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Which of the following is correct regarding primary health care system in In dia? a) No. of beds at PHC is around 15 b) Total PHCs in India are around 23000 c) PHCs are designated as First Referral Units (FRUs) of India d) Total CHC staff strength is 15 Q2. When a new treatment is developed that prevents death but does NOT produce c omplete recovery from a disease, the following will occur a) prevalence of the disease will decrease b) incidence of the disease will increase c) prevalence of the disease will increase d) incidence of the disease will decrease Q3. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist), what is not true a) One ASHA per 1000 population b) Is preferably a female worker, who should be minimum VIII pass c) Is 25-45 years age d) Is key health functionary of Reproductive and Child Health Programme wit h main impact indicator being reduction of Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) Q4. Regarding ESI, which of the following is true? a) ESI also cover defence, mines, railways sectors b) Payable sickness benefit is given for 81 days c) Union Minister of Labour is Chairperson of ESI Corporation d) ESI Act was passed in 1971 Q5. Saturated fat should not exceed what percent of the diet, for prevention of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% Q6. Incorrect match is Asbestos factory workers a) Asbestosis b) Bagassosis Sugarcane farmers c) Byssinosis Textile industry workers d) Silicosis Glass factory workers Q7. Ergonomics is a discipline that deals with a) human relationship in the specific context of production b) study of working environment c) study of the system of laws and institutions d) fitting the job to the workers Q8. Which is Incorrect about Gaussian distribution? a) 1SD covers 90% values b) 2SD covers 95% values c) 3SD covers 99% values d) 50% values lie below the median Q9. Which is incorrect according to Census 2001 for India? a) Growth rate of population is 1.93% b) Sex ratio is 933 c) Urban population was 21.8% d) Population count was taken as on 01 March Q10. In a study conducted, out of those exposed to risk factor 10 are diseased, and out of non-exposed only 5 are diseases. What is the relative risk? a) 50 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 5 Q11. Which is incorrect about a screening test? a) Sensitivity is equivalent to True positive b) Specificity is equivalent to True negative c) Sensitivity is equivalent to 1 False negative
d) Specificity is equivalent to 1 False negative Q12. Incorrect match about limiting amino acid is a) Wheat Threonine & Lysine b) Maize - Tryptophan c) Pulses - Alanine d) All of the above Q13. Which of the following is incorrect a) Edward Jenner First vaccine (small pox) used b) Hippocrates Father of Medicine c) Louis Pasteur Rabies vaccine & Germ theory of disease d) John Snow First true epidemiologist Q14. In Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT), Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed if venous p lasma glucose level at 2 hours is a) 110 mg/dl b) 140 mg/dl c) 160 mg/dl d) 200 mg/dl Q15. Not true regarding MTCT of HIV is a) Post Nevirapine prophylaxis, MTCT in India will become 15% b) MTCT through breast feeding is 12-16% c) Nevirapine for prevention of MTCT is given to newborn born of HIV+ mothe r within 72 hours of birth in a dose of 2mg/kg (mother receives 200 mg at onset of labour) d) Maximum chances of transmission is in III trimester Q16. Which pair of disease and vector is not correctly matched? a) Oriental sore Female Phlebotamus b) Onchocerciasis Simulum c) Epidemic typhus Louse d) Pneumonic Plague Xenopsylla cheopsis Q17. The contraceptive of choice (temporary) for and educated lady of 37 years i s a) Copper T b) Mala D c) Mala N d) Diaphragm Q18. Correct about Treatment under Leprosy programme is a) Multi-bacillary leprosy treatment is Rifampicin + Dapsone for 24 months b) Follow-up duration in PBL is 2 years, and in MBL is 5 years c) Treatment is ineffective for majority of cases d) Thalidomide is DOC for Lepra reactions type II Q19. According to National Program for Control of Blindness in India, for a Blin d person there is inability to count fingers at a distance of a) 1 metres b) 2 metres c) 3 metres d) 6 metres Q20. False about Measles vaccine a) Is effective post-exposure, if given within 3 days of exposure b) Is reconstituted with Sterile water or distilled water c) Should never be given before 9 months age d) Gives good protection with a single dose Q21. The Human Development Index considers I. Expectancy of life at birth II. Expectancy of life at age one III. Infant mortality rate IV. Knowledge V. Income per capita Of these indicators, a) II, IV and V are correct b) I, IV and V are correct
c) I, III and IV are correct d) II, III and IV are correct Q22. Identify the incorrect match for health communication methods: a) Cancer prognosis communication SPIKES Technique b) Series of lectures on a selected health topic - Symposium c) 4-8 experts discuss in front of an audience with no order Panel Discussi on d) Best method for imparting training Role play Q23. Soiling index is used for evaluation of problem of a) Ancylostomiasis b) Air quality c) Water quality d) Ascariasis Q24. The vegetable oil having the highest concentration of saturated fatty acids among the following is a) Ground nut oil b) Palm oil c) Soyabean oil d) Safflower oil Q25. Minimum recommended amount of residual chlorine in water, what is incorrect ? a) 0.5 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour for household consumption b) 1.0 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour in Swimming pools c) 2.0 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour to kill Cyclops d) None of the above Q26. Incorrect about National Immunization Schedule (NIS - India) a) Total no. of Vitamin A doses is 9 b) MMR must be given at 2 years age c) Five doses of OPV are given d) Is a part of Reproductive & Child Health (RCH) Programme Q27. Antibiotic treatment of choice, incorrect combination is a) Tetracycline Cholera chemoprophylaxis b) Co-trimoxazole Cholera cases in children c) Erythromycin Cholera cases in adults d) Furazolidone Cholera cases in pregnancy Q28. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true? a) Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD b) Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD c) Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD d) Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day Q29. Which of the following enhance Fe Absorption? a) Tannins b) Tetracycline c) Ascorbic acid d) Milk Q30.The following statements about diphtheria is true a) The source of infection is mainly clinical cases b) The Pseudo-membrane is pathognomic clinical feature c) Schick test is not used now-a-days d) DOC for carriers is Penicillin Q31. Correct set of elimination levels in India is: Leprosy a) b) c) d) Neonatal tetanus < 0.1/1000 <1/1000 <0.1/1000 < 1/10000 < 1/1000 <0.1/10000 < 1/10000 <0.1/1000
Q32. WHO SAFE strategy has been designed for a) Safe delivery (Neonatal tetanus) b) Polio c) Trachoma d) Measles Q33. Vaccine which is contraindicated in immediate post disaster phase; a) Cholera b) Tetanus c) Typhoid d) All of the above Q34. Incidence and prevalence true is are a) Both rates b) Incidence is rate, prevalence is not c) Incidence is ratio, prevalence is rate d) Both ratios Q35. A male 42 years old has Weight 70 kg and height 160 cms. He is a) Normal BMI b) Obesity Grade I c) Obesity Grade II d) Preobese Q36. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on a) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 b) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 21, 90 c) Days 0, 7, 28 d) Days 0, 3, 7 Q37. World Health Day (7 April) theme for year 2011 will be a) Health facilities in emergencies b) Antimicrobial resistance c) Protecting health from climate change d) Urbanization and Health Q38. Sub-acute combined degeneration of cord is due to deficiency of a) Vitamin B6 b) Folic acid c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin P Q39. Ascorbic acid deficiency manifests as all except a) Delayed wound healing b) Sterility c) Gum bleeding d) Anemia Q40. Correct combination is a) Bhore Committee ROME scheme b) Chadah Committee Social Physicians c) Kartar Singh Committee Multipurpose worker concept d) Srivastava Committee 3 Million Plan Q41. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare complication of a) Dengue b) Chickenpox c) Mumps d) Measles Q42. Community X (total population 10,000) has 50% Females. Sex ratio for commun ity X is a) 50% b) 500 c) 5000 d) 1000 Q43. Child women ratio is a) The number of children aged 0-14 per 1000 married women b) The number of children aged 0-4 per 1000 women c) The number of children aged 0-4 per 1000 married women
d) The number of children aged 0-4 per 1000 women of childbearing age (15-4 9) Q44. All of the following diseases has Incubation period less than 1 week except ? a) Meningococcal meningitis b) yellow fever c) measles d) cholera Q45. Incorrect about follow-up sputum smears in RNTCP a) Cat I: 2, 4, 6 months b) Cat II: 2, 4, 6, 8 months c) Cat III: 2, 6 months d) None of the above Q46. Which of the following is not a function performed by female MPW? a) Condoms distribution b) Child Immunization c) Health education d) Making peripheral smears for malaria Q47. Which combination is incorrect? a) HIV Propagated epidemic b) HIV (Prostitute) Continuous exposure Point source epidemic c) TB Single exposure Point source epidemic d) Bhopal Gas Tragedy Single exposure Point Source Epidemic Q48. Incorrect about Malaria treatment a) DOC for cases is Chloroquine b) DOC for severe malaria in Pregnancy is Quinine i/v c) DOC for Chemoprophylaxis is Chloroquine d) None of the above Q49. A daily water supply considered adequate to meet the need for all rural dom estic purposes is a) 150 litres per capita b) 20 litres per capita c) 40 litres per capita d) 60 litres per capita Q50. Requirements of cereals in Infants a) 175 grams b) 270 grams c) 410 grams d) 460 grams Q51. Diseases of Poverty include all except a) AIDS b) Malaria c) TB d) Scabies Q52. Low birth weight in a pre-term mature delivery (at period of gestation 7 mo nths) in India is a) 1.5 kg b) 2.0 kg c) 2.5 kg d) 1.0 kg Q53. Dietary fibers contain a) Polysaccharide b) Non-starch polysachhride c) Disaccharide and monosaccharide d) Monosaccharide Q54. Which of the following Categories of Biomedical wastes in India is used for disposal of Human Anatomical Wastes? a) Category 1 b) Category 2 c) Category 5
d) Category 9 Q55. The standard normal distribution: a) Is skewed to the left b) Has mean = 1.0 c) Has standard deviation = 0.0 d) Has variance = 1.0 Q56. Poliomyelitis false is a) Route of transmission is faecal-oral b) Specimen used for diagnosis is stools (viral culture) c) For 1 clinical case there are 100 subclinical cases d) Stools samples are transported in +2° to +8° C Q57. Intermediate host of Echinococcosis a) Man b) Dog c) Sheep d) Pig Q58. False about Dengue fever is a) Torniquet test is positive if no. of petechial spots per square inch in cubital fossa is > 20 b) Is associated with thrombocytopenia c) Vector is Aedes aegypti d) Single attack gives life long immunity Q59. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 l/min. Correct is a) About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 l/min b) 50% girls have PEFR above 300 l/min c) About 2.5% of girls have PEFR below 260 l/min d) All of the above Q60. In a right (positive skew) curve a) Mean = Median = Mode b) Mean > Median > Mode c) Mean < Median < Mode d) Mean is TWICE Median Q61. True about correlation is all except a) Best way to study correlation is Scatter diagram b) Correlation coefficient lies between 1 to +1 c) Is a type of quantitative data d) Correlation imply causation Q62. Kuppuswami scale include all criteria for socioeconomic scale except a) Income / capita b) Living space / capita c) Occupation of head of family d) Education of Head of family Q63. False about surveillance is a) Is continuous watching with attention, authority and suspicion b) Sentinel surveillance comprise identifying hidden/ missing cases c) Surveillance is required only till the disease exist in the population d) Majority of National Health Programmes in India rely on Passive surveill ance Q64. Centile divides data into a) 3 equal parts b) 10 equal parts c) 100 equal parts d) 4 equal parts Q65. Finding the most cost effective alternative from among the available altern atives is knows as a) Cost-effectiveness analysis b) Systems analysis c) Network analysis d) SWOT analysis
Q66. How many colours coded categories are used in triage? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Q67. Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do NOT otherwise o ccur are termed as a) epizootic b) exotic c) sporadic d) pandemic Q68. Correct combination a) Health Guide Village b) Multipurpose worker - Sub-centre c) Health assistant - PHC d) All of the above Q69. Which one of the following is an example of secondary level of prevention ? a) placement of retarded children in institution for special education b) pap smears to defect in situ cancer of the cervix c) immunization against measles d) sleeping in a mosquito net Q70. Components of disposable kit used by dai include all except a) Thread b) Soap piece c) Dettol d) Sterile blade Q71. Which one of the following factors is most important to the validity of the conclusions from a clinical trial? a) equal number of treated and placebo individuals b) follow up of 100% of the participants c) effective randomization of participants d) inclusion in both group of individuals of all ages Q72. Hardy Weinberg law is a) Each individual has two factors for each trait, one from each parent b) An organism can pass on characteristics that it acquired during its life time to its offspring c) Frequency of genes remain constant from generation to generation d) None of the above Q73. Under the MTP Act, pregnancy can be terminated up to which week of gestatio n: a) 12 Weeks b) 20 Weeks c) 24 Weeks d) 28 Weeks Q74. Recommended frequency of school health examination a) Once every 6 months b) Once every year c) Once every 2 years d) Quarterly Q75. Not a true combination of most common complication a) Koplik spots - Measles b) Aseptic meningitis - Mumps c) Pneumonia Chicken pox d) All are true Q76. Antenatal care in PHCs, false is a) Minimum 3 visits at 20, 32 and 36 weeks POG b) Adequate rest and diet c) Two doses of TT in first trimester d) +550 Kcal/day in lactation Q77. Following is true under the Indian Factory Act, 1976, except:
a) silicosis is a notifiable disease b) legal cut-off age for employment is 14 years in India c) One safety officer per 1000 workers d) Per capita space for a worker is 100 sq. ft. Q78. Cluster random sampling is useful in a) STI management b) Evaluation of immunization coverage c) Detection of cancer cases in a community d) Assessment of Hookworm problem in a community Q79. RDA requirement, false is a) Iron: 100 mg b) Iodine: 150 mcg c) Fluorine: 0.5 0.8 ppm d) Vitamin A: 600 mcg Retinol Q80. Which prelacteal feeds should be given to the new born baby: a) Honey b) Water c) Fruit Juice d) None Q81. Under the national population policy 2000, it is aimed to reduce the matern al mortality ratio to below: a) 50 per 100,000 live births b) 100 per 100,000 live births c) 150 per 100,000 live births d) 200 per 100,000 live births Q82. What is S in DOTS a) Surgery b) Strategy c) Streptomycin d) Short course chemotherapy Q83. International Health regulations include all except a) Yellow fever b) Plague c) HIV d) Cholera Q84. IMR (Infant mortality rate) is expressed per a) 1000 pregnancies b) 1000 Live births c) 100,000 Live births d) 1000 abortions Q85. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of adult iron-folic acid tablets sup plied under RCH program are a) 20 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid b) 40 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid c) 100 mg iron and 500 microgms of folic acid d) 60 mg iron and 500 microgms of folic acid Q86. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain dise ase. The results of as new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows. Test result Disease Present Absent + 900 900 100 8100 What is the percent prevalence of disease? a) 9.0 b) 12.5 c) 25 d) 10 Q87. Rideal-Walker Coefficient is employed for the assessment of
a) Effect of autoclaving b) Sufficiency of Pasteurization c) Effect of Incineration d) Germicidal Power of a disinfectant Q88. Which one of the following is the best indicator of protein quality for rec ommending the dietary protein requirement? a) Protein efficiency ratio b) Biological value c) Digestibility coefficient d) Net protein utilization Q89. At PHC level a woman who complains of bleeding following ICUD insertion sho uld be advised a) Removal of IUCD b) Iron supplements and observation c) Antibiotics and observation d) Analgesics and observation Q90. Best protection from STD & Syphilis is given by a) Sterilisation b) IUCD c) Mala N d) Condom Q91. Incorrect match Air humidity a) Psychrometer b) Kata Thermometer Cooling power of air c) Anemometer Air velocity d) Dial thermometer Air ambient temperature Q92. Which of the following does not cause macrocytic anemia? a) Folic acid deficiency b) Vitamin B12 deficiency c) Lead poisoning d) Alcoholism Q93. A good index of communicability of disease is a) Cause-specific death rate b) Case fatality rate c) Crude death rate d) Secondary attack rate Q94. Total fertility rate is a) Total no. of male children born by a female b) Total no. of female children born by a female c) Total no. of female children born by a female, taking into account morta lity d) Completed family size Q95. Hanging drop preparation is used for a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Salmonella typhi c) Vibrio cholerae d) Rota virus Q96. Revised Jones Criteria are used for diagnosis of a) CHD b) RF c) Blindness d) Hookworm Q97. Spot the wrongly matched pair a) ESI Act 1948 b) MTP Act 1971 c) RNTCP 1992 d) NRHM 1995 Q98. All are true about Crimean Congo Fever except a) Is a RNA virus b) Is transmitted by ticks
c) Is having a case fatality rate of 30% d) Doxycycline or tetracycline is the drug of choice Q99. Not true about Congo fever in India a) Is the second instance of outbreak in India (4 deaths in Guajarat in 201 1) b) Is transmitted by Hylomma (Hard) ticks c) Is treated mainly with ribavirin d) Can be transmitted from Animals to man Q100. Adoption of values of some others and make them a part of yours is known a s a) Acculturation b) Internalisation c) Culture d) Customs Answer 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. Key B C D C A B D A C B D C D D D D D B D C B D B B D B C B C C D C D B C C B C B C D D D C
45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
B D C D C A D C B A D C A D D B D B C C B D B D B C C C B A A C D B A D B D C C C D D D B D D C D D C B D D A B