Review Questions for

HUMAN HISTOLOGY

Review Questions for

HUMAN HISTOLOGY
by E. Robert Burns, PhD Professor, Department of Anatomy University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences Review Questions Series Series Editor: Thomas R. Gest, PhD University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences

Acknowledgments
The freshman medical students in Microscopic Anatomy in the College of Medicine at the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences from 1968 to 1994 helped me to differentiate into the teacher/author I am. The freshmen medical students at UAMS from 1995 to ? most certainly will continue to challenge and change me. Horace N. Marvin, Ph.D., Professor Emeritus of Anatomy (deceased): From him I am still learning about teaching, students, histology, embryology, administration, education and life. My children, Keith and Sherry, two mature, well educated, motivated, hard working and honest "kids" are a source of continuing strength and pride to me. Mary Stuart Lindsey provides a source of energy, guidance, advice, intellect, motivation, support, joy and compassion which has been of immeasurable wealth to me. John P. Shock, M.D., Chairman of Ophthalmology at UAMS was bold enough and so clinically proficient and caring that darkness was not allowed to prevent completion of this and other projects. Thomas R. Gest, Ph.D., Series Editor, trusted in my competence and asked me to undertake this project; I thank him for that and his constant help. E. Robert Burns, Ph.D. Dedicated to my parents to my dad who demonstrated that with hard work, a strong sense of fairness, native intelligence, impeccable honesty and only a high school education one could begin as a toll collector and become The Executive Administrative Officer of the New York State Bridge Authority to my mom with her intense interest in everything and everyone around her; with special devotion to her two sons and her husband, achieved a place in life few attain but many admire

Preface
This book is designed to present students who have completed a course in Microscopic Anatomy (i.e. Cell Biology, Histology, Organology) with a review of this subject matter from a structure-function point of view. Using this review as a first exposure to the material will not be an effective learning situation. It should be used first as a personal assessment of command of the material, then as a tool to review and refine understanding of the subject. I recommend the user of this book first cover up the answer and its minidescription. Second, work the question to the best of your ability. Third, uncover just the correct answer and rework the question in light of the correct answer. Lastly, uncover the hints supporting the correct answer and integrate all steps into an understanding of the subject material involved in the question. Most of the questions are of the type A or single best answer. Some of the questions are of the relatively new extended match type. Both types are used on the National Board Exams. The cellular basis of tissues, organs, organ systems and organisms is of fundamental importance to all medicine and biology. Permit me to say that I never see a dead, fixed, stained cell. I always see a living, functioning cell. I challenge myself to correlate its structure and its function with its role in the body economy. The fact is that most of the practice of medicine deals with cells that have too much or too little or no functional capabilities. In a variety of ways, doctoring is an attempt to fix sick cells. Good luck!

Contents
1. Techniques (42) ................................................................................ 1 2. Cell Biology (150) ............................................................................. 8 3. Epithelial Tissue (52) ....................................................................... 48 4. Connective Tissue (49) .................................................................... 59 5. Muscle Tissue (50) .......................................................................... 68 6. Nervous Tissue (40) ........................................................................ 77 7. Integument (30) .............................................................................. 84 8. Cartilage and Bone (37) .................................................................. 90 9. Blood and Bone Marrow (57) ......................................................... 97 10. Defense System (40) ......................................................................109 11. Cardiovascular System (65) ............................................................ 117 12. Respiratory System (40) .................................................................128 13. Gastrointestinal System (78) ........................................................... 137 14. Urinary System (42) .......................................................................151 15. Endocrine System (62) ...................................................................159 16. Male Reproductive System (66) ..................................................... 170 17. Female Reproductive System (63) .................................................. 182 18. Eye and Ear (79) ............................................................................194 Number in parentheses indicates number of questions available.

SECTION 1: TECHNIQUES
1.001 A tissue is put through the following solutions or chemicals: glutaraldehyde, 100% alcohol, osmium tetroxide and uranyl acetate. Which technique is being used? A. immunocytochemistry B. autoradiography C. phase contrast microscopy D. transmission electron microscopy E. polarizing microscopy 1.002 A chemical constituent of cells in a tissue is bound to unlabeled rabbit antibody which is then bound to labeled anti-rabbit, goat antibody. What technique is being used? A. direct immunocytochemistry B. indirect immunocytochemistry C. autoradiography for LM D. autoradiography for EM E. in situ hybridization 1.003 An embedded block of tissue is sectioned on a microtome. Which of the following techniques does NOT apply? A. transmission electron microscopy B. phase contrast microscopy C. autoradiography D. immunocytochemistry E. histochemistry 1.004 Reduced silver bromide particles are seen over the nucleus. Which of the following correctly applies?

A. immunocytochemistry B. cryofracture study of the faces of unit membranes C. scanning electron microscopy D. autoradiography E. polarizing microscopy 1.005 All of the following have been used to label antibodies during immunocytochemistry EXCEPT: A. fluorescein isothiocyanate B. peroxidase C. gold D. ferritin E. tritium D. is correct. The solutions mentioned are part of the procedural steps used in preparing tissues for regular or transmission electron microscopy. B. is correct. Direct immunocytochemistry is when the antibody to the cellular antigen in question is tagged or labeled. Indirect immunocytochemistry is when the cellular antigen in question is found or located by an antibody from one species such as the rabbit, but the tag or label is attached to a second antibody raised in a different species such as goat. The labeled goat antibody is used to find the rabbit antibody which was initially used to find the cellular constituent under investigation. B. is correct. Phase contrast microscopy studies living cells, not fixed and stained cells. D. is correct. The radioactivity of the isotope irradiates the silver bromide particles located in the photographic emulsion only over the region of the cell which incorporated the radioactive isotope, which in this case was probably tritiated thymidine or uridine,

polarizing light microscopy . darkfield microscopy C. scanning electron microscopy 1. darkfield microscopy C. ribosomes C.007 Ultraviolet light is the usual source of illumination for: A. collagen fibers E.006 Which of the following usually is not isolated and purified by cell fractionation/differential centrifugation? A. 1. etc.precursors of DNA or RNA synthesis respectively. mitochondria D. Tritium is a radioisotope form of hydrogen which is bound to precursor molecules such as uridine. transmission electron microscopy G. All other choices listed can be used to label antibodies for immunocytochemistry. is correct. brightfield microscopy B. polarizing light microscopy E. microsomes 1.008 The following is used with H & E stained specimens: A. thymidine. fluorescence microscopy F. phase contrast microscopy D. E. for use in both LM and EM autoradiography. nuclei B. amino acids. brightfield microscopy B. phase contrast microscopy D.

Collagen fibers do not require cell fractionation to isolate. fluorescence microscopy F. phase contrast microscopy D. transmission electron microscopy G. brightfield microscopy B. scanning electron microscopy 1. transmission electron microscopy G.009 An opaque disc is placed in the center of the condenser so that a hollow cone of light illuminates the specimen and no light is transmitted directly through the specimen for: A. darkfield microscopy C. scanning electron microscopy D. brightfield microscopy B.E.010 A plate coated with a transparent film which has a refractive index and a thickness sufficient to delay the normal refracted rays by an additional one-fourth wavelength is used in: A. transmission electron microscopy G. All others can be isolated by rupturing cells and centrifuging the homogenate at different speeds for different . phase contrast microscopy D. scanning electron microscopy 1. is correct. darkfield microscopy C. polarizing light microscopy E. fluorescence microscopy F. polarizing light microscopy E. fluorescence microscopy F.

thus. when bombarded by the wavelength it best absorbs.lengths of time. In darkfield microscopy the opaque disc forces light to pass around its edges. In this way only light scattered to certain angles by the substructure within the specimen is allowed to enter the objective lens. phase contrast microscopy D. is correct. E. darkfield microscopy C. This additional difference in phase is obtained by placing a phase plate in the path of some of the more refracted rays coming from the specimen. Much fluorescence microscopy uses a UV light source and fluorescent dyes that absorb light in the UV range. All light wavelengths are filtered out except for the wavelength best absorbed by the dye. The fluorescence microscope detects light emitted by fluorescent molecules tagging specific components in the specimen. a hollow cone of light illuminates the specimen. is correct. 1. which.011 The specimen is viewed in light vibrating in only one plane in which of the following? A. In the phase contrast microscope living cells can be visualized with some significant differences in contrast between the components of their substructure because the normal differences in the phase of the wavelength of light exiting structures is enhanced from one-fourth wavelength to one-half wavelength. B. fluorescence microscopy . brightfield microscopy B. releases light at a different but characteristic wavelength. polarizing light microscopy E. C. is correct. is correct. A. The difference in the absorption of these light rays is enhanced greatly by differential staining of the chemical constituents of the specimen. This makes certain points or objects appear bright against the dark background. Here light rays from a bulb or the sun are focused on the specimen by a condenser lens.

012 A focused beam does not remain stationary but moves rapidly back and forth over the specimen in which of the following? A. phase contrast microscopy D. transmission electron microscopy G.F. polarizing light microscopy E. fluorescence microscopy F. brightfield microscopy B. fluorescence microscopy F. brightfield microscopy B.014 The "stain" is a tagged antibody in which of the following? A. phase contrast microscopy .013 The image is formed by energy released in the form of high-energy secondary or scattered electrons reflected from a surface which has been coated with a thin film of heavy metal in: A. polarizing light microscopy E. brightfield microscopy B. scanning electron microscopy 1. phase contrast microscopy D. transmission electron microscopy G. darkfield microscopy C. darkfield microscopy C. transmission electron microscopy G. darkfield microscopy C. scanning electron microscopy 1. scanning electron microscopy 1.

In brightfield microscopy the light source contains waves vibrating in many different planes. polarizing light microscopy E. scanning electron microscopy 1. Light filtered in this way is polarized. in scanning electron microscopy the properly prepared specimen is actually scanned with a beam of electrons. scanning electron microscopy D. polarizing light microscopy E. G. phase contrast microscopy D. In the polarizing microscope the specimen is viewed using light vibrating in only one plane. In all other kinds of microscopy the illuminating beam is kept in a constant location. G. darkfield microscopy C. The image is formed from the secondary electrons scattered from the different regions of the specimen rather than from the scattering of primary or "illuminating" electrons. The reflected electrons are captured by a detector and displayed as a three dimensional image.D.015 The scattering of primary electrons produces contrast in which of the following? A. transmission electron microscopy G. is correct. brightfield microscopy B. This is a description of the technique called scanning electron microscopy. fluorescence microscopy F. . A filter is placed between the light source and the specimen which blocks all waves except for those vibrating in one particular plane. fluorescence microscopy F. However. is correct. is correct. transmission electron microscopy G.

1000g B. raised in a rabbit can be attached (tagged) to a fluorescein molecule which can be activated to fluoresce with the ultraviolet microscope. is correct.017 What centrifugal force is necessary to sediment nuclei in a centrifuge after disruption of a cell? A.E. 1000g B.019 What centrifugal force is necessary to sediment lysosomes in a centrifuge after disruption of a cell? A. producing good contrast between these areas. 300. is correct. The heavy metal staining of thin sections will scatter the electrons as they pass through the different densities of stain. 300.000g 1.018 What centrifugal force is necessary to sediment ribosomes in a centrifuge after disruption of a cell? A.000g C. In TEM it is the scattering of electrons.000g 1. 300. F. Antibody to a specific substance.000g 1. such as myosin or actin. 20. This is different from the contrast produced by the different absorption of light by different structures as is the case of brightfield microscopy.000g C. 1. 20. 1000g B. In this way the antigen used to raise the antibody can be detected and localized within cells.016 What centrifugal force is necessary to sediment mitochondria in a centrifuge after disruption of a cell? A. 20.000g C. tissue and organs. that produces the contrast. not their absorption. 1000g .

a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1.021 Which of the following would be used to visualize that the cytoplasm of a plasma cell stains basophilic? A. 300.020 What centrifugal force is necessary to sediment virus particles in a centrifuge after disruption of a cell? A. a compound light microscope B. 1000g B. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique B.000g C.000g C. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. . is correct.000g 1.022 Which of the following would be used to visualize the cytoskeletal actin microfilament arrangement in cultured cells? A. a fluorescent light microscope C. 20. a fluorescent light microscope C. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a compound light microscope B. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. 300. 20. a fluorescent light microscope C. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a compound light microscope B.B.023 Which of the following would be used to localize cell surface receptors for estrogen? A.000g 1.

is correct. B. Of course. is correct. A. a compound light microscope B.Mitochondria can be sedimented using about 20. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) . The use of fluorescein tagged monoclonal antibodies to the different chemical constituents of the microfilaments and intermediate filaments comprising the cytoskeleton of the cell is an entire science by itself. but to localize them to the cell surface and on which cells is best accomplished with the fluorescent microscope. Ribosomes are very small particles and therefore would require the highest g-force to sediment them. Since virus particles are so small the highest centrifugal force would be necessary to "bring them down". B. C.024 Which of the following would be used to obtain a 3D view of the cell surface? A. a fluorescent light microscope C. is correct. 1. is correct.000g in a centrifuge. C. This is routinely accomplished using the light microscope. is correct. is correct. Lysosomes are relatively "big" particles and they can be sedimented using about 20.000g. is correct. Fluorescein tagged monoclonal antibodies to these receptors can be used to detect these receptors on the cell surface. B. A. many cell surface receptors can be studied by biochemical means. Nuclei are so large that they will sediment with a minimal amount of centrifugal force. Intact cells would also sediment with 1000g.

a compound light microscope B. a fluorescent light microscope C.028 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate pinocytotic vesicles in endothelial cytoplasm? A. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a fluorescent light microscope C.D. a fluorescent light microscope C. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a compound light microscope B. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1.027 Which of the following would demonstrate the hexagon of actin filaments seen surrounding each myosin molecule in a cross-section of skeletal muscle? A.026 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate that chromosomes attract hematoxylin? A. a fluorescent light microscope C. a compound light microscope B.025 Which of the following would demonstrate that the major basic protein of an eosinophil stains red? A. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D.029 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate that the specific . a compound light microscope B.

Although actin and myosin can be localized within cells using fluorescent microscopy. is correct. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique C. A. a fluorescent light microscope C. the structure of the cell surface can be easily studied under a variety of experimental situations using the scanning electron microscope. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. This is a standard function of the light microscope and H & E stained specimens.030 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate that mitochondrial DNA is circular? A. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. C. a fluorescent light microscope C. A. a compound light microscope B. is correct. Although phase contrast-light microscopy might be able to do this with limited resolution. is correct. . a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. The electron microscope has been used to see this ultrastructural arrangement. this technique would not be able to resolve the hexagon of thin filaments surrounding each thick filament.granules of a neutrophil fuse with ingested E. is correct. C. This is easily accomplished with the light microscope. a compound light microscope B. is correct. This is a common finding seen in electron micrographs. C. coli? A. is correct.

a compound light microscope B. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D.031 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate the Golgi apparatus as a light area in the cytoplasm of a plasma cell? A. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. This biological phenomenon has been observed many times using this technique. is correct. 1. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. In this way it was discovered that mitochondrial DNA is circular.032 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate synaptic vesicles exocytosing their contents into a synaptic cleft? A.The best tool would be the electron microscope. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a compound light microscope . a compound light microscope B. C. First a biochemical isolation of the mitochondrial DNA is done and then the DNA is spread on a platform and studied with an electron microscope. a fluorescent light microscope C.033 Which of the following would be used to visualize a messenger RNA molecule in a polysome? A. a compound light microscope B. a fluorescent light microscope C.034 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate a trisomy 21 karyotype? A. a fluorescent light microscope C. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1.

an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. is correct. is correct. a fluorescent light microscope C. The "hof" area of the plasma cell is a light microscopic description of the light or non-staining (H&E) area in which the Golgi apparatus is found. a fluorescent light microscope C.035 Which of the following would be used to distinguish CD4 lymphocytes from CD8 lymphocytes? A. This can be done with high power electron microscopy. C. Trisomy 21 and many other numerical chromosomal abnormalities can be detected using the light microscope. a compound light microscope B. C. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D.036 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate elementary particles on the inner mitochondrial membrane? A. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. is correct.B. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. is correct. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique A. but outside the realm of the light microscope. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a compound light microscope B. . A. a fluorescent light microscope C. This is easily within the realm of the electron microscope.

In fact. especially the distribution of T cell and B cells. These antibodies are tagged with a fluorescein and tissue sections can be stained with these monoclonal "stains". Monoclonal antibodies exist for the T helper and T suppresser surface antigens. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique . 1.B. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. is correct.039 Which of the following would be used to identify an unknown intermediate filament as a desmin containing intermediate filament? A. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a fluorescent light microscope C. a fluorescent light microscope C. a fluorescent light microscope C. synthesized de novo? A. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. The elementary particles studding the mitochondrial cristae have been visualized with the electron microscope.038 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate that lipid in the cytoplasm of a cell is absorbed vs.037 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate the signal sequence on the end of a mRNA molecule? A. a compound light microscope B. this technique has been used to map the tissue/organ locations of many of the different types of lymphocytes. a compound light microscope B. especially when used in conjunction with negative staining where the background is stained but not the object in question. a compound light microscope B. C. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. is correct.

This can only be detected by biochemical techniques.041 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate the 64 nanometer periodicity of a collagen fiber? A. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a compound light microscope B. is correct. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a fluorescent light microscope C. high power electron microscopy can resolve individual mRNA molecules.040 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate the heterochromatinized X chromosome in a neutrophil of a female? A. B.1. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D. a fluorescent light microscope C. is correct. a compound light microscope B. is correct. a biochemical or non-microscopic technique 1. a compound light microscope B. C. If no membrane surrounds the lipid. The electron microscope would be able to resolve the presence or absence of a unit membrane surrounding the lipid droplet. . a biochemical or non-microscopic technique D. However. No microscopy is powerful enough to see the signal sequence on a mRNA molecule.042 Which of the following would be used to demonstrate the conversion of ATP to ADP during muscle contraction? A. it was not taken in by endocytosis but synthesized de novo in the cytoplasm. a fluorescent light microscope C. an electron microscope (SEM or TEM) D.

This kind of reaction is a biochemical one and can not be detected by any microscopic technique. A. The light microscope will easily resolve the "drumstick" or heterochromatinized X chromosome which can be seen in about 3% of the PMNs in a female. D. is correct. The electron microscope would be the technique to use to see the periodicity of collagen. . C.Using a monoclonal antibody against desmin tagged with fluorescein is the standard technique to detect any of the different types of intermediate filaments. is correct. is correct.

hematoxylin is basic in aqueous solution E. All of the following correctly apply to this situation EXCEPT: A. extensive RER B. hydrophobic regions of phospholipids 2. P face C. The cell has intensely basophilic cytoplasm. high concentration of polysomes D. E surface D. peripheral proteins C. eosin is acidic in aqueous solution 2.002 All of the following are found on or are associated with the E or external surface of the plasmalemma EXCEPT: A. E face B. glycocalyx B. P surface E. Which of the following apply? .003 In freeze-fracture electron microscopy of the plasmalemma most of the granules seen are on/in which of the following.SECTION 2: CELL BIOLOGY 2.004 A substance enters a cell with the result that the concentration of the substance inside the cell is much higher than outside the cell. hydrophilic regions of phospholipids E. glyocalyx 2. Energy was expended during this process. extensive SER C. A.001 You see a cell on a slide stained with H&E. receptors for hormones D.

005 Which of the following enzymes is found in all lysosomes? A. DNAse B. is correct. acid phosphatase C. The P face is more granular than the E face. carrier mediated or facilitated diffusion C. The SER would not have any significant amounts of RNA associated with it which would attract the hematoxylin. lipase D. C. The granules seen on both faces represent integral or intrinsic membrane proteins.A. E. B. The substance enters the cell through the cell membrane by carrier mediated transport which used energy and therefore is active transport which can move substances against a concentration gradient. is correct. is correct. . The RNA could be ribosomal RNA associated with membrane of the RER or with strands of mRNA forming polysomes. B. active transport D. clathrin coated pit B. cathepsin B. is correct. simple diffusion 2. The hydrophobic ends of the amphipathic phospholipids of the plasmalemma face toward the inner region of the membrane whereas the hydrophilic regions of the phospholipids are located at either surface of the membrane. catalase E. endocytosis E. is correct.

signal sequence in forming polypeptide . intracellular glycogen storage due to absence of glucosidase E. It is a "marker" enzyme for the lysosome. many microtubules E.009 Which of the following is mainly responsible for ribosomes attaching to the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum? A. goblet cells in epithelial lining of trachea 2. silicosis 2.007 Which of the following is related to a defect in lysosomal metabolism? A. extensive RER B prominent nucleolus C. cerebellar neurons D. Catalase.006 Which of the following cells in a 70 yr. autophagy B.008 In a rapidly growing. lots of polysomes D. undifferentiated tumor cell population one would expect to see all of the following using the EM EXCEPT: A. 2. hemosiderin pigment in macrophages C. fibroblasts in a healing wound E. heterophagy D.Acid phosphatase is found in all lysosomes. for example. is a marker enzyme for the peroxisome. old man would show the higher concentration of residual bodies on EM and lipofuscin granules on LM? A. mRNA molecule B. chromosomes 2. enterocytes on tip of intestinal villus B. myeloblasts C.

D. Rapidly growing.010 Where in a mitochondrion is ADP combined with inorganic phosphate to form ATP using some energy derived from proton reflux? A. . circular DNA molecules E. B. Residual bodies/lipofuscin granules represent undigested lysosomal material that has accumulated in cells which do not divide and live for a very long time. As a polysome begins to synthesize a polypeptide which is destined to enter the cisternae of the RER the initial amino acid sequence on the polypeptide contains a signal(signal sequence) which is recognized by a signal recognition particle which docks with a receptor in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. is correct. These cells are busy growing and dividing and therefore would not be expected to be involved in making protein for extracellular use. is correct. intermembranous space E. undifferentiated tumor cells would have all of the above except a well developed RER. Many clinical diseases are caused by genetic defects in which just one enzyme is missing. dense granules in the matrix B. condensing vacuoles 2.C. outer mitochondrial membrane D. is correct. Glycogen storage disease type II(Pompe's disease) is caused by a genetic defect in which no glucosidase is made. intracristal space C. is correct. elementary particles on the inner surface of the cristae C. The cardiac myocyte would be another good place to find residual bodies/liposfuscin granules. Glucosidase breaks down glycogen to glucose. tRNA molecules D. A.

If a cancer cell . most of the enzymes found in the mitochondrion C. malignant neoplasm using routine H & E preparations. ribosomal RNA in the small subunit of ribosomes attached to the RER E. most of the structural proteins of the organelle D. in the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus near its mature face D. To obtain some data on the possible tissue of origin of the cancer the cancer cells will be stained for the chemical composition of their intermediate filaments. nucleolar organizing region 2.012 During the production of a glycoprotein where in the cell does the final or terminal glycosylation take place? A. cisternae of the rough endoplasmic reticulum B.011 Mitochondrial DNA carries the code for which of the following? A. Where is dynein found? A. in basal bodies B. transporting vesicles approaching the immature face of the Golgi apparatus C. 2. in microvilli E. in a coated pit near the cell surface 2.B.014 Sometimes a pathologist can not diagnose the tissue of origin of a very undifferentiated. all species of mitochondrial transfer RNA B. is correct. in mitochondria 2. in centrioles C. in the condensing vacuoles budding off from the mature face of the Golgi apparatus E. in cilia and flagella D.013 The protein dynein has ATPase activity. The elementary particles or globular units which "stud" the inner mitochondrial membrane are the sites of the phosphorylating system.

stains positively with immunocytochemistry for desmin. they have three associated microtubules instead of the doublet arrangements characteristic of cilia and flagella. epidermis E. over euchromatin B. Dynein is found in the dynein arms which extend from the A microtubule toward the B microtubule in a cilium or flagellum. Most of the proteins found in the mitochondrion are coded for by nuclear DNA. over the Barr body or sex chromatin D. is correct.015 In an electron microscopic autoradiograph prepared after a short labeling period with tritiated uridine. astrocyte B. Mitochondrial DNA does code for all of the transfer RNA molecules found in the organelle as well as for mitochondrial ribosomal RNA and a few subunits of respiratory chain enzymes C. a precursor for RNA. over heterochromatin C. is correct. over the perinuclear cistema E. the pathologist can be relatively certain that the cell or tissue of origin of the neoplasm is? A. The terminal glycosylation takes place in the Golgi cisternae from the midway point to the mature face. . C. The initial glycosylation occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum. bone marrow D. is correct. Centrioles and basal bodies do not have dynein arms. over the Golgi apparatus A. neuron C. where would one expect to see label? A. muscle 2.

E. is correct. Desmin, also known as skeletin, is a microfilamentous protein found in muscle cells. One of the keratins would be characteristic of epidermis and neurofilaments or glial fibrillary protein would be detected in cells found in nervous tissue. A. is correct. Euchromatin is the part of the genome "open" for mRNA synthesis. All other regions listed are not areas of mRNA synthesis and therefore, would not incorporate the tritiated uridine. 2.016 How many Barr bodies would you expect to see in an individual with the following chromosome constitution: XXXXY? A. 1 B2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 2.017 What is a nucleosome? A. the region of the nucleolus with linear RNA B. the region of the nucleolus with granular RNA C. the region of the nucleolus which contains the nucleolar organizer DNA D. the region of the DNA molecule that is wrapped around 4 different types of histone molecules E. another name for a heterochromatinized X chromosome 2.018 When does the nuclear membrane temporarily disappear? A. during early prophase B. at the end of prophase C. just as the kinetochores separate in early anaphase D. between GI and G2 phases of the cell cycle

E. during cytokinesis events in late telophase 2.019 If the gamete amount of DNA is 1.5 picograms, how much DNA in picograms is there in a cell in metaphase of mitosis? A. 1.5 B. 3.0 C. 4.5 D. 6.0 E. 0.75 2.020 If the gamete amount of DNA is 1.5 picograms, how much DNA in picograms is there in a cell in metaphase II of meiosis? A. 1.5 B. 3.0 C. 4.5 D. 6.0 E. 0.75 C. is correct. The rule is that only one X chromosome needs to remain functional. All other X chromosomes in a cell are then heterochromatinized. Thus the sex chromatin or Barr body count is one less than the number of X chromosomes in the cell. D. is correct. The nucleosome is that part of the DNA which is wrapped around histones giving a beads-on-the-string appearance. B. is correct. The disappearance of the nuclear membrane is the official end of the prophase stage of mitosis. After the nuclear membrane disappears there is a short time span before the chromosomes arrange themselves on the equatorial plate in metaphase. This short time span between the end of prophase and metaphase is prometaphase.

D. is correct. Two gametes, the sperm and the egg, must first meet during fertilization to form a diploid cell which in this case would contain 3.0 picograms of DNA in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. A cell in metaphase of mitosis has passed through the S phase of the cell cycle and would have 6.0 picograms of DNA, half of which would go to each pole of the future daughter cell. B. is correct. Meiosis I is the reductional division in which the number of chromosomes, the number of chromatids and the concentration or C amount of DNA is halved. Thus the secondary spermatocyte in metaphase II of meiosis would have 3.0 picograms of DNA which soon would be parceled out to two daughter cells, the gametes, each with 1.5 picograms of DNA. 2.021 How many sex chromosomes are there in a secondary spermatocyte? A. none B. one C. two D. four E. twenty three 2.022 Cells have different cell lives with respect to their capability, or lack of it, to progress through the various stages of the cell cycle. Which of the following associations is INCORRECT for a 42 year old man? A. stem cell - vegetative intermitotic B. neuron - occasional replicator C. hepatocyte - reverting postmitotic D. red blood cell - fixed postmitotic E. plasma cell - nonreplicator 2.023 Which of the following sequences is correct from youngest to oldest with regard to the manufacturing of ribosomes: 1=ribosome on endoplasmic reticulum; 2=455 rRNA molecule; 3=nucleolar organizer DNA; 4=18S & 28S rRNA molecules; 5 =protein is added to rRNA to form 40S and 60S particles:

A. 1-2-34-5 B. 5-4-3-2-1 C. 3-2-4-5-1 D. 4-1-3-5-1 E. 2-4-3-1-5 2.024 When this factor becomes activated the following events occur: mitotic spindle assembly, chromosome condensation and nuclear membrane breakdown. Identify the factor. A. cyclin B. maturation promoting factor or MPF C. nuclear lamin D. epidermal growth factor E. tumor angiogenesis factor B. is correct. During meiosis I the chromosome pairs undergo disjunction after having paired up to form tetrad formations during prophase I. Thus one member of each pair goes to each daughter cell. Half of a pair of two sex chromosomes would be one chromosome. A secondary spermatocyte therefore would have only one sex chromosome and it could be a X OR a Y but not both. This single sex chromosome in a secondary spermatocyte would have 2 chromatids which will separate at anaphase H. B. is correct. The adult neuron is a nonreplicator or fixed postmitotic cell. All other associations are correct. C. is correct. B. is correct. MPF, now also known as M phase promoting factor, exists during the interphase of the cell cycle in an inactive form. Once it becomes active it causes the changes listed in the question. Cyclin is a protein which accumulates during interphase.

MPF activation also activates cyclin protease which means that cyclin is broken down during the M phase. Nuclear lamin is a very durable intermediate filament protein which when phosphorylated by MPF solubilizes. Dephosphorylation of lamin causes its reassembly and the reassembly of the nuclear envelope. 2.025 The functional activity of which of the following substances is needed to propel cells along the cell cycle? A. DNAse B. RNAse C. cyclin-dependent kinase D. cyclin protease E. tubulin 2.026 Which of the following correctly apply for "the molecule of the year" for 1993: p53? A. its gene is the most commonly inactivated gene in human cancer, is inactive in 50% of cancers B. it promotes programmed cell death or apoptosis C. it functions as a translation factor D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 2.027 Programmed cell death or PCD is also known as: A. hypertrophy B. hyperplasia C. necrosis D. apoptosis E. dysplasia C. is correct. There are 8-10 different proteins which belong to a family of proteins known as

cyclins. They were originally named cyclins because their intracellular concentrations rose and fell as the cell progressed along the cell cycle. They function by turning on, at the appropriate moment, enzymes called cyclindependent kinases or CDKs, whose activity is needed to propel cells through the cell cycle. The cyclin D's are active during GI and help the cell make the decision to enter DNA synthesis. Cyclin E reaches maximal concentration at about the time of the late G1 or early S phase. Cyclin A reaches maximal concentration during the S phase. Cyclin B reaches maximal concentration during G2. Overexpression of the gene for cyclin Dl may be involved in pushing cells into a cancerous state as has been demonstrated in the breast, esophagus and B cell lymphomas. A. is correct. The 53-kilodalton protein product of the p53 gene functions as a transcription factor which controls the expression of other genes. In this role it turns on a gene whose protein product, p21, stops cells from progressing around the cell cycle by binding to a cyclin-dependent kinase. This arrest of progress around the cell cycle gives the cell the time it needs to repair any damaged DNA it has. Absence of p53 does not stop cycle progress and cells with damaged or defective DNA are allowed to reproduce and many of these apparently progress to cancer. D. is correct. Apoptosis comes from Greek and refers to the falling of dead leaves in autumn. It is a specific set of morphological steps taken by cells destined to die physiologically: nuclei become highly condensed and pyknotic, nuclear DNA is cut between the nucleosomes by endonucleases into small pieces, the cell eventually fragments into small membraneenclosed pieces. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in size. Hyperplasia refers to an increase in number. Necrosis is another form of cell death in which cells swell, the membrane ruptures and the cell contents are released. Dysplasia is an abnormal formation or organization as in precancerous changes in an epithelium. 2.028 Although apoptosis can occur in all cell types with the possible exception of the blastomeres in the early embryo, which of the following cell types would you expect to demonstrate the highest rate of apoptosis in a 10 year old child? A. cardiac myocytes B. neurons C. osteocytes D. T lymphocytes E. GI smooth muscle

2.029 Which of the following are components of the cytoskeleton? A. microtubules B. microfrlaments C. intermediate filaments D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 2.030 Chromatin actually represents which of the following? A. all of the nuclear DNA molecules B. histone chromosomal proteins C. nonhistone chromosomal proteins D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 2.031 When in the cell cycle are the histone chromosomal proteins synthesized? A. M phase B. GI phase C. S phase D. G2 phase E. GO phase 2.032 Which of the following pass through the nuclear envelope in the form of subunits? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA 2.033 The integral or intrinsic membrane protein glycophorin of the vertebrate

erythrocyte contains which of the following regions in sequence: A. hydrophilic - hydrophilic - hydrophilic B. hydrophobic - hydrophilic - hydrophobic C. hydrophilic - hydrophobic - hydrophilic D. hydrophobic - hydrophobic - hydrophobic E. hydrophobic - hydrophobic - hydrophilic D. is correct. In the thymus, 99 of the developing thymocytes or T lymphocytes die by apoptosis for every T lymphocyte which is allowed to live and leave the thymus. E. is correct. All three choices form supportive networks collectively known as the cytoskeleton. E. is correct. Chromatin is defined as the nuclear DNA in combination with the histone and nonhistone chromosomal proteins. C. is correct. Histones are synthesized when DNA is synthesized during the S phase. This is understandable because histones play a role in covering/opening DNA for RNA synthesis and it is important to keep the covering/opening machinery in place as soon as complimentary copies of the DNA are manufactured. C. is correct. The subunits of the ribosome pass through the nuclear membrane and then join by twos with mRNA molecules to form a functional ribosomal unit. mRNAs and tRNAs pass through as intact molecules. C. is correct. Integral membrane proteins have two hydrophilic ends, one on the external surface and the other on the internal surface of the plasmalemma. The single hydrophobic portion is located in the lipid bi-layer of the membrane. These proteins are amphiphilic, i.e. distinct polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic) regions. 2.034 Characterize a peripheral or extrinsic membrane protein.

hybrid cell about one hour after fusion? A. three at a time D.037 Given the fact that there are 20 amino acids and only 4 nucleotides in DNA. 25% hydrophilic E.A. nucleus B. rough ER C. what will the fluorescent pattern be in the fused. two at a time C. hydrophilic B. total green B. half hydrophobic. even mix of green and yellow 2.036 Using labeled amino acids in a time course study of the origin of integral membrane proteins demonstrated a sequence of labeling in all of the following sites EXCEPT: A. half hydrophilic D. hydrophobic C. 75% hydrophilic.035 When a human cell with its integral membrane proteins labeled with a green fluorescent dye is fused with a mouse cell with its integral membrane proteins labeled with a red fluorescent dye. DNA codons must therefore utilize the nucleotides? A. the other yellow D. Golgi D. one at a time B. 75% hydrophobic. one half of cell surface is green. total yellow C. four at a time . random. 25% hydrophobic 2. plasmalemma 2.

or virus. and six codons. Which of the following mRNA codons do not code for any amino acid? A. UGA C. If as little as one nucleotide is changed in a triplet. bacterium. . is correct.038 Some amino acids have only one nuclear DNA codon. UAG D. is correct. A & B & C are correct A. D. A & B are correct E.E. These proteins are found on the external and internal surfaces of the plasmalemma and therefore are not found in the lipid bilayer because they are hydrophilic. is correct. Choice B would still not result in enough (42=16). then one amino acid can be changed (the valine-glutamic acid swap) which can drastically alter the final shape of the protein (in this case hemoglobin A becomes hemoglobin S of sickle cell trait or anemia). It turns out that codons are formed from triplets of nucleotides or. This is the experiment which was used to demonstrate that integral membrane proteins could move laterally in the cell membrane. Amino acids would not be taken up by the nucleus as an indication of protein synthesis. however. others have two. Choice A would only result in 4 codons from 4 nucleotides (41=4). three. is correct. four. five at a time 2. With few exceptions the same codons code for the same amino acid whether the life form is man. E. in other words. codons are three nucleotides in length. C. is correct. These three codons are read as terminators of protein synthesis. Choice C results in 43=64 which is more than the 20 required. A. UAA B. Some codons. do not code for any amino acid at all.

nonhistone proteins D. Hl B. A & B & C are correct 2.2.041 Which of the following histones is NOT involved in the formation of the nucleosome? A. histones C.040 Chromatin is composed of which of the following? A. 1-1213 D. H3 E. U-A-G-C-C-G-A-U-U 2. A-U-G-C-C-G-U-A-A C. A & B are correct E. one each of each of the 4 core histones B. H2A C. How many core histones construct the core of the nucleosome around which the DNA is wound? A. three each of each of the 4 core histones . H4 2. A-T-G-C-C-G-T-A-A B. two each of each of the 4 core histones C.042 In the nucleosome DNA is wound around a core of histones two times. DNA B. T-A-C-G-G-C-A-T-T D.039 What would the A-T-G-C-C-G-T-A-A nucleotide sequence in one DNA strand become in the newly synthesized complementary strand during DNA replication? A.

100 B. five each of each of the 4 core histones 2.000 D. lamins on inside of inner nuclear envelope C. . 100. is correct. lumen of nuclear pore E. In RNA T=U. 1. Hl is involved in linking one nucleosome to the next nucleosome and sometimes is referred to as linker histone. four each of each of the 4 core histones E. The winding of the DNA to form nucleosomes and then the winding of the nucleosomes into solenoids compacts the length of the total DNA in a human cell by a factor of about? A. A. 10.000 2. Hl is not involved in forming the core of the nucleosome. Choices B-E are referred to as the core histones because they form the bead-like structure around which DNA wraps to form a nucleosome. perinuclear cistern D. E.000 E.000. The complementary combinations for DNA are A. nucleolus B. All three of these: DNA and the two different classes of proteins arrange themselves together to form chromatin. 1000 C.043 If the total DNA content of a human cell is stretched out its estimated 6 billion nucleotide pairs would be about 400cm long. outer nuclear envelope C.T:G-C.D.044 Chromosomes are probably held in place in the nucleus by attachment to which of the following: A. is correct. is correct.

active transport (expenditure of cellular energy) 2. moves material against chemical gradient B.B. E. Ca.046 Substances moving across the cell membrane against a concentration gradient such as Na. facilitated diffusion (not energy dependent) C. integral membrane proteins B. moves material against electrical gradient .047 All of the following are characteristic of active transport EXCEPT: A. osmosis B. Nucleosomes are grouped together in larger structures called nucleosome coils or solenoids which contain 68 nucleosomes. thus forming an octamer of core histones. is correct. The fibrous coat formed by the nuclear lamins on the inner aspect of the inner nuclear envelope is called the nuclear lamina. peripheral membrane proteins found only on the exterior surface of the cell membrane C.045 The proteins involved in facilitated diffusion and active transport across the plasmalemma are? A. 2. H. is correct. peripheral membrane proteins found only on the internal surface of the cell membrane 2. depends on presence of peripheral membrane proteins D. glucose and amino acids are moved by which mechanism? A. Each of the 4 core histones is represented twice in the histone core of the nucleosome. Lamins are part of the nucleoskeleton of the nucleus and some data indicate that chromosomes may be attached to the lamins during interphase. can be prevented if poisons given to disrupt source of metabolic energy C. C. is correct.

respectively.E. from the cell surface and thereby destroy the receptor sites on the cell surface. ABO blood grouping glycolipids E.e. phospholipids C. depends on presence of integral membrane proteins 2. neurotransmitter D. fatty acids 2.048 The enzymes neuraminidase and galactosidase specifically remove sialic acid units and galactose units. Addition of integral but not peripheral membrane proteins to artificial phospholipid membranes permitted the passage of ions and polar molecules. cyclic AMP A. i. growth factor C. polypeptides B. however. . has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. This means that all cell surface receptors are ? A. In living cells. purely on the basis of lipid solubility and molecular size. except water. nucleic acids E. The energy utilized for this mechanism is derived from the hydrolysis of ATP. glycoproteins D. C. penetrate must faster than expected.049 Which of the following is an example of a second messenger as a cell responds to a substance attaching to its specific receptor on the cell surface? A. Active transport can move some substances against a concentration gradient with differences as much as a million fold. peptide hormone B. Artificial phospholipid membranes without proteins pass all molecules and ions. amino acids. In order to do this the protein must span the entire phospholipid bilayer. is correct. glucose and Na ions for example. is correct.

C. It is known that all cell surface receptors and recognition sites are glycoproteins or glycolipids. bone marrow cells B. neural crest E. is correct. 1-2-3-4 B. l=over the cisternae of the RER. This is an example of a first messenger. 2-1-3-4 C. 3-2-1-4 . which are small molecules eventually causing activation of protein kinases which are involved in generating the cell response to the first messenger. Peripheral or extrinsic membrane proteins are not involved in active transport. Cyclic AMP is a well known second messenger. Samples of cells are taken for EM autoradiography at multiple time points (the chase). 2. 3=over membrane vesicles in the cytoplasm. hepatocytes 2. 2) then loses this CAM which allows this cell type to migrate extensively and finally 3) CAMs reappear on the cell surface specific for "holding" these cells at their normal anatomical sites after their extensive period of migration when they did not have CAMs? A. is correct. is correct. 4=exocytosed into medium at cell surface. Receptors only have to bind their ligand at the cell surface. cardiac myocytes D.050 Which cell type 1) initially differentiates a cell adhesion molecule (CAM) which keeps it "stuck" in a particular region of the embryo.051 A radioactive amino acid is exposed to cells in vitro (the pulse) and then the culture medium is changed back to normal by removal of the "hot" medium by normal medium. A. fibroblasts C. C. Once this happens there is a generation of second messengers. Arrange the following in the correct sequence for the appearance of label in this pulse-chase experiment: 1=over the Golgi apparatus. E.

is correct.053 All of the following are special sequences in nuclear chromosomal DNA EXCEPT. centromere B. D. Cell adhesion molecules or CAMs are responsible for cells adhering or sticking to a particular location. Each G2 to metaphase chromosome has one .D. The cell type. Each human chromosome has many replication origins along its length. is correct. telomere D.052 How many DNA replication origins or points of initiation of DNA synthesis are there in the human genome? A. nucleolar organizer D. The kinetochore region of each chromosome is a nucleoprotein area associated with the centromere DNA sequence. less than the haploid number of chromosomes B. 2-3-1-4 E. These points become activated asynchronously during the S phase of the cell cycle. greater than the diploid number of chromosomes 2. is correct. equal to the haploid number of chromosomes C. B. B. kinetochore C. replication initiation site E. 3-1-2-4 2. When they are migrating these CAMs are not expressed. is correct. famous for its migration from the region of the neural tube to a variety of distant sites is the neural crest. of those listed. When neural crest cells are not migrating they express CAMs. equal to the diploid number of chromosomes D. A.

centromerease C.centromere DNA sequence region which is "attached" to a kinetochore region on each side of the chromosome. Microtubules of the mitotic spindle insert into each of the two kinetochore regions of each chromosome.056 DNA is inactive in transcription for any particular kind of cell in which of the following? A. telomerase D. constitutive heterochromatin B. constitutive heterochromatin . proteins involved in the respiratory chain D. neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin 2. RNAse E.057 DNA is permanently inactive in transcription for all cell types in the organism in which of the following? A. euchromatin E.054 Which of the following causes a bending/folding of a guanosine-rich DNA strand forming a structure that protects the ends of each chromosome? A. A. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. most of the citric acid cycle enzymes B. proteins involved in the transport of substrates into and out of the mitochondrion E.055 All of the following are located on or in the inner mitochondrial membrane EXCEPT. facultative heterochromatin C. proteins of ATP synthesis C. DNAse 2. 2. the phospholipid cardiolipin 2. kinetochorease B.

is correct.B. neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin 2. A.059 In electron microscopic autoradiography. constitutive heterochromatin B. . Telomerase is the enzyme which packages the telomere into a protected end on each chromosome. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. Most of the citric acid cycle enzymes are located in the matrix region along with mitochondrial DNA and mitochondrial enzymes. C. neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin 2. is correct. euchromatin E. exposing a cell to tritiated uridine will label which of the following? A. constitutive heterochromatin B.058 DNA is active in transcription for any particular kind of cell in which of the following? A. is correct. The telomere is the sequence in DNA located at the ends of each chromosome which determines or defines the ends of each chromosome. euchromatin E. euchromatin E. neither euchromatin or heterochromatin C. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. facultative heterochromatin C. facultative heterochromatin C. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. facultative heterochromatin C.

D. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. facultative heterochromatin C. This is a description of the functional role of euchromatin as opposed to that of heterochromatin. constitutive heterochromatin B.062 Which of the following applies to mitochondrial DNA? . facultative heterochromatin C. i. exposing a cell to tritiated leucine will label which of these areas when performed immediately after exposure to the isotope? A.This could apply to both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin meaning that in any particular cell in the body its constitutive heterochromatin would be permanently inactive and major parts of its facultative could also be inactive. A. neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin 2. This is a definition of constitutive heterochromatin. it is where RNA is being synthesized from a DNA template. euchromatin E. 2. constitutive heterochromatin B. Euchromatin is the functional state of chromatin.e. is correct.061 DNA contributes to the formation of chromosomes in which of the following? A. is correct. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. The labeled uridine would be taken up by these regions of the genome. D. is correct. euchromatin E. neither euchromatin or heterochromatin 2.060 In electron microscopic autoradiography.

lhr=M). label would NOT appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes 2. 1hr=M). then: A.064 If a cell in metaphase of mitosis is exposed to tritiated thymidine for 5 minutes and ARG performed immediately (note: cell cycle times are 4hr-G1. label would appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes B. is correct. This label would be incorporated over the RER/free polysomes in the cytoplasm. is correct. 2hr=G2. in an autoradiograph. constitutive heterochromatin B.A. neither euchromatin or heterochromatin 2. 8hr=S. in an autoradiograph. then: A. C. label would NOT appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes 2. 8hr=S. 2hr--G2. 1hr=M). euchromatin E. facultative heterochromatin C. . label would appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes B. then: A. label would appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes B.065 If cells in S phase are exposed to tritiated thymidine for 5 minutes and ARG performed 1 hour later (note: cell cycle times are 4hr=G1.063 If a cell in metaphase of mitosis is exposed to tritiated uridine for 5 minutes and ARG is performed immediately (note: cell cycle times are 4hr=G1. in an autoradiograph. 8hr=S. in an autoradiograph. not over any kind of chromatin. label would NOT appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes E. in an autoradiograph. both constitutive and facultative heterochromatin D. 2hr=G2. in an autoradiograph.

is correct.068 Synthesis of circular DNA occurs: A. or as facultative heterochromatin. but not over any morphologically apparent chromosomes. lhr=M). A cell in metaphase is not undergoing DNA synthesis and could not incorporate the tritiated thymidine. 2hr=G2. This is not enough time between the act of labeling and the preparation of the ARG for the labeled DNA to "show up" in (over) individual chromosomes.066 If a cell in prophase of mitosis is exposed to tritiated uridine for 15 minutes and ARG performed immediately (note: cell cycle times are 4hr Gl. B. is correct. in an autoradiograph. in the cytoplasm . B. label would NOT appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes 2. in the cytoplasm B. which is permanent heterochromatin that is present in this part of the nuclear DNA for the life of the organism. in an autoradiograph. Mitochondrial DNA does not have the descriptors euchromatin or heterochromatin applied to it. Since the DNA in the chromosomes is completely heterochromatinized it can not serve as a template for any RNA synthesis. The label would be present in (over) the interphaseconfigured nuclei. in the nucleus 2. is correct. label would appear over the morphologically apparent chromosomes B. B. These terms only apply to nuclear DNA. 2. is correct. which is DNA that can become or is functional (serves as a template for RNA synthesis).Nuclear or chromosomal DNA can be classified as constitutive heterochromatin. 8hr=S. then: A.067 Synthesis of the DNA of sex chromosomes occurs: A. E.

071 Synthesis of rRNA occurs: A. . in the cytoplasm B. in the cytoplasm B. in the nucleus 2. B & C occurs: A. is correct.073 Synthesis of nuclear matrix proteins occurs: A.B. it is not available for "readout" and therefore can not serve as a template for any kind of RNA synthesis at all. Since the nuclear DNA is packaged into heterochromatin for the mitotic event. in the nucleus 2. in the cytoplasm B.069 Synthesis of mRNA occurs: A. in the nucleus B. in the nucleus 2. There would be no label over the chromosomes in this particular situation. in the nucleus 2. in the cytoplasm B. in the nucleus 2. is correct.074 Synthesis of nuclear lamins A. in the cytoplasm B.070 Synthesis of tRNA occurs: A.072 Synthesis of all 5 types of histones occurs: A. B. in the cytoplasm B. in the nucleus 2.

Ribosomal RNA is coded for in the nucleolar organizer DNA. B. is correct. is correct. B. A. All classes of histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm during the S phase of the cell cycle and are immediately transported into the nucleus to perform their functional role in the nucleosome arrangement and other structural roles. is correct. All of the transfer RNAs (at least 31 species) are synthesized in the nucleus and transported to the cytoplasm. in the nucleus 2. is correct. Mitochondrial DNA is circular.075 Synthesis of mitochondrial tRNAs occurs: A. in the cytoplasm B. is correct. A. The proteins of the nuclear matrix are synthesized in the cytoplasm and transported from there into the nucleus. A. is correct. is correct.This DNA like the DNA of the non-sex chromosomes is synthesized in the nucleus during the S phase of the cell cycle. These skeletal proteins of the nuclear envelope are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported to the inner aspect of the nuclear membrane where they perform their function. 2. B. All messenger RNAs are synthesized from nuclear DNA in the nucleus and then transported to the cytoplasm.076 Synthesis of mitochondrial ribosomes occurs: . Mitochondrial DNA is duplicated within the mitochondrion. A. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in the nucleolus which is in the nucleus.

greater than 4C 2. greater than 4C 2.078 The DNA content of the skeletal muscle cell in a 42 year old jogger is: A. greater than 4C 2.080 The DNA content of the smooth muscle cell in myometrium of an 8 year old girl is: A. in the cytoplasm B. equal to 2C . in the cytoplasm B. equal to 4C D. equal to 4C D. in the nucleus 2. equal to 2C C.079 The DNA content of the cardiac muscle cell of a 7th month fetus is: A. equal to 2C C.A. in the nucleus 2.081 The DNA content of sperm in the head. equal to 4C D. of the epididymis is: A.077 Synthesis of nuclear proteins regulating gene expression occurs: A. equal to 1 C B. equal to 2C C. equal to 1 C B. not the tail. equal to 1 C B. equal to 1 C B.

During hyperplasia smooth muscle cells would be running the cell cycle and would have amounts of DNA appropriate for the stage of the cell cycle they were in when sampling occurred. equal to 1 C B. A. is correct. A. after birth and with an increasing cardiac work load. The tRNAs found in the mitochondrion are coded for in the mitochondrial DNA. The nuclear proteins regulating gene expression are synthesized in the cytoplasm and transported to the nucleus.C. equal to 4C D. B. it is known that cardiac muscle cells become polyploid in response to this work load. Since skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated they automatically contain amounts of DNA greater than 4C. greater than 4C A. is correct. The cardiac muscle cell this early in development would probably be in GO/G I and have 2C DNA.082 The DNA content of a primary spermatocyte in zygotene stage is: A. is correct. equal to 2C C. . the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium can undergo both hypertrophy and hyperplasia. Smooth muscle cells in this non-pregnant situation would have 2C DNA. greater than 4C 2. is correct. is correct. During pregnancy however. whether the subject is a jogger or not. is correct. D. Mitochondrial ribosomes are synthesized from mitochondrial DNA. equal to 4C D. However. not nuclear DNA. B.

greater than 4C 2. is correct. greater than 4C 2. equal to 1 C B.083 The DNA content of mature megakaryocyte is: A. equal to 2C C. equal to 2C C. or from the ampulla of the ductus (vas) deferens. equal to 2C . equal to 4C D.086 The DNA content of a plasma cell synthesizing monoclonal antibody is: A.084 The DNA content of a purkinje cell in the cerebellum of an 80 year old is: A. The primary spermatocyte is in prophase I of meiosis and therefore has the 4C amount of DNA. equal to 2C C. equal to 1C B. from the testis.085 The DNA content of the primary oocyte in a primordial follicle of an 8 year old girl is: A. equal to 4C D. equal to 1C B.A. greater than 4C 2. It really does not matter whether the sperm is taken from the head or tail of the epididymis. A sperm head contains the haploid number of chromosome and I C DNA. C. 2. is correct. equal to 4C D. equal to 1 C B.

greater than 4C 2. greater than 4C D. . equal to 4C D. is correct. Such a cell would have a DNA content much higher than 4C.089 The DNA content of a cell from a chorionic villus biopsy grown in vitro but stopped in its progress around the cell cycle by vincristine is: A. equal to 1 C B. These cells are neurons living in an extended G1/GO phase and having 2C DNA. equal to 2C C. equal to 1 C B. B. A mature megakaryocyte has undergone several rounds of endoreduplication of its DNA content without accompanying cytokinetic events. equal to 4C D. greater than 4C 2.C.088 The DNA content of a ganglion cell in the retina is: A.087 The DNA content of an orthochromatophilic normoblast in red bone marrow is: A. equal to 4C D. equal to 2C C . is correct. equal to 4C D. equal to 1 C B. equal to 2C C. greater than 4C 2.

equal to 1 C B.091 The DNA content of an ovulated but unfertilized 'ovum" is: A. is correct.090 The DNA content of a cell treated with hydroxyurea for 48 hrs. equal to 2C . 2. They are in prophase I of meiosis and will stay there until death due to atresia or until just before ovulation. is correct. equal to 4C D. C. Orthochromatophilic normoblasts are examples of non-cycling cells and therefore would have 2C DNA. is: A. This would be the technique used to karyotype the fetus. Since the cell in question is blocked in metaphase it would have 4C DNA. B. This is the stage in erythrocytopoiesis in which the nucleus is extruded from the cell. B. greater than 4C 2.C. is correct. Neurons are fixed postmitotic cells living out their lives in an extended Gl or GO phase. A ganglion cell in the ganglion cell layer of the retina is a neuron. thus they would have 2C DNA. equal to 2C C. B. equal to I C B. By the 7-8th fetal month the fetal ovaries have all of the oogonia they will every have and these cells have completed a round of DNA synthesis. Plasma cells are terminally differentiated cells which are non-replicators living out their 2-3 week life span in G1/GO and therefore having 2C DNA. is correct. Vincristine is used to prevent anaphase movement of the chromosomes so they can be used in a squash preparation for the karyotype. is correct. It is just before ovulation when meiosis I is completed during oogenesis.

rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. Golgi apparatus H. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. lysosome-primary I. DNA-nuclear B. filament-micro (microfilament) G.093 Which of the following is associated with glycocalyx? A. fixed ribosome Q. DNA-mitochondrial . smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. mitochondrion L. DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-intermediate F. nucleolus M. equal to 4C D. peroxisome N. DNA-nuclear B. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. lysosome-secondary J.092 Which of the following codes for 31 transfer RNAs? A.C. free ribosome 2. greater than 4C 2. microtubule K.

free ribosome B. A. is correct. The "ovum" actually is a secondary oocyte. N. Golgi apparatus H. It will die as a secondary oocyte unless it is fertilized. It has 2C amount of DNA.C. peroxisome N. . is correct. lysosome-secondary J. is correct. This is a function of nuclear DNA. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. they are in late G1 and they would have 2C DNA. fixed ribosome Q. filament-intermediate F. filament-micro (microfilament) G. is correct. therefore. Mitochondrial DNA is know to code for only the 22 species of tRNA found in the mitochondrial matrix. Hydroxyurea prevents the G1 to S conversion. B. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. microtubule K. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. 23 chromosomes (haploid) and a total of 46 chromatids. Cells treated with HU are prevented from entering S phase. mitochondrion L. lysosome-primary 1.

DNA-nuclear .095 Which of the following is associated with tubulin? A. DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-intermediate F. B & C? A. mitochondrion L. Golgi apparatus H. lysosome-primary 1. The glycocalyx represents the carbohydrate "ends" of the glycolipids and glycoproteins found in the plasmalemma. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. nucleolus M. 2. DNA-nuclear B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. microtubule K.094 Which of the following is associated with nuclear lamins A. fixed ribosome Q.The glycocalyx or cell coat is associated with the external surface of the plasmalemma. These "ends" are associated with glycosaminoglycans and are bound together on the exterior surface of the plasmalemma forming a "fuzzy" coat as seen with the electron microscope. lysosome-secondary J. filament-micro (microfilament) G. free ribosome 2. peroxisome N.

B & C) and they are a type of intermediate filament which is involved in a skeletal support for the nuclear envelope. free ribosome E.B. microtubule K. is correct. lysosome-secondary J.096 Which of the following represents the ribosomal gene loci? A. DNA-nuclear . DNA-mitochondrial C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. Golgi apparatus H. peroxisome N. Microtubules are polymers of the protein tubulin. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. There are three lamins (A. is correct. J. 2. nucleolus M. filament-intermediate F. filament-micro (microfilament) G. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. lysosome-primary I. Tubulin dimers can be quickly assembled into microtubules and microtubules can be quickly disassembled into tubulin dimers. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. mitochondrion L.

DNA-nuclear B. filament-micro (microfilament) G. mitochondrion L. peroxisome N. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. free ribosome 2. filament-intermediate F. Golgi apparatus H. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. lysosome-primary I. DNA-mitochondria C. microtubule K. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. filament-intermediate F. filament-micro (microfilament) G. Golgi apparatus .097 Where is protein intended for exocytosis synthesized? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E.B. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-secondary J. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-mitochondrial C. nucleolus M.

098 Where is sphingomyelin located primarily? A. lysosome-primary I. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. This region is the nucleolus. C. peroxisome N. filament-intermediate . During interphase the 10 ribosomal gene loci (5 derived from the maternal parent and 5 derived from the paternal parent) aggregate to form an area where ribosomal RNA will be transcribed. such as a digestive enzyme from the acinar cells of the pancreas.H. In the human 5 chromosomes contain secondary constrictions which are the DNA sites for ribosomal RNA. They are found on chromosomes 13. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. DNA-nuclear B. it is synthesized on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. If a protein or glycoprotein is going to be released by a cell as a secretory product. These regions of DNA are called nucleolar organizer regions. DNA-mitochondrial C. is correct. lysosome-secondary J. 15. The nucleolus is the cellular site of localization of the genes coding for the synthesis of rRNA. microtubule K. 21 and 22. 2. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. mitochondrion L. is correct. 14. nucleolus M. free ribosome L.

lysosome-primary I. filament-micro (microfilament) G. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. lysosome-secondary J. microtubule K. DNA-nuclear B. free ribosome 2. nucleolus M. filament-micro (microfilament) G.099 Taxol is a drug which blocks assembly of which of the following? A. Golgi apparatus H. mitochondrion . smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. lysosome-secondary J. peroxisome N. lysosome-primary I. DNA-mitochondrial C. mitochondrion L. microtubule K. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. Golgi apparatus H. plasmalemma-P face or surface P.F. filament-intermediate F.

is correct. filament-micro (microfilament) G. Taxol is a drug which prevents the disassembly of the kinetochore microtubules. 2. mitochondrion . nucleolus M. Sphingomyelin is the type of phospholipid primarily found in the outer leaflet of the plasmalemma. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. filament-intermediate F. This disassembly is necessary for the movement of the chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell during anaphase. lysosome-primary I. microtubule K. Golgi apparatus H. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-mitochondrial C. J. free ribosome N. DNA-nuclear B. is correct. peroxisome N. lysosome-secondary J. which is an integral membrane protein? A.100 For which of the following is the following statement true: the signal recognition particle docks with its receptor. fixed ribosome Q. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E.L.

free ribosome 2. microtubule K. DNA-nuclear B. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-P face or surface P.101 Which of the following is associated with actin in skeletal muscle cells? A. lysosome-secondary J. mitochondrion L. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-mitochondrial C. nucleolus M. Golgi apparatus H.L. filament-intermediate F. lysosome-primary 1. peroxisome N. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. free ribosome . smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. filament-micro (microfilament) G. peroxisome N.

is correct. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. The signal recognition sequence on the mRNA attaches to a signal sequence recognition particle (SRP) which in turn then docks with a receptor protein in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. filament-intermediate F.102 Which of the following is associated with 45S precursor RNA found in a fibrillar region? A. 2. Golgi apparatus H. This docking procedure insures that the protein to be manufactured will enter the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. microtubule K.. F. is correct. mitochondrion L. DNA-nuclear B. lysosome-secondary J. nucleolus M. lysosome-primary I. fixed ribosome Q. free ribosome . filament-micro (microfilament) G. peroxisome N. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. Actin containing microfilaments help form the thin filaments of striated muscle.C. DNA-mitochondrial C.

E. This molecule is then cleaved or processed into smaller units (5. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. The fibrillar areas in a nucleolus represent areas of concentration of the 45S RNA precursor molecule. microtubule K. nucleolus M. fixed ribosome Q. lysosome-secondary J. filament-micro (microfilament) G. . peroxisome N. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-primary 1. 18 and 28S RNAs). filament-intermediate F.2. The granular region of the nucleolus is where the ribosomal subunits are forming ribosomes. DNA-mitochondrial C. This is a description of what is going on and/or is a component of the nucleolus. DNA-nuclear B. free ribosome L.8.103 Which of the following is associated with desmin filaments? A. is correct. These RNAs are complexed with proteins to eventually form the small and large subunits of the ribosome. mitochondrion L. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. Golgi apparatus H. is correct.

Golgi apparatus H. 2. lysosome-primary 1. peroxisome N. cardiac and smooth muscle cells. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. mitochondrion L. free ribosome 2. DNA-nuclear .105 Where is spectrin located primarily? A. fixed ribosome Q. DNA-mitochondrial C.104 Which of the following fuses with heterophagosome? A. lysosome-secondary J. Desmin intermediate filaments are found in skeletal. In smooth muscle cells the desmin filaments are connected to the dense bodies (physiological equivalent for the smooth muscle cell as the Z line is for striated muscle cells). plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.Desmin filaments are one of the types of intermediate filaments. In cardiac and skeletal muscle the desmin filaments are primarily located in the Z lines. filament-intermediate F. nucleolus M. DNA-nuclear B. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. microtubule K. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. filament-micro (microfilament) G.

microtubule K. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. fixed ribosome Q. for example by phagocytosis. a piece of something other than itself (which would be autophagy). lysosome-primary 1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. The spectrin membrane skeleton is composed of proteins and it is responsible for maintaining cell shape and membrane stability. Spectrin forms a skeleton for the plasmalemma. filament-intermediate F.B. A heterophagosome is formed when a cell takes up. Golgi apparatus H. lysosome-secondary J. nucleolus M. filament-micro (microfilament) G. is correct. peroxisome N. DNA-mitochondrial C. free ribosome H. . 0. mitochondrion L. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. is correct. The spectrin membrane skeleton is associated with the P surface of the plasmalemma. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. To digest this "foreign" material a primary lysosome fuses with the heterophagosome to form a secondary lysosome in which the enzymes of the lysosome attack the "foreign" material.

rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-secondary J. lysosome-primary I. filament-micro (microfilament) G. free ribosome 2. DNA-nuclear B. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. fixed ribosome Q. microtubule K. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.106 Which of the following forms cytoskeletal scaffolding in microvilli? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-intermediate F. filament-intermediate . DNA-nuclear B.2. DNA-mitochondrial C. peroxisome N. plasmalemma-P face or surface P.107 Where are peripheral membrane proteins synthesized? A. Golgi apparatus H. mitochondrion L. nucleolus M. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E.

Golgi apparatus H. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. 2. fixed ribosome Q. lysosome-secondary J.108 Where is phosphatidylserine located primarily? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. lysosome-primary I. DNA-nuclear B. filament-micro (microfilament) G. microtubule K. not on polysomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. DNA-mitochondrial C. nucleolus M. peroxisome N.F. free ribosome F. is correct. filament-micro (microfilament) . filament-intermediate F. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. Peripheral membrane proteins are synthesized on free polysomes. The skeletal core of each microvillus is composed of about 30 parallel microfilaments of actin bundled together by the proteins villin and fimbrin. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. mitochondrion L. is correct. Q.

G. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. microtubule K. filament-micro (microfilament) G. mitochondrion L.109 Which of the following applies to neurofilaments? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. free ribosome 2. lysosome-secondary J. lysosome-secondary J. lysosome-primary I. nucleolus M. Golgi apparatus H. microtubule K. Golgi apparatus H. peroxisome N. fixed ribosome Q. DNA-nuclear B. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. filament-intermediate F. mitochondrion . DNA-mitochondrial C. lysosome-primary I. plasmalemma-P face or surface P.

110 Where are integral membrane proteins synthesized? A. Neurofilaments are one of the many types of intermediate filaments. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. DNA-mitochondrial C. fixed ribosome Q. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-primary I. lysosome-secondary . Golgi apparatus H. free ribosome 0. The phospholipid distribution in the plasmalemma is asymmetrical. 2. is correct. E. Intermediate filaments were named as intermediate because they are intermediate in size between microtubules (about 25 nm in diameter) and the microfilaments (6 urn in diameter). filament-intermediate F.L. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. The choline containing phospholipids (phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin) are mostly associated with the outer leaflet of the plasmalemma. In contrast to this the amine containing phospholipids (phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanolamine) are primarily found on the inner leaflet of the plasmalemma. filament-micro (microfilament) G. DNA-nuclear B. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. peroxisome N. Intermediate filaments are about 8-10 nm thick. is correct.

plasmalemma-P face or surface P.111 Which of the following is associated with mitotic spindle? A. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. nucleolus M. nucleolus M. microtubule K. plasmalemma-P face or surface . plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.J. Golgi apparatus H. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. filament-micro (microfilament) G. mitochondrion L. mitochondrion L. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-intermediate F. fixed ribosome Q. lysosome-primary 1. peroxisome N. microtubule K. DNA-nuclear B. free ribosome 2. peroxisome N. lysosome-secondary J.

DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-intermediate F. on the other hand are synthesized on free polysomes. J. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. Other microtubules of the mitotic spindle do not attach to kinetochores and they are called polar microtubules. Peripheral membrane proteins. lysosome-secondary J. These are kinetochore microtubules. Some of these microtubules attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (at this point in time each chromosome would be composed of two chromatids. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. filament-micro (microfilament) G. is correct. nucleolus .P. Golgi apparatus H. is correct. lysosome-primary I. free ribosome P. Integral membrane proteins are synthesized on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. mitochondrion L. At anaphase the kinetochore microtubules disassemble and this is necessary for the anaphase movement of the chromosomes. microtubule K.112 Which is electrically more negative than positive? A. 2. DNA-nuclear B. The mitotic spindle is composed of microtubules. each with a kinetochore region on its "noncentromeric" side). fixed ribosome Q.

lipases and other -ases? A. peroxisome N. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. nucleases. free ribosome 2. lysosome-secondary J. filament-intermediate F. Golgi apparatus H. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. filament-micro (microfilament) G. fixed ribosome Q. nucleolus M. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. lysosome-primary I. mitochondrion L. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. peroxisome N. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. DNA-nuclear B.113 For which of the following is the following statement true: a "trans face" buds off this vesicle containing proteases. microtubule K. DNA-mitochondrial C. free ribosome .M.

rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. hydrolyases. The inside of the cell membrane is more negatively charged than the outside of the cell membrane because of the distribution of positive and negative charged ions across the plasmalemma. filament-micro (microfilament) G. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. microtubule K. lipases. DNA and RNAases.114 Which is located inside both cilia and flagella? A. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. peroxisome N.0. is correct. is correct. filament-intermediate F. This is a description of a primary lysosome or a zymogen granule depending on the final destination of this membrane bound bag of enzymes. etc. H. lysosome-secondary J. 2. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. The vesicle in question has just budded from the mature face of the Golgi apparatus and it contains a wide variety of enzymes such as proteases. lysosome-primary 1. DNA-nuclear B. mitochondrion L. DNA-mitochondrial C. nucleolus M. Golgi apparatus H. fixed ribosome .

lysosome-secondary J. is correct. nine peripheral doublets surrounding one central doublet of microtubules. DNA-nuclear B. mitochondrion L.115 Where are cytosolic proteins synthesized? A. filament-micro (microfilament) G. Cilia and flagella are quite similar ultrastructurally. is correct. lysosome-primary I. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. microtubule K. nucleolus M. filament-intermediate F. . They contain an axonome. The axonome is composed of a nine-plus-two array of microtubules. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. free ribosome J. Q. peroxisome N. free ribosome 2. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-mitochondrial C.Q. Golgi apparatus H.

lysosome-secondary J. filament-micro (microfilament) G. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.116 Which is more electrically more positive than negative? A. free ribosome 2. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. peroxisome N. microtubule K. Golgi apparatus H.117 Where does initial glycosylation of a protein occur? A. 2. lysosome-primary I. DNA-mitochondrial C.In general. DNA-nuclear B. DNA-mitochondrial C. proteins synthesized for intracellular use rather than for extracellular use. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) . DNA-nuclear B. are synthesized on the free polysomes or the polysomes not attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. fixed ribosome Q. filament-intermediate F. mitochondrion L. nucleolus M.

2. lysosome-primary I. which contains more negative than positive ions. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. filament-intermediate F. peroxisome N. filament-micro (microfilament) G. is correct.118 Where are enzymes of the citric acid cycle found? . is correct. In general. lysosome-secondary J. the E surface of the plasmalemma is electrically more positive because slightly more positive ions are located here than on the cytosol side. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. nucleolus M. mitochondrion L. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. proteins that are not destined to be glycosylated are synthesized on the free polysomes. The outside of the plasmalemma. Golgi apparatus H. Because of this difference there is a voltage difference or membrane potential between the inside and the outside of the cell. i. free ribosome N. This difference strongly suggests that the enzymes responsible for glycosylation are found on the cisternal side of the RER. Most proteins that are to be glycosylated are glycosylated in the RER as then leave the ribosome and enter the lumen of the RER.e. C. microtubule K. fixed ribosome Q.D.

smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. peroxisome N. DNA-nuclear B. microtubule K. fixed ribosome Q. DNA-mitochondrial C. lysosome-primary 1. filament-intermediate F.119 Where are more 11V1Ps (intramembranous particles) found? A. plasmalemma-P face or surface P.A. free ribosome 2. filament-intermediate F. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. filament-micro (microfilament) . mitochondrion L. DNA-nuclear B. DNA-mitochondria C. filament-micro (microfilament) G. Golgi apparatus H. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-secondary J.

During freeze-fracture of the plasmalemma to expose the faces. microtubule K. mitochondrion L. DNA-nuclear B. is correct. is correct. DNA-mitochondrial C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. The enzymes of the TCA cycle are found on the inner membrane and in the matrix of the mitochondrion.120 Which of the following is most closely associated with glial filaments in astrocytes? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. 2. free ribosome K. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. of the plasmalemma most of the particles stay with the P face of the plasmalemma and not the E face. lysosome-secondary J. Golgi apparatus H.G. filament-intermediate F. lysosome-primary 1. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. peroxisome N. The particles represent the integral membrane proteins. filament-micro (microfilament) . fixed ribosome Q. not the surfaces. 0.

fixed ribosome Q. nucleolus M. Golgi apparatus H. lysosome-primary I. DNA-nuclear B. filament-intermediate F. lysosome-secondary J. Golgi apparatus H. mitochondrion . mitochondrion L. peroxisome N. microtubule K. filament-micro (microfilament) G. DNA-mitochondrial C. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.G. free ribosome 2. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E.121 Which of the following codes for non-enzyme proteins of the outer mitochondrial membrane? A. lysosome-secondary J. microtubule K. lysosome-primary I. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D.

Glial fibrillary acid protein or GFAP is the polypeptide component of the intermediate filaments characteristic for astrocytes. free ribosome E. Intermediate filaments are intermediate in size between microfilaments and the microtubules. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. lysosome-primary I. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. A. filament-micro (microfilament) G. mitochondrion . This is one of the "mitochondrial roles" played by nuclear DNA. filament-intermediate F. peroxisome N. DNA-nuclear B. DNA-mitochondrial C. lysosome-secondary J.122 Where does intracellular transport of organelles and vesicles occur? A. nucleolus M. 2. Golgi apparatus H. fixed ribosome Q. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. microtubule K.L. Glial cell filaments are classified as intermediate filaments. is correct. is correct.

filament-micro (microfilament) G. lysosome-secondary J. fixed ribosome . fixed ribosome Q. mitochondrion L. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. free ribosome 2.L. peroxisome N. nucleolus M. filament-intermediate F. nucleolus M. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-nuclear B. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-mitochondrial C. peroxisome N. lysosome-primary 1. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. Golgi apparatus H. microtubule K.123 Which of the following plays an important role in the phosphorylation of lysosomal proteins? A.

mitochondrion L. dynein may be the molecule involved in the transport of vesicles from the positive end to the negative end of the microtubule. lysosome-primary I. lysosome-secondary J. The Golgi apparatus plays an important role in the phosphorylation of many different kinds of proteins. in the neuron. Microtubules are sort of the intracellular interstate highway system. Kinesin may be the molecule involved in moving vesicles from the negative end to the positive end of a microtubule. plasmalemma-E face or surface . DNA-nuclear B. microtubule K. nucleolus M.Q. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. free ribosome J. They are believed to have a positive and a negative end. filament-micro (microfilament) G.124 Autophagosome is associated with which of the following? A. Golgi apparatus H. DNA-mitochondrial C. is correct. filament-intermediate F. They are involved in the intracellular movement of a variety of things such as chromosomes and. peroxisome N. G. is correct. The proteins destined for lysosomes are phosphorylated in the cis-cisternae of the Golgi apparatus. axoplasmic flow. 2. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D.

lysosome-primary 1. fixed ribosome Q. Golgi apparatus H. DNA-mitochondrial C. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. filament-micro (microfilament) G. filament-intermediate F. fixed ribosome Q. Lysosomes are involved in both heterophagic and autophagic activities. free ribosome 1. microtubule K. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. DNA-nuclear B. nucleolus M. When a primary lysosome fuses with a heterophagic vesicle or with an intracellular . plasmalemma-P face or surface P. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. free ribosome 2.125 Clathrin is associated with which of the following? A. lysosome-secondary J. mitochondrion L. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. is correct. peroxisome N.0.

microtubule K.126 Where is porin. clathrin is removed from the outside of the vesicle by an uncoating enzyme. It is concentrated on the cytoplasmic or P surface of the plasmalemma. is correct. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. a coated endocytotic vesicle forms. found? A. filament-micro (microfilament) G. 0. it becomes a secondary lysosome. peroxisome N. lysosome-secondary J. mitochondrion L.organelle such as a mitochondrion. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. filament-intermediate F. Clathrin is a protein which is found associated with coated pits in receptormediated endocytosis. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. DNA-mitochondrial C. DNA-nuclear B. however. When a molecule or tiny particle binds to its appropriate receptors which are clustered together forming a coated pit. Clathrin coats the P surface of a coated vesicle and is somehow involved in the formation of the coated endocytotic vesicle. 2. lysosome-primary 1. Once the vesicle is formed. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. Golgi apparatus H. a major integral protein. nucleolus M. fixed ribosome .

plasmalemma-P face or surface P.Q. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. it is easier to see the "porin connection" between mitochondria and bacteria. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. Porin is an integral membrane protein which can form channels through which molecules less than a MW of 10. DNA-mitochondrial C. microtubule K. . peroxisome N. free ribosome K. is correct.127 Where does epidermal growth factor bind with its receptor? A. mitochondrion L. nucleolus M. Golgi apparatus H. filament-intermediate F. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. lysosome-primary 1. In the human. the outer mitochondrial membrane contains porin. In bacteria porin is found in the outer membrane. DNA-nuclear B. Since some authors favor the hypothesis that mitochondria are modified bacteria that have taken up a symbiotic relationship inside of cells.000 can freely pass. free ribosome 2. lysosome-secondary J. filament-micro (microfilament) G. fixed ribosome Q.

filament-micro (microfilament) G. DNA-nuclear B.128 Which of the following is most closely associated with digestion of mitochondrial cristae by acid hydrolases? A. Golgi apparatus H. is the part of the plasmalemma exposed to the extracellular environment. free ribosome 2. On this surface of the plasmalemma one would find receptors for all kinds of appropriate hormones. mitochondrion L.129 Which of the following is replicated during S phase of cell cycle? A. including growth factors. The E surface. lysosome-primary I. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. filament-intermediate F. microtubule K. peroxisome N. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. not face. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. is correct. nucleolus M. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. lysosome-secondary J.N. fixed ribosome Q. 2. DNA-mitochondrial C. DNA-nuclear .

lysosome-primary I. filament-intermediate F. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. free ribosome I. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. 2. nucleolus M. DNA-mitochondrial C. Nuclear DNA is replicated only during the S phase of the cell cycle. Mitochondrial DNA is replicated throughout the entire length of the cell cycle. The lysosomal enzymes gain access to the structures of the "worn-out" mitochondrion when the membranes of the lysosome and the "defective" mitochondrion fuse during this autophagic activity. fixed ribosome Q. activity. A. DNA-nuclear .B. This would be an example of a secondary lysosome involved in autophagic. not heterophagic. microtubule K. is correct. Golgi apparatus H. peroxisome N. lysosome-secondary J. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. filament-micro (microfilament) G.130 In which of the following is catalase almost 40% of the total protein? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. is correct. mitochondrion L.

peroxisome N. filament-intermediate F. fixed ribosome Q. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. free ribosome 2. Golgi apparatus H. mitochondrion L. lysosome-secondary J. DNA-mitochondrial C. filament-micro (microfilament) G. nucleolus M. microtubule K. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. DNA-mitochondrial C.B. lysosome-primary I. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. DNA-nuclear B. filament-micro (microfilament) .131 In which of the following does telomerase replicate repeated sequences enriched with cytosine and guanine (telomeres)? A. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. filament-intermediate F. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E.

DNA-nuclear B.132 Where are most proteins of oxidative phosphorylation coded for? A. A. peroxisome N. filament-intermediate F. lysosome-primary 1. filament-micro (microfilament) . smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. The ends of each chromosome have a special sequence called the telomere. Catalase is found in peroxisomes in significant quantity/concentration. It breaks down the hydrogen peroxide formed in the peroxisome as a result of oxidative activity. lysosome-secondary J. is correct. fixed ribosome Q. microtubule K. mitochondrion L. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. Golgi apparatus H. free ribosome M. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. DNA-mitochondrial C. 2. This region protects the ends of the chromosomes and gives them individual integrity. is correct. nucleolus M. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0.G.

free ribosome 2. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. Golgi apparatus H. mitochondrion . lysosome-primary I. lysosome-secondary J. filament-micro (microfilament) G. Golgi apparatus H. microtubule K.133 Which of the following contains a sequence element (centromere) that interacts with a set of proteins (kinetochore)? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. mitochondrion L. microtubule K.G. nucleolus M. filament-intermediate F. fixed ribosome Q. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. peroxisome N. lysosome-primary I. DNA-mitochondrial C. DNA-nuclear B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. lysosome-secondary J.

lysosome-primary I.L.134 Which of the following is associated with hydrogen peroxide? A. Mitochondrial DNA does not have enough bases in it to code for all of the proteins and ribosomes and tRNA molecules which are normal components of the mitochondrion. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. A. Everything else in the mitochondrion is coded for by nuclear DNA. free ribosome A. lysosome-secondary . Golgi apparatus H. Each centromere region of a chromosome plays a significant role in the attachment of the kinetochore. filament-micro (microfilament) G. DNA-nuclear B. nucleolus M. is correct. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D. 2. is correct. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) E. DNA-mitochondrial C. peroxisome N. The centromere region of each chromosome is a specific nucleotide sequence of chromosomal DNA which can be "stained" with fluorescein tagged monoclonal antibodies. mitochondrial tRNA and just a few of the respiratory chain enzymes localized on the inner mitochondrial membrane. fixed ribosome Q. Mitochondrial DNA codes for mitochondrial rRNA. filament-intermediate F.

True B. True B. A. nucleolus M.J. False 2.136 True or false: the primary lysosome is membranebound. mitochondrion L.135 True or false: the nucleolus is membrane-bound.138 True or false: the absorbed lipid is membranebound.139 True or false: the chromosome is membrane-bound. plasmalemma-P face or surface P. False 2. peroxisome N. True B. plasmalemma-E face or surface 0. free ribosome 2. True B. A. A. A. A. fixed ribosome Q.137 True or false: the mitochondrion is membranebound. True B. False 2. False 2. microtubule K. False .

is correct. is correct. The fact that they are contained within the nuclear membrane during the interphase of the cell cycle does not classify them as membrane-bound structures. the cristae. the plasmalemma forms a vesicle during this endocytotic event. or the lysosome which has not yet fused with something else from within the cell (autophagic activity) or from outside the cell (heterophagic activity). as is the case for the enterocyte lining the small intestine.141 True or false: the lipid synthesized de novo in cytoplasm is membranebound. even through it resides in the nucleus. Lipid absorbed through the apical plasmalemma. is correct. A. which is membranebound. In fact it has two membranes: an outer membrane and an inner membrane. True B. is correct. True B.M. A. must be membrane-bound. A. Chromosomes are not individually membrane-bound structures. The mitochondrion is a membrane-bound organelle.e. B. The nucleolus itself is not membrane bound. Hydrogen peroxide accumulates within peroxisomes as a result of oxidative activity of its oxidase enzymes. i. It is the inner mitochondrial membrane that is folded into folds. A. False 2.140 True or false: the secondary lysosome is membranebound. 2. is a membrane-bound product of the mature face of the Golgi apparatus. False . B. is correct. The primary lysosome. namely catalase. A. is correct.

A.143 True or false: glycogen inclusions are membranebound.144 True or false: the secretory granule is membranebound. A. False 2.142 True or false: the peroxisome is membrane-bound. False 2. A. True B. True . False 2. A.2.145 True or false: microtubules are membrane-bound. True B.148 True or false: the microtubule organizing center (MTOC) is membranebound. False 2. True B.149 True or false: condensing vacuoles at the trans-face of the Golgi body are membrane-bound. A. A. True B. False 2. True B. True B. False 2.147 True or false: the actin containing microfilaments are membrane-bound. True B.146 True or false: desmin containing intermediate filaments is membrane-bound. A. False 2. A.

it exists "free" in the cytoplasm. B. etc. Lipid synthesized on the spot or de novo in the cytoplasm is not membrane-bound. . the membranes of the lysosome fuse with those of the phagosome or autophagic vacuole. These microfilaments are components of the cytoskeleton and are not membranebound. B. but the end result is still a membrane-bound structure. Proteins. Intermediate filaments are not membrane bound. glycoproteins. is correct. When a primary lysosome fuses with a phagosome or autophagic vacuole. is correct. Microtubules are components of the cytoskeleton and are not membrane-bound. is correct. A secondary lysosome is like a primary lysosome in that it is packaged by the Golgi apparatus and therefore is covered by a membrane. B. is correct. B. A. B. is correct. is correct. is correct. is correct. False A. is correct.B. Intracellular cytoplasmic deposits of glycogen are not membrane-bound. packaged by the Golgi apparatus are covered by a Golgi membrane as they leave the mature face of the Golgi body. B. Peroxisomes are lysosome-like organelles which are packaged (given their membrane) as they exit the mature face of the Golgi apparatus. is correct. A. A. This structure is not membrane-bound.

False A. True B. . these vacuoles would be membrane-bound. A. are packaged by the Golgi apparatus and are membrane bound. is correct.150 True or false: the specific granules in cytoplasm of neutrophil are membranebound. to lysosomes and therefore. 2.Since the trans-face is the mature face where vacuole/granule packaging is complete. if not identical. The specific granules in a PMN are similar.

zonula adherens D. zonula occludens B. none of the above are correct 3. simple columnar B. Identify this section. straight tubular gland D. unicellular gland E.SECTION 3: EPITHELIAL TISSUE 3.001 All of the following are components of the most common epithelial junctional complex EXCEPT: A.002 As you look at a slide you see secretory units or groups of cells with secretory granules in their cytoplasm and simple cuboidal to columnar cells lining a variety of different sized tubular structures. macula adherens C. transitional 3. fascia adherens E. stratified cuboidal E. endocrine gland B. intermediate filaments of the cytokeratin type 3. associated with glycocalyx . simple cuboidal C.003 Which type of sheet-like epithelium helps form a serosa? A. simple squamous D.004 Which of the following does NOT apply to microvilli? A. compound acinar-alveolar gland C. A.

Tubulin is the protein component of microtubules which are found in cilia and flagella. B. brush/striated border D. Secretory units or acini/alveoli of the serous type are indicated by the presence of secretory granules in the cytoplasm. is correct. pseudostratified columnar E. Since many ducts can be seen the duct system is branched or compound. actin containing microfilaments C. stratified squamous keratinizing D. The fascia adherens is not a component of this most common type of junction between epithelial cells. The sheet-like epithelium lining the tubes indicates a duct system. is correct. stratified squamous non-keratinizing C. C. transitional B. A neoplasm of this epithelium is called a mesothelioma. . is correct. is correct. not in microvilli.005 In which of the following sheet-like epithelia do all cells touch the basement membrane but not all cells reach or border the lumen. The classical epithelial junctional complex from the luminal or apical side of the epithelium toward basal lamina is ZO-ZA-MA. is correct. A serosa such as that of the visceral and parietal pleura is composed of a sheet of simple squamous cells or mesothelium with some submesothelial connective tissue. increased surface area 3. Cytokeratin intermediate filaments are components of the MA.B. D. stratified cuboidal as in the duct of a sweat gland D. D. tubulin E. A.

anaplasia 3. SER C. dysplasia D.006 When one adult sheet-like epithelium is replaced by another adult sheet-like epithelium the process is called: A. residual bodies 3. metaplasia E. merocrine secretion E. hyperplasia B. 3. non-keratinized wet epithelium such as that which lines the esophagus or the vagina. apocrine secretion 3. lysosomes E. Which of the following correctly applies to this situation? A. hypertrophy C.008 What would you expect to see lots of under the electron microscope in the cytoplasm of a cell that secretes a steroid hormone? A. RER B.009 In a stratified. the basal cells resting on the basement membrane live which type of mitotic or cell cycle life? .The question actually is a description or definition of a pseudostratified epithelium. secretory vesicles D. holocrine secretion B.007 As a glandular epithelial cell secretes its product small pieces of the apical cytoplasm of the cell are released as a component of the secretory product. paracrine secretion C. endocrine secretion D.

Holocrine secretion is characterized by the death of the entire cell. is correct. is correct. stratified squamous keratinizing B. fixed postmitotic 3. stratified cuboidal D. Most hormones whether they are autocrine. E. These vegetative intermitotics divide and produce daughter cells which (1) can remain attached to the basement membrane and continue to function as vegetative intermitotics or (2) can leave the . These are the stems cells for this epithelium. B. A. Apocrine is when a part of the apical region of the cytoplasm actually is a component of the secretory product. stratified columnar D. Metaplasia is the process in which one adult epithelium is replaced by a different adult epithelium. differentiating intermitotic C. Merocrine is the usual form of secretion in which the product is exocytosed.A. The enzymes necessary to synthesize steroids from precursor molecules are located in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. transitional E. reverting postmitotic D. The most common case is the change from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium in the trachea and bronchi as a result of exposure to cigarette smoke.010 Identify the epithelium: the superficial cells contain cytoplasmic areas of folded cell membrane forming vesicles which represent a reservoir of cell membrane? A. is correct. vegetative intermitotic B. is correct. paracrine or endocrine are released via the merocrine route of cell secretion. stratified squamous non-keratinizing C.

zonula adherens C. nexus 3. the ridges are composed of integral membrane proteins which interlock with integral membrane proteins of opposing ridges. macula occludens D. A. macula adherens B. zonula adherens . zonula adherens C. zonula occludens E.basal layer and move into more superficial layers where they begin to undergo some cytodifferentiation or cell specialization but they still retain (remember?) the capability to run the cell cycle and divide. D.011 The following description applies to which structure: an anastomosing system of ridges extends around the entire perimeter of the cells involved. progressively lose the capability to divide and can then be classified as fixed postmitotics.012 Which of the following cell junctions or attachment sites has a marginal band of microfilaments anchoring to the cell membrane? A. This is a characteristic feature of transitional epithelium which allows the epithelium to expand and radically change shape as the urinary bladder fills. 3. macula occludens D. is correct. As their daughter cells continue to differentiate and move toward the surface of the epithelium they eventually. In this case these cells can be classified as differentiating intermitotics. A. macula adherens B.013 Which of the following cell junctions or attachment sites has tonofilaments anchored into disc-like plaques of electron-dense material. macula adherens B. nexus 3. zonula occludens E.

. nexus 3.C. macula adherens B. nexus D. macula adherens B. When the integral membrane proteins on opposing ridges of two adjacent cells interlock the intercellular space is obliterated and thus molecules are prevented from passing into the narrow intercellular space beyond the occludens jct. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens E. not keratincontaining tonofilaments. is correct. macula occludens D. are attached to the cell membrane. A. is correct. nexus 3.015 In which of the following cell junctions are adjacent cells in ionic contact or continuity? A. zonula occludens E.014 Which of the following cell junctions or attachment sites has tubular channels constructed of transmembrane proteins from two adjacent cell membranes? A. is correct. macula occludens D. zonula adherens C. The zonula adherens or the adhesion belt is the site where bundles of microfilaments. macula occludens D. zonula occludens E. B.

The macula adherens or desmosome is a spot attachment site in which intermediate filaments are attached or hooked into an electron dense plaque on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane. E. is correct. The cap or nexus junction is an array of tubular channels that span the gap or intercellular space between two cells. The cylindrical walls of these tiny "straws" are called connexons. E. is correct. It is through the gap or nexus junction that adjacent cells are connected physiologically to form an ionic syncytium. Waves of excitation almost simultaneously pass through gap junctions. 3.016 The following description correctly applies to which structure: 20-30 bundled actin filaments run parallel to the long axis and these filaments are bundled fimbrin and villin. A. cilia B. microvilli C. flagella D. desmosome E. basal lamina substructure 3.016 For which of the following does the following statement apply: underneath the plasma membrane there is a dense plaque into which tonofilaments are connected. A. desmosome B. zonula C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.017 For which of the following does the following statement apply: ions pass quickly through here. A. desmosome

B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.018 For which of the following does the following statement apply: outer bilayer halves of adjacent two cell membranes are fused. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.019 For which of the following does the following statement apply: the extracellular space is eliminated here. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.020 For which of the following does the following statement apply: found in high concentration in the stratum spinosum of epidermis. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction B. is correct. Bundles of actin filaments form the scaffolding or internal support structure of microvilli. A. is correct. This describes the desmosome. It has the most dense plaque of all the other cell

junctions listed and from this plaque radiate tonofilaments. D. is correct. This is the hallmark of the gap or nexus junction, i.e. the cells so connected form an ionic and electrical syncytium. Gap junctions are found, for example, in the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle. C. is correct. This is a description of what happens when two adjacent cells form a tight junction. C. is correct. Since the outer leaflets of the two opposing cell membranes actually fuse in an occludens junction, the extracellular space is obliterated here. A. is correct. The spiny layer of the epidermis, the stratum spinosum, is composed of keratinocytes which have large numbers of desmosomes on their cell surface. When this tissue is fixed in something like formalin, some shrinkage occurs and the cells shrink away from each other in the areas where they are not stuck together by desmosomes. This gives this layer its spiny or prickle cell appearance. 3.021 For which of the following does the following statement apply: lateral movement of integral membrane proteins completely blocked. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.022 For which of the following does the following statement apply: actin microfilaments extend from a submembrane plaque. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction

3.023 For which of the following does the following statement apply: 4 to 6 units of connexin form a connexon. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.024 For which of the following does the following statement apply: the subcellular plaque material has a high concentration of vinculin. A. desmosome B. zonula adherens C. zonula occludens D. gap junction 3.026 Which of the following lines the trachea? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. transitional epithelium C. is correct. In the zonula occludens or tight junction, the outer layers of each of the two opposing cell membranes are fused along ridges. This fusion site eliminates the extracellular space and blocks the movement of membrane proteins and lipids.

B. is correct. Although the region just under the plasmalemma in both the desmosome and the zonula adherens is thickened to form a plaque, the plaques associated with adherens junctions are not as dense as those of the desmosome. In the desmosome, anchoring tonofilaments radiate from the plaque into the cytoplasm. In the adherens junction, fibers much thinner than tonofilaments radiate from the "not so dense" plaque. These thinner microfilaments are actin microfilaments. D. is correct. A gap junction is a small circle of 4-6 subunits of a protein called connexin. Connexins vary extensively from tissue to tissue. B. is correct. Adherens junctions contain significant amounts of the actin-binding protein vinculin which is involved in linking the plasmalemma to the actin microfilaments of the cytoskeleton. H. is correct. The "respiratory epithelium" is a pseudostratified columnar epithelium, with several types of cells in it. One type of cell in this epithelium contains cilia. 3.027 Which of the following lines the small intestine? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. transitional epithelium 3.028 Which of the following lines the duct of a sweat gland in the dermis of the

integument? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. transitional epithelium 3.029 Which of the following lines the thoracic duct? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. transitional epithelium 3.030 Which of the following lines the minor calyx? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium

D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. transitional epithelium C. is correct. The entire lining of the small intestine is simple columnar epithelium. F. is correct. Stratified cuboidal epithelium is not very common. The ducts of the eccrine sweat glands of the integument, however, are lined by it. A. is correct. The thoracic duct, as well as all other lymphatic ducts, as well as all blood vessels, is lined by a simple squamous epithelium or endothelium. I. is correct. The minor and major calyces are lined by transitional epithelium, as are the ureter and the urinary bladder. 3.031 Which of the following lines the major collecting ducts in kidney? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium

H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. transitional epithelium 3.032 What tissue type covers the surface of the ovary? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. transitional epithelium 3.033 What tissue type covers the surface of the parietal layer of Bowman's capsule of the kidney? A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. transitional epithelium 3.034 What tissue type covers the surface of the true vocal fold of the larynx?

is correct. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. is correct. The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is composed of the podocytes.A. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. The ovary surface is covered by a simple cuboidal to fat squamous epithelium. simple columnar epithelium D. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. transitional epithelium C. 3. A. The surface of the true vocal folds are covered by a stratified squamous epithelium which is reflective of the function of these folds in the production of sounds.035 Which of the following is found in patches in the female urethra? A. At one point in time it was thought that the oogonia were derived from this epithelium and it still carries the misnomer "germinal epithelium". stratified columnar epithelium H. E. is correct. simple cuboidal epithelium . The parietal layer of Bowman's capsule is composed of simple squamous epithelium. is correct. The large collecting ducts in the medullary regions of the kidney are lined by simple columnar cells which require the presence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) for the passage of water from the lumen of the collecting duct into the surrounding hypertonic interstitium. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. simple squamous epithelium B. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. B.

transitional epithelium 3. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. transitional epithelium 3. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified cuboidal epithelium . stratified columnar epithelium H. simple cuboidal epithelium C. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. simple columnar epithelium D. simple squamous epithelium B. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E.036 What tissue type lines the epididymis? A. stratified columnar epithelium H.C. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. simple squamous epithelium B. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified cuboidal epithelium G.037 What tissue type covers the surface of the visceral pleura? A. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple columnar epithelium D.

pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. simple columnar epithelium D. just like the comparable visceral and parietal peritoneum. is correct. simple squamous epithelium B. The epithelial lining of the penile urethra. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. Mesothelioma is a neoplasm of these cells. A special feature here is the tuft of microvilli on each columnar cell giving the name stereocilia to these structures. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. proximal to the junction with the skin over . stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. E. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. However. The visceral and parietal pleura are serous membranes. is correct. The epididymis is lined by a pseudostratified columnar epithelium. H. stratified columnar epithelium H. simple cuboidal epithelium C. Stratified columnar epithelium is rare in the human. is correct. patches of this type of epithelium can be found in both the male and the female urethras.G. transitional epithelium 3. stratified columnar epithelium H. transitional epithelium G. The surfaces of these membranes are covered by a simple squamous epithelium given the special name of mesothelium.038 What tissue type lines the fossa navicularis of the penis? A. A. is correct.

simple cuboidal epithelium . changes to a stratified squamous wet epithelium. transitional epithelium 3. simple columnar epithelium D. simple squamous epithelium B.040 What tissue type lines the common bile duct? A.039 What tissue type lines the thyroid follicles under TSH stimulation? A. simple columnar epithelium D.the glans penis. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. transitional epithelium 3. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. simple squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium H. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. pseudostratified columnar epithelium 1. simple squamous epithelium B.041 What tissue type covers the external surface of the tympanic membrane? A. 3. stratified columnar epithelium H. simple cuboidal epithelium C. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F.

stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. C. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. . is correct. transitional epithelium 3. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. The hepatic duct. simple columnar epithelium D. stratified columnar epithelium H. stratified columnar epithelium H. Without stimulation by thyroid stimulating hormone the epithelial lining of the thyroid follicles is of a cuboidal to fat squamous type.042 What tissue type covers the anterior surface of the lens? A. transitional epithelium C. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple squamous epithelium B. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. under TSH stimulation the normally cuboidal/fat squamous epithelium is stimulated to "new heights" for the production of colloid and/or the uptake of colloid with enzymatic processing to the thyroid hormones tri-and tetra-iodothyronine. cystic duct and common bile duct are lined by a simple columnar epithelium. However. simple columnar epithelium D.C. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. is correct. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I.

transitional epithelium 3. The external surface of the tympanic membrane is skin.044 What tissue type lines the majority of the penile urethra? A. is correct. The exterior of the lens is coated with a homogeneous layer of collagen and proteoglycans called the capsule of the lens. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. simple squamous epithelium B.043 What tissue type lines the uterine cavity? A. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E.D. simple cuboidal epithelium C. B. The anterior surface of the lens is covered by a simple cuboidal epithelium. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. is correct. simple columnar epithelium D. simple cuboidal epithelium C. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. stratified columnar epithelium H. There is no such epithelium on the posterior surface of the lens. simple squamous epithelium B. stratified cuboidal epithelium G. stratified columnar epithelium . simple columnar epithelium D. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. 3.

compound tubular or acinar gland 3. simple cuboidal epithelium C.045 What tissue type lines the vagina? A. transitional epithelium 3. compound tubular or acinar gland . pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium F. simple tubular gland B. transitional epithelium 3. simple squamous epithelium B. stratified columnar epithelium H. simple coiled tubular gland C. simple columnar epithelium D. simple branched alveolar gland E. pseudostratified columnar epithelium I. stratified cuboidal epithelium G.047 Which of the following best describes the sweat gland of skin? A. simple branched tubular gland D. simple coiled tubular gland C. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. simple branched alveolar gland E.H. simple tubular gland B.046 Which of the following best describes the sublingual gland? A. simple branched tubular gland D.

is correct. is correct. The epithelial lining of the vagina is stratified squamous wet (non-keratinizing). simple coiled tubular gland . hence the best description is a compound acinar gland. The penile urethra is lined mostly by pseudostratified columnar epithelium. At the dilated end of the penile urethra. Other organs where such a tough. H. the fossa navicularis.049 Which of the following best describes the colonic crypt? A. simple tubular gland B. is correct. simple branched tubular gland D. B. Since the duct of the sweat gland is not branched it can not be termed compound or branched. the epithelium changes to a stratified squamous wet type of epithelium. is correct. 3. simple tubular gland B. Since both the duct and the secretory portion of the sweat gland are highly coiled tubular structures.C. simple branched alveolar gland E.048 Which of the following best describes the submandibular gland? A. the term simple coiled tubular gland applies. The sublingual gland is composed of nearly 100% mucous acini secreting to a branched duct system. wet epithelium (stratified squamous) is found are: esophagus and lower anal canal. E. E. The epithelium lining the uterine cavity is a simple columnar type of epithelium which contains columnar cells which are ciliated and columnar cells which are secretory (mucus). simple coiled tubular gland C. is correct. compound tubular or acinar gland 3.

compound tubular or acinar gland 3. Therefore. simple coiled tubular gland C.052 Which of the following best describes the parotid gland? A. it is a compound acinar gland with a mixed secretory production (mucus and watery fluid containing proteins). simple branched alveolar gland E. simple tubular gland B. simple branched alveolar gland E. simple tubular gland B. simple coiled tubular gland C. simple tubular gland B. compound tubular or acinar gland E.050 Which of the following best describes the gastric pyloric gland? A. compound tubular or acinar gland 3. simple branched alveolar gland E. simple branched tubular gland D. This gland has both serous and mucous acini in it which are drained by a duct system which branches tremendously. simple branched tubular gland D. simple branched tubular gland D.051 Which of the following best describes the sebaceous gland in skin? A. simple coiled tubular gland C. . is correct. compound tubular or acinar gland 3.C. simple branched tubular gland D. simple branched alveolar gland E.

is correct. Sebaceous glands secrete by the holocrine method and this secretory product (entire dead cell) is delivered to the hair shaft through a simple. . is correct. E. The straight glands of the mucosa of the colon are examples of simple (no branching of the duct system) tubular glands. branched "duct". it is a compound gland.A. is correct. D. C. Since the main duct of the parotid gland branches frequently as it drains the secretory acini. is correct. The gastric pit/gastric gland arrangement is an example of a tubular gland which has several divisions or branches opening into a common lumen (the gastric pit).

collagen fibers C. chondroitin sulfate B.SECTION 4: CONNECTIVE TISSUE 4. epithelial glycocalyx C. basal lamina proper E. antibodies E.003 All of the following are glycosaminoglycans EXCEPT: A.004 All of the following are structural glycoproteins found in connective tissue EXCEPT: A. tissue fluid B. lamina reticularis D. glycosaminoglycans D. chondronectin .002 All of the following are components of the extracellular matrix except: A. desmin E. keratan sulfate 4. lamina lucida B. hemidesmosome 4. plasma cells 4. dermatan sulfate C. hyaluronic acid D.001 Which component of the LM basement membrane at the interface between an epithelium and its underlying connective tissue is synthesized by the connective tissue cells deep to the basement membrane? A.

lymph drainage of the area creates a negative pressure in the lymph capillaries drawing some tissue fluid into their lumens. the osmotic pressure is higher than the hydrostatic pressure C. . All of the other choices are components of the extracellular matrix. is correct. E. D. endothelial cells of the post-capillary veins are impermeable to tissue fluid C. is correct. E. fibronectin 4.005 During the formation of tissue fluid. lymph capillaries are directly connected to the venous side of a capillary bed D. hyaluronidase D. Cells found in connective tissue are embedded within the extracellular matrix but are not considered to be a part of it. All other choices are structural proteins in connective tissue. of the tissue fluid is drawn back in to the venous side of the capillary because? A. some but not all. C. all of the other components listed are derived from the epithelium. the hydrostatic pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure B. it is not a glycosaminoglycan. laminin C.B. Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by some bacteria and cancer cells which digests the glycosaminoglycan hyaluronic acid and causes a loss of viscosity of the connective tissue. is correct. is correct. The lamina reticularis or reticular lamina is the only component synthesized by connective tissue cells. Desmin is found in intermediate filaments of muscle cells. is correct. The osmotic pressure exerted by the solutes and large molecules in the blood on the venous side of a capillary bed is relatively higher than the hydrostatic pressure. B.

increased venous hydrostatic pressure D. traumatized endothelium B.009 Classify the connective tissue found underlying a wet epithelial surface. eosinophil B. preprocollagen B.006 All of the following can result in edema EXCEPT: A.007 Which of the following polymerizes to form collagen fibrils? A. lymphocyte E.008 All of the following are temporary or mobile residents of connective tissue EXCEPT: A. 4. adipose . obstruction of lymphatic drainage E. tropocollagen D. procollagen C. fibrocyte D. longstanding malnutrition C. dense irregular B. A. decreased arterial hydrostatic pressure 4. registration peptides 4.thereby drawing fluid from the interstitial space into the veins. neutrophil C. hydroxyproline E. reticular C. monocyte 4.

collagen type V 4. collagen type IV C. is correct. loose areolar E. All other choices are causes of edema. fibrocyte C.011 Which of the following connective tissue cells binds immunoglobulin E? A. . tissue fluid accumulates in the peritoneal cavity (abdominal ascites) because the individual simply does not have enough large molecules in his/her blood to exert enough of an osmotic draw to bring most of the fluid produced at the arterial end back into the venous structures. lymphocyte E. mast cell D. The tropocollagen molecules are fibrillar structures which aggregate into collagen fibrils. C.D. The ends of these molecules(the registration peptides) are clipped off by peptidases transforming procollagen to tropocollagen.010 Which of the following predominates in the spleen. lymph nodes and red bone marrow? A. elastic fibers B. macrophage E. C. plasma cell B. A decrease in arterial hydrostatic pressure would cause less not more fluid to exit the capillary lumen and become tissue fluid. collagen type II E. is correct. In the case of malnutrition. mucoid 4. is correct. Procollagen molecules are secreted by the fibroblast. reticular fibers D.

All wet epithelia are "serviced" by an underlying loose areolar connective tissue which is also called the lamina propria.012 Which of the following acts outside of the cell: A. Reticular fibers are major stromal elements of the lymphoid organs. centromere region of a chromosome B. IgE is originally produced by the plasma cell but is bound to the surface of the mast cell. All other choices are found in connective tissue areas but they are free to come and go. histamine. centriole D. is correct.014 Which of the following is characterized by: PAS positivity and argyrophilia? A. C. This causes the mast cell to degranulate releasing heparin. skeletal muscle fiber . 4. When a second exposure to the same antigen occurs the antigen binds to the IgE on the surface of the mast cell. secondary constriction of a chromosome C. C. lysyl oxidase C. hydroxyacid oxidase 4. basal body 4. glycosidase D. DNAase E. is correct. D.The fibroblast/fibrocyte is a permanent non-mobile cellular component of connective tissue. is correct. catalase B. leukotrines and eosinophil chemotactic factoranaphylaxis.013 Which of the following is not considered to be a microtubule organizing center or MTOC? A.

regularly arranged. skeletal muscle fiber B. elastic fiber D. macrophage E. fibrocyte C. annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc D.015 The amino acids isodesmosine and desmosine are unique to which of the following? A. lamina propria of intestinal villus B. fibroblast B. collagen type I fiber C. nerve fiber 4. collagen type I fiber C. . tendon of biceps muscle C. white fibrous connective tissue? A. is correct. elastic fiber D. reticular layer of the dermis E. reticular fiber E. reticular fiber E.017 Which of the following areas is comprised of dense. fibrous layer of periosteum B. A. nerve fiber 4. plasma cell D.B. multinuclear giant cells 4.016 Which of the following connective tissue cells would be the most heterochromatinized.

All other choices are classified as MTOCs. collagen molecules do not overlap between rows leaving all gaps between molecules in register . These two amino acids are unusual and are formed by covalent reactions between lysine residues causing the rubber-like quality of elastin.Lysyl oxidase cross-links tropocollagen molecules extracellularly. Reticular fibers have a high content of glycoproteins associated with them and they are composed mostly of type III collagen. All other enzymes mentioned "work" inside the cell as a result of lysosomal or peroxisomal activity. triple helices of collagen molecules line up in rows C. B. C. Tendons. is correct. irregularly arranged connective tissue. is correct. is correct. stain has penetrated the gaps between collagen molecules B. The fibrocyte is the quiescent form of the more active cell the fibroblast. collagen molecules overlap between rows by about one fourth of their length D. B. The fibrocyte is "shut down" with respect to the synthesis of tropocollagen and demonstrates a pyknotic or highly heterochromatinized nuclear chromatin pattern. Choice C is an example of fibrocartilage. regularly arranged connective tissue. aponeuroses and ligaments are all comprised of dense. Choice E is an example of loose areolar connective tissue. is correct. is correct.018 The dark banded regular periodicity of collagen types I. II & III seen with the electron microscope in negatively stained preparations is directly related to all of the following EXCEPT: A. D. Choices A and D represent dense. The secondary constriction appears on only 5 human chromosomes and is the location of the nucleolar organizing region of the genome. B. 4.

dense irregular connective tissue C.019 All of the following diseases are diseases of collagen EXCEPT: A.020 The following description best fits which of the following: carbohydrate side chains radiate laterally from a protein core similar to the bristles on a test tube brush. A. Ng-CAM (neuroglial cell adhesion molecule) D. osteogenesis imperfecta E. Ehlers-Danlos (rubber man) syndrome 4. hyaluronic acid D. reticular connective tissue . dense regular connective tissue B. A & B are correct E. scurvy D. rickets C.022 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the papillary layer of dermis? A.021 Which of the following are involved in linking cell surfaces with collagenproteoglycan complexes? A. laminin C. glycosaminoglycans (GAG) E. interstitial pulmonary fibrosis B. hyaluronic acid 4. fibronectin B.4. A & B & C are correct 4. chromatin suprastructure B. type V collagen C.

D. adipose connective tissue F. loose areolar connective tissue . 4. is correct. D. D. mesenchymal connective tissue G. The molecules do overlap between adjacent rows and wherever their is a gap it will fill in with stain in a negatively stained preparation. The papillary layer of the dermis is that layer closest to the overlying avascular epidermis which it services with a blood supply and lymphatic drainage. is correct. Rickets is a disease related to a lack of vitamin D which is necessary for the intestinal absorption of calcium. D. reticular connective tissue D. loose areolar connective tissue E. The two most famous linker glycoproteins are fibronectin and laminin. dense irregular connective tissue C. The GAGs can be attached to hyaluronic acid molecules to form large complexes which can impede the movement of tissue fluid. B. mucoid connective tissue D.023 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the reticular layer of dermis? A. is correct. is correct. Fibronectin is a large glycoprotein composed of fibrous polypeptides. is correct. The type of connective tissue found here is loose areolar. Laminin is restricted to basal laminae. dense regular connective tissue B. Scurvy is the result of a lack of vitamin C which is necessary for the synthesis of procollagen.

loose areolar connective tissue E. loose areolar connective tissue E. dense irregular connective tissue C. mesenchymal connective tissue G. adipose connective tissue F. mesenchymal connective tissue G.E.026 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the ligament? A. adipose connective tissue F. reticular connective tissue D.025 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the perineurium? A. mucoid connective tissue 4. mucoid connective tissue 4. dense irregular connective tissue . adipose connective tissue F. mesenchymal connective tissue G. dense regular connective tissue B. mucoid connective tissue 4.024 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the hypodermis? A. dense regular connective tissue B. reticular connective tissue D. dense regular connective tissue B. dense irregular connective tissue C.

reticular connective tissue D. Even the ligamentum nuchae. is correct. mucoid connective tissue B. loose areolar connective tissue E. A. The hypodermis is composed of adipose tissue. dense irregular connective tissue C. B. dense regular connective tissue B. mesenchymal connective tissue G. adipose connective tissue F. The perineurium. adipose connective tissue F. In this area the adipose tissue serves as a shock absorber as well as an insulator and calorie storehouse. mucoid connective tissue 4. . perimysium and peritentinium are comprised of dense irregularly arranged fibrous connective tissue.C. All ligaments are composed of regularly arranged fibrous connective tissue. which is composed of elastic fibers. is correct. E. is correct. has the elastic fibers regularly arranged. The reticular layer of the dermis is the major supporting layer of the dermis and is composed of dense irregular connective tissue. is correct. loose areolar connective tissue E. reticular connective tissue D. mesenchymal connective tissue G.027 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the mesentery? A.

mesenchymal connective tissue G. adipose connective tissue F. reticular connective tissue D. Mesenteries are examples of loose areolar connective tissue which can have a significant amount of adipose tissue associated with them.D. dense regular connective tissue B. dense irregular connective tissue C. reticular connective tissue D. dense irregular connective tissue C. mesenchymal connective tissue G. mucoid connective tissue 4. is correct.030 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the core of the umbilical cord? A.029 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the red pulp of spleen? A. dense regular connective tissue B. dense regular connective tissue B. mucoid connective tissue 4.028 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the capsule of kidney? A. adipose connective tissue F. loose areolar connective tissue E. dense irregular connective tissue . 4. loose areolar connective tissue E.

mucoid connective tissue 4. adipose connective tissue F. dense irregular connective tissue C.032 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the packing outside the developing brain? A. is correct. mucoid connective tissue B. loose areolar connective tissue E. mucoid connective tissue 4. In general. mesenchymal connective tissue G. adipose connective tissue F. the capsules of most organs and glands are composed of dense . dense regular connective tissue B. reticular connective tissue D. reticular connective tissue D. reticular connective tissue D. dense regular connective tissue B. adipose connective tissue F.031 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of lamina propria? A. loose areolar connective tissue E. mesenchymal connective tissue G. loose areolar connective tissue E. mesenchymal connective tissue G. dense irregular connective tissue C.C.

034 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the epimysium? . especially in the head between the neural tube and the ectoderm. C. is correct. is correct. All lamina propriae. D. Mesenchyme is the embryonic connective tissue found in all regions of the embryo. undifferentiated mesodermally derived cells can form a neoplasm which demonstrates differentiation in the mucoid or myxomatous direction (myxoma if benign. 4.033 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of an aponeurosis? A.irregular fibrous connective tissue. capillaries and venules. loose areolar connective tissue E. Because of its watery. In the adult. myxosarcoma if malignant). dense irregular connective tissue C. adipose connective tissue F. reticular connective tissue D. F. The core or connective tissue of the umbilical cord is one of the two types of embryonic connective tissue or mucoid connective tissue (Wharton's jelly). mesenchymal connective tissue G. is correct. are composed of loose areolar connective tissue containing the smaller blood vessels such as arterioles. wherever they are found. is correct. G. and lymph capillaries which are servicing the overlying avascular epithelium. dense regular connective tissue B. mucoid connective tissue 4. The main connective tissue type of the parenchymal regions of the lymphoid organs is reticular connective tissue. gelatinous nature it is also termed myxomatous connective tissue.

036 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the submucosa of the esophagus? A. mucoid connective tissue 4. dense irregular connective tissue C. dense regular connective tissue B. loose areolar connective tissue E. mesenchymal connective tissue . loose areolar connective tissue E. adipose connective tissue F. loose areolar connective tissue E. adipose connective tissue F.A. dense regular connective tissue B. dense regular connective tissue B. mesenchymal connective tissue G.035 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the core of an intestinal villus? A. reticular connective tissue D. mucoid connective tissue 4. mesenchymal connective tissue G. adipose connective tissue F. dense irregular connective tissue C. reticular connective tissue D. reticular connective tissue D. dense irregular connective tissue C.

is correct. is correct. Adventitial regions. is correct. D. D. Even in skin. the epithelium servicing the overlying stratified squamous keratinized epithelium. mucoid connective tissue 4. the papillary layer of the dermis. is loose areolar connective tissue.e. is correct. adipose connective tissue F.037 Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the adventitia of the colon? A.G. loose areolar connective tissue E. i. tendons and aponeuroses are formed of regularly arranged fibrous connective tissue. mesenchymal connective tissue G. . dense irregular connective tissue C. is correct. mucoid connective tissue A. Both the lamina propria and the submucosa of the GI tract are composed of loose areolar connective tissue. Ligaments. All of the connective tissue underlying and servicing an overlying epithelium is of the loose areolar type. are good examples of loose areolar connective tissue. epitendinium and epineurium are examples of dense irregularly arranged fibrous connective tissue. D. dense regular connective tissue B. B. reticular connective tissue D. such as the tunica adventitia of vessels and the adventitia of the parts of the GI tract which are retroperitoneal. The epimysium.

type IV collagen E.4.038 Which type of collagen is primarily found in bone? A. type II collagen C.041 Which type of collagen is primarily found in tendons? A. type V collagen 4. type III collagen D. type V collagen 4. type IV collagen E. type I collagen B. type I collagen B. type III collagen D. type IV collagen E. type II collagen C. type V collagen 4. type I collagen B. type IV collagen E. type II collagen C. type III collagen D. type III collagen D. type I collagen B. type V collagen . type II collagen C.039 Which type of collagen is primarily found in cartilage? A.040 Which type of collagen is primarily found in skin? A.

is correct.044 Which type of collagen is found in the walls of blood vessels? A. Hyaline and elastic cartilage are primarily composed of type II collagen. . is correct. type I collagen B. type III collagen D. type IV collagen E. type II collagen C. B. type V collagen 4. type IV collagen E. type IV collagen E. A.043 Which type of collagen is primarily found in the stroma of the cornea? A.042 Which type of collagen is primarily found in basal laminae? A. The type of collagen found in bone is type I. type III collagen D.4. In dermis the main type of collagen is type I. type II collagen C. type V collagen 4. type II collagen C. type I collagen B. type I collagen B. type III collagen D. is correct. type V collagen A.

hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline linked together to form collagen? A. cisternae of RER C. ribosome B. is correct. is correct.048 Where are highly insoluble collagen fibers formed? . Golgi body D. Golgi body D. cisternae of RER C. cell exterior 4. A. ribosome B. dermis and bone. 4.045 Both ends of a precursor molecule are enzymatically clipped A. ribosome B. Type III collagen is the type of collagen found in the walls of blood vessels. cell exterior 4.A. cell exterior 4. D. cisternae of RER C. Type I collagen is found in tendons. Type IV collagen is the type found in basal laminae. Type V is found in the cornea but secondary in concentration to type I C. is correct.046 Where are glycine. Golgi body D. fascias.047 Where do pro-alpha chains wind together by threes to form procollagen? A. is correct.

D. i. cisternae of RER C. The individual chains are made on the ribosomes of the RER. cell exterior 4. is correct. cell exterior D. to package a protein in a membrane bound vesicle. ribosome B. B.049 Where is procollagen packaged into secretion vesicles? A. Tropocollagen molecules self-assemble into insoluble collagen fibers outside of the fibroblast. cisternae of RER C. is correct. The tropocollagen thus formed aggregates to form collagen. C. A. This is the general function of the Golgi apparatus.e. is correct. Golgi body D. . is correct. ribosome B. but they coil around each other in the cisternae of the RER before they head for the Golgi body. Golgi body D. Collagen in somewhat unique in that it is composed of about 30% glycine and 30% hydroxyproline and proline. Procollagen is packaged into secretory vesicles which empty their contents onto the cell surface where a protease clips or trims the procollagen to form tropocollagen. Procollagen is trimmed extracellularly at the surface of the cell. is correct.A.

perimysium B. A band D. H band 5. endomysium C. epimysium D.002 In a cross section of a sarcomere in skeletal muscle as seen with the electron microscope which of the following would show only thick filaments? A. I band . transverse or T tubule D.004 In human skeletal muscle where does the T tubule intercept the sarcomere? A. Z line B. sarcoplasmic reticulum E. skeletal muscle fiber or myofiber E.001 In a skeletal muscle such as the deltoid which of the following would be the smallest component? A. Where in the skeletal muscle cell is the calcium sequestered during relaxation and released from during contraction? A.SECTION 5: MUSCLE TISSUE 5. mitochondria 5. skeletal muscle myofibrils 5. motor end plate B.003 Muscle contraction depends on the availability of calcium ions as well as ATP. sarcolemma C. Z line B. I band C.

I-H jct. When the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases its stored calcium in the presence of ATP contraction occurs. 5. . A band D. M band E. E. is correct. is correct. B. but in the A bands the myosin interdigitates with the thin or actin filaments. The H band is composed only of thick filaments. The wave of depolarization is initiated at the motor end plate and spreads over the sarcolemma and into the cell via the transverse tubule system which forms triad structures with two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. A band B. D. In cardiac muscle the T tubules surround the sarcomere at the Z line. the endomysium. is correct. is correct. The I band is composed only of thin filaments. D. Individual myofibers or cells are surrounded by a connective tissue covering. is correct. The myofibrils are components of the myofiber. I band C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the cellular site for the storage and release of calcium. Z band D.005 During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber which of the following decreases in length? A.C. In skeletal muscle the T tubules surround the sarcomere at the A-I intercept. In this way the wave of depolarization is transmitted to all internal regions of the cell simultaneously. A-I jct. Groups or fascicles of myofibers are surrounded by perimysium and the entire organ or muscle is covered by the epimysium. The thick or myosin filaments are located in the H and A bands.

006 Which of the following is NOT a major component of the assembled thin filament of skeletal muscle? A. A. actin D. low level of myoglobin B. troponin B. superior oblique 5. external abdominal oblique E. low level of mitochondria C. biceps D.009 In the heart the cardiac muscle cells are in ionic communication with each other through which of the following: A. zonula adherens .As the thick and thin filaments slide over each other during contraction the I band decreases in length because the thin actin filaments sort of slide along and thereby into the thick filaments of the A band.008 All of the following describe white skeletal muscle fibers EXCEPT. quadriceps femoris C. meromyosin 5. deltoid B. tropomyosin C.007 In which muscle in the body would you expect to find a motor unit comprising one motor fiber per each muscle fiber instead of one motor fiber innervating about 100 muscle fibers? A. capable of rapid contractions E. capable of sustained contractions 5. low level of cytochrome D. 5.

E. nexus or gap junctions. is correct. The red muscles are characterized by E. skeletal muscle B. The extraocular muscles have a relatively high frequency of motor units comprised of one motor neuron innervating one skeletal muscle cell. . E. a hormone which is antagonistic to aldosterone and ADH in its effects on the kidney? A. is correct. Heavy and light meromyosin are components of the myosin molecule. macula occludens 5. The other choices all are involved in polymerizing together to form the assembled thin filament. White muscles such as the breast muscles in a chicken or the extraocular muscles in the human are characterized by A-D.B. ventricular cardiac muscle B. The muscles which move the eye must be very finely controlled compared to coarser movements of other muscles. smooth muscle of the tunica media of the aorta D.011 Which of the following can undergo both hypertrophy and hyperplasia under normal physiological stress? A. is correct. D. myoneural junction 5. atrial cardiac muscle C. macula adherens C. skeletal muscle of the intercostal space E.010 Where is the best cellular source for natriuretic factor. smooth muscle D. zonula occludens E. cardiac muscle C.

smooth muscle D. These granules are the storage form of atrial natriuretic factor. is correct. traumatized skeletal muscle nuclei C. Thus the heart is now known to be an endocrine organ. skeletal muscle C.013 Which type of muscle has a single nucleus per cell? A. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. At each cytoplasmic pole of the centrally located nucleus in atrial cardiac muscle. These junctions provide the means by which adjacent cardiac muscle cells communicate with each other ionically. endomysial fibroblasts D. 5. satellite cells E. embryonic myotubes left over from fetal myogenesis B. neurilemmal cells 5. cardiac muscle B. but only smooth muscle can also increase in number (hyperplasia) under physiologic stress such as pregnancy. B. all three types of muscle . When skeletal muscle regeneration occurs the source for new skeletal muscle cells is? A. C. is correct. Within the intercalated disc on its lateral rather than transverse portions are gap junctions.Most muscles in the body are combinations of white. All three types of muscle can undergo hypertrophy or an increase in individual cell size. C. is correct. both cardiac and smooth muscle E.012 Skeletal muscle can regenerate. red and intermediate types of myofibers. membrane bound granules can be seen.

Satellite cells are mesenchymal cells which lie in close contact with differentiated skeletal muscle cells. skeletal muscle C.015 Which of the following is/are fixed postmitotic? A. all three types of muscle 5. all three types of muscle 5. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. cardiac muscle B. both cardiac and smooth muscle E. cardiac muscle B. cardiac muscle B. both cardiac and smooth muscle E.016 Which of the following can undergo hypertrophy? A. both cardiac and smooth muscle E. is correct. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. smooth muscle D. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C.5. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. skeletal muscle C. smooth muscle D.014 Which of the following can multiply in the adult? A. all three types of muscle D. In fact they are enclosed in the basal lamina of the skeletal .

cardiac muscle . smooth muscle D. The only type of muscle cell which is multinucleated is the skeletal muscle cell.017 Which of the following contains actin and myosin filaments? A. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. D. Smooth muscle cells are the only ones which can increase in number in the adult. is correct. is correct. This is easy to appreciate when one thinks of the weight lifter or body builder for the skeletal muscle cell.018 Which of the following contain centrally located nuclei? A. the undifferentiated satellite cells can undergo differentiation to myoblasts. cardiac muscle B. However. Under the proper conditions. not from the more differentiated skeletal muscle nuclei themselves. E. is correct. which can be observed under experimental situations. all three types of muscle 5. C.muscle cell. The regeneration of skeletal muscle. In general. 5. both cardiac and smooth muscle E. smooth muscle cells can undergo cell division or hyperplasia especially during pregnancy in the myometrium. neither cardiac nor skeletal muscle cell nuclei can undergo cell division. is correct. All three types of muscle cells can increase in size in response to physiologic work load. F. is believed to be derived from undifferentiated satellite cells found lying in the basal lamina of skeletal muscle cells. skeletal muscle C. the pregnant myometrium for the smooth muscle cell and the enlarged heart of the marathon runner.

smooth muscle . both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. all three types of muscle 5. skeletal muscle C. skeletal muscle C. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F.019 Which of the following are multinucleated? A. cardiac muscle B. skeletal muscle C. skeletal muscle C. both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. both cardiac and smooth muscle E.021 Which of the following are derived from embryonic mesoderm/mesenchyme? A. both cardiac and smooth muscle E. smooth muscle D. cardiac muscle B. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle D. both cardiac and smooth muscle E.020 For which of the following does contraction involve Ca complexing with calmodulin? A. all three types of muscle 5. all three types of muscle 5. smooth muscle D.B.

C. Of the three types of muscle only the skeletal muscle cell is multinucleated. smooth muscle cells use a different calcium binding protein. is correct. D. 5. contraction of skeletal muscle B. F. is correct. The nuclei in skeletal muscle are peripherally located in the cell. is correct.022 The length of the I band decreases in the event of A. The nucleus in each smooth or cardiac muscle cell is located in the center of the cell. contraction of skeletal muscle . both cardiac and skeletal muscle F. is correct.023 Calcium is released into the sarcoplasm in the event of A. All three types contain both actin and myosin filaments. This results in a decrease in the total length of the I band. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.D. is correct. In general all three types of muscle are derived from mesoderm or mesenchyme which differentiates into myoblasts. In place of troponin. all three types of muscle 5. During contraction the actin filaments slide into the stationary myosin filaments. is correct. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle F. both cardiac and smooth muscle E. calmodulin. A. B. The thin filaments of smooth muscle contain actin and tropomosin but not troponin.

both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5. relaxation of skeletal muscle C. contraction of skeletal muscle B. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.029 What type of muscle is found in the pyloric sphincter? . contraction of skeletal muscle B. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.025 The length of the I band increases in the event of A.028 The length of the sarcomere increases in the event of A. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.B.027 The length of the A band stays the same in the event of A. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.024 An action potential travels along T tubules in the event of A. contraction of skeletal muscle B. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle 5.026 CaATPase actively transports calcium to the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the event of A. contraction of skeletal muscle B. contraction of skeletal muscle B. relaxation of skeletal muscle C.

cardiac muscle B.A. skeletal muscle C. C. is correct. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. The release of calcium from its storage in the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm where its concentration will increase around the myofibrils is associated with contraction. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. none of the above 5. B.030 What type of muscle is found in the lower third of the esophagus? A. is correct. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle D. The actin filaments slide into the myosin filaments during contraction and they slide . skeletal muscle C. During relaxation calcium ions are stored in the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. As the actin filaments slide or move out of the myosin filaments during relaxation the length of the I band will be increased. is correct. is correct. B. A. is correct. The myosin filaments in the A band stay put during both contraction and relaxation. none of the above A. smooth muscle D. As an action potential moves into the muscle cell along the T tubules it will cause release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and this will cause contraction.

From here to the external anal sphincter the GI tube has only smooth muscle in its muscularis mucosae and externae layers. cardiac muscle B. During relaxation of skeletal muscle the length of the sarcomere increases as the actin and myosin filaments slide over each other in a fashion which is opposite to that found during contraction. the skeletal muscle of the pharyngeal constrictors and its continuation into the esophagus is lost by the time the lower esophagus is reached. none of the above 5. The voluntary nature of swallowing. smooth muscle D. smooth muscle D.e. B.033 What type of muscle is found in the taenia coli? A. i. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. cardiac muscle B. is correct. C. is correct. skeletal muscle C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.031 What type of muscle is found in the core of the false vocal fold? A.032 What type of muscle is found in the sphincter of the iris? A. skeletal muscle C.out during relaxation. is correct. This is composed of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa of the stomach. 5. C. cardiac muscle . none of the above 5.

cardiac muscle B. skeletal muscle C. skeletal muscle C.B. smooth muscle D. . cardiac muscle B. skeletal muscle C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. is correct. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle D. smooth muscle D. none of the above 5. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.035 What type of muscle is found in the tunica media of the thoracic duct? A. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.034 What type of muscle is found in the auricular appendage of the atrium? A. none of the above 5. none of the above E.036 What type of muscle is found in the tunica adventitia of the inferior vena cava? A. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C. none of the above 5.

cardiac muscle . is correct. The taenia coli of the colon represent enlarged areas of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle belonging to the muscularis externa layer of the wall of the colon. If one is interested in locating myenteric (Auerbach's) plexuses in the colon.The core of the false vocal fold contains loose areolar connective tissue and glands. skeletal muscle C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. The sphincter of the iris. is officially placed in the tunica adventitia. none of the above 5. 5. A. a good place to look is the interface between the outer longitudinal and inner circular layers of smooth muscle. is correct. a tunica adventitia is a connective tissue area. but no skeletal muscle. The auricular appendages of the cardiac atria would be composed of cardiac muscle. is composed of smooth muscle which is innervated by the autonomic nervous system. All tunica media are composed of circularly arranged smooth muscle. is correct. cardiac muscle B. C. is correct. C. C. In the usual sense. smooth muscle D.038 What type of muscle spans the open ends of cartilage rings in the trachea? A. C.037 What type of muscle is found in the middle third of the esophagus? A. is correct. but in the inferior vena cava the large amount of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle which is important in moving blood superiorly. like the dilator of the iris.

smooth muscle D. none of the above 5.039 What type of muscle is found in the trabeculae of the lymph node? A. smooth muscle D. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.040 What type of muscle is found in the core of the true vocal fold? A. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle . skeletal muscle C. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C. none of the above 5. none of the above 5. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.041 What type of muscle is found in the mediastinum of the testis? A. cardiac muscle B. cardiac muscle B. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.042 What type of muscle is found in the myometrium of the uterus? A. cardiac muscle B. none of the above 5. smooth muscle D.B. skeletal muscle C.

the vocalis muscle. are examples of connective tissue areas which leave the capsule and enter the organ. Between the vocalis muscle and the epithelial covering of this fold is a mass of elastic connective tissue sometime called the vocal ligament. for example. is correct. The myometrium of the uterus is a mass of smooth muscle which can undergo both hypertrophy and hyperplasia during pregnancy. E. E. is correct.B. Benign tumors of the smooth muscle cells mixed with the ever present fibroblasts in the myometrium are uterine "fibroids" (actually fibromyomas). B. is correct. smooth muscle D. none of the above D. The trachealis muscle is the mass of smooth muscle which bridges the gap between the open ends of the C-shaped pieces of hyaline cartilage. 5. The middle third of the esophagus is the region in which the skeletal muscle from the upper part is giving way to the smooth muscle of the lower part. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. Connective tissue trabeculae. is correct. The deep core of the true vocal fold is composed of skeletal muscle. C. C. skeletal muscle C. are extensions of the connective tissue capsule of an organ into the deeper regions of the organ. The trabeculae of the spleen and the lymph node. is correct. in general. is correct.043 What type of muscle is found in the pars membranaceum of the interventricular septum? . The mediastinum of the testis is a major connective tissue area which contains the rete testis and from which connective tissue septa radiate outward to form partitions or little "rooms" which house the seminiferous tubules.

045 What type of muscle is found in the tunica albuginea of the corpora cavernosa of the penis? A.046 What type of muscle is found in the upper third of the esophagus? A. skeletal muscle C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. none of the above 5. smooth muscle D. none of the above 5. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C. smooth muscle D. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. cardiac muscle B. none of the above 5.A.044 What type of muscle is found in the tunica adventitia of the descending aorta? A. none of the above . skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle B. cardiac muscle B. both skeletal and smooth muscle E.

testis. There is one exception to this rule and that is the inferior vena cava which has a large amount of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle in its tunica adventitia. The tunica albuginea of the body. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. is correct. or penis. none of the above 5. is correct. smooth muscle D.048 What type of muscle is responsible for "goosebumps" on cold skin? A. E. This region of the interventricular septum of the heart is one of the components of the cardiac skeleton and it is composed of dense regular fibrous connective tissue.5. B. cardiac muscle B. be it of ovary. No muscle is present. cardiac muscle B. none of the above E. The skeletal muscle of the pharyngeal constrictors continues inferiorly into the muscularis externa of the upper third of the esophagus and then begins to blend .047 What type of muscle is found in the stapes of the middle ear? A. is correct. E. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle C. is correct. Tunica adventitiae are composed of loose areolar connective tissue mingled with some adipose tissue. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. are all composed of dense irregularly arranged fibrous connective tissue and not of any kind of muscle. skeletal muscle C.

049 What type of muscle is found in the internal anal sphincter? A. none of the above 5. is correct. C. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. both skeletal and smooth muscle E. The internal anal sphincter. when contracted. smooth muscle D.050 What type of muscle is found in the tunica media of the umbilical vein in the umbilical cord? A. skeletal muscle C. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle B. The stapedius muscle of the inner ear is a tiny skeletal muscle innervated by the 7th cranial nerve. . The stapes of the inner ear is made of bone. C. is involuntary and is composed of smooth muscle. is correct. cardiac muscle B. is correct. as opposed to the external anal sphincter. pull the hair follicle up straight and in doing so cause "bumps" to form on the surface of the skin.with smooth muscle fibers in the middle third of the esophagus. none of the above C. In the lower third of the esophagus the skeletal muscle fibers have been replaced by smooth muscle fibers. smooth muscle D. is correct. E. 5. The arrector pili muscles found in the reticular layer of the dermis are small smooth muscles which.

The tunica media of all vessels is a good place to fmd circularly arranged smooth muscle cells. .

groups of neurofilaments E. Schwann cell E. synaptic cleft B. Nissi body D. axolemma B. RER and polysome areas D.001 Which of the following cells makes the myelin sheath found within the CNS? A.002 Nissl substance or bodies actually is the light microscopic version of what? A. Golgi apparatus B. the axon hillock 6. oligodendrocyte 6. dendrite 6.003 The region of the perikaryon in which microtubules are concentrated and arranged into bundles or fascicles is the? A. satellite cell D. microglia B. node of Ranvier E.004 Which of the following would be the best place to find the highest concentration of a neurotransmitter? A. protoplasmic astrocyte C. axon hillock C. synaptic vesicle . synaptic vesicles C.SECTION 6: NERVOUS TISSUE 6.

6. neuromuscular junction 6. B. is correct. is correct. B.005 Which of the following cells is known to be phagocytic? A. is correct. After its exocytosis from the presynaptic membrane its half life is very short. protoplasmic astrocyte E. fibrous astrocyte D. oligodendrocyte B. The Schwann cell makes peripheral myelin and the oligodendrocyte makes central myelin. Although neurotransmitters can be found in all of the areas listed. is correct. presynaptic membrane D. microglia C. The axon hillock is devoid of Nissl substance and is a place where the microtubules are found in bundles. C. Nissl bodies are the basophilic granular areas seen with the light microscope in the perikaryon of the neuron. The microglial cells are phagocytes and probably antigen-presenting cells in the CNS.C. is correct.006 In an electron micrograph of myelinated peripheral nerve the major dense . B. it is in the synaptic vesicle in which the neurotransmitter is stored before its release. Nissl bodies represent mixtures of RER and polysomes at the EM level. postsynaptic membrane E. ependyma E.

lines of fusion of the P faces of the plasmalemma D.008 With respect to the autonomic nervous system which of the following does NOT have postganglionic nerve fibers? A. parenchyma of adrenal medulla D. an unmyelinated PNS axon D.009 Where in the nervous system. satellite cell C. lines of fusion of the glycocalyxes of two apposing plasmalemmas 6. in relation to the propagation of an action potential. Schwann cell interperiod line D.007 An axon residing in a simple cleft in the cytoplasm of a Schwann cell is probably: A. are the sodium and potassium channels concentrated? A. neuron in the celiac ganglion E. an unmyelinated CNS axon 6. neuron in the superior cervical ganglion 6. lines of fusion of the E faces of the plasmalemma E.lines seen in the myelin sheath actually represent ? A. endoneurium B. Meissner's (submucosal) plexus neuron B. node of Ranvier . a myelinated central nervous system axon C. lines of fusion of the P surfaces of plasmalemma B. lines of fusion of the E surfaces of plasmalemma C. a myelinated peripheral nervous system axon B. Auerbach's (myenteric) plexus neuron C.

is correct. Unmyelinated axons in the CNS often run free in the neuropile. is correct. neurofilament proteins D. decreased cytoplasmic basophilia in perikaryon B. peripheral movement of nucleus in perikaryon E. . the cytoplasm is "squeezed out" and the major dense line in myelin results from a fusion of the P surfaces of the same Schwann cell. is correct. tubulin C. disappearance of Nissl substance C.011 Chromatolysis following injury to a nerve includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. increase in volume of perikaryon D.E. perikaryon of a motor neuron 6. C. C. The cells of the adrenal medulla are neural crest derivatives which instead of differentiating into neurons.010 Which of the following is NOT transported by the slow component of the axonal transport system? A. synaptic vesicles B. is correct. As the Schwann cell wraps around the axon it is myelinating. actin E. differentiate into endocrine glandular secretory cells and therefore they receive a direct preganglionic input and are considered to be analogous to postganglionic units. Unmyelinated axons in the PNS sit in clefts in the cytoplasm of Schwann cells. metabolic enzymes 6. D. complete axonal degeneration A.

A. The myelin sheath also degenerates. or nexus . E. is correct. in the cerebellum C.012 In which of the following are the satellite cells complete in their enveloping of perikarya? A. along with mitochondria. inferior mesenteric ganglion E. in the anterior horn of the spinal gray matter D. All of the other choices are transported by the slow transport system (few mm/day).014 Which of the following is the main component of the blood-brain barrier? A. myenteric ganglion C. All of the other choices are characteristics of chromatolysis in the nerve cell body. gap jct. in the white matter of the spinal cord E.013 Purkinje cells are found: A. Complete axonal degeneration occurs distal to the site of the injury. in the cerebrum B. submucosal ganglion D. is correct. down the axon toward its termination. but the Schwann cells proliferate in the endoneural tube forming "guides" for the regenerating axons. dorsal root ganglion B.In saltatory conduction the action potential jumps from node to node because it is at the nodes of Ranvier that the axon is exposed to the extracellular fluid. inferior cervical ganglion 6. Synaptic vesicles are transported by the fast axonal transport system (hundreds of mm/day). 6. in the choroid plexus 6. This is also where the sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels are concentrated in the cell membrane of the neuron.

their membrane voltage can change instantly in response to the correct stimulus. voltage gated channels open B.016 Nerve and muscle cells. When this happens. voltage difference is measured in millivolts D. . Purkinje cells are located in the cerebellum between its outer molecular layer and the inner granular layer. The dorsal root or spinal ganglia have complete envelopes of satellite cells surrounding the perikarya. A & B & C are correct 6. Na moved to outside/K moved to inside the cell B. K flows outward D. interdigitation 6. B. A & B are correct E. the outside of the cell becomes momentarily positive A. are excitable. all of the following correctly apply at the cellular level EXCEPT? A. Na flows inward C. i. Autonomic ganglia are characterized by an incomplete envelope of satellite cells.B. is correct. fascia adherens E.015 The Na/K-ATPase pump causes which of the following to happen? A. voltage difference between inside and outside the cell is maintained by the pump C.e. macula adherens C. is correct. zonula occludens D. unlike other body cells. the inside of the cell becomes momentarily positive E.

these cells have occludens type junctions between them. 6. A & B are correct E. synaptic vesicles exocytose their contents into the synaptic cleft D. D. C. neurotransmitter molecules are bound by receptors or ligand-gated channels in a plasmalemma 6. The change in inside electrical potential occurs in less than one millisecond. E. is correct.018 When an action potential reaches the end of an axon terminal. is correct. The action potential passes along (propagated) the cell surface. neurotransmitter molecules cross the synaptic cleft E.017 What causes the action potential in a myelinated nerve to jump from one node of Ranvier to the next node of Ranvier as it is propagated? A. myelin acts as an electrical insulator B.C. Na channels are restricted almost entirely to the nodal plasmalemma. all of the following happen EXCEPT: A. In this action potential situation the outside of the cell becomes negative and the inside becomes positive. is correct. Na channels are evenly concentrated throughout the entire neurilemma D. Unlike endothelial cells outside of the CNS. A & B & C are correct 6. it fails to jump across the synaptic cleft C. in nerve and muscle cells this electrical difference is called the resting potential. it jumps across the synaptic cleft and depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane of the next neuron B.019 All of the following are known to be neurotransmitter substances contained . The capillary endothelial cells in the CNS have no fenestrations and very little pinocytotic activity. Although this difference occurs in all animal cells.

. This type of jumpy propagation of the action potential in a myelinated nerve fiber is referred to as saltatory conduction.020 Arrange the following layers in proper sequence as a pin passes from pia mater to cerebral spinal fluid through the cerebral cortex: 1=pia mater. the myelin coat decreases the capacitance of the axonal membrane D. A. It is much faster (100 meters/second) than the burning fuse method found in unmyelinated nerve fibers (25 meters/second). dopamine D. A & B are correct E. 2=molecular layer. almost all of the membrane channels are confined at the nodes of Ranvier B. serotonin C. 4=pyramidal cell layer. is correct. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine E.021 Why do myelinated nerve fibers transmit an impulse much faster than nonmyelinated fibers? A. A & B & C are correct D. 1-3-2-5-4-6 C.and released by synaptic vesicles EXCEPT: A. 1-5-4-2-3-6 E. 1-5-4-3-2-6 6. Ca ion flux 6. is correct. A. 5=inner granular layer. 6=pyramidal cells of Betz. the myelin coat significantly reduces current leakage from the axon C. 1-4-2-3-5-6 D. 3=outer granular layer. 1-2-3-4-5-6 B.

then a basement membrane and then which of the following? A. not by electrically jumping across the synaptic cleft. protoplasmic astrocyte D. ependymal cells E. microglia E. interneurons D. ependymal cell 6. is correct.023 Which of the following forms myelin? A. astrocyte cytoplasm 6. central myelin C. A. but by causing the release of neurotransmitter. fibrous astrocyte C. 6. D. oligodendrocyte cytoplasm B. is correct.022 As a pin enters the substance of the brain it traverses the pia mater. Ca ion influx into the cytoplasm of the axon terminal immediately precedes the fusion of the synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane which is how neurotransmitter substances are released into the synaptic cleft. E. The myelin coat actually increases the capacitance of the axonal membrane thereby preventing the buildup of opposite charges on either side of the axolemma and sort of confining this buildup to the nodes of Ranvier.024 Which of the following lines the lumen of the neural tube? A. is correct.Action potentials stimulate the next neuron in the sequence. oligodendrocyte B. oligodendrocyte .

microglia E. fibrous astrocyte C. microglia E. protoplasmic astrocyte D. protoplasmic astrocyte D. ependymal cell E. protoplasmic astrocyte D. ependymal cell 6. oligodendrocyte B.026 Which of the following can be phagocytic under certain situations such as trauma or inflammation? A. fibrous astrocyte C. oligodendrocyte B. protoplasmic astrocyte D.B. microglia E. is correct. fibrous astrocyte C.025 Which of the following covers the capillaries of the choroid plexus? A. . microglia E. fibrous astrocyte C.027 Which of the following have end-feet that ensheath capillaries in gray matter? A. oligodendrocyte B. ependymal cell 6. ependymal cell 6.

all of the above E. perineurium C.028 What structure are you touching when you roll the radial nerve of gross anatomy between your index finger and thumb? A. endoneurium D. Microglia are can become phagocytic under certain conditions such as injury to a part of the CNS. The oligodendrocyte forms myelin in the central nervous system. D. The ciliated cuboidal to columnar cells comprising the ependyma also cover the capillary tufts of the choroid plexuses where they probably play a role in the formation of cerebral spinal fluid. is correct. E. is correct. is correct. A.Immediately under the basement membrane of the pia mater are found the subpial processes of astrocytes. Since almost all of the external surface of the capillaries in the brain can be covered by the end-feet of the astrocytes. C. 6. This is a description of what the protoplasmic astrocyte does in gray matter.029 What structure is found immediately peripheral to the plasmalemma of a Schwann cell? . none of the above 6. Ependymal cells line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. E. which collectively form the glia limitans which invests the entire CNS. epineurium B. is correct. it is thought that the astrocytes play an important role in regulating the composition of the tissue fluid compartment of the brain. is correct.

epineurium B. perineurium C. epineurium B. none of the above 6. all of the above E. endoneurium D. none of the above 6.A. epineurium B.030 What structure is continuous with the same investment found in a tendon? A. endoneurium D. perineurium C. all of the above E. none of the above 6.033 What structure would contain almost exclusively capillaries? .032 What structure divides a peripheral nerve up into fascicles? A. none of the above 6. epineurium B. endoneurium D. endoneurium D. all of the above E.031 What structure contains collagen fibers and fibroblasts? A. perineurium C. all of the above E. perineurium C.

A. endoneurium D. The connective tissue supporting individual nerve fibers is the endoneurium. perineurium C. D. the endo-. is correct.034 Schwann cells are associated with: A. periand epitendinium. none of the above 6. central nervous system B. Peripheral nerves do not continue into tendons. The outermost connective tissue covering of a peripheral nerve is the epineurium. C. Perineurium forms the connective tissue sheaths for groups of nerve cell processes. periand epimysium layers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps do run into the same layers of a tendon such as the endo-. . All of the connective tissue coverings within a peripheral nerve between the endoneurium and the epineurium are divisions and examples of perineurium. B. is correct. All of the connective tissue coverings found in a peripheral nerve contain fibroblasts and collagen fibers. Such a grouping is a fascicle. is correct. epineurium B. C. is correct. peripheral nervous system A. E. all of the above E. is correct. However. is correct.

B.038 Ependymal cells are associated with: A. central nervous system B. Schwann cells are the myelin forming cells associated with the peripheral nervous system. 6. central nervous system B. central nervous system B.Since the endoneurium is the connective tissue covering for each individual nerve fiber in a peripheral nerve.036 Oligodendrocytes are associated with: A. it would be expected to contain nothing but capillaries. central nervous system B. central nervous system B.040 The choroid plexus is associated with: A. in addition to some capillaries. peripheral nervous system . central nervous system B.037 Endoneurium is associated with: A. peripheral nervous system 6. whereas the larger and thicker connective tissue coverings (peri-and epi-neurium) would be expected to contain vessels larger than capillaries. is correct. peripheral nervous system 6.039 Motor end plates are associated with: A. peripheral nervous system 6. peripheral nervous system 6. peripheral nervous system 6.035 Satellite cells are associated with: A.

except that central myelin is chemically different from peripheral myelin. They are cuboidal to columnar ciliated cells which line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Motor end plates are specialized endings of motor neurons on skeletal muscle cells and therefore can only be found in the peripheral nervous system. B. A. A. They are excitatory synapses which release acetylcholine which induces depolarization in the sarcolemma. B. They are equivalent to the Schwann cell of the peripheral nervous system. These are the cells which myelinate nerve fibers in the central nervous system. A. Satellite cells are special cells which completely (dorsal root ganglia) or incompletely (autonomic ganglia) surround nerve cell bodies in ganglia of the peripheral nervous system. The choroid plexus is a tuft of fenestrated capillaries covered by a cuboidal epithelium. The choroid plexuses are found in the ventricles of the brain where they are instrumental in producing cerebral spinal fluid which is a dialysate of blood with its ionic content modified by the cuboidal epithelium covering of the plexus. is correct. The endoneurium is immediately outside or peripheral to the Schwann cell which is immediately peripheral to the axolemma.B. They also cover the choroid plexuses. is correct. is correct. is correct. . is correct. is correct. Endoneurium is the delicate connective sheath surrounding each nerve fiber in a peripheral nerve.

1-2-34-5 . stratum spinosum B. 3=stratum basale. stratum granulosum D. 5=stratum comeum. stratum lucidum C. stratum basale 7. autocrine 7. hypodermis E. endocrine E. A. 4=stratum lucidum. merocrine C. papillary layer of dermis C. 2=stratum granulosum.SECTION 7: INTEGUMENT 7.004 Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence from birth to final desquamation of an epidermal cell: 1=stratum spinosum. stratum spinosum E. stratum corneum B.001 Where in the epidermis are keratohyaline granules found? A. reticular layer of dermis D. apocrine B.002 When a sebaceous gland secretes its product what type of secretory mechanism is utilized? A. holocrine D.003 Where in the integument would you expect to find Meissner's corpuscles? A. superficial fascia 7.

primary epidermal ridges B. 4-3-2-1-5 E. interpapillary pegs E. Keratohyaline granules are characteristic of the stratum granulosum. spinosum. The interpapillary peg divides the primary dermal ridges into two secondary dermal ridges. is correct. 2-1-4-3-5 D. C.B. The secretory product of the sebaceous gland is the entire cell itself. the dermatoglyphic pattern. When the entire cell is the secretory product the type of secretion is termed holocrine. 3-1-2-4-5 C. corneum. B. The interpapillary peg is a downgrowth of the deep side of a primary ridge.005 When the police fingerprint a suspect the whorled pattern comprising the fingerprint. dermal papillae C. s. granulosum. is correct. secondary dermal ridges D. . s. primary dermal ridges C. each of which can have several smaller dermal papillae which project toward the epidermis. lucidum to s. Meissner's corpuscles are found in the dermal papillae as they project into the overlying epidermis as extensions from the papillary layer of the dermis. The friction ridges on the surface of the fingertips are formed from primary epidermal ridges which overlie primary dermal ridges. actually represents? A. is correct. 3-2-1-4-5 7. Epidermal cells are born in the stratum basale and move up through the s. is correct. A. is correct. B.

4= internal root sheath.006 The following description applies to which cell: epidermal cells which are stellate. keratinocyte B. Merkel cell D. Merkel cell D. melanocyte E.7. 3=medulla. cuboidal cell in duct of sweat gland 7. 5=external root sheath. fibroblast 7. keratinocyte B. contain tyrosinase and have their specific product phagocytized by adjacent cells. melanocyte E.007 Which of the following cells of the integument is derived from a bone marrow precursor cell and can trap and present antigen to immunologically competent cells? A. keratinocyte B. A. Langerhans cell C. Merkel cell D. Langerhans cell C. A.008 Which of the following cells of the integument is most closely associated with bare nerve endings? A. 1-2-3-0-5 . 2=cuticle.009 Arrange the following structures in proper sequence for the structure of a hair follicle from centermost in the hair itself outward: 1=cortex. sebaceous cell 7. melanocyte E. Langerhans cell C.

B. lunula D. is correct. 4-2-1-3-5 C. B. is correct. nail bed E. It is an important component of the defense system. The melanin granules are dispersed from the melanocyte cell processes and are "injected" (cytocrine secretion) into adjacent keratinocytes and phagocytized by macrophages in the dermis (chromatophores). 2-3-1-4-5 D. is correct. nail matrix C. 3-2-1-4-5 E. C. Free nerve endings as opposed to encapsulated nerve endings are "free" of their Schwann cell investment. The melanocyte is derived from neural crest.010 Which of the following is the germinal region of a finger nail? A. E. In the skin of the palms and soles some free nerve endings have a disk-like ending in close association with a cell which has some dense-cored granules in its cytoplasm. nail plate B. eponychium D. is correct. It can synthesize melanin by synthesizing tyrosinase which converts tyrosine into an melanin precursor and eventually melanin granules. . 3-1-213-5 7. is correct. The Langerhans cell is a stellate cell found mostly in the stratum spinosum. This arrangement serves as a mechanoreceptor as opposed to the pain and temperature receptor function of other bare nerve endings. B.

identify the gland. The nail matrix is associated with the deep or proximal part of the nail plate. blood flow in the rete subpapillare or subpapillary vascular plexus is normal C. keratinocyte in stratum granulosum C.012 The secretory product of this gland is mainly composed of water.014 All of the following are functions of the integument EXCEPT. eccrine sweat gland C. but not contributing cells to it. arteriovenous anastomoses in the rete cutaneum or cutaneous plexus are open B.013 Which of the following cells would be detected by the dopa reaction? A. The eponychium or cuticle is formed from the stratum comeum of the epidermis as it folds to cover the nail root. The nail bed is the epidermis underlying the nail plate. sebaceous gland B. Langerhans cells B. A. 7. A. salt.011 Which of the following apply to the condition of cold fingers and toes? A. A & B are correct E. blood flow in the subcutaneous vessels is diminished D. keratinocyte in stratum spinosum D. A & B & C are correct 7. ammonia and urea. melanocyte 7. gland of Zeiss 7. apocrine sweat gland D. ceruminous gland E. chromatophore in dermis E. protection .The nail matrix is the germinating center or area for the nail plate or nail itself.

Blood flow in the subcutaneous vessels would be normal. When the environmental conditions are too hot. This prevents much blood from perfusing the subpapillary plexus and losing its heat out there. C. the melanocytes. From what source(s) do the cells come from to form this "new" epidermis on the donor site? A. E. is correct. . A & B & C are correct A. is correct. temperature regulation C. The AV anastomoses in the cutaneous plexus open when the environment is cold. sebaceous glands D. force blood into the small vessels of the subpapillary plexus where it will be close to the surface of the skin where it can benefit from the cooling effect of sweat evaporation. The glands of Zeis are modified sebaceous glands associated with the hair follicles of the eyelids. excretion 7. A & B are correct E. is correct.B. synthesis of vitamin C D. All of the other glands listed secrete a more viscous product. B. When dope (dihydrophenylalanine) is exposed to a suitable preparation of epidermis-dermis it is converted into melanin by the cells in the epidermis which contain tyrosinase.015 A split-thickness skin graft is removed from a donor site (unburned) and grafted to a burned site. is correct. The donor site will eventually be covered with a "new" epidermis. external root sheath of hair follicles B. ducts of sweat glands C. synthesis of vitamin D E. Vitamin C is a dietary requirement. the AV anastomoses in the cutaneous plexus close and by doing so.

free or bare nerve ending C. is correct.018 Prickle cells are found in which of the following? A. not in the dermis or hypodermis? A. reticular layer of dermis E. These cells do not participate in the formation of new epidermis. Kraus end bulb 7. papillary layer of dermis D. reticular layer of dermis E. 7.017 Anchoring proteins are found in a lamina lucida in which of the following? A. Pacinian corpuscle B. Sebaceous glands secrete by the holocrine type in which an entire dead cell is the secretory product.016 Which of the following sensory receptors of the integument is usually located in the epidermis. Cells from choices A & B do proliferate and migrate over the wound site to form a new epidermis at the donor site.019 Birbeck granules are found in which of the following? . epidermis B. Ruffin corpuscle D. hypodermis 7. epidermo-dermal junction C. hypodermis 7.D. papillary layer of dermis D. epidermis B. Meissner's corpuscle E. epidermo-dermal junction C.

hypodermis 7. epidermis B. papillary layer of dermis D. is correct.021 Meissner's corpuscles are found in which of the following? A. epidermo-dermal junction C. The lamina lucida (rara) is not the stratum lucidum. reticular layer of dermis E. reticular layer of dermis E. hypodermic 7. is correct. reticular layer of dermis E. papillary layer of dermis D. All other choices are found in the dermis from its most superficial region just under the epidermis to deep into the hypodermis. hypodermis B. . The denser lamina densa is closest to the adjacent connective tissue.020 A large amount of adipose tissue is found in which of the following? A.A. epidermo-dermal junction C. epidermis B. epidermis B. epidermo-dermal junction C. B. papillary layer of dermis D. is correct. The lamina lucida is a component of the basement membrane (basal lamina) which is closest to the cell membrane of the keratinocytes in the stratum basale. A.

Meissner's corpuscles are mechanoreceptors for touch. The hypodermis contains a significant amount of adipose tissue. 7. papillary layer of dermis D. A. E. epidermo-dermal junction C. reticular layer of dermis E. epidermis B.This is another name for the spiny cells of the stratum spinosum. It is the same layer as the superficial fascia or tela subcutanea of gross anatomy. especially in the projection of this layer into the overlying epidermis. epidenno-dermal junction C. The prickle or spiny look is derived from the presence of many desmosomes on these keratinocytes which are accentuated when the tissue is fixed and some shrinkage artifact occurs. reticular layer of dermis E. is correct. hypodermis . epidermis B.022 Glands secreting by the holocrine method of secretion are found in which of the following? A. These granules are rod shaped and have been called vermiform granules and Langerhans granules. These are the dense granules found in the Langerhans cells which reside in the epidermis. C. is correct. They are found in the papillary layer of the dermis.023 Keratinocytes are found in which of the following? A. hypodermis 7. papillary layer of dermis D. is correct.

hypodermis 7. epidermis B. reticular layer of dermis . epidermo-dermal junction C.025 Which of the following is avascular? A. reticular layer of dermis E. epidenno-dermal junction C.027 Keratohyaline granules are found in which of the following? A. epidermis B. reticular layer of derrnis E. epidermis B. papillary layer of dermis D.024 Melanin synthesis is found in which of the following? A. papillary layer of dermis D. hypodermis 7. hypodermis 7. epidermo-dermal junction C. epidermo-dermal junction C. papillary layer of dermis D.026 Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue is found in which of the following? A. reticular layer of dennis E. epidermis B. papillary layer of dermis D.7.

They represent the source of the protein of soft keratin or the keratin of the epidermis as opposed to the hard keratin of the nails. receiving nutrients from the underlying loose areolar connective tissue. Keratinocytes are the epithelial cells of the epidermis. is correct. Macrophages of the papillary layer of the dermis can ingest melanin granules. epidermis B. One way to remember this is that the "whole" (holo-of holocrine) cell is the secretory product. When they do this they are called chromatophores. A. hypodermis D. The reticular layer of the dermis is composed of a type of connective tissue called dense irregular collagenous CT. A. is correct. The epidermis actually is a stratified squamous dry or keratinized or cornified epithelium. actually its stratum basale. is correct. . A.E. epidenno-dermal junction C. is correct. reticular layer of dermis E. is correct. Melanocytes are found in the epidermis. A.028 The eponychium is found in which of the following? A. The sebaceous glands associated with the hair follicles in the reticular layer of the dermis secrete via the holocrine method. D. papillary layer of dermis D. hypodermis 7. All epithelia are avascular. Keratohyaline granules are basophilic granules characteristic of the stratum granulosum of the epidermis. is correct.

papillary layer of dermis D. . The eponychium as well as all other parts of the nail are all specializations of the epidermis. is correct. epidenno-dermal junction C. epidenno-dermal junction C. D. is correct. reticular layer of dermis E. These would be the stem cells of the stratum basale of the epidermis. They occur on the side of the follicle the hair angles away from. hypodennis 7. When they contract they actually pull the basal region of the hair follicle obliquely toward the surface.029 Vegetative intermitotic cells of cuboidal shape are found in which of the following? A. 7. epidermis B.030 Arrector pili muscles are found in which of the following? A. papillary layer of dermis D. The net effect is to straighten the hair. reticular layer of dermis E. is correct. epidermis B. The eponychium is the proximal cuticle of the nail.A. hypodennis A. These little smooth muscles run from the hair follicle deep in the reticular layer of the dermis obliquely to the outer most reaches of the reticular layer of the dermis and perhaps as far as the papillary layer of the dermis.

collagen B. tissue fluid 8. fibrous layer of periosteum E. pinna of the ear C. intervertebral disc .001 Which of the following is the best place to find isogenous groups of cells? A. chondroblasts C.003 All of the following are found in or pertain to the chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium EXCEPT: A. elastin C. capillaries E. tracheal rings B. collagen B. hyaluronic acid D. osteogenic layer of periosteum 8. interstitial growth 8. interstices of tracheal ring of hyaline cartilage D. fibrous layer of perichondrium C. chondrogenic layer of perichondrium B.002 All of the following are components of hyaline cartilage EXCEPT: A.004 Where in the human body would one find fibrocartilage? A.SECTION 8: CARTILAGE AND BONE 8. appositional growth D.

. epiphyseal plate 8. All other choices represent the appositional type of growth. is correct. Chondroblasts differentiate in this inner region of the perichondrium and form matrix which is added to the surface of matrix which had already been formed.006 All of the following pertain to or are involved in intramembranous ossification EXCEPT: A. C. mesenchymal cells B. nutrients 8.005 Canaliculi contain all of the following EXCEPT: A. hydroxyapatite crystals E. lacunae C. canaliculi E. osteoblasts C. tissue fluid B. Cartilage is avascular.D. oxygen C. is correct. chondrocytes D. cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes D. This is known as appositional growth. Deep in a piece of cartilage is where evidence of chondrocyte division or interstitial growth is found. D. epiglottis E. is correct. D. and contains all other components in varying amounts. is correct. Cartilage contains an antiangiogenesis factor which prevents blood vessel invasion into the cartilage under most circumstances.

5-3-2-4-1 D. 5-4-3-2-1 C. unmineralized osteoid is deposited on calcified cartilage surfaces E. C. adjacent matrix calcifies C. osteogenic cells invade the area D. is correct. A. Intramembranous ossification is the formation of mineralized bone matrix from mesenchyme. D. 4=zone of proliferating cartilage. 3-2-4-5-1 . Osteocytes have slender cytoplasmic extensions or processes which course within the canaliculi and actually contact processes of adjacent osteocytes. 5=zone of osteoid deposition. hypertrophied chondrocytes die B. 8. 1-2-3-4-5 B. Canaliculi are small tunnels in bone through which tissue fluid. without any involvement of a cartilaginous model. oxygen and nutrients are delivered to the osteocytes living in the lacunae.008 As a pin passes into an epiphyseal plate from the primary or diaphyseal center of ossification to the secondary or epiphyseal center of ossification the following regions or zones will be encountered in which sequence: 1=zone of resting cartilage. It is characteristic of the intervertebral disc. as in the formation of some of the flat bones of the skull. 3=zone of calcified cartilage. 2=zone of hypertrophied cartilage. all of the following events eventually occur EXCEPT: A. pubic symphysis and intraarticular menisci.Fibrocartilage has few chondrocytes and large amounts of parallel bundles of collagen. is correct. not within canaliculi. hypertrophied chondrocytes undergo interstitial growth 8. Hydroxyapatite crystals are found in mineralized bone.007 When chondrocytes hypertrophy during the process of endochondral ossification. 4-5-1-3-2 E.

A. because of its earlier deposition. outer circumferential lamellae E.009 As a pin passes from bone marrow into the center of a spicule of developing endochondral bone the following layers will be encountered in which sequence: 1=calcified cartilage. These are the named zones one finds in the epiphyseal plate as one proceeds from the diaphysis toward the epiphyseal center of ossification. The events listed in A . is correct. Haversian system B. E is completely false. . C. inner circumferential lamellae D. 4-2-3-1 B. 4=osteoblast. C. 2-3-1-4 8.010 Which of the following structures in a fully grown adult bone would be closest to the endosteum? A. Deep to the fresh osteoid the pin would encounter older osteoid which. unmineralized osteoid underneath itself. A is the correct sequence from bone marrow to the surface of the spicule where an osteoblast would be busy laying down some fresh.D are characteristic of endochondral ossification. 2=fresh. A.8. osteogenic layer of periosteum E. 1-2-4-3 E. is correct. is correct. is correct. unmineralized osteoid. 3=mineralized osteoid. 4-3-2-1 D. interstitial lamellae C. 1-3-2-4 C. would be mineralized. In the center of this spicule of endochondral ossification would be a core of calcified cartilage.

fibrocartilage of pubic symphysis 8. parathyroid hormone D. the protein in the pellet was elastin C. Within a few days mesenchymal cells migrate into the area and differentiate into osteoblasts which begin to form bone. the protein in the pellet was collagen B. the protein in the pellet was erythropoietin E. The osteogenic layer of the periosteum produces the outer circumferential lamellae. somatostatin C. elastic core of the epiglottis B. cartilage model of the humerus in a fetus E.014 Where in mature. articular cartilage in a synovial joint C. calcitonin E. the protein in the pellet was osteogenic protein D.As a bone reaches its adult size both the periosteum and endosteum lay down lamellae of bone which are not components of either the Haversian systems or the interstitial lamellae.012 Which of the following is not covered with a perichondrium? A.013 A pellet containing a protein is placed under the skin. adjacent to the Haversian canal . cartilage ring in the trachea D. Which of the follow best describes this situation? A. the protein in the pellet was synovial protein 8. erythropoietin 8. The osteogenic cells and the osteoblasts comprising the endosteum are involved in producing the inner circumferential lamellae. compact bone are the oldest lamellae located? A. somatotrophin B.011 Proliferation of chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate can be stimulated by: A. 8.

functioning adenoma of the hypophysis. Conversely. These lamellae are the interstitial lamellae and are the oldest bone. BMP has been used clinically to get tooth dentine to grow back which normally does not happen once bacteria have created a hole in the dentine which eventually leads to bacterial invasion of the pulp and thus the need for a root canal procedure. BMP has also been successfully used in healing bone fractures which have large gaps between the ends of the broken bones. Somatotrophin or growth hormone stimulates the proliferation and maturation of chrondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate. 4=some osteogenic cells begin to . Like erythropoietin its site of manufacture is the kidney. excessive growth of the epiphyseal plate following by endochondral ossification can result in abnormally tall individuals (giantism). with age becomes inflamed and degenerative in the disease osteoarthritis. As compact bone is remodeled by osteoclastic activity and the formation of resorption tunnels. 8. adjacent to the cement line C. is correct. It is the articular cartilage.015 Which sequence is the correct sequence for the healing of a simple fracture of a long bone: 1=bone breaks. 3=osteocytes in Haversian systems die. is correct. some lamellae from the pre-existing Haversian system remain outside the confines of the newly formed Haversian system. has been isolated. not all of the pre-existing Haversian systems get resorbed. purified and manufactured by recombinant DNA techniques. If there is an excess of somatotrophin. is correct.B. As a new Haversian system is formed from the outer walls of the resorption tunnel inward. is correct. which. 2=cartilage is replaced by cancellous bone. C. in interstitial lamellae between Haversian systems A. too little somatotrophin will result in stunted individuals. The hyaline cartilage facing the synovial fluid in a synovial joint is not covered by a perichondrium. The articular cartilage derives its nourishment from the synovial fluid. B. as could be the case with a benign. also known as "bone morphogenic protein". D. Human osteogenic protein. where the mRNA for BMP has been localized. half way between the Haversian canal and the cement line D.

1-2-5-3-4 8. 1-511-3-2 E. intramembranous ossification C. 1-3-4-5-2 C. both of the above D. 1-2-3-4-5 B. endochondral ossification B.017 Which of the following is/are used in the formation of a flat bone of the skull? A. none of the above 8. 5=a callus forms a bridge across the break. endochondral ossification B. none of the above 8. both of the above D.differentiate into chondroblasts. both of the above D.019 Unmineralized osteoid is found adjacent to an osteoblast in which of the following? A.016 Which of the following is/are used in the formation of a long bone? A.018 Osteocytes get trapped in lacunae during which of the following? A. endochondral ossification . none of the above 8. endochondral ossification B. A. intramembranous ossification C. intramembranous ossification C. 1-4-5-2-3 D.

Osteoblasts can secrete enough fresh or unmineralized osteoid that they get trapped in what they produce. These cartilaginous bones are "turned into" bones via endochondral ossification. intramembranous ossification C. interstitial growth. is correct. intramembranous ossification C. A trapped osteoblast shuts down most of its synthetic machinery and becomes an osteocyte. is correct. is correct. C. both of the above D. B. Osteoblasts "do their thing". But in endochrondral ossification there is a lot of growth of chondrocytes.B. A. i. Bone can only grow by appositional growth.020 Interstitial growth of cells in lacunae occurs in which of the following? A. i. is correct. both of the above D. be it in the epiphyseal plate or in the model of a long bone in the fetus. Mitotic growth of chondrocytes is called interstitial growth as opposed to appositional growth.e. secrete fresh or unmineralized osteoid during both endochrondral and intramembranous ossification. The flat bones of the skull are formed via the intramembranous route. Long bones begin as models of hyaline cartilage in the fetus. is correct. none of the above 8. none of the above B. C. .e. endochondral ossification B. A. which is the addition of cells and fibers to the outside of a model or piece of cartilage instead of mitotic events occurring in the chrondrocytes inside the cartilage itself. is correct.

8. both of the above D. none of the above 8. endochondral ossification B. endochondral ossification B. none of the above 8. intramembranous ossification C.025 Myoblasts play a significant role in which of the following/ A. intramembranous ossification C. intramembranous ossification .023 Spicules are present sometimes during which of the following? A.021 Hyaline cartilage matrix is used as a scaffold in which of the following? A. both of the above D. both of the above D. intramembranous ossification C.022 Fresh osteoid eventually becomes mineralized osteoid in which of the following? A. endochondral ossification B. both of the above D. endochondral ossification B. intramembranous ossification C.024 Which of the following is used in growth in length of a long bone? A. none of the above 8. endochondral ossification B. none of the above 8.

This process is found in both intramembranous and endochondral ossification. Endochondral ossification is the process used by the epiphyseal plate to change cartilage into bone and that bone eventually into marrow cavity. endochondral ossification B.C. D. intramembranous ossification C. none of the above 8. In this way the length of a long bone increases. osteoclast A. C. both of the above D. is correct. is correct. none of the above 8. osteoblast B. both of the above D. is correct.027 Which of the following has a ruffled border? A. A. Spicules of bone (cancellous bone) are found in intramembranous ossification. The models of the long bones in the fetus are made of hyaline cartilage. Myoblasts are stem cells for myogenesis or the formation of muscle and they have .026 Chondrocytes hypertrophy and die in which of the following? A. is correct. osteocyte C. Spicules of calcified cartilage and cancellous bone are found in endochrondral ossification. making bone from a prior cartilaginous model. Endochondral ossification is exactly what it says. C. is correct.

osteoclast 8. Endochondral ossification is the type of ossification which takes a cartilaginous model of a bone and turns it into bone using a calcified cartilaginous substrate. osteocyte C. The ruffled border faces the bony surface which is being resorbed. osteocyte C. osteoblast B. osteoblast B. osteoclast .nothing to do with either endochrondral or intramembranous ossification. osteoclast 8. Chondrocytes die by committing suicide by secreting alkaline phosphatase which causes the cartilaginous matrix to calcify. is correct. is correct.028 Which of the following has extensive RER in the cytoplasm? A. osteocyte C. This is a characteristic of the osteoclast. A. osteocyte C. osteoblast B.031 The activity of which of the following is greatly increased by PTH? A. thereby shutting off the diffusion of nutrients to the chondrocytes.030 Gap junctions occur on cytoplasmic processes of which of the following? A. osteoclast 8. osteoblast B. C. Chondrocytes must die in this process in order to make way for the osteoblasts. 8.029 Which of the following is normally multinucleated? A.

osteoblast B. is correct. osteoclast 8. osteocyte C. osteoclast 8. is correct. osteoblast B. These processes touch and gap junctions can be found here. Osteocytes have cytoplasmic "arms" which extend into the canaliculi. osteoblast B. osteoclast 8. C. They are believed to be formed by the fusion of many macrophages derived from the blood monocyte pool.034 A well developed Golgi apparatus would be found in which of the following? A. . B.035 The product of which of the following is unmineralized osteoid? A osteoblast B. is correct. osteocyte C. RER is required by the osteoblast in its synthesis of procollagen. osteocyte C.8. Osteoclasts are multinucleated giant cells.032 Which of the following needs vitamin C for successful fibrogenesis? A. osteoclast A. osteocyte C.033 The cytoplasm of which of the following contains many membrane bound vesicles and vacuoles? A.

037 Which of the following is only found in complete lacunae? A. osteoblasts require vitamin C to produce collagen. A. 8. osteocyte C. The osteoclast is the primary target for parathyroid hormone which significantly increases the number and activity of osteoclasts. the fresh osteoid will become mineralized soon. is correct. Both the osteoblast and the osteoclast reside in the endosteal layer. is correct. the osteoblast requires the presence of vitamin C for normal synthesis of collagen fibers. is correct. If there is no vitamin D deficiency. A. A. C. is correct.036 Which of the following would NOT be found in the endosteum? A. This applies to the osteoblast as it synthesizes and packages for secretion the procollagen molecules. is correct. osteoclast 8. osteoblast B.C. osteocytes are trapped in lacunae in compact and cancellous bone and are not normal components of the endosteum. osteoblast B. It is similar in ultrastructure to the fibroblast because it makes collagen fibers which are a major component of bone. Like fibroblasts. osteocyte C. This applies to the osteoblast. is correct. . Like the fibroblast. Fresh osteoid is unmineralized. osteoclast B. This is characteristic of the osteoclast as it "mines" mineralized bone.

Osteoclasts sit in a depression in the bony surface called a Howship's lacuna. is correct. but osteoclasts are not completely surrounded by matrix in the sense that osteocytes are.B. Osteocytes are trapped in bony matrix and thus are completely surrounded by the matrix which forms little "rooms" or lacunae. .

SECTION 9: BLOOD AND BONE MARROW 9. 25 B. is correct. monocyte E. 55 E. lymphocyte D. monocyte E. lymphocyte D. 45 D. 65 9.001 What number represents a normal hematocrit? A. A. A. When whole blood is centrifuged the formed elements are packed at the bottom of . neutrophil C. basophil C. basophil 9. eosinophil B. neutrophil C.003 The following description applies to which blood cell type: is known to phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and thereby plays a role in the function of the immune system.002 The following description applies to which blood cell type: major job is to eat bacteria in the blood stream and/or exit the blood stream through vessel walls and eat bacteria in connective tissue areas. 35 C. eosinophil B.

monocyte . is correct. A hematocrit of 55% could represent an abnormal increase in the quantity of formed elements such as can be seen in some leukemias or in people who are polycythemic in which case they have abnormally high numbers of red blood cells. neutrophil C. This could be due to an anemia in which fewer than normal cells are produced in the marrow or it could be due a chronic hemorrhage into. A. the GI tract or through a "bleeder" after surgery. B. In fact the dense core or "internum" of the eosinophilic granule. The major basic protein is thought to be involved in the killing of parasites phagocytized by the eosinophil.the tube and the plasma or fluid component is at the top. A. lymphocyte D. eosinophil B. 9. Eosinophils also contain major basic protein in their granules. lymphocyte D. A hematocrit of 25% would indicate a significant decrease in the quantity of formed elements. monocyte E. neutrophil C. formed elements represent 45%. The percent of the total volume in the tube taken up by the plasma is about 55% and the packed. as seen with the electron microscope.005 Which of the following cell types can differentiate into and function as a plasma cell? A.004 The following description applies to which blood cell type: exits the blood stream and lives and functions in connective tissue spaces where it is recognized and termed a histiocyte or tissue macrophage. for example. This is the job of the neutrophil. is where this arginine rich protein is located. eosinophil B. basophil 9. is correct.

prominent Golgi apparatus. Indeed macrophages may fuse together and form multinucleated giant cells which will eat or attempt to eat large objects such as splinter fibers.006 The following description applies to which cell type: terminally differentiated cell. C. etc. T lymphocyte C. Macrophage/monocyte fusion also is believed to be the process in which osteoclasts are formed. Nk or natural killer cells. is correct. Monocytes are sort of "tissue macrophages" taking a free ride in the blood stream to their workplace. Lymphocytes in peripheral blood come in many different functional types: B cells derived from bone marrow. T. This antibody circulates in the blood stream and is called humoral antibody. T cells derived from the thymus. sutures. . A. mast cell E. In this case these giant cells are called "foreign body giant cells". Fully differentiated plasma cells live and function for about 2 weeks. B lymphocyte D.E. Plasma cells synthesize and release one kind (monoclonal) of antibody. it loses the capability to divide and becomes a non-replicator or fixed post-mitotic cell which can not produce daughter cells. Terminally differentiated means that as it changes from lymphocyte morphology to plasma cell morphology (plasmablast-proplasmacyte. They exit the blood through vessel walls and wander around in connective tissue areas eating many different things from bacteria to cell/tissue normal debris to foreign objects. is correct. plasma cell D. and null cells or lymphocytes which can not be identified by special techniques to be of the B. B lymphocytes can respond to a foreign antigen by differentiating into a morphologically very different type of cell the plasma cell. This is a classic morphological description of the plasma cell. is correct. basophil 9.plasmacyte stages) in response to an antigenic stimulus. clock-faced heterochromatin pattern in nucleus. E. extensive amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum. or Nk classes. tissue macrophage B.

monocyte 9.0 C. neutrophil B.3 D. A.010 In histological preparations what is the diameter of a RBC in microns? A. 6. T lymphocyte E.6 . they will take up water. which are on the P surface of its plasmalemma. T lymphocyte D. well studied? A. 7. RBC D. swell and burst C. 7. neutrophil B.008 If some red blood cells are placed in 0.007 The following description best describes which formed element of blood: microtubular system. B lymphocyte E. nothing B. Nk lymphocyte 9. dense granules containing serotonin. wrinkle and shrink 9.009 Which of the following blood cell types has had its peripheral membrane proteins.7 B. 7.9% sodium chloride what will happen to them? A. platelet C. canaliculi connecting to the surface.9. they will lose water. platelet C.

is correct. is correct. C. 1. Because RBCs are so numerous and accessible and they are anucleate they have been an excellent cell in which to study the detailed structure and biochemistry of the plasmalemma. The fibrin strands (net) trap the formed elements of blood.011 The plasmalemma of the RBC is like a bag containing proteins and water. What percent of the total contents of a RBC is hemoglobin? A.5 microns.4% NaCl would be hypotonic to the RBCs and they would take up water or water would move into the RBC causing it to swell and burst. 35 . 15 B. The serotonin will locally cause the smooth muscle in the vessel wall to contract thereby slowing the blood flow. The platelet uses these components in its role in clot formation.3 microns. These RBCs are called crenated RBCs. When a vessel wall is damaged and the endothelial lining is interrupted. 0. finding a good profile view of a RBC is the same as finding a tiny "histological ruler". This is sort of like manufacturing a fishing net in the stream. but in fixed and stained preparations it shrinks down to a mean of 7. 7. C. They also are stimulated by this interaction to release the contents of their granules. One of the proteins associated with the P surface which has been studied extensively is spectrin. 9.5% NaCI would be hypertonic to the RBCs and they would lose their water to the salt and shrink and wrinkle. In the living state in an isotonic medium the average diameter of a RBC is 7. components of the vessel wall such as collagen become exposed to the blood.E. is correct. Together all of this is called a thrombus.9% NaCl is saline which is the salt concentration which is isotonic with red blood cells. When circulating platelets come in contact with the exposed collagen they stick to it and to each other forming a primary aggregation. The other granules in the platelets release a variety of platelet specific substances which participate with some plasma proteins to eventually form fibrin strands. 0. 25 C. A. Since RBCs are found in vessels in almost all histological slides.9 B. is correct.

B lymphocyte E.013 Antigen-IgE antibody coupling occurs on the surface of this cell resulting in a degranulation and release of histamine and other active substances. All of the following are nonparenchymal elements in red bone marrow EXCEPT: . A. all classes of lymphocytes E. 45 E. yellow bone marrow B. red bone marrow C. all formed elements in peripheral blood D. neutrophil D.014 Myeloid tissue is the term used to describe which of the following? A. platelet 9. 55 9. alanine substituted for phenylalanine D. uridine substituted for thymidine 9. valine substituted for glutamic acid C.015 Myeloid tissue is composed of parenchymal and stromal elements. Identify the cell. lymphatic tissue 9. phenylalanine substituted for alanine E.D. eosinophil B.012 In a patient with sickle cell anemia what fundamental change has occurred in the hemoglobin? A. glutamic acid substituted for valine B. basophil C.

myeloblast C. fibroblast B. A RBC contains about a 35% solution of the normal adult hemoglobin or hemoglobin A. 9. B. Two famous sites for the clinical aspiration of myeloid tissue are the sternum and the iliac crest. reticular cell D. E. Basophils. In this case the genetic code of GAA for glutamic acid is changed to GUA which codes for valine instead of glutamic acid. endothelial cell C. respond to an antigen-IgE antibody coupling at their cell surface with release of the contents of their granules. like mast cells. is correct.A. is correct. is correct. The terms red bone marrow and myeloid tissue can be used interchangeably. B.016 During hematopoiesis cells move from one type of cell kinetic compartment into a different cell kinetic compartment (functional not morphological . The myeloblast is a cell in the granulocyte line of hematopoiesis and therefore is one of the identifiable parenchymal cells of red bone marrow. The stromal cells are the source of the hematopoietic growth factors which impact on the growth and cytodifferentiation of the parenchymal cells. B. In the fetal RBC the hemoglobin is not A but hemoglobin F. adipose cell E. is correct. is correct. The resulting hemoglobin is not HbA but HbS. When HbS loses its oxygen it undergoes profound structural changes which render the normally deformable RBC rigid or inflexible and the shape of the cell changes to a sickle. All other choices are examples of the variety of stromal cells found in myeloid tissue. The release of biologically active compounds by these cells can cause systemic or local hypersensitivity reactions.

pronormoblast B. promyelocyte 9. myelocyte D. 2=cells which continuously divide but only some of which differentiate while others do not differentiate. 2-3-1 E. Place the following cell kinetic compartments in correct order with respect to hematopoiesis: 1=mature or near mature cells. 3-2-1 C. basophilic metamyelocyte D. neutrophil C. pronormoblast C. basophilic normoblast E. 3=cells which divide and differentiate. azurophilic granules in its cytoplasm? A. A. polychromatophilic normoblast . 2-1-3 D.compartments). metamyelocyte E. 1-2-3 B. promyelocyte B.018 Which of the following bone marrow cells has the highest concentration of free polysomes in its cytoplasm? A.017 Which cell in the granulocyte line of maturation has large numbers of only uncommitted.019 Which of the following bone marrow cells normally has repeated rounds of DNA synthesis without accompanying cytokinesis or cell division? A. myeloblast B. 3-1-2 9. orthochromatophilic normoblast 9.

megakaryoblast D. The myeloblast is characterized by no or just a few azurophilic granules whereas the promyelocyte (progranulocyte) has large numbers of these granules in its cytoplasm. The 64N nucleus is huge and multilobated and can "govern" a larger amount of cytoplasm. first is the stem cell or vegetative intermitotic compartment. D. This is basically the same hierarchy found in stratified epithelia. the concentration of these polysomes significantly increases as the cell continues to differentiate to reach the maximal concentration in the basophilic normoblast stage. The megakaryoblast undergoes endoreduplication as it matures. The polysomes have mRNA on them and this is where the genetic code is being translated into the protein hemoglobin. Some authors refer to the "dawn of neutrophilia" as occurring at the myelocyte stage in the cytodifferentiation of the neutrophil. Thus the ploidy increases from 2N-4N.000/cubic mm and most of the circulating WBCs are large cells with large nuclei containing 2-3 prominent nucleoli. 9. i. It is at the myelocyte stage of differentiation when the specific nature of the granules is apparent enough to classify the myelocyte as either neutrophilic. is correct. monocytoblast D. is correct.e. lymphoblast E. severe bacterial infection . is correct. E. However. second is the differentiating intermitotic group and third is the functional. The first cell in the erythroid line is the pronormoblast and it does have a diffusely basophilic cytoplasm due to the presence of polysomes. basophilic or eosinophilic.8N-16N-32N and even 64N in the most mature megakaryocyte. Only the stem cell compartment is "self-sustaining".020 A patient in your care has a peripheral blood workup with the following facts: WBC count of 38. mature group. is correct.C. More platelets are produced from a 64N megakaryocyte than from one with 4N. E. What is the diagnosis? A. the cytoplasm contains many azurophilic granules.

mature RBC 9.021 A patient in your care has severe neutropenia. 2-1 C. polychromatophilic normoblast . what is the ratio of the number of cells in the myeloid line to those in the erythroid line? A. Treatment with which of the following growth factors would be beneficial for this person? A.platelet B. monocytoblast . 3-1 D. What could be going .monocyte E. 1-2 E. EGF C. chronic hemorrhage C. promyelocytic leukemia E. sickle cell anemia 9.023 In a normal bone marrow smear.024 A patient in your care has a reticulocyte count of 13%. megakaryocyte . EPO 9. NGF B. 1-1 B.022 At which of the following steps does nuclear extrusion occur? A. M-CSF D. G-CSF E.B.reticulocyte D.orthochromatophilic normoblast C. myeloblastic leukemia D. orthochromatophilic normoblast . 1-3 9. reticulocyte .

. A recombinant. When the cytoplasmic concentration of hemoglobin reaches a certain threshold level the orthochromatophilic normoblast is stimulated to extrude or exocytose its entire nucleus. In this case. significant hemorrhage C. D. A normal M/E or myeloid/erythroid ratio is about 3-1. Significant loss of RBCs as in the case of a bleeding duodenal ulcer not only can result in a low hematocrit but also in an elevated reticulocyte count. The acronyms were used because these growth factors are becoming as well known as other substances which are recognized by their acronyms such as TSH. is correct. is correct. thrombocytopenia E. In this case differentiation in the myeloid line has stopped between the promyelocyte and metamyelocyte stages. etc. B. Erythropoietin stimulates entry into and/or progress through erythrocytopoiesis. chronic.on? A. C. ACTH. In addition to the bone marrow filling up with promyelocytes. human G-CSF or rhG-CSF has been used clinically to stimulate granulocytopoiesis in patients with severe neutropenia due to chemotherapy. sickle cell anemia D. Monocyte colony stimulating factor would enhance monocytopoiesis. Nerve growth factor and epidermal growth factor stimulate their respective target cells. is correct. This is a reflection of the fact that mature granulocytes only live for hours to a few days whereas RBCs live for an average of 120 days. is correct. C. is correct. This means that in normal marrow one should see 3 cells in granulocytopoiesis for every one cell in erythrocytopoiesis. severe bacterial infection B. myeloblastic leukemia D. many of these cells gain access to the circulation.

eosinophil . spectrin E.026 After nuclear extrusion during erythrocytopoiesis the anucleate cell produced is very slightly basophilic. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. lymphocyte D. granules containing heparin and histamine B.peripheral loss of large numbers of RBCs feeds back to the erythroid line with the result that erythrocytopoiesis is enhanced and immature RBCs or reticulocytes are released from the marrow. oxyhemoglobin A D. 9. neutrophil C. monocyte E. What causes this hint of basophilia? A. lysosomes 9.027 Which of the following blood cells has 3-5 nuclear lobes and two different sized cytoplasmic granules? A. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9. basophil 9. eosinophil B.028 Which of the following has 2 nuclear lobes and large cytoplasmic granules containing major basic protein? A. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. polysomes C.025 In which of the following would you expect to see smooth cytoplasm which is about 50/50 basophiliceosinophilic? A.

eosinophil B.030 Which of the following has 2 nuclear lobes and large granules containing heparin and histamine? A. The hemoglobin stains eosinophilic. is correct. neutrophil C. monocyte E. neutrophil C. Therefore a polychromatophilic normoblast would have a mixture of basophilic and eosinophilic areas in its cytoplasm. monocyte E.029 Which of the following has a bean-shaped nucleus and azurophilic cytoplasmic granules? A. lymphocyte D. lymphocyte D. monocyte E. One is the presence of polysomes and these areas stain basophilic. The polychromatophilic normoblast has non-granular cytoplasm which has two things going on in it. The other is the presence of hemoglobin which is manufactured on the polysomes. eosinophil B. neutrophil C. basophil 9. lymphocyte D. basophil C. basophil 9. The diffusely basophilic erythrocyte or DBE is diffusely basophilic because it still .B. B. is correct.

If this cell is stained with a special staining technique (brilliant cresyl blue) the ribonucleoprotein is precipitated into a web-like or reticulated structure and the cell is called a reticulocyte. being strongly basic. The smaller granules contain phagocytins. The large granules average 700nm whereas the smaller granules average 400nm. 9. The more lobes the more mature the PMN. B. The major basic protein in the lysosomes of the eosinophil. is correct. 70% B. 6% . eosinophil B.031 Which of the following has a heterochromatinized nucleus and a thin rim of cytoplasm? A. The large granules contain many hydrolytic enzymes.032 What is the average percentage of eosinophils in a normal differential count? A. This describes the basophil. attracts the acidic dye eosin. The typical monocyte has a bean-shaped nucleus and a clumpy-stringy (spaghetti + meatballs) chromatin pattern and a cytoplasm containing lyssomes (azurophilic granles). basophil 9. neutrophil C. 20% C. monocyte E.contains a few polysomes. E. lymphocyte D. A. large and small granules. is correct. is correct. D. PMNs have two different size granules in their cytoplasm. is correct.

3% E. 20% C.033 What is the average percentage of neutrophils in a normal differential count? A.034 What is the average percentage of basophils in a normal differential count? A. 6% D. 70% B. 6% D. 70% B. 1% 9. 6% D. 3% E. 20% C. 1% 9. 20% . 3% E.D.035 What is the average percentage of monocytes in a normal differential count? A. 3% E. 1% 9. 20% C. 1% 9. 70% B. 70% B.036 What is the average percentage of lymphocytes in a normal differential count? A.

is correct. a differential count of 12% eosinophils indicates a hay fever episode or a parasite infection.037 What is the normal number of leukocytes in an aliquot of peripheral blood? A. 1% C. For example. The normal range for basophils in peripheral blood is from 0. E. is correct. is correct.000/microliter B. 5 million/microliter . is correct. If a differential count comes back as 67% PMNs it is considered normal. is correct. 3% E. 250. C. 6% D. 9.000/microliter B. B. A. 7000/microliter 9.038 What is the normal number of platelets in an aliquot of peripheral blood? A. 5 million/microliter C.C.5% to 1. Thus peripheral blood is a "window" into the body. For every 100 WBCs counted there should be about 3 eosinophils seen. D.5%. is correct. 250. This is a pretty accurate description of a lymphocyte. Changes in these approximate normal numbers (the normal ranges extend from below to above the numbers given) tell clinicians a lot about what might be going on in a patient. This is the normal percentage for monocytes.

C. vegetative intermitotic B. differentiating intermitotic C. fixed postmitotic 9. reverting postmitotic D.040 A 16N megakaryocyte leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. 250. 7000/microliter 9. is correct. 5 million/microliter C. is correct.039 What is the normal number of erythrocytes in an aliquot of peripheral blood? A. reverting postmitotic D. fixed postmitotic C. vegetative intermitotic B.042 The reticulocyte leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. differentiating intermitotic C.041 The neutrophilic metamyelocyte leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. . reverting postmitotic D. vegetative intermitotic B.000/microliter B. fixed postmitotic 9. A. This is the approximate number of white blood cells in a microliter of peripheral blood. differentiating intermitotic C. 7000/microliter 9.

fixed postmitotic 9.044 The pronormoblast leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. differentiating intermitotic . Respectively. D. leukocytopenia vs. The standard classification of cell kinetic lives falls apart when we deal with the megakaryocyte line of cytodifferentiation. B. vegetative intermitotic B. these situations would indicate a thrombocytopenia vs. because megakaryocytes undergo endoreduplication of their DNA without accompanying cytokinetic events. a thrombocytosis. B. For the red cells the terms anemia vs. D. This cell has no nucleus. This cell kinetic place is that of the FPM. The numbers used above are not the ranges but a single number from within the normal range. is correct. It is in the same kinetic place in the erythroid line as the band/stab is in the myeloid line. These approximate concentrations for normal blood are very important to the clinician. reverting postmitotic D. erythrocytosis or polycythemia would apply. differentiating intermitotic C. The 16N cell in the question could go through one or two more rounds of endoreduplication and become a 32N or 64N megakaryocyte before "shedding" platelets. is correct.043 The megakaryocytoblast leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. This cell is an example of a FPM. For example. 9.000/microliter either too many platelets are dying early or the bone marrow is not producing enough. is correct. The same is true for leukocytes.This is approximately the normal number of platelets in a microliter of blood. vegetative intermitotic B. leukocytosis. is correct. Increases or decreases in these concentrations can provide useful diagnostic data. if the platelet count drops to 50.

fixed postmitotic 9. vegetative intermitotic B. reverting postmitotic D. differentiating intermitotic C. reverting postmitotic D. differentiating intennitotic C. differentiating intennitotic C. vegetative intermitotic B. fixed postmitotic 9. vegetative intermitotic B. reverting postmitotic D.C.048 The polychromatophilic normoblast leads which kind of mitotic cell life? A.047 The orthochromatophilic normoblast leads which kind of mitotic cell life? A. differentiating intermitotic C. reverting postmitotic D.049 The neutrophilic myelocyte leads which kind of mitotic cell life? . fixed postmitotic 9.045 The pluripotential cell found in bone marrow leads what kind of mitotic cell life? A. fixed postmitotic 9. fixed postmitotic 9. reverting postmitotic D. vegetative intermitotic B.046 The promyelocyte leads which kind of mitotic cell life? A.

and the megakaryocytoblast. differentiating intermitotic C. is correct. These are true stem cells. therefore classified as VIMs. thereby being classified as a differentiating intermitotic. B. B. monocytoblast. is correct. B. is correct. basophilic or eosinophilic) appears in which of the following? . The prononnoblast is a differentiating intermitotic because it undergoes cytodifferentiation and retains the capability to divide.A. Stem cells or VIMs are those cells less differentiated than the first cells in the DIM compartment which are the myeloblast. is correct. This is the last cell in the erythroid line which can still undergo cell division. fixed postmitotic B. is correct. 9. The megakaryocytoblast is not a stem cell and therefore is not a VIM. B. vegetative intermitotic B.050 The first clear indication of characteristic cytoplasmic granules (neutrophilic. In the erythroid line of cytodifferentiation this is the first cell which is classified as a fixed postmitotic. for example. D. The members of the FPM group are the most mature cells in each line of cytodifferentiation and the next few cells back up in the line. therefore it is an example of a differentiating intermitotic. erythroblast or pronormoblast. and it is not a fixed postmitotic either. The promyelocyte is an example of a cell which can undergo cytodifferentiation and cell division. is correct. reverting postmitotic D. is correct. the orthochromatophilic and metamyelocyte stages. A. It is a DIM.

orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E.052 Nuclear indentation first begins to be noticed in which of the following? A. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D.A. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9.051 The cytoplasm of which of the following is loaded with "free" polysomes? A. prononnoblast or myeloblast B. reticulocyte or band/stab form .053 Nuclear extrusion occurs in which of the following? A. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C.

9. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. or eosinophilia occurs at the myelocyte stage. reticulocyte or band/stab form C. is correct. D. Prior to this stage one can not tell which way the promeylocyte will go. When the amount of hemoglobin reaches a threshold level in the cell it triggers . orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. azurophilic granules fill cytoplasm in which of the following? A. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. on these ribosomes. is correct. into the protein hemoglobin. The dawn of neutrophilia. or basophilia. The mother (pronormoblast) of this particular cell has some polysomes in its cytoplasm. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. Now the stage is set for the translation of mRNA. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. When the indentation moves past the 50% point it is time to call this cell a band/stab. B. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C.055 For which of the following is about 1% is considered normal in peripheral blood? A. but at the basophilic normoblast stage the concentration of cytoplasmic polysomes is greatly increased. is correct.054 Immature. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. The first signs of nuclear indentation force a name change from myelocyte (round nucleus) to metamyelocyte (indented nucleus). D. N or B or E. is correct.

basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C.057 Which of the following would contain a very delicate chromatin pattern and prominent nucleoli? A. A.exocytosis of the cell's pyknotic nucleus. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E.056 In peripheral blood. In a septicemia so many mature PMNs are being lost in the battle with the bugs that the bone marrow allows some immature band/stab forms to circulate or to "go into battle". Increases in this normal percentage can indicate a variety of clinical conditions. E. It is as if the cell has not yet decided to make either mature neutrophilic. This is the hallmark of the promyelocyte. The entire nucleus is shed. reticulocyte or band/stab form 9. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. is correct. basophilic normoblast or promyelocyte C. reticulocyte or band/stab form E. orthochromatophilic normoblast or metamyelocyte E. . polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D. Normal peripheral blood is allowed to contain about 1% bands or reticulocytes. is correct. The normal percent of band/stabs or reticulocytes is 1%. leaving behind an anucleate cell. basophilic or eosinophilic granules. is correct. pronormoblast or myeloblast B. the reticulocyte or diffusely basophilic erythrocyte which still contains a fair amount of polysomes. 9. 13% of which of the following would signal septicemia (a bacterial infection in the blood stream)? A. is correct. B. polychromatophilic normoblast or myelocyte D.

Plus. have the most delicate or vesicular chromatin pattern. but their chromatin patterns would not be as delicate or vesicular or "lacy". Daughters of these cells would have nucleoli. . these cells have very prominent nucleoli.The younger or less differentiated cells in each line. erythroid or granulocyte.

T effector cell D.004 During antigen recognition by a B lymphocyte and its subsequent cytodifferentiation into a mature plasma cell. thymus E. plasma cell C. tongue C.003 A cytotoxic cell physically contacts a target cell an initiates destruction of that foreign cell. T lymphocyte D. Where do the T lymphocytes that populate these areas arise from? A.002 T lymphocytes are found in certain tissues and organs in the body such as the lymph node and even in peripheral blood. what other interactions are necessary . tela subcutanea D. Identify the cytotoxic cell. plasmablast E. A. T virgin cell C. B lymphocyte B.SECTION 10: DEFENSE SYSTEM 10. natural killer cell B. B virgin cell E. tunica propria 10. B effector cell 10. monocytoblast 10. tonsil B.001 As you look at a lymphocyte in a Wright's stained smear of peripheral blood you realize that the cell you are looking at could be any one of the following EXCEPT: A.

is correct. C. 10. Most successful B cell activity requires not only antigen recognition but the help of a subset of T lymphocytes termed T helper cells. C. plasma cells B. the B cell must contact another B cell C. The humoral response is the primary defense against bacteria. the B cell must receive "help" from a subset of T cells. In this response antibodies are made by B cells which have undergone antigen recognition and differentiated into plasma cells. D. is correct. D. is correct. All T lymphocytes which populate lymphoid and other tissues in the body arise in the thymus and that is where the "T" comes from.before antibody to the insulting antigen can be detected? A. T helper cells release substances. memory B cells . fixed postmitotic or non-replicating plasma cell. This is the primary mechanism by which the immune system attacks viruses and foreign cells other than bacteria. the B cell must contact antibody to the foreign cell E. the activated B lymphocytes become ? A. The lymphocyte you were looking at in the smear could belong to any of the other types listed. the B cell must be stimulated by plasminogen activators released from vessel endothelium E. nothing else is necessary B. called lymphokines. is correct. The cell-mediated immune response is the hallmark of the T cell system. The B effector cell or the cell of the B lineage which actually functions as the most differentiated cell in that lineage is the terminally differentiated. which promote B cells to proliferate(clonal expansion) and differentiate into plasma cells.005 Once clonal expansion of a specific type of B lymphocytes is under way with the help of T helper cells.

5-4-3-2-1 . skin transplant from abdomen to back on same body 10. fibroblast 10. cell division E. baboon heart transplant C.C.006 Which of the following represents an allograft situation with the host being a human? A. dendritic reticular cell D. liver transplant between identical twins D. DNA synthesis B. 5=medullary sinus. B lymphocyte C. 4=paratrabecular sinus.007 Which of the following cells is most probably not a parenchymal element of the defense system? A. increased heterochromatinization of the nucleus C. A & B & C are correct 10. A & B are correct E. enhanced RNA synthesis D. 3=afferent lymphatic. human cadaver kidney transplant B. plasma cell E. A. increase in cell size 10. virgin B cells D. 2=subcapsular sinus. T lymphocyte B.008 When a T cell or a B cell is activated all of the following cytological changes occur EXCEPT: A.009 Arrange the following in proper order for lymph flow into and out of a lymph node: 1=efferent lymphatic.

Memory B cells can be activated by a second exposure to the original antigenic insult much faster than virgin B cells. 4-2-5-3-1 D. is correct. all other choices are functional components of the defense system. Isografting occurs when the transplantation is between genetically identical individuals. 1-5-4-2-3 D. Allografts are tissue/organ transplants between members of the same species as long as they are not identical twins. 2-3-5-1-4 E. whereas. Instead of heterochromatinization the nucleus becomes more euchromatinized which is morphological evidence for the enhanced RNA synthesis. Such a second set reaction will also produce a group of plasma cells and memory B cells identical to those produced in the "first set" reaction. Autografts occur from self to self. Xenografting is when species boundaries are crossed.010 CD4 antigens are a group or cluster of differentiation antigens found on the surface of which of the following cells? . 3-2-4-5-1 C. One is our friend the plasma cell which is busy synthesizing and releasing one type of specific antibody to the original antigenic insult (monoclonal antibody). A. B.B. This is the path that lymph takes as it flows through the lymph node and is "filtered" by phagocytic cells lining and bridging the various sinuses. is correct. B. All of the other characteristics listed do occur as an immunologically competent cell undergoes blast transformation and clonal expansion. The other cell produced from this clonal expansion is a memory B cell. is correct. is correct. 10. The fibroblasts found in the capsules and connective tissue septa in lymphoid organs are the least likely candidate for lymphoid parenchyma. is correct. E. Out of the clonal expansion of the activated B lymphocyte(s) two different types of cells differentiate.

T helper E. T suppressor C. mid to deep cortex of lymph nodes B.012 Which of the following cell types manufactures and releases the lymphokines MIF (migration inhibitory factor) and MAF (macrophage activation factor)? A. B memory 10. T delayed type hypersensitivity D. T killer/cytotoxic B. T suppressor C. thymus .011 Which of the following cell types manufactures and releases interleukins? A. B memory 10.013 T and B lymphocytes occupy different areas or regions in different lymphoid organs. T helper E. T killer/cytotoxic B. T delayed type hypersensitivity D. are the B cells primarily located? A. T killer/cytotoxic B. internodal areas in Peyer's patches D. periarterial sheath of splenic artery of white pulp C.A. T suppressor C. Where. T helper E. T delayed type hypersensitivity D. B memory 10. in general.

).E. is correct. There are at least 10 interleukins (IL-1. B lymphocyte D. This subset of T cells release MIF and MAF. saliva. and mucus of the respiratory tract? A. is correct. CD4 antigens in general are found on the T helper cell whereas CD8 antigens are found on the T suppressor cell. E. IgD 10. IgE D. is correct. germinal centers of lymph nodules 10. dendritic reticular cell in lymph nodule E. IgM E. monocyte/macrophage D. IgG B. is correct. IgA C. . A major portion of its successful and coordinated "conducting" is mediated through a group of substances called the interleukins.014 Which of the following immunoglobulins is found in tears. D. C. epithelial reticular cell in thymus D. etc. T lymphocyte B. IL-2.015 Which of the following cell types use a unique internal cell signaling system which employs calcineurin? A. The CD4 or Th lymphocyte is the conductor of the immune symphony. MIF and MAF serve to activate nearby macrophages and prevent macrophages from migrating or exiting from the area where a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction is underway.

All other choices are locations for T cells. In general, all germinal centers of all lymph nodules are primarily composed of B cells. In fact, in the germinal center is where B cell blast transformation, clonal expansion and differentiation into plasma cells is occurring. B. is correct. IgG is the major immunoglobulin comprising about 75% of the serum immunoglobulins, IgM and IgD serve as the receptors on the surface of B cells and IgE is found on the surface of mast cells and basophils. A. is correct. The T lymphocyte and some cells of the kidney use an internal signaling system which involves calcineurin. This has been called the "Achilles heel" of the T cell because cyclosporin, the immunosuppressive drug used to thwart immune rejection of allografts, works by blocking the activation of calcineurin. This also explains why cyclosporin is toxic to the kidney, but not to other cell types. 10.016 Which of the following lymphoid organs is characterized by a very high rate of programmed cell death or apoptosis? A. spleen B. thymus C. tonsil D. lymph node E. diffuse lymphatic tissue 10.017 Which of the following cell types has the job of surveillance for, detection of and the removal of transformed or neoplastic cells which may be formed daily? A. T cell B. B cell C. dendritic reticular cell D. epithelial reticular cell E. Null lymphocyte 10.018 The following description best fits which organ: presence of lymph nodules

with germinal centers, surfaced by an epithelium with many intraepithelial lymphocytes, epithelial surface forms groves into underlying lymphatic tissue? A. thymus B. appendix C. lymph node D. tonsil E. spleen 10.019 As a pin passes from blood into the parenchyma of the thymus through the blood-thymus barrier arrange the following structures in proper order after RBC: 1=thymocyte, 2 =endothelial cell, 3=epithelial reticular cell, 4=pericyte in a space, 5=basal lamina of endothelium, and 6=basal lamina of epithelial reticular cell. A. 4-5-2-3-6-1 B. 6-3-4-5-2-1 C. 2-5-3-6-4-1 D. 5-213-3-6-1 E. 2-5-4-6-3-1 10.020 Where do you think a worn-out, 142 day old RBC will meet its phagocytic death? A. thymus B. spleen C. Peyer's patch D. lymph node E. tonsil B. is correct. As thymocytes are being individually programmed during their differentiation in the fetal thymus some of them become programmed against normal selfantigens. When contacted or exposed to self-antigens these thymocytes die in large numbers, effectively ablating or inactivating clones of cells which are designed to

destroy self-antigens. The result is passively acquired immunological tolerance to one's own antigen. A. is correct. One of the functions of the T cell system is immune surveillance for tumor cells. Evidence in support of this concept is derived from the fact that allografted patients on immunosuppressive therapy have an enhanced incidence of cancer when compared to the normal population. D. is correct. This is a description of a tonsil. In fact so many lymphocytes may be migrating through the epithelial surface that it is difficult to identify the epithelium. Many of these lymphocytes pass through the epithelium and become components of the saliva where they can be seen on a smear of saliva and have been called "salivary corpuscles". E. is correct. Antigens in the blood entering the thymus during the fetal period to cause apoptosis or programmed cell death of T cells arising to self antigen cross the barrier in this anatomical sequence. B. is correct. The spleen is a lymphoid organ placed in the blood circulation whereas a lymph node is a lymphoid organ placed in the lymph circulation. Lymph nodes filter lymph, the spleen filters blood and thereby removes foreign materials from the blood as well as worn-out, damaged, defective self materials. 10.021 What is the name for the region of red pulp of the spleen which is found between two adjacent venous sinusoids? A. paratrabecular sinus B. Malphigian corpuscle C. cord of Billroth D. Hassall's corpuscle E. periarterial cuff of lymphocytes 10.022 If a child is born into and kept in a germ free environment (boy in the bubble), which of the following structures would be missing?

A. cortex of thymus B. cortex of lymph node C. medulla of thymus D. germinal centers in lymph nodules E. periarterial collar of lymphocytes in spleen 10.023 If a child is born with DiGeorgi's syndrome or agenesis of the thymus, what will characterize this situation? A. very low numbers to no T lymphocytes B. depressed function of B cells C. poor to absent allograft rejection capabilities D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 10.024 In which of the following would you expect to find T helper and T suppressor interaction with B cells? A. thymic medulla B. germinal center C. cord of Billroth D. marginal zone E. subcapsular sinus 10.025 Arrange the following structures in correct sequence for blood entering and then exiting the spleen using the "open" circulatory route: 1=venous sinusoid lumen, 2=venous sinusoid wall, 3=cord of Billroth, 4=trabecular artery, 5=penicillar artery, 6=artery ensheathed with T lymphocytes. A. 1-2-34-5-6 B. 6-5-4-1-2-3 C. 4-6-5-3-2-1

D. 6-5-4-3-2-1 E. none of the above are correct C. is correct. The cords of Billroth are the areas of the red pulp of the spleen which have venous sinusoids at their peripheral edges. Capillaries terminate into the cords of Billroth, dumping blood into the cords where it passes around phagocytic cells before regaining access to the circulation by passing through the walls of the venous sinusoids. These walls have slit-shaped gaps between the lateral margins of the endothelial cells. Blood plasma and its formed elements which have not been phagocytized by the macrophages located in a cord of Billroth pass through the gaps between the sinusoidal endothelial cells to gain access to the circulatory system again. D. is correct. Germinal centers are the areas where B cells have responded to an antigen, the antigen they were individually programmed to react to, and are undergoing clonal expansion and differentiation into plasma cells and memory B cells. If there is no exposure to any foreign antigen then no germinal centers would form. E. is correct. All choices are functions of the T cell system and if there is no thymus there would be basically no functional T cell system. Since most B cells require T cell interaction for full-fledged normal production, B cell function would not be completely normal. D. is correct. The marginal zone in the spleen is a term used for the broad region of interface between white pulp and red pulp. This is where B cells produced in the lymph nodules of the spleen meet T cells arriving in the blood, exiting the blood vessel and moving through the T cell dependent areas toward B cell dependent areas. C. is correct. 10.026 Which of the following events happens during the development of B lymphocytes into cells capable of undergoing clonal selection and expansion? A. IgM is synthesized and inserted into the plasmalemma as a receptor type molecule B. IgD is synthesized and inserted into the plasmalemma as a receptor type

molecule C. IgM and IgD are synthesized and released to circulate as Immoral antibodies D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 10.027 Cells engaged in the immune response recognize each other and cells of the same body or a different body by what mechanism? A. differences in DNA coding B. differences in RNA coding C. differences in nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio D. differences in surface proteins E. differences in surface lipids 10.028 Which class of genes code for MHC molecules found on lymphocytes of different kinds, but not on all body cells of an individual? A. class I B. class II C. class III D. class IV E. class V 10.029 Which of the following events occur when a cell capable of antigen presentation processes a foreign antigen for presentation to an immunologically competent cell? A. foreign proteins and the surface receptor "trapping" those proteins enter the cytoplasm by endocytosis B. within the endocytotic vesicles the foreign antigens are processed into smaller fragments and newly synthesized class II MHC proteins are added to the vesicles C. the fragments of foreign antigen which bind to the class II MHC proteins are brought to the surface for display when the vesicles fuse with the plasmalemma

D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct D. is correct. Developing B cells use IgM and IgD antibodies to establish their surface receptors. If they never come into contact with an antigen that can combine with either the IgM or IgD surface recognition molecules the B cells will remain inactive, i.e. they will never undergo clonal selection, expansion or differentiation into plasma cells. D. is correct. The major group of proteins which cells carry on their surface which are used as immunological recognition molecules are a group of proteins encoded in a group of genes known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC). B. is correct. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins are coded for by classes of genes, i.e. class I genes code for class I MHC proteins which are found on all nonimmune system cells in an individual; class II genes code for class II MHC proteins which are found only on those cells involved in the immune reaction; class III genes code for the proteins of the complement system. E. is correct. Choices A, B & C are the events in proper sequence which happen when antigen processing-presenting cells function normally. 10.030 Most T cells developing in the thymus are destroyed. What causes this destruction? A. recognition and binding by the T cell of a selfprotein fragment attached to a class I MHC protein B. recognition and binding by the T cell of a selfprotein fragment attached to a class II MHC protein C. attack by competent B cells D. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 10.031 All of the following lymphoid organs normally contain lymph follicles

(nodules) EXCEPT: A. lymph node B. thymus C. tonsil D. spleen E. Peyer's patches 10.032 All of the following are autoimmune diseases EXCEPT: A. diGeorge's syndrome B. multiple sclerosis C. rheumatoid arthritis D. lupus erythematosus E. insulin-dependent juvenile onset diabetes 10.033 Which of the following lymphoid organs has connective tissue septa invading the organ from the capsule and thereby dividing it up into recognizable lobules of parenchyma? A. thymus B. tonsil C. lymph node D. spleen 10.034 Which of the following is/are "born" in the thymus after birth? A. killer T cell B. helper T cell C. both of the above D. none of the above 10.035 Phagocytosis, processing and presentation of a foreign antigen, is a

etc. The developing T cells which do not bind self-protein fragments attached to class I MHC proteins are preserved.function of which of the following? A. The developing T cells which do not bind self-protein fragments attached to class II MHC proteins are preserved. the periarterial collar of lymphocytes around the artery of the white pulp in the spleen. the mid-deep cortex of lymph nodes. They leave the thymus and populate the T cell dependent areas of the body wherever these areas are located. Although the spleen and the lymph node do have connective septa arising from the capsule and forming trabeculae.036 Which of the following differentiate(s) into a cell with a prominent Golgi body and lots of RER? . there are no germinal centers in the thymus. 10. B. D. A. diGeorge's syndrome or thymic agenesis is not an autoimmune disease. they will lose their CD4 receptor and become killer T cells. none of the above D. helper T cell C. For example. both of the above D. the medulla. not T killer or T helper cells. T cells are born in the thymus. C. is correct. A. is correct. is correct. is correct. Although the thymus has a light area. surrounded by darker staining cortex. is correct. is correct. only the thymus has a lobulated appearance. This is the function of any number of macrophages or dendritic reticular cells. killer T cell B. they will lose their CD8 receptors and become helper T cells.

killer T cell B.040 Which of the following must contact another cell to complete its effector function? A.037 Perform is released. none of the above 10. helper T cell C.039 Which of the following is/are "born" in the bone marrow of the adult? A. helper T cell C. after activation of which of the following: A. helper T cell C. both of the above D. both of the above D. none of the above 10. causing holes to form in the plasmalemma of a target cell. none of the above 10. helper T cell C. killer T cell B. helper T cell C. both of the above D.038 Interleukins are released after activation of this cell type: A. none of the above 10. killer T cell B. both of the above . killer T cell B.A. killer T cell B. both of the above D.

is correct. This is how a T killer cells destroys its target. T cells are "born" in the thymus from the time the thymus is differentiated as an organ in the embryo/fetus until after puberty and into the early 20's. . D. For example. They physically search for their specific target cell. This is a hallmark of the killer cells of the T cell system. as the thymus differentiates in the embryo/fetus it receives lymphocyte precursor cells from the bone marrow. It is something like a specific search and find-nonspecific destroy the target mission. is correct.D. none of the above D. physically contact the target and elaborate perforin which is a cytotoxin which "bores" holes in the plasmalemma of the target cell thereby killing the target cell. T helper cells elaborate an ever increasing number of lymphokines such as interlukins 1-10 and increasing. T helper cells can contact other immune cells. but they also can and do communicate with other immune cells by the release of lymphokines. either a virgin or a memory cell. is exposed to the antigen it is preprogrammed against. It differentiates into a plasma cell. is correct. A. The immune cell type which is born in the bone marrow in the adult is the B lymphocyte. The T helper cell is the conductor of the immune concert. The various interleukins have profound effects on other types of T cells as well as on B cells. B. This a description of what happens when a B lymphocyte. A. However. is correct. is correct. T helper cells "help" B cells make and release antibody.

2=internal elastic membrane. 4-5-1-3-2 D. 4=adipose tissue. descending aorta E. 1-3-2-4-5 B.004 When the number of circularly arranged smooth muscle cells in the tunica media of an arterial vessel is reduced to about 2-3. superior vena cava D. inferior vena cava B. what is this vessel called? . thoracic duct D.001 Arrange the following structures or layers in the proper sequence for a pin passing from the lumen of a muscular artery outward through its wall: 1=smooth muscle. pulmonary vein C. inferior vena cava C. A. radial artery 11. aorta B. 3=simple squamous epithelium. basilar artery E. 3-2-1-5-4 E.003 Which of the following vessels contains a significant amount of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle in its tunica adventitia? A.002 Which of the following would have the largest amount of elastic fibers/sheets in its wall? A.SECTION 11: CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM 11. 2-1-5-4-3 11. renal vein 11. 5=external elastic membrane. 3-2-4-5-1 C.

an intact basal lamina outside the endothelium D. The inferior vena cava and some of its immediate branches have circular smooth muscle fibers in their tunics media. its arch and the descending aorta and their immediate branches are classified as elastic arteries because of the many elastic fibers or sheets in their walls. This high amount of elasticity provides for elastic recoil of the vessel wall after distention by the systolic ejection of blood into them. Arterioles have from 2 to perhaps 5 layers of circular smooth muscle. The ascending aorta. which of the following is a characteristic feature separating these vessels from other vessels of similar caliber? A. a lumen of 8 micrometers B. muscular artery B. cell to cell junctions of the macula occludens type E. metarteriole E. is convect. This keeps the systemic blood pressure from falling to zero during diastole.A. Metarterioles have one layer of smooth . but since these veins are bringing blood against gravity toward the heart they have a well developed layer of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle fibers which officially are classified as being in the deeper aspect of the tunica adventitia. cell to cell junctions of the zonula occludens type D. and a small lumen relative to the thickness of the wall. is correct. is correct. small vein D. continuous capillary 11.005 With respect to the capillaries of the brain. is correct. B. arteriole C. cell to cell junctions of the fascia occludens type C. B. D.

009 Identify the cell which is embedded in the basal lamina of the endothelial cell of a capillary? A. The presence of zonula occludens in the capillaries serving the CNS is what is known as the bloodbrain barrier.008 What causes at least some of the tissue fluid to be returned to the venous side of the capillary bed? A. A & B & C are correct 11. C. Since fascia occludens do not completely surround the entire periphery of the cell. C. B. there are areas between adjacent endothelial cells which permit the passage of tissue fluid and perhaps white blood cells. lower hydrostatic pressure relative to osmotic p. contractility of vessel wall squeezes fluid in 11. A & B are correct E.006 Which of the following organs contains capillaries of the fenestrated type? A. liver C. B. C. higher hydrostatic pressure relative to osmotic p. small intestine D. is correct. lower hydrostatic pressure relative to osmotic p. contractility of vessel wall squeezes fluid out 11.007 What causes fluid to be extruded at the arterial end of a capillary bed? A. kidney B.muscle cells and these are intermittent or "disappearing" as the vessel approaches its capillary morphology. higher hydrostatic pressure relative to osmotic p. smooth muscle cell . Most endothelial cells outside of the central nervous system have fascial type occludens junctions. 11. hydrostatic and osmotic pressures are equal. hydrostatic and osmotic pressures are equal.

fibroblast C. is correct. venule D. On the venous side of a capillary bed the hydrostatic pressure has diminished greatly relative to what it was on the arterial side of the bed. is correct. Continuous capillaries are capillaries which do not have little windows in them. connective tissue and other somatic tissue are of the continuous type. macrophages usually found adjacent to wall. metarteriole E. Fenestrated capillaries have small windows or fenestrations in their cytoplasm. The hydrostatic pressure on the venous side of a capillary bed is lower than the osmotic pressure and this causes much of the tissue fluid produced at the arterial end to be returned to the blood at the venous end. the hydrostatic pressure exceeds this at the arterial end and fluid is forced out of the capillary into the surrounding connective tissue area where it is now called tissue fluid. is correct. fenestrated capillary B. A.010 The following description best describes which vessel: unusually wide lumen relative to thinness of the wall. continuous capillary C. B. lymphocyte E. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell or pericyte 11. adipocyte D.B. A. sinusoid E. nerve. Although the osmotic pressure or "draw" is high due to the multitude of large molecules carried in the blood plasma. Sometimes fenestrated capillaries are referred to as visceral capillaries whereas those supplying muscle. This makes this type of capillary very permeable. wall is composed of endothelial cells and an intermittent basal lamina. finds its way . The excess tissue fluid or the tissue fluid which does not return to the blood at the venous end of the capillary bed.

is correct.013 Which of the following vessels would contain opposing. E. E. axillary artery B. Since pericytes contain actin. fibroblasts and even chondroblasts and osteoblasts. sinusoids B. myosin and tropomyosin they may be contractile. pericyte B. arteriovenous anastomoses D. semilunar folds of intima? A. perineural vessels E. superior vena cava C. Pericytes may be capable of differentiating into smooth muscle cells. superficial veins in the extremities . perivascular space C. Some of the best places to find sinusoids are in the liver and spleen. endothelium of renal artery E. capillary endothelium D. Pericytes are mesenchymal cells with long cytoplasmic processes which hang on to and partially surround capillary endothelium.eventually into blind ended lymph capillaries where it is now called lymph. endomysial fibroblast C. This is a description of a sinusoid.011 Which cell type would have the best example of pinocytotic vesicles? A. macrophage associated with sinusoidal wall A. between small venules and medium venules 11. is correct. 11.

A. is correct. thoracic duct D. no pericytes. EGF C. is correct. renal vein E. Factor VIII E. The capillary is the exchange vessel or the site where a tremendous amount of physiological exchange occurs between blood and the tissues outside of the vessel wall. NGF B. Some molecules move across by diffusion. especially those in the extremities are folds of intima with a core of . presence of anchoring filaments. no fenestrations. Factor X C. is correct. lymph capillary E. C. Capillary networks can be by-passed by direct connections between small arteries/arterioles to small veins/venules.015 Capillary endothelial cells can be induced to migrate and proliferate in a specific direction by the application of which of the following? A. TAF D. Valves in veins. sinusoid B. C.014 The following description best applies to which vessel: endothelium surrounded by an incomplete basal lamina.D. A-V anastomosis C. right lymphatic duct 11. Other larger molecules are moved across endothelial cytoplasm to and from both surfaces of the endothelial cell by pinocytosis. splenic trabecular artery 11. carbon dioxide. such as oxygen.

The great saphenous vein in the inferior extremity has such valves. Hyaline cartilage is avascular and it contains an antiangiogenesis factor which apparently prevents angiogenesis in cartilage. parietal pericardium 11. 4=left or right bundle branch. 11. This is a description of a lymph capillary. is correct. Since the great saphenous vein is used as the bridge in coronary bypass surgery. 3-2-1-4 E. Nerve growth factor and epidermal growth factor have nothing to do with endothelium. A. large blood vessels. 1-2-34 B. lymphatics and nerve fibers. 2-3-1-4 . Factors VIII and X are blood clotting factors.016 This description best fits what layer: presence of a large amount of fat cells. 3-1-2-4 D. endocardium B. epicardium C. 3=SA node. Note that it differs quite a bit from a blood capillary especially in regard to the anchoring filaments which connect the lymph capillary wall to surrounding larger connective tissue fibers. These valves prevent backward flow of blood.subendothelial connective tissue. C. A. myocardium D. 4-3-2-1 C. TAF or tumor angiogenesis factor stimulates endothelial cells to migrate/divide resulting in neoangiogenesis. it is important to keep the proximaldistal orientation of the harvested vein in mind when performing such grafts. is correct. D. serous pericardium E. surfaced by a mesothelium. 2=AV bundle.017 Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence for impulse conduction in the heart: 1=AV node.

lateral portion 11. moves over atrial myocytes to the AV node.020 What type of mitotic cell life characterizes the adult cardiac muscle cell? A. peripherally arranged myofibrils.11. E. vegetative intermitotic B. transverse portion B. leaves the AV node in the AV bundle which crosses the pars membranaceum and then divides into the right and left bundle branches or bundles of His. Purkinje fibers are cardiomyocytes specialized for impulse conduction. fixed postmitotic B. C. . differentiating intermitotic C.018 The following description best describes which of the following: centrally located nucleus. it does not contain large amounts of fat. The impulse conducting system of the heart begins in the SA node.019 Where in the intercalated disc are the gap junctions located through which cardiomyocytes communicate ionically? A. is correct. is correct. Although the serous pericardium is also surfaced by a medothelium and some delicate submesothelial connective tissue. skeletal muscle myoblast B. reverting postmitotic D. is correct. cardiac muscle cell C. Purkinje cells are found in the cerebellum. obvious blood vessels such as the coronary arteries and veins. perinuclear cytoplasm contains stored glycogen. The endocardium is surfaced by an endothelium and it has little or no fat in it. Purkinje cell E. A. subendocardial smooth muscle D. Purkinje fiber 11.

A-H junction 11. the adjacent cardiac myocytes are incapable of cell division there is no regeneration. A. The longitudinal or lateral portion of the intercalated disc is loaded with gap junctions. In the transverse portion of the intercalated disc one finds myofibrillar junctions. When a portion of the heart loses its blood supply due to a thrombotic event in a branch of a coronary vessel. serous layer of parietal pericardium B.022 Where are the membrane bound granules which contain natriuretic factor found? A. both poles of the nuclei of the juxtaglomerular apparatus 11. desmosomes and maybe a few gap junctions. The adult cardiac myocyte is a fixed postmitotic or non-replicating cell. both poles of the nucleus in the Purkinje fiber B.B. lateral aspects of the intercalated disc D.023 Wherein the layers of the heart are the Purkinje fibers located? A. diffusely arranged in the endothelial cells lining the pulmonary capillaries E. I band D. both poles of the nucleus in the atrial cardiomyocyte C. Z band B. is correct. The necrotic or dead tissue is eventually replaced by fibroblasts and collagen fibers which form a scar (if the person survives the heart attack). A-I junction E. Since. fibrous layer of parietal pericardium . A band C. the cardiac myocytes distal to the thrombus die (myocardial infarction). D. is correct.

sinoatrial node C. endocardium 11. these cells are held together by desmosomes. parietal pericardium C. trabeculae carneae D. papillary muscle B.026 Subendothelial fibroblasts are characteristic of A. almost regularly arranged collagenous connective tissue EXCEPT. cardiac valve rings 11. membranous part of interventricular septum 11.C.025 This region contains small cardiac muscle cells which do not have intercalated discs or a prominent striated appearance. tunica intima B. pars membranaceum of interventricular septum B. visceral pericardium D. B. epicardium E. tunica media C. In human skeletal muscle T tubules are found at the A-I junction. is correct.024 All of the following are composed of dense. is correct. A. myocardium D. Purkinje fiber tract E. tunica adventitia A. central fibrous body of heart E. . A. In human cardiac muscle the T tubules are found at the Z line.

is correct. All of the other structures are components of the cardiac skeleton. tunica intima B. thereby attempting to lower the blood volume. 11. E. is correct. especially surrounding the coronary vessels. is correct. Purkinje fibers are located in the deeper aspects of the subendothelial connective tissue of the endocardium or in that part of the endocardium which borders the internal most aspect of the myocardium. tunica intima B. The visceral pericardium is a mesothelium under which there is some loose areolar connective tissue with a significant amount of adipose tissue associated with it. C. ANP is released in response to excess stretching of the myocyte which would happen if the blood volume is larger than normal. B. In addition to the components of the description of the SA node mentioned. tunica media C.0029 Vasa vasora are characteristic of . A. is correct.0027 Adipose tissue is characteristic of A. this region is embedded in dense irregular connective tissue with many nerve fibers present.0028 Smooth muscle is characteristic of A. tunica media C. ANP acts on the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron stimulating the loss of sodium. tunics adventitia 11. tunica adventitia 11. potassium and water.Atrial natriuretic factor or atriopeptin is stored in membrane bound granules at each pole of the elongated atrial myocyte.

tunica media 11. tunics adventitia B. tunica media C. tunica intima C. tunica intima C. muscular artery C.030 Simple squamous epithelium is characteristic of A. arteriole D.033 The endocardium of the heart is equivalent to what in a vessel wall: A. tunica adventitia 11. tunica media 11. elastic artery B.A. tunica adventitia 11. tunica intima B.034 The pulmonary trunk is a/an: A. tunica media 11. tunica adventitia B.032 The myocardium of the heart is equivalent to what in a vessel wall: A. tunica media C. tunica intima C. metarteriole . tunics intima B.031 The epicardium of the heart is equivalent to what in a vessel wall: A. tunica adventitia B.

B. muscular artery C. metarteriole E. C. A. muscular artery C. elastic artery B. arteriole D. B. is correct. capillary 11. is correct. metarteriole E.035 A vessel with from 30 to 4-5 smooth muscle cells in the wall: A. capillary C.036 The radial artery is a/an: A. 11. is correct. A. B. C. is correct. arteriole D. is correct.E.037 The arch of the aorta is a/an: A. is correct. elastic artery B. elastic artery . is correct. is correct. A. is correct. capillary 11.

muscular artery C.039 A vessel with only I smooth muscle cell in tunica media is a/an: A.041 Which of the following is an area of extensive pinocytosis? A. arteriole D. muscular artery C.038 A vessel with a 5-8 micron lumen is a/an: A. capillary 11. metarteriole E.B. metarteriole E. capillary 11. capillary 11. arteriole D. capillary 11. elastic artery . arteriole D. elastic artery B. metarteriole E. arteriole D. elastic artery B. elastic artery B. muscular artery C. muscular artery C.040 A vessel with a pericyte contained in its wall is a/an: A. metarteriole E.

metarteriole E. is correct.043 Two prominent elastic lamina. E. is correct. is correct. arteriole D. arteriole D. muscular artery C. capillary 11. elastic artery B.042 Up to 70 fenestrated sheets of extracellular material: A. is correct. capillary . is correct. muscular artery C. A. muscular artery C. metarteriole E. is correct. arteriole D. one "internal" and the other "external": A. A. capillary B. 11.B. is correct. elastic artery B. E. E. D. metarteriole E.

tunica intima B. muscular artery C. metarteriole E. tunics intima B. tunics adventitia 11.11.047 Adipose tissue is found in which of the following? A. arteriole D. metarteriole E. tunics media C.048 Smooth muscle is found in which of the following? A.045 A vessel with 2-4 smooth muscle cells in media: A.044 Lined by endothelium with fenestrations: A. tunica intima B. tunica media C. elastic artery B. capillary 11.046 Subendothelial fibroblasts are found in which of the following? A. tunica media C. elastic artery B. muscular artery C. tunica adventitia 11. capillary 11. tunica adventitia . arteriole D.

but a large amount of longitudinally arranged smooth muscle in its tunica adventitia. is correct. C. is correct. 11. some subendothelial fibroblasts and the internal elastic membrane. the outer 50% of the wall of the very large vessels. In the largest vessels the wall is so thick that it can not be nourished from the blood in the lumen and therefore needs its own blood supply. tunica intima B. tunica adventitia B.11. Vasa vasora can be found in the outer reaches of the tunica media. tunica media C. is correct. is correct.049 Vasa vasora are found in which of the following? A. is correct. Vasa vasora are vessels for vessels. C. B. The tunica intima consists of from inside to outside: endothelium. tunics intima B. This is one of the three sublayers of the tunica intima. Almost all of the fat cells in normal vessels can be found only in the tunica adventitia. but they are most numerous and easiest to see in the tunica adventitia. tunica media . E. In general. Most of the smooth muscle in the general plan of a vessel is confined to the tunica media. A.050 Simple squamous epithelium is a component of which of the following? A. is correct. C. One major exception to this rule is the inferior vena cava which has some circular smooth muscle in its Tunica media. both arteries and veins. receives a blood supply via vasa vasora. is correct.

muscular artery C. muscular artery C. arteriole D. tunica adventitia B. capillary 11. tunica intima C.055 Which of the following has ranges from about 30 to 3 smooth muscle cells in its tunica media and contains two major elastic membranes? A. tunica media 11. arteriole . tunica adventitia 11. elastic artery B. A. tunica intima C.053 The endocardium of the heart is equivalent to in a vessel wall. A.052 The myocardium of the heart is equivalent to in a vessel wall. tunica adventitia B.C. tunica adventitia B. elastic artery B. tunica media 11.054 The pulmonary trunk is classified as which of the following? A. tunica intima C. metarteriole E. tunica media 11. A.051 The epicardium of the heart is equivalent to in a vessel wall.

D. capillary A. B. is correct. A . The myocardium is the middle layer of the heart and it is equivalent to the middle layer of the general plan of the vessel wall which is the tunica media. As these branch and branch they get smaller and smaller and become too small to be named by gross anatomists. arteriole D. is correct. which are most of the named arteries of gross anatomy in addition to the named elastic or conducting arteries (e.056 The radial artery is classified as which of the following? A. The pulmonary trunk is an example of an elastic or conducting artery. elastic artery B. The epicardium of the heart is its outermost layer and it is equivalent to the outermost layer of the generalized vessel wall. metarteriole E. capillary 11.g. is correct. metarteriole E. the tunica adventitia. The innermost layer of the three layers of the heart is the same general layer as the tunica intima in the general plan of the three layers found in the generalized vessel wall. A. There are large muscular arteries. muscular artery C. A. B. This is a description of a muscular or distributing artery. aorta). is correct. Simple squamous epithelium in a vessel is known as endothelium and it is the innermost layer or lining of the tunica intima. is correct. C. is correct.

metarteriole E. metarteriole E. is correct.059 Its tunica media is composed of one. muscular artery C. arteriole D. arteriole D. discontinuous layer of smooth muscle? A.058 Which of the following would have a 7-10 micron lumen? A. capillary 11. 11. muscular artery C. metarteriole E. not an elastic artery.057 The arch of the aorta is classified as which of the following? A. capillary 11. muscular artery C.small muscular artery by histological methods would have about 3-8 smooth muscle cells in its tunica media. capillary 11. arteriole D. This named artery in the superior extremity is an example of a muscular or distributing artery. elastic artery B. elastic artery B. elastic artery B.060 Which of the following would contain a pericyte in its wall? . B.

capillary A.2 microns in diameter). The metarteriole has a single layer of smooth muscle cells in its tiny tunica media but these smooth muscle cells do not make a continuous ring around the vessel wall. Pericytes may be contractile. arteriole D. the arch of the aorta. capillary 11. E. Pericytes "sit" in or are enclosed in their own basal lamina which is continuous with the basal lamina of the endothelial cell. E. metarteriole E. is correct. D. metarteriole E.A. Since they are undifferentiated . this small lumen best describes the capillary. elastic artery B. is correct. the proximal parts of the branches of the arch of the aorta and probably most of the descending aorta are examples of elastic or conducting arteries. Since this is only as big as a RBC or a little larger than a RBC (the RBC being the "histological ruler" at 7.061 In which of the following would one find areas of extensive pinocytosis? A. arteriole D. muscular artery C. is correct. The pulmonary trunk. elastic artery B. muscular artery C. the ascending aorta. mesenchymaltype cells which may or may not have cytoplasmic processes which wrap around the capillary. is correct. Pericytes represent undifferentiated. This is a description of the metarteriole or the last smooth muscle containing vessel on the arterial side of the capillary bed.

In fenestrated endothelium. The endothelial cells of the capillaries show extensive pinocytotic activity. is correct. one "internal" and the other "external"? A. elastic artery B. the endothelial cells in the capillaries of the brain are connected to each other by very tight zonula occludens junctions.064 This vessel is lined by endothelium with fenestrations: A. arteriole D. In addition to minimal pinocytotic activity here. The pinocytotic vesicles represent transendothelial transport.063 In which of the following would one find two prominent elastic lamina. except for the capillaries in the brain. much material is transported transendothelially through the fenestrations. The lack of evidence for pinocytotic activity in the continuous capillaries of the brain is a special situation which is a contributing factor of the existence of a blood-brain barrier. elastic artery B. capillary 11. smooth muscle cells. etc. although pinocytotic vesicles are present. E.mesenchymal cells they are believed to be a cell source for other mesenchymal cells such as fibroblasts. capillary 11. muscular artery . 11. fat cells. arteriole D. muscular artery C. metarteriole E. metarteriole E. muscular artery C. elastic artery B.062 In which of the following would one find up to 70 fenestrated sheets of extracellular material? A.

. for example. E. The outermost layer of the tunica intima of muscular or distributing arteries is the internal elastic membrane. arteriole D. is correct. capillary 11. blood is forced away from the heart and at the same time the hydrostatic pressure in the great arteries is maintained. metarteriole E. During cardiac diastole. muscular artery C. The main arteries exiting the heart (pulmonary trunk and aorta) are elastic or conducting arteries. They contain large numbers of fenestrated elastic sheets or laminae between which there are smooth muscle cells. B.065 1-2 smooth muscle cells in a continuous layer in the tunica media are characteristic of which of the following? A. is correct. elastic artery B. is correct. C. arteriole D. The elasticity of these great vessels allows them to expand when the appropriate ventricle delivers blood into them during systole. metarteriole E.C. in skeletal muscle. the stretched elastic laminae of the great arteries recoil and thereby squeeze or put pressure on the blood in their lumens. The boundary between the outermost region of the tunica media and the tunica adventitia is where the less obvious external elastic membrane is located. is correct. The endothelium of capillaries comes in two varieties: continuous and fenestrated. capillary A. The fenestrated type is found in visceral organs whereas the continuous type is more "somatic" in nature being found. This would tend to force blood back into the heart but since the semilunar valves are closed.

e. contraction or relaxation of their smooth muscle cells. The endothelial cells lining arterioles contain a special feature and that is some cytoplasmic granules which contain blood clotting factor VIII.Arterioles have 1-2 continuous layers of smooth muscle cells in their tunica media. . Further down the arterial tree from the smallest arteriole is the metarteriole which has a discontinuous single layer of smooth muscle cells. raising and lowering systemic blood pressure by their narrowing or widening. Since the surface area of the arterioles is tremendous they play a significant role in maintaining.. i. In general the wall of an arteriole is quite thick relative to the size of its lumen.

001 Which of the following are not part of the conducting system of the respiratory tract? A. secondary bronchi E. primary bronchi 12. terminal bronchioles C. pneumocyte type II (great alveolar cell) D. olfactory receptor cell 12.004 Which of the following structures has stratified squamous epithelium somewhere on one surface and pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium somewhere on the other surface? .003 Which epithelium is characteristic of most of the conducting passages of the respiratory system? A. non-keratinizing B. dendritic processes lie flat on the surface of microvilli of a different cell type. stratified squamous. Clara cell B. pseudostratified columnar with cilia E. A. axon extends into a lamina propria. respiratory bronchioles D. cell in outer nuclear layer of the retina E.SECTION 12: RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 12. trachea B. keratinizing C.002 The following description best fits which of the following cell types: bipolar. pneumocyte type I C. pseudostratified cuboidal with cilia 12. stratified columnar with cilia D. stratified squamous.

PSC ciliated with goblet cells is the epithelium found on most of the conducting passages of the respiratory system.A. E. is correct. is correct. goblet cells . false vocal fold D. 12. hard palate B. This epithelium is so characteristic of the respiratory system that it is often referred to as "respiratory epithelium". The respiratory bronchiole is similar in structure to the conducting terminal bronchiole with the exception that it contains some alveoli in its wall.005 What can the daughter cells of the basal cells found in pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium differentiate into? A. is correct. basal cells B. The false vocal fold is surfaced by respiratory epithelium. Both the hard palate and the epiglottis have areas on their opposite sides which contain respiratory epithelium and stratified squamous epithelium. D. The olfactory neuron is bipolar with its dendritic bulb giving way to many olfactory cilia which are found lying flat along the surface of the olfactory epithelium over the microvilli of the supporting or sustentacular cells. Terminal bronchioles terminate into the first division of the respiratory or gaseous exchange division of the respiratory system: the respiratory bronchiole. epiglottis C. All other structures listed are components of the conducting or non-gaseous exchange portion of the respiratory system. columnar cells with cilia C. A & B & C are correct C. A & B are correct E. D. is correct.

terminal bronchiole 12.007 The following description best fits which structure: covered on both surfaces mostly by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium.006 The cilia of the respiratory epithelium all beat toward which structure? A. false vocal fold D. oropharynx C. decreasing numbers of goblet cells. loose areolar connective tissue E. dense regular elastic connective tissue 12. A & B are correct E. core of elastic fibers near its epithelium and skeletal muscle fibers deep to the elastic fibers. laryngeal ventricle E. epiglottis C. A & B & C are correct 12. true vocal fold E. soft palate 12.008 What tissue is found between or bridging the open ends of the tracheal rings? A. perichondrium B.009 The following description best fits which respiratory structure: absence of hyaline cartilage. some smooth muscle. uvula B. skeletal muscle C. external nares B. A. ciliated columnar to cuboidal epithelium. alveolar duct D. smooth muscle D.D. .

is correct. which must be continuously replaced by daughter cells of the basal cells.A. The cilia in the nasal cavities beat toward the choanae. C. The small basal cells are incompletely differentiated cells which are mitotically active. alveolar ducts E. The true cord has an elastic vocal ligament under the epithelium and deep to that the vocalis muscle. D. This is the normal process of turnover in the respiratory epithelium. C. intrapulmonary bronchi C. The smooth muscle occupying the space between the open ends of the tracheal rings is called the trachealis muscle. is correct. B. This ciliary beat constantly moves the mucus film on the surface of the respiratory epithelium to the oropharynx where it is swallowed. and the cilia move this conglomeration to the oropharynx for eventual swallowing. is correct. respiratory bronchioles E. If you cough hard several times and then spit on a slide and stain the smear you will see normally desquamated goblet cells and ciliated columnar cells from the conducting passages of your respiratory system. is correct. The true vocal fold is surfaced by mother nature's toughest wet epithelium. The mucus film traps bacteria. Bronchi have plates or islands of hyaline cartilage in them. 2) differentiate into goblet cells and 3) differentiate into ciliated columnar cells. etc. stratified squamous nonkeratinizing. Their daughter cells 1) can remain in a relatively undifferentiated state as basal cells. extrapulmonary bronchi B. . is correct. conducting bronchioles D. inhaled foreign particles. The cilia from the larynx and deeper into the respiratory system beat toward the oropharynx. Respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts have alveoli associated with them.

alveolar sac to adjacent alveolar sac 12.12. 5=basal lamina of pneumocyte type I. 3-6-5-2-4-1 D. pneumocyte type II . terminal to respiratory bronchiole B. secondary or intrapulmonary bronchi D.013 Lamellar bodies are characteristic of which of the following cells? A.011 Between what two adjacent structures in the respiratory tree is the alveolar duct placed? A. terminal bronchioles C. 4=endothelial cell cytoplasm. 3-2-5-6-4-1 B.010 Clara cells are found in which respiratory structure? A. 3=surfactant. alveolus from one pulmonary lobule to an adjacent pulmonary lobule D. respiratory bronchiole to alveolar sac E. A & B are correct E. pneumocyte type I B. 3-2-6-4-5-1 C. 2=basal lamina of endothelial cell. 3-4-2-6-5-1 12. 3-5-6-4-2-1 E. alveolar sac to alveoli C. respiratory bronchioles B. A. 6=cytoplasm of pneumocyte type I.012 Arrange the following structures in proper sequence for the passage of oxygen from air in an alveolus to blood in an alveolar wall capillary: 1=blood plasma. A & B & C are correct 12.

but they do contain apical secretory granules which contain glycosaminoglycans which may function as a protective lining for the terminal and respiratory bronchioles. The surface tension reducing substance is surfactant. is correct. This is the ultrastructure of the air-blood interface. mast cells B. C. Lamellar bodies are electron-dense. is correct. alveolar macrophage D. This puts ciliary beat deeper into the tree than the production of the mucus film which guarantees that all of the mucus film will creep toward the oropharynx. When the content of the lamellar bodies is released to the alveolar surface it forms a surface film which significantly reduces the surface tension in the alveolus. 12. B. layered or whorled looking structures rich in phospholipids. alveolar endothelium D. is correct. Carbon dioxide would be passed in exactly the opposite direction from blood to air: 1-4-2-5-6-3.014 In addition to the type I & II pneumocytes what other cell types are found in the alveolar septum? A. fibroblasts . Clara cells first show up as one goes down the respiratory tree in the terminal bronchioles. They are taller than the ciliated cuboidal cells adjacent to them. goblet cells have disappeared but ciliated cells can be found deeper into the tree than goblet cells. D. Premature infants do not have enough surfactant in their lungs to reduce the surface tension for normal "effortless" inspiration. The alveolar duct connects the respiratory bronchiole with the lobbies (alveolar sacs) which have the individual rooms (alveoli) off of them.C. By the time Clara cells have appeared in the respiratory tree. glycosaminoglycans and proteins. They do not have cilia. is correct. This condition is called hyaline membrane disease. Lamellar bodies do not appear in the great alveolar cells(pneumocyte type II) until the last several weeks of gestation. Clara cell E.

visceral pleura C. A & B are correct E. mesothelial cells 12.018 Tritiated choline would be best suited for studying which process in the type II pneumocyte? . under which lies a layer of fairly loose irregular connective tissue which gives way to a very dense. parietal pericardium D.015 What structure can be found in the interlobular connective tissue septum which sweeps into the lung from the visceral pleura? A. A.017 Exocytosed lamellar bodies swell in the alveolar lining forming what? A. parietal pleura B. blood lipids D. endocardium 12. branch of pulmonary vein D. branch of pulmonary artery C. alveolar macrophages B.016 The following description best fits which structure: mesothelial surface. bronchiole B. tubular myelin C. serous secretion 12. mucus E. macrophages D. almost regularly arranged collagenous connective tissue. bronchus E. A & B & C are correct 12. visceral pericardium E.C.

carbohydrate synthesis 12. 70 C. is correct. protein synthesis D. 10 D. . C. is correct. lipid synthesis E. The oxygenated blood exiting the alveolar capillary network is collected in pulmonary venules and veins which are found at the periphery of each pulmonary lobule in the interlobular connective septum. RNA synthesis C. In general the pulmonary arteries and their terminal branches carrying deoxygenated blood coarse along side the bronchioles until branching into the alveolar capillary network. 30 E. The parietal pericardium is composed of two subdivisions. DNA synthesis B. C. The visceral and parietal pleura have only a mesothelial surface and some submesothelial connective tissue. 90 B. Outside of the serous pericardium is a dense connective tissue layer called the fibrous pericardium.A. 50 D. All of these cell types are found in the interalveolar wall. is correct. In addition to residing in the alveolar septum some of the macrophages wander over the surface of the pneumocyte I ingesting inhaled particles.019 What percentage of surfactant consists of lipid? A. The innermost component is the serous pericardium and it has a mesothelium on its surface which lines the pericardial sac. These macrophages are often called dust cells.

ciliated columnar cells C. About 90 percent of surfactant consists of lipids. olfactory D. is correct.021 All of the following cells are found in the olfactory mucosa EXCEPT: A.020 Pulmonary surfactant contains some proteins. 12. non-keratinizing C.022 What kind of epithelium would you probably find lining the bronchi of a 70 year old smoker (2 packs/day for 55 years)? A.B. all hydrophilic C. basal cells which function as stem cells B. sustentacular cells D. is correct. bipolar neurons 12. pure Clara cells . The lamellar bodies secreted from the type II pneumocyte swell to form a lattice structure called tubular myelin. D. lymphocytes E. These proteins are: A. This precursor was used to trace the morphological route of surfactant lipid synthesis in the great alveolar cell. is correct. a mixture of hydrophobic and hydrophilic 12. pseudostratified ciliated columnar B. The surfactant film forms from this structure by insertion of surfactant components into the surface film. A. stratified squamous. all hydrophobic B. The main one is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.

Type I pneumocyte C. .024 This organ has one side covered entirely by stratified squamous. goblet cell E. nonkeratinizing epithelium and its other side covered in one area by stratified squamous. stratified cuboidal 12. is correct. hard palate B. The major surfactant proteins are four in number: two hydrophilic glycoproteins SPA & SP-D and two hydrophobic proteins SP-B & SP-C. epiglottis 12. Type II pneumocyte D. true vocal fold D. elastic fiber C. A. reticular fiber 12. nonkeratinizing epithelium AND pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. olfactory receptor cell C. at the distal most end of these cilia the 9 doublet structure is absent but the two central fibers continue on into a relatively long distal component of the cilium.023 Which of the following is functionally important in the interalveolar wall. collagen fiber B. false vocal fold E. soft palate-uvula C.E. B. Clara cell B. A. A. is correct.025 This cell has cilia on its apical end. However. SP-A and SP-D act to enhance the phagocytosis of some viruses and bacteria by alveolar macrophages.

especially those of the digestive and respiratory systems. conducting bronchiole F. B. 12. E. larynx D. E.Unlike "regular" pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium or "respiratory" epithelium the olfactory epithelium does not contain ciliated cells. olfactory mucosa B. stratified squamous wet epithelium in this individual probably showed some abnormal changes or dysplasia indicating its evolution into squamous cell carcinoma. is correct. respiratory bronchiole G. is correct. nonkeratinizing epithelium in its superior half and by "respiratory" epithelium in its inferior half. These fibers allow the expansion and contraction of the alveoli during respiration. is correct. This special situation is characteristic for the dendritic process of the olfactory receptor cell. The posterior side of the epiglottis is surfaced by stratified squamous. is correct. Lymphocytes are commonly found migrating through epithelial surfaces. alveolus 12. B. This change from one type to a different type of epithelium is termed metaplasia.027 Macrophages migrate over an epithelial surface in which of the following? . epiglottis C. After that much smoking the original "respiratory" epithelium most probably had been replaced with a "tougher". trachea/main bronchi E. stratified squamous. Indeed the metaplastic.026 Which of the following contains a core of elastic cartilage? A. non-keratinizing epithelium.

conducting bronchiole F. larynx D. olfactory mucosa B. larynx D. conducting bronchiole F. alveolus 12. alveolus 12. olfactory mucosa B. epiglottis C. trachea/main bronchi E. respiratory bronchiole G. trachea/main bronchi E. epiglottis C. trachea/main bronchi E. conducting bronchiole F.A. olfactory mucosa B. epiglottis C.028 Which of the following has pores in its wall which can transfer bacteria from one side to the other side of the wall? A. alveolus .029 Which of the following contains hyaline cartilage in its wall? A. respiratory bronchiole G. pinna of the ear D. respiratory bronchiole G.

G. conducting bronchiole F. There can be several in each interalveolar wall.12. is correct. is correct. trachea. D. Since the epiglottis bends and closes the airway during swallowing it is important to this function to have elastic. cartilage as the supporting special connective tissue in this organ. is correct. Perhaps the main function of these cartilages is structural support to keep the airway or conducting portions of the respiratory tree open. Alveoli can communicate with each other because of holes or pores in their walls. They are disadvantageous because they also provide a pathway for microbes to move from one alveolus to the next. respiratory bronchiole G. Alveolar macrophages or "dust" cells are unique in that they are tissue macrophages which function by wandering over the alveolar surface ingesting all kinds of foreign objects. epiglottis C. olfactory mucosa B. . larynx D.030 Bowman's glands are present beneath an epithelium in which of the following? A. The alveolar macrophages in the smoker's lung are filled with indigestible material such as carbon. G. They may provide a mechanism to equalize air flow and pressure between adjacent alveoli. rather than hyaline. There are supporting pieces of hyaline cartilage in the larynx. trachea/main bronchi E. is correct. These alveolar pores (of Kohn) can be seen on scanning electron micrographs. The only structure listed that contains elastic cartilage is the epiglottis. alveolus B. main stem bronchi and in the secondary bronchi.

12. epiglottis C. conducting bronchiole F. larynx D. olfactory mucosa B. In the lamina propria. conducting bronchiole F. alveolus 12.A.031 Which of the following contains a ventricle covered or surfaced by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium? A.032 C-shaped pieces of hyaline cartilage are found in which of the following? A. respiratory bronchiole G. is correct. Since these glands of Bowman are serous they keep the surface of the epithelium wet and probably help dissolve odoriferous substances for "easier" detection by the olfactory bipolar neurons. epiglottis . alveolus 12. olfactory mucosa B. olfactory mucosa B. larynx D. under the olfactory epithelium. trachea/main bronchi E. which of the following is the first structure in which gaseous exchange occurs? A. epiglottis C.033 As one proceeds down the respiratory tree. respiratory bronchiole G. are some serous glands with ducts which open onto the surface of the olfactory epithelium. trachea/main bronchi E.

larynx D. olfactory mucosa B.034 Clara cells very numerous in which of the following? A. conducting bronchiole F. conducting bronchiole F. trachea/main bronchi E. conducting bronchiole F. alveolus 12. trachea/main bronchi E. is correct. alveolus C. olfactory mucosa B. epiglottis C. The only ventricle in the respiratory system is the diverticulated space in the larynx which extends laterally and separates the true and false vocal folds from each . respiratory bronchiole G. larynx D. alveolus 12. respiratory bronchiole G. respiratory bronchiole G.C. larynx D.035 Surfactant is elaborated by a special cell type in which of the following? A. trachea/main bronchi E. epiglottis C.

have chunks or plates of hyaline cartilage in their walls. are conducting not respiratory structures. They secrete glycosaminoglycans onto the bronchiolar surface and this probably has something to due with protection of the surface epithelium. trachea/main bronchi E. The surfactant can be seen inside of the cell where it is present in large secretory vesicles called lamellar bodies. is the parenchymal cell in the lung which produces surfactant. down to and including the terminal bronchioles.036 The thyroarytenoid muscle is covered by a congregation of elastic fibers in which of the following? A. conducting bronchiole . The trachea and the main stem bronchi have a continuous C-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage in their walls. is correct. The first conducting structures with no hyaline cartilage in their wall are the bronchioles. The open part of the C faces posteriorly and is spanned by smooth muscle. Clara cells are quite numerous in the terminalrespiratory bronchiole tree. F. All of the named structures of the respiratory tree. epiglottis C. or the many divisions of the bronchi from the main stem bronchi all the way to the first bronchioles. The respiratory bronchiole is the first member of the gaseous exchange or respiratory division because it has alveoli in its wall. is correct. The pneumocyte type II. is correct. D. G. The deeper reaches of the laryngeal ventricle are lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. which also contains ciliated cuboidal cells. Clara cells are non-ciliated cells which contain some secretory granules. These plates get smaller and smaller and finally disappear. is correct. olfactory mucosa B. F. Secondary bronchi. larynx D. 12. or great alveolar cell.other.

the core of the fold contains some elastic connective tissue and deep to that is a mass of skeletal muscle" best describes which of the following? A. conducting bronchiole F. trachea/main bronchi E. epiglottis C. conducting bronchiole F.037 The proximal processes of cells are functional axons in which of the following? A.F. olfactory mucosa B.039 In which of the following do some cells have clubshaped expansions or vesicles with cilia on them? A. alveolus 12. olfactory mucosa B.038 The following description: "a fold of tissue covered with stratified squamous wet epithelium. alveolus 12. larynx . respiratory bronchiole G. alveolus 12. larynx D. olfactory mucosa B. larynx D. epiglottis C. respiratory bronchiole G. epiglottis C. trachea/main bronchi E. respiratory bronchiole G.

trachea/main bronchi E. A.D. trachea/main bronchi . epiglottis C. A. In the olfactory epithelium there are support cells and bipolar neurons that have dendrites which have a bulb or vesicle which projects above the general surface of the epithelium. an axonal process passes through the basal lamina of the epithelium and enters the underlying lamina propria where it joins similar axons from other olfactory neurons to form groups of the same called fila olfactoria.040 Which of the following folds or bends on itself during swallowing? A. olfactory mucosa B. alveolus C. is correct. respiratory bronchiole G. larynx D. is correct. On the axonal side of the olfactory bipolar neuron. These ciliary extensions are believed to be the receptors for odorous substances. is correct. What was omitted from the description is that this fold would have a covering of stratified squamous wet or non-keratinized epithelium. is correct. 12. Several olfactory cilia take origin from this dendritic bulb and they extend into the film of mucus on the surface of the epithelium. This is a description of the olfactory bipolar neuron with a peripheral dendritic process and a central axonal process. C. These processes pass through the ethmoid bone and enter the olfactory bulb of the brain. This is a description of the true vocal fold in the larynx. This is a partial description of the true vocal fold. conducting bronchiole F.

alveolus B. respiratory bronchiole G. is correct. The epiglottis actually bends or folds to close off the airway during swallowing.E. . conducting bronchiole F. Its core of elastic cartilage is quite appropriate for its structure/function role in swallowing.

SECTION 13: GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM 13. foliate papillae D. von-Ebner gland 13.004 In the diffuse lymphatic tissue in the lamina propria of the GI tract one can . nonkeratinizing epithelium. in which of the following would you chose to look? A. circumvallate papillae E.003 If you wanted to find a taste bud quickly. A. 3=muscularis mucosa. sympathetic postganglionic E. filiform papillae B. parasympathetic postganglionic C. Exactly what are these neurons? A. sympathetic preganglionic D. 5-3-2-4-1 D. 2=lamina propria. parasympathetic preganglionic B. 4-2-3-1-5 13. 4=muscularis externa. 4-1-3-5-2 E. non-autonomic motor 13.002 Under 40X you are looking at some nerve cell bodies located between the outer longitudinal and inner circular layers of the muscularis externus in a section of the small intestine. 5=stratified squamous. 5-2-3-111 B. 5-3-2-4-1 C.001 As a pin passes from the lumen of the esophagus outward through its wall it will encounter the following layers in which sequence: 1=submucosa. fungiform papillae C.

IgD cells A. An example would be the external longitudinal layer of smooth muscle in the colon which has three enlarged regions. in which there is a failure of these neurons to differentiate resulting in an aganglionic segment of the colon. In the myenteric plexus (of Auerbach) and in the submucosal plexus (of Meissner) the nerve cell bodies seen represent outlying ganglia for the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. B. . Thus fecal material builds up proximal to the aganglionic segment causing massive distention of the normally innervated segment (megacolon). IgG cells B. The bowel proximal to the aganglionic segment does contain parasympathetic postganglionic neurons and therefore. In this region. IgM cells D. D. These layers in the wall of the esophagus represent the general plan of the histology of the GI tract. Although taste buds can be found scattered in the epithelium of the fungiform papillae. There is a childhood disease. but nothing can move through the aganglionic segment. IgE cells E. they are much more numerous in the epithelium of the circumvallate papillae. can participate in peristaltsis. In some organs this general plan is modified and many times the modification is diagnostic for organ identification. is correct. is correct. Therefore they are postganglionic parasympathetic neurons. the teniae coli. IgA releasing cells are much more numerous than all other Ig types. IgA cells C. which of the following types of plasma cells is by far the most frequent? A. IgA is quite resistant to proteolytic enzymes. is correct.easily find plasma cells. IgA coats the lining of the GI. aganglionosis. B. urinary and respiratory tracts and can be thought of as a type of first line of defense. is correct.

cheek . uvula B. calcified cartilage E. oblique layer of muscularis externus of stomach B.007 Which of the following organs has a stratified squamous epithelium on both of its surfaces and a core of skeletal muscle between the connective tissue areas underlying the two epithelial surfaces? A. middle esophagus.13.006 Which of the following contains the most calcium deposits? A. not upper or lower esophagus C. recto-anal junction B. enamel C. pyloric sphincter E. dentin B. lip D.008 Which of the following organs has a stratified squamous epithelium on both of its surfaces and a core of skeletal muscle between the connective tissue areas underlying the two epithelial surfaces? A. false vocal fold 13. cementum D. wall of the anal canal D. upper anal canal-lower anal canal C. tongue 13.005 In which of the following organs is skeletal muscle "diagnostically" found to run in three geometric planes? A. mineralized bone matrix 13. hard palate E.

D.C. the lamina propria of the organ D. D. sq. A & B are correct E. sq. the superior surface of the soft palate is covered with "respiratory" epithelium. The uvula has a core of skeletal muscle and both of its surfaces are covered with st. The soft palate has a core of skeletal muscle but only one of its surfaces contains st. The cheek has a core of skeletal muscle and one of its surfaces covered by st. sq. You are looking at what? A. wet type of epithelium. B. on one surface and st. A & B & C are correct 13. is correct. During the development of the tooth the enamel is secreted by ameloblasts and the dentin is secreted by odontoblasts. This arrangement of skeletal muscle bundles in 3 different planes is a specific characteristic of the tongue. sq. the adventitia of the organ B. the submucosa of the organ C. the serosa of the organ E. . is correct. wet type of epithelium. C. wet on the other surface and the orbicularis oris as its core. Enamel is the hardest substance in your body and it contains about 95% calcium salts. is correct. dry type and the other covered by st. the mucosa of the organ E.009 In the section of the gut tube you are looking at you notice that the outermost area contains some loose areolar connective tissue with some adipose tissue in it and a simple squamous epithelial covering. sq. sq. is correct. dry epith. soft palate D. wet type epithelium. The lip has st. is correct.

A fibrosa or adventitia would blend with the surrounding connective tissue. base B. fundic portion C. upper esophagus D. neck 13. 13. middle circular and outer longitudinal layers? A. Where is this pattern modified into inner oblique.011 In which region of the stomach do the gastric pits enter the mucosa about 1/5th of the way toward the muscularis mucosa before branching into gastric glands? A. ileum . pit C. Where in the gastric pit-gland are the most undifferentiated cells located? A. middle esophagus B. lower esophagus 13.013 The muscularis externa of the intestinal tube usually is composed of an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer.010 Where is the best place for someone to study the differences between smooth and skeletal muscle by having them intermingled with each other for easy comparison? A. soft palate-uvula B. gastro-duodenal junction C. cardiac portion B.012 All epithelia turn over. middle esophagus E. Relatively undifferentiated cells which are vegetative intermitotics produce daughter cells which have the capacity to differentiate into the more mature cells in the epithelium. pyloric portion 13. Some turn over faster than others. A serosa is similar to a fibrosa except that it has a definitive epithelia surface of mesothelial cells.

D. is correct. The oblique fibers aid in the churning action of the stomach. C. . The middle esophagus is where the skeletal muscle from the upper esophagus blends with and "gives way" to the smooth muscle of the lower esophagus. appendix 13.014 In which organ can mucus glands be found in the submucosa? A. C. chief and enteroendocrine cells. B. The neck region contains the relatively undifferentiated cells. is correct. is correct. At 4x or with an inverted ocular one can see the depth of the pits in relation to the area of the glands in the wall of the stomach. In the cardiac and pyloric regions the ratio of pit to gland is about 1:1. In the fundic region the ratio is about 1:5 or 1:4.C. A & B are correct E. stomach D. caecum E. esophagus C. the daughter cells of which move in two directions: up to the pit region where they become pit and surface neck cells and deeper into the base or fundus of the gland where they differentiate into parietal. A & B & C are correct D. In the lower esophagus the muscularis externa has changed over to all smooth muscle which is the pattern until one reaches the skeletal muscle of the external anal sphincter. stomach D. In the upper esophagus the skeletal muscle fibers of the inferior most pharyngeal constrictor make up the muscularis externa. duodenum B. is correct. Only in the stomach are there 3 layers to the muscularis externa and here the "extra" layer of obliquely arranged smooth muscle fibers is added inside of the usually circular layer. is correct.

Burnner's glands C. lacteals of intestinal villi D. The stomach has mucous glands in both its cardiac and pyloric regions but here these glands are located in the lamina propria between the muscularis mucosa and the surface epithelium. A & B & C are correct . villi C. M or membranous epithelial cells E. i. Peyer's patch B. plicae circulares D. microvilli B.017 Which of the following are involved in increasing the surface area for absorption in the small intestine? A. they are not found outward to the muscularis mucosa or in the submucosa.e. indirectly. goblet cells 13. ileum D. The submucosal mucous glands (of Brunner) are diagnostic for the duodenum. 13.015 Which structure first picks up chylomicrons for transport.The esophagus contains a few mucous glands located in its lamina propria (esophageal cardiac glands) and some more located in its submucosa (esophageal glands proper). duodenum C.016 Where in the GI tract would you expect to find the highest concentration of goblet cells in the surface epithelium? A. to the blood stream? A. rectum 13. appendix E. A & B are correct E. stomach B.

From their they eventually get collected into the thoracic duct. is correct. The crypt base columnar cell located at the base of the crypt of Lieberkuhn is the relatively undifferentiated stem cell from which daughter cells arise which differentiate into all of the other cell types in the crypt. The mucus from the goblet cells is the lubricant and the rectum has the highest concentration of goblet cells of the regions listed.018 In the intestinal gland or crypt of Lieberkuhn which cell type readily takes up tritiated thymidine? A. is correct. crypt base columnar cell E. They increase the surface area of the intestinal lumen. After birth of the daughter . is correct. At the end of the digestive process about the only thing left to do is to absorb some more water and. One way to see this process is to view the abdominal viscera of a laboratory animal in vivo after it has ingested whole milk or cream. lubricate the luminal contents with mucus for defecation. D. The plicae circulares (valves of Kerckring) are large folds of the mucosa and submucosa which can be seen with the naked eye. of course. is correct. E. Paneth cell C. They have villi on them and the villi have absorptive cells or enterocytes which have many microvilli on their surface. E. membranous(M) epithelial cell C. goblet cell D. enterocyte B. These fat globules are the chylomicrons and they enter blind ending lymph capillaries called lacteals located in the center of each intestinal villus. In this case the entire intestinal lymphatic tree will have white limbs and branches.13. Monoglycerides and free fatty acids absorbed by the enterocytes of the epithelium of the intestinal villus are synthesized on the SER into lipid-containing vesicles which are released into the intercellular spaces at the lateral margins of the enterocytes. In fact the microvilli are so numerous that they give the cell surface a striated or brush border appearance.

7 E.019 How many days does it take for the intestinal villus epithelium to renew itself relative to the processes of differentiation and migration of some of the daughter cells produced by mitotic events in the crypt base columnar cells? A. 3 C. enteroendocrine cell D. 5 D. terminal web B. A. parietal cell C. glycocalyx C. 9 13.cells which will eventually differentiate into the more specialized cell types in the crypt and on the surface of the villus. striated border 13.022 This cell has the capability to trap antigens and present them to adjacent . the differentiating enterocytes move up the surface of villus as they differentiate eventually reaching the tip of the villus where they are sloughed off. junctional complex E.020 What "forces" the digestive products to pass into the enterocytes instead of between them? A. 1 B.021 The following description best fits which cell type: extensive RER. prominent Golgi apparatus and granules which contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme. chief cell E. Paneth cell 13. chylomicrons D. enterocyte B. 13.

It also is known to contain an enzyme. serotonin E. trypsinogen C. is correct. is correct.lymphocytes. A. secretin C. which can digest the bacterial cell wall. D. The ZO is an intimate fusion of integral membrane proteins of adjacent enterocytes in such a way that in these regions the intercellular space is obliterated. Paneth cell C. zonula adherens and macula adherens. is correct. enteroendocrine cell E. The Paneth cell contains large eosinophilic granules which make it easy to identify in the crypt of Lieberkuhn. The junctional complex from intestinal lumen outward consists of zonula occludens. goblet cell 13. The zonula occludens is a belt like structure which extends completely around the enterocyte. It takes 5-6 days for a cell that is sloughed off from the tip of the villus to be replaced by differentiation and migration of cells from the crypt base columnar cells. gastrin B. E. membranous epithelial(M) cell B. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin D.023 Which of the following substances is not released by the intestinal enteroendocrine cell? A. lysozyme. The small dots or terminal bars seen with the light microscope actually are the junctional complexes located on the lateral surface of the enterocyte near its apex. parietal cell D. .

smooth muscle cells 13. Trypsinogen is an enzyme released from the exocrine pancreas. E. cecum B. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin E. nerve cell bodies E.A.024 What stimulus causes the release of secretin by the duodenal enteroendocrine cell? A. The M cell is a specialized epithelial cell found in the epithelial lining of the small intestine wherever one or more lymphoid follicles are located. eosinophils B. acid chyme in lumen B. lymphocytes C. colon . M cells have invaginations forming pits and in these areas intraepithelial lymphocytes are located. is correct.026 Congregations or collections of the longitudinal layer of the muscularis extema are characteristic features of all of the following EXCEPT: A. high pH solution in pancreatic duct D. endothelial cells D. All other choices are hormones which can be released from various enteroendocrine cells.025 All of the following are found in the lamina propria core of a villus in the small intestine EXCEPT: A. lysozyme from Paneth cell 13. presumably being "antigen-instructed" by the M cell. 13. is correct. gastrin C. appendix C.

is correct. is correct. The teniae coli of the large intestine are not found in the appendix. B. A. keratinizing epithelium B. Smooth muscle cells are found in the villus. . abrupt transition of st. sq. D. sq. circular smooth muscle fibers B. abrupt transition from smooth muscle to skeletal muscle.027 The internal anal sphincter is composed of? A. non-keratinizing epith. to st.D. circular skeletal muscle fibers D. sq. is correct. abrupt transition of simple columnar epith. chyme. Lymphocytes and eosinophils are connective tissue cells normally found in a lamina propria. keratinizing epith. microscopically is which of the following: A. The nerve cell bodies in the intestine are located in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses. A. Endothelial cells are present in the villus as the lining for the blood and lymph capillaries. exiting the stomach stimulates a class of enteroendocrine cells to release secretin which stimulates the release of a sodium bicarbonate containing solution from the ductal epithelium of the pancreas. Villi move more when food is present. longitudinal skeletal muscle fibers 13. sq. These movements help "unload" the lacteals toward larger lymph vessels. abrupt transition from villi to a non-villus type of histology E. non-keratinizing to st. longitudinal smooth muscle fibers C. They are extensions from the muscularis mucosa and when they contract they are responsible for movement of the villus. to st. abrupt transition of simple columnar epith. C. D.028 The pectinate line of gross anatomy. is correct. The very low pH material. rectum 13.

When the simple columnar epithelium of mostly goblet cells stops and st.The external anal sphincter is composed of circular skeletal muscle fibers. sq. cecum D. between upper and lower anal canal E. 13. through the lamina propria to the muscularis mucosa . esophageal-cardiac jct. C.029 What are the anal columns (of Morgagni)? A. extensions of the taenia coli B. in the lamina propria E. jct. is correct.030 Which of the following regions of the digestive tube would have the highest accumulation of lymph nodules? A. jejunum B.031 With respect to carcinoma of the colon arising in the simple columnar epithelium of an intestinal gland. internal extensions of the internal anal sphincter E. B. masses of lymph nodules C. which of the following histological locations of the cancer would have the highest 5 year surgical survival? Cancer cells localized or extending ? A. to the muscularis externa B. mucosal folds D. folds of epidermis and dermis extending into the anal canal from the exterior 13. to the submucosa D. nonkeratinizing epithelium begins this is the junction between the upper and lower portions of the anal canal. appendix 13. through the muscularis externa and adventitia/serosa to outside surface of organ C.

creating pocketlike anal valves. is correct.032 What structure is found at the center of the classical hepatic lobule? A. branch of portal vein D. zone 3 C. zone 2 C. A carcinoma of the colon arising in the epithelial lining would locally invade into .034 Which of the following zones of the hepatic acinus would contain an irrigating branch of the portal vein and an irrigating branch of the hepatic artery? A. branch of common hepatic artery C. radicle of portal vein E. lymph vessel B. The mucosal folds or anal columns join with one another just below the pectinate line. Superior to each valve is a small recess called the anal sinus. The wall of the appendix contains many lymph nodules in the lamina propria and submucosal layers. central vein 13. is correct. radicle of hepatic vein D. zone 1 B. D.033 Which of the following structures is not found at the center of a portal lobule? A. branch of hepatic artery 13. bile ductule B. bile ductule C.13. E. is correct.

A. relatively? A.036 In the cords of hepatocytes next to a hepatic sinusoid. At each of the 3 corners of the portal lobule one would find a central vein.the wall of the colon in a manner similar to the sequence encountered as one passed a pin through the wall from epithelium outward.e. toward portal triad B.035 In which region of the hepatic acinus would the hepatocytes have the least amount of oxygen. Next worse would be involvement of the lamina propria. is correct. from central v. zone 2 C. from bile ductule toward bile canaliculi 13. which way does the bile flow in the bile canaliculi? A. D. etc. D. zone 3 13. from portal triad toward an adjacent portal triad E. As the hepatic vein branches into the liver to receive the blood exiting the liver. its terminal branches are the central veins of the classical lobule. C. C. is correct. from central v. zone 1 B. The best survival would be associated with the least amount of invasion.037 In which organ is the terminal cell of the duct system invaginated into the . a tumor confined to the epithelium and not yet broken through the basement membrane would be the "best" kind to have. The center of the triangular shaped portal lobule contains all other contents listed. is correct. from portal triad toward central v. The irrigating or distributing branches of both the portal vein and the hepatic artery both supply blood to the hepatic sinusoids. toward an adjacent central v. The central vein is the central structure in the polygonal classical liver lobule. Next worse would be extension to the muscularis mucosa. i. 13. which eventually is collected by the central veins at two opposite sides of the diamond shaped acinus.

is correct. zone 2 C. In the liver this scarring is called cirrhosis. submandibular gland D. "down the sinusoids". Where in the liver acinus would one expect to find the cirrhosis accompanying heart failure ("cardiac cirrhosis")? A. from the irrigating branches of the hepatic artery and portal vein. zone 3 C. glucagon 13. pancreas E. albumin D. . lingual glands of von Ebner 13. Zone 3 is farthest away. A. parotid gland B.039 In a patient with congestive heart failure the heart can not pump as well as normal and blood flow distal to the heart becomes sluggish. such as in the pulmonary capillaries and other capillary beds. hepatocytes in this zone are sort of last in line for oxygen because hepatocytes in zone 1 and then zone 2 have utilized a lot of the oxygen available from the distributing branches of the hepatic artery.038 Which substance causes the duct system of the pancreas to secrete its watery secretion containing sodium bicarbonate? A. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin E. zone 1 B. liver C. In the liver this sluggish blood flow actually causes hepatocytes to die from hypoxia/anoxia.center of the secretory acinus? A. These hepatocytes are replaced with scar tissue (fibroblasts and collagen fibers). secretin C. bile B. is correct. Therefore.

041 Which of the following cell types in the liver is a phagocyte? A. This zone 3 cirrhosis is often termed "cardiac cirrhosis" or scarring in a specific region of the acinus or classical hepatic lobule. 1-2-3-4 B. CCK-PZ causes the release of the acinar cell secretory product contained in the zymogen granules. In response to acid chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach some enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum secrete secretin which stimulates the ductal epithelium in the pancreas to release a watery solution which has a high pH.. lipase. 4=hepatocyte SER. RNAse. This is a characteristic feature of the pancreas in comparison to other glands with serous acini. 2=perisinusoidal space of Disse. C. be it classical or portal. As blood flow through the sinusoids to the central veins to the hepatic v. B. DNAse. chymotrypsinogen. to the inferior vena cava to the right heart is slowed due to the cardiac pathology. 2-3-1-4 13. is correct. i. amylase. A.e. 3=fenestration in endothelium. 2-1-3-4 D. is correct.Bile flow is opposite to blood flow in the general scheme of the liver lobule. is correct.040 Arrange the following structures/regions in proper sequence for a molecule in the blood which will be absorbed into the liver: 1=microvilli. These cells are called centro-acinar cells. Thus such enzymes as trypsinogen. 13. 3-2-1-4 C. fat storage cell or lipocyte B. the already relatively anoxic hepatocytes in zone 3 die and they are replaced with scar tissue. etc. or the liver acinus. are released. D. 3-1-2-4 E. hepatocyte . around the central veins.

reverting postmitotic D. SER of cuboidal cell lining bile ductule 13. is correct. The endothelium lining the hepatic sinusoids is fenestrated allowing almost all elements of the blood. prothrombin 13. easy access to the space of Disse into which the hepatocytes stick their microvilli. SER of hepatocyte B.043 Where in the liver would you expect phenobarbital to be detoxified? A. fibrinogen E. SER of fenestrated endothelium D. SER of fat storing cell E. fixed postmitotic B. . sinusoidal endothelium D. albumin B. bilirubin D.042 Which of the following substances represent the exocrine function of the liver? A. Kupfier cell 13.C. vegetative intermitotic B. except the formed elements. differentiating intermitotic C.044 What type of mitotic cell life does the hepatocyte live? A. glycogen C. SER Kupffer cell C.

adventitia E. serosa 13. is correct.D. Bilirubin is a component of bile. Hepatocytes conjugate the bilirubin with glucuronic acid making it water soluble. 13.045 Which of the following is not found in the wall of the gall bladder? A. Bile. C. sometimes partially bridging the sinusoidal lumen. If up to 70% of the liver is surgically removed in the human. Increasing loss of hepatocytes to this process slowly allows the circulating level of estrogen (from the zona reticularis of the adrenal gland) to rise. This rising level of "non-detoxified" estrogen can cause development of the male breast or gynecomastia. is correct. thereby regenerating exactly what was surgically removed. replicate their DNA and undergo mitosis.046 Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder? . The hepatocyte SER also "detoxifies" naturally occurring substances such as estrogen. especially in the male. is secreted by the hepatocyte into the bile canalicular system which eventually dumps into the terminal branches of the common hepatic duct. is correct. the remaining 30% will continue to support life and it will regenerate. This occurs in the SER. Thus hepatocytes in an extended GO can enter the cell cycle. A. One of the major functions of the hepatocyte is the detoxification of toxins such as some of the anesthetic agents. C. With chronic alcoholism hepatocytes die and are replaced with scar tissue (alcoholic cirrhosis). Kupffer cells are derived from monocytes and are permanent residents of the liver sinusoidal wall. lamina propria B. Bilirubin is a waste product of hemoglobin. which facilitates the digestion of absorbed fats. is correct. muscularis mucosa C. muscularis externa D. produced when worn out RBCs are disposed of mainly by phagocytes in the spleen.

050 Sublingual gland is characterized by: A.049 Submandibular gland is characterized by: A. about 95 % serous acini B. concentrate bile C.048 Parotid gland is characterized by: A. about 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13.A. manufacture bile D. about 95 % serous acini B. about 95% mucous acini C. A & B are correct E. about 70% serous and 30% mucous acini . low pH of chyme in duodenal lumen D. A & B & C are correct 13. CCK-PZ B. about 95 % serous acini B. about 95% mucous acini C. A & B & C are correct 13. about 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. A & B are correct E. presence of fats in chyme C. store bile B.047 Which substance(s) can directly or indirectly cause the gall bladder to release its contents? A. about 95% mucous acini C.

C. . B. water eventually follows the sodium out of the bile stored in the lumen of the gall bladder. is correct. is correct. B. about 95 % serous acini B. about 95 % serous acini B. The presence of dietary fats in the duodenum causes some enteroendocrine cells to release CCK-PZ which cause the contraction of the muscularis externs in the wall of the gall bladder and also the release of zymogen granules from the pancreatic acinar cells. about 70% serous and 30% mucous acini B. it is stored and concentrated by the gall bladder. about 95% mucous acini C. Low pH of chyme would stimulate the secretion of secretin by certain enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum. A. is correct.13. is correct. Both the muscularis mucosa and the submucosa of the general plan of the GI tract are absent from the wall of the gall bladder. Where the surface of the gall bladder is exposed to the peritoneal cavity it has a serosa. is correct. The removal of water from the bile involves a sodium pump which pumps sodium out of the bile and by doing so.051 Brunner's gland is characterized by: A. Bile is manufactured by the hepatocyte. Secretin stimulates the release of the high pH. D. D. Where the gall bladder is attached to the liver it has an adventitia.052 Von Ebner's gland is characterized by: A. about 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. about 95% mucous acini C. watery solution from the pancreatic ductal cells. is correct. is correct.

A. 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. chief or zymogenic cell D. 95 % serous acini B. gastric pit epithelial cell 13. 95 % serous acini B. 95% mucous acini C.056 The sublingual gland is composed of approximately: A. 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13.054 The parotid gland is composed of approximately: A. 95% mucous acini C. 95% mucous acini C. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C.057 Brunner's glands are composed of approximately: A. 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. gastric surface cell B. 95% mucous acini C. 95 % serous acini B. 95 % serous acini B. parietal cell E.055 The submandibular gland is composed of approximately: A. 13.053 Renin is a product of A.058 A von Ebner's gland is composed of approximately: . is correct.

A. the presence of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas is the easiest way to differentiate between these two organs. is correct. is correct. alkaline fluid (pH=9. enamel C. enamel C. A. cementum 13.060 The root of the tooth is composed of which of the following? A. exocrine gland. The submandibular gland is composed of approximately 1/3 mucous and 2/3 serous acini.A. is correct. dentine B. .0) which helps protect the internal surface of the organ and lowers the pH of the acid chyme coming from the pyloric region of the stomach. The sublingual salivary gland is essentially a pure mucous. is correct. B. C. cementum C. however. In many ways it looks like the exocrine pancreas. 95 % serous acini B. The parotid gland is essentially a pure serous gland. B. They secrete a viscous.059 The crown of the tooth is composed of which of the following? A. dentine B. is correct. 70% serous and 30% mucous acini 13. is correct. Brunner's submucosal mucous glands are characteristic of the duodenum. 95% mucous acini C.

gastric pit epithelial cell 13. The crown is surfaced by enamel. not by enamel. parietal cell 13. B. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C.064 Which of the following produces intrinsic factor? .061 The pulp of the tooth is composed of which of the following? A. cementum 13. is correct. 13. gastric surface cell B. C.These glands are essentially composed of serous cells. chief or zymogenic cell D.062 Which of the follow produces mucus? A. parietal cell E. gastric surface cell B. enamel C. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C. dentine B. they "rinse" out these trenches and keep the taste buds here "clean". Since their ducts open into the trenches around the circumvallate papillae.063 Which of the following produces HCl? A. chief or zymogenic cell D. is correct. The crown is that part of the tooth projecting above the gingiva. but by cementum. The root is that part of the tooth below the gingiva and it is covered.

gastric surface cell B. parietal cell E. chief or zymogenic cell D. is correct. gastric pit epithelial cell 13. gastric surface cell B. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C. parietal cell E. gastric pit epithelial cell 13.066 Which of the following produces gastrin? A. chief or zymogenic cell D. parietal cell E. gastric pit epithelial cell A. chief or zymogenic cell D. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C. gastric pit epithelial cell 13. gastric surface cell B. parietal cell E. chief or zymogenic cell D.067 Which of the following produces lipase? A.A. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C.065 Which of the following produces histamine? A. gastric surface cell B. .

Gastrin is a hormone which stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. D.068 Which of the following produces serotonin? A. is correct. These two types of mucus function to 1) lubricate the gastric surface and 2) protect the surface epithelium from trauma induced by the food and enzymatic digestion from the gastric juice. A. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell . is correct. Most authors use the easier nomenclature=enteroendocrine. C. B. carbonic anhydrase. APUD refers to amine precursors uptake decarboxylase. The parietal cell contains an enzyme. is correct. One of the enzymes synthesized and released by the chief cell is a lipase. is correct. The free hydrogen can then combine with chloride obtained from the blood/tissue fluid. gastric surface cell B. The biochemical characteristic of the mucus produced by the pit/neck cells is different from that produced by the mucous surface cells. is correct. D.Dentine is the layer outside the pulp cavity. is correct. In addition to releasing HCl the parietal cell also releases intrinsic factor which binds vitamin B12 and promotes its absorption by the ileum. Both the gastric surface cell and the gastric pit or gastric neck epithelial cell produce mucus. Histamine is believed to be the product of one particular type of gastric enteroendocrine cell. More lipase will be produced by the acinar cells in the pancreas. 13. B. The gastric parietal cell releases HCI. The only endocrine type cell listed is the enteroendocrine or APUD cell. which can act on carbon dioxide releasing carbonic acid which can dissociate into free hydrogen and bicarbonate.

surface mucous cell B. enteroendocrine cell D. chief or zymogenic cell D.070 Which of the following contains intracellular canaliculi? A.071 Which of the following would have granules in its apical cytoplasm? A. surface mucous cell B. mucous neck cell .069 Which of the following produces pepsinogen? A. enteroendocrine cell D. enteroendocrine (APUD) cell C. gastric pit epithelial cell 13. gastric pit epithelial cell 13.072 Which of the following would have granules in its basal cytoplasm? A. chief or zymogenic cell D. chief or zymogenic cell E. parietal cell 13. gastric surface cell B. surface mucous cell B. parietal cell E. parietal cell E.C. chief or zymogenic cell E. mucous neck cell C. parietal cell 13. mucous neck cell C.

is correct. not toward the lumen of the intestinal gland. the hormone to be released is . Pepsinogen is inactive but when it finds itself in a acid environment it becomes activated into the gastric enzyme pepsin. surface mucous cell B. The intracellular canaliculi actually represent deep invaginations of the apical plasmalemma. mucous neck cell C. E. Pepsinogen is the primary secretory product of the chief cell. these cells have their apices toward the basal lamina.C. It is a vasoconstrictor substance. Since the enteroendocrine cells are hormone producing cells they secrete toward the capillaries located in the lamina propria just beneath the epithelium and its basal lamina. chief or zymogenic cell E. is correct. C. is correct. parietal cell 13. Serotonin is a product of one type of enteroendocrine cell. parietal cell B. In other words. chief or zymogenic cell E. This is a characteristic feature of the parietal cell. is correct. Pepsin probably is a general name for several proteolytic enzymes which hydrolyze proteins into polypeptides. The chief cells secrete enzymes into the lumen of the intestinal gland and therefore have their stored secretory product in the cytoplasm close to the gland lumen. is correct. D. enteroendocrine cell D.073 Which of the following would have lots of RER? A. C. Thus. enteroendocrine cell D.

076 Which of the following stimulates sodium bicarbonate release? A. parietal cell 13. and since enzymes are proteins.074 Which of the following has eosinophilic cytoplasm? A. gastrin B. is correct. gastrin . D. which secrete toward the lumen of the gland not toward the capillaries in the lamina propria. 13. secretin D. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin 13. Since the secretory product of the chief cell is enzymes such as lipase and in particular pepsinogen. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin 13. good Golgi and lots of secretory vesicles/granules waiting to be exocytosed.found in secretory granules in the "basal" (but really apical) region of the cell relative to all of the other non-endocrine cells in the intestinal gland. enteroendocrine cell D. surface mucous cell B. secretin D. chief or zymogenic cell E.075 Which of the following is a vasomotor substance? A. serotonin C. serotonin C.077 Which of the following stimulates release of bile from the gall bladder? A. gastrin B. the cytoplasmic machinery of the chief cell is exactly what one would expect to find in a cell that synthesizes and secretes protein: lots of RER. mucous neck cell C.

gastrin B. to contract. It is a vasomotor substance which can induce the smooth muscle of the tunica media of vessels. One of its actions is to cause the gall bladder to release bile into the common bile duct and. in response to secretin. particularly arterioles. Serotonin is released by some of the enteroendocrine cells. Acidic cell components such as DNA and RNA (rough ER or free polysomes) are basophilic and attract hematoxylin. secretin D. The target for secretin is the ductal epithelium of the pancreas which. A. serotonin C.078 Which of the following stimulates a low pH secretion? A. is correct. C. serotonin C. is correct. secretin D. is correct. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin E. D. of course.B. In regular H&E sections of the fundic stomach the parietal cells stain red. . is correct. releases a watery secretion containing sodium bicarbonate which will raise (buffer) the pH in the lumen of the duodenum. CCK-PZ is now known to be one hormone. is correct. This is probably due to the large number of mitochondria in the cytoplasm of these cells and has nothing to do with the fact that these cells secrete hydrochloric acid. B. Secretin is produced by enteroendocrine cells in the mucosa of the duodenum in response to the presence of acid chyme in the lumen of the duodenum. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin 13. eventually into the lumen of the duodenum.

Gastrin is released by enteroendocrine cells in the gastric glands and it stimulates gastric secretion. . some of which involves the release of HCl by the parietal cells.

002 In general the kidney has a cortex and a medulla. lobule E. 6=arched collecting tubule.004 What structure is found at the center of a renal lobule? . 3=papilla. 6-4-5-3-1-2 C. 6=major calyx. 3-5-6-4-1-2 14. 3-4-5-1-2-6 14. 4-1-3-5-6-2 D. 3-2-4-1-5-6 D.001 Arrange the following regions in proper sequence for the passage of filtrate through the nephron: 1=distal convoluted tubule. 2=urinary bladder. 3=descending limb of the loop of Henle. A. 5-6-4-1-3-2 E.SECTION 14: URINARY SYSTEM 14. 5=thin segment of loop of Henle.003 Arrange the following structures in proper sequence for the flow of urine: 1=ureter. minor calyx D. 2-1-4-3-5-6 C. 2=proximal convoluted tubule. 2-3-511-1-6 E. column (of Bertin) 14. 4=ascending limb of loop of Henle. A. 5=minor calyx. 1-2-3-4-5-6 B. 1-4-5-3-6-2 B. 4=renal pelvis. pyramid B. Identify the renal structure which is a mass of cortex extending into the medulla? A. papilla C.

is correct. The conical masses of medulla are the pyramids. The renal columns are masses of cortex which extend into and sort of separate masses of medulla from each other.A. These medullary rays are composed of collecting ducts and collectively form the center of a renal lobule. is correct. The papilla is the rounded off tip of the lobe which projects into the minor calyx. When the cap of cortex is added to a pyramid the combination results in a renal lobe. muscular artery E. macula densa 14. medullary ray E. is correct. This is the sequence of structures encountered as glomerular filtrate passes through the nephron. is correct. straight descending limb of loop of Henle D. E. efferent arteriole D. column of Bertin B. efferent arteriole D. afferent arteriole C. afferent arteriole C. The small artery located at the outside edge of a renal lobule histologically is a . is correct. D.005 What structure is found at the periphery of a renal lobule? A. D. E. Areas of medulla extend outward into the cortex from the base of the medullary pyramid. column of Bertin B.

A. opposing layers of transitional epithelium D.006 Arrange the following vessels in proper sequence for blood flow into the kidney: 1=renal artery. 14. 1-54-3-2-6 E. parietal layer of Bowman's capsule C. 6=efferent arteriole. 5=interlobular artery.008 What "bounds" or encloses the urinary space? A. 1-3-2-5-4-6 B. fenestrated endothelium C. Thus a renal lobule has an interlobular artery at both "edges" and a medullary ray in its center.007 Which of the following cell types is equivalent to the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule? A. 111-3-2-5-6 D. lumen of DCT . 2=arcuate artery. 1-3-2-4-5-6 14.muscular artery. 3=interlobar artery. visceral layer of Bowman's capsule B. simple squamous epithelium(not endothelium) E. 1-2-34-5-6 C. podocytes D. A & B & C are correct 14. In this region this vessel also can be called an interlobular artery. continuous endothelium B. 4=afferent arteriole. cuboidal epithelium with prominent microvilli 14.009 Which region/structure communicates directly with the urinary space? A. A & B are correct E.

the glomerulus. is correct. is correct.011 Not all molecules pass through the glomerular basement membrane. During development as the capillary tuff. is correct. 6=endothelial fenestration. 1-4-5-6-3-2 D. lumen of afferent arteriole D. lumen of PCT C. lumen of efferent arteriole E. The urinary space is that area found between the visceral and parietal layers of Bowman's capsule. 4=lamina densa. 1-311-5-6-2 B. The cells of the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule are the podocytes. B. invaginates Bowman's capsule. is correct. lumen of loop of Henle 14. The visceral layer is composed of podocytes and the parietal layer is composed of simple squamous epithelium. 3=lamina lucida (rara) externa. is correct.B. The urinary space is in direct communication with the lumen of the PCT. 1-6-34-5-2 C. Which of the following is/are true for the molecular sieve function of the glomerular . 14. D. This place of direct communication between the PCT and the urinary space is called the urinary pole. 5=lamina lucida (rara) interna. 1-54-3-6-2 A. A. 2=urinary space.010 Arrange in sequence for the formation of glomerular filtrate: 1=glomerular capillary lumen. D. 1-6-5-4-3-2 E. C. one layer of the capsule becomes intimately associated with the glomerulus and this is the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule.

drop in systemic blood pressure D.basement membrane? A. A & B & C are correct 14. A & B are correct E.000 pass through B. molecules with a molecular weight of less than about 70. convert angiotensin Ito angiotensin II C.000. modified smooth muscle cells of the tunica media of the efferent arteriole B. lacis cells E.000. mesangial cells 14. reduced stretch on the JG cells B. A & B & C are correct 14. A & B are correct E. cells of the macula dense D. molecules with a molecular weight of less than about 70.013 Renin release is stimulated by which of the following? A.014 What does renin do? A. but with a high negative charge pass through D. convert angiotensin II to angiotensin III . molecules with a molecular weight of less than about 70. but with a positive charge pass through C.012 Which of the following cell types manufactures and releases renin? A. convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B. above normal osmolarity of the filtrate in the lumen of the distal convoluted tubule C. modified smooth muscle cells of the tunics media of the afferent arteriole C.

is correct. . Macromolecules with a molecular weight slightly less than 70. The macula dense monitors the osmolarity of the filtrate in the lumen of the DCT. If the systemic blood pressure drops the degree of stretch in the JG cells lessens. The JG cells are modified smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole. heart. this will stimulate the release of renin. Mesangial cells are pericyte-like cells found in the wall of the glomerular capillary. A. B.015 Which of the following cell types most closely resembles a regular capillary pericyte? A. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by a converting enzyme located in the endothelial cells of the pulmonary capillaries. Organ specific or local acting RASs have been found in brain. cells in the tunica media of efferent arteriole D. The juxtaglomerular cells or JG cells are the cells which release renin. but with a strong negative charge due not pass through. Renin converts the glycoprotein angiotensinogen to the decapeptide angiotensin I. is correct.14.000 is a function of the negatively charged heparan sulfate proteoglycan in the glomerular basement membrane. is correct. This series of events is known as the renin-angiotensin axis (RAS). D.000. cells of the macula dense C. The exclusion of negatively charged macromolecules with molecular weights of less than 70. If this osmolarity is not normal the macula dense "signals" the JG cells to release renin. is correct. testis and also kidney. is correct. The local RASs can work in concert with the systemic RAS or independently. JG cells D. lacis cells B. E. mesangial cells E.

proximal urethra . causes retention of sodium by PCT E. not enough angiotensinogen 14. raises level of aldosterone in blood D. stimulates zona glomerulosa of adrenal gland C. causes retention of potassium by DCT B.017 What does aldosterone do? A.016 What does angiotensin II do? A. The urine is pale and very dilute. contraction of smooth muscle in systemic arterioles B. causes retention of potassium by PCT D. renal pelvis C.019 All of the following have a transitional epithelium lining EXCEPT: A. causes retention of sodium by DCT C. urinary bladder B. causes retention of ADH by DCT 14. not enough aldosterone E. not enough ADH B. A & B & C are correct 14. ureter D. too much ADH C.14.018 A patient in your care has a high volume of urine production. diabetes mellitus D. A & B are correct E. Which of the following correctly applies to this situation? A.

020 If blood flow into the kidneys is below normal the kidney will be ischemic. is correct. is correct. The defect is in the hypothalamus where ADH is synthesized. then little of it can be released by the pars nervosa of the hypophysis. At some point distal to the proximal urethra the transitional epithelium gives way to other types of lining epithelium such as stratified or pseudostratified columnar epithelium. What substance or substances will the ischemic kidney release in an attempt to reverse this ischemia? A. B. Angiotensin II directly stimulates the tunica media of the systemic arterioles. A & B & C are correct E. erythropoietin C. In addition.E. distal urethra 14. is correct. D.II cascade occurs . A. Poor oxygenation of the kidneys will cause the release of renin and erythropoietin. In the absence of ADH the collecting ducts are not permeable to water and therefore water can not be removed from the tubular urine. If little ADH is synthesized by hypothalamic neurons. renin B. aldosterone D. is correct. ADH causes the DCT to reabsorb sodium ions and secrete potassium ions. From the minor calyces to the proximal urethra the lining is transitional epithelium. E. In a way the kidney is attempting to reoxygenate itself by boosting the production of RBCs. when renin is released and the angiotensin I . Angiotensin II also stimulates the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland to release aldosterone. A & B are correct E. is correct.

massive loss of plasma proteins to the urine B. branches from the arcuate arteries D. branches from the efferent arteriole B. proximal convoluted tubule . 14. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. A & B & C are correct 14.there is an increase in the tonus of systemic arterioles which will increase systemic blood pressure.024 Reabsorbs all plasma proteins escaping through glomerular basement membrane: A. proteinuria C. distal convoluted tubule E. proximal convoluted tubule B. A & B are correct E.022 What are the "vasa recta"? A. In addition the zona glomerulosa will release aldosterone which will cause the DCT to conserve sodium which will be followed by chloride. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 14. Adding NaCl to the blood will cause water to follow and the blood volume will be increased. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. hypoalbuminemia D.021 Inflammatory damage to the glomerular basement membrane may result in which of the following? A.023 Presence of well developed microvilli forming a brush or striated border: A. straight collecting duct 14. thereby increasing the blood pressure. straight capillaries running adjacent to the descending and ascending limbs C.

proximal convoluted tubule B. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D.B. proximal convoluted tubule B. Damage to the glomerular basement membrane can result in a very "leaky" basement membrane. straight collecting duct 14. distal convoluted tubule E. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. The efferent arterioles break up into peritubular capillaries. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. is correct. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. Protein in the urine is proteinuria. D. The leaky membrane leaks plasma protein such as albumen.026 Directly connected to the urinary space: A. . Those arising from the juxtamedullary glomeruli pursue straight courses into the depths of the medulla servicing the loops of Henle and then returning to the arcuate veins at the corticomedullary junction. is correct. distal convoluted tubule E.025 Not permeable to water unless ADH is present: A. straight collecting duct 14. These clinical conditions are components of the nephrotic syndrome. Less albumin in the blood is hypoalbuminemia. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. distal convoluted tubule E. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. straight collecting duct E.

is correct.029 Impermeable to water. is correct. distal convoluted tubule E. A. proximal convoluted tubule B. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. 14. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C.027 Best place to fmd canaliculi between microvilli and lots of evidence of pinocytotic vesicles: A. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal convoluted tubule E. E. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal convoluted tubule E. straight collecting duct 14. straight collecting duct 14.028 Reabsorbs 100% of the glucose and amino acids: A. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. A. is correct. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. straight collecting duct 14. is correct. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. but sodium pump works OK: A.A.030 Principal target tissue for aldosterone: .

A. is correct. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. proximal convoluted tubule B. B. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. distal convoluted tubule E.031 Secretes ammonium ions into the tubular urine: A. Either the ascending or the descending thin limbs of the loop of Henle look the same. proximal convoluted tubule B. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal convoluted tubule E. ascending or descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. D.032 Histological appearance closely resembles a capillary: A. is correct. . D. is correct. distal convoluted tubule D. C. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. straight collecting duct 14. is correct. A. straight collecting duct A. which makes them look like a capillary without any blood in it. is correct. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. is correct. straight collecting duct 14. They are lined by a simple squamous epithelium(not endothelium).

descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D.033 Macula densa found here: A. proximal convoluted tubule B.14. straight collecting duct 14. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal convoluted tubule E.036 Which of the following is not permeable to water unless ADH is present? A. straight collecting duct 14. proximal convoluted tubule B.034 Which of the following structures have cells with well developed microvilli forming a brush or striated border? A. straight collecting duct 14. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C.035 All plasma proteins escaping through the glomerular basement membrane are reabsorbed in which of the following regions? A. distal convoluted tubule E. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. distal convoluted tubule E. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. distal convoluted tubule . proximal convoluted tubule B.

E. A. Aldosterone "tells" the DCT to reabsorb more sodium thereby "correcting" the problem. A. is correct.037 Which of the following is directly connected to the urinary space? A. is correct. proximal convoluted tubule B. If too much sodium is about to be lost the cells of the macula densa "tell" their close neighbors. Loss of ADH results in large amounts of water being retained in the urine. This is the normal role of the cells of the PCT. Renin converts blood angiotensinogen to angiotensin-I which will be converted to angiotensin-II by an enzyme in the lung. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. One of the actions of angiotensin-II. This is diabetes insipidus. straight collecting duct D. is to stimulate the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. If sodium is retained in the blood. This will. the juxtaglomerular cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole to release renin. is correct. increase the blood volume and by doing so will increase the blood pressure. So much reabsorptive activity needs to happen in the PCT that the cells are structurally "geared-up" to accomplish this. is correct. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. As the collecting ducts pass through the medulla on their way to the tip of the renal pyramid they pass through a hypertonic interstitium and water is allowed to exit the collecting ducts thereby concentrating the urine before it leaves the tip of the renal pyramid and moves into the minor calyx. E. 14. in effect. distal convoluted tubule . It monitors the amount of sodium leaving in the urine. Part of this cytological story is the presence of well developed microvilli which form the brush or striated border characteristic of the PCT. chloride will follow and water will move to the NaCl. The macula densa is a spot or area on the DCT as it returns close to it glomerulus. ADH is required for the collecting ducts to be permeable to water.

distal convoluted tubule E. straight collecting duct 14. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. straight collecting duct 14. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C.038 Which of the following is the best place to find canaliculi between microvilli near the cell surface and lots of evidence of pinocytotic vesicles? A. distal convoluted tubule E.039 Which region is responsible for the reabsorption of 100% of the glucose and amino acids that pass through the glomerular basal lamina? A. distal convoluted tubule E.E. straight collecting duct 14. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. proximal convoluted tubule B. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C.040 Which of the following is impermeable to water. proximal convoluted tubule B. straight collecting duct 14. but its sodium pump works OK? A. proximal convoluted tubule B. descending thin limb of loop of Henle . proximal convoluted tubule B.041 Which of the following is the principal target tissue for aldosterone? A.

ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. all other things being equal. This will expand the volume of blood in the cardiovascular system and will result in an increase in blood pressure. A. is correct. So much reabsorption is taking place in the PCT that there is ample ultrastructural evidence of this activity in the individual cells of the PCT. is correct. or Bowman's. is correct. The lumen of the urinary. On the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the cells pump sodium from urine to blood. ascending thin limb of loop of Henle D. C. straight collecting duct 14. distal convoluted tubule E.C. The DCT is the major target for aldosterone. but since they are impermeable to water. is correct. distal convoluted tubule E. is correct. Aldosterone causes the DCT cells to reabsorb more sodium into the blood. D. . proximal convoluted tubule B. If sodium is added to blood water will eventually follow to keep the tonicity of the blood normal. This is one of the normal roles of the cells of the PCT. will cause the forming urine to become progressively more hypotonic as it ascends in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.042 Which of the following secretes ammonium ions into the tubular urine? A. Leaving the water behind in the forming urine after having removed sodium. descending thin limb of loop of Henle C. space in the glomerulus is continuous with the lumen of the PCT. A. straight collecting duct A. water can not follow the sodium.

. This is one of the functions of the DCT.D.e. is correct. to secrete or add to the urine ammonium and also potassium ions. i.

exocrine E. paracrine C. A & B are correct E. the process is called? A. extracellular site D.004 All of the following components or regions of the hypophysis are derived from oral ectoderm EXCEPT: . endocrine D.001 When a hormone or hormone-like chemical messenger is mostly active locally instead of at long distances from the source of the message.003 Some hormones directly effect their target tissue and other hormones use an intermediary or indirect route which involves the release of a second hormone. Which of the following hormones use the direct method of control? A. thyroid releasing hormone D. intracellular site C.SECTION 15: ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 15. insulin B.002 Receptors for hormones can be located where? A. merocrine 15. A & B & C are correct 15. autocrine B. A & B are correct E. parathyroid hormone C. cell surface site B. A & B & C are correct 15.

In general the lipid soluble hormones such as the steroid hormones pass through the cell membrane and connect up with their receptor site inside of the cell. pars distalis B.A. it gives rise to the acidophils B. The pars nervosa is derived from an outgrowth of the developing brain. is correct. pars nervosa C. Insulin and parathyroid hormone act directly on their target tissues without involving an intermediate hormone step. B. have their receptor sites on the cell surface. D. pars tuberalis D. D. it gives rise to the pituicytes B. When one cell type releases a chemical messenger and it acts locally on adjacent cells. this is called paracrine communication or chemical signaling. it gives rise to the chromophobes E. pars intermedia 15. All of the . The signaling molecules produced by endocrine cells are called hormones.005 All of the following apply to Rathke's pouch EXCEPT: A. is correct. Endocrine refers to a relatively long distance chemical signaling which uses the blood stream as the transporter of the message. When a cell stimulates itself the word autocrine applies. is correct. it gives rise to the basophils C. Thyroid releasing hormone or TRH stimulates a subset of basophils in the pars distalis to release thyroid stimulating hormone which is the hormone which stimulates the thyroid gland to release its hormones. it arises from oral ectoderm D. is correct. Nonlipid soluble hormones such as those which are not derived from cholesterol but from amino acids.

A. ovary 15. capillary in pars nervosa 15. hypophysis E. sinusoid in pars distalis B. 15. parathyroid C. The pituicytes are the stromal cells of the pars nervosa which is derived from the neuroectoderm.adrenal medulla D. ACTH B. adrenal cortex .006 Which of the following in the adult pituitary gland represents the remains of the lumen of Rathke's pouch in the embryo? A. Herring body in pars nervosa D. is correct. group of chromophobes E. thyroid B. center of small follicle in pars intermedia C. TSH C.008 All of the following hormones are synthesized in the parenchymal cells of the hypophysis EXCEPT: A. FSH E.007 Which of the following endocrine glands contains a portal system of vessels? A.other parts listed are derived from an outpouching of oral epithelium. All other cell types are derived from Rathke's pouch.009 A neuron with a short axon in the hypothalamus monitors the blood level of . STH 15. ADH D.

B. is correct. One set of capillaries is located in the inferior extent of the hypothalamus and the other capillary bed is in the adenohypophysis. The pars intermedia can contain small follicles. This arrangement of vessels in this region of the body is called the hypophyseal portal system. 4-2-3-1-5 B. is correct.thyroid hormone. All other hormones listed are manufactured by parenchymal cells of the adenohypophysis. This is a negative feedback loop in which rising levels of T3 & T4 inhibit manufacture and release of TSHRH which in turn would lessen the amount of TSH released. When the blood level of thyroid hormone drops below a certain threshold level what cascade of events happens in what sequence: 1=TSH released from basophil. 5=blood level of thyroid hormone returns to normal in capillaries of hypothalamus. 3-2-1-4-5 E. is correct. 213-1-3-5 C. The pituitary gland has two sets of capillaries connected by one or two veins thus forming a portal circulatory system (one capillary bed connected to a second capillary bed by venous structures as in the well-known example for the intestinal capillaries collected into the portal vein which then forms a second capillary network in the liver). It is then transported down a long axon system which terminates adjacent to capillaries in the pars nervosa. which in turn would decrease the amount of T3 & T4 in the blood. D. 4-1-2-3-5 D. 3=T3 & T4 released from thyroid parenchyma. C. ADH or antidiuretic hormone is made in nerve cell bodies in the hypothalamus. Decreasing blood levels of T3 & T4 would then "restart" the sequence listed in choice B. . The lumen of a follicle in the pars intermedia is a remnant of the original lumen of Rathke's pouch. 2=TSH-RF released from axon terminal. 4=TSH-RF finds its receptor in its target cell. is correct. A. 1-2-3-4-5 B.

old male? A. A & B are correct E. Golgi . mammotropic cell D. A & B & C are correct 15. functioning neoplasm (adenoma) of the anterior pituitary gland occurring in a 40 yr. FSH D.011 Which of the following hormones from the pars distalis are known to have both stimulating and inhibiting releasing factors effect them from the hypothalamus? A. ACTH C. RER C. where does iodination of the glycoprotein occur? A. prolactin B.013 As thyroid hormone is being produced and stored inside of the thyroid follicle in the colloid. diabetes insipidus D. gigantism B. dwarfism C.010 Which of the following cell types produces not one but two hormones? A.012 Which of the following clinical conditions would result from too much growth hormone being produced by a benign. gonadotropic cell 15. a neuron in the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus C. acromegaly 15.15. corticotropic cell E. a neuron in the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus B. SER B.

or a single cell can not synthesize and release two hormones. growth hormone. is correct. Gigantism would result from too much GH being produced before closure of the epiphyses. A. D. contents of secretory vesicles immediately after exocytosis 15. have both inhibitory and stimulatory hormones effect them from the hypothalamus. is correct. A & B & C are correct E. what do they do? A. The same situation applies to prolactin with PRH and PIH being made in some of the neurons in the hypothalamus. the gonadotropic basophil in the pars distalis is known to synthesize and release both FSH and LH. The rule is that one hormone comes from one cell. The opposite of gigantism would be dwarfism in which instance not enough GH was produced E. However. The iodination of the tyrosyl groups occurs outside the cell membrane immediately after exocytosis of the uniodinated glycoprotein. E. is correct. Thus there is GRH or growth hormone releasing hormone and GIH or growth hormone inhibiting hormone.014 When TSH arrives and stimulates the follicular cells in the thyroid to become activated. iodinated thyroglobulin is ingested and cleaved by lysosomal enzymes C. synthesize and deliver to the lumen of the follicle thyroglobulin B. One . secretory vesicles as they approach the cell surface for exocytosis E. T3 and T4 are released via intracellular hydrolytic action on thyroglobulin and these two molecules escape from the follicular cells into the blood D. TSH stimulated follicular cells perform all of these functions at the same time. is correct.D. Prolactin and one other anterior pituitary hormone. A & B are correct E. is correct.

chromophobe of pars distalis 15.015 You are getting ready to look at a biopsy from a thyroid gland from a patient with a long-standing basophil adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland in which abnormal levels of TSH were produced. chief cell of parathyroid gland D. parafollicular cell in thyroid gland C. squamosal thyroid follicular cell B.017 Which of the following cell types would contain the highest concentration of intracellular mitochondria? A.mode is a synthesis mode for the storage of more hormone in thyroglobulin and the other mode is a release mode for the liberation of T3 and T4 to the blood. oxyphil cells of parathyroid gland E. parafollicular or C cells in thyroid gland C. cuboidal follicular cells and lots of colloid C. flat squamosal follicular cells and lots of colloid B.016 When the blood calcium level rises to abovenormal levels what cell types become activated? A. 15.018 The near absence of which of the following hormones is associated with hyperexcitability and spastic contraction of skeletal muscle cells all over the body (tetany)? . thyroid follicular epithelium D. tall columnar follicular cells and not much colloid E. histologically in the biopsy? A. oxyphil cells of parathyroid gland 15. decreased numbers of parafollicular cells 15. What do you expect to see. chief cells of parathyroid gland E. increased numbers of parafollicular cells D. osteoclast B.

High levels of TSH for a prolonged period of time would cause a hypertrophy of the follicular cells so that they would be columnar in shape.A. The oxyphil cells of the parathyroid gland stain pink/red on H & E and under the EM. D. This low level of serum calcium results in tetany. D. which is extremely serious when one considers that laryngeal . chromafl'm cell in adrenal medulla C. renin C. chief cell in parathyroid gland D. parafollicular or C cell in the thyroid gland D. is correct. is correct. This increase in the size of the follicular cells throughout the gland would increase the size of the gland and this externally obvious enlargement is called a goiter. they are noted to have a high number of mitochondria. hypophysealbasophil B. B. The loss of parathyroid hormone would mean that the blood level of calcium would drop due to nonstimulation of osteoclastic activity. T3 & T4 15. Above-normal level of calcium stimulates the parafollicular or C cells to release calcitonin which inhibits osteoclastic activity. calcitonin B.019 Which of the following cell types is NOT an example of a parenchymal cell? A. pituicyte near a Herring body in the pars nervosa E. perhaps one of the highest concentrations of mitochondria of all cell types. is correct. thereby eventually lowering the blood level of calcium. PTH E. is correct. ACTH D.

Pituicytes do not secrete a hormone. The pituicyte is equivalent to a glial component of the CNS. pineal gland D.e.021 Rats exposed to continuous darkness have which of the following? A. adrenal medulla B. A. insulin B. 15. they don't enter estrus B. D.020 This endocrine gland receives light/dark information by way of the retinaoptic chiasmpostganglionic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion. The hormones released from the pars nervosa are synthesized in neuron cell bodies in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. they demonstrate a high amplitude circadian rhythm in melatonin levels D. ADH and oxytocin are transported down a long axon system to be temporarily stored in swollen axon terminals called Herring bodies prior to release into nearby capillaries. anterior pituitary gland E. glucagon C. zona reticularis of adrenal cortex 15. it represents a stromal element. i. somatomedin D. not a parenchymal element. they have high levels of melatonin C.022 Insulin-like growth factor or IGF-1 is now known to be the same as ______ A. A & B are correct E. A & B & C are correct 15. posterior pituitary gland C. somatostatin .spasms could cause suffocation. is correct.

If animals were kept in continuous light. melatonin 15. Under normal environmental conditions there is a high amplitude circadian rhythm in melatonin levels with values during the nocturnal phase about 3 times higher than during the diurnal phase. acidophil D. Addison's disease of adrenal gland origin E.E. chromophobe B. basophil C. What disease is being treated? A. . D.023 A neurosurgeon removes a benign neoplasm or adenoma of basophils in the pars distalis. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. animals kept in continuous darkness are prevented from entering estrus. Animal reared under these conditions enter estrus prematurely. is correct. is correct. However. hypothalamic neuron with long axons C. Cushing's syndrome of adrenal gland origin D. under continuous darkness the levels of melatonin remain high and since melatonin has an antigonadotrophic effect. the levels of melatonin would be low and thus the antigonadotrophic effect would be absent. diabetes insipidus B. The pineal gland is "innervated" with postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion which receives its "visual information" from the pathway mentioned in the question.024 ACTH is produced by this cell: A. is correct. nocturnal sweats 15. inappropriate release of catecholamines causing abrupt rises in blood pressure. C. diabetes mellitus C.

When the biochemical structure of IGF-1 and somatomedin were worked out it was discovered that they were identical. basophil C. chromophobe B. 90% of the patients with Cushing's syndrome or too much hormone from the adrenal cortex have a benign functioning adenoma of basophils in the pars distalis which secrets too much ACTH. chromophobe B. C. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. ACTH is produced by one of the three types of basophils in the pars distalis of the hypophysis. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. acidophil D. is correct. B. acidophil D. basophil C.026 Oxytocin is produced by this cell: A.Growth hormone or somatotrophic hormone released from a type of acidophil in the pars distalis acts on the liver to release somatomedin which stimulates the growth of chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate. is correct. basophil C. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15.025 TSH is produced by this cell: A. 15. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E.027 TSH-RH is produced by this cell: A. acidophil . chromophobe B.

D. acidophil D. acidophil D. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. basophil C. acidophil D. TSH or thyroid stimulating hormone is a product of one of the three different types of basophils in the pars distalis of the hypophysis. is correct.030 FSH-RH is produced by this cell: A. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15.029 LTH is produced by this cell A. chromophobe B. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. hypothalamic neuron with long axons B. basophil C. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. is correct. basophil C. chromophobe B. E. chromophobe B. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. .028 STH is produced by this cell: A.

STH or somatotropic hormone is a product of one type of acidophil of the pars distalis. D. connected by a portal vein. The hormone is released into the blood of the capillary where it is collected in a portal vein which forms another capillary bed in the pars distalis where FSH-RH will stimulate its target cell. also known as prolactin. basophil C. LTH or lactogenic hormone. is correct. one in the pars distalis and the other in the median eminence. The hormone is transported over a short axon system to be released into the hypothalmohypophyseal portal system. is a product of one of the two types of acidophils of the pars distalis.031 ADH is produced by this cell: A. FSH-RH or follicle stimulating hormone releasing hormone is made in neuron cell bodies in the hypothalamus. a type of basophil. is correct. It is transported down a relatively short axon which terminates on a capillary in the median eminence region of the brain. is correct. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E.Oxytocin is made by a type of neuron which can be found in both the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. to release FSH. is correct. D. TSH-RH is made in neuron cell bodies in the hypothalamus. chromophobe . acidophil D.032 LH is produced by this cell: A. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. chromophobe B. The hormone travels to the axon terminal in the pars nervosa over a relatively long axon when compared to the axon length used by the releasing factors or hormones. 15. C. which is two capillary beds. C.

ACTH B. TSH D. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. STH F. acidophil D. LTH (prolactin) C. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. hypothalamic neuron with long axons 15. basophil C. LH E. LH E. STH F. chromophobe B. basophil C. ACTH B.033 FSH is produced by this cell: A. FSH . FSH 15.034 This hormone promotes milk secretion: A.B.035 This hormone promotes release of another hormone from colloid: A. TSH D. hypothalamic neuron with short axons E. acidophil D. LTH (prolactin) C.

is correct. is correct. with T3 and T4 being the active thyroid hormones. ACTH B. LTH (prolactin) C. A. B. B. ADH or antidiuretic hormone is produced by neuron cell bodies in both the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. Prolactin or lactogenic hormone (LTH) stimulates the glandular epithelium of the breast to secrete milk. In this case the stored hormone "fill" the axon terminal and this little swelling is termed a Herring body. C. is correct. STH F. Colloid is the extracellular storage form of thyroid hormone (as thyroglobulin). ADH can be stored in the axon terminal before release. . B. TSH D. These neurons send this hormone over a long axon which ends in the pars nervosa of the hypophysis where the hormone is released into nearby capillaries. FSH is produced by one type of basophil in the pars distalis of the hypophysis. Thyroid stimulating hormone or TSH promotes the uptake of thyroglobulin by the follicular epithelial cells which then break the thyroglobulin down into TI. T2. is correct.15. is correct. LH E. is correct.036 This hormone promotes release of corticosteroids: A. LH is produced by one type of basophil or gonadotroph in the pars distalis of the pituitary gland. FSH E. T3 and T4.

ACTH B. TSH D.039 This hormone stimulates chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate: A.038 This hormone stimulates Leydig cells: A.037 This hormone promotes ovulation: A.040 This hormone stimulates the follicular cells of the ovary: . LH E.ACTH or adrenocorticotropic hormone in general stimulates the adrenal cortex to synthesize/release its hormones. STH F. LTH (prolactin) C. ACTH B. TSH D. FSH 15. LH E. 15. LH E. STH F. LTH (prolactin) C. FSH 15. STH F. LTH (prolactin) C. TSH D. ACTH B. ACTH is strongly stimulatory to the zona fasciculata. FSH 15.

041 This region is derived from neural crest: A. is correct.042 The region is the target for angiotensin II: A. FSH 15. zona glomerulosa B. none of the above D. LTH (prolactin) C. This rising level of estrogen results in a negative feedback on FSH production/release but a positive feedback for LH production/release. none of the above 15. zona reticularis D. D. LH in the male is interstitial cell stimulating hormone or ICSH. zona reticularis D. LH E. zona fasciculata C.A. TSH D. zona glomerulosa B. ACTH B. STH F. Just before ovulation there is an surge of LH which in ratio to the blood level of FSH causes ovulation. zona fasciculata C. is correct. The estrogen level in the blood rises due to the growth of a group of ovarian follicles and the granulosa cells therein. Decreasing blood . medulla E. medulla E.

E. is correct. to begin to grow and develop. The target tissue for angiotensin II is: a) the smooth muscle of arterioles and small arteries in general and b) the zona glomerulosa. zona glomerulosa B. is correct. FSH stimulates 10-15 primordial follicles. medulla E. zona reticularis D. IGF-1 stimulates the growth of the chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate. beta cell C. is correct. is correct. none of the above 15. which is stimulated by angiotensin II to release aldosterone 15. LH is also probably necessary for this growth and differentiation.levels of testosterone is a positive feedback for ICSH production/release. now known as insulin-like growth factor 1. delta cell D..044 Its hormone fosters the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver: A. F.043 This region is the main target for ACTH: A. alpha cell B. none of the above apply 15. each containing a primary oocyte in prophase I of meiosis. zona fasciculata C. STH or growth hormone actually causes the liver to release somatomedin. D. The parenchyma of the adrenal medulla is derived from neural crest A.045 Possible autoimmune destruction of these cells results in type I diabetes: .

047 The region releases aldosterone: A. medulla E. none of the above apply 15. delta cell D. alpha cell B. zona glomerulosa B. zona glomerulosa . none of the above apply 15.049 This region releases hydrocortisone: A.048 This region releases epinephrine: A. beta cell C. zona reticularis D. none of the above 15. alpha cell B. none of the above 15. beta cell C. zona glomerulosa B. medulla E.046 Destruction of these cells results in diabetes insipidus: A. zona fasciculata C.A. zona reticularis D. delta cell D. zona fasciculata C.

zona reticularis D. D. A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from separate cell types in the adrenal medulla. is correct. medulla E. Cortisone and hydrocortisone are synthesized on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the cells in the zona fasciculata.050 This region releases some androgens: . Glucagon is a hyperglycenic factor produced by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islet. is correct. is correct. Diabetes insipidus results from a loss of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) produced by neurons in both the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus and transported over a long axon system to the pars nervosa of the hypophysis where ADH is released into capillaries. is correct. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid synthesized and released from the zona glomerulosa. is correct. B. zona fasciculata C. Insulin is antagonistic to glucagon because insulin is a hypoglycemic factor. ACTH has less of an effect on the zona reticularis and still less of an effect on the zona glomerulosa A. 15. is correct. none of the above B. B. ACTH has a major effect on the zona fasciculata.B. Type I diabetes or diabetes mellitus results from the loss of the beta cells of the pancreatic islet. D. is correct.

none of the above 15. zona fasciculata C. zona reticularis D. none of the above 15. zona glomerulosa B. zona fasciculata C. zona glomerulosa . none of the above 15. zona glomerulosa B. medulla E. medulla E. medulla E.051 This region releases a class of hormones called mineralocorticoids: A.A. zona reticularis D. zona fasciculata C. zona reticularis D. zona glomerulosa B.053 Cords of cells in this region are arranged radially: A.054 This region releases a hormone antagonistic to aldosterone: A. none of the above 15. zona reticularis D.052 This region releases melatonin: A. zona glomerulosa B. medulla E. zona fasciculata C.

zona fasciculata C. A. zona reticularis D. none of the above 15. zona fasciculata C. medulla E. none of the above C. medulla E. zona reticularis D.B. medulla E. Normally these sex steroids are "detoxified" in the liver. zona fasciculata C. the most famous of which is aldosterone. is correct. there is a little bit of "female" in every male and a little bit of "male" in every female. Androgens and estrogens are synthesized and released from the zona reticularis. Melatonin is synthesized and released by the parenchymal cells of the pineal . is correct. E. The zona glomerulosa releases mineralocorticoids. none of the above 15. zona glomerulosa B. zona reticularis D.055 This region releases some estrogens: A. Thus. is correct.056 The parenchyma in this region is sometimes referred to as chromaffm tissue: A. zona glomerulosa B.

none of the above 15. beta cell C. is correct. In the zona glomerulosa the parenchymal cells are arranged in small islands or glomeruli.059 This pancreatic islet cell releases somatostatin: . D. is correct. delta cell D. alpha cell B.057 This pancreatic islet cell contains water soluble. is correct. beta cell C. Both the epinephrine and norepinephrine parenchymal cells of the adrenal medulla take on a brownish-gray cast if potassium dichromate is included in the fixative. is correct.058 This pancreatic islet cell contains alcohol soluble granules: A. alcohol insoluble granules: A. C. 15. E. Aldosterone acts on the kidney to conserve sodium. alpha cell B. none of the above 15. Radiating deep from these glomeruli are rather straight cords of parenchymal cells comprising the zona fasciculata. delta cell D. B.gland. The zona reticularis synthesizes and releases androgens and estrogens. The hormone which acts on the kidney to release sodium into the urine is atria natriuretic peptide which is synthesized and released by atria cardiomyocytes.

none of the above 15. alpha cell B. alpha cell B. is correct. none of the above 15. beta cell C.A. beta cell C. delta cell D. beta cell C. alpha cell B. These are properties of the alpha cell or glucagon. delta cell D. B. delta cell D. beta cell C. delta cell D. none of the above 15.061 The hormone produced by this pancreatic islet cell fosters the movement of glucose into cells: A. alpha cell B. none of the above A. is correct.060 The hormone produced by this pancreatic islet cell works mostly by the paracrine. .062 The hormone produced by this pancreatic islet cell fosters the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver: A. not endocrine route: A.

In the history of diabetes research on the cells in the pancreatic islet this fact played an important role in helping to distinguish between different cell types. The delta cell synthesizes and releases somatostatin. is correct. In the latter instance somatostatin uses a true endocrine (transported by the blood stream to its target) route. Somatostatin also suppresses the release of growth hormone from one of the two types of hypophyseal acidophils. Somatostatin is produced by the pancreatic delta cell.The granules of proinsulin in the beta cell are alcohol soluble. C. Insulin is a hypoglycemic factor. is correct. or in saliva and mucus in the case of epidermal growth factor). is correct. Glucagon is a hyperglycenic factor produced by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islet. It works as a suppressor to both the alpha and beta cells of the pancreatic islet. A. Insulin is antagonistic to glucagon because insulin is a hypoglycemic factor. C. It suppresses the function of its two "neighbors" (the alpha and beta cells) via a paracrine route (transported to adjacent cells in tissue fluid in this case. it fosters the movement of blood glucose from blood into cells and tissues. B. . is correct.

7=prostatic urethra. 60 D.002 What is the normal concentration of sperm in each ml of the 3 ml of semen produced at a normal ejaculation? A. 500 thousand C. 4=efferent ductules.003 Arrange the following structures in proper sequence for sperm transport during ejaculation: 1=ductus epididymis. 30 C. 3-2-1-4-5-6-7 B. 120 16. 3-6-5-4-2-1-7 E.001 About how many days does it take for the process of spermatogenesis (spermatogonia to spermatozoon) to occur in the seminiferous epithelium? A. 300 million 16. 3-1-2-6-5-4-7 D. 3=seminiferous tubule. 90 E. A. 100 thousand B.004 Where does the final biochemical/functional maturation of sperm occur? .SECTION 16: MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 16. 5=tubuli recti. 3-4-6-5-2-1-7 C. 3-5-6-4-1-2-7 16. 2=ampulla of ductus deferens. one million D. 6=rete testis. 10 B. 100 million E.

5=syngamy of pronuclei occurs. is correct. Sperm taken from the head of the epididymis are infertile. is correct. 4=hyaluronidase released from acrosome. prostatic urethra D. is correct. E. A. 1-2-3-4-5 C. E. It takes a little over two months to go from spermatogonium type A to a freshly produced sperm. 16. 3=zona-lysin digests a tunnel in a glycoprotein layer. 4-3-1-2-5 B. D. for sperm to complete capacitation and this occurs in the female reproductive tract. tail of epididymis C. Newly produced sperm are non-motile and move out of the testis into the epididymis by fluid currents and peristaltic type contractions.005 Arrange the following in proper sequence for fertilization: 1=sperm in perivitelline space. after addition of secretory product of bulbourethral glands (of Cowper) E.A. Sperm taken from the tail of the epididymis are fertile. "Fertile" sperm are capable of undergoing capacitation which means they are then capable of the acrosomal reaction during the process of fertilization. 2-1-3-4-5 E. not in the male reproductive tract. vagina/uterus/oviduct C. A sperm count below about 20 million/ml usually means sterility. It takes about 8 hrs. is correct. head of epididymis B. 2=DNA synthesis occurs in both pronuclei. therefore there are about 100 million sperm in each nil of ejaculate. 3-1-4-2-5 D. The normal ejaculate contains 3 ml and 300 million sperm. 3-1-2-4-5 . Capacitation is the process by which sperm become completely biochemically functional.

seminiferous tubules 16. ampulla of the ductus deferens B.007 Vasectomy refers to removal of part or all of what? A. prostatic urethra D. non-ampullary part of the ductus deferens D. seminal vesicle 16. membranous urethra E. tail of the epididymis 16. comprised of many compound tubuloalveolar glands. ductus epididymis C. ampulla of ductus deferens B. tubuli recti C.16. ductus deferens D. ductus epididymis E.008 Which of the following organs has 3 distinct layers of smooth muscle in its wall? A. seminal vesicle B. A. seminal vesicle . ampulla of the ductus deferens C. seminiferous tubule B.009 The following description best fits which organ: fibromuscular stroma. ejaculatory duct E. folded secretory epithelium which can be simple or pseudostratified.006 Which of the following organs has an epithelial lining which contains "stereocilia"? A.

C. Removal of a segment of the ductus deferens with ligation of the two remaining free ends is a vasectomy. prostate gland D. The epithelial lining of the ductus epididymis is pseudostratified or stratified columnar epithelium with long. is correct. C. As it ascends in the spermatic cord it is easy to approach surgically. The presence of fibroblasts and smooth muscle in the capsule and other stromal areas of this gland gives it a firm consistency on palpation. nondisjunction in oogenesis . the connective tissue elements and the muscular elements results in BPH or benign prostatic hypertrophy or hyperplasia. C. is correct.010 How would an individual with XYY be produced? A.meiosis II C. middle circular and outer longitudinal. nondisjunction in spermatogenesis in both meiosis I and meiosis II A.meiosis I B. the ductus deferens has the thickest coat of smooth muscle. In addition to the items listed in the description the prostate would have concretions or areas of calcified secretory product. nondisjunction in spermatogenesis .meiosis II E. is correct. The large microvilli are the stereocilia. is correct. nondisjunction in oogenesis . bulbourethral gland E. glands of Littre 16. nondisjunction in spermatogenesis . Hyperplasia of the glandular elements. . Of all of the choices. is correct. D.meiosis I D. non-motile microvilli projecting into the lumen of the duct.C. The smooth muscle in the wall of the ductus deferens is arranged into 3 distinct layers: inner longitudinal. The ductus or vas deferens is the muscular tube which connects the tail of the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.

histones and nonhistone chromosomal proteins are replaced with acidic proteins D. is correct. acrosome E.011 During spermiogenesis the Golgi complex and some of the endoplasmic reticulum moves to one end of the nucleus. accessory dense fibers of tail D. histones and nonhistone chromosomal proteins are replaced with very basic proteins (protamines) 16. tunica albuginea of corpora cavernosa D. 16. histone chromosomal content increases B. tunica albuginea of corpus spongiosum E.D. flagellum C. lamina propria of penile urethra . plasmalemma of end of tail 16. resulting in one sperm with YY and the other with no sex chromosomes.013 During an erection of the penis which of the following connective areas is the most rigid or nondistensible? A. What will form in this region? A. What is happening to this chromatin? A. In order to have a gamete with YY the problem must occur in the male. midpiece B. reticular layer of dermis C. In order for a sperm to end up with YY nondisjunction or non-separation of the two Y chromatids must occur at anaphase II. papillary layer of dermis B. nonhistone chromosomal protein content increases C.012 During spermiogenesis the chromatin in the nucleus undergoes intense condensation.

secondary spermatocyte C. secondary spermatocyte C. spermatid D. protamines. spermatid 16. is correct. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. each with 2 chromatids: A.a. replace the chromosomal histone and nonhistone proteins and this is a major factor in the condensation of the sperm nucleus.017 This cell has 4C amount of DNA: A. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. The tunica albuginea of the corpora cavernosa is much like a thick-walled garden hose whereas the t. is convect. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. Once the Golgi body moves to the tip of the nucleus it produces a collection of vesicles which eventually fuse together to form the acrosome. is correct. spermatid 16. of the corpus spongiosum is a thin-walled garden hose .016 This cells contains 1 C amount of DNA: A. each with 1 chromatid: A. spermatid 16. C. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. D.16. secondary spermatocyte C.015 This cell contains 23 chromosomes. Highly basic proteins.014 This cell contains 46 chromosomes. secondary spermatocyte C.

each composed of one chromatid.020 Within which cell can the tetrad formation of meiotic chromosomes be found? .018 This cell contains both an X AND a Y chromosome: A. is correct. This is the post-S phase amount of DNA or the amount of DNA in G2 and prophase at the start of the meiotic process. This distensibility of the t. secondary spermatocyte C. B & C are correct 16. is correct. A. having completed both the reductional and equational divisions has 23 chromosomes. spenmatid 16. primary spenmatocyte D. secondary spermatocyte C. A & B are correct E. is correct. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. spermatid B. IC amount of DNA is the gamete amount of DNA and is found in the spennatid and the spermatozoan. 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids. The spermatid. The primary spermatocyte. A. and 1 C amount of DNA. A.019 Has either a X OR a Y chromosome: A. is correct. of the corpus spongiosum permits the penile urethra to remain patent during an erection for the uncompromized transport of the semen during ejaculation. having complete DNA synthesis and entered prophase I of meiosis.which makes it distensible when the corpus spongiosum fills with blood. C.a. contains 4C amount of DNA. C. 16.

spermatid A.A. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. In this way each spermatid would also contain only one sex chromosome and it would have to be a X OR a Y. each chromosome has two chromatids. spermatid 16. Thus a secondary spermatocyte can have only one sex chromosome and it can be either a X OR a Y. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. Since each chromosome of each pair of homologous chromosomes has completed DNA synthesis during the preceding S phase. This applies to the primary spermatocyte which has the full complement of replicated chromosomes. Pairing two homologous chromosomes. is correct. During prophase I of meiosis I. A.e.021 This cell is the result of the reductional division of meiosis: A. i. After disjunction of the paired homologous chromosomes occurs at anaphase I of meiosis. The X OR the Y would undergo equational division in meiosis H. all homologous pairs of chromosomes with each chromosome containing two chromatids. D. is correct. secondary spermatocyte C. secondary spermatocyte C. One member of the pair is derived from the maternal parent and the other member of the pair is derived from the paternal parent. the pair of sex chromosomes separate and one is "given" to one secondary spennatocyte and the other is "given" to the other secondary spermatocyte. primary spennatocyte in prophase B.022 This cell is the result of the equational division of meiosis: A. secondary spermatocyte C. is correct. spermatid 16. each . homologous chromosomes of each pair of chromosomes actually "fmd" each other and pair up.

026 Which of the following is the source of testosterone? A. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. secondary spermatocyte C.024 This cell contains a single acrosomal granule in an acrosomal vesicle: A. B. spermatid 16.025 Which of the following is a true stem cell. C. The equational division occurs in each secondary spermatocyte which divides into two daughter cells called spermatids. The equational division of meiosis is the second division in the meiotic process. spermatid 16. results in the formation of a tetrad or 4 chromatids on two chromosomes paired together very closely. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. is correct. is correct. primary spermatocyte in prophase B. Leydig cell E.023 This cell contains 23 chromosomes each of which contains 2 chromatids: A. The reductional division of the meiotic process begins in the primary spermatocyte and ends with the production of two daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes.composed of two chromatids. type A spermatogonium . type B spermatogonium C. Sertoli cell D. relatively undifferentiated? A. secondary spermatocyte C. type A spermatogonium B. 16.

This describes the secondary spermatocyte which has 23 chromosomes. Sertoli cell D. is correct.028 The primary spermatocyte arises from this cell: A. primary or secondary spermatocyte B. type B spermatogonium C. Leydig cell E. The daughter cells thus produced will contain 23 chromosomes. Leydig cell E. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. Leydig cell E. A. type A spermatogonium B. C. is correct. 46 chromatids and 2C amount of DNA. is correct.027 Which of the following synthesizes androgenbinding protein? A. and 1 C amount of DNA. This cell will undergo meiosis II or the equational division of meiosis and at anaphase II the two chromatids of each chromosome will split and move to opposite poles of the cell.B. type B spermatogonium C. each composed of a single chromatid. Sertoli cell D. type A spermatogonium B. Formation of the acrosome begins after meiosis II is completed and the cell produced is a spermatid. type B spermatogonium C. Sertoli cell D. .

C. type B spermatogonium C. Sertoli cell D. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. type A spermatogonium B. type B spermatogonium C.031 This cell contains the enzymes to convert progesterone to hydroxyprogesterone to androstenedione: . Leydig cell E. D. The Sertoli cell synthesizes androgen-binding protein which binds testosterone and keeps high levels of testosterone in the seminiferous epithelium. is correct. Leydig cell E. is correct. is correct. ABP is also released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules where it moves testosterone "downstream" to the epithelia of the duct system out to at least the epididymis. Some type A spermatogonia differentia into type B spermatogonia which continue to differentiate into primary spermatocytes.029 This cell secretes inhibin which decreases FSH release: A. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16.030 The product of this cell inhibits LH release: A. B.The type A spermatogonium is the truce stem cell or vegetative intermitotic for the seminiferous epithelium. The interstitial cells of Leydig are the cell source of testosterone. Sertoli cell D. 16. type A spermatogonium B.

type B spermatogonium C. D. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. Sertoli cell D. type A spermatogonium B. type B spermatogonium C. primary spermatocyte D. LH or ICSH (interstitial cell stimulating hormone) stimulates the Leydig cells to synthesize/release more testosterone.A. type A spermatogonium B. Leydig cell E. is correct.033 Cells of which type contribute occludens type junctions to form the bloodtestis barrier? A. primary or secondary spermatocyte C.032 During spermatogenesis. spermatid 16. cells of which type are not connected by intercellular bridges? A. is correct. High levels of testosterone have a negative . Leydig cell E. The Sertoli cell releases "inhibin" and this hormone inhibits the release of FSH which is necessary for normal spermatogenesis. Sertoli cell D. secondary spermatocyte E. type A spermatogonium B. Inhibin release is increased when the cell population in the seminiferous epithelium drops below a certain normal threshold number or concentration. type B spermatogonium C.

Only the most primitive type A spermatogonia remain as individual cells which serve as stem cells or vegetative intermitotics for the seminiferous epithelium. Thus all spermatogenic cell types from the type B spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa are connected by intercellular bridges. Low levels of testosterone have a positive feedback effect on ICSH release. type B spermatogonium . spermatid C. they are connected by intercellular cytoplasmic bridges. type A spermatogonium B. D.feedback effect on ICSH release. The Sertoli cells form occludens type junctions with each other forcing tissue fluid derived from the capillaries of the interstitial connective tissue areas outside of each seminiferous tubule. Once some of the daughter cells. is correct. A. begin to differentiate and eventually become primary spermatocytes. This is the blood-testis barrier.034 Which of the following cell types is located in the basal compartment of the seminiferous tubule? A.035 Which of the following cell types is located in the adluminal compartment of the seminiferous tubule? A. 16. to pass through Sertoli cell cytoplasm before it reaches the spermatocytes. derived from divisions of the type A spermatogonia. C. Leydig cell E. These are some of the enzymatic steps the Leydig cell employs to manufacture testosterone. Some authors would state that intercellular bridges can be found in the later stages of the type A spermatogonia as they differentiate into type B spermatogonia. Sertoli cell D. spermatids and spermatozoa. is correct. type A spermatogonium B. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. is correct.

primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. in the tail of the spermatozoon . none of the above 16.038 Where are 23 chromatids found? A. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C. Leydig cell E. in the head of the spermatozoon B. in the tail of the spermatozoon D. in the head of the spermatozoon B. Leydig cell E. type B spermatogonium C.037 Where is the mitochondrial sheath found? A.C. none of the above 16.039 Where are hyaluronidase and zona-lysin found? A.036 Phagocytosis and digestion of the residual bodies formed during spermiogenesis are found in which cell type? A. Sertoli cell D. in the tail of the spermatozoon D. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C. Sertoli cell D. primary or secondary spermatocyte 16. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C. in the head of the spermatozoon B. type A spermatogonium B.

Hyaluronidase is used by the mature sperm to first "digest" its way through the corona radiata of the ovulated ovum (secondary oocyte). the spermatids and the spermatozoa. and then through the zona . is correct. It is highly condensed. is correct. A. is correct. such as tabs of cytoplasm and residual bodies. is correct. is correct. or 23 chromosomes/chromatids. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C. is phagocytized by the Sertoli cells. none of the above 16. The head of the sperm is where the chromatin is located.040 Where is heterochromatin found? A. The basal compartment is that area between the blood-testis barrier formed by the Sertoli cells and the basal lamina of the seminiferous epithelium. in the head of the spermatozoon B. C. As spermiogenesis occurs the extra material not utilized in the formation of the sperm.D. E. in the tail of the spermatozoon D. Mitochondria are arranged in a helical arrangement around the axial and coarse fiber bundles in the midpiece of the sperm. is correct. The adluminal compartment is the tissue compartment on the luminal side of the blood-testis barrier formed by the Sertoli cells. A. It contains the spermatogonia. each comprised of one chromatid. B. In this compartment which is "behind" the blood-testis barrier. none of the above A. one finds the primarily and secondary spermatozoa. In this condensed chromatin is the gamete amount of DNA (1C) and the gamete amount of chromosomes.

in the tail of the spermatozoon D. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C.042 Where are 9 peripheral doublets of microtubules & one central pair of singlets all surrounded by a dorsal and a ventral column of coarse fibers found? A.043 When do gonocytes or primordial germ cells migrate from yolk sac endoderm into the gonad? A. none of the above 16. none of the above 16. 16. which has completed spermiogenesis. pyknotic mass. during both the fetal period AND at puberty 16. the DNA is completely heterochromatinized or packaged into a dense. in the midpiece of the spermatozoon C. none of the above E. at the time and place of fertilization D. at puberty-in general C. during the fetal period B.044 When do primary spermatocytes first appear? A. is correct. in the tail of the spermatozoon D.pellucida with the added help of zona lysin which is attached to the inner membrane of the acrosome. during the fetal period B.041 Where is ATP generated? A. at puberty-in general . in the head of the spermatozoon B. In the mature sperm. A. in the head of the spermatozoon B.

ductus deferens 16. at the time and place of fertilization D. during both the fetal period AND at puberty 16. prostate gland E. none of the above E. ductus epididymis D. seminal vesicle F. at the time and place of fertilization D.C. prostate gland E. testis B.046 Corpora amylacea are found in which of the following organs? A.047 In this organ huge microvilli are present on a pseudostratified columnar epithelium: A. none of the above E. both during fetal period AND at puberty 16. testis B. ductus deferens . seminal vesicle F. ductus epididymis D. during fetal period B. efferent ductule C. efferent ductule C. at puberty-in general C.045 Secondary spermatocyte appears: A.

is correct. The corpora amylacea are the concretions or precipitated secretory product found in the glandular alveoli of the prostate gland.B. Prior to then the seminiferous epithelium is comprised of only spermatogonia and Sertoli cells. thereby establishing a current from testis to epididymis. is correct. The large microvilli absorb a lot of fluid. glands of Littre .048 Mucus is produced by which of the following? A. is correct. This is a description of the epithelial lining of the ductus epididymis. C. C. the more concretions. prostate gland B. is correct. The older the gland. This is a description of the ultrastructure of the tail of a mature sperm. is correct. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty so secondary spermatocytes can not be found in the testis prior to puberty. is correct. seminal vesicle D. B. bulbourethral gland C. The migration of gonocytes (spermatogonia and oogonia) into the developing gonad occurs during the embryonic/fetal period. D. Primary spermatocytes begin to appear in the seminiferous epithelium at puberty. 16. The ATP source in the mature sperm is from the mitochondria congregated in the midpiece of the sperm. B. is correct. Prior to puberty the seminiferous tubules are lined by only Sertoli cells and spermatogonia. A.

bulbourethral gland C.053 Which of the following forms the glans penis? . glands of Littre 16. seminal vesicle D. prostate gland B. seminal vesicle D. prostate gland B.050 Acid phosphatase is an enzyme characteristically found in which of the following? A. seminal vesicle D. bulbourethral gland C. glands of Littre 16.049 Which of the following has fructose as an important component of its secretory product? A. corpora cavemosa B.052 Which of the following surrounds the penile urethra? A. corpus spongiosum C.E.051 Concretions are found in which of the following? A. bulbourethral gland C. prostate gland B. neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum 16. both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. glands of Littre 16. more than one of the above 16.

penile urethra E. is correct. . both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. Fructose is a component of the secretory product of the seminal vesicle. Since the penile urethra courses through the corpus cavernosum urethra (corpus spongiosum). is correct. is correct.A. B. Increased levels of this enzyme in the blood could indicate cancer of the prostate. penile urethra 16. corpora cavernosa B. This enzyme is produced by the prostate gland. corpora cavernosa B. is correct. A. Both the bulbourethral glands and the glands of Littre are mucus producers. neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum E. this mass of erectile tissue surrounds the penile urethra. is correct. Concretions are found in the prostate gland and they increase with the age of the individual. C. neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum E. corpus spongiosum C.054 Which of the following are (is) composed of erectile tissue? A. both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. is correct. corpus spongiosum C. A. B.

neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum E. corpus spongiosum C. penile urethra 16. both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. The large. penile urethra . both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D.057 The lumen/spaces of which of the following is/are lined by unfenestrated endothelium? A. is correct.056 The lumen/spaces of which of the following is/are lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium? A. neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum E. corpora cavernosa B. corpora cavemosa B. 16. corpus spongiosum C. potential vascular spaces which comprise the erectile tissue of the penis are found in both the corpora cavemosae and corpus spongiosum (corpus cavernosum urethra). penile urethra 16. both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. corpus spongiosum C. neither corpora cavernosa nor corpus spongiosum E.055 The glands of Littre secrete into the lumen of which of the following? A.The glans penis represents an enlargement of the corpus cavemosum urethra (spongiosum). C. corpora cavernosa B.

060 Which of the following contains a mediastinal area? A. corpora cavemosa B. at puberty-in general C. is correct. prostate gland E. both corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum D. during the fetal period B. at the time and place of fertilization D. E. seminal vesicle F. during both the fetal period AND at puberty 16. none of the above E. efferent ductule C. is correct. The majority of the epithelial lining of the penile urethra is of the pseudostratified . corpus spongiosum C.059 When do secondary spermatocytes appear? A. testis B.058 Which of the following forms the prepuce? A. ductus deferens E. ductus epididymis D. The glands of Littre are mucous glands which occur throughout the length of the penile urethra. neither corpora cavemosa nor corpus spongiosum E.16. They secrete mucus into the lumen of the penile urethra which lubricates the penile urethra. penile urethra 16.

efferent ductule C. D. At the distal end of the penile urethra. the tunica albuginea. occasionally there are patches of simple columnar epithelium and/or stratified columnar epithelium. The vascular spaces which characterize the erectile tissue of the corpora cavernosae and the corpus spongiosum (corpus cavemosum urethra) are lined by endothelial cells which are of the continuous. is correct. prostate gland E. B. the urethra is expanded into a fossa. Connective tissue septa radiate outward from this mediastinal area forming septa which demarcate lobules. Prior to puberty the seminiferous tubules are lined by only Sertoli cells and spermatogonia. is correct. sweeps into the organ on the posterior aspect forming a connective tissue area called the mediastinum of the testis. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty so secondary spermatocytes cannot be found in the testis prior to puberty. not the fenestrated type. testis B. is correct. is correct. the fossa navicularis. seminal vesicle F.061 The epithelial lining of which of the following is composed of alternating groups of cuboidal cells with motile cilia and cuboidal cells with no cilia? A. The prepuce or foreskin is a fold of skin covering the glans penis and it is not derived from any of the structures listed. A. ductus deferens . Of all the organs listed only the testis contains a mediastinal connective tissue area. ductus epididymis D. However. This region of the penile urethra is lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized (wet) epithelium. Actually the connective tissue capsule.columnar type. This mediastinal area contains the rete testis. 16. C.

062 Some cells found in which of the following contain cytoplasmic crystalloids of stored steroid hormone? A. ductus deferens 16. efferent ductule C. prostate gland E.m. seminal vesicle F.: A. efferent ductule C. testis B. ductus epididymis D. prostate gland E.065 A tunica albuginea is found in this organ: . ductus deferens 16.063 In which of the following organs do zonula occludens type junctions form a blood-parenchyma barrier? A. testis B. seminal vesicle F. efferent ductule C. prostate gland E. ductus epididymis D.064 The wall of this organ contains inner and outer longitudinal layers of smooth muscle with a thick middle circular layer of s. seminal vesicle F. ductus deferens 16.16. testis B. ductus epididymis D.

is correct. seminal vesicle F.A. This description best fits the ductus or vas deferens. A. F. the testis. is correct. efferent ductule C. In this way the spenmatogonia are placed on one side of this barrier and the cells of spermatogenesis are on the "protected" side of the barrier. testis B. ductus epididymis D. Of the structures listed only the testis has a thick layer of fibrous connective tissue forming part of the capsular arrangement of the organ. Of all the organs listed only one of them. testis . tissue fluid from the connective tissue areas at the periphery of the seminiferous tubules must pass through the cytoplasm of the Sertoli cells before it can approach the spermatocytes. such as the penis and the ovary.066 In this organ concretions in the glandular lumen increase with age: A. is an endocrine organ. ductus deferens B. Other organs have tunica albuginea. A. spermatids and spermatozoa. prostate gland E. This irregular epithelial border lining the efferent ductules is quite characteristic of these tubules. is correct. is correct. The blood-testis barrier is formed by the Sertoli cells which are connected to each other by zonula occludens type junctions. is correct. A. In this case the steroid hormone testosterone is produced by the interstitial cells of Leydig and these cells actually store testosterone in crystalloid structures in the cytoplasm. Thus. 16.

seminal vesicle F.B. The prostatic concretions located in the secretory alveoli increase with increasing age of the individual. ductus epididymis D. efferent ductule C. . prostate gland E. ductus deferens D. is correct.

after menarche up to menopause C. follicle cells lining a primary follicle C. follicle cells lining a preantral follicle D. from birth to menarche D.002 As a pin passes from the nucleus of a developing oocyte into the surrounding ovarian tissue it would encounter the following layers in what correct anatomical sequence: l=nucleus.003 What is the cumulus oophorus? A. 1-3-213-5-6 B. 4=vitelline membrane. from 4-7th month in fetal ovary E. follicle cells in a mature follicle not associated with the oocyte E.SECTION 17: FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 17. 2=theca interna. 6=theca externa. some of which differentiate into primary oocytes? A. follicle cells in a mature follicle which are associated with the oocyte 17.001 When do oogonia undergo cell division producing more oogonia.004 Exactly what is released at the moment of ovulation? A. primordial follicle . 1-4-5-2-3-6 C. 3=zona pellucida. follicle cells lining a primordial follicle B. once/month on day 14 of typical menstrual cycle 17. 1-3-4-2-5-6 17. 1-4-5-3-2-6 E. 5=follicular or granulosa cells. A. after menopause B. 1-4-3-5-2-6 D.

If no fertilization occurs the secondary oocyte will die in metaphase II in a matter of a few days. the female is born with all of the primary oocytes she will ever have and these are in prophase I of meiosis. primary oocyte C. E. is correct. Unlike the male in which spermatogonia continuously divide from the time of puberty up to perhaps the 9th decade of life. Fertilization is the stimulus for the secondary oocyte to complete meiosis H. secondary follicle E. menarche C. is correct. C. . ootid with 23 chromosomes. secondary oocyte D. C. is correct. lC amount of DNA 17. fertilization E. Outside the z.p.005 What event causes the secondary oocyte to complete meiosis II (anaphase II . is correct. the corona radiata. The cumulus oophorus is the mound of follicle cells associated with the oocyte after the antrum is formed and begins to fill with follicular liquid. menses D. are some attached follicle cells.B. The ovulated "egg" is a secondary oocyte in metaphase II of meiosis.telophase II)? A. D. encased in its zona pellucida which also encloses the first polar body. ovulation B. formation of liquor folliculi D. is correct.

LH E. A & B & C are correct 17. 1-2-34-5-6 . estrogen D.17. it is formed from the collapsed remains of the ovulated follicle 17. luteinization of the granulosa and theca interna cells involves the appearance of lots of rough ER C. HCG 17. A. 5=syncytiotrophoblast. 6=fetal hemoglobin. 3=cytotrophoblast. luteinized cells produce progesterone and estrogen D. progesterone B.006 Immediately after fertilization when the sperm head has just entered the cytoplasm of the secondary oocyte and anaphase II and telophase II have not been completed. 3 sex chromatids which can be XXX or XXY D. 3 C amount of DNA B. rising level of progesterone increasingly inhibits hypophyseal LH production E. LH is required for its formation B.009 Arrange the following structures in proper sequence for the transmission of oxygen from maternal blood to fetal blood across the placental membrane: 1=maternal blood. A & B are correct E. 2=fused basal laminae. which of the following situations could apply to the fertilized cell? A.007 All of the following correctly apply to the corpus luteum EXCEPT: A. FSH C. 4=endothelial cytoplasm. 66 autosomal chromatids C.008 The surge or abrupt rise in the blood level of this hormone occurs just prior to ovulation: A.

is correct. D. 1-4-2-3-5-6 E. follicular cells C. The preovulatory surge of LH changes the LH:FSH ratio to that which induces ovulation. The sperm brings in 1 C amount of DNA and 23 chromatids. Luteinization of the granulosa and theca interna cells involves the appearance of lots of not rough but smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B. is correct. two of which are sex chromatids which are X chromatids which will be separated(mitotic disjunction) during anaphase II.B. 1-3-5-2-4-6 C. The zona pellucida is formed by contributions from both the oocyte and the surrounding follicular cells. "germinal" epithelial cells D. There is a small window of time during fertilization when the sperm head has entered and the secondary oocyte has not yet completed anaphase II and telophase H. is correct. The metaphase II of the secondary oocyte contains 2C amount of DNA and 23 chromosomes carrying 46 chromatids. A & B & C are correct. 1-3-4-5-2-6 17. . 1-2-3-5-4-6 D. is correct. Both of these cell types send surface projections into the zona pellucida where they contact each other. B. oocyte B.010 What cells secrete substances which form the zona pellucida? A. E. D. is correct. one of which is either a X or a Y. A & B are correct E.

1 million B. 100. 500. relaxin causes less contractions . estrogen levels remain steady for too long E. rising levels of progesterone cause less contractions B. 6 million D. HCG is present B. LH:FSH ratio becomes inappropriate D. increasing levels of progesterone increasingly inhibit LH production C. 10.000 E.17.014 All of the following are true of the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium EXCEPT: A. rising levels of estrogen cause less contractions C. follicular cells secrete too much androstenedione 17. 3 million C. 150 B.013 The corpus luteum of menstruation eventually dies because: A. 450 C.012 In the normal reproductive "life" of the human female from menarche to menopause. about how many ova are ovulated? A.000 E. 1000 D.000 17.011 About how many oogonia are found in each ovary at the end of the 7th fetal month? A. 500 17.

syncytiotrophoblast B. Only 450 ova are ovulated. stratum functionalis of endometrium E. outer myometrium 17. as during days 4-14 of the menstrual cycle enhances contractions of the myometrial smooth muscle. Decreasing the level of LH. the rest undergo atresia. is correct. capable of hyperplasia 17. stratum basalis of endometrium D. perimetrium B. decidua parietalis D. which is essential for the maintenance of the corpus luteum. B. What is this tissue layer called when it is in contact with the chorion laeve? A. is correct. Increasing levels of estrogen. capable of hypertrophy E. . decidua capsularis E. is correct. amnion B.D. B.015 Which layers of the uterus are "lost" or sloughed at menses? A.016 In the pregnant uterus the endometrial stroma contains many decidual cells. causes the death ("suicide") of the corpus luteum. is correct. inner myometrium C. Rising levels of progesterone negatively feedback to the pituitary gland causing a decrease in the production of LH. B. decidua basalis C.

D. estrogen C. A & B & C are correct. LH . is correct.017 A uterine "fibroid" is composed of what? A. fibroblasts C. FSH B. As the embryo embeds into the endometrium and forms a chorion around itself the villous chorion faces the decidua basalis. estrogen B. is the decidua parietalis. Most of the endometrium is sloughed during menses. The rest of the endometrium minus the decidua capsularis and basalis. 17.019 What substance causes the corpus luteum of menstruation to become the longer lived corpus luteum of pregnancy? A. progesterone C. whereas the smooth chorion (laeve) faces the decidua capsularis. from which a new functionalis will be regenerated. LH D. However. is correct. some of the endometrium closest to the myometrium is retained. progesterone E. HCG 17. decidual cells of endometrium D.018 During days 4-14 the functionalis layer of the endometrium is rebuilt from the basalis layer primarily because of the presence of what? A. A & B are correct E. 17.D. the stratum basalis. smooth muscle cells B.

4=pars intramuralis. 4-3-2-1 B. growth of endometrial glands and stroma B.020 During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle the rising levels of estrogen coming from the group of follicles undergoing maturation causes all of the following EXCEPT? A. B. is correct. is correct. 3-1-2-4 D. is correct. 211-3-1 E. HCG or human chorionic gonadotrophin is released by the early trophoblast cells . Fibroids are benign tumors composed of both smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts and therefore are fibromyomas. 3=infundibulum. the estrogen level rises. negative feedback on FSH-RH production C. FSH E. 2=isthmus. As FSH stimulates a group of follicles to begin growth and maturation the number of follicular or granulosa cells increases and since these cells manufacture and/or release estrogen.D. decrease in progesterone release D. 1-2-3-4 C. A. E. HCG 17. contraction of smooth muscle in wall of oviduct 17. 2-3-1-4 D. positive feedback on LH-RH E.021 As the fertilized egg begins its trip down the oviduct to the uterine cavity it traverses the following regions of the oviduct in which order: 1=ampulla. The rising estrogen level stimulates the endometrium to repair and regenerate a new functionalis layer.

2=precornified. A. 1-2-3-4-5-6 C.of the embryo." Identify the organ? A. 1-6-5-4-3-2 17.023 "Epithelial cells accumulate glycogen and slough to the lumen where nonpathogenic bacteria utilize the glycogen to produce lactic acid. vagina D. ampulla of oviduct C.022 Arrange the following cell types found in the epithelium covering the portio vaginalis of the cervix from basement membrane to vaginal lumen: 1=basement membrane. 1-3-2-6-4-5 D." Identify the organ? A. is correct. 3=intermediate. 17. proliferative endometrium 17. C. Progesterone levels decrease during the late secretory phase due to increasing inhibition of LH-RH. 1-5-4-3-2-6 E. secretory endometrium B. 4=basal. 1-4-6-3-2-5 B. cervical canal E.024 "During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle the presence of estrogen and progesterone causes fat deposition. is correct. 6 parabasal. stromal development and some growth of ducts and alveoli. It can be detected in maternal serum as early as 10 days after fertilization (day 24 of the average menstrual cycle). endometrium B. 5=comified. C. vagina . just in time to convert the corpus luteum of menstruation into one which will support the pregnancy (corpus luteum of pregnancy).

high levels of progesterone D. is correct. high levels of estrogen C. is correct. C. Thus during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle the breast enlarges and becomes slightly more nodular. high levels of oxytocin A.C. breast E. myoepithelial cells contract in response to oxytocin release C. is correct. high levels of FSH B. lactoalbumin and in munoglobulins E. high levels of human placental lactogen E. oviduct D.025 All of the following describe the breast EXCEPT: A. not the alveolar epithelium 17. During lactation the alveolar cells secrete by the apocrine method in which a small portion of the apical part of the cell is part of the secretory product. during lactation secretion is of the holocrine type D. C. ovary 17. secretory product contains caseine. alveoli basically dormant until pregnancy B. D. is correct.026 What causes the preovulatory LH surge? A. most common malignancy involves the ductal. The lactic acid produced by the bacterial action on the glycogen in the sloughed cells keeps the pH of the vagina low and this is thought to limit the growth of pathogenic bacteria. .

synthesis of large quantities of mRNA B. multiple copies of rRNA genes located in the nucleolar organizer regions E. This rising level of estrogen inhibits FSH-RH. 17. synthesis of DNA 17.029 Most of the huge quantities of rRNA synthesized by the maturing oocyte assemble into ribosomes which? A. synthesis of large numbers of mitochondria E.B.028 If you extracted DNA from a fully mature oocyte prior to ovulation the majority of that DNA would be derived from? A. are inactive 17. paternal chromosomal complement B. genes coding for the large amounts of mRNA characteristic of the oocyte 17. is correct. As the group of follicles grow in response to FSH the increasing number of granulosa cells. synthesis of large quantities of rRNA C. mitochondria D. zona pellucida .027 In the group of developing oocytes stimulated by FSH all of the following events are taking place EXCEPT: A. maternal chromosomal complement C. causes the estrogen level to rise. which produce estrogen.030 If antibodies are made to the glycoproteins comprising the zona pellucida and the technique of immunofluorescence is used on maturing oocytes what would stain positive? A. but is temporarily a positive feedback for LH. synthesis of large quantities of tRNA D. are active B.

E. first polar body D. is correct. B. DNA synthesis is completed in all oocytes in the 7th fetal month. C. A & B are correct E. is correct.031 This cell is enclosed in follicle cells which contain an early antrum: A. cytoplasm of the follicle cells immediately outside zona pellucida C. primary oocyte B.B. first polar body D. A & B & C are correct 17. secondary oocyte C.032 The nucleus of this cell has 4C amount of DNA: A. is correct. second polar body E. secondary oocyte C. . second polar body 17. These ribosomes remain inactive until after fertilization when they become activated and support the synthesis of proteins necessary for early embryogenesis. primary oocyte B. Both the oocyte and the follicle cells synthesize the glycoproteins found in the zona pellucida. During the maturation of the oocyte so many mitochondria are produced that mitochondrial DNA can constitute up to 90% of the total DNA content in a mature oocyte. cytoplasm of the oocyte D. is correct.

primary oocyte B. the primary follicle changes its name to a secondary follicle. but has completed DNA synthesis (occurred when the woman was a 5-7 month old fetus). The only choice which correctly applies here is the primary oocyte which is locked in a prolonged prophase I of meiosis.036 Which of the following is a large cell formed just prior to ovulation which contains 23 chromosomes? . is correct. secondary oocyte C. first polar body D. it contains 4C DNA. primary oocyte B. A.034 This cell is enclosed in a single layer of squamosal follicle cells: A. second polar body 17. second polar body 17. 17. When an antrum appears in the granulosa cells of a multilaminar primary follicle (containing a primary oocyte). Since it has not started the meiotic process.035 This cell has 92 chromatids in it: A. primary oocyte B. secondary oocyte C. first polar body D.033 This is the cell formed subsequent to fertilization: A. secondary oocyte C. 92 chromatids.A. 46 chromosomes. first polar body D. is correct. second polar body 17.

Sometimes the first polar body (23 chromosomes. second polar body E. to undergo the equational division of meiosis (meiosis II). first polar body D. only one of which will win the "race" to become a mature Graffian follicle ready for ovulation. primary oocyte B. then secondary follicles. more than one of the above 17. primary oocyte B. Fertilization is the stimulus for the ovulated ovum. . first polar body D. primary oocyte B. A. is correct. Primordial follicles are "resting". awaiting their turn to be "selected" by FSH to begin to grow and differentiate into primary.038 This cell is enclosed in a single layer of cuboidal follicle cells: A. which actually is a secondary oocyte.A. is correct. chromosomes and chromatids. secondary oocyte C. secondary oocyte C. second polar body 17. secondary oocyte C. first polar body D. When meiosis II is completed a second polar body is formed and it would have 23 chromosomes.037 Which of the following is another name for the ovulated oocyte which will be fertilized? A. second polar body D. This is a description of a primordial follicle containing a primary oocyte. 23 chromatids and 1C amount of DNA. 46 chromatids and 2C DNA) also undergoes meiosis II resulting in two cells each with the gamete amount of DNA.

The first meiotic division or the reductional division occurs hours before ovulation. E. so this cell contains 92 chromatids and 4C amount of DNA. is correct. first polar body D. The primary oocyte is in prophase I of meiosis I. menses B. premenstrual phase 17. menses B. proliferative phase C. B. secondary oocyte C. Hours before ovulation the primary oocyte completes meiosis I and in doing so forms a large secondary oocyte and a smaller first polar body. 46 chromatids? A. is correct. primary oocyte B. is correct. second polar body 17. Having complete DNA synthesis it contains 46 chromosomes.040 Endometrial glands are straight and increasingly higher during: A. the newly ovulated "ovum" is actually a secondary oocyte. is correct.A. A single layer of cuboidal follicle cells describes a unilaminar primary follicle which contains a primary oocyte in prophase I of meiosis. 17. secretory phase D. having only 23. proliferative phase . both of which are haploid. A.039 Which of the following is a large cell with 23 chromosomes. not 46 chromosomes. but each chromosome is composed of two chromatids. Therefore.041 Effects of FSH are evident in the ovary during: A.

This description fits the secondary oocyte. is correct. secretory phase D. premenstrual phase 17. This is the estrogenic or proliferative or repair phase of the menstrual cycle which is the time between the end of menses (day 4) to the day of ovulation (day 14). each of the 23 chromosomes is composed of two chromatids. is correct. each containing a primary oocyte. not 46 chromosomes. menses B. . is correct. B. premenstrual phase B. having 23.C.043 Progesterone blood levels and activity are greatest during: A. Thus. proliferative phase C. fertilization is the stimulus for the secondary oocyte to complete the second half of meiosis. This would be observed in the ovary in the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle. This is histological evidence of an increasing level of estrogen coming from the increasing numbers of granulosa cells in the developing ovarian follicles. The ovum is ovulated as a secondary oocyte and will die in this stage unless it is fertilized. thus the reductional division has occurred but the equational division has not yet occurred. proliferative phase C. However. secretory phase D. It is haploid. menses B. premenstrual phase 17. secretory phase D. B. FSH activity is detected by seeing several (15 or so) primordial ovarian follicles differentiate into unilaminar and multilaminar primary follicles.042 Endometrial glands become coiled and filled with glycogen during: A.

C. is correct. These are the histological and cytological effects of progesterone on an estrogen primed endometrium. This is characteristic of the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. C. is correct. Progesterone is synthesized from the granulosa lutein cells of the corpus luteum. One can not have a corpus luteum until after ovulation so progesterone levels and activity characterize the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. 17.044 During this time period the coiled arteries contract and cause extended periods of little to no blood flow to tissue distal to the contraction: A. menses B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. postmenstrual phase 17.045 When does the LH surge occur? A. menses B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. premenstrual phase 17.046 Extravascular blood does not clot in which of the following phases? A. menses B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. postmenstrual phase 17.047 The functionalis layer is lost during which of the following phases? A. menses

B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. premenstrual phase 17.048 During which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle do desquamated cells with intracytoplasmic keratin and pyknotic nuclei predominate in a Pap smear? A. menses B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. premenstrual phase C. is correct. As the levels of progesterone and estrogen drop due to the degeneration of the corpus luteum, the coiled arteries contract for hours at a time resulting in ischemia to the endometrial tissue distal to the closed vessel. This occurs late in the secretory phase or some authors would place this early in the premenstrual phase.. After repeated ischemic episodes the anoxic vessel walls first will leak plasma and interstitial edema occurs in the ovarian stroma. Then the damaged vessel walls will rupture and frank hemorrhage will result. B. is correct. The LH surge occurs late in the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle but just prior to ovulation. In fact the LH surge is required for ovulation. As the estrogen level increases during the development of the group of follicles in the ovary, the increasing estrogen level is a positive feedback on LH production. A. is correct. Blood cells outside of the vascular system is hemorrhage. In menses this extravascular hemorrhage, interestingly enough, does not clot which allows the menstrual blood to "flow". Premenstrual phase probably would be correct also because as the ischemic vessels rupture, blood enters connective tissue areas and does not clot. A. is correct. The functionalis layer of the endometrium is the upper or luminal 75% of the

endometrium and it is this layer which is sloughed off during menses. B. is correct. This is characteristic of the estrogenic or proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle in which the estrogen causes more complete differentiation of the surface epithelial cells. 17.049 During this phase of the menstrual cycle parabasal and intermediate cells predominate in a Pap smear: A. menses B. proliferative phase C. secretory phase D. premenstrual phase 17.050 This structure has a core of embryonic mesoderm, covered by cytotrophoblast which in turn is covered by syncytiotrophoblast: A. primary villus B. secondary villus C. tertiary villus 17.051 This structure has a core of cytotrophoblast covered by syncytiotrophoblast: A. primary villus B. secondary villus C. tertiary villus 17.052 Hofbauer cells and capillaries are found here: A. primary villus B. secondary villus C. tertiary villus 17.053 Which of the following contain(s) desmosomes? A. cytotrophoblast

B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.054 Which of the following is (are) of maternal origin? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.055 Which of the following is (are) of fetal origin? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above C. is correct. Estrogen causes the epithelial cells of the cervix and vagina to completely differentiate which means they have pyknotic nuclei and the obvious presence of cytoplasmic keratin. Progesterone does not allow complete differentiation of the epithelial cells and the less differentiated cell types appear in the Pap smear. B. is correct. This is the histological appearance of a secondary villus, i.e., extra-embryonic mesoderm has invaded the villus but has not yet differentiated into more mature elements. A. is correct. This is the histological appearance of a primary villus which has not yet been invaded by extraembryonic mesoderm. C. is correct.

The tertiary villus demonstrates complete differentiation of the embryonic mesenchyme in its core into capillaries, embryonic connective tissue, and embryonic macrophages, the Hofbauer cells. A. is correct. Since the cytotrophoblast is composed of individual cells whereas the syncytiotrophoblast is a true syncytium (a mass of cytoplasm with many nuclei in it), it is the cytotrophoblastic cells which are held together with desmosomes. D. is correct. The trophoblast is derived from the outer cell mass of the embryo and therefore is not of maternal, but is of embryonic/fetal origin. C. is correct. Both the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast are derived from the more primitive trophoblast which is derived from the outer cell mass of the embryo. Therefore both of these trophoblasts are derived from embryonic/fetal origin, not maternal origin. 17.056 Which of the following is (are) mitotically active? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.057 Which of the following demonstrate(s) cytological evidence for synthesis and secretion of steroids? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.058 Many surface microvilli are found on which of the following? A. cytotrophoblast

B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.059 Which of the following become(s) discontinuous in later pregnancy? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.060 Which of the following produce(s) human placental lactogen? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.061 Which of the following produce(s) human chorionic gonadotrophin? A. cytotrophoblast B. syncytiotrophoblast C. both of the above D. neither of the above 17.062 When do primary oocytes first appear? A. during the fetal period B. at puberty-in general C. at the time and place of fertilization D. none of the above E. during both the fetal period AND at puberty

A. is correct. The cytotrophoblast is the "stem" cell component of the trophoblast layers of the placenta. DNA synthesis and mitotic events are found in the cytotrophoblast, not in the more highly differentiated syncytiotrophoblast. B. is correct. The syncytiotrophoblast has the full complement of cytoplasmic organelles for the synthesis of steroid hormones, namely plenty of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B. is correct. The syncytiotrophoblast is in contact with maternal blood and increases the surface area for metabolic and gaseous exchange by having microvilli present on its free surface. A. is correct. The cytotrophoblast becomes discontinuous as pregnancy proceeds. The syncytiotrophoblast remains as a continuous layer, even piling up into syncytial knots here and there. B. is correct. The syncytiotrophoblast has the organelles necessary for the production of HPL, whereas the cytotrophoblast does not. B. is correct. The syncytiotrophoblast has the ultrastructural machinery for the production of HCG whereas the cytotrophoblast does not. A. is correct. During the embryonic/fetal life of a female, oogonia migrate into the developing ovary from the yolk sac. Once in the developing ovary the oogonia differentiate into primary oocytes housed in primordial follicles. This is completed by the 7th fetal month. The primordial follicles, each containing a primary oocyte in prophase I of meiosis I remain dormant until puberty when small groups of them (10-15) are stimulated to grow and develop by FSH. 17.063 When does the very first secondary oocyte appear? A. during the fetal period

B. at puberty-in general C. at the time and place of fertilization D. none of the above E. during both the fetal period AND at puberty B. is correct. The ovulated ovum actually is a secondary oocyte so the very first secondary oocyte would appear at puberty or at the time of the first ovulation and monthly after that until menopause. Secondary oocytes also appear at the time of fertilization because the act of fertilization actually is the combining of a mature, haploid sperm containing I C amount of DNA with a secondary oocyte which is haploid but since each of the 23 chromosomes is composed of 2 chromatids (46 chromatids total) the C amount of DNA in the secondary oocyte is 2C. Fertilization is the stimulus for the secondary oocyte to complete meiosis II.

A & B are correct E. ciliary body & ciliary processes C. 4=anterior chamber. 4=stratified squamous epithelium. 1-4-3-6-5-2 C. iris D. aniridia .SECTION 18: EYE AND EAR 18. 1-6-4-3-2-5 18.002 Which of the following are members of the vascular middle coat (uvea) of the eyeball? A. 1-6-3-4-5-2 18. 1-3-6-2-4-5 D. 5=endothelium. 1-3-4-5-6-2 B.001 Arrange the following layers in proper sequence for light transmission from outside to inside the eye through the cornea: 1=tears. A. 1-5-4-6-3-2 D. 6=posterior chamber.003 Arrange the following in proper sequence for circulation of aqueous humor: 1=made on surface of ciliary processes. 3 =pupil. 6=substantia propria.004 Children born with a deletion located on chromosome # 11 usually have which of the following conditions? A. 2=Bowman's membrane. 5=canal of Schlemm. A & B & C are correct 18. 3=Descemet's membrane. 1-4-2-6-3-5 B. 1-213-3-6-5 C. A. 2=enters episcleral veins. choroid B.

A & B are correct E. D.006 In a patient with Homer's ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) due to carcinoma of the apex of the lung invading regional tissue. Wilm's tumor (a form of cancer of the kidney) C. tension is lost in what structure? A. is correct. 5=outer nuclear layer. is correct. 1-5-3-4-2-6-7 E. 1-4-3-2-5-6-7 D. D.005 Arrange the following structures in correct sequence for light transmission through the retina to the outer segments of the rods and cones: 1=lens. Congenital cataract is associated with Rubella infection. is correct. 3=bi-polar neurons. 4=outer plexiform layer. congenital cataract D. 2=ganglion cell layer.B. 1-3-5-4-6-2-7 C. A. E. is correct. not with a deletion on chromosome #I I E. The uvea is composed of these three subdivisions. is correct. 18. 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 B. Mueller's muscle C. 7=stack of membranous discs. 1-6-2-34-5-7 A. A & B & C are correct 18. palpebral conjunctiva . 6=layer of optic nerve fibers. orbicularis oculi B.

fovea centralis C.009 Tenon's space permits the eyeball to move in all directions in response to contraction of the appropriate extraocular muscles.010 Where in the eye do collagen fibers run parallel to each other in their own layer. choroid and suprachoroid layers B. retinal extensions anterior to the ora serrata B. innermost layer anterior to the ora serrata B. episclera . 18. sclera B. sclera and episclera E.D. optic disc D. lacrimal duct E. tarsal plate 18. episclera and the dense connective tissue layer outward from it D.008 Where in the eye is the "blind spot" located? A. but at about 90 degrees to those fibers running parallel in an adjacent layer? A. sclera and suprachoroid layers C. innermost layer at point of exit of the optic n. Between what structures or layers is Tenon's space located? A. 18. dura and pia mater associated with the optic n. retinal layer posterior to the ora serrata 18.007 In which of the following regions would you expect to find photosensitive retina? A. innermost layer posterior to the ora serrata C. innermost layer at the optic disc D.

Tenons space.011 What two structures join or meet each other at the limbus of the eye? A. C. choroid E. substantia propria (stroma) of the cornea 18. is correct. iris and ciliary body E. Tenons capsule D. The optic disc is the blind spot because it does not contain the 10 layers typical of the photosensitive retina. ciliary body and ciliary processes D. It is separated from a dense connective tissue layer peripheral to it (Tenons capsule) by a space. is correct. B. is correct. The photosensitive retina is a multilayered structure which "begins" at the ora serrate as one "proceeds" from anterior to posterior in the eyeball. C. Normal contraction/tension of Mueller's muscle helps keep the upper eyelid from closing. is correct. nonphotosensitive and photosensitive retinas C. exiting the eye. The external or outer surface of the sclera is called the episclera. Mueller's muscle is innervated by sympathetic fibers arising from the cervical sympathetic ganglia which can be destroyed by carcinoma of the apex of the lung. bulbar conjunctiva and palpebral conjunctiva B. cornea and sclera B. . Loss of this stimulation results in ptosis.C. is correct. E. Mueller's muscle is a few strands of smooth muscle superiorly attached to the superior edge of the tarsal plate or the palpebral fascia. The optic disc is where the optic nerve exits the eyeball headed to the brain. The optic nerve is a collection of the axons from the ganglion cells.

vitreous body C. E. choriocapillary layer of choroid 18.014 As you look at the top of Pike's Peak from the plain below what is happening in your eyes? A. 18. 1-6-4-5-3-2 D. ciliary muscle is relaxed C. 1-3-54-6-2 B. pigmented layer of retina B. The limbus is that circular region where the cornea meets the sclera. Choices "C" and "D" have no official name. 1-4-3-5-6-2 C. suprachoroidal lamina D. sclera E. 5=Bruch's membrane.012 Arrange the following layers/structures in proper sequence encountered by a pin as it moves from the center of the eye outward: 1=vitreous. 1-5-4-3-6-2 18. 4=choriocapsularis of choroid. 6=suprachoroidal lamina. For choice "B" ora serrata would apply. 2=Tenon's capsule. 3=pigmented layer of retina. lens is stretched thin B. A & B are correct . ciliary muscle is contracted D. 1-5-6-3-4-2 E.013 Which of the following provides the retina with nourishment? A. For choice "A" superior or inferior fornix would apply.This is a characteristic of the stroma of the cornea which contributes to the fact that in the living state it is transparent. A. is correct.

is correct. the ciliary muscle.016 Normally what retains the tear film in the conjunctival sac and prevents it from moving anteriorly onto the skin surface of the eyelids? A. secretion of the glands of Moll C. is correct. In accommodation for far or distant vision the ciliary muscle relaxes. The inner regions of the retina receive nourishment from the retinal blood vessels. takes the tension off the ciliary zonules and permits the lens to attain its normal shape=thick.e. A & B & C are correct 18. is correct. the ciliary muscle contracts. Relaxing a circle.015 Where in the eye is vitamin A esterified for the rods and cones? A. The outer regions of the retina receive nourishment from the many small vessels found in the innermost layer of the choroid. increases the tension on the ciliary zonules which in turn stretches the lens thin. D. choriocapillary layer of choroid B. eyelashes E. accommodating for far vision. i. is correct.E. Contracting a circle. tarsal plate A. E. secretion of the meibomian glands D. pigmented layer of retina E. inner plexiform layer of retina D. Constant contraction of the ciliary muscle for prolonged periods of time can be detected as "tired eyes". In accommodation for near vision such as reading these questions. . secretion of the glands of Zeiss B. Amacrine cells of retina 18. Tired eyes can be relaxed by looking at distant objects. outer plexiform layer of retina C. D.

2=incur.019 A slow change in the position of the head will cause which of the following to occur? A. movement of the cupulae C. is correct. 1-2-3-4-6-5 18.One of the functions of the pigmented cells of the outermost layer of the retina is to prepare vitamin A and transport it to the rods and cones. 1-6-4-3-2-5 B. A. 1-4-6-5-3-2 E. 1-4-6-2-3-5 D. The cells of the pigmented layer of the retina also phagocytize and digest the released apical parts of the outer segments of the rods and cones. movement of the otoliths B.018 Place the following structures in proper sequence for the passage of sound waves into the ear: 1=external auditory canal.017 Arrange the following structures in proper anatomical sequence for the production and transport of tears: 1=serous acinus. 1-4-5-3-6-2 C. 1-6-4-5-3-2 18. The meibomian glands generate an oily substance which acts as a moisture barrier to evaporation of the tear film. 1-6-2-3-4-5 C. movement of the basilar membrane . 5=oval window. 4=tympanic membrane. 6=malleus. 1-3-6-2-4-5 E. 5=lacrimal sac. 2=inferior meatus. 3=nasolacrimal duct. 3=foot plate of the stapes. 18. 1-3-4-5-6-2 B. 1-5-4-6-3-2 D. 4=lacrimal canaliculi. A. C. 6=lacrimal puncta.

020 Where do the scala tympani and Scala vestibuli communicate with each other? A. lower part near round window B. outer tunnel C. is correct. helicotrema 18. The otoliths in the maculae of the saccule and utricle are heavy enough to be displaced by gravity whereas the cupulae of the cristae ampullares. middle region C. Changes in the position of the head are detected by the otoliths displacing the hair cells of the maculae.D. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the scala vestibuli B. upper part near helicotrema 18. being much lighter. D. is correct. is correct.022 The vestibular membrane moves downward toward the Scala tympani: A. is correct. endolymphatic duct D. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity E. C. inner tunnel B. The scala tympani and the scala vestibuli share a common opening at the top of . movement of the tectorial membrane E. A.021 A high pitched frequency causes which part of the basilar membrane to vibrate? A. need more acceleration to move them. Changes in angular acceleration are detected by the displacement of the hair cells of the cristae ampullares. movement of the foot plate of the stapes 18.

when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18.025 The basilar membrane moves downward toward the scala tympani: A.027 The stereocilia on the hair cells in the organ of Corti are bent toward the stria vascularis: A. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the scala vestibuli B. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18.028 The hair cells in the organ of Corti release some neurotransmitter which causes depolarization of bipolar neurons in the spiral ganglion: A. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the Scala vestibuli B. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the scala vestibuli B.the modiolus. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the scala vestibuli . when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the scala vestibuli B. is correct. A. The basilar membrane is "tuned" to be maximally receptive to differences in the frequency of the vibrations entering the ear. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18.026 The stereocilia on the hair cells in the organ of Corti are bent toward the modiolus: A.023 The basilar membrane moves upward toward the scala vestibuli: A. A.024 The covering of the round window bulges outward into the tympanic cavity: A. 18. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18. is correct. when the foot plate of the stapes moves inward toward the Scala vestibuli B. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18. Low pitch sounds cause maximal oscillations of the basilar membrane near the helicotrema.

is correct. is correct. A. not aqueous humor. do NOT touch or contain aqueous humor B. when the foot plate of the stapes moves outward into the tympanic cavity 18. is correct. B.032 The canal of Schlemm: A. A. is correct. A.029 The posterior capsule of the lens: A. 18. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor . touches or contains aqueous humor B.031 The inner limiting membrane of the retina: A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. is correct. touches or contains aqueous humor B. touches or contains aqueous humor B.030 Ciliary processes: A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. is correct. The ciliary processes are the site of manufacture for the aqueous humor. B.B. touch or contains aqueous humor B. is correct. is correct. B. A. The posterior capsule of the lens would face or touch the vitreous body.

039 The anterior capsule of the lens: A. touches or contains aqueous humor B.033 The pupil: A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18.038 The posterior pigmented layer of the iris (iridial retina): A. is correct. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18.034 The fovea centralis: A. The inner most layer of the ten layered retina is its inner limiting membrane.035 The ora serrata: A.036 The endothelium of cornea: A. . touches or contains aqueous humor B. touches or contains aqueous humor B. touches or contains aqueous humor B. touches or contains aqueous humor B. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18.18. touches or contains aqueous humor B. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor B.037 The posterior chamber: A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. This part of the retina therefore touches the vitreous body. touches or contains aqueous humor B.

A. The fovea centralis is the region of most acute vision in the retina. i.040 The blind spot: . This endothelium touches aqueous humor filling the anterior chamber of the eye. B. is correct. A. The posterior pigmented layer of the iris (iridial retina) is one of the anterior boundaries of the posterior chamber and therefore touches aqueous humor in the posterior chamber. is correct. The pupil is the hole through which aqueous humor flows from the posterior chamber into the anterior chamber. B. The anterior capsule of the lens forms part of the posterior boundary of the posterior chamber of the eye. Since the posterior chamber is filled with aqueous humor the anterior surface of the lens touches this aqueous humor. is correct. is correct.A. is correct. A. is correct. A. Since the ora serrata is posterior to the ciliary process and their zonules.e. The canal of Schlemm is the drainage route for aqueous humor exiting the anterior chamber. The ora serrata is the junction between the 10 layered photosensitive retina posteriorly and the 2 layered non-photosensitive retina anterior to it. is correct. the ora seirata touches the vitreous body. It touches the most posterior aspect of the vitreous body. The most posterior aspect of the cornea is its endothelium. on the surface of the ciliary processes and on the posterior side of the iris. is correct. The posterior chamber of the eye is filled with aqueous humor which is produced by the ciliary processes. 18. A.

the short ciliary nerves have NOT fired 18. the short ciliary nerves have fired B. the short ciliary nerves have NOT fired B.044 Contraction of the dilator of the pupil occurs if A. .045 Tension on the ciliary zonules is increased when: A. the short ciliar nerves have NOT fired 18. the short ciliary nerves have NOT fired 18. the short ciliary nerves have fired B. the short ciliary nerves have fired B.041 The pigmented epithelium of the retina: A.042 Contraction of the ciliary smooth muscle occurs if A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. is correct. the short ciliary nerves have fired B.A.047 The lens becomes unstretched and thicker if A.046 The lens becomes stretched and thinner when: A. the short ciliary nerves have NOT fired 18. the short ciliary nerves have fired B.043 Contraction of the sphincter of the pupil occurs if A. does NOT touch or contain aqueous humor 18. touches or contains aqueous humor B. touches or contains aqueous humor B. the short ciliary nerves have fired B. the short ciliar nerves have NOT fired 18.

The optic disc or blind spot touches the posterior aspect of the vitreous body. when they fire to contract the ciliary body.048 Tension on the ciliary zonules is decreased if . This is accomplished by relaxing the circular ciliary body. B. There is no photosensitive retina in this region of the optic disc. Since the sphincter of the pupil is innervated by the short ciliary nerves. This pulls at the edges of the lens and stretches the lens to a thinner shape. is correct. The dilator of the pupil is innervated by sympathetic postganglionic fibers. the ciliary smooth muscle contracts. is correct. Since the short ciliary nerves are parasympathetic postganglinic fibers.The blind spot is the area of the eye where the optic nerve exits the eye on its way to the brain. B. By not firing the short ciliary nerves. A. The short ciliary nerves innervate the ciliary muscle. the sphincter of the pupil also contracts. not aqueous humor. Firing the short ciliary nerves contracts the circular ciliary body and this releases the tension on the lens allowing it to attain its normal "fat" shape. the circular ciliary body relaxes and this increases the diameter of the circle in which the lens is suspended by the ciliary zonules. is correct. the sympathetic postganglionic fibers innervating the dilator need to fire. Increasing tension on the ciliary zonules will pull the lens flat. 18. So. The pigmented epithelium comprising the outermost layer of the retina is far away from the aqueous humor in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. B. when the short ciliary nerves fire. A. B. is correct. is correct. is correct. firing of these nerves would have no effect on the dilator of the pupil. A. is correct. To get a contraction of the dilator smooth muscle.

051 The bipolar neuron.052 The cone is: A. rod B.050 The ganglion cell is: A. the short ciliary nerves have NOT fired 18. cone C. a first order neuron in the visual-neural pathway B. a third order neuron in the visual-neural pathway 18. a third order neuron in the visual-neural pathway 18. a second order neuron in the visual-neural pathway C. a first order neuron in the visual-neural pathway B. a second order neuron in the visual-neural pathway C.053 Which of the following contain(s) rhodopsin? A. is: A. the cell body of which is in the inner nuclear layer of the retina. a second order neuron in the visual-neural pathway C. a third order neuron in the visual-neural pathway 18. the short ciliary nerves have fired B. neither of the above . a third order neuron in the visual-neural pathway 18. a first order neuron in the visual-neural pathway B. a first order neuron in the visual-neural pathway B.A.049 The rod is: A. a second order neuron in the visual-neural pathway C. both of the above D.

The external limiting membrane is one of the ten layers of the retina. look at a distant object. is correct. A. The ganglion cell is the third order neuron in the visual pathway as it receives synaptic input from axons of the bipolar neurons. To rest your eyes. The bipolar neurons of the inner nuclear layer receive synaptic input from axons of the rods and cones. A. both of the above D. A. The photopigment of the rod is rhodopsin. is correct. The rod or the cone actually represents the first neuron in the visual pathway. In this accommodation for far vision the ciliary muscle is not contracted. C.18. If you "uncontract" a circle. neither of the above A. is correct. is correct. Contraction of the circular ciliary body muscle will take tension off of the ciliary zonules. is correct. C. This accommodation is for near vision. from which the lens is suspended by the ciliary zonules. as for reading. tension will be placed on the zonules as the circle widens or opens. B. is correct. is correct.054 Which of the following traverse or pass through the external limiting membrane of the retina? A. It actually is . This allows the lens to return to its normal fatter or thicker shape. rod B. Your eyes get tired after a while because of the sustained contraction of the ciliary muscle. cone C. Rods and cones represent the first order neurons in the visual pathway. This tension will pull the lens flat and a flat lens is needed for far vision.

056 Which of the following contain(s) an inner segment? A. Both the rod and the cone "penetrate" the external limiting membrane. neither of the above 18. rod B. rod B.055 Which of the following contain(s) an outer segment? A. cone C. both of the above D. cone C.057 Iodopsin is found in which of the following? A. rod . 18. cone C. cone C.composed of junctional complexes between cells giving the faint effect of a line which can be seen with the LM.059 Flattened membranous discs are found in which of the following? A. neither of the above 18. rod B. both of the above D.058 A cilium is found on which of the following? A. neither of the above 18. both of the above D. neither of the above 18. both of the above D. rod B.

etc. blue and green. Both the rod and the cone contain outer segments. B. is correct.060 Flattened membranous discs continuous with or connected to the plasmalemma are found in? A. the plasmalemma are characteristic for which of the following? A. cone C. cone C. C. red. both of the above D. Rhodopsin is the photopigment of the rod cell. is correct. rod B. lysosomes. Both the rod and the cone contain a part of the entire cell referred to as the inner segment. The outer segments contain stacks of membranous discs which contain the photopigments characteristic of the rod or the cone. neither of the above 18.B. RER. and chemical variations of the iodopsin account for the three color classes of cones. neither of the above 18.061 Flattened membranous discs which are independent from. or do not communicate or connect with. rod B. The inner segments contain the regular organelle components such as mitochondria. outward from the inner segments. neither of the above C. . Iodopsin is the cone photopigment. both of the above D. both of the above D. is convect. cone C.

the flattened membranous discs of the cone. are invaginations of the plasmalemma. is correct. both of the above D. is correct.064 Which of the following is (are) reverting postmitotics? A. is correct. Both the rod and the cone have a cilium arrangement connecting the inner and outer segments. both rods and cones in equal numbers 18. This is an ultrastructural feature which can be used to distinguish between rods and cones. rod B. neither of the above . cone C. rod B. B. neither of the above 18.062 Which of the following is/are concentrated in the fovea centralis? A. both of the above D. Unlike the rod. C. rod B.063 Which of the following is/are fixed postmitotics? A. cone C. Both the rod and the cone have flattened membranous discs stacked up in their outer segments. 18. A.C. cone C. is correct.

cerebrospinal fluid 18. both endolymph and perilymph E. perilymph C. perilymph C. endolymph B. perilymph C. both endolymph and perilymph E. air D. blood 18.065 Which of the following is found in the scala media? A. blood 18. air D. both endolymph and perilymph E. endolymph B. endolymph B. both endolymph and perilymph . perilymph C.067 Which of the following is found in the scala vestibuli? A. air D. endolymph B.18. air D.066 Which of the following is found in the scala tympani? A.068 Which of the following is found in the lumen of the auditory tube? A.

In addition to being composed of only cone cells. cerebrospinal fluid B. perilymph 18. endolymph B. Rods and cones are very specialized cells which in effect are the first order neurons in the visual-neural pathway.070 Which of the following has a relatively high concentration of potassium? A.E. C. is correct. endolymph . C. not endolymph or perilymph. They are non-replicating cells or fixed postmitotic cells like all other adult neurons. The scala vestibuli is a named space or division of the bony labyrinth which lies outside of the cochlear duct on the vestibular membrane side of the cochlear duct. 18. and therefore are classified as fixed postmitotics from a cell cycle kinetic point of view. The region of most acute vision in the retina is the fovea centralis. B. is correct. A. is correct. Rods and cones are non-replicators like neurons. the innermost several layers of the retina are missing in this region giving light a relatively unobstructed path to the outer segments of the cones. The lumen of the Eustachian tube contains air. B. The scala media is another name for the cochlear duct. is correct. is correct. The cochlear duct is a membranous labyrinth structure and therefore is filled with endolymph. D. is correct. is correct. It is a rod-free area.069 Which of the following is found inside the bony labyrinth but outside the membranous labyrinth? A.

perilymph 18. cerebrospinal fluid 18.075 Which of the following "touches" the vestibular membrane? . air D. cerebrospinal fluid 18.071 Which of the following contains a relatively high concentration of sodium? A. perilymph C. air D. perilymph C.B. perilymph 18. both endolymph and perilymph E. endolymph B. endolymph B. endolymph B. air D. blood E.074 Which of the following flows through both the inner and the outer tunnels in organ of Corti? A. endolymph B.073 Which of the following "touches" the cupulae of the cristae ampullares? A. perilymph C. both endolymph and perilymph E.072 Which of the following "touches" the otoliths of the maculae? A. blood 18.

is correct. Since the organ of Corti "sits" on the basilar membrane it "sits" in the endolymph of the cochlear duct and this endolymph flows through the various tunnels in the organ of Corti. Since the vestibular membrane "divides" the scala vestibuli from the scala media . A.A. is correct. The cristae ampullares are ridges of specialized cells which protrude into the endolymph of the semicircular ducts. A. Since potassium is "K" it is close to "E" in the alphabet and that makes it easy to associate potassium with endolymph. Perilymph has a high amount of sodium in it. The maculae of the utricle and saccule are components of the membranous labyrinth and therefore are filled with endolymph. perilymph C. The membranous labyrinth. D. The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph. endolymph B. is correct. is correct. is filled with endolymph. The endolymph has a high concentration of potassium. is correct. is correct. One way to remember if it is the endolymph or the perilymph which has the high sodium concentration is as follows: since the "n" of Na is close to P in the alphabet it is easy to associate the two and remember that perilymph has the Na. is correct. both endolymph and perilymph E. B. A. blood B. A. air D. which is suspended from and lies within the bony labyrinth.

perilymph C. 18.076 Which of the following fills the semicircular canals? A. air D. cerebrospinal fluid 18. cerebrospinal fluid 18. blood E.(cochlear duct) it (the vestibular membrane) is "touched" by both endolymph and perilymph. perilymph C. endolymph B. neither of the above . endolymph B. air D.079 Which of the following is/are secreted by the stria vascularis? A. endolymph B. blood E. perilymph C.078 Which of the following fills the middle ear cavity? A.077 Which of the following fills the semicircular ducts? A. blood E. endolymph B. air D. cerebrospinal fluid 18. perilymph applies C.

Many of these epithelial cells contain basal infoldings and lots of mitochondria and are believed to be the source of endolymph. is correct. A. not endolymph. It is the structures of the membranous labyrinth which are filled with endolymph. both of the above B. C. is correct. is correct. The semicircular canals (not ducts) are components of the bony labyrinth (not membranous labyrinth) and are filled with perilymph. . The stria vascularis is a highly vascularized area in the lateral wall of the cochlear duct. not the bony labyrinth. The semicircular ducts represent components of the membranous labyrinth. is correct. The middle ear cavity is filled with air and the air pressure in this cavity can be equalized with that of the nasopharynx via the auditory (Eustachian) tube. The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph which is outside of the walls of the membranous labyrinth. A.D.

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