/root ratio. flap operation. increased short scale image contrast. root planing. B. D. 4. D. All of the above. a routine amalgam restoration without any specific treatment for the exposed pulp. gingivoplasty. the use of a cavity liner. C. important in maintenance of tooth structure. B. The desirable relationship between the coefficients of thermal expansion of an alloy (ε metal ) and a ceramic (εceramic) used for a metalloceramic restoration is A. Radiographic appearance. pH dependent. D. The electric pulp tester. 2. 3. slightly lower than εceramic. C. Increasing the kVp results in A. D. In root resection (apicoectomy) it is considered good technique to A. curet the soft tissue lesion in its entirety. be certain the apex is sealed. D. slightly higher than εceramic. Which of the following is the most important determinant for the maximum length of a post in an endodontically treated tooth? A. C. B. Percussion and palpation. C. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) (1) (3) (4) All of the above. Residual soft tissue interdental craters not associated with underlying bony changes are eliminated by A. Distance between the crestal bone and root apex. None of the above. decreased long scale image contrast. E. D. 3. E. 2. significantly lower than εceramic. 5. History and subjective symptoms. A. C. E. B. remove as little of the root as possible. A. affected by fluoride.An exchange of calcium ions between saliva and enamel is 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. C. B. In a 5-year old. D. E. B. ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal significantly higher than εceramic. Thickness of the post. increased long scale image contrast. C. . decreased short scale image contrast. Thermal stimulus. D.

C. facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins must just clear contact with the adjacent tooth. physiological spaces. leeway spaces.5mm deep. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 10kVp . Viral infection. 10-19. D. 66-90. E. B. B. freeway spaces. B.5ma 90kVp . broader antibacterial spectrum. E. primate spaces. Which of the following combinations of milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation with the maximum penetration? A. D. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). E. axial wall should be 1. gingival cavosurface margin must clear contact with the adjacent tooth. 3.15ma 75kVp . B. less than 70. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). In determining the ideal proximal outline form for a Class II amalgam cavity preparation in a molar the 1. C. C. minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. greater resistance to penicillinase. D. A. 40-65. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). D. 30-39. Inflammation of the facial nerve. A. C. None of the above. 2. maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). B. A. 4. Tachycardia is a term which describes a pulse rate of Which of the following are possible causes of Bell’s Palsy? 1. Incorrect injection technique.40ma A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A. Surgical trauma. C. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. proximal walls diverge occlusally. C. less than 60. D. D.The normal white cell differential count for neutrophils is A. B. greater absorption when given orally. In radiography. less than 50. 3. B. E. more than 70. D.10ma 65kVp . C. 4. spaces between deciduous or permanent incisors are called A. 20-29. D. In a normally developing occlusion. B.65ma 85kVp . slower renal excretion. C. .

Detection of periodontal pockets is done by A. B. C. D. visual examination. radiographic examination. testing for mobility of teeth. probing.

A periapical radiolucency associated with a vital maxillary central incisor can represent a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. nasopalatine cyst. dentigerous cyst. foramen of the incisive canal. periapical granuloma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following conditions are associated with AIDS? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. Acute marginal periodontitis. Hairy leukoplakia. Candidiasis. Geographic tongue. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) and (4) All of the above.

A patient who is jaundiced because of liver disease has an increased risk of 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. postextraction bleeding. cardiac arrest. postoperative infection. anaphylactic shock. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following types of bone contain the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres? A. B. C. D. Woven. Bundle. Lamellar. Cortical.

The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is established at the Periodontitis A. 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. develops from gingivitis. goes through stages of activity and remission. is associated with bone loss. is caused by occlusal trauma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. D. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles. mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles. None of the above.

The high labial removable orthodontic appliance is most useful for A. B. C. D. rotating premolars. retracting labially tipped and spaced maxillary incisors. retracting protruded and spaced mandibular incisors. retracting protruded and crowded mandibular incisors.

The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. B. C. D. oxidation. reduction. hydroxylation and oxidation. sequestration in the body fats.

After many caries free years a 78 year old patient develops multiple root surface caries. This is most likely the result of The major stimulator of respiration is A. B. C. D. low blood pressure. high percentage of blood oxygen. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide. A. B. C. D. changes in cementum composition. exposure of the cementoenamel junctions. decreased salivary flow. changes in dietary pattern.

Gingival hyperplasia may be The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D. porphyromonas gingivalis. fusobacterium vincenti. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. prevotella intermedia. A. B. C. D. E. familial. idiopathic. drug induced. All of the above. None of the above.

Healing of a herpes simplex lesion is Amalgam is condensed in order to 1. 2. 3. 4. adapt the amalgam to the cavity walls, floor and margins. develop a uniform compact mass with minimum voids. reduce excess mercury content. overbuild the restoration to allow ‘carve back’ to eliminate the mercury-rich outer layer. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. B. C. D. E. prolonged over several months. spontaneous within 7-14 days without scar formation. spontaneous within 7-14 days with scar formation. spontaneous within 2-4 days. None of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Which of the following is the normal range of sequential fasting glucose levels for nondiabetic patients? A. B. C. D. 3-5mmol/L 5-7mmol/L 7-9mmol/L 9-11mmol/L

In taking an interocclusal wax record in a protrusive position, the dentist should examine the wax record to insure that A. B. C. D. the incisal edges of the anterior teeth have made contact. the patient has not closed in a lateral position. all cusps have penetrated the wax record and are in contact with the opposing teeth. there is no perforation of the wax record.

Marginal gingiva A. B. C. D. is demarcated from the attached gingiva by the free gingival groove. is demarcated from the attached gingiva by the mucogingival line. should be firmly attached to the tooth and alveolar bone. None of the above.

Dysplastic lesions of squamous epithelium occur most often on the In complete denture construction, custom trays are recommended for silicone and rubber base impression materials to A. B. C. D. obtain a uniform thickness of material. facilitate removal of the impression. allow for a more uniform setting of the material. eliminate the need for a tray adhesive. A. B. C. D. E. palate. gingiva. buccal mucosa. dorsum of the tongue. floor of the mouth.

Which of the following are vital signs? A. B. C. D. Pulse rate and respiration. Complete blood count. Pupil size and reactivity. Height and weight.

To achieve optimum strength and esthetics, a porcelain fused to metal restoration with a porcelain butt joint margin requires a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. 0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder. sharp, well defined axiogingival line angle. 90- 100 cavosurface margin. finish line that is 2mm subgingival. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream? A. B. C. D. Anachoresis. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. Bacteremia. All of the above.

A patient who is four months pregnant requires an extraction. A radiograph may A. B. C. D. be taken only if difficulty is encountered during surgery. be taken. not be taken. be taken by panoramic radiography only.

In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of A. B. C. D. cusp height. anterior teeth only. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps.

In an 80-year old patient you would expect A. B. C. D. a reduced size of the pulp chamber. increased incidence of pulp stones. increased tendency to pulpal fibrosis. All of the above.

Which of the following cells are involved in an immune response to plaque in the periodontal pocket? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Macrophages. Plasma cells. Lymphocytes. Neutrophils. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The physiologic wear of hard dental tissue resulting from mastication is known as A. B. C. D. decalcification. attrition. abrasion. erosion.

A hinge axis facebow records A. B. C. D. E. Bennett angle. centric relation. lateral condylar inclination. horizontal condylar inclination. opening and closing axis of the mandible.

A 12-year old male with a history of thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar relationship with a SNA = 83 and a SNB = 79. The etiology of this patient's malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E. dental. skeletal. neuromuscular. dental and neuromuscular. skeletal and neuromuscular.

The antibiotic of choice for infections of pulpal origin is A. B. C. D. penicillin V. metronidazole. erythromycin. tetracycline. The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. genetic. epigenetic. functional. environmental. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Proper lip support for a maxillary complete denture is provided primarily by which of the following? A. B. C. D. Labial surface of the teeth and simulated gingiva. Thickness of the border in the vestibule. Festooned carvings on the labial surface of the simulated gingiva. Convex surface of the labial flange.

In fixed bridge construction, where the vertical dimension has to be increased, the most important consideration is whether A. B. C. D. there is sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for crown retention. the inter-occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will be improved. an unfavorable crown-root ratio may develop.

Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. Periapical cemental dysplasia. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. Cementoblastoma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. A negative reaction to the electric vitality tester. A positive reaction of short duration to cold. A positive reaction to percussion. Presence of a draining fistula. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In a cavity preparation which closely approximates the pulp, you would protect the pulp with A. B. C. D. a zinc phosphate cement base. a calcium hydroxide cement base. a calcium hydroxide wash and cavity varnish. a calcium hydroxide cement liner and a glass ionomer cement base.

In normal gingiva, the predominant microflora of gingival plaque are A. B. C. D. gram-positive cocci. gram-negative cocci. gram-negative facultative and anaerobic rods. spirochetes.

Which of the following combinations of milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation with the maximum penetration? A. B. C. D. E. 10kVp - 65ma 85kVp - 5ma 90kVp - 10ma 65kVp - 15ma 75kVp - 40ma

A 1 year old child with generalized acute herpetic stomatitis, should A. B. C. D. E. be prescribed antibiotics. be immunized against chicken pox. be encouraged to maintain adequate fluid intake. have lesions gently debrided. have the mouth swabbed with chlorohexidine.

A decrease in the neutrophil count is present in A. B. C. D. E. granulocytopenia (agranulocytosis). iron deficiency anemia. myeloid leukemia. leukocytosis. thrombocytopenic purpura.

Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate treatment should be to A. B. C. D. use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. use hot packs over the swelling. refer the patient to a hospital. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously.

Histopathologic alterations associated with the pathogenesis of periodontal disease include A. B. C. D. inflammatory exudate that can involve neutrophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells. proliferative and degenerative changes of the epithelium. collagen destruction subjacent to the junctional epithelium. All of the above.

E.

In an adult, progressive increase in mandibular length and interdental spacing is a feature of A. B. C. D. E. hyperparathyroidism. hyperpituitarism. periodontosis. Addison's disease. Cushing's disease.

Which of the following materials is most likely to initiate a hypersensitivity reaction? A. B. C. D. E. Titanium. Gold. Nickel chromium. Chrome cobalt. Silver amalgam.

Which of the following permanent restorations is indicated after a formocresol pulpotomy has been completed on a primary molar? A. B. A stainless steel crown placed at the same appointment. A stainless steel crown placed when a radiograph demonstrates no internal resorption. An amalgam placed at the same appointment. An amalgam placed when a radiograph indicates no bone destruction between the roots.

The floor of the mouth is formed by the A. B. C. D. digastric muscle. genioglossus muscle. mylohyoid muscle. styloglossus muscle. C. D.

Appropriate management for the relief of symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Collagen A. B. C. D. is most common in hard tissues. forms insoluble high tensile strength fibres. has a triple helical structure. All of the above.

A 7 year old presents having just lost a maxillary permanent central incisor due to trauma. The tooth cannot be found. The treatment of choice is to 1. 2. 3. order a chest x-ray. place an implant. maintain space with a removable appliance. observe and measure the space for 6 months. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate treatment of chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis of the mandible includes 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E. intravenous antibiotics followed by long term oral antibiotics. hyperbaric oxygen. decortication. radiotherapy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

4. A. B. C. D. E.

In alginate impression materials, sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the A. B. C. D. E. reactor. catalyst. retarder. disinfectant. cross linking agent.

Following the insertion of complete dentures, a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by A. B. C. D. Inadequate interocclusal distance. impingement on the buccal frenum. high muscle attachments. excess border thickness.

An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the potential of A. B. C. D. interfering with the setting of the impression material. causing tissue necrosis. producing a systemic reaction. discolouring gingival tissue.

clindamycin. prolonged response to cold stimulus. D. Which of the following root surfaces are most likely to have concavities that will make root planing difficult? 1. Mesial surfaces of mandibular incisors. B. D. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. Canned fruit. Collagenase activity is inhibited by A. Cheese. C. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. E. D. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. (1) and (3) (1) (2) (4) (3) and (4) All of the above. 3. Which of the following foods is LEAST cariogenic? A. C. 2. D. 4. history of spontaneous pain. apical lesion. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. Potatoes. The treatment should be to A. C. radiolucent. . White bread. E.A periapical granuloma is 1. E. painless. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer. B. metronidazole. 4. observe. D. 2. The management of this patient should be to A. tetracycline. B. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (3) and (4) An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. C. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. C. B. C. vital pulp. B. 3. Distal surfaces of mandibular second premolars. penicillin. A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old. perform a pulpectomy. Fruit jello. D. Mesial surfaces of maxillary incisors. neoplastic. A. A. Mesial surfaces of maxillary first premolars. plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. B. D. A direct or indirect pulp cap has the greatest chance of clinical success when there is a A. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. inflammatory. B. C.

magnetic resonance imaging. 4. adenoma. D. Class IV restoration. A. The crownçroot ratio is 1. computed tomography. 2. 3. choriocarcinoma. C. chondroma. . The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an A.Which of the following isare (an) indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth. determined during surveying of the diagnostic cast. E. None of the above. B. C. Direct veneer restoration. B. C. lipoma. the comparison of the length of root retained in bone to the amount of tooth external to it. E. E. determined from radiographs. B. A. corrected tomography. Pain. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction. Which statement(s) is/are true about diazepam? 1. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl alcohol. C. Recurrent pericoronitis. 4. Class I occlusal restoration. B. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) All of the above. C. the measurement is taken from the A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. They are impacted. 3. arthrography. papilloma. E. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Temporomandibular joint disc morphology is best seen by using A. B. 4. Preventive resin restoration. It produces a typical dependence syndrome. A. 2. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. D. D. In which of the following will the effects of polymerization shrinkage be greatest? A. D. D. D. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. an important factor in abutment tooth selection. C. It is available without prescription in Canada. 3. It improves performance rating of fine motor skills. 2. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. C. D.

increase the setting time. D. An 8-year old with a previous thumb habit. C. D. E. D. A. 3. Prescribe nystatin. C. having the patient create a positive pressure. culture and sensitivity test. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. the most valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. the patient’s coagulation mechanism should be evaluated using which test? A. red blood cell count. . B.Which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors? 1. white blood cell count. 4. hemoglobin level. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet. C. Your patient is currently on warfarin. not affect the setting. a slow teasing motion. prevent any setting. twisting and rocking. E. D. Partial thromboplastin time. D. B. Glossodynia. D. decrease the setting time. A patient presents with apparent paralysis of one side of the face which appeared the day before. B. C. 4. An 8-year old with no abnormal oral habits. Prescribe a topical steroid. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. 2. Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4. Prescribe clindamycin. Von Willebrand’s Factor. E. Myasthenia gravis. C. D. A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best removed from the mouth by A. B. B. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral habits. a quick snap. Reduce the patient’s insulin dose. C. A. High humidity in a room where zinc oxide and eugenol impression paste is being mixed will A. For an acute bacterial infection. 3. Double the patient’s insulin dose. Bleeding time. Bell's palsy. Prothrombin time. Trigeminal neuralgia.

2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. granular cell myoblastoma. opens the dentinal tubules. is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. squamous cell carcinoma. C. D. B. B. can induce 8th cranial nerve damage. D. All of the above. E. arthritis. Corticosteroids may be used for the management of A. D. C. E. D. papilloma. In radiography. E. E. A. allergy. . B. E. Addison's disease. C.Acid etching of dentin with 10-15% phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 1. Chronic periodontitis. All of the above. Aggressive periodontitis in a child. 4. a more heterogenous beam of X-rays. B. inner surface of lower lip. less gonadal radiation. B. Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip occur most frequently on the A. C. Streptomycin A. molars. canines and premolars. a parallel technique or right angle technique as opposed to a bisecting angle technique will result in 1. upper lip near the midline. 2. Refractory chronic periodontitis. 3. less dimensional distortion. greater entrance dosage. C. C. enhances the activity of some neuromuscular blocking agents. C. Aggressive periodontitis in a 16 year old patient. Which type of periodontitis is generally treated WITHOUT antibiotics? A. increases dentinal permeability. adenocarcinoma. canines. The most common malignant tumor of the tongue is a/an A. B. Aggressive periodontitis in a 25 year old patient. B. E. fibroma. inner surface of upper lip. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. asthma. B. A mixed dentition analysis is used to determine if sufficient room exists for the eruption of the permanent A. removes the smear layer. molars and premolars. commissures. (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (3) All of the above. 4. D. D. A. C. D. D. 3. lower lip near the midline.

Gingival enlargement may result from the administration of 1. An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in diameter on the lateral border of the tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. When performing a functional analysis of occlusion. six years. travel through the maxillary sinus. cyclosporine. free gingival and transseptal fibres. B. D. A. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. . World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. E. radium implantation around biopsy site. D. 3. eleven years. lateral. travel through the cavernous sinus or peripharyngeal spaces. 2.50 years. 4. B. D. D. C. hemisection of the tongue. go directly to the bloodstream. This patient should have A. upward. nifedipine. seven years. E. B. registration of jaw relation records. density of the cortical bone. B. thirteen years. D. registration of condylar guidance. over 75 years. C. without a history of endocarditis or cardiopathies. 20 .The roots of the first permanent molar should be completely formed by the age of A. A patient with an orofacial infection. backward.20 years. C. processing of acrylic. C. D. B. C. D. radiotherapy to site of biopsy. persistence of tongue and finger habits. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to A. nine years.30 years. 10 . 30 . forward. mounting of the casts in the articulator. phenytoin sodium. E. A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. C. the mandible may be observed to exhibit a shift from centric relation to centric occlusion in all but one of the following directions: A. no additional therapy. B.75 years. C. prednisolone. B. E. re-excision with wider margins. travel through airways. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. is at risk for infection spread because bacteria will A. D. 65 .

green salad. parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls. A. acute apical abscess. 40 years. 20 years. C.In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar. maintenance of the incisal contact area. B. Pretzels. anterior mandible. Vertical. C. B. which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. B. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration. C. diet cola. is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. celery and carrot sticks. avocado. respiration. A modified hinge non-adjustable articulator is limited in its accuracy to reproduce dynamic jaw movements because it can only reproduce A. Disto-angular. D. There is some mobility. one hinge axis movement. Hard-boiled egg. 2% milk. Mesio-angular. a retentive internal form. one specific intercuspal position. C. posterior maxilla. C. posterior mandible. The most likely diagnosis is A. lateral periodontal abscess. B. E. E. All of the above. B. potato chips. D. anterior mandible.maximum intercuspation slides. D. . pulse rate. D. E. C. D. C. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. acute serous pulpitis. diet cola. B. Which of the following snacks has the lowest cariogenic potential? A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite resin requires A. A. eccentric movements by multiple lateroprotrusive registrations. cardiac output. D. Horizontal. 40 years. Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat bread. posterior mandible. B. juice. a retentive internal form. D. large centric relation. maintenance of the incisal contact area. The surgical risk for a patient with organic heart disease depends upon A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite resin requires A. parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls. D. The most common site and patient age for a solid ameloblastoma are A. Chicken sandwich on white bread. 60 years. All of the above. C. 40 years. cardiac reserve. A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. acute suppurative pulpitis. B. blood pressure.

psoriasis. This is characteristic of A. D. D. C. nasal septum. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. is most likely due to a preparation with A. This is suggestive of A. A. insufficient thyroid hormone. 3. Petechiae of the palate. nasopalatine/incisive canal. When using forceps for extraction of a maxillary first molar. B. 1. which of the following statements is/are true? Oral foci of infection are of greatest clinical significance in the presence of A. Buccal bone is easier to expand. ectodermal dysplasia. B. C. Forcep movement should be principally in the buccal direction. . zygomatic process of the maxilla. B. Fatigue. lowering of the yield strength. B. C. D. A. E. a stepped buccal or lingual wall.A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and presence of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. subacute bacterial endocarditis. C. anterior nasal spine. eczema and urticaria. candidiasis (candidosis). 2. Gingival enlargement. Forcep movement should be principally in the palatal direction. B. D. C. inadequate isthmus width. C. An 80 year old man develops multiple painful skin vesicles along the distribution of the right infraorbital nerve. increased ductility. Which of the following is NOT associated with infectious mononucleosis? A. C. cleidocranial dysplasia. polycythemia vera. Pharyngitis. Myxedema is associated with Repeated clasp adjustment can result in fracture due to A. dentinogenesis imperfecta. D. B. inadequate isthmus depth. D. D. Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system). iritis and uveitis. D. B. C. congenital hypothyroidism. B. C. E. excessive parathyroid hormone. rheumatoid arthritis. increasing of the modulus of elasticity. pemphigus vulgaris. E. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone. Lymphadenopathy. herpes zoster. All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. B. subgingival proximal extension. insufficient parathyroid hormone. 4. D. increased work-hardening. excessive thyroid hormone.

malleability. adhesion. D. Gingivectomy is indicated for 1. Labial. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. 3. D. D. spherocytosis. E. lipstick. suprabony pockets. syneresis. infection. ultimate tensile strength. elastic modulus. D. B. Contact stomatitis may be caused by A. C. treat malocclusions. dentifrice. B. B. C. B. Parotid. study growth changes. E. B. D. C. climate. anemia. fibrotie gingival enlargements. All of the above. D. Sublingual and submandibular. ductility. B. C. Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases A. patient age. proportional limit. C. E. modulus of elasticity. . flow. water fluoride concentration. E. B. 2. Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to A. C. In a xerostomic patient which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. C. coring. absorption. E. acrylic. 4. cohesion.A measure of the stiffness of a dental gold alloy is expressed as its A. Accessory. total daily fluoride intake. The most important factor in determining the dosage of systemic fluoride supplementation is A. All of the above. B. A. infrabony pockets. D. C. daily water consumption. pseudopockets. aid in diagnosis and case analysis. B. A differential white blood cell count is useful in the diagnosis of A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. antibiotics. thrombocytopenic purpura. and C. B. D. yield strength.

laterally. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form. E. bad odour. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent.1 is unerupted. allow the mesiodens to erupt into the arch and then extract it. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the A. C. Which of the following is NOT associated with Cushing’s disease? A. Buffalo hump. D. 3. increased blood supply carries the anesthetic solution away too fast. B. cement dissolution will lead to leakage. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. D. C. pain. B. Osteoporosis. Hypertension. B. the position of the survey line on the cast. D. extract the mesiodens and allow passive eruption of the 2. Early signs and symptoms of localized alveolar osteitis (dry socket) include 1. obliquely. C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. the swelling causes increased pressure on the nerves. bleeding. pus formation. B. D. 2. E.If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration. D. Diabetes insipidus. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. 3. C. extract the mesiodens and orthodontically extrude the 2. B.1 completely erupted and tooth 2. the preparation will lack retention form. A. C. C. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. B. vertically. It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in the presence of infection near the injection site because When designing a removable partial denture. Hirsutism. horizontally. B.1. C. the undercut and non-undercut areas. A. 1. A 9-year old has tooth 1. The radiographs reveal a palatally located mesiodens. 2. A. observation and continued monitoring. The preferred treatment would be A.1. E. D. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. .

E. D. B. within enamel. an amalgam alloy restoration. C. Sclerotic dentin is A. Subgingival calculus is a result rather than an initiating factor in periodontal disease. C. Pins for cusp replacement should ideally be placed A.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction.5-2. D. The most important factor to consider before extracting a mandibular incisor is Which of the following is correct? A. lingual to the contact area. Supragingival calculus does not rely on salivary minerals for its calcification. the horizontal incisor relationship. C. a full-coverage metallic crown. severity of the crowding. at the dentino-enamel junction. D. To prevent teeth from disturbing occlusal sensory input. A. E. injurious to the pulp. None of the above.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. marginal gingivitis. A clenching habit may be a factor in A. facial to the contact area. B. gingival to the contact area. a deciduous molar should be restored with A. To immobilize teeth.What are the purposes of using occlusal splints? 1. C. cortical bone. The lamina dura is A. generalized recession. D. B. occlusal to the contact area. a Boltan discrepancy. 3. 4. B. . resistant to caries. suprabony periodontal pocket formation. After pulpotomy or pulpectomy. D. Subgingival calculus is not a by-product of streptoccoci mutans. C. B. An incipient lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located A. C. To change the pattern and degree of tactile afferent neural impulses.5-1. B. zinc-oxide-eugenol cement. spongy bone. D. B. A. B. D. a minimum of 1. increased tooth mobility. C. mandibular curve of Spee. C. immature bone. a cribiform plate perforated by nutrient canals. the vertical incisor relationship. composite resin crown. D. hypersensitive. To produce a permanent change in the occlusion. D. C. All of the above. soft. (1) and (2) (3) only (1) (2) (4) All of the above. a minimum of 0. 2. B.

Which anatomical structures form the inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical radiographs? A. concentration of potassium sulfate. transeptal. D. Compared to a set of opposing complete dentures. cadmium. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers. C. circular. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. apical to alveolar bone crest. 4. B. Gold alloy can be given a white colour by introducing sufficient A. Dentigerous cyst. within basal bone. D. C. D. 1. a maxillary denture opposing a full complement of natural teeth is more often associated with A. D. Floor of the nasal fossa and maxillary sinus border. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. Traumatic (simple bone) cyst. All of the above. C. B. coronal to alveolar bone crest. D. Which of the following is NOT a true cyst? A. the epithelial attachment is located A. C.Which of the following substances causes inflammation and pain when released by pulpal fibres? A. 3. E. B. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. Particulate hydroxyapatite. B. supraperiosteal. D. D. Prostaglandin E2. B. D. greater incidence of denture fracture. improved appearance of the denture. Nasopalatine cyst. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and maxillary sinus border. Odontogenic keratocyst. Radicular cyst. In an infrabony pocket. is highly biocompatible. Acetylcholine. C. C. B. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor of the nasal fossa. temperature. E. Calcitonin gene related peptide. improved stability of the denture. copper. Reversible hydrocolloids transform from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the A. B. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. when placed subperiostially. The coronal collagen fibres of the periodontium are A. . percent composition by weight of water. less denture tooth wear. improved retention of the denture. E. B. zinc. C. C. Neuraminase. 2. C. palladium. Anterior nasal spine and nasopalatine/incisive canal. B.

gingival surgery. C. pitting edema of the ankles. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. leeway space. B. D. D. 2. Premature loss of mandibular deciduous cuspids in Class I and Class II cases results in increased 1. rhinophyma. 4. B. regular use of a water-irrigating device. E. 4. 3. E. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. consuming a high protein or fat diet. C. 2. 2. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base. 4. Chronic gingival inflammation is best eliminated by A. protrusive maxillary incisors. . A. overbite. B. Supragingival calculus removal. C. with acute infection. who are elderly. D. 4. E. epistaxis. overjet. A. B. C. A. conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. Incisional biopsy. occlusal correction. 3. Mandibular block anesthesia. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. arch width. C. If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's reading for SNA is 90 degrees. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. gingival surface is convex in all directions. Subgingival restoration.A Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients 1. maxillary prognathism. D. 3. has open gingival embrasures. this would likely indicate A. E. splinting. B. D. E. shortness of breath. A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that it(s) 1. patient's ethnic background. D. C. root planing and curettage. Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. D. gingival surface is concave and adapts closely to the ridge. 3. taking systemic antibiotics. A. 2.

Hyperplastic pulpitis. 4. 2. interfering with the degradation of histamine. B. C. The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. history of eczema. history of spina bifida. E. Antihistamines act by A. B. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. chestnuts or avocado. D. B.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. The risk of latex allergy increases with a/an 1. A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Division 1. Division 2. E. masseter. Class III. In an infrabony pocket. lateral (external) pterygoid. Internal resorption. Ionized and low lipid solubility. Class II. D. coronal to alveolar bone crest. the epithelial attachment is located A. D. C. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. buccinator. C. C. Class II. temporalis. D. 3. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility.A 22 year old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2. open the pulp chamber. C. within basal bone. medial (internal) pterygoid. altering the formation of histamine. increasing the action of histaminase. Non-ionized and high lipid solubility. history of allergy to bananas. B. C. increased exposure to latex. A. A. apical to alveolar bone crest. The fracture occurred one hour previously. D. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. B. clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. Ionized and water solubility. B. C. D. Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth? The muscle primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position is the A. C. Class I. B. . Which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes? Which of the following malocclusions is most commonly associated with mouth breathing? A. place a provisional (temporary) crown. D.

The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. 90o axiogingival angle. terminal line. Upon stimulation of salivary flow. E. None of the above. D. gingivectomy. A. A. 2. B. 1. D. "canker sore". D. B. pulpotomy. C. subgingival finish line. sialometaplasia. 4. Polycarboxylate cement. C. D. After completion of initial therapy which included root planing and curetage. B. An abnormal decrease in the flow of saliva is associated with A. C. a patient has suprabony pockets of 5mm. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. C. The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments for a removable partial denture is the A. Submaxillary. pulp capping. C. pyogenic granuloma. Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. periodontal flap surgery. Despite good plaque control. Submandibular. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. 2. C. D. 3. 3. line of greatest torque. A distinctive clinical entity originating as a proliferative response of the soft tissue of the oral mucosa to a non-specific irritant is called A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child. . C. A. B. ptyalism. The treatment of choice is A. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a/an A. B. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. Zinc phosphate cement. these pockets exhibit bleeding on probing. E. B. C. pulpectomy. occlusal adjustment. abscess. Glass ionomer cement. None of the above. axis of rotation. 90o cavosurface margin. B. cellulitis. extraction. which gland is the main source of salivary volume? A. Sublingual. survey line. B. xerostomia. pyroglossia.A preparation for a porcelain fused to metal crown with a porcelain butt joint margin should have a 1.2mm shoulder. E. additional root planing. D. Parotid.

D.0mm What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. Lack of hemorrhage at the exposure site. Deeper overbite. Increased overjet. Papilloma. duration unchanged. Glazed porcelain. 4. A Bolton relationship has determined a   maxillary “12” excess of 3. The more fibrotic the pulp.5mm maxillary “6” excess of 3. D. Epstein-Barr. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge. Surgical mask. which of the following pontic designs is the most likely to cause soft tissue irritation? A. C. The decreased blood supply in an older patient. Reduced overjet. Hairy leukoplakia is caused by which of the following viruses? A. A. E. C. duration unchanged. 1. increased by one third.All things being equal. B. Polished porcelain. The dose is A. B. 4. E. duration unchanged. 2. Staff education. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. A. B. A. duration unchanged. it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of When prescribing antibiotics for an orofacial infection in a healthy elderly patient. C. B. duration extended by one half. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Herpes simplex. the better the prognosis. D. 3. infectious disease. religious beliefs. Polished gold. D. Which of the following procedures should be used to reduce the risk of exposure to mercury vapour? 1. unchanged. D. As a dentist in Canada. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 3. Polished acrylic. The exposure is uncontaminated. physical handicap. Rubber dam. D. 4. 2. 2. decreased by one half. E. . D. Which of the following factors improves the prognosis for a successful direct pulp cap on a secondary tooth? A. 3. C. Human immunodeficiency. C. B. E. decreased by one third. C. the usual adult dose and duration of the prescription should be written using the following guidelines. Maxillary crowding. High velocity suction. unchanged.

C. 3. and C. B. reduce the possibility of pulpal involvement. has a cavernous hemangioma adjacent to the tooth. C. direct occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth. 2. D.. virulence of the organism. (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (5) Minor tooth movement to correct an inclined fixed partial denture abutment will 1. D. In the insulin-dependant diabetic patient. 5. is hypothyroid. 4. act as a stress-breaker. A. 2. . B. C. Which one of the following is the most common tumor of the salivary glands? A. B. sixth week after birth. sweating. nausea. 4. B. resistance of the host. enhance resistance form of the abutment. D. had a myocardial infarct two months ago. not interfere with lateral forces. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All the above.Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who 1. third week of embryonic life. has a Factor~VIII deficiency. and B. is 4 months pregnant. sixth week of embryonic life. dissipate vertical forces. B. B. E. 3. improve embrasure form. A. Pleomorphic adenoma. In partial denture design. A. mental confusion. The severity of the course of periodontal disease depends upon the A. 4. D. tachycardia. C. the major connector should A. C. E. D. B. 2. D. 3. C. Canalicular adenoma. A. C. Adenocystic carcinoma. The first stage of growth of the primary dentition is evident at the A. E. hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. number of organisms present. B. time of birth. D. rigidly connect the bilateral components. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma. A.

E.Properties of glutaraldehyde include 1. acute periradicular abscess. immediately. calcium hydroxide and phenol. nasal bleeding and swelling. E. A patient presenting with diplopia. minimal effect on pulp tissues. is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. fracture of the malar ridge. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. E. E. 2. A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. D. capillary fragility. C. B. chlorhexidine and chloroform. C. zygomatic bone. C. D. may suffer from a fracture of the A. a dry socket. 2. predisposing to dental diseases. bleeding time. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria. neck of the condyle. D. coagulation time. acute serous pulpitis. The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by A. The mandibular deciduous second molar is extracted in a 5-year old child. C. C. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores. B. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. 4. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue. body of the mandible. 4. during eruption of the mandibular permanent first molar. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration. platelet activity. lateral periodontal abscess. B. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. 3. B. maxillary tuberosity. D. Xerostomia can be 1. The most likely complication associated with the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is A. fracture of the tuberosity. nerve damage. 3. C. B. D. A tourniquet test gives information as to A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. one year after eruption of the mandibular permanent first molar. A. The time to construct a space maintainer is A. D. found in the elderly. B. C. There is some mobility. . D. D. one year before eruption of the mandibular permanent first molar. clot retraction time. C. acute suppurative pulpitis. exophthalmos. drug induced. associated with diabetes.

4. It is rapidly hydrolysed in the body by cholinesterase. D. failure to splint. C. C. the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. occur in the debilitated. cementoblasts. anterior nasal spine. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. D. B. It is the neurotransmitter at both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia. histopathologically show lymphocytic infiltration. Following periodontal surgery. ankylosis. . E. C. A. Increased dietary fat increases the risk. traumatic occlusion. mobility. after the permanent second molar has erupted. 2. D. 2. C. A. B. D. osteoblasts. exhibit a positive Nikolsky's sign. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. 3. Regarding dental caries. D. B. B. fibroblasts. C. It is the drug of choice as an antidote in atropine poisoning. bleed readily. B. 4. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. nasal septum. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed. Oral lichen planus has lesions which C. It can produce both muscarinic and nicotinic actions. Which of the following statements isçare true regarding acetylcholine? 1. vitality. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The cells responsible for root resorption are A. poor oral hygiene. B. osteoclasts. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. zygomatic process of the maxilla. E. which of the following is correct? A. pain. To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. C. systemic disease. A. D. the most common cause of recurrence of pockets is A.Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate 1. 3. B. nasopalatine/incisive canal. D. B.

C. A. 3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo-surface margin. B. monocytes. B. topical steroid therapy. 4. hypertrophy of the soft tissue. fracture of the solder joints. B. admix alloys are dimensionally stable when setting. spherical alloys shrink slightly when setting. E. cavernous sinus thrombosis. D. The enamel structures most resistant to the action of acids are A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. D. B. cusp replacement. . posterior composite resins are CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. Amalgam 1. 2. suppurative encephalitis. rods. lymphocytes. C. respiratory obstruction. neutrophils. The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are High telomerase activity is associated with A. B. D. hyperthyroidism. 4. Ludwig's angina may cause A. 3. D. bruxism. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. subdural empyema. C. 2. D. resorption of the alveolar bone. 3. oral hygiene instruction. C. C. A. C.The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is 1. B. A. C. 3. A. hybrid. periodontal debridement. interprismatic substances. B. lamellae. A. E. A pontic exerting too much pressure against the ridge will cause 1. D. lathe cut alloys expand slightly when setting. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. basophils. diabetes mellitus. E. D. 2. eosinophils. 4. C. high copper content alloys have improved resistance to tarnish and corrosion. Highly filled. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. antibiotic therapy. cuticles. inability to maintain a dry operating field. 2. crazing of the gingival portion of the porcelain. malignant tumors. E. E. cystic fibrosis.

D. After performing an apicoectomy. The formation of this hematoma indicates poor injection technique. B. Nothing. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by A. remove undermined enamel. C. epinephrine. Epulis fissuratum. D. atropine. Staphylococcus albus. which of the following should be placed in the bony defect prior to suturing the flap? A. increase resistance and retention forms. type of timer. B. D. Streptococcus viridans. C. prominent mylohyoid ridges. . Lactobacilli. D. the drug of choice for the management of angina is A. line voltage fluctuation. E. D. C. The patient may experience trismus the next day. filter thickness. metaplasia. The term "carcinoma in situ" implies that the lesion shows A. nitroglycerin. D. Antibiotic powder. D. This nerve block is not commonly associated with hematoma formation. C. Bone wax. B. Papillary hyperplasia. E. Corticosteroids. diameter of the primary beam of radiation. Which of the following statements is correct? A. B. In addition to oxygen. E. E. Which of the following should be evaluated for surgical removal before new complete dentures are constructed? A. B. Enterococci. decrease marginal percolation. Following administration of a posterior superior alveolar nerve block. C. All of the above. Staphylococcus aureus. Mandibular tori. C. E. Sharp. C. B. D. B. Management of this hematoma includes immediate application of heat for at least the first 6 hours. Oxidized cellulose. early invasion of malignant cells through the basement membrane. dysplasia of cells confined within the epithelium. acetylsalicylic acid. a hematoma occurs. distant metastasis of a malignant tumour. B. Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. improve marginal adaptation. diphenhydramine.The principal reason for a cavosurface bevel on an inlay preparation is to A. tissue density. C.

2. A. The purpose of a periodontal dressing is to A.A 8-year old child has an 8mm central diastema. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. Appearance. C. None of the above. Observation of the rest position. normal development. In composite resin restorations. B. E. enhance wound healing. decreased serum T lymphocytes. 2. A. 3. the most important feature is A. D. All of the above. Poor flap design. C. neutral in colour. E. decreased collagenase in periodontal tissue. A. D. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. cyst. 4. B. The etiology could include 1. All of the above. D. increase patient comfort. B. duration. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. increased salivary antibodies (immunoglobulin A). B. protect the wound from injury. C. C. metastasis. D. 2. 4. Sinus infection. Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal vertical dimension? 1. D. C. In assessing the prognosis of a neoplasm. C. size. . frenum. mesiodens. 4. B. Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. patients who smoke have A. Excessive tissue tension. D. D. polycarboxylate cements are used as a base because they are A. Compared to nonsmokers. Blowing the nose. 3. 3. Pre-extraction profile records. B. Phonetics. C. biocompatible. ulceration. increased serum IgG antibody response to periodontal pathogens.

2. a higher incidence of crown defects. 4. D. C. Mucoepidermoid tumor. are depressants of the respiratory centre. D. Mixed tumor. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Acid etching of dentin with 10-15% phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 1. are depressants of the cortex. Tranquilizers and hypnotics A. All of the above. approximate the soft tissue as accurately as possible without irrigating. prescribe an antibiotic and recall after 24hrs. C. B. Calculus contributes to periodontal disease through A. irrigate the sinus repeatedly and place a dressing in the tooth socket. All of the above. In patients with cleft palates there may be A. C. mechanical irritation. an increase in supernumerary teeth. 2. A. Adenocarcinoma. D. B. D. bacterial retention. Warthin's tumor. The space maintainer of choice would be A. Radiographs reveal the presence of the first premolars. two band and loop space maintainers. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. removes the smear layer. D. cooperation of the patient. amount of overbite. B. C. opens the dentinal tubules. B. E. an increase in congenitally missing teeth. . Which of the following tumors may arise in the parotid salivary gland? 1. None. B. D. C. A. chemical irritation. A five-year old child. place a large strip of iodoform gauze.In correcting an anterior cross-bite. highly susceptible to caries. the bony floor of the sinus is removed with the tooth. increases dentinal permeability. B. 3. age of the patient. D. 4. D. During the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar. E. C. removable acrylic space maintainer. C. the appliance to be used is determined by the A. 3. C. Your immediate treatment would be to A. food retention. filling the tooth socket. presents with missing mandibular deciduous first molars. may cause physical dependency. B. All of the above. lingual arch. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

C. . increasing the vertical dimension. After a tooth surface has been completely cleaned. C. mesial movement of the maxilla. D. B. E. liver disease. Highly filled. daily aspirin use. 4. D. bruxism. E. increasing mandibular inter-molar width. In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with associated lymphadenopathy. increasing maxillary inter-molar width. materia alba. A topical antibiotic. D. A. E.A patient wants all his remaining teeth extracted and dentures fabricated. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. refuse to refer or to treat this patient since it is unethical. respect the patient's decision. C. A systemic antibiotic. pellicle. posterior composite resins are CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. B. An analgesic. discuss all of the appropriate treatment options. an infra-orbital block. 3. A. E. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal infiltration of the mesio-buccal root. 4. 2. adenocarcinoma of the colon. 2. inability to maintain a dry operating field. primary cuticle. B. C. He has carious lesions involving the dentin on all remaining teeth. the new mucoprotein coating which forms on the surface is called A. D. A 3 year old requires the extraction of a deciduous maxillary second molar. cusp replacement. chronic renal failure. C. advise the patient to consult a specialist. Nasmyth's membrane. An anti-inflammatory. B. The most appropriate management is to 1. A severe bleeding disorder due to a deficiency of coagulation factors would most likely occur in a patient with A. The local anesthetic technique of choice is A. D. D. sickle cell anemia. which of the following medications is the most effective? A. The side effect LEAST likely to occur during rapid maxillary expansion is A. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo-surface margin. buccal and palatal infiltration. C. E. plaque. The periodontium is sound. a posterior superior alveolar block. 3. B. D. B. hybrid. decreasing the vertical dimension.

stress. Radicular cyst. evaluate esthetics. occlusal adjustment. bruxism. D. Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced by A. B. relaxation of stresses introduced during manipulation. scaling and root planing (debridement). radiographic examination. tongue thrust. B. B. B. premature contacts in the retruded centric position. lymphocytes. . All of the above. All of the above. D. Lateral periodontal cyst. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. insufficient paraffin ingredient. refrigeration. D. periodontitis. laboratory tests will show an increase in A. C. open flap curettage. In the presence of an acute bacterial infection.Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. Brittle bones. The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in sputum suggests the presence of A. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. insufficient bulk of material. B. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. In the early stage. Which of the following is NOT associated with osteogenesis imperfecta? A. A. D. Blue sclerae. E. D. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. pain. E. B. a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by Tooth grinding (bruxism) is due to A. Dentigerous cyst. type of exudate. C. dentures are tried in to A. C. A. Enamel loss. lip incompetence. Brown teeth. monocytes. B. E. Periapical abscess. D. D. eosinophils. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D. D. C. C. tenderness to percussion. guided tissue regeneration. B. Diplococcus pneumoniae. plasma cells. C. balancing prematurities in non-working positions. While the teeth are set in wax. Distortion of a wax pattern is mainly due to Pathologic migration of teeth is due to A. B. D. C. C. verify the maxillomandibular records. Thin enamel. insufficient plasticity during manipulation. B. C. C. Periapical cemental dysplasia. E.

D. sarcoma. B. reduce patient radiation dose. Post-immunization serological test results for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B is informed that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. greater than the permanent successors. D. reduce exposure time. actinomycosis. refrain from performing any exposureprone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. not related to the permanent successors. A. B. reduce film density. 2. C. E. anticholinergics (Atropine). undergo the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. 3. E. A. elevated plaques of the oral mucosa are characteristic of A. receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. herpes simplex. 3.An acute periapical abscess must be associated with 1. B. radiation therapy for oral cancer. E. C. periapical radiolucency. non-vital tooth. 4. B. Xerostomia can result from 1. increase contrast. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. antidepressant drug therapy. B. C. C. Soft. D. D. 4. The sum of the widths (in mesiodistal diameter) of the first and second deciduous molars is generally A. angioma. C. pain. Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A benign neoplasm of bone is called A. C. A. sensitivity to percussion. Sjögren’s syndrome. B. ossifying fibroma. same as the permanent successors. D. white. E. submucous fibrosis. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection. osteosarcoma. The health care worker should A. . candidosis (candidiasis). osteoma. 2. smaller than the permanent successors. C. D. D. torus.

B. D. D. C. A laboratory-fabricated composite resin inlay compared to a direct composite resin restoration has increased A. E. The cells responsible for antibody production are called A. there are characteristic changes in the blood chemistry. alginate impressions A. B. C. an inflammatory infiltrate is characteristically present. C. D. B. Lidocaine. 2. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. 3. percussion sensitivity. infra-occlusal position. D. 4. abscess formation. foci of cartilage are a common histological finding. C. megakaryocytes. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast. B. Procaine. plasma cells. epithelial hyperplasia. . Ankylosed deciduous teeth may be recognized by their A. E. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. C. Under normal conditions. bondability to tooth structure. D. B. surface smoothness. B. C. A. performing an electric pulp test. D. Prilocaine. C. C. control of polymerization shrinkage. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. cyst formation. applying warm gutta percha to the crown. colour stability. The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in A. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. buccolingual displacement. E. B. After setting. discolouration. E. Mepivacaine. In fibrous dysplasia A. macrophages. mast cells. B. crown shape. absorb water. increased calculus formation. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. a ground-glass appearance is present on radiographs.Which of the following anesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. the most definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. D.

mylohyoid. Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) is used to treat 1. heredity. 5. C. angina pectoris. Internal resorption. There is no difference in the response of basal and alveolar bone to pressure. Osteoid is a highly mineralized bundle bone. For a mandibular denture impression. B. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. C. C. D. lip habits.Which of the following is/are correct? A. 2. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. mouth breathing. bruxism periodontitis. A. 4. Hyperplastic pulpitis. B. E. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. D. medial pterygoid. tongue habits. B. The characteristics of "group~function" occlusion are: A. hypertension. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) (1) and (5) Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth? A. B. space for the veneer material. definite gingival finish line. C. 3. A. the muscle determining the form of the lingual flange in the molar region is A. ventricular fibrillation. E. D. B. ectopic eruption. C. atrial fibrillation. All of the above. D. 3. A. 4. B. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. D. There is no histological difference between basal and alveolar bone. 3. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. C. Migration of teeth may be associated with 1. D. E. B. 2. C. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above The most frequent cause of malocclusion is A. coarse diamond finish. B. D. geniohyoid. 2. D. thumbsucking. congestive heart failure. lateral pterygoid. 4. superior pharyngeal constrictor.

C. 4. malignant hyperthermia. B. D. fair hair. 4. B. D. B. All of the above. cystic fibrosis. C. Glass ionomer cement restorations are indicated for A. C. 3. adequate length for retention-resistance. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. achondroplasia. Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws? A. E. ectodermal dysplasia. 3. D. D. B. Zinc phosphate cement. E. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. Class II lesions in adults. A patient with a malocclusion with an anterior openbite has A. fine. and an intolerance to hot weather. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth.Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide 1. Glass ionomer cement. Gorlin-Goltz. Sjögren’s. B. E. obesity increasing age. root caries. 3. incisal edge fractures. D. Peutz-Jeghers. 2. increased eruption of the posterior teeth. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation. periodontal disease. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. A. conical teeth. C. Known risk factors for developing impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes include 1. a single path of insertion. 2. A. 4. The most likely diagnosis is A. D. B. 2. A patient presents with hypodontia. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Gardner’s. A. C. locations where esthetics are important. First Nations ancestry. C. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. scanty. Polycarboxylate cement.

Prescription of a radiograph. B.000 epinephrine. D. E. The most likely diagnosis is A. C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. herpetic gingivostomatitis. Abundant calculus is present. B. C. C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.Which of the following is the LEAST likely primary site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly? A. after the apex of the permanent root has closed. C. D. upper lip. The most appropriate time to remove a supernumerary tooth that is disturbing the eruption of a permanent tooth is A. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. labial fissures. A clinical finding common to alcoholism. Prescription of penicillin V. B. halitosis. atrophic candidiasis. uremia and liver disease is A. smooth tongue. Tonsillar fossa. C. tongue. A 23 year old patient presents with severe pain originating from the lower incisor region. as soon as possible. desquamative gingivitis. C. B. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria. Dorsum of the tongue. B. line of greatest torque. increased blood pressure. D. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100. D. after the crown appears calcified radiographically. A 25 year old female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management. B. poorly-controlled diabetes mellitus. combines chemically with vitamin K. Lateral border of the tongue. coated tongue. buccal mucosa. C. E. A. . interferes with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. survey line. soft palate. B. Protracted use of tetracycline may produce symptoms of vitamin K deficiency because tetracycline Mucoceles are most commonly found in the A. D. B. lower lip. terminal line. is detoxified by the liver. Floor of the mouth. D. C. after two thirds of the permanent root has formed. D. D. The interdental papillae are cratered and covered with a greyish-white membrane.

maintenance of an intact foramen. Recurrent pericoronitis. 2. rapid attachment loss. suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. a unilateral distal extension base. A. C. first premolar. C. B. 5. Short object-film distance. A. B. Crowding of incisors. D. C. lateral incisor. ulcerations of the gingiva. C. E. D. 4. Small focal spot. . B.Cartilage grows by A. radiographic evidence of bone loss. The sequence of eruption of the mandibular permanent teeth is normally 1. B. D. D. 2. Aggressive periodontitis has all of the following features EXCEPT A. both appositional and interstitial growth. The fluoride ion 1. 3. interstitial growth. 4. Pain. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. C. is deposited in bone. first molar. 3. Which of the following will increase image sharpness on radiographs? A. D. B. removal of irregularities. B. complete tooth support. B. B. (6)(1)(2)(4)(5)(3)(7) (6)(1)(2)(3)(5)(4)(7) (1)(6)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7) (6)(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7) Indirect retention is NOT required for a removable partial denture which has A. is deposited in teeth. Which of the following is NOT an indication for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? A. C. All of the above. bilateral distal extension bases. None of the above. Resorption of the distal aspect of the second molar. development of a continuously tapering cone in the root canal. The mechanical objectives of preparing the root canal system for obturation with guttapercha should include A. D. C. 7. C. is excreted rapidly by the kidney. passes the placental barrier. appositional growth. canine. second premolar. D. central incisor. an anterior extension base. 6. second molar. All of the above. Long source-film distance.

What is the threshold count of S. 10.000. Metaproterenol. Epinephrine. release of internal stress. C. eugenol. B. set more slowly if moisture is incorporated. C. are not cross-linked. C.000/ml. Lingual strap. ethyl chloride. C. 100. D. 100/ml. a benign neoplasm. cannot undergo distortion when removed from undercuts. set more rapidly. Inlay wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible in order to decrease distortion caused by A. xylene. set more firmly. Which component of a partial denture framework provides the best indirect retention? A. None of the above. Proximal plate. D. B. continued expansion of the wax. C. Hydrocortisone. Rest. B. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using A.Polysulfide impression materials A. C. B. E. be tolerated by periapical tissues. have better dimensional stability than addition cured silicones. A 'pregnancy tumor' is A. A delta and C nerves. B. B. D. 1.000. Which of the following structures may be associated with the role of the central nervous system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism? A. clinically identical to a pyogenic granuloma. D. Sphenopalatine ganglion. D. unassociated with local irritants. be radiopaque. C. Circumferential clasp. B. Which of the following drugs should NOT be administered to a patient in order to alleviate symptoms of an acute asthmatic attack? A. mutans in mixed saliva at which a patient is deemed “high risk” for caries? A. D. have a higher "tear strength" than condensation polymerized silicones. alcohol. reduced flow. D.000/ml. B. D. C. Petrous nerves. drying-out of the wax. B. . D.000/ml. Isoproterenol. Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealers A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). C.

disrupts the bacterial cell wall. B. C.The definitive diagnosis of central malignancy of the jawbone is made on A. C. place a removable space maintainer. acute pulpitis with periradicular periodontitis. in the anterior segment of the arch. D. B. At his first post insertion appointment. overextended borders of the partial. the occlusion. The proximal contacts. D. D. near the tuberosities. can be given in conjunction with penicillin. Three days ago. C. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. E. C. exfoliative cytology. A 10 year old patient has lost a maxillary permanent central incisor. B. chronic periradicular abscess. The impression used to pour the cast. E. C. B. The occlusal contacts. place a single tooth implant. The taper of the preparation. a vertical root fracture. spontaneous ache relieved by cold. C. interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. twentieth week. fusion of the palatal shelves should be completed by the A. Embryologically. improper path of insertion. place a conventional fixed partial denture. hyperplastic tissue in an edentulous maxilla is most often found A. radiographic translucency and loss of trabeculation. None of the above. A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. B. C. D. reversible pulpitis. The most appropriate management is A. delay treatment until all permanent teeth are erupted. biopsy. place a bonded resin bridge (Maryland bridge). D. E. C. sixteenth week. D. tenth week. clinical examination. . in the vault. B. Unsupported. Tetracycline A. is bactericidal. inadequate polishing of the framework. D. B. a cracked tooth. D. the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull. Which of the following should be checked first when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot be seated on its abutment? A. The most likely cause is A. fifth week. All of the above.

B. a Class II. 3. B. codeine. long buccal. B.Prior to cementing an onlay in a vital tooth using polycarboxylate cement.6 requires anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve as well as which of the following nerves? A.5ppm. . 1. condensing osteitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a deep overbite. acute osteitis. None of the above. to protect the pulp. fit of the framework. diffuse “ground glass” appearance. C. A. C. D. C. tissue adaptation. B.0ppm.0ppm. Lingual. Lingual. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. D. occlusion. B. The radiograph will show A. a bi-maxillary protrusion. to prevent post-operative sensitivity. The purpose of relining a distal saddle of a removable partial denture is to improve 1. E. 2. root resorption. generalized hypercementosis. long buccal. long buccal. The lowest level of fluoride in drinking water which will cause enamel mottling is A. Cervical. division 2 malocclusion. normal lamina dura. 5. an apical radiolucency. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. Increased bleeding is associated with a prolonged administration of 1. Mental. function. the tooth may be coated with cavity varnish A. D. D. Warfarin (Coumadin). D. B. D. A. The radiologic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is A. B. 4. 0. 3. to improve seal. D. an anterior open-bite. C. D. multiple radiopaque lesions. C. C. cervical plexus. 4. B. acetylsalicylic acid.0ppm. 2. A tongue thrust is most often found in a child with A. E. acetaminophen. C. C. The surgical removal of tooth 3. 3. multiple radiolucent lesions.

a viral infection. tight enough to produce immediate hemostasis. caused by exposure to radiation. What is the most appropriate management of a tooth which is sensitive to percussion but repsonds normally to pulp vitality testing? A. frictional hyperkeratosis. The patch cannot be wiped off. colour stability. C. Coronal pulpotomy. A. C. D. surface smoothness. B. 3. B. When sutures are used to reposition tissue over extraction sites. D. C. affect the progression of periodontitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Restoration replacement.5mm. a drug reaction. Pulpectomy. Leathery consistency. E. dysplasia. Discoloured lesion with the same hardness as healthy root surface. C. D. D. C. C. 15mm apart. affect the blood supply to gingiva. Sickle cell anemia is A. D. 2. parakeratosis. B. B. hyperparakeratosis. Abfraction deeper than 1. D. an auto-immune disease. E. E. C. interrupted. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. . Trauma from occlusion may A. they should be 1. pseudomembranous candidiasis. bondability to tooth structure. a genetic disease. Brown discolouration. hyperkeratosis. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching. initiate marginal gingivitis. control of polymerization shrinkage. Occlusal assessment. loss of increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal mitoses is A. acanthosis. A laboratory-fabricated composite resin inlay compared to a direct composite resin restoration has increased A. D. leukoplakia. white sponge nevus. B. E. Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavy smoker reveals a white patch in the retromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The term used to describe epithelial changes including nuclear hyperchromatism. C. B. 4. D. B.Which of the following is the most reliable indication of an active root caries lesion? A. lichen planus. initiate periodontitis. placed over firm bone where possible.

paralleling technique. . D. 3. melting point. B. fabricate a porcelain veneer. original neoplasm may invade the area of surgery. a periapical film . inflammation. at the dentino-enamel junction. D. a panoramic film. Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can best be seen radiographically in A. evenly throughout the enamel. make amalgamation easier. E. B. resistance to corrosion. there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. 2. increase lustre. a periapical film . perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. 4. In a young patient living in an area with communal water fluoridation. hyperplasia. B. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. Enlargement of the gingiva. C. hardness. C. D. C. D. C. strength. increase expansion. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The main reason for adding copper to a dental amalgam alloy is to A. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. E. bone becomes brittle. C. D. Surgery of irradiated bone is complicated by the fact that the A.bisecting angle technique. B. None of the above. The most appropriate management would be to A. blood vessels become sclerosed compromising normal healing. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. D. E. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp chamber. C. a bite-wing film. A. E. the fluoride concentration of an erupted tooth is greatest A. B. D. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. is best described as A. reduce tarnish resistance. on the surface of the clinical crown.A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored maxillary central incisor. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated. Radiographically. described as idiopathic fibromatosis. reduce the tin-mercury phase. B. All of the above. degeneration. neoplasia.

D. true unilateral crossbite. within the cervical one third of the root. the use of steep-cusped posterior teeth. 3. return for periodic examination. the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. cheek biting may result from A. C. Division 2 malocclusion are in A. Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. severe temporomandibular dysfunction. B. A. At initial contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites and coincident midlines. use dental floss under the pontic. C. B. After cementation of a fixed bridge. B. within the apical half of the root. shows a right side posterior crossbite and a lower midline that is deviated to the right. A patient. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. B. D. To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar. The most likely cause of this finding is A.In a patient with complete dentures. patient’s physical handicap. 5. stimulate the gingival tissue with massage. patient’s infectious disease status. C. two ideal occlusions. When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth. mandibular lateral incisor. 4. Pain upon biting pressure. complexity of the required treatment. occlusal interference and functional shift. too great an occlusal vertical dimension. Periapical radiolucency. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. when in full intercuspation. the patient should be advised to 1. D. supreversion. labioversion. . D. Absent vitalometric response. patient’s religious beliefs. mandibular central incisor. B. The permanent anterior tooth that exhibits the greatest variation in size and shape is the A. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) The maxillary incisors in Angle's Class II. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. C. insufficient coverage of the retromolar pad areas. after the permanent second molar has erupted. D. at the cervical line. E. insufficient horizontal overlap of the posterior teeth. In Canada. C. C. C. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. D. infraversion. 2. B. D. avoid hot liquids. it is ethical for a dentist to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of the A. at the apex. linguoversion. avoid sticky foods. D. B. B. C. C. the centre of rotation is located A. B.

D. B. due to increased intrapulpal tissue pressure. the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by A.To evaluate an existing occlusion. C. poorly calcified bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. decreased target-object distance. healing by primary intention. centric relation. data obtained from sickness surveys. initiate an immune response. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. D. D. C. activate the kallikrein system. C. diagnostic casts should be mounted on an articulator in A. trauma. plasma cells. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a reversible pathologic condition. Epidemiology of disease is best described as the A. 4. decreased object-film distance. more frequent following the use of air coolant rather than water coolant. The inflammatory response in periodontal pathology is caused by bacterial products from plaque which 1. B. E. 2. The radicular or root-end cyst occurs as a result of A. B cells. E. one of the first histological changes following operative trauma. due to contraction of collagen fibres. C. access to perform osseous recontouring. D. All of the above. D. collimation. control of disease. either centric relation or balancing occlusion. When exposing radiographic film. neutrophils. B. B. B. act as chemotactic products. pulpal necrosis. horizontal protrusive relation. . A surgical flap approach to periodontal pocket elimination permits A. 5. 2. Odontoblast nuclei displacement into adjacent dentinal tubuli is thought to be 1. B. C. study of disease patterns in a population. 3. T cells. A. B. hyperparathyroidism. The cell-mediated immune response to bacterial plaque in chronic periodontitis is regulated by A. balancing occlusion. D. act as enzymes. A. D. D. retention of gingiva. 3. C. usual low level of disease normally found within a population. C. B. 4. C.

mouth breathing. C. incorporating all undercut areas available. Strain hardening a metal will reduce its A. definitive. B. A. E. Calculus. D. use of indirect retention. B. All of the above. 4. 5. B. sinusitis. C. B. 1. red and soft. Procaine (Novocain). and C. Dry heat sterilization. radiation received by patient. None of the above. establishing harmonious occlusion. 3. Which of the following contains microorganisms? A. B. Autoclave. image definition. D. Dental plaque. All of the above. B. intensity of central beam. 2. D. D. The clinical appearance and texture of an early carcinoma of the floor of the mouth could be A. Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce Stability in partial dentures is best ensured by A. Acquired pellicle. C. ductility. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above. B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine). proportional limit. D. secondary radiation. yield strength. B. 2. Mepivicaine (Carbocaine). B. use of cast clasps. C. A. moderate. E. C. . The correlation between malocclusion and temporomandibular dysfunction is A. Flame sterilization. D. anterior open bite. weak. C. B. D. D. 4. Prilocaine (Citanest). modulus of elasticity. C. Chemical solutions. Glass bead sterilizer. 3. D. Which of the following anesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. ulcerated and indurated. radiographic contrast. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. white and rough. C. E. skeletal malocclusion. Habitual thumbsucking continued after the age of six causes A. E.Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta-percha points? A. strong. C. E.

bond mechanically to calcium in enamel and dentin. 2. C. B. E.Palpation gives information as to 1. A carious lesion on tooth 1. D. A. C. 2. A diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis can be made based on A. (1) (3) (4) (2) and (5) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) All of the above. B. C. 3. D. D. 1. mobility. near the junction of the body and the ramus. D. C. the anterior region of the maxilla. An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in . constricted root canals. Chemical adhesion. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc phosphate cements. inadequate periodontal support. Insolubility. accessory canals. the posterior region of the maxilla. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline. D. the mandible. E. C. B. E. 4. when used as a luting agent for cast restorations. The depth of penetration of any object by xrays is determined by 1. size. density of the object. B. tenderness.6 appears close to the pulp on the bitewing radiograph. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. exposure time. has which of the following properties? C. do not require a protective liner. fixation. pulp stones. 4. 2. 4. Conventional glass ionomer cements A. B. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns. D. Anticariogenicity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. such as calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation. Zinc phosphate cement. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with A. a lower electric pulp test reading compared to the control. kilovoltage. B. 3. proximity of the radiolucency to the pulp. curved roots. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxide and eugenol cements. milliamperage. 5. E. A. Mechanical retention. A. 3. A. induration. the symptoms reported by the patient. C.

Mylohyoid ridge. its thermal diffusivity is similar to dentin and enamel. B. 2. All of the above. The most likely diagnosis for this tooth is A. D. provide him with a copy of Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating. Looking wasted and fatigued. 3. Bleeding. its thermal conductivity is similar to dentin and enamel. D.The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is A. Atrophy. C. 2. ranula. D. Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a base material beneath a metallic restoration because A. 3. refer him to a qualified dietician/nutritionist and follow up after his appointment. Enlargement. E. Genial tubercle. a cyst. Malar process. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. Which of the following structures affects the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture? A. chronic periradicular abscess. B. C. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) (2) (3) Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia? 1. B. refer him back to his physician requesting a more thorough assessment. preservation of tooth structure. A 75-year old male patient whose wife died 10 months ago presents for his recall appointment. which is beginning to affect the eye. a keratocyst. D. Ulceration. removal of all pulp horns. D. recommend that he drink three cans of a nutritional supplement each day. he confirms he has lost about 6 kilograms in the last eight months but is otherwise in good health. 4. E. C. acute periradicular abscess. removal of all caries. B. straight line access to the canal. D. which has deep mesial caries.2. A. C. B. and is tender to palpation and touch. C. Coronoid process. 4. The most appropriate management for this patient is to A. A. its compressive strength when set will resist forces of condensation. B. . A patient is in intense pain with swelling on the left side of the face. chronic periradicular periodontitis. C. D. acute periradicular periodontitis. Examination reveals a fluctuant swelling over tooth 2. Zygomatic process. Marsupialization (PARTSCH PROCEDURE) is the preferred surgical technique in the management of 1. osteomyelitis. C.

premalignant adenomatous polyposis coli. poorly-defined radiolucency. retard the final set. . D. E. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-year old child. E. well-defined radiolucency. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. protect the cement from moisture. A. The appropriate management for a white lesion. poorly-defined radiolucency. hamartomatous polyps of the small intestine. pulp calcifications. C. B. C. E. take a panoramic film only. A common clinical sign of occlusal traumatism is A. E. E. a chemically cured glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. multiple palmar or facial basal cell carcinomas. central fibroma. anterior maxilla. D. hasten the final set. posterior mandible. gingivitis. well-defined radiolucency. C. create a smooth finish. excisional biopsy. cytologic examination. A patient diagnosed with multiple mucosal neuromas should be further evaluated for the possibility of After initial setting. periodontitis. C. D. D. congenitally missing first premolars. D. gingival recession. the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. D. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. C. B. use high speed film. B. D. The most common form of periodontal disease is A. pocket formation. acute periapical abscess.The most frequent radiographic appearance of metastatic carcinoma in the oral cavity is a A. incisional biopsy. gingival hyperplasia. Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show immature fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. temporomandibular joint pain dysfunction syndrome. that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently become ulcerated is A. odontogenic fibroma. E. aspiration biopsy. B. tooth mobility. E. C. periodontal disease atrophy. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. juvenile periodontitis. periapical granuloma. posterior mandible. observation. D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. B. apply a radiation protection badge. 10 x 15mm in size. B. B. radicular cyst. anterior maxilla. C. neoplasms of endocrine organs. B. C.

Pain threshold. osteitis deformans (Paget's disease). replacement of skeletal bone with poorly mineralized bone. You would A. Analgesics. 2. B. C. E. D. B. osteomyelitis. With two rescuers performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient. (1) and (2) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) and (4) (3) and (4) A. Pit and fissure sealants on all primary molars. C. how many external chest compressions are given per minute? A. perform endodontic therapy on the four incisors. osteopetrosis. D. be constructed to have an occlusal surface wider than the width of the tooth it replaces. E. Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing? A. D. be constructed to have an occlusal surface one quarter the width of the tooth it replaces. Anterior superior alveolar. C. All of the above. provide adequate embrasure spaces. Recent trauma. D. C. Nasociliary. Dietary counseling. Emotional factors. Fluoride varnish every six months. and an increased serum alkaline phosphatase are characteristic of A. B. B. D. A. C.Radiographs of the mandibular incisor teeth of a 45 year old healthy black female patient reveal periapical radiolucencies. 3. D. observe periodically. The teeth are vital and asymptomatic. D. cover as much mucosa as possible. B. Fluoride supplements. C. Oral hygiene instruction. Nasopalatine. C. Which of the following “in office” preventive procedures is most practical and effective for an uncooperative 4-year old patient from a non-compliant family? A. 4. place a drain in the affected area. Sphenopalatine. 40 60 80 100 A ceramometal posterior fixed partial denture pontic should Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 1. E. acromegaly. B. Hypercementosis. perform a biopsy of the radiolucent lesion. . B.

C. B. B. C. hemoglobin level. . No treatment. Lateral sliding flap. D. B. saline irrigation of socket. D. B. complete blood count. 4. B. All of the above. 3. D. white cell count. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. buccinator and genioglossus muscles. Class III. the angle ANB is frequently used. greater than the normal. 2. styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles. E. vigorous curettage of the socket. D. buccinator and styloglossus muscles. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the attachment of the A. C. None of the above. E. E. B. A. buccinator. The most appropriate laboratory test to identify an acute bacterial infection is A. B. placement of a dressing in the socket. Class II. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival recession? A. For which of the following malocclusions is serial extraction indicated? A.Benign neoplasms 1. D. mylohyoid. less than the normal. radiation dose rate. B. Connective tissue graft. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion. 4. radiation type. Class I. C. D. mylohyoid and buccinator muscles. mylohyoid. this angle is A. volume of tissue irradiated. grow slowly. C. C. red cell count. are generally painless. superior constrictor. radiation dose. The amount of tissue damage following irradiation depends on A. C. can be managed conservatively. a prescription for antibiotics. D. can metastasize. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. Gingival graft. Management of a “dry socket” should include 1. Gingivoplasty. unrelated. 2. A. In patients with severe Class~II malocclusion. C. normal.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. presence of voids within the material. C. sialography. B. axiopulpal. history. E. 4. All of the above. B. . Mepivicaine (carbocaine). 3. A 4 year old child with active caries. Location of the tumor.7 ppm. palpation. B. linguopulpal. excessive polymerization shrinkage. B. More than 60 percent vertical overlap of anterior teeth. 3. B. E. An occluded submandibular duct can be diagnosed by A. C. Lymph node involvement. Size of the tumor. Prognosis for a patient with oral squamous cell carcinoma depends upon which of the following factors? 1. A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1. Failure to use equal amounts of metal and porcelain. E. C. None of the above. 2. brittleness of the composite. Prilocaine (citanest). E. 2. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. B. D. 4. A 75 year old patient with active caries who takes xerostomic medications. C. Procaine. Lidocaine (xylocaine). E. occlusal radiographs. C. 2. mesiopulpal. D. C. Occlusal contacts on pocelain Contamination of metal before the application of porcelain. D. A. C.The most frequent cause for composite resin restoration failure is A. D. Which of the following anesthetic agents are hydrolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. inadequate moisture control during placement. A 1 year old toddler living in a nonfluoridated community. D. 3. D. A child with active caries living where drinking water contains 0. Which of the following will cause separation of porcelain from metal in the porcelain fused to metal bridge? A. In which of the following situations could fluoride supplements be recommended? 1. 4.5 is A. buccopulpal. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. Symptoms.

C. Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone. E. nitrous oxide. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. initial contact. It does not produce anti-anxiety effects after intramuscular administration. Ludwig's angina may cause death by A. protrusive position. accumulation of plaque. B. Lateral (external) pterygoid. B. C. 3. 1. C. Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites. C. D. Atrophic thinning. more translucency. Medial (internal) pterygoid. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which oral mucosa changes are possible side effects of chemotherapy? Which of the following muscles causes displacement of the condyle in a subcondylar fracture of the mandible? A. E. Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of A. maximum opening. normal rest position.A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in A. C. 3. B. 2. paralysis of muscles of respiration. halothane. increased strength. D. B. 1. D. Spontaneous bleeding. Superior constrictor. Temporalis. Masseter. B. E. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam? It is advisable to polish any restorative material as smoothly as possible in order to prevent A. Necrosis. B. A. B. microleakage. D. E. A. C. C. electro-chemical action. convulsions. better colour. B. overhanging margins. ethyl ether. Ulceration. heart failure. asphyxia. C. The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is A. pyemia. D. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral. maximum intercuspation. less shrinkage. thiopental. 4. D. D. E. 2. D.

D. C. intravenously. mandibular canines and first molars. is associated with medium to large-sized restorations. can readily be diagnosed using transillumination. 3. 2. B. C. 20mg of diazapam. B. II. maxillary canines and lateral incisors. antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? A. C. . An apprehensive 77-year old patient. B. None of the above. A. requires the removal of several mandibular teeth under local anaesthesia. concave. 2. 3. Which of the following has/have analgesic. D. either concave or convex. and B. 100mg of secobarbital. C. The appropriate modality to manage the anxiety is A. occupational and demographic factors. D. E. B. orally. D. C. None of the above. diet. III. II. saliva.Mouth breathing is most commonly associated with Angle's malocclusion Class A. Incomplete tooth fracture A. Division 1. B. straight. I. Division 2. B. B. E. E. Bradykinin. convex. mandibular canines and lateral incisors. weighing approximately 60kg. non-restorable first primary molar is to A. C. 4. elicits dull. D. A. extract it. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. orally. 20mg of diazapam. D. C. A. D. most commonly involves the supporting cusps. observe it until it exfoliates. (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only In a 4-year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected. A “caries risk assessment “ includes an analysis of 1. C. D. prolonged pain on chewing. maxillary canines and first molars. B. Acetominophen. The facial profile associated with a Class III malocclusion is A. Acetylsalicylic acid. 4. past caries experience. Primate spacing in the primary dentition is observed between 1. E. extract it and place a space maintainer. nitrous oxide and oxygen. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.

When performing a periodontal screening and recording (PSR) for a patient. C. D. 2. Which of the muscles of mastication is associated with the condylar head and the articular disc? A. the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated. 3. 2. B. D. 4. when placed subperiostially. the code asterisk (*) is used for a sextant when A. Angular cheilitis. Tachycardia. C. E. D. 1. E. The most practical method to significantly reduce the setting time of stone and plaster is to use A. Soft tissue hyperplasia. fabricate a porcelain veneer. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. all the teeth in the sextant are missing. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. D. B. there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. Temporalis. a tooth in the sextant has supraerupted. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. 3. Particulate hydroxyapatite. B. Decreased respiratory rate. a mucogingival problem is present. 4. Carcinoma. A. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating agent.A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored upper central incisor. B. Internal pterygoid. The following conditions can be the result of ill-fitting complete dentures. a longer mixing time. Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur while using an epinephrineimpregnated retraction cord? A. E. D. C. D. a tooth in the sextant needs to be extracted. C. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. Radiographically. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Masseter. Hypotension. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. Alveolar ridge resorption. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. B. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. C. . is highly biocompatible. D. C. C. B. Gingival hermorrhaging. External pterygoid. warm mixing water. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. 1. A. B.

E. inadequate denture hygiene. incision and drainage. The surgical procedure indicated for odontogenic cysts is A. sclerotic dentin. C. B. A 45 year old. organo mercurial compounds.Denture stomatitis can be associated with A. decreased tissue tolerance. cauterization. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. B. a line or area which marks the movement of the soft palate. pain. E. not a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. light condensing forces. a radiolucent area. C. C. A patient suffering from periodontal disease may complain of A. C. C. gingival recession. appropriate wedge selection. The vibrating line of the palate is A. localized pressure. overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. bleeding gingiva. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. D. fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. cortical bone around surgical site. D. C. C. The initial histological appearance of a successful apicectomy would show on a radiograph as A. B. enucleation. B. . incorrect vertical dimension. a well defined line across the palate. B. elemental mercury. All of the above. xerostomia. inorganic mercurous compounds. D. C. ill-fitting dentures. refer for a sleep assessment. One week after receiving a complete denture a patient returns with an isolated sore spot. B. D. candida albicans infection. D. an inaccurate centric relation record. C. D. B. loose teeth. An open proximal contact on an amalgam restoration can be prevented by A. The most toxic form of mercury is A. woven bone. All of the above. tightening the matrix band. B. D. The most likely cause is A. always on the hard palate. D. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations. inorganic mercuric compounds. B.

buccal infiltration. the most likely region(s) of the mandible to fracture is/are: 1.The oral examination of the edentulous patient should include digital palpation because 1. C. Alphaprodine. 2. middle superior alveolar. . I. III. the thickness of the mucosa can better be evaluated. C. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo degeneration. D. osteoblasts. ameloblasts. 4. the ridge relationship will be better understood. Division 1. Codeine. D. multinucleated giant cells. the arch form can be more accurately evaluated. In addition to a palatine injection. The tooth must be extracted. II. Thyroid activity. B. Pentazocine. D. Methadone. B. E. C. Serum alkaline phosphatase. C. B. Serum phosphorus. Condylar necks. infraorbital. Which of the following drugs is used in treating opioid-dependent individuals? A. B. B. B. undercut areas may be hard to visualize. B. A. D. II. C. striking the chin. Mid-body. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. D.3. E. None of the above. 2. Mouth breathing is most commonly associated with Angle's malocclusion Class A. Division 2. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) If a person falls from a bicycle. C. 3. D. C. E. E. Serum calcium. D. Meperidine. A decrease of which of the following is indicative of hypoparathyroidism? A. Symphysis. the most appropriate local anesthetic technique would be A. A. 4. 5. intraligamentary. they are replaced by There is an acute alveolar abscess on tooth 1. Angles of the mandible. spicules under the mucosa may be overlooked. 3.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. a multifactorial disorder. . pterygomandibular space. considered as retentive aids. 2. can be stored for up to 7 days if placed in sterile bags after sterilization. D. C. scaling and root planing. D. prescription of an antibiotic. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. B. B. B. must not be stored after sterilization. A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be caused by 1. fever related hypoplasia. D. B. SEVERE undercuts on the edentulous ridge should be A. associated with osteogenesis imperfecta. can be stored for up to 24 hours if placed in an airtight container after sterilization. excessive occlusal load. 4. An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A.Amelogenesis imperfecta is A. C. use of an inappropriate luting material. C. B. retained but avoided by the denture base extension. B. B. C. removed surgically. initial treatment must include A. 3. C. C. A. with an acute localized periodontal abscess. D. Unbagged sterilized instruments A. D. D. E. For an otherwise healthy patient. fluorosis of the primary dentition. removed if no cortical bone is involved. buccal space. C. In treatment planning for a complete denture. submandibular space. buccal vestibule. Extensive caries on the primary maxillary incisors of a 2 year old is generally indicative of A. amelogenesis imperfecta. a hereditary condition with different inheritance patterns. inadequate ceramic thickness. prescription of an analgesic. demand breast or bottle feeding. can be stored for up to 1 year if wrapped after sterilization. caused by environmental factors. occlusal adjustment. D.

Ménière's disease. In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block. Fordyce's granules are A. B. C. C. B. E. Tooth reduction for anterior tooth preparation for porcelain fused to metal and all ceramic crowns is dictated by the following imperative(s) 1. Lancinating paroxysmal pain in the posterior part of the tongue. . C. visual inspection.Which of the following cells suggests that an immunologic response to plaque in the sulcus occurs in chronic inflammatory periodontal disease? 1. B. 2. E. C. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (3) and (4) (3) and (5) A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. B. D. D. remove the tooth. leaving the tuberosity in place and suture. Masseter. B. ectopic sweat glands. is nonvital. probing with a fine instrument. Buccinator. aberrant mucous glands. has a periodontal pocket. During extraction of a maxillary third molar. C. ectopic sebaceous glands. You should A. B. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. D. Neutrophils. E. D. has a hyperemic pulp. Mylohyoid. small calcified nodules. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. trigeminal neuralgia. Macrophages. tonsil. B. C. porcelain/ceramic thickness for fracture resistance. C. 5. A. E. psychotic glosso pyrosis. 4. which muscle is penetrated by the needle? A. reflect the mucoperiosteum. 2. D. D. clearance for occlusal function. A. the tuberosity is fractured. fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture. leave both and stabilize. Lymphocytes. nasopharynx and pharynx is most likely diagnostic of A. if possible. length for adequate retention-resistance. B. Medial (internal) pterygoid. sphenopalatine neuralgia. Mast cells. remove both and suture. D. C. disclosing solution. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. 4. D. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. remove both. The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. parallelism of axial walls for facilitating the path of insertion. Superior constrictor. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. 3. Plasma cells.

3. E. B. 4. B. patients with a history of rheumatic fever. D. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. with acute infection. D. A hardened gold alloy will exhibit A. C. (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above. D. B.Which of the following properties of freshly cut dentin does cavity varnish eliminate or reduce? A. taking systemic antibiotics. Permeability. pin retained amalgam. 4. A. Resiliency. C. Electrosurgery. B. Root canal therapy may be safely and successfully undertaken for 1. A. C. C. Using a heavy body material in the impression tray. 5. adolescent diabetics. Hardness. C. E. A copper band that is removed when the impression is made. A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients 1. A moist retraction cord. 4. E. Regenerative powers. MOD gold onlay. MOD amalgam. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. MOD composite resin. A. 3. hemophiliacs. . 3. 2. greater plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. None of the above. cerebral palsy patients. the conservative restoration of choice is a/an A. C. D. no difference in the plastic deformation per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or soft condition. D. less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. B. who are elderly. consuming a high protein or fat diet. patients with rheumatoid arthritis. B. 2. After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces. Which of the following is an acceptable means to obtain the gingival retraction that is needed when using an elastomeric impression material for making a final impression in fixed prosthodontics? 1.

2. All of the above. sensory fibers are more susceptible. 2.DMF-S is an index for expressing A. B. Anaesthetics are marketed as watersoluble acid salts. All of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. E. pulp hyperemia. zygomatic bone. D. Material thickness. inter-occlusal relationship. vertical dimension of occlusion. Certain nerve fibers are more susceptible. Restoration of occlusal caries. A patient presenting with diplopia. 3. extent of dental neglect. E. 4. Dimensional stability. C. B. Ease of manipulation. nasal bleeding and swelling. E. neck of the condyle. maxillary tuberosity. D. A facebow is used to record the 1. A. Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. B. C. C. D. a pulp polyp. body of the mandible. D. Making an alginate impression. late stage of acute pulpitis. . D. chronic apical abscess. B. B. Shade. Elasticity. D. Which of the following requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve? A. C. D. E. Inferior alveolar nerve block. 3. horizontal condylar inclination. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. exophthalmos. B. With respect to local anaesthetics. Which of the following physical properties would be_least_important for an impression material for partially edentulous patients? A. D. tooth mortality. E. 4. Proximity of light source. B. C. A. C. Endodontic instrumentation beyond apex. Temperature of the material. Adhesion to calcium. C. dental needs. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. B. They are capable of blocking every type of nerve tissue. chronic pulpitis. C. may suffer from a fracture of the A. which of the following statements isçare correct? A. The following factors effect polymerization of visible light cured composite resins: 1. dental caries. Biocompatibility. In mixed nerves.

Radicular cyst. free gingival and transseptal fibres. D. the most likely diagnosis is A. Traumatic bone cyst. B.Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. B. Which of the following is NOT a true cyst? 1. A toxic reaction to lidocaine. D. A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00. This finding indicates that the tooth A. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. impacted maxillary canine. is nonvital and should be extracted. Incipient syncope. edematous. An impending adrenal insufficiency. fibrotic. E. fibroedematous. 4. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. A 9 year old boy presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury resulting in a fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel only. A. . oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. B. Odontogenic keratocyst. C. The radial pulse is slow and steady. E. D. C.000. 5. B. The tooth tests negative to an electric pulp tester. D. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic. ester. density of the cortical bone. B. trigeminal neuralgia. is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated. impacted maxillary third molar. D. C. Dentigerous cyst. formed within an infrabony pocket. B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. D. (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (1) and (5) (2) and (5) (3) and (5) When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection. 2. C. C. E. C. should be observed and tested again at a later date. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is A. E. The respiration is slow. D. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to A. C. associated with exudate formation. ethamine. aminide. amide. E. Lateral periodontal cyst. 3. The blood pressure is 80/60. aldehyde. persistence of tongue and finger habits. acute maxillary sinusitis. has a root fracture and should be extracted.

C. As the mandible grows downward and forward. 4. after the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established. be semilunar in shape. radicular cyst. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. D. metastatic carcinoma. osteosarcoma. D. B. acute periapical abscess. maxillary second molar erupts and moves mesially. certain strains of actinomyces. 3. Increased strength. after the teeth have been set on the trial denture. B. on the anterior border of the ramus. E. periapical granuloma. C. B. bone deposition takes place A. A. B. D. 2. Increased hardness. on all surfaces of the mandible. D. Adjustment of the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture should be completed A. If a patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11. premolar drifts distally. C. immediately after making the final casts. certain strains of staphylococci. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. D. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. Enamel caries is associated with A. certain strains of streptococci. B. provide for visual access. Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. A. D. Corrosion resistance. . the 1. B. E. on the alveolar margins. chondrosarcoma. E. odontogenic fibroma. C. and D. 4. certain strains of gram negative anerobic bacteria. B. C. plasmacytoma. Multiple “punched-out” radiolucencies of the skull and jaws are most commonly seen with A. on the posterior border of the ramus. 2. provide for instrument access. C. multiple myeloma.Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show immature fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. Lowered specific gravity. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. overbite increases. The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should 1. upon delivery of the denture. C. 3. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. B. B. central fibroma. D. D.

B. nonkeratinized. can lead to tooth fracture. Enamel hypoplasia. None of the above. 2. C. the height of the bone on the facial surfaces of the teeth. should fit the crown of the tooth. Peg lateral incisor. be pushed apically during extraction movements. D. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. A. 3. periodontal pocket depth. infectious mononucleosis.A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. 3. E.1. A. C. B. A. Reduce the buccal bone to the level of the trifurcation. C. 3. should be placed at the cervical line of the tooth. stratified. D. 2. 4.1 and 2. D. B.3. C. Which of the following SHOULD NOT be corrected with a porcelain veneer? A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Reduce the palatal bone to the level of the trifurcation. The beaks of extract forceps 1. E. Which of the following should be done during extraction of this tooth? 1. E. B. B. ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis. 4. Reflect a flap. Leukemic gingivitis may be misdiagnosed as A dental radiograph will accurately indicate A. squamous. D. 4. C. The maxillary antrum encroaches into the area of trifurcation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. Amputate the crown and section the roots. the extent of furcation involvements. shortness of breath. slippage and injury to adjacent teeth if placed incorrectly. The presurgical assessment of a permanent maxillary first molar reveals roots which are trifurcated and widely divergent. . Diastema between 1. A. exophthalmos. D. B. Cross bite on tooth 1. infrabony pocket topography. B. 3. Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. 2. D. E. 4. C. nonpermeable. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. thrombocytopenic purpura. epistaxis. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis. 2. D. pitting edema of the ankles.

only if it develops into a cystic lesion. 1. Sjögren’s syndrome. B. A. E. alloy composition. inadequate base thickness. acid etching. 3. C. diameter of the wire segment. reduction of fever. All of the above. to eliminate toxins from the patient. A. E. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. an odontogenic infection. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. B. sarcoidosis. C. A patient complains of sensitivity the day following placement of a conservative posterior composite resin restoration. B. D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. once the patient has reached the age of 12. D. unpolymerized resin. after its complete eruption. D. B. . ranula. Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is indicative of In clinical dentistry. An immediate toxic reaction to a local anesthetic administration is A. length of the wire segment. The most probable cause is A. B. C. B. D. 4. E. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Observation of the rest position. C. stiffness of wire is a function of A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. None of the above. E. you should extract the mesiodens A. 2. Pre-extraction profile records. hypersensitivity to the anesthetic agent. B. D. D. 2. prolonged application of the curing light. sialolithiasis. 3. D. C. C. excessive blood level of the anesthetic agent. on request from an informed patient. It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations 1. deterioration of the anesthetic agent. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth. A. as soon as possible. E. C. Appearance. 4. B. microleakage. Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal vertical dimension? All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid except A. Phonetics. In order to manage the diastema. suppression of inflammatory response. All of the above. shortening of bleeding time.A 6 year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. C. D.

root perforation. B. extract it. poured immediately. buffering action. hairy tongue. E. extract it and place a space maintainer. place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately. place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. antimicrobial effect. B. B. B. immersed in a fixing solution before pouring. E. . D. Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an An osteoma is A. In a 4-year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected.The characteristic oral lesion(s) of pemphigus is/are A. D. Your instructions should be to A. observe it until it becomes symptomatic. D. non-restorable first primary molar is to A. Saliva is most effective in minimizing an acid challenge by its A. put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day. radiopaque. B. fluoride concentration. allowed to stand a half hour before pouring. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately. amide. B. observe it until it exfoliates. E. open apex. vesicles and bullae. D. D. C. candidiasis (candidosis). D. Polysulfide rubber base impressions should be A. C. E. A. coated with a thin film of separating medium. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your office in a week's time. either radiopaque or radiolucent. C. C. C. E. aminide. lubrication function. B. Fordyce's granules. D. curved canal. B. C. radiolucent surrounded by a radiopaque line. C. Chelating agents are useful to treat a tooth with aan A. immersed in water 10 minutes before pouring. ester. A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact. C. D. white plaques. ethamine. periapical abcess. sclerotic canal. radiolucent. aldehyde.

D. In a xerostomic patient. B. has strong anti-inflammatory properties. Parotid. A. D. What is the name of the area in which the resin of the adhesive system micromechanically interlocks with dentinal collagen? A. 3. A dental laboratory has returned a removable partial denture framework. 4. has antipyretic properties. . C. Labial. retards platelet function. can be caused by an inadequate temporary restoration? 1. B. B.Which of the following problems of a permanent fixed bridge. B. Smear layer. The possible cause(s) of the problem is/are 1. detected at the delivery appointment. C. which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. percentage elongation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. When using forceps to extract a maxillary first molar. The stiffness of a material can best be described by the A. 2. produces CNS stimulation. 4. C. 2. Active zone. distortion in the final impression. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. Hybrid layer. risk for sinus perforation is minimized. Accessory. D. E. a stable fit could not be achieved. buccal roots are shorter than palatal root. insufficient retention. Need for significant occlusal adjustment. A. modulus of elasticity. Contacts with adjacent teeth that prevent complete seating of the bridge. Sublingual and submandibular. 2. 3. D. C. C. improper pour of the master cast. E. 4. B. C. the forceps movement should be principally in the buccal direction because the A. B. A. E. D. furcation is more accessible from the buccal. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The framework fit the master cast well but when tried in the mouth. Exposed gingival margins in an esthetic area. Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses 1. Adhesive zone. buccal bone is thinner than the palatal bone. elastic limit. casting error. 3. Hypersensitivity of the abutments that decreases after permanent luting. modulus of resilience. B. D. C.

slightly more. significantly less. continuous. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. necrosis of bone. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. B. B. B. develop into a Class I malocclusion with normal exfoliation of the primary molars. 3. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. slightly less. D. E. the same. Parakeratosis. The lower the mercury content the greater the strength. D. Forces for orthodontic tooth movement ideally should be 1. inhibit bone osteoclastic resorption. The lower the mercury content the greater the flow. have no effect on alveolar and jaw bone. 4. light. D. Which of the following is true regarding “arrested caries”? It . A. D. Hyperkeratosis. C. 2. slower healing. B. stimulate the mineralization of bone. Dysplasia. C. D. B. The higher the mercury content the less the flow. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow. develop into a Class I malocclusion with late mandibular growth. 3. intermittent. C. heavy. wound dehiscence. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal relative to the porcelain for constructing a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown should be A. D. The higher the mercury content the greater the strength. E. B. C. Bisphosphonates used in the treatment of osteoporosis A. Acanthosis. B. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. increase a patient’s ability to withstand periodontal infections.Varying the mercury content of an amalgam results in which of the following? A. 4. foreign body inflammatory reaction. E. C. A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in 1. A Class II dental malocclusion in the mixed dentition will likely A. Which of the following epithelial changes is most likely to be precancerous? A. 2. A. C.

C. None of the above. D. A skeletal cross-bite. an increase in radiodensity. 2. B. sodium phosphate. Gingival hyperplasia. chorda tympani nerve. D. C. can remineralize and not need any restoration. B. calcium sulfate. D. 3. B. C. B. D. Loss of stippling. B. is certain to progress. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. errors in registering of centric jaw relation. 4. complete dentures on the original stone casts are rearticulated in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by 1. After processing. long buccal nerve. C. but at a slow rate. . this indicates that A. cranial VII. marked wear facets. B. decreased explorer “stickiness”. should be treated the same as any other carious lesion. an increase in size. E. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1.A. strained jaw relation records. 3. calcium phosphate. flasking and processing procedures. A. deviated closure to centric occlusion. must be restored if it is visible radiographically. D. usually demonstrates A. C. 2. If an active carious lesion arrests and remineralizes. gingival hyperplasia exists. it will show A. C. C. A. can be identified by surface roughness. no change in hardness. sodium sulfate. Bleeding on probing. interference free closure to centric occlusion. C. (1) only (1) (2) (3) (2) and (3) (1) and (3) Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue and a lack of secretion of submandibular glands indicates nerve damage to the A. The chemical that is used to retard the setting reaction in alginate impression materials is A. mandibular division of cranial V. D. B. B. If a periodontal probe is inserted 4 or 5mm to the base of a pocket on the mesial-buccal of a tooth and then pushed facially causing blanching. Decreased pocket depth. D. None of the above. as contrasted with functional cross-bite. there is an inadequate zone of attached gingiva. the lateral wall of the pocket does not consist of bone.

overbite increases. 4. A. 3. 3. E. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. Floor of the nasal fossa and maxillary sinus border. C. B. premolar drifts distally. buccal. D. Class II division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. D. C. Submucosal sweat glands. Class II division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. amide. If a patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11. Anterior nasal spine and nasopalatine/incisive canal. D. The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the A. below the mucogingival junction. B. C. infrabony. ester. Hyperkeratosis. E. B. Normal sebaceous glands. 4. aminide. maxillary second molar erupts and moves mesially. the 1. B. B. Multiple small epidermoid cysts. buccal or lingual. . Root planing is used in the treatment of pockets which are 1. C. aldehyde. C. Submucosal salivary gland tissue. D. lingual. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. edematous. Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? A. ethamine. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor of the nasal fossa. D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and maxillary sinus border. C. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. fibrotic.Which anatomical structures form the inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical radiographs? A. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. 2. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) All of the above. E. Which of the following best describes Fordyce granules (spots)? A. E. A. 2.

D. a result of lengthening of the condyle. fracture of the zygomatic arch. D. C. C. B. oral diazepam. D. Cyclosporine. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. C. is undercontoured gingivally. intravenous diazepam. B. D. D. will undergo normal root resorption. is overcontoured buccolingually. Which two muscles are involved in sucking? A. chemical. B. B. intravenous thiopental. equally chemical and mechanical. stimulated by chewing motions. test the tooth for percussion sensitivity. B. Prednisolone. C. a part of the overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and mandible. A patient has a draining sinus tract 6mm apical to the free gingival margin of a maxillary lateral incisor. Risorius and buccinator. Phenytoin. should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. the most appropriate pharmacosedative is A. In the restoration of the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth. A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A. B. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. B. C. . due to the eruption of teeth. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major. has a flat marginal ridge. in the absence of its permanent successor. E. open into the pulp chamber and establish the correct root length. may remain for years with no significant resorption. C. C. D. E. C. A primary molar. E. periodontal involvement is most likely to develop when the restoration A. nitrous oxide. craniofacial dysjunction. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. E. B. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. Nifedipine. perform pulp vitality tests. A. D. The bond between porcelain and metal in a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown is A. open the tooth without anesthesia. intravenous secobarbital. D. D. enucleate the sinus tract. neither chemical nor mechanical. Formation of the alveolar process is A. has an inadequate contact. For a patient with a history of glaucoma and porphyria. You would A. Caninus and depressor angularis. should be extracted. mechanical.Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement? A. is more susceptible to dental caries. C. B.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. odontoblastic layer. Cloxacillin. lateral periodontal abscess. The epithelium covering the lesions of chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is believed to be derived from the A. decrease pulp damage. Penicillin. E. A. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. 0. D. D. 2. acute serous pulpitis. Gingival hyperplasia. C. Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate the infection is caused by beta hemolytic streptococcus. C. C. remnants of the dental lamina. to the point where the patient feels sensation. Loss of stippling. D. B. The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will 1. C. keep the operating site clean. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration. Decreased pocket depth. C. B. A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. slightly through the apical foramen. adapts well to the walls of the prepared cavity. Tetracycline. has a satisfactory compressive strength. is almost insoluble in the oral fluids. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. epithelial rests of Malassez. All of the above. 4. A. 2 years. 8 years. . 3. 4. D. B. The desired termination point of apical root canal preparation when performing endodontic treatment on a vital tooth is A. acute periradicular abscess. Erythromycin. 3. reduce clogging of cutting instruments. epithelium of the gingiva. D. 3mm short of the radiographic apex. acute suppurative pulpitis. reduced enamel epithelium. 2. The most likely diagnosis is A. is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester.5 to 1mm short of the radiographic apex. D. 4 years. Dental amalgam A. D. Bleeding on probing. E. B. There is some mobility. B. reduce frictional heat. E.What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second bicuspid can be confirmed? A. B. E. D. 6 years. C. C. Which of the following is the drug of choice? A. B. C. B.

E. E. A. A. 4. B. chemotherapy. express excess mercury content. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. E. force the alloy particles together. B. which muscle is penetrated by the needle? A. radiotherapy. B. 2. D. Superior constrictor. Masseter. cleidocranial dysostosis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. B.Which of the following bone lesions of the mandible is/are malignant? 1. The treatment of an ameloblastoma is A. further break down the alloy particles. removal of necrotic cementum. D. D. the most likely diagnosis is A. The prognosis for an avulsed tooth is principally affected by A. Ewing's tumor. C. hemihypertrophy. adrenogenital syndrome. 4. trigeminal neuralgia. 2. Buccinator. D. D. resection. Amalgam is condensed to 1. . formocresol pulpotomy and stainless steel crown. 3. enucleation. C. extraction and placement of a space maintainer. pulp extirpation. condition of the socket when the tooth was replanted. C. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. calcium hydroxide pulp cap and composite resin restoration. Unilateral premature eruption of teeth is characteristic of A. E. impacted maxillary third molar. C. B. B. Medial (internal) pterygoid. D. Fibrous dysplasia. Osteosarcoma. Osteochondroma. E. acromegaly. C. C. impacted maxillary canine. In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block. C. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection. complete the trituration process. The most appropriate treatment for a vital primary molar with carious pulp exposure and cusp fracture is a/an A. Mylohyoid. B. acute maxillary sinusitis. D. D. calcium hydroxide pulp cap and amalgam restoration. hemiatrophy. B. length of time the tooth was out of the mouth.

C. is nervous. unaffected. The predominant organism(s) associated with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are 1. E. wide root separation. Forcep movement should be principally in the buccal direction. C. Upon stimulation of salivary flow. the activity of the elevator muscles is A. carcinoma in situ. B. During an incisal clench. B. A. thumbsucking. Prevotella intermedia. D. Heliobacter pilori. acanthosis. C. C. B. delayed eruption of the permanent teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Sublingual. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D. C. intact basal cell layer and chronic inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in A. B. papillofibroma. Which of the following statements is/are true when using forceps for extraction of a maxillary first molar? 1. D. dysplasia. increased. C. Forcep movement should be principally in the palatal direction. 4. D. endothelioma. Porphyromonas gingivalis.Patient nausea during nitrous oxide administration is an indication that the patient A. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone. D. Parotid. an enamel pearl. A. a bifurcation ridge. 3. 2. Submandibular. B. trauma. 4. squamous cell carcinoma. B. E. Buccal bone is easier to expand. is allergic to nitrous oxide. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Submaxillary. chronic gingivitis. which gland is the main source of salivary volume? Hyperkeratosis. narrow root separation. increased mitosis. B. has not eaten for some time. 3. decreased. . C. D. 2. D. Ankylosis of the primary central incisors in the maxilla is mainly related to The most likely indication of a poor periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. has received the nitrous oxide too quickly. A. C. B.

B. 4. . Silica gel. E. 1 year. Isthmus fractures of a Class II amalgam restoration most frequently occur because of A. 6 years. inadequate width and bulk. B. D. sialolith. no difference in the plastic deformation per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or soft condition. inadequate condensation. burnishing during condensation. B. angular cheilitis. C. C. greater plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. erythematous oral mucosa.Habitual thumbsucking continued after the age of six causes A. before birth. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. C. skeletal malocclusion. C. D. less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. B. renolith. D. D. Calcium carbonate. A stone in the salivary glands or ducts is called a A. D. C. B. glossitis. B. Which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer? A. the low compressive strength of amalgam. B. mouth breathing. D. Scopolamine. A 12 year old child presents with characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. pain. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. anterior open bite. A hardened gold alloy will exhibit A. C. 2. Reserpine. 4 years. 3. calcolith. None of the above. sinusitis. A. E. phlebolith. C. Diazepam. E.

4. fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. periodontal surgical therapy only. D. 3. apical migration of the epithelial attachment. D.75 . D. hoe. D.000/mm3 The most likely diagnosis is A. D. curette. E. Probing force.9g/100ml Platelets: 82. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. plaque accumulation. periodontal surgical therapy before nonsurgical endodontic treatment. B. C. 15 .000-400.000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 3. C.45 50 . A. C. C. A blood examination reveals Hb: 8.000-10. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy. stress distribution.A 20-year old male presents with a three-day history of an acute generalized gingivitis. aesthetics. E. B. sickle scaler. C.000/mm3 White blood cell count: 870. Diameter of the probe tip. B. infectious mononucleosis. Position of the mucogingival junction. Which of the following does NOT affect probing depth measurement? A. acute myelogenous leukemia. thrombocytopenic purpura. (2) and (4) (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) All of the above. rigid clasping. What percentage of 5 . Angulation of the probe. gingival inflammation. subgingival calculus. file. Periodontitis is clinically differentiated from gingivitis by the amount of A. B. maximum tissue coverage. He has malaise. nonsurgical root canal therapy only. In planning a bilateral distal extension (freeend) mandibular removable partial denture. B. The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is A.000/mm3 Normal Values: Hb: 14-18g/100ml Platelets: 150. D. 2. Subgingival calculus. B.17 year olds in North America are caries free? A. E. ultrasonic scaler. discomfort of the patient. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A.60 65 .000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3 White blood cell count: 5.25 30 . the most important considerations are 1. C. C.900. B. D.

D. None of the above. decreased short scale image contrast. a medium that aids in producing a hard surface on the gypsum cast. C. B. means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. C. interfering with the degradation of histamine. D. None of the above. C. D. B. collimate the useful beam of rays. a shorter retentive arm. B. a lubricant between the impression material and the gypsum cast. altering the formation of histamine. B. Plasma cells. . decreased long scale image contrast. 3. a shallower undercut. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children? A. Erosion. Increasing the kVp results in A. B. increased long scale image contrast. increased short scale image contrast. E. D. D. Neutrophils. Hypoplasia. C. Deficiency of vitamin D. 2. B. Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. C. Macrophages. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Which of the following conditions may result from cross-brushing the teeth? A. A. increasing the action of histaminase. Abrasion Attrition. A lead diaphragm in X-ray units serves to A. D. 4. C. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. Antihistamines act by A. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. B. D. more taper.The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy. C. compared to a Type IV gold alloy. produce a more homogeneous X-ray beam. Lymphocytes. Severe enamel hypoplasia. B. a medium that aids in producing distinct details on the surface of the resultant gypsum cast. E. D. The exudate produced on the surface of an alginate impression through syneresis acts as A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. prevent secondary radiation. All of the above. Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1.

increased strength. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. refer to a psychologist for evaluation. B. better polishability. D. D. mutans to decrease pH and promote caries activity. convert lactate to acetic and propionic acid. B. 2. has a definite predilection toward males. 3. act as pioneer microorganisms in the development of plaque. E. extreme malaise. 2.Juvenile periodontitis A. D. the error is likely to be in the A. B. 3. D. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by 1. Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Class III malocclusion with spacing due to a combination of vertical and anteroposterior maxillary deficiency should be started A. C. reduced thermal dimensional changes. preparation of the teeth. C. A maxillary complete denture exhibits more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. B. D. is associated with gram-negative anaerobic flora. just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt. Compared to unfilled resins. You would A. enhance the progression of caries by metabolizing sucrose. 3. B. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. composite resins have 1. shortly after eruption of the upper second permanent molars. is associated with gram-positive anaerobic flora. is associated with root caries. . is completely surrounded by soft tissue. A. rapid weight loss and night sweats. C. 2. D. reduced polymerization shrinkage. covers a greater area. When a partial denture framework fits the master cast but does not fit properly in the mouth. impression making. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. C. refer to an orthodontist. act symbiotically with S. 4. immediately following the pre-pubertal growth spurt. B. fever or chills. Veillonella species in supragingival plaque A. shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars. a smooth and red tongue. B. C. C. A. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. C. 4. An 11-year old child has an open bite caused by active thumbsucking. design of the framework. A. E. D. insert a habit-breaking appliance. candidiasis. casting of the framework. B. E. encourage the child to accept help in discontinuing the habit and observe periodically. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

normal maxillary position. B. a Class II. B. E. mandibular retrusion. following fractures. C. D. E. C. The condylar inclination. E. Salivary glands. if cavities develop. B. All of the above. dental implants. C. E. guiding planes. myocardial infarction. D. The compensating curve. Secondary dentin will develop A. vitamin C deficiency. 3. A. shape. which of the following can be modified to achieve the desired occlusion? 1. traumatic occlusion. maxillary protrusion. with the maxilla more protrusive than the mandible. 2. an effort is made to secure parallel tooth surfaces to act as A. bracing areas. In Angle's classification. . occlusal rest areas. normal mandibular position. Overlapped interproximal contacts in a bitewing radiograph are due to improper collimator A. C. B. Localized gingival recession of a mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by A. D. None of the above. B. 3. 2. D. 4. coronary artery disease. B. The orientation of the occlusal plane. C. Sweat glands. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. During the fabrication of new complete dentures. Fingernails. B. valvular heart disease. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. division 1 malocclusion may describe a combination of skeletal problems. C. if the teeth become abraded. Antibiotic coverage should be provided when performing subgingival curettage for patients with A. maxillary protrusion. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. due to chemical irritation.Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. vertical angle. mandibular retrusion. E. bimaxillary protrusion. C. B. D. 4. The cusp inclination. A. In designing a removable partial denture. Hair. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. horizontal angle. C. D. Teeth. such as 1. D. length. ankyloglossia.

muscular dystrophy. remove any excess before the cement is set. it is recommended to A. Aortic. When using a zinc phosphate cement to lute a full crown. C. E. C. 4. oxytalin. A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in A. initial contact. tetanus. (1) only (1) and (4) (1) (2) (3) All of the above. C. mix the cement on a waxed paper pad. reticulin. exposure time (s). 100% relative humidity. Mean x-ray beam energy is a function of A. B. Clindamycin. D. B. it should be placed in A. D. not be distorted by instruments. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. D. be obtained using electrosurgery. collagen. C. Gingival connective tissue fibres are primarily composed of A. C. be fixed within 30 minutes after removal. tube voltage (v). tube current (a). B. B. Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease? A. A.A biopsy specimen should 1. infection. collimation. E. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. B. D. B. water. Mitral. C. B. maximum intercuspation. . Erythromycin. mandibular fracture. D. Tricuspid. normal rest position. elastin. B. Penicillin. Tetracycline. 2. Pulmonary. C. D. B. If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured. Trismus is most frequently caused by A. be representative of the lesion. C. Chloramphenicol. apply continuous occlusal loading while the cement sets. 3. D. protrusive position. maximum opening. C. leave the tooth moist but not wet. D.

Your treatment of the deciduous tooth is to A. B. Vitamin D is a factor in The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth would MOST likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the A. C. The retention of an indirect. repair of hypoplastic defects of the enamel. mesial of a mandibular first premolar. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. 4. are taking anticoagulants. excess iodine. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. central fibroma. B. C. D. 2. B. 3. are over age 80. 2. excess calcium. C. neurofibroma. D. caries susceptibility. 3. C. extract the tooth and maintain the space. B. insufficient fluoride. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. distal of a mandibular first premolar. calcium absorption. The second premolar is present radiographically. . The occlusal surface of a non-carious submerged mandibular deciduous second molar is level with the gingival margin. loosen the tooth to encourage eruption. B. have unrepaired cleft palates. 1. insufficient iodine. 4. C. periodontal cyst. B.Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of the posterior mandible shows microscopically follicular areas lined with cylindrical cells resembling the enamel organ. C. D. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. adding grooves. E. D. calculus formation. Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in patients who Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. E. E. ameloblastoma. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. D. D. distal of a mandibular first molar. C. cover the tooth with an oversized crown. B. D. wait for it to be exfoliated. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Mandibular growth A. excess sodium. A. lengthening the clinical crown. A. E. C. an antirotation key. decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. dentigerous cyst. D. B. mesial of a mandibular first molar. extra-coronal restoration can be improved by 1.

3. Gram-negative aerobic rods. premolar extraction with orthodontic retraction of the incisors. pallor. E. most commonly affects the anterior gingiva. B. Smoker's melanosis A. Partial thromboplastin time. C. D. All of the above Which microorganisms predominate in early plaque? A. 2. C. elevation of blood pressure. tends to give rise to melanoma. ectodermal dysplasia. B. Which of the following congenital problems most often results in a malocclusion? A. E. Maxillary incisor protrusion can be treated by 1. B. B. Bleeding time. premolar extraction with surgical repositioning of the anterior dentoalveolar segment. habitual occlusion. maximum contact between teeth occurs in the position of A. Pierre Robin syndrome. is painful. . C. pocket shrinkage. Prothrombin time or INR. C. cleidocranial dysostosis. B. D. D. D. Von Willebrand’s Factor. Gram-positive aerobic cocci. correction of pathological migration of teeth. A physical sign of impending syncope is A. D. All of the above. decreased hemorrhage during surgery. protrusive excursion. C. 4. extraction of the incisors. C. Before a planned extraction of tooth 3. resolves within a few weeks after quitting smoking.In chewing. D. reduction and genioplasty. improved healing after surgery. the patient’s coagulation mechanism should be evaluated using which test? A. C. D. A. A. B. B. Gram-negative aerobic cocci. lateral excursion on the non-working side. Storage in air. Your patient is currently on warfarin. D. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci. cleft palate. Storage in 2 percent solution of potassium sulfate for 60 minutes. D. evaluation of the patient's motivation. C. C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Storage in 100 percent humidity for 30 minutes. alveoloplasty and prosthodontic replacement. Initial scaling and oral hygiene instruction in the treatment of periodontitis results in all of the following EXCEPT Which of the following prevents distortion of a reversible hydrocolloid impression material? A. fast pulse. B.4. E. Slow removal from undercuts. Gram-positive aerobic rods.

In Angle's classification. D. Polymerization shrinkage associated with the setting of composite resins is a result of A. maxillary protrusion. photographs. D. normal mandibular position. Division 1 malocclusion may describe a combination of skeletal problems. C. family history. No treatment. All of the above. unreacted monomer evaporating from the set material. Probe type. a Class II. photographs. bi-maxillary protrusion. D. lidocaine. C. aminophylline. Gingivoplasty. cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. with the maxilla more protrusive than the mandible. B. pterygomaxillary notches and the posterior nasal spine. photographs. such as A. C. D. D. cephalometric.The anatomical landmarks used to help establish the location of the posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture include the A. B. . Gingival graft. cephalometric. Lateral sliding flap. family history. temperature changes occurring during the polymerization reaction. All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias EXCEPT A. B. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival recession? A. mandibular retrusion. photographs. digitalis. cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. the palatine raphe and the posterior border of the palatine bone. C. C. maxillary protrusion. C. primary bonds replacing secondary bonds. B. mandibular retrusion. D. Angulation of probing. pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae. E. B. The diagnostic information for a 10 year old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include A. B. Probing force. D. B. C. anterior border of the tuberosities. posterior border of the tuberosities and the posterior border of the palatine bone. reaction by-products evaporating from the set material. panoramic and periapical radiographs. Which of the following factors may affect probing depth measurements of a periodontal pocket? A. E. Connective tissue graft. procainamide. All of the above. normal maxillary position. panoramic and periapical radiographs.

Wolff's Law states that bone elements A. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5) A. axiopulpal. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Naso palatine. reduced thermal dimensional changes.During orthodontic therapy. linguopulpal. B. 4. 2. Compared to unfilled resins. C. Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for the removal of a maxillary first molar? 1. A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1. . rearrange themselves in the direction of functional pressures. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. increase their mass to reflect functional stress. B. E. None of the above. None of the above. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. C. increased strength. Greater palatine. unaffected. 3. E. C.6 is A. D. 5. increased in width. 3. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. D. A. E. D. decreased in width. Posterior superior alveolar. 3. A maxillary complete denture exhibits more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. B. decrease their mass to reflect functional stress. buccopulpal. D. D. C. Anterior superior alveolar. Middle superior alveolar. A. C. 2. the periodontal ligament (membrane) radiographically appears A. 4. covers a greater area. B. B. 4. mesiopulpal. 2. reduced polymerization shrinkage. composite resins have 1. C. B. All of the above. D. better polishability.

Vitality tests give negative readings. A serrated condenser tip. D. foramen ovale. E. D. all of the above. E. Resorption of root surfaces. Aortic. B. E. remove the teeth. B. D. A gingivectomy may be performed when there is/are A. which of the following is most directly responsible for tooth loss? A. D. foramen rotundum. The most appropriate management would be to When cementing an inlay. D. Mitral. Phenobarbital. B. an adequate zone of attached gingiva. 4. A patient has suffered a blow resulting in the loosening of three maxillary incisors. fill the root canals and replant. foramen lacerum. the best procedure to ensure accurate seating is a A. very thin mix of cement. In patients with periodontal disease. C. C. splint the teeth and treat endodontically immediately. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. minimal horizontal bone loss. C. treat endodontically. B. B. 3. B. Destruction of supporting alveolar bone. All of the above. Tricuspid. D. Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease? A. D. continuous firm pressure on the inlay until the cement is set. None of the above. Diazepam. C. Which of the following is/are essential when using a spherical rather than an admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration? 1. a gingival pocket. Leukoplakia.Which of the following will allay or minimize the emotional factors which may predispose to syncope? A. B. C. 2. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the cranium through the A. . Stomatitis medicamentosa. Xerostomia. thick mix of cement. foramen spinosum. B. C. rapid and heavy application of pressure until the inlay is seated. D. D. A. C. Necrosis of exposed cementum. A. B. Which oral condition predisposes to caries? A. E. stylomastoid foramen. E. An anatomical wedge. check vitality in one month and if negative. A larger diameter condenser tip. C. perform pulpectomies on the teeth. Secobarbital. no infrabony defects. C. Pharyngitis. Inflammation and thickening of the periodontal ligament. A thinner matrix band. splint the teeth. Pulmonary. Gingival inflammation.

cranio-facial dysjunction. postmenopausal osteoporosis. . B. D. High protein diet. C. rapidly degraded by released enzymes. that forms bone. High carbohydrate diet. increased vascularity of the jaws. A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A.Which of the following basic forcep movements is NOT used for extracting teeth? A. Prolonged fasting. The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics? A. D. which forms collagen. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. B. diluted by the edematous fluid. of the endosteum. She also has low serum PT4 and vitamin D. small underdeveloped roots. The most likely cause of a reduced alveolar bone mass in this patient is A. Local anesthetics are less effective in inflamed tissue because they are A. Rotational. that resorbs bone. C. An osteoclast is a cell A. B. (A) and (B) All of the above. D. Which of the following may result in acetone breath? A. osteomalacia. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. C. A 75-year old female patient is being treated for oral lichen planus with a topical corticosteroid. The radiographs of dentinal dysplasia Type I show A. obliteration of pulp chambers and root canals. Lingual (palatal). C. B. B. rapidly redistributed by the increased blood flow. senile osteoporosis. E. Resorbs along the posterior rami. D. B. Mesial. drug-induced osteoporosis. deformity of the jaws. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. Poor oral hygiene. C. Has completed 100% of its growth by age 13 in females. Has latent post pubertal growth potential. D. increased brittleness of the jaws. D. B. ionized by the acidic pH. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. D. C. B. Apical. B. E. involvement of primary as well as permanent teeth. fracture of the zygomatic arch. D. C. C. D. reduced vascularity of the jaws. Grows more vertically than horizontally. C.

D. place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately. This will necessitate A. a new facebow transfer. The use of an intra-coronal attachment is CONTRAINDICATED for a A. B. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and restore with a MOD amalgam. 24 to 48 hours. Your instructions should be to Deposition of plaque on teeth occurs in A. C.6 with the best prognosis is to A. restore with a MOD amalgam. A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam restoration has just had endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4. E. D. tooth with short crown length. asthma. The direct immunoflourescence pattern seen in pemphigus vulgaris has been described as A. It is decided to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm. tooth supported partial dentures. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your office in a week's time. C. C. a change in the condylar guide settings. Casts have been mounted on an articulator. nonvital tooth. corrugated. rhinophyma. less than 24 hours. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately. E.6 but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated final restoration. B. 2 to 4 days. A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact. C. place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day. soap-bubble. B. D. an increase of the rest vertical dimension. A. C. B. chicken wire. a new centric relation record. emphysema. cardiac insufficiency. You would suspect A. cotton wool. B. . Interim restorative management of 4. B. D. E. B. 5 to 7 days. C. D. A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. selection of different teeth. D. D. C. target-like.Interocclusal records for an edentulous patient have been established. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore with a MOD amalgam. tooth requiring a core procedure build up.

C. Which of the following factors influence(s) the development of root caries? 1. B. In an acute upper airway obstruction. polymerization shrinkage. thyroid notch. observation. linear expansion. pulp capping procedures. D. dimensional stability. B. C. B.A rubber dam should be used in A. the entry to the airway on an emergency basis should be made at the A. D. In a 4 year old child. cricoid cartilage. early apical abscess formation. The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is A. The anatomy of the cemento-enamel junction. D. E. Fish. Eggs. Which of the following would maximize vitamin E intake following osseous surgery? A. by-product formation. . acute inflammation of the pulp. Polyvinylsilopane impression materials have high A. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an A. 3. B. composite placement. B. 2-5mg. The treatment of choice is A. extraction. first tracheal ring. D. C. E. E. A diet high in refined carbohydrates. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. D. C. pulpotomy. Periodontal disease. D. the primary central incisor has discoloured following a traumatic injury. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. C. D. On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30. at the cementoenamel junction. the normal alveolar crest is A. Xerostomia. Lettuce. B. amalgam placement. 4. D. not clearly distinguishable. Wheat germ. 30-60mg. D. thyroid membrane. 500-1000mg. B. cricothyroid membrane. C. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. 250-500mg. C. B. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. all of the above. 2. pulpectomy. pulpal abscess. C. A.

A. C. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. nasion. highly esthetic. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (5) The major advantage of glass ionomer cement as a restorative material is that it is A. sella turcica. C. First molars. Which of the following impression materials has the best dimensional stability? A. D. 2. D. In cephalometry. Which of the following would maximize vitamin E intake following osseous surgery? A.A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required 1. 2. B. E. 4. C. A. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Eggs. Surgical mask. B. D. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. In the maxilla. D. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. D. for caries prevention. Fish. Polysulfide rubber. Staff education. B. B. C. High velocity suction. highly translucent. a bonded amalgam. A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. D. First premolars. D. 4. B. C. Third molars. . Which of the following procedures should be used to reduce the risk of exposure to mercury vapour? 1. B. A. to increase retention. Second incisors. 3. C. a fluoride releasing material. 2. Broadbent's point. Wheat germ. C. to reach sound tooth structure. 3. Polyvinylsiloxane. First incisors. which of the following teeth may drain through the palatal plate of bone and present as a palatal abscess? 1. Condensation silicone. for esthetics. Irreversible hydrocolloid. 4. B. E. 3. 5. the most stable point in a growing skull is the A. B. unaffected by moisture during the setting reaction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. Rubber dam. C. Bolton point. Lettuce. E.

E. a cemento-enamel projection. Topical bovine thrombin. All of the above. delayed tooth eruption. ensuring maximum distribution of occlusal forces. Absorbable gelatin sponge. Frequency. C.Which of the following will produce hemostasis when applied topically? A. . C. D. providing relief between the connector and the gingiva. Microfibrillar collagen. B. Suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. B. pocket formation. a bifurcation ridge. Which of the following factors is(are) related to a malocclusion caused by thumbsucking? A. early tooth eruption. E. D. using split palatal bars. Which of the following are signs of aggressive periodontitis? 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. narrow root separation. 4. temporomandibular joint pain dysfunction syndrome. Rapid attachment loss. D. increase depth of anesthesia. Prevention of gingival irritation by a major connector of a removable partial denture is accomplished by A. D. C. pulp calcifications. Intensity. 2. D. reduce likelihood of allergic reaction. B. A. gingival recession. supernumerary teeth. 3. wide root separation. The most likely indication of a poor periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. All of the above. C. Reduced thyroid hormone level in a child is associated with A. E. increase duration of anesthesia. 2. D. B. A common clinical sign of occlusal traumatism is A. Duration. B. Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic formulations in order to 1. B. C. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. Oxidized cellulose. tooth mobility. C. B. reduce likelihood of systemic toxicity. C. E. D. A. Onset before the age of 35. reducing the size of the connector. 3. Ulcerations of the gingiva. lack of tooth eruption. B.

B. A. C. decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. 3. A. B. Hypoparathyroidism. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. D. more precise control of tooth movement. pulp stones. 2. The retention of an indirect. E. Manufacturer’s defect. C. an adequate pulp chamber and ferrule. Patients with occlusal parafunctional habits may present A. D. D. D. serial extraction is best applied to patients with Class I occlusions with crowding of A. D. D. C. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. C. a pulp chamber. E. Use of 30 gauge short needles. soreness in jaw muscles. a decreased force. An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for endodontically treated molar teeth requires Which of the following is the most common reason for the breakage of a local anesthetic needle when performing an inferior alveolar block? A. C. and C. Hyperthyroidism. D. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. the use of retentive threaded pins. a greater range of activation. Addison’s disease. D. adding grooves. Radiographic examination shows generalized loss of the lamina dura and a “ground glass” appearance of the bone. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. 4. C. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. Too rapid injection of the local anesthetic. lengthening the clinical crown. the presence of a post. E. B. secondary cementum. A. tooth mobility. primary dentin. B. ferrule and amalgam bonding. B. C. extra-coronal restoration can be improved by 1. All of the above. an antirotation key. tertiary dentin. Loops and helices in wires are used in orthodontic appliances to provide A. All of the above. In its classic form. C. B. B. . Hyperparathyroidism. B. occlusal wear facets. A 65 year old patient has a tendency for urinary tract stones. Use of 25 gauge long needles. Hypothyroidism.

D. pain. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. women over 70 years require more than men over 70 years. B. 2. E. mental confusion. D. more calcium is required during pregnancy and lactation. caries involves the inner half of the dentin.In an insulin dependent diabetic. genetic. angular cheilitis. hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. 4. D. 4. A. acid. functional. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. adult men and women require the same amount. B. epigenetic. you would most likely see 1. erythematous oral mucosa. 3. boys require more calcium than girls. tachycardia. glossitis. A. 4. a high narrow palate. A. D. 2. 4. lesion is less than halfway through the enamel. B. lesion is more than halfway through the enamel. In a chronic mouth breather. C. 2. B. The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is 1. E. E. D. D. aldehyde. Regarding the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for calcium. nausea. 3. ester. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. sweating. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. 3. C. under the age of 18. D. C. enamel is stained and not demineralized. environmental. amide. a crossbite a Class II malocclusion. B. C. . C. short lower face height. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. A smooth surface coronal white spot carious lesion that is visible when the tooth is both wet and dry indicates that the A. B. C. B. A. 2.

the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. D. D. posterior composite resin. increase its fusion temperature. D. B. D. B. B. Ludwig's angina. 3. Na2O) in porcelain will A. B. Immediately following a left posterior superior alveolar nerve block injection. apply a cold compress. The immediate treatment should be to 1. a blockage of Wharton's duct. Which of the following analgesics is CONTRAINDICATED for the long-term management of myofascial pain syndrome? A. Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of A. E. Resorption of the alveolar crest. E. low when compared to the average total amount of radiation received. Apical migration and disintegration of the epithelial attachment. C. All of the above. 2. B. increase its chemical reactivity. decrease its potential for devitrification upon heating. D.As gingival inflammation progresses to marginal periodontitis. C. D. Acetaminophen with codeine. refer for immediate medical treatment. about the same as the average amount received from medical sources. about the same as the average amount received from cosmic radiation.. Oxycodone. . C. C. Acetylsalicylic acid with codeine. B. C. The average annual dose of ionizing radiation that a patient receives from dental radiographs is A. C. a blockage of Stensen's duct. None of the above. Ibuprofen. a ranula. C. apply pressure. The most appropriate restoration for a primary molar with extensive carious destruction of the crown is a A. an epidemic parotitis. administer 0. pin retained amalgam. CaO. 4. D.3mg epinepherine (sublingually). (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. Destruction of the alveolar crest and periodontal ligament fibres. glass ionomer. Increasing the amount of network modifiers (e. A. the associated changes are: A.g. decrease its thermal expansion. B. greater than the average amount received from natural sources. stainless steel crown.

B. Streptococcus pyogenes. Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. compared to a Type IV gold alloy. D. B. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. caries risk for patients with poor oral hygiene. C.The advantage of a posterior composite resin restoration when compared to amalgam is an immediate reduction in A. B. palatal surface of maxillary anterior teeth. C. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative pulpitis). E. interproximal areas. E. technique sensitivity. All of the above. marginal leakage. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in sputum suggests the presence of A. B. means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. D. pulp hyperemia. a shallower undercut. C. B. 4. buccal and lingual surfaces of molars. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. competing for nutrients in the tissue environment of the microorganisms. Which one of the following describes the position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. 3. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. D. . inhibiting the biosynthesis of paminobenzoic acid. Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. B. coarse diamond finish. a shorter retentive arm. E. Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. D. bifurcations and trifurcations. B. space for the veneer material. D. D. interfering with the synthesis of folic acid. A. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. interfering with the synthesis of cell wall protein. The mode of action of the sulfonamides upon susceptible bacteria is by A. C. D. a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic pulpitis). Infrabony lesions may occur at the A. D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy. Diplococcus pneumoniae. chronic apical abscess. post-operative sensitivity. more taper. late stage of acute pulpitis (acute suppurative pulpitis). C. C. 2. definite gingival finish line. C. B.

C. E. extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed. resist the forces of mastication. C. setting of condylar guidance. mounting of the casts in the articulator. B. C. 250-500mg. D. is not influenced by the amount of horizontal overjet. Long-acting barbiturates are mainly excreted by the A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. C. B. The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation diverge toward the occlusal surface in order to A circumferential clasp arm on a tooth is one which A. small intestine. D. In the preparation of gypsum products. salivary glands. traverses a portion of the suprabulge of the tooth. C. All of the above. canine guidance or group function on the working side. 500-1000mg. increase the surface hardness. an absence of contact on cingulums during protrusion. B. processing of acrylic. C. registration of jaw relation records. prevent undermining of the marginal ridges. B. C. D. an increase in the water/powder ratio will A. A.Incisal guidance A. is one of the determinants of articulation. D. kidneys. 2-5mg. D. is not influenced by the amount of vertical overlap. originates above the height of contour. contact between posterior teeth during protrusion. A. B. None of the above. D. A. increase the compressive strength. None of the above. B. B. posterior tooth contact on the non-working side. approaches the undercut from an occlusal direction. E. C. 30-60mg. An ideal occlusion has The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is A. D. accelerate the setting reaction. All of the above. . D. B. directs the mandible into centric relation as the mandible protrudes. provide resistance and retention form. None of the above.

10mg every 4 . retain the crown.6 hours p. . midline relation. 2. B. A drug acting to keep potassium channels open will A. 2mg every 4 . C.A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. shorten action potential duration. prevent root discolouration. B. gout. B.r. have no effect on neuron membrane potential. 800mg 1 hour pre-operatively followed by 400mg every 4 . A.r.r. E. Ibuprofen. E. C. patient with a confirmed allergy to codeine. Acetaminophen. canine relation. Hydromorphone. 4. 3. E. D. To ensure the greatest accuracy. C. D. Sinus infection. molar relation.n. B. B. The purpose of a post and core restoration is to A. C. Still's disease. D. B. rheumatoid arthritis. incisor relation.n. within 8 hours. In a patient who has prematurely lost deciduous molars. rheumatic fever. within 10 minutes.6 hours p. after 24 hours. E. A. seal the root canal treatment. For a 20 year old. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. C. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 80kg. Ketorolac.n. profile. 2. Blowing the nose.n. Poor flap design. D. you would establish the Angle classification by A.6 hours p. Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oro-antral fistula? 1. osteoarthritis. reinforce the remaining tooth structure. depolarize neurons. hyperpolarize neurons. D. 4.r. C. D. Excessive tissue tension.6 hours p. This history is suggestive of A. within 1 hour. 650mg with oxycodone. B. rubber base impressions should be poured A. D. which of the following is/are appropriate for pain control following the removal of an impacted third molar? 1. 10mg every 4 .

An antipyretic drug A. D. chewing gum. reactive fibrosis. B. rough surface for improved bonding. The inverse square law states that if 100 x-ray photons are measured 1m from a point source of radiation. hematoma. D. margin well below the gingival crest. capillary fragility. A. D. image definition. cheese. D. C. E. C. measurement of the defect. reduces fever. causes loss of consciousness. definite finish line. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. A. 33. . B. edema. 50.Radiographs of a periodontally related osseous defect show the A. C. counters the tendency for epileptic seizures. apples. All of the above. creates heat sensitivity. secondary radiation. E. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must create a/an A. D. C. tissue infiltration by cells. E. The greatest cariogenic potential is exhibited by A. D. 3. B. D. 2. Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce Endotoxin is 1. 10. radiation received by patient. C. Gingival enlargement observed in acute leukemia is due to A. C. provides analgesia. B. number of bony walls. a cell wall component of gram-negative bacteria. raisins. C. C. 25. None of the above. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. the number of photons measured at 2m from the same source would be A. radiographic contrast. B. 4. D. B. present in diseased root cementum. a potent inflammatory agent. B. B. location of the epithelial attachment.

B. B. a chronic periapical abscess. Insulin. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (1) and (4) All of the above. None of the above. C. reduce sensitivity of freshly cut dentin. D. the mental foramen. D. provide thermal insulation to the pulp. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. C. 3. a periapical cyst. B. a dead soft matrix band. A. D. in random cycles. using split palatal bars. permit smaller volumes to be used. D. Destruction of bone in periodontal disease occurs A. D. D. provide a barrier to the passage of irritants from restorative materials. All of the above. continuously. Dicumarol. C. A. increase duration of action. reducing the size of the connector. (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (1) (2) (3) All of the above. providing relief between the connector and the gingiva. in cycles lasting for about 3~months. A. B. E. 4. retard absorption. B. D. a larger diameter condenser. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. None of the above. Cements used as cavity liners A. 2. The radiolucency is most likely A. C. Prevention of gingival irritation by a major connector of a removable partial denture is accomplished by A. 3. 4. 2. Cortisone. . Nitroglycerin. have low toxicity when given intravenously. 4. E. an anatomical wedge. decreased condensing pressure. A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. B. ensuring maximum distribution of occlusal forces. Which of the following drugs taken by a patient will influence your periodontal treatment planning? 1. 3. C. B. 2. C. a periapical granuloma. Vasoconstrictors in a local anesthetic solution 1.Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration 1.

at the alveolar crest. gingivitis. D. C. D. A. Development of new caries lesions. Unconsciousness in syncope results from A. D. convenience form. D. C. electrolyte imbalance. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. resistance form. C. A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be caused by 1. temporomandibular joint dysfunction. fusion. B. B. D. Replacement of old restorations within the last year. at the apices. Which of the following would characterize a patient assessed with a moderate-to-high caries risk? 1. Cementoblasts. E. C. a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. cerebral hypoxia. B. retention form. B. excessive occlusal load. D. B. cerebral hyperemia. B. Following root planing. B. The joining together of two teeth in the root portion through cemental union is known as A. B. 3. Placement of new restorations for caries within the last 2 years. dislodgement of the saddle area during mastication. D. 2. C. Odontoblastic processes. 2. concrescense. Presence of arrested caries lesions. radiographic bony changes from an infection are initially seen A. gemination. use of an inappropriate luting material. C. outline form. at the base of the developing tooth. D. A Kennedy Class II denture with no provision for indirect retention causes A. . (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. inadequate ceramic thickness. C. E. Free nerve endings. 4. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. resorption of the supporting edentulous area. in the furcation area. C. twinning. Golgi receptor. In primary molars. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.The placement of a reverse curve in a Class II amalgam preparation aids in A. 3. 4. neurogenic shock.

reduce exposure time. erythema multiforme. C. B. The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray beam is to A. C. Restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months. D. B. function of the clasp arm to counteract the retentive clasp arm. double-papilla pedicle graft. permit use of the long cone technique. B.The developing permanent tooth A. Bleeding time. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. neutrophils. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best accomplished with a/an A. D. D. which of the following restorative treatments is most appropriate? A. E. C. aphthous ulceration. Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin. herpes simplex. lymphocytes. D. Excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. C. filter out useless short rays. C. apically repositioned flap. reduce the diameter of the primary beam. C. Prothrombin time. D. free gingival graft. All of the above. B. return to a passive state of the flexed clasp. E. E. function of the occlusal rest to counteract occlusal forces. D. . resistance to flexion of the clasp arm. fibroblasts. lies apically and lingually to primary teeth in the anterior region. B. has a more protrusive path of eruption in the anterior region. B. laterally positioned sliding flap. B. which of the following should be evaluated? A. C. Clotting time. Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of A. Place amalgam restorations over the next few months. lichen planus. coronally positioned flap. may show deviated eruption times if the primary tooth is lost prematurely. D. D. C. permit the use of lower kilovoltage during exposure. After initiating preventive management for a 16 year old patient with multiple extensive carious lesions. Reciprocation as applied to cast removable partial dentures refers to the A. plasma cells. Delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. B. Coagulation time.

Decreasing the mixing time. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) and (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) and (5) E. sulcus depth. B. D. B. E. silver tin. lingual. Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. D. The highest risk of radiation-induced congenital organ deformity occurs during the A. In low copper (e. carbohydrates. copper tin. glucagon. D. fenestration. crater. festoon. D. In the examination of the child patient. B. 2.The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the A. D. 5. C. normal gingiva is diagnosed on the basis of 1. Using warmer water. third trimester. C. tight fitting gingival collar. B. C. D. C. contour. make it possible to use higher kilovoltage for improving image quality. E. C. first trimester. C. B. color of Nasmyth's membrane. absorb long wave length radiation in the primary beam. neonatal period. the most susceptible phases to corrosion are A. buccal or lingual. insulin. A filter is inserted in the path of the x-ray beam to A. oxygen. 4. A. dehiscence. Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. C. D. epinephrine. absorb stray radiation. B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. tin mercury. Cu = 4% by weight in the alloy powder) dental amalgam restorations. E. B. C. buccal.g. limit the area of surface exposure. absorb backscatter radiation. A narrow triangular-shaped gingival recession over the root of a tooth is called a A. B. second trimester. stippling. Hypoglycemia in the conscious patient is best managed with A. . silver mercury. 3. cleft.

2. attached gingiva A. All of the above. E. ameloblastoma. C. Enamel. D. The most appropriate management would be to A. E. B. E. is bound firmly by the periosteum to the alveolar bone. Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of the posterior mandible histologically shows follicular areas lined with columnar cells resembling the enamel organ. if the malrelationship is corrected now. Type IV gold alloy. 5. central fibroma. is attached by collagen fibres to the cementum. C. dentigerous cyst. A. stabilize the abutment teeth. 2. future growth will likely undo the correction. 4. C. The diagnosis is a/an A. white lesion of the buccal mucosa has not resolved after elimination of all local irritants. Composite resin. Traumatic injury. A. D. the incisor malrelationship should be corrected now. D. In health. B. C. C. apply toluidine blue staining. Cementoma. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. B. which may be associated with root resorption? 1. neurofibroma. Hypercementosis. E. lateral periodontal cyst. D. E. . the child has a growth problem and occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete. B. B. B. The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to 1. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. Among the following. Silicate cement. 3. perform an incisional biopsy. act as an indirect retainer. A 2cm. has a keratinized surface. the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge-to-edge. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above. C. D. You should advise the parent that A. Periapical granuloma. C. future growth is likely to correct this problem. Which of the following is the hardest? A. B. refer patient to family physician. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. D. E. discrete. cauterize it. Amalgam. Excessive orthodontic forces. D. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation. 3.A l0-year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor cross-bite when in centric occlusion. displays varying degrees of stippling. re-examine at 6 month intervals.

4. Reaction to epinephrine. D. Polysulfide. The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is 1.On an edentulous patient. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow. assess the vertical dimension. the patient starts sweating. immediate allergic reaction. What is the most probable cause? A. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. For prevention of cross infection. C. surgical emphysema. B. hematoma. more resistant than HIV. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. the patient complains of a tense sensation in the left cheek and left cheek swelling is observed. Vasovagal syncope. C. D. E. in higher numbers in blood than HIV. Shortly after the administration of a local anesthetic for the removal of tooth 2. Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate). C. Polyether. Ten minutes after the injection of local anesthetic.8. E. determine the level of muscle attachments. Polysiloxane. D. D. 3. D. C. Hyperglycemia. A type 2 diabetic patient is having a surgical extraction. All of the above. becomes pale and agitated and has an increased heart rate. identify systemic problems affecting the soft tissues of the mouth. develop into a Class I occlusion with late mandibular growth. transmissible through saliva. 2. reveal retained roots or residual areas of infection. B. C. autoclave resistant. D. . herniation of buccal fat pad. a panoramic radiograph is used to A. A Class II dental occlusion in the mixed dentition will likely A. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. A. B. B. C. Hypoglycemia. develop into a Class I occlusion after normal exfoliation of the primary molars. which of the following impression materials CAN be treated with a disinfecting spray solution? A.

A. B. adequate length for retention-resistance. conical teeth. D. . E. 4. difficulty with extraction. An ankylosed primary molar can cause 1. fair hair. time factor in treatment. B. Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs from melanoma because melanoma A. A. 2. a single path of insertion. hyperthyroidism. E. had a myocardial infarct two months ago. D. E. B. D. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. cystic fibrosis. multiple myeloma. has a Factor VIII deficiency. C. affects the gingiva. is 4 months pregnant.Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who 1. Adult orthodontics is limited by the A. delayed eruption of the succedaneous tooth. ectodermal dysplasia. 4. C. Radiolucent lesions of the jaws can be seen in 1. The most likely diagnosis is A. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. 2. D. 3. D. scanty. 4. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. alteration of arch length. C. undergoes clinical changes. 3. age of the patient. B. 2. health of the supporting structures. B. hyperparathyroidism. is hypothyroid. D. density of the bone. fine. is macular. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic. A patient presents with hypodontia. A. E. 2. fibrous dysplasia. and an intolerance to hot weather. D. 3. The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide 1. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. achondroplasia. C. missing teeth. supraeruption of the opposing teeth. contains melanin. E. malignant hyperthermia. C.

B. lincomycin. B. Blood supply to the lungs. . Incisive canal cyst. palatal cyst. The beaks of extraction forceps A. During routine examination. Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of induction during inhalation anesthesia? A. E. ampicillin. C. can cause fracture or injury to adjacent teeth.5mm to lingual while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. The most appropriate management is to A. C. should be placed at the cervical line of the tooth to be extracted. C. extract the ectopically erupting premolar. Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence? A. E. B. C. erythromycin. D. tetracycline. D. B. B. should fit the crown of the tooth. Nasoalveolar cyst. granuloma. cephalosporin. The facial profile associated with a Class III malocclusion is A. fracture. Median palatal cyst. D. B. C. C. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. Odontogenic keratocyst. Concentration of the anesthetic in the inspired mixture. D. should be pushed lingually during extraction movements. should be sharpened after every use. . Solubility of the anesthetic in blood. concave. penicillin V. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. convex. metronidazole. it is noted that a premolar is erupting ectopically 3. D. Pulmonary ventilation. straight. E. D. C. penicillin V.It is possible to misdiagnose the midline palatal suture as a A. B. The antibiotic of choice for infections of pulpal origin is A. The antibiotic of choice for a periradicular dental abscess is A. erythromycin. D. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. abscess. Hemoglobin content of the blood. B. C. either concave or convex. D.

000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3 White blood cell count: 5. Polished gold. A blood examination reveals Hb: 8. B. lack of vertical overlap. D. B. Acrylic resin for denture bases. 4. C. mostly from the tissues. C. mostly from the abutment teeth. 2. C. exhibit greater flexibility.000-10. D. acute myelogenous leukemia.900. rapidly progressive periodontitis. nervous tension. D. (2) and (3) (1) and (2) (3) and (4) (1) and (4) A 20-year old male presents with a three-day history of an acute generalized gingivitis. fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.000/mm3 Normal Values: Hb: 14-18g/100ml Platelets: 150. chronic periodontitis. B. Trituration of amalgam.000-400. are more accurately adapted to the tooth. Hand instruments for placing resins. B.000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 3.9g/100ml Platelets: 82. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. Polished porcelain. C. incorrect centric relation position.000/mm3 White blood cell count: 870.000/mm3 The most likely diagnosis is A. C. Wrought gold alloy clasps are superior to cast gold clasps of the same cross-sectional area because they 1. thrombocytopenic purpura. C. B. D. Wettability is NOT a desirable property for which of the following? A. infectious mononucleosis. All things being equal. unbalanced occlusion. hyperplastic gingivitis. A. Dental impression materials.In patients wearing complete dentures. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues. A distal extension removable partial denture is one that receives its support A. 3. Polished acrylic. the most frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is A. B. D. Glazed porcelain. The epithelial attachment does not migrate apically in A. from the tissues only. D. He has malaise. juvenile periodontitis. D. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. C. E. . have a higher proportional limit. B. Uncured composite resins. which of the following pontic designs is the most likely to cause soft tissue irritation? A. E. are coarser grained.

nasal septum. B. D. A non-vital tooth with a cast post and core. B. C. Vitamin E. 3. B. D. Vitamin D. nasopalatine/incisive canal. C. Excessive overjet and overbite. A low caries index. C. 3. 4. Normal overjet and excessive overbite. E. B. muscle pull. B. A. C. 2. D. multinucleated giant cells. D. osteoblasts. Which two muscles are involved in sucking? A. proprioceptor nerve action. anterior nasal spine. Vitamin A. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and(4) (4) only All of the above. All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. Caninus and depressor angularis. Which of the following is necessary for collagen formation? A. direction of fracture line. C. 4. Corticosteroids may be used for the management of 1. asthma. B. B. 5. E. Addison's disease. . undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. allergy. D. C. zygomatic process of the maxilla. Which of the following is a clinical CONTRAINDICATION for an all-ceramic maxillary anterior crown? A. E. D. arthritis. Risorius and buccinator. ameloblasts. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. C. tooth in line of fracture. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo degeneration.Displacement of mandibular fractures is dependent upon 1. Vitamin K. A. (1) and (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) All of the above. 2. direction of blow. Vitamin C. D. they are replaced by A.

Edema of the lips. The prognosis for an avulsed tooth is principally affected by A. D. ameloblastoma. D. Pindborg tumor. 4. it progresses more quickly. 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. A. B. erythema multiforme. length of time the tooth was out of the mouth. removal of necrotic cementum. E. curette. D. a healthy adult patient rapidly develops a facial rash. pulp extirpation. periapical cemental dysplasia. Acetylsalicylic acid. dental plaque is not involved. Codeine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. thrush. aphthous stomatitis. C. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A. B. C. D. Shortness of breath. herpangina. D. sickle scaler. A. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. complex odontoma. B. D. D. file. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be watched for before initiating the planned dental treatment? 1. 2. condition of the socket when the tooth was replanted. B. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. Coxsackie A virus is the etiologic agent in A. herpes simplex. C. B. Ketorolac. . The initiation of cemental caries differs from enamel caries because A. D. it is usually associated with abrasion. lichen planus. C. ultrasonic scaler. E. 4. Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. Hyperventilation.Shortly after the administration of an inferior alveolar nerve block. C. Oxycodone. the age of onset is younger. B. 2. 3. B. Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of A. B. E. E. aphthous ulceration. hoe. E. Pallor and perspiration. C. C. compound odontoma. lichen planus.

C. E. D. A. 2. D. B. An acute periapical abscess must be associated with 1. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. E. sensitivity to percussion. D. Meperidine. mucous membrane pemphigoid. Triazolam. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. erythema multiforme. . Which of the following should be prescribed for a patient who cannot sleep because of frequent coughing spells? A. D. B.During routine examination. D. E. acute. 2. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. 4. B. B. 90°. loss of 2mm or more of the periodontal attachment. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. beveled. Diagnosis of periodontitis is clinically demonstrated by A. non-vital tooth. 3. All of the above. B. C. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. C. C. erosive lichen planus. C. it is noted that a premolar is erupting ectopically while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. pemphigus vulgaris. A. D. C. B. 4. depress reflex irritability. bleeding from the base of the periodontal pocket. Propoxyphene. pain. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The most appropriate management is to A. periapical radiolucency. C. 3. 4. control excess salivation. remove the primary tooth and place an orthodontic appliance immediately. avoid haemorrhage. Desquamative gingivitis is seen in 1. A patient is premedicated prior to general anaesthesia in order to 1. A. exudate from the periodontal pocket. Codeine. 3. The occlusal cavosurface margin for a Class I amalgam restoration should be A. chamfered. lessen metabolic activity.

D. No movement of second permanent molar. A. on the tongue. E. E. A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. None of the above. severely abnormal. 4. which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. the most valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the 1. white blood cell count. 4. B. C.5. D. at pH of 2. discontinued before four years of age. C. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. unilateral. a form of disease which heals by scarring. discontinued before eight years of age. C. Thumbsucking in most cases does not cause permanent harm to the dentition if the habit is Streptococcus mutans colonizes A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Recurrent herpes labialis is A. 3. B. 3. it seals the muco-gingival field. B. 2. B. it conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. pits and fissures of teeth. red blood cell count. C. C. E. seen more frequently in adult patients. B. not a contagious lesion. caused by a different organism than is primary herpetic stomatitis. it has opened gingival embrasures. D. . 2.Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer to a malocclusion in which the abnormal molar relationship was A. B. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. is light in intensity. a venereal disease. A. its gingival surface is convex in all directions. B. E. For an acute bacterial infection. only mildly abnormal. A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that 1. cusp surfaces of teeth. culture and sensitivity test. practised only at night. E. D. hemoglobin level. C. bilateral. A. 2. E. 3. coupled with labioversion of the maxillary incisors. Following loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8. D. Distal drift of second premolar. D. No movement of second premolar. 4.

F. 3. Among the following. A. Formocresol. D. Iodoform. A. Periodontal disease. A. E. D. 5.5. B.5 during the development of tooth 1. C. Cresatin. substitute agent for local anesthesia. Epinephrine (1:1000). Ferric sulfate (15%). D. Dental caries. 4. B. Excessive orthodontic forces. D. 13 to 16 years. B. Cleft lip and palate. Which medication is used to control pulpal hemorrhage when performing an emergency pulpotomy? A. 4. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.5.M. vitamin D deficiency. Any age.P. agent for conscious sedation. palliative treatment. C. generalized calcium deficiency. C. Cementoma. infection of tooth 5. 2. E. 6 to 12 years. B. steroid therapy. control of secondary infection. . E.C. agent for the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Traumatic injury. B. Hypercementosis. D. D. Periapical granuloma. general anesthetic agent. 2. B. hereditary factor. B. C. C. C. D. 3. A. Primary herpetic lesions of the oral cavity are MOST LIKELY to occur during A. The primary use of nitrous oxide and oxygen in dentistry today is as a(n) A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1. C. Which of the following oral diseases are largely preventable through lifestyle adjustments? 1. 4.Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include 1. E. Oral malignancies. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. C. This was most probably caused by a/an A. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide. E. which may be associated with root resorption? 1. 1 to 5 years. All other teeth are normal. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above. 3.

D. D. Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of 1. cancellous bone. thermal sensitivity. hyaluronidase. 3. Bacterial plaque. All of the above. B. B. incisional biopsy. 2.A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is A. amylase. C. periodontal ligament space. A. at which strain hardening ceases to occur. pulp exposures. lamina dura. C. A. cystologic smear. D. C. dextranase. streptokinase. observation. periodontal ligament invasion. beyond which plastic deformation begins to occur. Impaired polymorphonuclear phagocytosis. 4. D. utilizing grooves or boxes. B. horizontal bone loss. C. D. E. . The retention form of a full crown preparation can be improved by 1. Altered lymphocyte activity. cracks in the teeth. B. D. D. curettage. C. at which fracture occurs. In periodontal therapy. C. “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating 1. B. A. increasing its length. reducing its taper. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. cribriform plate. 3. 4. B. 2. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement. 3. C. a 3-walled infrabony defect. A radiographic term used to describe the dense bone image of the socket and septal crest is A. 4. 2. B. E. The best management for a gingival cyst of the newborn is A. cortical bone. What is the essential etiologic factor for generalized aggressive periodontitis? A. polishing the preparation. D. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. E. C. Generalized subgingival calculus. E. E. The proportional limit of a material is the stress A. at which elastic deformation first begins to occur. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. excisional biopsy.

edematous. C. cause the dentures to click. the uvula. D. over the buccal shelf area. C. the zygomatic process of the maxilla. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. reduce the tin-mercury phase. C. C. the enamel and in the dentin up to 1mm. A. . A. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above. gingivoplasty.Root planing is used in the treatment of pockets which are 1. impair aesthetics. A. osteoplasty. Use of air spray when condensing. D. increase expansion. B. C. B. C. D. B. An incipient carious lesion is described as being in Median anterior maxillary cysts are found in A. dentin without pulpal involvement. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. D. 4. 3. deep scaling. B. induce generalized soreness over the ridges. the hamular process. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) All of the above. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel. infrabony. None of the above. Reduction of free-way space in complete denture construction will 1. B. B. C. the cementum only. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge. C. To improve denture stability. A. 2. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. polishing or removing amalgam. 4. 3. below the mucogingival junction. E. traumatize the underlying supporting tissues. E. D. the enamel only. 2. D. fibrotic. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. the incisive canal. reduce tarnish resistance. make amalgamation easier. B. bone grafting. The main reason for adding copper to a dental amalgam alloy is to A.

desensitizing the roots with an appropriate medicament. is nonvital. A. 5. Use of high speed film. 3. has a periodontal pocket. 4. Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A. The basal lamina is divided into lamina lucida and lamina densa. D. E. 2. has a hyperemic pulp. lateral jaw radiographs. asthma. occlusion with posterior natural teeth. A lead apron. C. B. All of the above. which of the following should be used to decrease radiation exposure? 1. 3. After periodontal surgery. All of the above. adjusting the occlusion. C. D. anteroposterior radiograph of the skull. Which of the following statements is correct? A. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. A decrease of the kilovoltage to 50kVp. hyperthyroidism. B. . replaning the roots. an ill-fitting denture and poor oral hygiene. 2. B. free radicals. 4. clinical examination. D. The basal lamina is a product of epithelial cells. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. B. myxedema. C. 4. All of the above. heavy smoking. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. occlusal radiographs. (1) and (4) (2) and (5) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above. interference with mitotic activity of cells. Application of a radiation protection badge. A. 3. D.When taking radiographs on a 10 year old child. E. direct interactions. C. D. D. evidence of periorbital edema. B. D. keeping the roots free of bacterial plaque. C. A. B. hyperparathyroidism. C. B. E. Papillary hyperplasia on the palate of a patient wearing a maxillary complete denture is most likely to be associated with A. sensitivity to thermal change is reduced by 1. an allergy to the acrylic resin. C. B. 2. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. D. Epithelial cells are united to the basal lamina by hemidesmosomes. Fractures of the maxilla can best be diagnosed by 1. Biologic damage produced by ionizing radiation results from A.

D. rebound bleeding. B. C. C. lupus erythematosus. hours. lymphocytes. For a cast gold restoration. A. B. sloughing. eosinophils. minutes. Ameloblastoma. increases the thickness of gold. B. 3. C. (2) (3) (1) (4) (3) (2) (1) (4) (3) (2) (4) (1) (4) (1) (2) (3) When orthodontically retracting a maxillary right canine. 2. D. platelets. B. B. Periapical cemental dysplasia. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour. C. improves marginal adaptation. 4. D. D. B. D. A patient with multiple small bruises (purpura) most likely has a low count of A. C. 3. Maxillary canine. 4. lichen planus. late stage of acute pulpitis (acute suppurative pulpitis).Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. 1. protects the enamel. A. D. scleroderma. a minimal amount of anesthetic solution is used to prevent A. a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. erythema multiforme. pulp hyperemia. D. B. E. chronic apical abscess. blood flow to the periodontal ligament is altered within A. C. Maxillary central incisor. Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in the anterior region of the mandible? A. C. Maxillary first molar. Rank the following permanent teeth according to their ability to provide anchorage. tongue stiffness and generalized induration of the skin are characteristic of A. T-cells. 2. E. When performing a frenoplasty. a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic pulpitis). (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. malignant disease. chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative pulpitis). E. Central cementifying fibroma. days. dysphagia. . erythrocytes. D. irritation. E. distortion of the tissues. seconds. increases retention. B. Mandibular incisor. C. Difficulty in mouth opening.

acquired xerostomia. B. During the setting phase. at the cervical line. D. Lactobacilli. nine years. Ampicillin. within the apical half of the root. B. C. C.The primary etiological factor for the development of root caries is A. D. the most effective irrigating solution for dissolving organic debris is A. Streptococcus viridans. C. Metronidazole. B. Bone-to-bone. within the cervical one third of the root. D. eleven years. Enterococci. gingival recession. B. contraction. C. D. Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships? A. seven years. provide adequate posterior inter-arch space. In endodontic therapy. expansion. B. Tooth-to-bone. Staphylococcus aureus. cigarette smoking. sodium hypochlorite. gain in moisture content. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical procedure used to A. Staphylococcus albus. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth. All of the above. D. B. loss in compressive strength. C. thirteen years. C. The roots of the first permanent molar should be completely formed by the age of A. a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. B. D. E. Clindamycin. Erythromycin. D. C. D. D. B. facilitate reliable impression making. the centre of rotation is located A. . hydrogen peroxide. six years. what is the drug of first choice for antibiotic prophylaxis? A. C. sodium chloride. poor oral hygiene. B. Cephalexin. at the apex. Tooth-to-tooth. calcium hydroxide. allow placement of teeth over the residual ridge. E. increase the supporting surface area Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. E. For a patient allergic to penicillin. C. E.

osteoplasty. The redness of an inflammatory lesion of oral mucosa is due to A. C. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. B. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy. B. D. Sorbitol. bone grafting. D. B. C. 3. E. C.The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. C. deep scaling. nonsurgical root canal therapy only. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. C. increased size of capillaries. B. means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. . increased number of capillaries. more taper. E. an uncomplicated removal of a mandibular second molar. decreased thickness of epithelium. D. a shorter retentive arm. Mannitol. All of the above. The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is A. removal of an impacted mandibular third molar tooth. Xylitol. C. B. periodontal surgical therapy only. Which of the following sweeteners used in sugarless gum is most effective in preventing caries? A. periodontal surgical therapy before nonsurgical endodontic treatment. a shallower undercut. compared to a Type IV gold alloy. 2. an acute osteomyelitis of the mandible. D. decreased connective tissue elements. Glycerol. gingivoplasty. D. B. A. removal of a torus mandibularis. D. Loss of sensation over the distribution of the inferior dental nerve is a possible complication from 1.

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