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331.

A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has

a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority 332. Stall warning will be given # a) before stall b) after stall c) at stall 333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to # a) log relevant maintenance data b) transmits to the CMC c) provides details of defect action 334. How are spoilers normally operated? # a) Hydraulic actuator b) Air pistons c) Electrical motors 335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered 336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time b) one generator always comes on line before the other # c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled Page 38 - Mod 13 337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft b) when the battery is fully charged # c) in the charging room only

338. When removing the load from a current transformer # a) short the terminals b) place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open 339. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees # b) 110 degrees c) 180 degrees 340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b b) c and d # c) e and f 341. When paralleling two AC generators # a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase 342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that # a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator 343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b) prevents slip and skid in yaw # c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn 344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals b) integrating deviation signals # c) integrating course error signals Page 39 - Mod 13

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause a) the pointer to read zero b) the pointer to read mid scale # c) the pointer to read full scale 346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to # a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g 347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed # b) decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed 348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's a) lateral axis # b) longitudinal axis c) vertical axis 349. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band # b) UHF band c) VHF band 350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b) aircraft to overbank # c) aircraft to remain in level flight 351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are # a) DC b) AC c) pulsed DC 352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade b) capacitance bridge c) inductance decade 353. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters # b) engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters Page 40 - Mod 13 354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when # a) the flaps are moving down b) the flap are moving up c) the flap are moving up or down 355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational b) passive # c) simplex 356. DSR TK (desired track) means # a) the bearing to capture the track b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track 357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from # a) the barometric alt capsule b) a rad alt output c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height 358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated # b) AM Modulated c) modulated with a 9960Hz 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will # a) retard the throttle b) reverse thrust

c) control throttle for a IAS 360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the a) amplitude b) frequency # c) rate of frequency change 361. The normal axis on a helicopter is # a) straight down the rotor head b) at 90o to the C of G c) at 90o to the rotor head 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used # a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b) make the audio signal clearer c) an Americanisum for volume Page 41 - Mod 13 363. A GPS aerial is polarised a) vertically b) horizontally # c) right hand circular 364. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual # c) manufacture 365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR b) stop arcing between the wave guide # c) stop moisture entering the wave guide 366. An RMI requires the following inputs: # a) Heading and radio deviation b) Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only

367. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only b) roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel 368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called # a) transient droop b) static droop c) under swing 369. Loran C Uses a) 16 KHz b) 20 Mhz # c) 100 Khz 370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is # a) 50% of control movement b) 10% of control movement c) full control movement 371. GPS Telemetry consists of a) week number and time label b) satellite position information c) 8 bits of preamble and position information Page 42 - Mod 13 372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90o b) 180o c) 0o 373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual # b) JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8 374. The rotor disc is # a) the distance between tip to tip

b) the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion 375. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting 376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display? a) 90o b) 0o # c) 180o 377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would a) continue on flying on the localizer # b) fly parallel to the localizer c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are # a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are a) not less than 100 ft. # b) not less than 200 ft. c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft. 380. When GA is initiated? a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles # c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust Page 43 - Mod 13 381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are # a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.

b) G/S deviation and radio altitude. c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation 382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b) visual indication and nosewheel steering c) visual indication and rudder control 283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system. # b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system. 384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels # b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach 285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will # a) retard throttle to idle. b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust. 386. Roll out mode occurs # a) after flare b) before flare c) at alert height 287. High and low signal to voter are a) average b) removed c) added 388. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting # b) signal comparison c) signal summing 389. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system # b) the pilot can input to the system c) yaw damping is only possible signal input Page 44 - Mod 13 390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable b) the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed 391. in parallel rudder system, a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals # b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected 292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is a) AC b) DC # c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input 393. An increase in mach number will cause the # a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane 394. If one FMS fails in a duel system a) system operation will not be affected b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank # c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer 395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS # a) use database loader b) insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU 396. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check

# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 397. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) Move as the aircraft moves c) Stay fixed on magnetic north Page 45 - Mod 13 399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 400. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation b) Radio deviation # c) Course deviation 402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft # b) When reached a desired altitude

c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available 405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are # a) lift, drag thrust, weight b) lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift Page 46 - Mod 13 407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? # a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control 408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? # a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 409. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles # b) 25 miles

c) 40 miles 411. With a spring balance control system you can a) move the control surface on the ground b) move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground 412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively 413. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b) Longitudinal c) Normal Page 47 - Mod 13 416. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 417. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating? a) 030 b) 060 c) 090 421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft b) 5,000ft # c) 18,000ft 422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be? # a) Left Rudder b) Right Rudder c) No Rudder 423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab? a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface # c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface Page 48 - Mod 13 424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe

c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber 425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? # a) Stick Shaker b) Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning 426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up b) go one wing down c) nose down 427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal? # a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b) It will fly in circles c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount # b) it will fly in circles c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation? a) Red b) Amber c) White 430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? # a) FM b) Pulse c) FM and Pulse 431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete c) They Disappear out of view

432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? # a) Normal b) Longitudinal c) Lateral Page 49 - Mod 13 433. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser # b) elevator c) spoilers 434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes # a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b) all the elevators on each wing to move up c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up 435. What are ground spoilers used for? # a) To dump lift b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft 436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command? # a) Control Wheel b) Control Column c) Rudder Pedals 437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? # a) 3000 psi b) 1000 psi c) 300 psi 438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must # a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger b) defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead

439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure? a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG 440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure? a) 0.5 # b) 1 ohm c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? # a) Drag Strut b) Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber Page 50 - Mod 13 442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? # a) Increasing in lift b) Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag 443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? # a) 10% approximately b) 100% c) 50% 444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC # b) Polarity sensitive DC c) Either 445. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude # b) Last Known Latitude c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have? a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input # b) The cyclic lever will not move c) The flight director bars only will move 447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? # a) Through the ground test function b) Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function 448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? # a) The voltage activity in the servo amp b) Trim tab position c) Control surface position 449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62 # b) 42 c) 20 450. When using a bonding tester you # a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing Page 51 - Mod 13 451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? # a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades 452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances b) Velocity # c) Pressure changes

453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved? a) It remains in the neutral position b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface 454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? # a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off b) Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection 455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by # a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer 456. What is the glide slope frequency range? a) 108 - 112 Mhz b) 108 - 112 Ghz # c) 329 - 335 Mhz 457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte # b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage 458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in a) increase in lift without an increase in power b) decrease in lift c) decrease in speed 459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound # b) Clacking sound c) Horn sound Page 52 - Mod 13 460. What is a slot used for?

# a) To reinforce the boundary layer b) Increased angle of attack during approach c) Increase the speed of the airflow 461. ADF is a) Rho b) Theta c) Rho-Theta 462. A Boost Gauge reads a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure # b) absolute pressure c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure 463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and # a) relative air flow b) tip path plane c) horizontal axis 464. If cyclic is moved to the right a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another b) the rotor blades on the right flap down c) the rotor blades on the left flap down 465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz b) 2 - 6 GHz # c) 100 KHz 466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down? a) Decrease stall speed b) Increase stall speed c) Have no effect on the stall speed 467. A high lift device is used for # a) take off and landing b) take off only

c) landing only 468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls? a) Frame b) Bulkhead c) Stringer Page 53 - Mod 13 469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission? # a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area 470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100 b) 50 c) 20 471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer? a) Material of the coil b) Material of the sensing element c) Material of the indicator needle 472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal b) continue to roll further c) remain at the position that it had rolled to 473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? a) Spoiler to aileron b) Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator 474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better b) To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better

475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is # a) underswing b) overswing c) a hole in one 476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b) it will display the airfield height above sea level c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes b) in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes Page 54 - Mod 13 478. What is aileron droop? a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b) One aileron lowered c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on 479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive c) By a swashplate 480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation 481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is # a) semi rigid b) rigid c) fully articulating 482. Earths atmosphere is

a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen 483. A thermocouple a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added b) cannot be shortened c) can be shortened 484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? a) Bellows and diaphragm b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature c) Press relief valve 485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by a) webs b) outer plate c) inner plate 486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) 60 b) 63 c) 1000 Page 55 - Mod 13 487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade a) increases at the tip b) increases at the root c) is unaffected by blade position 488. TCAS II is a) 10 aircraft per square mile b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square 489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor

b) loop voltage c) Chinaman 490. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator b) flight control computer c) straight to the actuator 491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors a) certain parameters b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC 492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere a) increase with the frequency b) decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency 493. What is lapse rate? a) Pressure changes with altitude # b) Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude 494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when a) the flaps are lowered b) at higher speeds c) the landing gear is extended 495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature b) Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery Page 56 - Mod 13 496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down b) Elevator down, right aileron down c) Elevator up, right aileron down

497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch? a) Outer gimbal b) Gyro case c) Instrument case 498. DC power into the GCU comes from a) main battery bus b) main battery bus and ground service c) ground service 499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule # b) 2 capsules c) 3 capsules 500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will a) move up b) move down c) remain at the same place 501. Spring tabs a) cannot be adjusted in flight b) can be adjusted in the flight deck c) cannot be adjusted 502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will a) increase b) decrease c) remain 503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis b) lateral axis # c) longitudinal axis 504. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 %

# b) 20 % c) 10 % Page 57 - Mod 13 505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll b) increases roll c) come back to level flight 506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? a) ASI b) Machmeter c) VSI 507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease # b) increase c) remain the same 508. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & trip occurs 509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s # b) Elevons c) Ailerons 510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? # a) Up Elevator b) Left rudder c) Down elevator 511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag # b) Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only

512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have? # a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds b) Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only 513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? a) Heading error b) Course error c) Radio deviation Page 58 - Mod 13 514. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection # b) Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing 515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B b) B and C c) E and F 516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? a) Bellows or diaphragm b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil 517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as # a) Coefficient B b) Coefficient A c) Coefficient C 518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession? a) Increase b) Remain unaffected c) Decrease 519. A 'q' feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief 520. ADF operates within which frequencies? # a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz 521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? a) Roll out # b) Flare c) Touchdown 522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b) LNAV # c) CRZ Page 59 - Mod 13 523. Mode C response is a) 21microseconds b) 12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds 524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system? # a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table 525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by a) climb b) descent c) roll 526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites

c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 527. The term `circling current' refers to a) AC generators b) AC and DC Generators c) DC generators 528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it? a) LH side b) RH side c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter) 529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line # c) aircraft flies in circles 530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG b) CSD c) swash plate 531. WX radar display the time base is # a) saw tooth wave form b) trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form Page 60 - Mod 13 532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will a) stay on centre of course b) stay parallel to course c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing 533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is a) to increase GS signal

b) to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal 534. A helicopter needs to re-trim # a) indication is shown on the API b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator 535. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro b) an RVDT c) an LVDT 536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure 538. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification b) amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification 540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? a) Decoder b) Blocking oscillator c) Integrator

Page 61 - Mod 13 541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be a) 80 ohms b) 200 ohms c) more than 20 mega ohms 542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI b) Flight director computer c) both of the above 543. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade 544. When the flaps are lowered a) the lift vector moves forward b) the lift vector moves rearward c) there is no effect on the lift vector 545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a # a) large increase in lift and drag b) small increase in lift and drag c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag 546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b) between the aerial and ATU c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end) 547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning

c) the trim system is out of datum 548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually a) dependent on aircraft altitude b) 100% c) chosen as a compromise 549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive # c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive Page 62 - Mod 13 550. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30 b) +/- 42 c) +/- 62 551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90 # b) 180 c) 0 552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when # a) flaps are retracted b) landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended 553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station? # a) 96 nautical miles b) 100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles 554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? # a) 10 b) 5 c) 2.5

555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz # b) 118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz 556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal b) below the carrier signal # c) No sidebands present 557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around b) audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only Page 63 - Mod 13 558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions # a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure a) to the control wheel b) to the control column c) to the rudder pedals 560. On a modern aircraft about to stall a) the outboard slats extend automatically b) engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically 561. Wing can spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing # c) To assist the elevators 562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure

b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet 563. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously # c) yaw and roll simultaneously 564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move 565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna Page 64 - Mod 13 566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass # b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only 567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 degrees # b) 3 degrees c) 5 degrees 568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error

569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) Parallax error # b) Surface reflection c) Static to avoid dust attraction 570. Versine signal is governed by a) roll # b) pitch c) yaw 571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4% # b) 7% c) 10.321% 572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is a) 20 inches # b) 24 inches c) 28 inches 573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with a) an inclinometer b) micrometer c) spirit level Page 65 - Mod 13 574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by # a) Tachogenerator b) Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor 575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are a) down b) neutral

c) droop 576. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution b) range accuracy # c) bearing resolution 577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage? a) 115V b) 345V # c) 460V 578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the a) opening dia. of pitot head b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates c) external dia of pitot head 579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication # a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment b) it does not have any adjustment c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments 580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted a) in series with the field winding b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output 581. When can wing spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing c) To assist the elevators 582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet Page 66 - Mod 13

583. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously c) yaw and roll simultaneously 584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move 585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna 586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass. # b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously on each heading. c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading only. 587. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 Degree # b) 3 Degree c) 5 Degree 588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error 589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) parallax error.

# b) surface reflection. c) static to avoid dust attraction. 590. Versine signal is governed by a) roll # b) pitch c) yaw Page 67 - Mod 13 591. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency b) decreases output voltage # c) increases output voltage and increases frequency 592. Inductive reactive load causes a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated # c) increase in torque only 593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work b) reactive power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work 594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by # a) angle of swash plate b) IDG c) restriction valve 595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery b) short circuits # c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults 596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be # a) stationary b) rotating at idle

c) rotating at Nsync 597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to # a) enable generators to be paralleled b) prevent engine overload c) maintain constant load on the generator 598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is # a) activation of the time delay circuit b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay 599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the # a) CSD drives shaft had sheared b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative Page 68 - Mod 13 600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will a) decrease and amperage output increases b) increases and amperage output increases # c) remain constant and amperage output increases 601. Battery trays are a) metal for earthing purposes # b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte 602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel b) series # c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option 603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth b) Positive to battery relay

# c) Positive to external power relay 604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is a) 71 degrees F # b) 144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C 605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by # a) constant voltage b) constant current c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage 606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21 # b) Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21 607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length # b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length Page 69 - Mod 13 608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is # a) stationary b) fluctuating c) pulse width modulating 609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors b) diodes and transformers # c) zeners and transistors 610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by a) voltage coil b) current coil # c) voltage and current coil

1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed # c) decrease landing speed 2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag c) increases lift 3. Pushing the left rudder pedal # a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing 4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure b) Bonding and insulation tests # c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment 5. What do ruddervators do? # a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll 6. On a helicopter what is dragging? a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges # b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground 7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators b) Ailerons # c) Elevons 8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler

b) external doubler c) an intercostals 9. What does a trim tab do? # a) Eases control loading for pilot b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot Page 1 - Mod 13 10. How does a balance tab move? a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount # c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to 11. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b) 9th orbit c) 2nd orbit 12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b) AC bus # c) GND services 13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp # b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b) 090 # c) 180 15. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power b) Pulsed power c) Average power

16. What frequency increases radar relative range a) Long # b) Short c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change 17. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect 18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm Page 2 - Mod 13 19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you # a) 3 ft error b) 6ft error c) 12 foot error 20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width # b) narrowest width c) number of joints and bends 21. Which side of the pilot is the collective? # a) Left b) Right c) In-between legs 22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift b) No effect c) Increases thrust 23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers 24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio 25. Relative velocity of rotor # a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades 26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling? a) Increase # b) Decrease c) No effect 27. How many satellites required for GNS? a) 8 # b) 4 c) 6 90o apart Page 3 - Mod 13 28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing # c) recharging 29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit b) No effect c) Electrical systems shut down 30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees

b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees 31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected # c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure 32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR 33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors 35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting 36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged # b) after glideslope capture c) at any time Page 4 - Mod 13 37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the # a) decision height

b) intercept height c) alert height 38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters 39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway 40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR 41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b) produce a co-ordinated turn # c) block the Dutch roll frequency 42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels # b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach 43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error 44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD # b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

c) V/S and ALT ARM Page 5 - Mod 13 45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD 46. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power # b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers 47. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland 48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in # a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs 50. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial 51. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros

# b) synchros resolvers c) control synchro transformers 52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight b) prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron Page 6 - Mod 13 53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation # b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course 54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement # b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged 55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations 56. The GA mode is usually initiated by a) pressing a button on the control wheel # b) pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel 57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe 58. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check # b) call up the relevant page on the CDU

c) call up the relevant current status 59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed 60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency Page 7 - Mod 13 62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b) 25 ohms # c) 50 ohms 63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts 64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil 65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft # a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b) JAR OPS c) Maintenance Manual

66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed 67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b) 120 degrees # c) 140 degrees 68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done # a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only 69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? # a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity Page 8 - Mod 13 70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing 71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint # b) bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease 72. An elevator tab moves down # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b) to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking # a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b) 160ft c) 80ft 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces 76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU) # c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) 77. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile # b) Non-volatile c) Hard 78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG # b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Page 9 - Mod 13 79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS 80. The stall margin is controlled by

# a) EPR limits b) speed bug cursor c) angle of attack and flap position 81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged # c) only after take off 82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only # b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter 83. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b) Control of thrust reverser operation # c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers 84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare # b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold 85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 86. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m Page 10 - Mod 13 87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m # b) 60 m c) 0 m 88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point # a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals 89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 # b) 1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III # c) ILS system must be working 91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is a) mandatory b) a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed 92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b) by a selector on the throttle control panel # c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum 93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b) the decrab phase # c) start of flare phase 94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated # a) only when the autopilot is engaged b) at any time after autoland has been engaged

c) at any time 95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland a) ILS localiser an IAS b) IAS and glide slope # c) IAS and steering or heading Page 11 - Mod 13 96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b) rotate nose up # c) increase speed and rotate nose up 97. V NAV can be selected a) alone b) only if A/P and F/D selected c) only if A/T selected 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) system degrade to CAT II b) autoland is continued # c) go-around is initiated 99. The order of autoland approach is # a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD 100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b) assist with glide slope tracking # c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down 101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure 102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver a) is increased as the aircraft descends b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # c) is decreased as the aircraft descends 103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant Page 12 - Mod 13 105. on touchdown, auto pilot # a) remains engaged ready for G/A b) drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time 106. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. # b) before D.H. c) after D.H. 107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by a) the area navigation system # b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon 108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from # a) radio altimeter b) the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant 110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition # b) produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically 111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system # b) duplex system c) dual-dual system 112. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b) localiser and glideslope # c) decision height and runway visual range 113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height # b) Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal Page 13 - Mod 13 114. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR # b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters 115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim # b) continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim 116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? # a) Nose down bias

b) Nose up bias c) No signal 117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays? a) Ailerons b) Throttles # c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals 118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go # b) ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go 119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 120. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased # b) decreased c) is the same 122. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire and generator trip occurs Page 14 - Mod 13 123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is # a) 50 milliohms

b) 1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms 124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors # b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead 125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by # a) low spring tension b) bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis 126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b) Put a set resistance across the terminals # c) Leave the terminals open circuit 128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system b) Duplex system # c) Simplex system 130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be # a) painted in a conductive paint

b) painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure 131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively Page 15 - Mod 13 132. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature # c) Mach and Temp 133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b) Under the Fuselage # c) Either side of the Fuselage 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? # a) Tend to increase b) Tend to decrease c) Stay the same 135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity b) poor audio output c) poor volume output 137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

# b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS 138. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made 139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining 140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required Page 16 - Mod 13 141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of # a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz 142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree # b) 3 degree c) 5 degree 143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 # b) 045 c) 090 144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators # b) AC generators

c) AC & DC generators 145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the # a) spoiler b) leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps 146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b) 110 degree # c) 50 degree 147. Stall warning will be given at speeds # a) that are higher than stall speed b) that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed 148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights # b) Turning off the anti-collision lights c) Flashing the landing light 149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at # a) 1500 ft b) 2500 ft c) 3500 ft Page 17 - Mod 13 150. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator # b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus 151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to # a) excessive charging current b) insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage

152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b) disconnect the system if a fault appears # c) both a & b 153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour # b) amber c) red colour 154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 # b) 121.5 c) 118.00 155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only b) continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air 156. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch # c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to # a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b) remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB 158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b) Maintenance Manual # c) JAR OPS Page 18 - Mod 13 159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover?

a) 100 nm # b) 120 nm c) 140 nm 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial # b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is # a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator 162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b) decibels # c) relative amplitude 163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b) minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted 164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between # a) true north and magnetic north b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north 165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b) rate of ascent # c) rate of descent 166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 b) 24 c) 36

167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the # a) square of the speed b) square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed Page 19 - Mod 13 168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of # a) capsule elasticity b) capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship 169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank # b) aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight 170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal # a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency 171. During flare mode autothrottle will # a) retard throttles to idle b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust 172. A CSD is monitored for a) low temp and high oil pressure # b) high temp and low oil pressure c) 173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? # a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring b) its control is maintained by electric trim c) 175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac b) 200v ac # c) High voltage stepped up 176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is # a) zero b) full scale deflection c) centre scale Page 20 - Mod 13 177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance # b) increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance 178. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b) adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted 179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are # a) bulkheads b) longerons c) frame 180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by # a) excessive electrical loading b) high charge current c) low charge current 181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1. a) This is normal

b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx 182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks # b) damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks 183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. a) Cell is defective b) You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell 184. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b) TCAs only # c) all L band equipments including TCAS 185. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters Page 21 - Mod 13 186. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 187. When the captain calls attendant a) a high low chine and pink light comes on b) a low chine and blue light comes on c) a high chine and pink light comes on 188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b) a selcall light along with chine comes on

c) a chime sounds in the cockpit 189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected # b) the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift # b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle 191. IDG output voltage a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. # b) voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG 192. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal # b) rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error 193. When moving the control column # a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal ---------194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b) there is an increases tail plane up-force # c) there is an increased tailplane down-force Page 22 - Mod 13 195. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility # c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility 196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

# a) after reverse thrust is applied b) after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing 197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? # a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll 198. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank # b) a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb 199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door # b) Left wing c) Right wing 201. Shock stall a) is a flap down stall # b) occurs at high speeds c) occurs at low speeds 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by a) flapping b) dragging # c) centrifugal force 203. During a turn a) left rudder to be used b) right rudder to be used # c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

Page 23 - Mod 13 204. Align light flashes during alignment # a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off b) It is attracting operators attention c) It is indicating progress of alignment 205. During decent with power on in a helicopter a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter 206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system # a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll c) Synchros are used 207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures a) specific gravity of fuel # b) K value of fuel c) fuel quantity 208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force a) Heading and Deviation # b) Course error and Deviation c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation 209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by # a) BPCU b) PCDU (power control distribution unit) c) SPCU 210. As you approach supersonic # a) total drag is increased b) lift is reduced c) thrust is reduced

211. Range resolution is obtained by a) High PRF # b) Shorter pulse width c) Shorter beam width 212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by # a) Larger pulse width b) Larger beam width c) Larger frequency Page 24 - Mod 13 213. When the trailing edge flap is a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change # c) CP move rearward 214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails a) Auto throttle disengages # b) Throttle hold is annunciated c) Fail light illuminates 215. Flight director command bars indicate # a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred b) Direction in which aircraft is flying c) Direction in which the beacon is 216. Mode S has a) 12 address bits # b) 24 address bits c) 36 address bits 217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) In phase b) Opposite phase # c) Phase quadrature 218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is a) 80 ft

b) 300 ft c) 500 ft 219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is a) 3 inch b) 6 inch # c) 9 inch 220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero # b) tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred 221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip # b) a corrugated bonding jumper c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends Page 25 - Mod 13 222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system a) 0.5 ohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less 223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists # a) longitudinal stability b) lateral stability c) vertical stability 224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed # a) it must be installed on LH side b) it must be installed on RH side c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side 225. Main electric trim is controlled by a) a switch on control wheel

b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel c) 226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number # b) lower mach number c) not effected 227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks b) both CDU blanks # c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place 228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would a) indicate climb # b) indicate decent c) not be affected 229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure? a) ASI b) VSI c) Altimeter Page 26 - Mod 13 230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise b) is to rotate anticlockwise c) It may be rotated either direction 231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) Having filters in power supply lines b) Separating the affected and affecting cables c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit 232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is a) 1 degree

b) 5 degree c) 10 degree 233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision? a) The one with the higher address b) The one with the smaller address c) Neither changes the decision 234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot? # a) 10% b) 50% c) 100% 235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by a) synchros attached to the control # b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control c) a lock on the cockpit control 236. Helicopter blades are a) highly cambered b) reverse cambered # c) Symmetrical 237. GPS antenna is a) vertically polarized b) horizontally polarized c) lincomp polarization 238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is a) to the left b) to the right # c) in the centre Page 27 - Mod 13 239. An autopilot computer # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR

b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS --------240. What type of flap is this? # a) Split flap b) Fowler flap c) Plain flap 241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to a) transmit motion # b) reverse direction and transmit motion c) adjust friction 242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure c) to minimise power losses 243. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics b) experience of the crew c) RVR transmitted by ATC 244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by a) mercury switches on the inner ring b) mercury switches on the outer ring c) flux valve slaving 245. Index error is a) coefficient B b) Coefficient P # c) misalignment of compass lubber line 246. Helicopter derives its lift from # a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it b) rotor acts as a airscrew c) air is pushed downward

247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called a) rigid rotor # b) semi rigid rotor c) fully articulated rotor Page 28 - Mod 13 248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers b) to amplify the RF signal c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers 249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal # c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal 250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives a) excessive ground clutter b) no signal c) excess signals 251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded # b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot c) maximum rudder deflection 252. Servo tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 253. Spring Tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of a) 20 degrees per second

b) 30 degrees per second c) 15 degrees per second 255. Omega ground stations # a) transmit pulses of CW b) carrier modulated by three audio tones c) series of CW 256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set a) 1013.25 mb b) sea level pressure c) prevailing pressure Page 29 - Mod 13 257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact a) before the primary stops # b) after the primary stops c) at the same time as the primary stops 258. EICAS indicates # a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions b) engine performance only c) engine performance and aircraft status 259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right # a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 260. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) It move as the aircraft moves c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? # a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC a) records all faults in volatile memory # b) records all faults in non-volatile memory c) 264. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Radio deviation b) Glideslope deviation # c) Course deviation Page 30 - Mod 13 266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available

269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 270. A spring balance control system you # a) can move the control surface on the ground b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab c) cannot move the control surface on the ground 271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene? a) To prevent corrosion # b) To prevent precipitation static c) To provide lightning protection 272. What is a versine signal attenuated with? a) Increase in airspeed b) Increase in altitude c) Decrease in altitude 273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to a) OFF b) AM c) either USB or LSB Page 31 - Mod 13 274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate? a) TO b) FROM

# c) Neither 276. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target? a) 12 miles b) 25 miles c) 40 miles 278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state? a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground # c) Tip vortex build-up during hover 279. What controls are used in response to PVD display? # a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals b) Control wheel c) PVD control unit 280. DME transponder transmits on receipt a) of any interrogation b) of pilot input command request # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds 281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P # a) does not move b) moves freely along the length of the blade c) is insignificant 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is a) 16ft b) 12ft # c) 28ft Page 32 - Mod 13 283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits b) 64bits # c) 24bits 284. The rotor cone is formed by a) blade alignment # b) centrifugal force and lift c) centrifugal force only 285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path a) balance b) restore # c) align 286. Artificial feel is gained by using a a) hydraulic damper # b) spring bias unit c) 'feel' generator 287. The ground run monitor presents information # a) of distance to go and ground speed b) duration of ground run c) angle of crosstrack on ground 288. A mode C transponder a) can be used for TCAS # b) cannot be used for TCAS c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only 289. The audio select panel allows the crew to # a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others 290. The crew select DH on a) the altimeter b) the DH annunciator panel # c) the rad alt display

291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider a) power requirements # b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal c) the diameter of cables Page 33 - Mod 13 292. GPS has # a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4 b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6 c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9 293. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows voice ident of DME # b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal c) disables DME voice ident 294. GPS frequency is a) 1575 GHz # b) 1575 MHz c) 1525 MHz 295. Radio switches are normally # a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C 296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft # a) systems is disabled b) no traffic will be shown c) all traffic produces aural alert 297. Mode S pulses. Which are used? a) F1,F2,F4,F5 # b) s1,p1,p3,p4 c) s1,s2,p1,p2 298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is a) it amplifies output stages

# b) it improves signal to noise ratio c) it couples noise factors 299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from a) 115 volts from ac bus b) 200 volts from ac bus # c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units 300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving a) one moving in direction of relative air flow b) highest blade # c) one moving forward into relative airflow Page 34 - Mod 13 301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies a) speed increase # b) speed decrease c) height decrease 302. Back beam is captured # a) by manually selecting the back beam mode b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode 303. With an insulation tester a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item # c) it does not matter which lead goes where 304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ a) higher b) lower # c) higher or lower 305. Flight director incompatible modes are a) VOR and glideslope b) heading and altitude hold

c) VOR and altitude hold 306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet? a) 110 nm # b) 120 nm c) 130 nm 307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? a) c/a code only b) c/a code and P code c) P code only 308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings # b) design of engine and gearbox supports c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft 309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from a) rad alt to barometric b) rad alt decrease c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold Page 35 - Mod 13 310. on power up, the IRS obtains position a) latitude from previous position b) longitude from previous position c) latitude and longitude from previous position 311. Krueger flaps make up part of the a) wing upper surface leading edge b) wing lower surface trailing edge # c) wing lower surface leading edge 312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the # a) control column b) flight control panel c) behind thrust levers

313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as a) apparent A b) real A c) true A 314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in a) BCARs # b) JAR OPS subpart M c) maintenance manual 315. Carbon microphones require # a) DC supply b) AC supply c) no supply 316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with a) FM b) phase drift keying c) Manchester code 317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined b) flights must not continue after four days # c) flights must not continue after 72 hours 318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is a) +/- 35 degrees # b) +/-40 degrees c) +/-60 degrees Page 36 - Mod 13 319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates a) 30 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 60 degrees

320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by a) non conductive paint b) conductive paint # c) earth primary conductors 321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier 322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is a) the y code b) the p code # c) the c/a code 323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for good pulse shape are a) wide and narrow b) narrow and wide c) wide and wide 324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost a) the aircraft flies in a circle # b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle 325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires a) pitot only b) static only # c) pitot and static 326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to # a) the right b) the left c) the left with some aileron assistance 327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance b) attitude of aircraft # c) rate of yaw Page 37 - Mod 13 328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons # c) to assist the up going aileron 329. Glideslope deviation signals are # a) DC polarity sensitive b) AC phase sensitive c) DC positive going only 330. A triplex system loses one channel # a) pilot can continue with autoland b) pilot can use auto approach c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

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MODULE 13 (13.3 / 13.4 / 13.6 / 13.8)


HF IS 3 30 MHZ GLIDESLOPE TONE FREQUENCY IS 90 HZ LOCALIZER TONE FREQUENCY IS 150 HZ VOICE SWITCH ON AUDIO SELECT PANEL HAS 1020 1350 HZ BAND STOP FILTER ILS IS 111.1 HZ (ILS IS VHF) MLS IS 5000 6000 MHZ GPS RECEIVER NAV MSG FREQ IS 50 HZ VHF IS 108 136 MHZ VOR IS 112 118 MHZ (VOR IS VHF) TCAS TX AT 1030 MHZ TCAS RX AT 1090 MHZ WAVELENGTH OF A C BAND RADAR IS 4 8 CM GPS FREQ IS 1575 MHZ ILS MARKER BEACON FREQ IS 75 HZ 1 NM = 12.36 MICROSECONDS ADF OPERATES 190 KHZ 1759 KHZ ACARS OPERATES IN 118 136 MHZ DME WORKS ON UHF MF BAND IS 300 KHZ 3 MHZ G/S FREQ IS 328.6 335.4 MHZ ADF OPERATION RANGE IS AT MF BAND

G/S TRANSMITTER OPERATES ON UHF BAND AUDIO FREQ RANGE IS 20 20000 HZ L BAND DME TRANSMIT ON FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ LOCALIZER EQUIP OPERATE IN VHF BAND THE TROPOPAUSE EXISTS AT 36,000 FEET ROTOR BLADES OPERATE AT BEST LIFT / DRAG RATIO WHEN THEIR AOA IS +30 A SHROUDED TAIL ROTOR REDUCES THE NEED FOR - CYCLIC FEATHERING WHEN A HELICOPTER ROTOR BLADE FLAPS UP PITCH DECREASES SOLIDITY OF A ROTOR IS THE RATIO OF BLADE AREA TO DISC AREA DISC LOADING IS DEFINED AS RATIO OF GROSS WEIGHT: DISC AREA AFTER A CHANGE IN PITCH OF A ROTOR BLADE, THE BLADE WILL BE MAXIMUM FLAT AT 900 ASSUMING THE PHASE LAG OF A ROTOR BLADE IS 900 & THE CONTROL ADVANCE ANGLE IS 150 THEN THE PITCH OPERATING ARM MUST BE AT THE HIGHEST POINT OF THE SWASH PLATE 750 AHEAD OF THE HIGHEST FLAPPING POSITION IN A HELICOPTER THE ALTITUDE HOLD SIGNAL IS FROM THE BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE CAPSULE CPT CALL IS A HI / LO CHIME & PINK LIGHT TOILET CALL IS A HI CHIME & AMBER LIGHT SEAT BELT WARNING LO CHIME GALLEY EQUIPMENT IS FOUND IN AWN 99 INSPECTION PROOF TESTING OF SEAT BELTS IS CARRIED OUT TO 9g

THE MINIMUM DISTANCE BETWEEN A SEAT CUSHION AND THE SEAT IN FRONT OF IT IS 7 INCHES EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER TRANSMITS 3 FREQUENCIES VHF EMERGENCY FREQUENCY IS 121.5 MHZ AUTOPILOT, WHEN ON APPROACH TO LANDING, 3 AXIS ARE USED BACK BEAM SCANNING IN AN MLS IS AT A RATE OF 20 DEGREES PER MILLISECOND (0.02 DEGREES PER MICROSECOND) MAXIMUM AZIMUTH COVERAGE BY A MLS FACILITY IS +/- 60 DEGREES NORMAL AZIMUTH COVERAGE BY A MLS FACILITY IS +/- 40 DEGREES IN MLS, THE 12 BIT PREAMBLE CONSISTS OF 5 BITS TIME FUNCTION & CARRIER, & 7 BITS FUNCTION DURING AUTOLAND, LOCALIZER SIGNAL IS LOST AT 400FT. IN THE FINAL APPROACH A GO AROUND IS INITIATED CAT 2 AUTOLAND DH LIMITS ARE BELOW 200FT BUT NOT LESS THAN 100FT CAT 1 AUTOLAND DH LIMITS ARE NOT LESS THAN 200FT A/C WILL CAPTURE AUTOLAND SYSTEM AT 1500FT CAT 2 RVR, IF THE ALERT HEIGHT IS 100FT, WILL BE 400 METERS CAT 3B ALLOWS APPROACH, LAND AND RUNWAY GUIDANCE WITH TAXING VISIBILITY IN THE ORDER OF 50 METERS AN AC TACHOGENERATOR STATOR HAS 2 WINDINGS 900 APART ICAO WEATHER CATEGORY 3A IS OPERATION DOWN TO AND ALONG THE SURFACE OF THE RUNWAY WITH RVR OF 200 METERS A CAT 11 FACILITY PERFORMANCE ILS HAS AN INTERSECT HEIGHT OF 15M

AVERAGE RISK OF AUTOLAND SHOULD NOT CONTRIBUTE A RATE OF FATAL ACCIDENTS PER LANDING GREATER THAN 1 x 10-7 TO ENSURE THE A/C ATTAINS THE GLIDESLOPE TRACK THERE IS A GLIDESLOPE CAPTURE BIAS APPLIED FOR 10 SECONDS AFTER THE SYSTEM SWITCHES TO THE CAPTURE MODE ROLLOUT GUIDANCE BY RUDDER IS EFFECTIVE TO ABOUT 80 KNOTS GO AROUND CAN BE INITIATED BELOW 2000 FT ERROR = DEMAND FEEDBACK 2 DATABASES REQUIRED IN AN FMS SYSTEM MODE 1 GPWS IS FOR EXCESSIVE DESCENT RATE MODE 2 GPWS IS FOR EXCESSIVE TERRAIN CLOSURE RATE HF USED FOR RADIO COMMUNICATION OVER 250 MILES SATELLITES TRANSMIT UPDATES EVERY 2ND ORBIT A/C IS NORTH OF VOR BEACON ON A COURSE OF 090 RMI. THE POINTER POINTS TO 180 TONE FREQUENCY FOR GLIDESLOPE AND LOCALIZER ARE G/S 90HZ LOCALIZER 150HZ AN 80 COAXIAL CABLE IS CONNECTED TO AN 80 DIPOLE ARIEL THEREFORE THE RESISTANCE WOULD BE 80 ADDING 6 FOOT OF CABLE TO BOTH TX & RX ARIELS ON A RAD ALT WOULD GIVE 18 FOOT ERROR GPS EPHEMERIS COLLECTION TAKES 30 SECONDS THE VOICE SWITCH ON THE AUDIO SELECT PANEL HAS 1020 1350 HZ BAND STOP FILTER VOR CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50 HF CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50 VHF CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50

7770 ON THE ATC CONTROL PANEL INDICATES EMERGENCY 760 CHANNELS ARE AVAILABLE ON VHF THE ILS MARKER BEACON LIGHTS ARE COLORED BLUE / AMBER / WHITE AVIATION DISTRESS SIGNAL IS 121.5 MHZ MLS FREQUENCY IS 5000 6000 MHZ THE ELECTRICAL TUNING UNIT OF A HF TRANSMITTER MAINTAINS A VSWR OF THE ANTENNA AT 1.3 1 HF TRANSMISSION OF 10 MHZ WITH A SIDEBAND OF 1000 HZ WHICH DRIFTS 50 HZ THE RECEIVER AUDIO TONE WOULD BE 1000 HZ GPS RECEIVER NAVIGATION MESSAGE FREQUENCY IS 50 HZ GNS USES 4 SATELLITES VHF IS 118 137 MHZ 121.5 MHZ IS VHF FREQUENCY IN MLS, THE BEAM ANGLE AWAY FROM THE RUNWAY IS 150 ACCURACY OF A GPS SYSTEM IS 16 METERS / LESS AN A/C WITH A 8.33 KHZ SEPARATION VHF COMMUNICATION SYSTEM COMMUNICATES USING SINGLE CHANNEL SIMPLEX DECCA NAVIGATION SYSTEM OPERATES ON LOW FREQUENCY AN RMI IN VOR MODE, ITS POINTER IS SHOWING A COURSE OF 000. IF THE COURSE KNOB IS ADJUSTED TO 010 THE POINTER MOVES RIGHT TCAS TRANSMIT ON 1030 MHZ TCAS RECEIVES ON 1090 MHZ RAD ALT TRACK MODE IS EFFECTIVE TO 2500 FT WHEN THE VOR REFERENCE & VARIABLE PHASES ARE IN PHASE QUADRATURE, THE A/C IS AT 0900 RADIAL

DIFFERENTIAL GPS REQUIRE 4 SATELLITES AND 1 GROUND BASE TRANSMITTER GPS HAS 4 SATELLITES IN EACH OF 6 ORBITS IN A RAD ALT SYSTEM, IF THE TX AND RX CABLES ARE INCREASED BY 3 INCHES, THE TOTAL CORRECTION FACTOR IS 9 FMC STORE 2 PROGRAMMES, 1 ACTIVE AND 1 STANDBY THE QUADRANTAL ERROR IN ADF IS MAXIMUM AT A HEADING OF 045 THE TCAS SYSTEM HAS 2 ARIELS THE WAVELENGTH OF X BAND RADAR IS 3 CM THE A/C TRANSPONDER REPLY FREQUENCY IS 1090 MHZ A RAINFALL OF 5MM/ HR IS INDICATED ON THE WXR BY A YELLOW COLOR WHEN THE A/C IS AT A HEIGHT OF 9500 FT & QNH IS 500 FT, THE DISTANCE THE VHF COMMUNICATIONS CAN COVER IS 120 NM GLIDESLOPE EQUIP OPERATES IN UHF BAND IN A DOPPLER VOR, 30 HZ REFERENCE SIGNAL IS AM MODULATED DURING TESTING THE ATC ALTITUDE FUNCTION THE PRESSURE ALTIMETER IS SET TO 1013.25Mb MODE C INTERROGATION WILL BE IGNORED WHEN THE P2 PULSE IS HIGHER AMPLITUDE TO P1 THE TIME BETWEEN THE START OF THE P1 PULSE AND THE P3 PULSE IGNORING THE P2 PULSE LENGTH FOR A MODE A TRANSMISSION IS 8 MICROSECONDS WAVELENGTH OF C BAND RADAR IS 4 8 CM VHF COMMUNICATION RANGE AT 9000 FT IS 110 NM GPS SENDS L1 & L2. THE L1 c/a CODE & P CODE

MODE 4 OF GPWS DERIVES WARNINGS FROM RAD ALT DECREASE WHEN THE CVR IS U/S, FLIGHTS MUST NOT EXCEED 72 HOURS THE BEARING OF A NDB MEASURED BY ADF IS 060 DEGREES RELATIVE TO A/C HEADING OF 030 DEGREES. THE RMI POINTER INDICATES 90 DEGREES GPS FREQUENCY IS 1575 MHZ ILS MARKER BEACON FREQUENCY IS 75 HZ ON TCAS WITH OWN A/C BELOW 1750 FT ANY OTHER A/C BELOW 360 FT ARE DEEMED TO BE ON THE GROUND MODE S PULSES - S1, P1, P3, P4 ARE USED DME REPLY PULSES ARE 63 MHZ HIGHER OR LOWER 1 NAUTICAL MILE = 12.36 MICRO SECONDS DME TRANSPONDER TRANSMITS ON RECEIPT OF A PAIR OF PULSES SEPARATED BY 12 MICROSECONDS RAD ALT ELECTRICAL LENGTH OF A HELICOPTER IS 28 FOOT MODE S TRANSPONDERS TRANSMIT A BINARY CODE OF 24 BITS INS CALCULATES ON POWER UP LATITUDE ADF IS THETA THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE DME TRANSMIT AND RECEIVE PULSE FREQUENCY IS 63 MHZ TCAS II IS 24 A/C PER 5 NAUTICAL MILE RADIUS A MODE C INTERROGATION WILL BE IGNORED WHEN THE P2 PULSE IS HIGHER AMPLITUDE TO THE P1 PULSE AN RMI IN VOR MODE, ITS POINTER SHOWING A COURSE OF 000. IF COURSE KNOB IS ADJUSTED BY 010, THE POINTER TURNS RIGHT MODE A P1 TO P3 = 8 MICROSECONDS MODE C P1 TO P3 = 21 MICROSECONDS

AN A/C FLYING ON A HEADING OF 030 RECEIVES AN ADF SIGNAL 030 RELATIVE TO A/C. THE POINTER INDICATES 060 A RADIO FREQUENCY OF 16 MHZ WOULD BE USED FOR HF COMMUNICATIONS (HF IS 3 30 MHZ) LORAN C USES 100 KHZ A DME IS IN AUTO STANDBY WHEN THE DME RECEIVES 200 300 PULSES A SECOND AN A/C IS DUE NORTH OF A VOR STATION ON A HEADING OF 900. THE RMI DISPLAYS 1800 VOR & ILS ARE VHF A SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR INTERROGATION OPERATES ON A FREQ OF 1030 MHZ & PULSE SPACING DEPENDING ON THE MODE OF INTERROGATION FMS NAV DATA BASE IS UPDATED EVERY 28 DAYS IF THE 90 HZ TONE PREDOMINATES IN A LOCALIZER RECEIVER, THE DEVIATION INDICATED WILL SHOW FLY RIGHT LOCALIZER MODULATION DEPT IS 20% THE ARIEL ELEMENT OF A VHF COMMUNICATIONS TRANSMITTER / RECEIVER SHOULD HAVE A MIDBAND LENGTH OF

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THE SHORT CIRCUIT STUB THAT IS USED FOR BROAD BANDING A VHF WHIP MUST BE APPROX 59 CM VSWR OF A VHF SYSTEM WITH A FORWARD POWER OF 100W & A REFLECTED POWER OF 4W WILL BE 1.5: 1 MIDDLE MARKER IS KEYED WITH ALTERNATE DOTS AND DASHES THE MILLIVOLT DEFLECTION PER DOT ON ILS / VOR IS 75 / 75 AN ACCELEROMETER IN AN INS MUST BE ABLE TO DETECT ACCELERATIONS DOWN TO 10-6g BANDWIDTH OF HF TRANSMISSION IS 3 KHZ

VHF FREQ IS 108 136 MHZ TCAS DISPLAYS WHITE DIAMONDS / RED SQUARES / AMBER CIRCLES DFDR ARINC 573 DATA BUS HAS 4 SUB FRAMES IN AIRCRAFT, VOR RECEIVER 30 HZ MODULATED REFERENCE SIGNAL IS COMPARED WITH 30 HZ VARIABLE PHASE SIGNAL IN CVOR, 9960 C/S AM SUB CARRIER IS USED IN THE REFERENCE PHASE ADF OPERATES 190 1759 KHZ MODE C RESPONSE IS 20.3 MICROSECONDS COAXIAL TRANSMISSION LINE OF IMPEDENCE 80 IS CONNECTED TO A DIAPOLE OF 120. WHEN CHECKING WITH AN OHMMETER THE READING WILL BE MORE THAN 20 MEGA OHMS A/C IS NORTH OF VOR BEACON & THE COURSE IS SET TO 900. RMI INDICATES 1800 ACARS OPERATES 118 136 MHZ THE MODULATION USED FOR THE BEAMS OF A LOCALIZER IN AN ILS ARE 150 HZ RIGHT OF RUNWAY CENTERLINE 90 HZ LEFT OF RUNWAY CENTERLINE GPS L1 & L2 SIGNALS ARE BIPHASE 50 BIT / SECOND DECCA NAVIGATION USES LF A MODE S TRANSPONDER MAKES A MODE A/C ONLY CALL. THE P2 PULSE IS 0.8 S SINGLE SIDE BAND FILTERS ARE 3 KHZ MAN MADE NOISE CAUSES INTERFERENCE MAINLY BELOW 12 MHZ 3 RF AMPLIFIERS OF 10 dB & 10 KHZ ARE IN CASCADE. THEREFORE THE OUTPUT IS 30 dB & 10 KHZ RADIO WAVES ARE SAID TO HAVE LINE OF SIGHT PROPAGATION ABOVE ABOUT 100MHZ

THE IDEAL VSWR ON A RADIO TRANSMISSION LINE IS 1:1 CRYSTALS OPERATE RELIABLY AT FUNDAMENTAL FREQUENCIES UP TO 30 MHZ DME WORKS ON UHF TCAS WILL ISSUE TRAFFIC ADVISORY IF A COLLISION IS WITHIN 35 40 SECONDS OF OCCURRING MF BAND IS 300 KHZ 3 MHZ THE NOISE FACTOR OF A RECEIVER WHOSE INPUT SIGNAL TO NOISE RATIO IS 15:1 & OUTPUT SIGNAL TO NOISE RATIO IS 12:1 IS 1:25 A LORAN C TRANSMISSION CONSISTS OF 8 PULSES EACH 270 MICROSECONDS ARINC 629 OPERATES AT 2000 KB/S BNAV ACCURACY IS +/- 5 NM 95% WITH ATC CODE OF 0600 SELECTED, PULSES TRANSMITTED ARE B2 & B4 FOR RHO RHO NAVIGATION 2 DME SIGNALS ARE REQUIRED SINGLE SIDE BAND FILTERS ARE 3 KHZ AFTER THE PILOT DEPRESSES THE IDENT BUTTON, THE IDENT PULSE APPEARS 4.35 SECONDS AFTER LAST FRAME PULSE THE LENGTH OF RESONANT ANTENNA DIOPOLE IS LAMBDA / 2 GPS SATELLITES ORBIT 10,900 NM HIGH SELCAL SIGNAL TRANSMITS 2 PAIRS OF TONES, 1 PAIR AFTER THE OTHER AN A/C IS ON COURSE ON AN ILS LOCALIZER. THE DIFFERENCE IN DEPTH OF MODULATION IS ZERO ACARS TRANSMISSION TO PILOT IS INDICATED BY A DOUBLE CHIME FLIGHT DATA RECORDER UNDERWATER LOCATOR BEACON WILL OPERATE AT 37 KHZ FOR 30 DAYS

GPS COMPRISES OF 4 SATELLITES IN EACH OF 6 ORBITS COMMUNICATION BETWEEN AIRCRAFT EARTH STATION AND SATELLITE IS ON L BAND IN AN INTERROGATOR MODE S ADDRESSING FORMAT, THE FIRST SYNCH PHASE REVERSAL OCCURS 2.75 SECONDS AFTER P2 IN VOR THE MANUAL PHASE SHIFT RESOLVER IS 30 HZ SIGNAL IMPEDENCE OF A HF ARIEL IS 50 FULL SCALE DEFLECTION ON A VOR SYSTEM IS 10 DEGREES A VHF COMMUNICATION BLADE ARIEL HAS A LENGTH OF A QUARTER WAVELENGTH TO OBTAIN AN ACCURATE GPS FIX, THE GPS RECEIVER MUST BE IN LINE OF SIGHT OF 4 SATELLITES GLIDESLOPE FREQUENCY IS 328.6 335.4 MHZ ADF OPERATION RANGE IS AT MF BAND OUTER MARKER FREQUENCY IS AT 400 HZ DME INTERROGATION IS CARRIED 63 MHZ ABOVE OR BELOW TRANSMITTED FREQUENCY IRS SERVICEABILITY FOR INSERVICE DRIFT IS ASCERTAINED BY 3 + 3T DURING AN ACARS TRANSMISSION A 1 IS GENERATED BY THE VE HALF OF A 1200 HZ WAVEFORM ACARS TRANSMITS ITS DATA USING BINARY CODE IN FLIGHT MODE, THE FMS REFERENCE OF DATA SOURCE IS IRS, RHO RHO, RHO - THETA RNAV USES INPUTS OF IRS, VOR, GPS, DME AIRCRAFT IS AT 9000 FT. THEREFORE OUT OF VHF RANGE IS 120 NM ATCRBS REPLY PULSES ARE 0.45 S WIDE TIME BETWEEN F2 FRAMING PULSE & SP1 IS 4.35 S

TIME BETWEEN F1 FRAMING PULSE & F2 IS 20.3 S SLEWING OF THE INS GIMBLLED PLATFORM STIMULATES IN FLIGHT ATTITUDE CHANGES UP TO 710 IN PITCH AND 1800 AZIMUTH WHEN A/C IS HEADING DUE NORTH TOWARDS A VOR STATION THE REFERENCE & VARIABLE SIGNALS WILL BE 1800 OUT OF PHASE MIDDLE MARKER TO RUNWAY THRESHOLD IS 3500 FEET GLIDESLOPE TRANSMITTER OPERATES ON UHF BAND CAT 3B AIRCRAFT USING FAIL OPERATIONAL AUTO LAND EQUIPMENT WILL HAVE NO DECISION HEIGHT AUDIO FREQUENCY RANGE IS 20 20,000 HZ L BAND DME TRANSMITS ON A FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ IN SECONDARY RADAR SYSTEM, THE INTERROGATOR TRANSMITS AT 1030 MHZ A SIGNAL OF 120 MHZ FREQUENCY WILL NORMALLY PROPAGATE BY MEANS OF SPACE WAVES TCAS CONSIDERS ANOTHER A/C TO BE ON GROUND AT DIFFERENCE HEIGHT BETWEEN THE BAROMETRIC ALTIMETER & RADIO ALTIMETER OF 180 FEET IN RAD ALT INSTALLATION, ARIEL SPACING MUST BE 8 FEET IN THE DOWNLINK 11 FORMAT A 0.5 PER SECOND PULSE IN THE FIRST HALF OF THE SLOT REPRESENTS A LOGIC ONE THE UPLINK 11 FORMAT UTILIZES DIFFERENT PHASE SHIFT KEYING IN A UNIVERSAL ALL CALL TRANSPONDER INTERROGATION P2 IS RADIATED BY THE OMNI DIRECTIONAL ARIEL TCAS TRANSMITS SQUITTER PULSES ON FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ ABOVE GLIDESLOPE, THE ILS GLIDESLOPE SIGNAL MODULATION IS 90 HZ

GLIDESLOPE EQUIP OPERATES IN UHF BAND LOCALIZER EQUIPMENT OPERATES IN VHF BAND THE AIRCRAFT EQUIP DETERMINES THE BEARING OF A GND STATION BY COMPARING THE PHASE OF TWO 30 HZ MODULATIONS IRS ALIGNMENT TAKES 10 MINUTES A SCHULER PENDULUM HAS A PERIOD OF OSCILLATION OF 84.4 MINS WHEN IN MANUAL MODE, THE CDU ALERT LAMP OF THE INS WILL FLASH 2 MINUTES NEXT WAYPOINT THE 3 ACCELEROMETERS ON A STRAPDOWN PLATFORM ARE MOUNTED 900 TO EACH OTHER A BASIC INS PLATFORM HAS 2 ACCELEROMETERS AND 3 GYROS THE INS COMPUTES DISTANCE FROM ACCELERATION BY 2 SUCCESSIVE INTERROGATIONS THE 3 ACCELEROMETERS ON A STABLE PLATFORM ARE MOUNTED ORTHOGONALLY THE EARTH RATE IS 150 / HOUR TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK ON THE STABLE PLATFORM IT IS NORMAL TO USE 4 GIMBALS THE 2 FREQUENCIES THAT ARE PAIRED ARE G/S & LOCALIZER LOCALIZER BEAM WIDTH IS THE ANGLE WHERE THE 2 EDGES OF THE BEAM ARE APART AT THE RUNWAY THRESHOLD BY 700 FEET IF FREQUENCY DECREASES WITHOUT ALTERING THE LENGTH OF AN ARIEL.BECOMES CAPACITIVE REACTIVE IF FREQUENCY INCREASES WITHOUT ALTERING THE LENGTH OF AN ARIEL.BECOMES INDUCTIVE REACTIVE APPLIED PRESSURE OF AN ASI VARIES WITH THE SQUARE OF SPEED

AIRCRAFT FLIES IN STILL AIR AT 400 KNOTS & ENCOUNTERS A HEAD WIND OF 50 KNOTS. THEREFORE THE GROUND SPEED IS 350 KNOTS MODE S ADDRESS IS MADE UP OF 24 BITS WHEN AN AIRCRAFT IS ALIGNED FOR A COMPASS SWING CHECK IT MUST BE ALIGNED WITH ERROR OF + / - 3 DEGREES THE ELECTRIC ARTIFICIAL HORIZON HAS MOVEMENT OF 3600 IN ROLL & 850 IN PITCH GPWS MODE 1 IS EXCESSIVE RATE OF DESCENT WHEN CARRYING OUT AN INSULATION CHECK ON A FUEL PROBE, THE MAX VOLTAGE USED IS 250 VOLTS MAXIMUM DEVIATION ON A STANDBY MAGNETIC COMPASS MUST NOT BE MORE THAN 30 COMPASS BASE CLASSIFICATION CLASS 2 IS PERIODICALLY RESURVEYED EVERY 2 YEARS AIRCRAFT IS HEADING 2700. MAGNETIC COMPASS DEVIATION IS 10. THE PILOT SHOULD FLY 2710 VERTICAL GYROS ARE LIMITED TO 850 MOVEMENT IN PITCH TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK AN ELECTRIC GYRO RPM IS 24,000 RPM THE CX & TX ROTORS OF A CONTROL SYNCHRO ARE 900 SHIFTED. OUTPUT IS THEREFORE 0 COMPONENT C IS (DEV ON N DEV ON S) / 2 COMPONENT B IS (DEV ON E DEV ON W) / 2 A RATE GYRO HAS 1 DEGREE OF FREEDOM AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT. THE BAROMETRIC SCALE OF ALTITUDE IS SET TO 1013.25 MODE S HAS 24 ADDRESS BITS IN RVSM, ERROR ALLOWED IS 80 FEET DURING A COMPASS SWING, USING A DATUM COMPASS, THE ERROR PERMITTED IN ALIGNING THE AIRCRAFT IS 5 DEGREES

A DIRECTIONAL GYRO IS CHECKED EVERY 15 MINUTES FOR DRIFT IN A BOOST GAUGE SYSTEM THE SENSING ELEMENT CONTAINS 2 CAPSULES STANDBY COMPASS ADJUSTING MAGNETS (FINDERS BARS) EXERT THE MOST AMOUNT OF INFLUENCE WHEN 900 APART COEFFICIENT A IS ADJUSTED ON ANY HEADING WHEN AIRCRAFT REACHES 2500FT THE RAD ALT GOES OUT OF VIEW AIRCRAFT CERTIFIED AFTER 1997 WITH RVSM, THE MAXIMUM TOLERANCE FOR THE SYSTEM WOULD BE + / - 200 FEET PLUS + / - 50 FEET FOR INSTRUMENT ERROR AIRCRAFT CERTIFIED BEFORE 1997 WITH RVSM, THE MAXIMUM TOLERANCE FOR THE SYSTEM WOULD BE + / - 300 FEET PLUS + / - 50 FEET FOR INSTRUMENT ERROR LORAN C USES 100 KHZ SPEED OF ARINC 439 SYSTEM IS 100 KHZ IN A COMPASS SWING THE NORTH ERROR IS 20 SOUTH ERROR IS 20 COEFFICIENT C = 0

THEREFORE THE

THE ALTITUDE RELATIVE TO SEA LEVEL, THAT THE PRESSURE IN THE STANDARD ATMOSPHERE IS HALVED IS 18,000 FEET THE NEEDLE IN A RESOLVER IS CONNECTED TO 2 COILS ONLY AIRCRAFT LANDING ON QFE, ON TOUCHDOWN THE ALTIMETER READS 0 DC ELECTRIC CABLE MUST BE 24 INCHES FROM A COMPASS A COMPASS HAS A RESIDUAL DEVIATION OF +1 DEGREE. TO STEER A TRUE HEADING OF 1800 THE PILOT MUST STEER 1790 ABSOLUTE PRESSURE OF 25 PSI IS 10.3 PSI (GAUGE PRESSURE = ABSOLUTE PRESSURE ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE)

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

MACHMETER USES SQUARE LAW COMPENSATION NORMAL VERTICAL MINIMUM SEPARATION ALLOWED IS 2000 FEET COMPONENT P RELATES TO COEFFICIENT B EGPWS MODE 2 ANNOUNCES WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP EFIS DISPLAY, SG1 & SG2 ARE FOR CAPTAIN & FO DISPLAYS. PURPOSE OF SG3 IS BACKUP FOR SG1 & SG2 DIRECTIONAL GYRO INNER GIMBAL IS RESTRICTED TO + / - 850 TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK SPEED OF ROTOR IN TURN & SLIP INDICATOR IS APPROX 4,200 RPM IN THE DIRECTIONAL GYRO, THE INNER / OUTER GIMBAL IS CORRECTED TO 15 SINE LATITUDE A RATE 2 TURN IS 360 DEGREES / MIN AN ENGINE VIBRATION INDICATOR SYSTEM HAS 2 FILTERS IN THE INDICATOR GPWS MODE 7 WINDSHEAR IS ACTIVATED AT 1500 FEET RAD ALT FOR TAKE OFF & LANDING BOILING TEMPERATURE OF WATER IS 100OC / 212OF TO CONVERT OC TO KELVIN ADD 273 THE MOVING ELEMENT OF A RATIOMETER HAS 2 COILS IF AN ALTIMETER MILLIBAR SCALE IS SET TO 1013.25 & BAROMETRIC PRESSURE AT THE TIME WAS 1020, THE ALTIMETER WOULD READ BELOW ZERO FEET 1 DOT VOR DEVIATION REPRESENTS 50 PRESSURE GAUGE INDICATES 1000PSI. IN TERMS OF ABSOLUTE PRESSURE THIS REPRESENTS 1014.7 PSI A SENSITIVE ALTIMETER READING 100 FEET WHEN THE MILLIBAR SCALE IS SET TO THE ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE AT AIRFIELD LEVEL (QFE) INDICATES THE INSTRUMENT IS U/S

TRUE AIRSPEED IS ALWAYS HIGHER THAN EAS / IAS AT ANY ALTITUDE ABOVE SEA LEVEL IF ASI READING IS 300 KNOTS, CALIBRATED AIRSPEED IS 304 KNOTS NORTH ERROR 2 DEGREES, SOUTH ERROR +2 DEGREES. THEREFORE COEFFICIENT C IS 2 DEGREES THE H S I PROVIDES VOR, PLAN, ILS, MAP & RADAR COMPRESSIBILITY ERROR IN A PITOT HEAD IS CAUSED BY COMPRESSION OF AIR IN THE TUBE AT HIGH SPEEDS A BUBBLE IN A COMPASS IS DUE TO HIGH ALTITUDE A FLUX DETECTOR OUTPUT IS A AC VOLTAGE AT TWICE THE FREQUENCY OF THE EXCITATION VOLTAGE IN AN ARTIFICIAL HORIZON, PENDULOSITY ERROR IS CAUSED BY BOTTOM HEAVINESS OF THE INNER GIMBAL IN AN ARTIFICIAL HORIZON, ERECTION ERROR IS CAUSED BY DISPLACEMENT OF ERECTION CONTROL DEVICE A VSI METERING UNIT CONSISTS OF BOTH AN ORIFICE & A CAPILLARY A MANUAL VOR INPUT IS FOR THE COURSE DEVIATION BAR AFTER CORRECTION OF A NORTH-SOUTH HEADING READING ON A COMPASS SWING, RESULTANT CORRECTION IS KNOWN AS RESIDUAL DEVIATION APPARENT DRIFT ON A DIRECTIONAL GYRO IS CORRECTED BY AN ADJUSTMENT NUT ON INNER RING PURPOSE OF ALTITUDE ALERTING IS TO WARN THE PILOT OF APPROACH TOO OR DEVIATION FROM SELECTED ALTITUDE GAUGE PRESSURE AS INDICATED ON A DIRECT READING BOURDON TUBE PRESSURE IS EQUAL TO ABSOLUTE PRESSURE MINUS ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE TO / FRO INDIC ON A H S I INFORMS PILOT OF WHICH DIRECTION HE IS TRACKING RELATIVE TO A VOR STN

WHEN CHECKING A SENSITIVE ALTIMETER ON A PRE FLIGHT INSPECTION AMBIENT AIR PRESSURE IS SET ON MILLIBAR SCALE H S I COMPASS CARD IS POSITIONED BY THE COMPASS SYSTEM DEFLECTION OF THE ADI COMMAND BARS WHEN FLYING A LOCALIZER APPROACH IS PROPORTIONAL TO THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE AMPLITUDES ON THE 2 MODULATIONS A/C IS FLYING STRAIGHT AND LEVEL IN STILL AIR, AIRSPEED WILL BE EQUAL TO GROUND SPEED TO PROVIDE A LINEAR SCALE ON A H S I A RANGING BAR & SCREWS ARE FITTED WHEN CARRYING OUT PRESSURE LEAK CHECK ON AN ALTIMETER, YOU ARE CHECKING FOR LEAKS IN INSTRUMENT CASE IF ALT IS SET TO 1013.25 & BAROMETRIC PRESSURE AT THE TIME WAS 1020, ALTIMETER READS BELOW ZERO COMMAND BARS IN FD SYSTEM INDICATE REQUIRED PATH WITH RESPECT TO ACTUAL PATH ON A CONVENTIONAL RMI THE ANGLE BETWEEN THE COMPASS DATUM & RADIO POINTER ARROW IS RELATIVE BEARING A COMPASS IS MADE APERIODIC BY USING FLUID ISOGONAL LINES LINK PLACES OF EQUAL VARIATION THE SUPPLY OF DESYNN INDIC SYSTEM IS DC WHEN USING PITOT STATIC TEST SET, A/C SYSTEM IS VENTED BY VENTING THE STATIC SYSTEM VIA INTERNAL BLEED IN TEST SET BIMETALLIC STRIP IN ALTIMETER IS FOR CORRECTING CAPSULE ELASTICITY WHICH AXIS DOES DIRECTIONAL GYRO SPIN ON HORIZONTAL ALTIMETER CAPSULE RESPONDS TO ABSOLUTE PRESSURE

THE TRUE AIRSPEED IN ADC IS FROM MACH NUMBER & TEMPERATURE WHAT TYPE OF GYRO IS USED INA GYRO COMPASS DIRECTION GYRO WHAT EFFECT ON RATE OF PRECESSION WILL A CHANGE OF GYRO ROTOR SPEED HAVE INCREASE ROTOR SPEED DECREASES RATE OF PRECESSION BOURDON TUBES HAVE OVAL CROSS SECTION IN A BOURDON TUBE ONE END IS SEALED AND OTHER END IS CONNECTED TO THE PRESSURE SOURCE DISTANCE READOUT FROM H S I - IS FROM A/C DME SYSTEM A GYRO HAVING ONE PLANE OF FREEDOM AT RIGHT ANGLES TO PLANE OF ROTATION & ITS GIMBAL RESTRAINED ELECTRICALLY OR BY A SPRING IS KNOWN AS A RATE GYRO AN INSTRUMENT USED FOR MEASURING NEGATIVE PRESSURES HAS ANTI CLOCKWISE POINTER MOVEMENT IF BOURDON TUBE OPERATED AN ABSOLUTE PRESSURE GAUGE MEASURES THE APPLIED PRESSURE REFERRED TO A PERFECT VACUUM DFDR LOW SPEED PLAYBACK CAN BE ACHIEVED BY FLIGHT COMPARTMENT TEST CONNECTOR THROUGH DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA ACQUISITION UNIT IN A CHANGE TO A LOWER ALTITUDE, PISTON IN VSI WILL CREATE FOR AN INSTANT MORE PRESSURE TO CAPSULE ONLY MACH METER IS COMPENSATED WITH SQUARE LAW SCREWS AND AN ARM WHAT IS NOT DISPLAYED ON AN ADI VOR LATERAL DEVIATION WHAT EFFECT ON RATE OF PRECESSION WILL A CHANGE OF GYRO ROTOR SPEED HAVE INCREASE ROTOR SPEED CAUSES DECREASE IN RATE OF PRECESSION A GYRO HAS ITS RIGIDITY INCREASED BY INCREASING THE ROTOR SPEED

IF A CONSTANT TORQUE IS APPLIED TO A GYRO, THE RATE OF PRECESSION INCREASES WITH LOWER ROTOR SPEED GYRO RANDOM DRIFT IS CAUSED BY UNBALANCE & BEARING FRICTION IN THE GYRO PENDULOUS VANE TYPE ERECTION SYSTEMS FITTED TO A GYRO HORIZON WORKS ON THE PRINCIPLE INCREASED REACTION OF THE AIR FROM A FULLY OPEN PORT THE PITCH / BANK ERECTION SYSTEM IS USED IN ELECTRICAL GYRO HORIZON TO PREVENT PITCH SWITCH GIVING A FALSE INDICATION DUE TO CENTRIFUGAL EFFECTS DURING A TURN FAST ERECTION PUSH MUST NOT BE USED FOR A SET PERIOD OF TIME BECAUSE EXCESSIVE HUNTING WILL TAKE PLACE THE ERECTION SYSTEM ON A DIRECTIONAL GYRO HAS A SWITCH ON INNER GIMBAL CONTROLLING A MOTOR ON OUTER GIMBAL THE TURN & SLIP INDICATOR IS A RATE GYRO GIMBAL LOCK IN A DISPLACEMENT GYRO OCCURS WHEN SPIN AXIS BECOMES COINCIDENT WITH ANY OF THE AXIS OF FREEDOM IN A TURN COORDINATOR, OUTPUT AXIS OF RATE GYRO IS SET AT 300 TO LONGITUDINAL AXIS

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Module 13 Exam Practice Exam Module 13


Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems

This is exam number 2. 1. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b)9th orbit c) 2nd orbit Answer:C 2. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b)AC bus c) GND services Answer:B

3. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp b)local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator Answer:B

4. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b)090

c) 180 Answer:C

5. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power b)Pulsed power c) Average power Answer:A

6. What frequency increases radar relative range? a) High b)Low c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change Answer:B

7. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b)reduced relative range c) no effect Answer:C

8. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b)160 ohm c) 0 ohm Answer:

9. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you a) 3 ft error

b)6ft error c) 12 foot error Answer:C

10. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width b)narrowest width c) number of joints and bends Answer:C This is exam number 4. 1. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure Answer:C

2. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH b)QDM c) QDR Answer:B

3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros b)radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers

Answer:B

4. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b)localiser deviation errors c) heading errors Answer:C 5. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b)the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting Answer:C

6. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged b)after glideslope capture c) at any time Answer:B 7. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the a) decision height b)intercept height c) alert height Answer:A

8. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b)operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters Answer:C

9. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b)three sets of instruments at the side of the runway c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway Answer:C

10. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet b)no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR Answer:B

This is exam number 5. 1. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b)produce a co-ordinated turn c) block the Dutch roll frequency Answer:C

2. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels b)the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach Answer:B

3. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b)integrating deviation signal c) integrating course error Answer:C

4. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD b)IAS HOLD and ALT ARM c) V/S and ALT ARM Answer:B

5. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD b)G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD Answer:B

6. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power b)ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers Answer:B 7. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system b)system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland Answer:B

8. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b)increase its drift angle c) fly parallel to the beam Answer:C

9. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in a) JAR AWO b)CAIPs c) BCARs Answer:A

10. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial b)is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial Answer:B

This is exam number 6 1. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros b)synchros resolvers c) control synchro transformers Answer:B

2. Automatic trim is used to a) maintain level flight b)prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron Answer:A

3. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation b)rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course Answer:B

4. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement b)that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged Answer:B

5. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for a) maintaining a computed EPR b)controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations Answer:A Answer:

6. The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel b)pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel Answer:B 7. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b)the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe Answer:C 8. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check b)call up the relevant page on the CDU c) call up the relevant current status Answer:B

9. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by a) yaw rate gyro signals b)aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed Answer:A

10. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b)only mid range frequencies c) low range frequencies Answer:B

This is exam number 7. 1. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

a) Under frequency and over frequency b)Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency Answer:C

2. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b)25 ohms c) 50 ohms Answer:C

3. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b)use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts Answer:B

4. In a vibrator type voltage regulator a) the resistor is in series with the field b)parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil Answer:A

5. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b)JAR OPS (M) c) Maintenance Manual Answer:A

6. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b)the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shut off c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed Answer:C

7. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b)120 degrees c) 140 degrees Answer:C

8. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b)the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only Answer:A

9. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? a) The temperature b)The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity Answer:A

10. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided a) to prevent precipitation static build up

b)to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing Answer:A

This is exam number 8. 1. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint b)bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease Answer:B

2. An elevator tab moves down a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b)to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy Answer:A

3. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b)only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same Answer:A

4. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b)160ft c) 80ft Answer:C

5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces b)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces Answer:B

6. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b)the electronic interface units (EIU) c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) Answer:C 7. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile b)Non-volatile c) Hard Answer:B

8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Answer:B

9. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? a) Higher than its IAS b)Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS

Answer:A

10. The stall margin is controlled by a) EPR limits b)speed bug cursor c) angle of attack and flap position Answer:A

This is exam number 9. 1. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b)With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged c) only after take off Answer:C

2. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only b)electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter Answer:B

3. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b)Control of thrust reverser operation c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers Answer:C

4. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare b)Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold Answer:B

5. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the a) decision height b)intercept height c) alert height Answer:A

6. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b)operation down to 60 m and 800 m c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m Answer:C

7. A category II facility performance ILS has an intercept height of a) 15 m b)60 m c) 0 m Answer:B

8. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal b)the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide

path signals Answer:A

9. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 b)1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 Answer:B

10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b)ground radio aids must be at CAT III c) ILS system must be working Answer:C

This is exam number 10. 1. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is a) mandatory b)a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed Answer:A

2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b)by a selector on the throttle control panel c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum Answer:C

3. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b)the decrab phase c) start of flare phase Answer:C

4. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when the autopilot is engaged b)at any time after autoland has been engaged c) at any time Answer:B

5. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland a) ILS localiser and IAS b)IAS and glideslope c) IAS and steering or heading Answer:C

6. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b)rotate nose up c) increase speed and rotate nose up Answer:C 7. V NAV can be selected a) alone b)only if A/P and F/D selected c) only if A/T selected

Answer:C

8. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) the system degrades to CAT II b)the autoland is continued c) a go-around is initiated Answer:C

9. The order of autoland approach is a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b)GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD Answer:A

10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b)assist with glideslope tracking c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down Answer:C

This is exam number 11.


Answer 1. 2 C C 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 B

1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot

if any failure is detected c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of single failure

2. The effective gain of the glide path receiver a) is increased as the aircraft descends b)remains constant as the aircraft descends c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

3. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros b)radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers

4. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive b)fail operational c) fail redundant

5. On touchdown, autopilot a) remains engaged ready for G/A b)drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time

6. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. b)before D.H. c) after D.H. 7. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon

8. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from a) radio altimeter b)the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver

9. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now, a) fail passive b)fail operational c) fail redundant

10. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition b)produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

This is exam number 12.


Answer 1. 2 B C 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 B 10 A

1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system b)duplex system c) dual-dual system

2. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b)localiser and glideslope c) decision height and runway visual range

3. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height b)Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal

4. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR b)approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

5. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim b)continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

6. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? a) Nose down bias b)Nose up bias c) No signal

7. What controls are used in response to the PFD? a) Ailerons b)Throttles c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

8. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go b)ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go

9. For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b)Longitudinal c) Normal

10. Versine is used in which channel? a) Pitch b)Roll c) Yaw This is exam number 13.
Answer 1. 2 B A 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 C 10 A

1. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased b)decreased c) is the same

2. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and cabin altitude occurs b)cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

3. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is a) 50 milliohms b)1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

4. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors b)at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

5. Sparking in a generator would be caused by a) low spring tension b)bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

6. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? a) Visual inspections b)Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 7. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b)Put a set resistance across the terminals c) Leave the terminals open circuit

8. An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b)Move right c) Moves left then hard right

9. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system b)Duplex system c) Simplex system

10. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be a) painted in a conductive paint b)painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure

This is exam number 14.


Answer 1. 2 A C 3 C 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 C

1. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is a) 50 ohms b)20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

2. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static

b)Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature c) Mach and Temp

3. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b)Under the Fuselage c) Either side of the Fuselage . 4. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? a) Tend to increase b)Tend to decrease c) Stay the same

5. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b)controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position

6. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity b)poor audio output c) poor volume output 7. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter b)A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS

8. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made b)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made

9. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit b)An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining

10. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water b)a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required This is exam number 15.
Answer 1. 2 A B 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 B

1. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively b)1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090mhz

2. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree b)3 degree c) 5 degree

3. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 b)045 c) 090

4. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators b)AC generators c) AC & DC generators

5. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the a) spoiler b)leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps

6. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b)110 degree c) 50 degree 7. Stall warning will be given at speeds a) that are higher than stall speed b)that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed

8. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights b)Turning off the anti-collision lights

c)

Flashing the landing light

9. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at a) 1500 ft b)2500 ft c) 3500 ft

10. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator b)channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus This is exam number 16.
Answer 1. 2 A C 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 C 7 A 8 C 9 B 10 B

1. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to a) excessive charging current b)insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage

2. An autopilot interlock circuit is to a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b)disconnect the system if a fault appears c) both a & b

3. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour b)amber c) red colour

4. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 b)121.5 c) 118.00

5. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only b)continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air

6. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b)360 in roll and 110 in pitch c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 7. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b)remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB

8. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b)Maintenance Manual c) JAR OPS

9. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover? a) 100 nm

b)120 nm c) 140 nm

10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial b)090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial This is exam number 17.
Answer 1. 2 A C 3 C 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is a) an accelerometer b)a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator

2. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b)decibels c) relative amplitude

3. A fuel flow measurement system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b)minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted

4. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between a) true north and magnetic north

b)magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north

5. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b)rate of ascent c) rate of descent

6. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 b)24 c) 36 7. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the a) square of the speed b)square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed

8. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of a) capsule elasticity b)capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship

9. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b)aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight

10. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b)amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency This is exam number 18.
Answer 1. 2 A B 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 A

1. During flare mode autothrottle will a) retard throttles to idle b)disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust

2. A CSD is monitored for a) low temperature and high oil pressure b)high temperature and low oil pressure c) high temperature and high oil pressure

3. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? a) Increases b)Decreases c) No change

4. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected a) it is centralized by a spring b)its control is maintained by electric trim c) it is centralised by the airflow

5. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac

b)200v ac c) High voltage stepped up

6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is a) zero b)full scale deflection c) centre scale

7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance b)increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance

8. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b)adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted

9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are a) bulkheads b)longerons c) frame 10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by a) excessive electrical loading b)high charge current c) low charge current This is exam number 19.

Answer 1. 2 B B

3 A

4 C

5 C

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 B

10 B

1. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1. a) This is normal b)You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx

2. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks b)damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks

3. The specific gravity readings of a leadacid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. a) Cell is defective b)You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell

4. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b)TCAs only c) all L band equipments including TCAS

5. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b)4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

6. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b)4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 7. When the captain calls attendant a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on b)a low chime and blue light comes on c) a high chime and pink light comes on

8. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b)a selcall light along with a chime comes on c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected b)the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected

10. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift b)aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle This is exam number 20.
Answer 1. 2 B B 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 B 10 B

1. IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. b)voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG

2. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal b)rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error

3. When moving the control column a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b)sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

4. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b)there is an increases tail plane up-force c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

5. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b)rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

6. In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged a) after reverse thrust is applied b)after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing

7. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b)360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

8. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank b)a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb

9. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc b)through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis

10. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door b)Left wing c) Right wing

This is exam number 21.


Answer 1. 2 B C 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 A 10 A

1. Shock stall is a flap down stallis a flap down stalloccurs at high speeds a) is a flap down stall occurs at high speeds b)occurs at high speeds occurs at high speeds

c) occurs at low speeds occurs at high speedsoccurs at high speeds

occurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high spe 2. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by centrifugal force a) flapping entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)dragging entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) centrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 3. During a turn entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) left rudder to be usedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)right rudder to be usedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) rudder to be maintained in centre positionentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 4. Align light flashes during alignment entrifugal forceentrifugal force a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned offentrifugal forceentrifugal fore b)It is attracting operators attentionentrifugal force c) It is indicating progress of alignmententrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 5. During decent with power on in a helicopterentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopterentrifugal forceentrifugal force

b)lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopterentrifugal forceentrif c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopterentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 6. To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire systementrifug a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeabilityentrifugal force b)LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and rollentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) Synchros are usedentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force7. The compensator in a fuel tank measuresentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) specific gravity of fuelentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)K value of fuel c) fuel quantityentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 8. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrif a) Heading and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)Course error and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) Heading ,Course error and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 9. In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled byentrifugal force a) BPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal

forceentrifugal force b)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force This is exam number 22.
Answer 1. 2 B A 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 C 10 B

1. Rangeiresolutioniisiobtainedibydggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmb lhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. a) highiPRFdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. b)shorteripulseiwidthdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/ ,.<<m,/. c) shorteribeamiwidthdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,. <<m,/.

dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg8 2. Iniweatheriradar,ishortirangeitargetsiareimissedibyfykmgmnlm;34343fhg8 7hmblhm,/,.<<m,/. a) largeripulseiwidthdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.< <m,/. b)largeribeamiwidthdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/, .<<m,/. c) largerifrequencydggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<< m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmb 3. Whenitheitrailingiedgeiflapiisiextendeddggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fh g87hmblhl;. a) theiCPimovesiforwardianditheipitchingimomentichangesitoinoseiupiiii b)theiCPimovesiforwardibutitheiCGidoesinotichangedggfgggdfgdfykmgm nlm; c) CPimoveirearwarddggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,. <<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87h 4. Duringitakeioffiifianiinputitoiautoithrottleiisifailsdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm ;34343fhg87hmb a) autoithrottleidisengages

b)throttleiholdiisiannunciateddggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl ;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. c) faililightiilluminatesdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/, .<<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmb 5. Flightidirectoricommandibarsiindicatedggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg 87hmblhl;.jkn a) directioniiniwhichiaircraftiisitoibeimanoeuvreddggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;3 4343fhg87hm b)directioniiniwhichiaircraftiisiflyingdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg8 7hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.< c) directioniiniwhichitheibeaconiisdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmb lhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m, dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87 6. ModeiSihasdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/, a) 12iaddressibitsdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/, b)24iaddressibitsdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<< m, c) 36iaddressibitsdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.< dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.7. Ifianiaircraftiis on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) Iniphasedggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.

b)oppositeiphasedggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<< m,/. c) phaseiquadraturedggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<< m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. 8. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed isdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg a) 80 ftdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. b)300 ftdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. c) 500 ftdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hm 9. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor isdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. a) 3iinchdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. b)6iinchdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. c) 9iinchdggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/. dggfgggdfgdfykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmblhl;.jkn.m,/,.<<m,/.dggfgggdfgd fykmgmnlm;34343fhg87hmbl 10. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero b)tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred

This is exam number 23.


Answer 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

1. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip b)a corrugated bonding jumper c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends

2. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system a) 0.5 ohm b)1 ohm c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less

3. Mach trim in some aircraft assists a) longitudinal stability b)lateral stability c) vertical stability

4. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed a) it must be installed on LH side b)it must be installed on RH side c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side

5. Main electric pitch trim is controlled by a) a switch on control wheel b)a switch installed on centre pedestal panel c) a wheel on the centre pedastal

6. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number b)lower mach number c) not effected 7. In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks b)both CDU blanks c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place

8. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would a) indicate climb b)indicate decent c) not be affected

9. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure? a) ASI b)VSI c) Altimeter

10. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise b)is to rotate anticlockwise c) It may be rotated either direction This is exam number 24.
Answer 1. 2 C A 3 A 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 A

1. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) havingifiltersiinipowerisupplyilinessadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)separatingitheiaffectediandiaffectingicablessadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) puttingitheiaffectedicableiiniaisingleiconduitsadfilai afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

2. Duringicompassiswing,iusingiaidatumicompass,itheierroripermittediiniali gningitheiaircraftiis a) 1 degreesadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)5 degreesadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) 10 degreesadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

3. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision?sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) The one with the higher addresssadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)The one with the smaller addresssadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) Neither changes the decisionsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

4. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?sadfila afu aaifu lao a) 10%sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)50%sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) 100%sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

5. In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented bysadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) synchros attached to the controlsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

b)a compressed spring attached to the cockpit controlsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) a lock on the cockpit controlsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

6. Helicopter blades aresadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) highly camberedsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)reverse camberedsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) symmetricalsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd 7. GPS antenna issadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsdsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) vertically polarizedsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)horizontally polarizedsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) circular polarizatedsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

8. The cyclic stick in an helicopter issadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) to the leftsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)to the right sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) in the centresadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

9. An autopilot computersadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VORsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)is more sensitive to VOR than to ILSsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILSsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

10. What type of flap is this?sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd sadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsdsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd

a) Split flapsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd b)Fowler flapsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd c) Plain flapsadfila afu aaifu laoaoloiuf papsd This is exam number 25.
Answer 1. 2 B ? 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 B

1. Purpose of the bellcrank is to a) transmit motion b)reverse direction and transmit motion c) adjust friction

2. In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer b)to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure c) to minimise power losses

3. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics b)experience of the crew c) RVR transmitted by ATC

4. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by a) mercury switches on the inner ring b)mercury switches on the outer ring

c) flux valve slaving

5. Index error is a) coefficient B b)Coefficient P c) misalignment of compass lubber line

6. Helicopter derives its lift from a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it b)rotor acts as a airscrew c) air is pushed downward

7. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called a) rigid rotor b)semi rigid rotor c) fully articulated rotor

8. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers b)to amplify the RF signal c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

9. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position b)the pilot feels air loads higher than normal c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal

10. Doppler flag comes on when it receives a) excessive ground clutter

b)no signal c) excess signals This is exam number 26.


Answer 1. 2 B B 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 A

1. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded b)the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot c) maximum rudder deflection

2. Servo tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel

3. Spring Tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel

4. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of a) 20 degrees per millisecond b)30 degrees per millisecond c) 15 degrees per millisecond

5. Omega ground stations a) transmit pulses of CW b)carrier modulated by three audio tones c) series of CW

6. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set a) 1013.25 mb b)sea level pressure c) prevailing pressure 7. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact a) before the primary stops b)after the primary stops c) at the same time as the primary stops

8. EICAS indicates a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions b)engine performance only c) engine performance and aircraft status

9. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right b)pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another c) rotating aerofoil tilts forward

10. Magnetic heading errors will be a) positive if easterly b)negative if easterly c) negative if northerly

This is exam number 27.


Answer 1. 2 B A 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading b)It move as the aircraft moves c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

2. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b)When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1

3. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC a) records all faults in volatile memory b)records all faults in non-volatile memory c) all memory is erased when aircraft lands

4. A helicopter autopilot uses a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b)barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

5. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Radio deviation b)Glideslope deviation c) Course deviation

6. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout b)Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 7. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft b)When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

8. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available

9. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis b)Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis

10. A spring balance control system you a) can move the control surface on the ground b)can move the control surface only by moving the tab c) cannot move the control surface on the ground

This is exam number 28.


Answer 1. 2 B ? 3 ? 4 B 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 C

1. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene? a) To prevent corrosion b)To prevent precipitation static c) To provide lightning protection

2. What is a versine signal attenuated with? a) Increase in airspeed b)Increase in altitude c) Decrease in altitude

3. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to a) OFF b)AM c) either USB or LSB

4. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds b)8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds

5. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate? a) TO b)FROM c) Neither

6. What does the Radar contour button do? a) Alter the beam shape b)Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 7. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles b)25 miles c) 40 miles

8. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state? a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed b)Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground c) Tip vortex build-up during hover

9. What controls are used in response to PVD display? a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals b)Control wheel c) PVD control unit

10. DME transponder transmits on receipt a) of any interrogation b)of pilot input command request c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

This is exam number 29.


Answer 1. 2 A C 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 C

1. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P a) does not move b)moves freely along the length of the blade c) is insignificant

2. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is a) 16ft b)12ft c) 28ft

3. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of a) 12bits b)64bits c) 24bits

4. The rotor cone is formed by a) blade alignment b)centrifugal force and lift c) centrifugal force only

5. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path a) balance b)restore c) align

6. Artificial feel is gained by using a a) hydraulic damper b)spring bias unit c) 'feel' generator

7. The ground run monitor presents information a) of distance to go and ground speed b)duration of ground run c) angle of crosstrack on ground

8. A mode C transponder a) can be used for TCAS b)cannot be used for TCAS c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only

9. The audio select panel allows the crew to a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b)transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others

10. The crew select DH on a) the altimeter b)the DH annunciator panel c) the rad alt display

This is exam number 30.

Answer 1. 2 B A

3 B

4 B

5 A

6 A

7 B

8 B

9 C

10 C

1. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider a) power requirements b)the speed of propagation of rad alt signal c) the diameter of cables

2. GPS has a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4 b)24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6 c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

3. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows voice ident of DME b)cuts "beeps" from DME signal c) disables DME voice ident

4. GPS frequency is a) 1575 GHz b)1575 MHz c) 1525 MHz

5. Radio switches are normally a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C b)latched on R/T, sprung on I/C c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C

6. On GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft a) systems is disabled b)no traffic will be shown c) all traffic produces aural alert

7. Mode S pulses. Which are used? a) F1,F2,F4,F5 b)s1,p1,p3,p4 c) s1,s2,p1,p2

8. In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is a) it amplifies output stages b)it improves signal to noise ratio c) it couples noise factors

9. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from a) 115 volts from ac bus b)200 volts from ac bus c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units

10. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving a) one moving in direction of relative air flow b)highest blade c) one moving forward into relative airflow

This is exam number 31.


Answer 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

1. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies a) speed increase b)speed decrease c) height decrease

2. Back beam is captured a) by manually selecting the back beam mode b)this automatically trips the L NAV mode c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode

3. With a bonding meter a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to item b)the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item c) it does not matter which lead goes where

4. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ a) higher b)lower c) higher or lower

5. Flight director incompatible modes are a) VOR and glideslope b)heading and altitude hold c) VOR and altitude hold

6. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm b)120 nm c) 130 nm 7. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? a) c/a code only b)c/a code and P code c) P code only

8. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings b)design of engine and gearbox supports c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft

9. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from a) rad alt to barometric b)rad alt decrease c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold

10. On power up, the IRS obtains position a) latitude from previous position b)longitude from previous position c) latitude and longitude from previous position

This is exam number 32.


Answer 1. 2 C A 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 C

1. Krueger flaps make up part of the

a) wing upper surface leading edge b)wing lower surface trailing edge c) wing lower surface leading edge

2. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the a) control column b)flight control panel c) behind thrust levers

3. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as a) apparent A b)real A c) true A

4. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in a) BCARs b)JAR OPS subpart M c) maintenance manual

5. Carbon microphones require a) DC supply b)AC supply c) no supply

6. Microwave landing systems are modulated with a) FM b)phase drift keying c) Manchester code

7. A CVR is found to be unserviceable a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined b)flights must not continue after four days c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

8. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is a) +/- 35 degrees b)+/-40 degrees c) +/-60 degrees

9. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates a) 30 degrees b)90 degrees c) 60 degrees

10. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by a) non conductive paint b)conductive paint c) earth primary conductors This is exam number 33.
Answer 1. 2 C C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 A

1. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information b)5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

2. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is a) the y code b)the p code c) the c/a code

3. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier, for good pulse shape, should be a) wide and narrow b)narrow and wide c) wide and wide

4. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost a) the aircraft flies in a circle b)aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle

5. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires a) pitot only b)static only c) pitot and static

6. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to a) the right b)the left c) the left with some aileron assistance 7. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to a) amount of aircraft disturbance

b)attitude of aircraft c) rate of yaw

8. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons b)in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons c) to assist the up going aileron

9. Glideslope deviation signals are a) DC polarity sensitive b)AC phase sensitive c) DC positive going only

10. A triplex system loses one channel a) pilot can continue with autoland b)pilot can use auto approach c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land This is exam number 34.
Answer 1. 2 C A 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 C

1. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has a) full authority b)50% authority c) 10% authority

2. Stall warning will be given a) before stall b)after stall

c) at stall

3. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to a) log relevant maintenance data b)transmits to the CMC c) provides details of defect action

4. How are spoilers normally operated? a) Hydraulic actuator b)Air pistons c) Electrical motors

5. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces b)pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered

6. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time b)one generator always comes on line before the other c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled 7. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft b)when the battery is fully charged c) in the charging room only

8. When removing the load from a current transformer a) short the terminals b)place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open

9. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees b)110 degrees c) 180 degrees

10. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b b)c and d c) e and f

This is exam number 35.


Answer 1. 2 B A 3 C 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 B

1. When paralleling two AC generators a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC b)it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase

2. The neutral shift sensor ensures that a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the

stabiliser b)after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

3. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b)prevents slip and skid in yaw c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn

4. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals b)integrating deviation signals c) integrating course error signals

5. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause a) the pointer to read zero b)the pointer to read mid scale c) the pointer to read full scale

6. The instantaneous VSI is designed to a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b)use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g 7. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed b)decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed

8. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's a) lateral axis b)longitudinal axis c) vertical axis

9. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band b)UHF band c) VHF band

10. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b)aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight This is exam number 36.
Answer 1. 2 A B 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 C

1. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are a) DC b)AC c) pulsed DC

2. Fuel quantity test set consists of a) resistance decade

b)capacitance bridge c) inductance decade

3. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters b)engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters

4. The stabiliser is set to high setting when a) the flaps are moving down b)the flap are moving up c) the flap are moving up or down

5. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational b)passive c) simplex

6. DSR TK (desired track) means a) the bearing to capture the track b)a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track 7. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from a) the barometric alt capsule b)a rad alt output c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height

8. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated b)AM Modulated c) modulated with a 9960Hz

9. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will a) retard the throttle b)reverse thrust c) control throttle for a IAS

10. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the a) amplitude b)frequency c) rate of frequency change This is exam number 37.
Answer 1. 2 A A 3 C 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 B

1. The normal axis on a helicopter is a) straight down the rotor head b)at 90o to the C of G c) at 90o to the rotor head

2. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b)make the audio signal clearer c) an Americanisum for volume

3. A GPS aerial is polarised a) vertically b)horizontally c) right hand circular

4. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot b)engineer using aircraft maintenance manual c) manufacture

5. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR b)stop arcing between the wave guide c) stop moisture entering the wave guide

6. An RMI requires the following inputs: a) Heading and radio deviation b)Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only

7. The versine signal is used in the a) pitch channel only b)roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel

8. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called a) transient droop b)static droop

c) under swing

9. Loran C Uses a) 16 Khz b)20 Mhz c) 100 Khz

10. The amount of travel of a series actuator is a) 50% of control movement b)10% of control movement c) full control movement

This is exam number 38.


Answer 1. 2 B A 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 C

1. GPS Telemetry consists of a) week number and time label b)satellite position information c) 8 bits of preamble and position information

2. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at a) 90o b)180o c) 0o

3. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual

b)JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8

4. The rotor disc is a) the distance between tip to tip b)the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion

5. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting b)the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting

6. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display? a) 90o b)0o c) 180o

7. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would a) continue on flying on the localizer b)fly parallel to the localizer c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading

8. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b)below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

9. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are a) not less than 100 ft. b)not less than 200 ft. c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

10. When GA is initiated? a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b)Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust This is exam number 39.
Answer 1. 2 A A 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 B 10 B

1. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are a) integrated pitch and radio altitude. b)G/S deviation and radio altitude. c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation

2. Rollout guidance after touch down is by a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b)visual indication and nosewheel steering c) visual indication and rudder control

3. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system. b)all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

4. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels b)disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach

5. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will a) retard throttle to idle. b)disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust.

6. Roll out mode occurs a) after flare b)before flare c) at alert height 7. High and low signal to voter are a) averaged b)removed c) added

8. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting b)signal comparison c) signal summing

9. In series rudder system a) the pilot cannot input to the system b)the pilot can input to the system c) yaw damping is only possible signal input

10. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable b)the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed

This is exam number 40.


Answer 1. 2 B C 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 B 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 A

1. In parallel rudder system, a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals b)The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected

2. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is a) AC b)DC c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

3. An increase in mach number will cause the a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b)Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane

4. If one FMS fails in a duel system a) system operation will not be affected b)FMS CDU on fail side goes blank c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

5. To carry out FMS database update on FMS a) use database loader b)insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU

6. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check b)call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 7. Magnetic heading errors will be a) positive if easterly b)negative if easterly c) negative if northerly

8. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading b)Move as the aircraft moves c) Stay fixed on magnetic north

9. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b)When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1

10. A helicopter autopilot uses a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b)barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude

hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

This is exam number 41.


Answer 1. 2 C B 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 C 10 B

1. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation b)Radio deviation c) Course deviation

2. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout b)Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare

3. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft b)When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

4. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

c) All are continuously available

5. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis b)Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis

6. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are a) lift, drag thrust, weight b)lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift 7. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b)Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control

8. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 microseconds b)8 microseconds c) 17 microseconds

9. What does the Radar contour button do? a) Alter the beam shape b)Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier

10. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles b)25 miles c) 40 miles This is exam number 42.
Answer 1. 2 A A 3 A 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 B

1. With a spring balance control system you can a) move the control surface on the ground b)move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground

2. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is a) 50 ohms b)20 ohms c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively

3. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made b)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

4. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b)controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position

5. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b)Longitudinal c) Normal

6. Versine is used in which channel? a) Pitch b)Roll c) Yaw 7. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b)cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

8. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? a) Visual inspections b)Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications

9. An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b)Move right c) Moves left then hard right

10. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030

relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating? a) 030 b)060 c) 090 This is exam number 43.
Answer 1. 2 C A 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 A 8 B 9 B 10 C

1. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft b)5,000ft c) 18,000ft

2. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be? a) Left Rudder b)Right Rudder c) No Rudder

3. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab? a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b)It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface

4. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe b)Combustion chamber and jet pipe c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber

5. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? a) Stick Shaker b)Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning

6. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up b)go one wing down c) nose down 7. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal? a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b)It will fly in circles c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

8. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount b)it will fly in circles c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

9. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation? a) Red b)Amber c) White

10. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? a) FM

b)Pulse c) FM and Pulse

This is exam number 44.


Answer 1. 2 C A 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 B

1. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b)They return back to neutral when the turn is complete c) They disappear out of view

2. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? a) Normal b)Longitudinal c) Lateral

3. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser b)elevator c) spoilers

4. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes a) thetwo elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b)all the elevators on each wing to move up c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

5. What are ground spoilers used for? a) To dump lift b)To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft

6. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command? a) Control Wheel b)Control Column c) Rudder Pedals 7. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? a) 3000 psi b)1000 psi c) 300 psi

8. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger b)defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead

9. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure? a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable b)0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG

10. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a) 0.5 ohms b)1 ohm c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms

This is exam number 45.


Answer 1. 2 A A 3 4 B 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? a) Drag Strut b)Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber

2. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? a) Increasing in lift b)Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag

3. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? a) 10% approximately b)100% c) 50%

4. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC b)Polarity sensitive DC c) Either

5. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude b)Last Known Latitude c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

6. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have? a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input b)The cyclic lever will not move c) The flight director bars only will move 7. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? a) Through the ground test function b)Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function

8. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? a) The voltage activity in the servo amp b)Trim tab position c) Control surface position

9. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62 b)42 c) 20

10. When using a bonding tester you a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b)use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing

This is exam number 46.


Answer 1. 2 A C 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades b)Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades

2. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances b)Velocity c) Pressure changes

3. With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved? a) It remains in the neutral position b)It moves in the same direction as the control surface c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface

4. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off b)Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection

5. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer b)using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator

c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer

6. What is the glide slope frequency range? a) 108 - 112 Mhz b)108 - 112 Ghz c) 329 - 335 Mhz 7. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte b)Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage

8. Upwash on a helicopter would result in a) increase in lift without an increase in power b)decrease in lift c) decrease in speed

9. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound b)Clacking sound c) Horn sound

10. What is a slot used for? a) To reinforce the boundary layer b)Increased angle of attack during approach c) Increase the speed of the airflow This is exam number 47.
Answer

1. B

2 B

3 A

4 B

5 C

6 B

7 A

8 B

9 A

10 C

1. ADF is a) Rho b)Theta c) Rho-Theta

2. A Boost Gauge reads a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure b)absolute pressure c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure

3. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and a) relative air flow b)tip path plane c) horizontal axis

4. If cyclic is moved to the right a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another b)the rotor blades on the right flap down c) the rotor blades on the left flap down

5. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz b)2 - 6 GHz c) 100 KHz

6. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack

had an aileron going down? a) Decrease stall speed b)Increase stall speed c) Have no effect on the stall speed 7. A high lift device is used for a) take off and landing b)take off only c) landing only

8. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls? a) Frame b)Bulkhead c) Stringer

9. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission? a) To make an installation recognise its own transmission b)To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area

10. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100 b)50 c) 20 This is exam number 48.
Answer 1. 2 B B 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 B

1. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?

a) Material of the coil b)Material of the sensing element c) Material of the indicator needle

2. After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal b)continue to roll further c) remain at the position that it had rolled to

3. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? a) Spoiler to aileron b)Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator

4. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better b)To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better

5. The difference between transient droop and static droop is a) underswing b)overswing c) a hole in one

6. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b)it will display the airfield height above sea level c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

7. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes b)in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes

8. What is aileron droop? a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b)One aileron lowered c) The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on

9. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor b)No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive c) By a swashplate

10. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation b)The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation This is exam number 49.
Answer 1. 2 A A 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 B 10 B

1. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is a) semi rigid b)rigid

c)

fully articulating

2. Earths atmosphere is a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen b)4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen

3. A thermocouple a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added b)cannot be shortened c) can be shortened

4. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? a) Bellows and diaphragm b)Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature c) Press relief valve

5. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by a) webs b)outer plate c) inner plate

6. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) 60 b)63 c) 1000 7. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

a) increases at the tip b)increases at the root c) is unaffected by blade position

8. TCAS II is a) 1 aircraft per square nautical mile b)24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square

9. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor b)loop voltage c) Chinaman

10. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator b)flight control computer c) straight to the actuator

This is exam number 50.


Answer 1. 2 A A 3 B 4 ? 5 B 6 C 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors a) certain parameters b)with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

2. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

a) increase with the frequency b)decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency

3. What is lapse rate? a) Pressure changes with altitude b)Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude

4. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when a) the flaps are lowered b)at higher speeds c) the landing gear is extended

5. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature b)Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery

6. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down b)Elevator down, right aileron down c) Elevator up, right aileron down 7. Where is the placement of a mercury switch? a) Outer gimbal b)Gyro case c) Instrument case

8. DC power into the GCU comes from

a) main battery bus b)main battery bus and ground service c) ground service

9. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule b)2 capsules c) 3 capsules

10. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will a) move up b)move down c) remain at the same place This is exam number 51.
Answer 1. 2 C A 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. Spring tabs a) cannot be adjusted in flight b)can be adjusted in the flight deck c) cannot be adjusted

2. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will a) increase b)decrease c) remain

3. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis b)lateral axis c) longitudinal axis

4. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 % b)20 % c) 10 %

5. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll b)increases roll c) come back to level flight

6. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? a) ASI b)altimeter c) VSI 7. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease b)increase c) remain the same

8. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b)cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire & trip occurs

9. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s b)Elevons c) Ailerons

10. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? a) Up Elevator b)Left rudder c) Down elevator This is exam number 52.
Answer 1. 2 B A 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag b)Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only

2. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have? a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds b)Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only

3. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? a) Heading error b)Course error c) Radio deviation

4. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection b)Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing

5. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B b)B and C c) E and F

6. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? a) Bellows or diaphragm b)No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil 7. The result of the equation (Dev E Dev W)/2 is known as a) Coefficient B b)Coefficient A c) Coefficient C

8. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession? a) Increase b)Remain unaffected c) Decrease

9. A q feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping b)the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief

10. ADF operates within which frequencies? a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz b)118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32KHz - 64 KHz This is exam number 53.
Answer 1. 2 B C 3 A 4 A 5 ? 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 C

1. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? a) Roll out b)Flare c) Touchdown

2. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b)LNAV c) CRZ

3. Mode C response is a) 21 microseconds b)12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds

4. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?

a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel b)Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table

5. An uncorrected ADI is affected by a) climb b)descent c) roll

6. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites b)2 ground stations and 4 satellites c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 7. The term 'circulating currents' refer to a) AC generators b)AC and DC Generators c) DC generators

8. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it? a) LH side b)RH side c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)

9. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line b)aircraft flies along the runway centre line c) aircraft flies in circles

10. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG b)CSD c) swash plate This is exam number 54.
Answer 1. 2 A B 3 A 4 A 5 ? 6 ? 7 ? 8 B 9 A 10 ?

1. WX radar display the time base is a) saw tooth wave form b)trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form

2. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will a) stay on centre of course b)stay parallel to course c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing

3. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is a) to increase GS signal b)to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal

4. A helicopter needs to re-trim a) indication is shown on the API b)indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator

5. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro b)an RVDT c) an LVDT

6. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is a) 50 ohms b)25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 7. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure b)to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure

8. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal b)vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels

9. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses a) attenuation first then amplification b)amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification

10. DME how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? a) Decoder b)Blocking oscillator c) Integrator This is exam number 55.
Answer 1. 2 C ? 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 B

1. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohmmeter the reading will be a) 80 ohms b)200 ohms c) more than 20 megohms

2. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI b)Flight director computer c) both of the above

3. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system b)a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade

4. When the flaps are lowered a) the lift vector moves forward b)the lift vector moves rearward

c) there is no effect on the lift vector

5. At take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a a) large increase in lift and drag b)small increase in lift and drag c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag

6. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b)between the aerial and ATU c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)

7. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b)that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning c) the trim system is out of datum

8. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually a) dependent on aircraft altitude b)100% c) chosen as a compromise

9. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only b)allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive

10. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30 b)+/- 42 c) +/- 62

This is exam number 56.


Answer 1. 2 B A 3 A 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 A

1. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90 b)180 c) 0

2. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when a) flaps are retracted b)landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended

3. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station? a) 96 nautical miles b)100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles

4. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? a) 10 b)5 c) 2.5

5. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz b)118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz

6. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal b)below the carrier signal c) No sidebands present

7. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around b)audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only

8. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b)can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver

9. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure a) to the control wheel

b)to the control column c) to the rudder pedals

10. On a modern aircraft about to stall a) the outboard slats extend automatically b)engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically This is exam number 57.
Answer 1. 2 B B 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 A

1. Wing can spoilers be used a) to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b)as ground spoilers on landing c) to assist the elevators

2. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure b)set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet

3. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b)pitch and yaw simultaneously c) yaw and roll simultaneously

4. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the

vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b)will move down c) will not move

5. Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b)transmitter power output c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

6. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass b)all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only

7. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 degrees b)3 degrees c) 5 degrees

8. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error b)residual error c) index error

9. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) Parallax error b)Surface reflection c) Static to avoid dust attraction

10. Versine signal is governed by a) roll b)pitch c) yaw

This is exam number 58.


Answer 1. 2 B B 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 A

1. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4% b)7% c) 10.321%

2. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is a) 20 inches b)24 inches c) 28 inches

3. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot

head is carried out with a) an inclinometer b)micrometer c) spirit level

4. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by a) Tachogenerator b)Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor

5. When an hydraulic system is un pressurised, the position of flight control surfaces are a) down b)neutral c) droop

6. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution b)range accuracy c) bearing resolution

7. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage? a) 115V b)345V c) 460V

8. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2

inches dia. This is the a) opening dia. of pitot head b)internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates c) external dia of pitot head

9. On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment b)it does not have any adjustment c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments

10. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset potentiometer is fitted a) in series with the field winding b)in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output This is exam number 59.
Answer 1. 2 B C 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 C 10 C

1. Battery trays are a) metal for earthing purposes b)metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte

2. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel b)series c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option

3. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth b)Positive to battery relay c) Positive to external power relay

4. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is a) 115 Degrees F b)144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C

5. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by a) constant voltage b)constant current c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage

6. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21 b)Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21 7. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length b)in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

8. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is a) stationary b)fluctuating c) pulse width modulating

9. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors b)diodes and transformers c) zeners and transistors

10. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by a) voltage coil b)current coil c) voltage and current coil

This is exam number 60.


Answer 1. 2 C C 3 C 4 A 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 A 10 C

1. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency b)decreases output voltage c) increases output voltage and increases frequency

2. Inductive reactive load causes a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b)increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated c) increase in torque only

3. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work b)reactive power from the generator that does work c) real power from the generator that does work

4. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by a) angle of swash plate b)IDG c) restriction valve

5. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery b)short circuits c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

6. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be a) stationary b)rotating at idle c) rotating at Nsync

7. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to a) enable generators to be paralleled b)prevent engine overload c) maintain constant load on the generator

8. In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is

a) activation of the time delay circuit b)de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay

9. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the a) CSD drives shaft had sheared b)phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative

10. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will a) decrease and amperage output increases b)increases and amperage output increases c) remain constant and amperage output increases This is exam number 61.
Answer 1. 2 B B 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 B

1. Directional property is exhibited by a) the sense antenna b)the loop antenna c) both the sense and loop antenna

2. In ADF system, Goniometer a) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna b)effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna c) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna

3. In an aircraft VOR receiver a) 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal b)30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz variable phase signal c) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal

4. In CVOR, 9960 c/s FM subcarrier is used in a) VAR phase b)REF phase c) station identification Morse code

5. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because a) DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors b)DVOR ground installation is relatively simpler c) DVOR is compatible for digital processing

6. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on a) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of 20.3 microseconds b)a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation c) a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds 7. In ILS, the glide slope provides a) lateral steering b)vertical steering c) distance checks

8. The components of an ILS are: a) A localizer and a glide slope b)A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons c) A localizer and the marker beacons

9. If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show a) the flag b)fly right c) fly left

10. Localizer modulation depth is a) 2% b)20% c) 50% This is exam number 62.
Answer 1. 2 A B 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A

1. The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have a midband length of a) &#960;/4 b)&#960;/2 c) &#960;

2. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip must have a length of about

a) 29cm b)59cm c) 70cm

3. An isotropic radiator a) is an end fed &#960;/2 unipole b)has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern c) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram

4. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will be a) 1.5:1 b)2:1 c) 2.5:1

5. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be a) reverse R1+R2 connections only b)reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections c) reverse R1+S2 connections

6. The mode S squitter pulse will a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation b)contain the aircraft identity c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information

7. When using the GPS a) database card must be replaced every 28 days b)once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate

with a warning message c) once the database expires the system will not operate

8. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo a) receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db b)increased by 10 to 12db c) marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level

9. In a CVR system hot mics a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches b)is a term applied to all the aircrafts mics c) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch

10. A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds, the slant range to the transponder is approximately a) 196 nm b)200 nm c) 200 statute miles This is exam number 63.
Answer 1. 2 A A 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 B

1. The most common type of gyro used in an INS is a) a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping b)a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy current damping c) a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to sense rate of displacement

2. A laser dither mechanism ensures that a) optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together b)the contra rotating beams are synchronised together c) that the two contra rotating beams are each at different frequencies

3. Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited a) modes 1, 3, 4a, 6 b)modes 2, 4, 5 c) modes 4b, 5

4. The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated a) once only b)twice only c) three times only

5. DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how many sub-frames? a) 4 b)6 c) 8

6. The middle marker is keyed with a) dots b)dashes c) alternate dots and dashes

7. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR a) 25/75 b)25/5 c) 75/75

8. An accelerometer in an INS must be able to detect accelerations down to a) 10-3 g b)10-2 g c) 10-6 g

9. An accelerometer has a) low inertia, free suspension b)high inertia, restrained c) high inertia, free suspension

10. When a compass is in the slave mode a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated b)azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit This is exam number 64.
Answer 1. 2 B C 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 C

1. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the a) battery bus bar b)battery bus bar or ground services

c) ground services

2. Bandwidth of HF transmission is a) 1khz b)1.5khz c) 3khz

3. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect? a) More deviation b)More variation c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only

4. GPS a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits b)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits

5. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect a) galley services b)IFE c) first officers transfer bus

6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a) TA b)RA c) either RA or TA

7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles b)White squares, red diamonds and amber circles c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares

8. A RAT provides AC power of around a) 7.5 kva b)63 kva c) 28 VAC

9. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the a) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated b)CSD drive shaft has sheared c) bus tie interlock is inoperative

10. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is affected by a) contactors b)Generator Control Unit (GCU) c) But Tie Bar (BTB)

This is exam number 65.


Answer 1. 2 C B 3 B 4 A 5 ? 6 A 7 C 8 ? 9 ? 10 A

1. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) reactive power from the generator that does work b)apparent power from the generator that does work c) real power from the generator that does work

2. Parallel distribution systems can typically be found on all a) twin-engined aircraft b)aircraft with 3 or more engines c) aircraft with 4 or more engines only

3. Aircraft generators are connected in a) series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel to each other b)series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other c) parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other

4. Mach trim counters a) longitudinal instability b)lateral instability c) vertical instability

5. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from a) Ground services bus b)Ground handling bus c) Transfer bus

6. TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if a) aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet vertically of each other b)a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring c) a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring

7. A split flap a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted b)forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted

8. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when a) APP switch is pressed b)the aircraft captures the glideslope c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal

9. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set a) in the workshop b)by the manufacturer c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is obtained

10. Airspeed hold is a a) pitch mode b)lateral mode c) heading mode

This is exam number 66.


Answer 1. 2 ? ? 3 ? 4 A 5 ? 6 B 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 ?

1. When servicing an RVSM aircraft a) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable b)the alt alert must be serviceable c) the alt hold must be serviceable

2. An ASI compressibility error correction will be a) Positive b)Negative c) Both

3. A GNS satellite system transmissions are a) vertically polarised b)horizontally polarised c) right hand circular

4. An anti-servo tab a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral b)moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the pilot c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist the pilot

5. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use a) 3 phase AC b)Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter

6. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be

a) 300m b)400m c) 800m

7. ADF quadrantal error will be at a) 0 Degrees b)45 Degrees c) 90 Degrees

8. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing a) trailing edge b)leading edge lower surface c) leading edge upper surface

9. A plain flap a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface b)When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing

10. Compass error Q corrections correct a) A error b)B error c) C error

This is exam number 67.


Answer 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

1. ICAO Standard atmosphere is a) taken from data measured at the equator b)taken from data measured at 45 degrees North c) relevant to set parameters

2. a) b) c)

3. a) b) c)

4. a) b) c)

5. a) b) c)

6.

a) b) c)

7. a) b) c)

8. a) b) c)

9. a) b) c)

10. a) b) c)

MODULE 13 Exam
1. Flaps at landing position a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed # c) decrease landing speed 2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag c) increases lift 3. Pushing the left rudder pedal # a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing 4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure b) Bonding and insulation tests # c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment 5. What do ruddervators do? # a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll 6. On a helicopter what is dragging? a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges # b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground 7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators b) Ailerons # c) Elevons 8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler b) external doubler c) an intercostals 9. What does a trim tab do? # a) Eases control loading for pilot b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot

Page 1 - Mod 13

10. How does a balance tab move? a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount # c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to 11. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b) 9th orbit # c) 2nd orbit 12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus # b) AC bus c) GND services 13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp # b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b) 090 # c) 180 15. What is power at pulse? # a) Peak power b) Pulsed power c) Average power 16. What frequency increases radar relative range a) high # b) low c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change 17. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect 18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be # a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm Page 2 - Mod 13

19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you a) 3 ft error b) 6ft error # c) 12 foot error 20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width b) narrowest width # c) number of joints and bends 21. Which side of the pilot is the collective? # a) Left b) Right c) In-between legs 22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift b) No effect c) Increases thrust 23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter? # a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers 24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio 25. Relative velocity of rotor # a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades 26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling? a) Increase # b) Decrease c) No effect 27. How many satellites required for GNS? a) 8 # b) 4 c) 6 90o apart

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28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing # c) recharging 29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit b) No effect c) Electrical systems shut down 30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees # b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees 31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected # c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure 32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR 33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors 35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting 36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged # b) after glideslope capture c) at any time Page 4 - Mod 13

37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters 39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway 40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR 41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b) produce a co-ordinated turn # c) block the Dutch roll frequency 42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels # b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach 43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error 44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD # b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM c) V/S and ALT ARM

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45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD 46. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power # b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers 47. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland 48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in # a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs 50. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial 51. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros # b) synchros resolvers c) control synchro transformers 52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight b) prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron

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53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation # b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course 54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement # b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged 55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations 56. The GA mode is usually initiated by a) pressing a button on the control wheel # b) pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel 57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe 58. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check # b) call up the relevant page on the CDU c) call up the relevant current status 59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed 60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current # c) Over current and over frequency

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62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b) 25 ohms # c) 50 ohms 63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate # b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts 64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil 65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 # b) JAR OPS (M) c) Maintenance Manual 66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed 67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b) 120 degrees # c) 140 degrees 68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done # a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only 69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? # a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity

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70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing 71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint # b) bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease 72. An elevator tab moves down # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b) to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy 73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking # a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or feet a) 400ft b) 160ft # c) 80ft 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces 76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU) # c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) 77. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile # b) Non-volatile c) Hard 78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG # b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Page 9 - Mod 13

79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS 80. The stall margin is controlled by a) EPR limits b) speed bug cursor # c) angle of attack and flap position 81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged # c) only after take off 82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only # b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter 83. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b) Control of thrust reverser operation # c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers 84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare # b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold 85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 86. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m

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87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of a) 15 m # b) 60 m c) 0 m 88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal # b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals 89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 # b) 1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III # c) ILS system must be working 91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is # a) mandatory b) a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed 92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b) by a selector on the throttle control panel # c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum 93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b) the decrab phase # c) start of flare phase 94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when the autopilot is engaged # b) at any time after autoland has been engaged c) at any time 95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland a) ILS localiser an IAS b) IAS and glide slope # c) IAS and steering or heading Page 11 - Mod 13

96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b) rotate nose up # c) increase speed and rotate nose up 97. V NAV can be selected a) alone b) only if A/P and F/D selected # c) only if A/T selected 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) system degrade to CAT II b) autoland is continued # c) go-around is initiated 99. The order of autoland approach is # a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD 100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b) assist with glide slope tracking # c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down 101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected # c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure 102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver a) is increased as the aircraft descends b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # c) is decreased as the aircraft descends 103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant Page 12 - Mod 13

105. on touchdown, auto pilot a) remains engaged ready for G/A b) drives the throttles forward # c) disconnects after a short time 106. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. # b) before D.H. c) after D.H. 107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by a) the area navigation system # b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon 108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from # a) radio altimeter b) the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now, a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant 110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition # b) produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically 111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system # b) duplex system c) dual-dual system 112. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b) localiser and glideslope # c) decision height and runway visual range 113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height # b) Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal

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114. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR # b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters 115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim # b) continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim 116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? # a) Nose down bias b) Nose up bias c) No signal 117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays? a) Ailerons b) Throttles # c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals 118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go # b) ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go 119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 120. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased # b) decreased c) is the same 122. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

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123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is # a) 50 milliohms b) 1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms 124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors # b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead 125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by # a) low spring tension b) bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis 126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b) Put a set resistance across the terminals # c) Leave the terminals open circuit 128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left # b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system # b) Duplex system c) Simplex system 130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be # a) painted in a conductive paint b) painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure 131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively Page 15 - Mod 13

132. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature # c) Mach and Temp 133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b) Under the Fuselage # c) Either side of the Fuselage 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? # a) Tend to increase b) Tend to decrease c) Stay the same 135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim # c) remains in the previous position 136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause # a) poor channel selectivity b) poor audio output c) poor volume output 137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter # b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS 138. Alert Height is when # a) a decision of whether to land is made b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made 139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining 140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water # b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required

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141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of # a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz 142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree # b) 3 degree c) 5 degree 143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 # b) 045 c) 090 144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators # b) AC generators c) AC & DC generators 145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the # a) spoiler b) leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps 146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b) 110 degree # c) 50 degree 147. Stall warning will be given at speeds # a) that are higher than stall speed b) that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed 148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights # b) Turning off the anti-collision lights c) Flashing the landing light 149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at # a) 1500 ft b) 2500 ft c) 3500 ft

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150. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator # b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus 151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to # a) excessive charging current b) insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage 152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to # a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b) disconnect the system if a fault appears c) both a & b 153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour # b) amber c) red colour 154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 # b) 121.5 c) 118.00 155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only # b) continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air 156. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch # c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to # a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b) remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB 158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b) Maintenance Manual # c) JAR OPS

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159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover? a) 100 nm # b) 120 nm c) 140 nm 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial # b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is # a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator 162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b) decibels # c) relative amplitude 163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b) minimum flow rate # c) cannot be adjusted 164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between # a) true north and magnetic north b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north 165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b) rate of ascent # c) rate of descent 166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 # b) 24 c) 36 167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the # a) square of the speed b) square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed

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168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of # a) capsule elasticity b) capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship 169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank # b) aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight 170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal # a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency 171. During flare mode autothrottle will # a) retard throttles to idle b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust 172. A CSD is monitored for a) low temp and high oil pressure # b) high temp and low oil pressure c) high temp and high oil pressure 173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? # a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected a) it is centralized by a spring b) its control is maintained by electric trim # c) it is centralized by the airflow 175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac b) 200v ac # c) High voltage stepped up 176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is # a) zero b) full scale deflection c) centre scale

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177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance # b) increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance 178. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b) adjusted when tanks are empty # c) cannot be adjusted 179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are # a) bulkheads b) longerons c) frame 180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by # a) excessive electrical loading b) high charge current c) low charge current 181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1. a) This is normal # b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx 182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks # b) damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks 183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. # a) Cell is defective b) You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell 184. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b) TCAs only # c) all L band equipments including TCAS 185. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters # c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters

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186. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits # b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 187. When the captain calls attendant # a) a high low chine and pink light comes on b) a low chine and blue light comes on c) a high chine and pink light comes on 188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b) a selcall light along with chine comes on # c) a chime sounds in the cockpit 189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected # b) the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift # b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle 191. IDG output voltage a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. # b) voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG 192. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal # b) rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error 193. When moving the control column # a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

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194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown

a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b) there is an increases tail plane up-force # c) there is an increased tailplane down-force 195. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility # c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility 196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged # a) after reverse thrust is applied b) after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing 197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? # a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll 198. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank b) a false indication of right bank # c) a false indication of climb 199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc # b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door # b) Left wing c) Right wing

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201. Shock stall a) is a flap down stall # b) occurs at high speeds c) occurs at low speeds 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by a) flapping b) dragging # c) centrifugal force 203. During a left turn a) left rudder to be used b) right rudder to be used # c) ball is to be maintained in centre turn and slip indicator 204. Align light flashes during alignment # a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off fore b) It is attracting operators attention c) It is indicating progress of alignment 205. During decent with power on in a helicopter a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter 206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system # a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll c) Synchros are used 207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures a) specific gravity of fuel # b) K value of fuel c) fuel quantity 208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force a) Heading and Deviation # b) Course error and Deviation c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation 209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by # a) BPCU b) PCDU (power control distribution unit) c) SPCU

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210. As you approach supersonic # a) total drag is increased b) lift is reduced c) thrust is reduced 211. Range resolution is obtained by a) High PRF # b) Shorter pulse width c) Shorter beam width 212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by # a) Larger pulse width b) Larger beam width c) Larger frequency 213. When the trailing edge flap is a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change # c) CP move rearward 214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails a) Auto throttle disengages # b) Throttle hold is annunciated c) Fail light illuminates 215. Flight director command bars indicate # a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred b) Direction in which aircraft is flying c) Direction in which the beacon is 216. Mode S has a) 12 address bits # b) 24 address bits c) 36 address bits 217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) In phase b) Opposite phase # c) Phase quadrature 218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is # a) 80 ft b) 300 ft c) 500 ft

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219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is a) 3 inch b) 6 inch # c) 9 inch 220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero # b) tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred 221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip # b) a corrugated bonding jumper c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends 222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system a) 0.5 ohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less 223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists # a) longitudinal stability b) lateral stability c) vertical stability 224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed # a) it must be installed on LH side b) it must be installed on RH side c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side 225. Main electric trim is controlled by # a) a switch on control wheel b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel c) a wheel on the center pedastal 226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number # b) lower mach number c) not effected

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227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks b) both CDU blanks # c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place 228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would a) indicate climb # b) indicate decent c) not be affected 229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure? a) ASI # b) VSI c) Altimeter 230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise b) is to rotate anticlockwise # c) It may be rotated either direction 231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) Having filters in power supply lines b) Separating the affected and affecting cables # c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit 232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is a) 1 degree # b) 5 degree c) 10 degree 233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision? # a) The one with the higher address b) The one with the smaller address c) Neither changes the decision 234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot? # a) 10% b) 50% c) 100%

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235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by a) synchros attached to the control # b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control c) a lock on the cockpit control 236. Helicopter blades are a) highly cambered b) reverse cambered # c) Symmetrical 237. GPS antenna is a) vertically polarized b) horizontally polarized # c) lincomp polarization 238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is a) to the left b) to the right # c) in the centre 239. An autopilot computer # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS 240. What type of flap is this?

a) Split flap b) Fowler flap c) Plain flap

241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to a) transmit motion # b) reverse direction and transmit motion c) adjust friction 242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is # a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure c) to minimise power losses

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243. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics b) experience of the crew # c) RVR transmitted by ATC 244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by a) mercury switches on the inner ring b) mercury switches on the outer ring # c) flux valve slaving 245. Index error is a) coefficient B b) Coefficient P # c) misalignment of compass lubber line 246. Helicopter derives its lift from # a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it b) rotor acts as a airscrew c) air is pushed downward 247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called a) rigid rotor # b) semi rigid rotor c) fully articulated rotor 248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers b) to amplify the RF signal # c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers 249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal # c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal 250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives a) excessive ground clutter # b) no signal c) excess signals 251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded # b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot c) maximum rudder deflection

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252. Servo tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 253. Spring Tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of # a) 20 degrees per second b) 30 degrees per second c) 15 degrees per second 255. Omega ground stations # a) transmit pulses of CW b) carrier modulated by three audio tones c) series of CW 256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set # a) 1013.25 mb b) sea level pressure c) prevailing pressure 257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact a) before the primary stops # b) after the primary stops c) at the same time as the primary stops 258. EICAS indicates # a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions b) engine performance only c) engine performance and aircraft status 259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right # a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 260. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly

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261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) It move as the aircraft moves c) It stays fixed on magnetic north 262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? # a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC a) records all faults in volatile memory # b) records all faults in non-volatile memory c) all memory is erased when aircraft lands 264. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? # a) Radio deviation b) Glideslope deviation c) Course deviation 266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft # b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? # a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available

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269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 270. A spring balance control system you # a) can move the control surface on the ground b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab c) cannot move the control surface on the ground 271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene? a) To prevent corrosion # b) To prevent precipitation static c) To provide lightning protection 272. What is a versine signal attenuated with? a) Increase in airspeed # b) Increase in altitude c) Decrease in altitude 273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to a) OFF # b) AM c) either USB or LSB 274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds # b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate? a) TO # b) FROM c) Neither 276. What does the Radar contour button do? a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power # c) Alter the video amplifier

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277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target? a) 12 miles # b) 25 miles c) 40 miles 278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state? a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground # c) Tip vortex build-up during hover 279. What controls are used in response to PVD display? # a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals b) Control wheel c) PVD control unit 280. DME transponder transmits on receipt a) of any interrogation b) of pilot input command request # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds 281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P # a) does not move b) moves freely along the length of the blade c) is insignificant 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is a) 16ft b) 12ft # c) 28ft 283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of a) 12bits b) 64bits # c) 24bits 284. The rotor cone is formed by a) blade alignment # b) centrifugal force and lift c) centrifugal force only 285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path a) balance b) restore # c) align

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286. Artificial feel is gained by using a a) hydraulic damper # b) spring bias unit c) 'feel' generator 287. The ground run monitor presents information # a) of distance to go and ground speed b) duration of ground run c) angle of crosstrack on ground 288. A mode C transponder # a) can be used for TCAS b) cannot be used for TCAS c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only 289. The audio select panel allows the crew to a) transmit on one channel, listen on one # b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others 290. The crew select DH on a) the altimeter b) the DH annunciator panel # c) the rad alt display 291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider a) power requirements # b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal c) the diameter of cables 292. GPS has # a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4 b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6 c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9 293. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows voice ident of DME # b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal c) disables DME voice ident 294. GPS frequency is a) 1575 GHz # b) 1575 MHz c) 1525 MHz

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295. Radio switches are normally # a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C 296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft # a) systems is disabled b) no traffic will be shown c) all traffic produces aural alert 297. Mode S pulses. Which are used? a) F1,F2,F4,F5 # b) s1,p1,p3,p4 c) s1,s2,p1,p2 298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is a) it amplifies output stages # b) it improves signal to noise ratio c) it couples noise factors 299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from a) 115 volts from ac bus b) 200 volts from ac bus # c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units 300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving a) one moving in direction of relative air flow b) highest blade # c) one moving forward into relative airflow 301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies a) speed increase # b) speed decrease c) height decrease 302. Back beam is captured # a) by manually selecting the back beam mode b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode 303. With a bonding meter # a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item c) it does not matter which lead goes where

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304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ a) higher b) lower # c) higher or lower 305. Flight director incompatible modes are # a) VOR and glideslope b) heading and altitude hold c) VOR and altitude hold 306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet? a) 110 nm # b) 120 nm c) 130 nm 307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? a) c/a code only # b) c/a code and P code c) P code only 308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings # b) design of engine and gearbox supports c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft 309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from a) rad alt to barometric # b) rad alt decrease c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold 310. on power up, the IRS obtains position a) latitude from previous position # b) longitude from previous position c) latitude and longitude from previous position 311. Krueger flaps make up part of the a) wing upper surface leading edge b) wing lower surface trailing edge # c) wing lower surface leading edge 312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the # a) control column b) flight control panel c) behind thrust levers

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313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as # a) apparent A b) real A c) true A 314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in a) BCARs # b) JAR OPS subpart M c) maintenance manual 315. Carbon microphones require # a) DC supply b) AC supply c) no supply 316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with a) FM # b) phase drift keying c) Manchester code 317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined b) flights must not continue after four days # c) flights must not continue after 72 hours 318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is a) +/- 35 degrees b) +/-40 degrees # c) +/-60 degrees 319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates a) 30 degrees # b) 90 degrees c) 60 degrees 320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by a) non conductive paint b) conductive paint # c) earth primary conductors 321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information # b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

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322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is a) the y code b) the p code # c) the c/a code 323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for good pulse shape are a) wide and narrow # b) narrow and wide c) wide and wide 324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost a) the aircraft flies in a circle # b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle 325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires a) pitot only b) static only # c) pitot and static 326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to # a) the right b) the left c) the left with some aileron assistance 327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to a) amount of aircraft disturbance b) attitude of aircraft # c) rate of yaw 328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons # c) to assist the up going aileron 329. Glideslope deviation signals are # a) DC polarity sensitive b) AC phase sensitive c) DC positive going only 330. A triplex system loses one channel # a) pilot can continue with autoland b) pilot can use auto approach c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

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331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority 332. Stall warning will be given # a) before stall b) after stall c) at stall 333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to # a) log relevant maintenance data b) transmits to the CMC c) provides details of defect action 334. How are spoilers normally operated? # a) Hydraulic actuator b) Air pistons c) Electrical motors 335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered 336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time b) one generator always comes on line before the other # c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled 337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft b) when the battery is fully charged # c) in the charging room only 338. When removing the load from a current transformer # a) short the terminals b) place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open

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339. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees # b) 110 degrees c) 180 degrees 340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b b) c and d # c) e and f 341. When paralleling two AC generators a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC # b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase 342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that # a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator 343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b) prevents slip and skid in yaw # c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn 344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals b) integrating deviation signals # c) integrating course error signals 345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause a) the pointer to read zero b) the pointer to read mid scale # c) the pointer to read full scale 346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to # a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g

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347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed # b) decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed 348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's a) lateral axis # b) longitudinal axis c) vertical axis 349. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band # b) UHF band c) VHF band 350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank # b) aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight 351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are # a) DC b) AC c) pulsed DC 352. Fuel quantity test set consists of a) resistance decade # b) capacitance bridge c) inductance decade 353. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters # b) engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters 354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when # a) the flaps are moving down b) the flap are moving up c) the flap are moving up or down 355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational # b) passive c) simplex Page 41 - Mod 13

356. DSR TK (desired track) means a) the bearing to capture the track # b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track 357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from # a) the barometric alt capsule b) a rad alt output c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height 358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated # b) AM Modulated c) modulated with a 9960Hz 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will # a) retard the throttle b) reverse thrust c) control throttle for a IAS 360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the a) amplitude b) frequency # c) rate of frequency change 361. The normal axis on a helicopter is # a) straight down the rotor head b) at 90o to the C of G c) at 90o to the rotor head 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used # a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b) make the audio signal clearer c) an Americanisum for volume 363. A GPS aerial is polarised a) vertically b) horizontally # c) right hand circular 364. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual # c) manufacture

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365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR b) stop arcing between the wave guide # c) stop moisture entering the wave guide 366. An RMI requires the following inputs: # a) Heading and radio deviation b) Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only 367. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only b) roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel 368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called # a) transient droop b) static droop c) under swing 369. Loran C Uses a) 16 KHz b) 20 Mhz # c) 100 Khz 370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is a) 50% of control movement # b) 10% of control movement c) full control movement 371. GPS Telemetry consists of # a) week number and time label b) satellite position information c) 8 bits of preamble and position information 372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90o b) 180o c) 0o 373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual # b) JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8

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374. The rotor disc is # a) the distance between tip to tip b) the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion 375. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting 376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display? a) 90o b) 0o # c) 180o 377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would a) continue on flying on the localizer # b) fly parallel to the localizer c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are # a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are a) not less than 100 ft. # b) not less than 200 ft. c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft. 380. When GA is initiated? a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles # c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust 381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are # a) integrated pitch and radio altitude. b) G/S deviation and radio altitude. c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation 382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by # a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b) visual indication and nosewheel steering c) visual indication and rudder control

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283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system. # b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system. 384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels # b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach 285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will # a) retard throttle to idle. b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust. 386. Roll out mode occurs # a) after flare b) before flare c) at alert height 287. High and low signal to voter are # a) average b) removed c) added 388. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting # b) signal comparison c) signal summing 389. In series rudder system a) the pilot cannot input to the system # b) the pilot can input to the system c) yaw damping is only possible signal input 390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable # b) the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed 391. in parallel rudder system, a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals # b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected

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292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is a) AC b) DC # c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input 393. An increase in mach number will cause the # a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane 394. If one FMS fails in a duel system a) system operation will not be affected b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank # c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer 395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS # a) use database loader b) insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU 396. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check # b) call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 397. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) Move as the aircraft moves c) Stay fixed on magnetic north 399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? # a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 400. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold Page 46 - Mod 13

401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation # b) Radio deviation c) Course deviation 402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft # b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? # a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available 405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are # a) lift, drag thrust, weight b) lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift 407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? # a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control 408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds # b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds

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409. What does the Radar contour button do? a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power # c) Alter the video amplifier 410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles # b) 25 miles c) 40 miles 411. With a spring balance control system you can # a) move the control surface on the ground b) move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground 412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively 413. Alert Height is when # a) a decision of whether to land is made b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim # c) remains in the previous position 415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 416. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 417. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

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418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left # b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating? a) 030 # b) 060 c) 090 421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft b) 5,000ft # c) 18,000ft 422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be? # a) Left Rudder b) Right Rudder c) No Rudder 423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab? a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface # c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface 424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber 425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? # a) Stick Shaker b) Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning

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426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up # b) go one wing down c) nose down 427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal? # a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b) It will fly in circles c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount # b) it will fly in circles c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation? a) Red # b) Amber c) White 430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? a) FM b) Pulse # c) FM and Pulse 431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete # c) They Disappear out of view 432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? # a) Normal b) Longitudinal c) Lateral 433. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser # b) elevator c) spoilers 434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes # a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b) all the elevators on each wing to move up c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up Page 50 - Mod 13

435. What are ground spoilers used for? # a) To dump lift b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft 436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command? # a) Control Wheel b) Control Column c) Rudder Pedals 437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? # a) 3000 psi b) 1000 psi c) 300 psi 438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must # a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger b) defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead 439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure? a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable # b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG 440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure? a) 0.5 # b) 1 ohm c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? # a) Drag Strut b) Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber 442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? # a) Increasing in lift b) Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag 443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? # a) 10% approximately b) 100% c) 50% Page 51 - Mod 13

444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC # b) Polarity sensitive DC c) Either 445. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude # b) Last Known Latitude c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude 446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have? a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input # b) The cyclic lever will not move c) The flight director bars only will move 447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? # a) Through the ground test function b) Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function 448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? # a) The voltage activity in the servo amp b) Trim tab position c) Control surface position 449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62 # b) 42 c) 20 450. When using a bonding tester you # a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing 451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? # a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades 452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances b) Velocity # c) Pressure changes

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453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved? a) It remains in the neutral position b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface # c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface 454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? # a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off b) Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection 455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer # b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer 456. What is the glide slope frequency range? a) 108 - 112 Mhz b) 108 - 112 Ghz # c) 329 - 335 Mhz 457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte # b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage 458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in # a) increase in lift without an increase in power b) decrease in lift c) decrease in speed 459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound # b) Clacking sound c) Horn sound 460. What is a slot used for? # a) To reinforce the boundary layer b) Increased angle of attack during approach c) Increase the speed of the airflow 461. ADF is a) Rho b) Theta c) Rho-Theta

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462. A Boost Gauge reads a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure # b) absolute pressure c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure 463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and # a) relative air flow b) tip path plane c) horizontal axis 464. If cyclic is moved to the right a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another # b) the rotor blades on the right flap down c) the rotor blades on the left flap down 465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz b) 2 - 6 GHz # c) 100 KHz 466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down? a) Decrease stall speed # b) Increase stall speed c) Have no effect on the stall speed 467. A high lift device is used for # a) take off and landing b) take off only c) landing only

468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls? a) Frame # b) Bulkhead c) Stringer 469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission? # a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area 470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100 b) 50 # c) 20

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471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer? a) Material of the coil b) Material of the sensing element # c) Material of the indicator needle 472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal # b) continue to roll further c) remain at the position that it had rolled to 473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? # a) Spoiler to aileron b) Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator 474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better # b) To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better 475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is # a) underswing b) overswing c) a hole in one 476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b) it will display the airfield height above sea level # c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes # b) in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes 478. What is aileron droop? a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b) One aileron lowered # c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on 479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive # c) By a swashplate

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480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation # b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation 481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is # a) semi rigid b) rigid c) fully articulating 482. Earths atmosphere is # a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen 483. A thermocouple a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added # b) cannot be shortened c) can be shortened 484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? # a) Bellows and diaphragm b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature c) Press relief valve 485. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by a) webs b) outer plate # c) inner plate 486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? # a) 60 b) 63 c) 1000 487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade # a) increases at the tip b) increases at the root c) is unaffected by blade position 488. TCAS II is a) 10 aircraft per square mile # b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square Page 56 - Mod 13

489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor # b) loop voltage c) Chinaman 490. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator # b) flight control computer c) straight to the actuator 491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors # a) certain parameters b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC 492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere # a) increase with the frequency b) decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency 493. What is lapse rate? a) Pressure changes with altitude # b) Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude 494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when # a) the flaps are lowered b) at higher speeds c) the landing gear is extended 495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature # b) Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery 496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down b) Elevator down, right aileron down # c) Elevator up, right aileron down 497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch? # a) Outer gimbal b) Gyro case c) Instrument case

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498. DC power into the GCU comes from # a) main battery bus b) main battery bus and ground service c) ground service 499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule # b) 2 capsules c) 3 capsules 500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will # a) move up b) move down c) remain at the same place 501. Spring tabs a) cannot be adjusted in flight b) can be adjusted in the flight deck # c) cannot be adjusted 502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will # a) increase b) decrease c) remain 503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis b) lateral axis # c) longitudinal axis 504. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 % # b) 20 % c) 10 % 505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll b) increases roll # c) come back to level flight 506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? # a) ASI b) Machmeter c) VSI

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507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease # b) increase c) remain the same 508. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & trip occurs 509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s # b) Elevons c) Ailerons 510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? # a) Up Elevator b) Left rudder c) Down elevator 511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag # b) Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only 512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have? # a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds b) Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only 513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? # a) Heading error b) Course error c) Radio deviation 514. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection # b) Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing 515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B b) B and C # c) E and F

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516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? # a) Bellows or diaphragm b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil 517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as # a) Coefficient B b) Coefficient A c) Coefficient C 518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession? # a) Increase b) Remain unaffected c) Decrease 519. A 'q' feel system supplies a) aerodynamic damping # b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief 520. ADF operates within which frequencies? # a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz 521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? # a) Roll out b) Flare c) Touchdown 522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b) LNAV # c) CRZ 523. Mode C response is a) 21microseconds # b) 12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds 524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system? # a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table

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525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by a) climb # b) descent c) roll 526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires # a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 527. The term `circling current' refers to # a) AC generators b) AC and DC Generators c) DC generators 528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it? # a) LH side b) RH side c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter) 529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line # c) aircraft flies in circles 530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG b) CSD # c) swash plate 531. WX radar display the time base is # a) saw tooth wave form b) trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form 532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will a) stay on centre of course # b) stay parallel to course c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing 533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is # a) to increase GS signal b) to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal Page 61 - Mod 13

534. A helicopter needs to re-trim # a) indication is shown on the API b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator 535. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro # b) an RVDT c) an LVDT 536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is # a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is # a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure 538. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal # b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification b) amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification 540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? # a) Decoder b) Blocking oscillator c) Integrator 541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be a) 80 ohms b) 200 ohms # c) more than 20 mega ohms 542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI # b) Flight director computer c) both of the above Page 62 - Mod 13

543. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system # b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade 544. When the flaps are lowered a) the lift vector moves forward # b) the lift vector moves rearward c) there is no effect on the lift vector 545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a # a) large increase in lift and drag b) small increase in lift and drag c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag 546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected # a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b) between the aerial and ATU c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end) 547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate # a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning c) the trim system is out of datum 548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually # a) dependent on aircraft altitude b) 100% c) chosen as a compromise 549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit # a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive # c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive 550. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30 # b) +/- 42 c) +/- 62 551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90 # b) 180 c) 0 Page 63 - Mod 13

552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when # a) flaps are retracted b) landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended 553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station? # a) 96 nautical miles b) 100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles 554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? # a) 10 b) 5 c) 2.5 555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz # b) 118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz 556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal b) below the carrier signal # c) No sidebands present 557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around # b) audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only 558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions # a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure # a) to the control wheel b) to the control column c) to the rudder pedals

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560. On a modern aircraft about to stall # a) the outboard slats extend automatically b) engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically 561. Wing can spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn # b) As ground spoilers on landing c) To assist the elevators 562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure # b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet 563. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously # c) yaw and roll simultaneously 564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up # b) will move down c) will not move 565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output # c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna 566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass # b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only 567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 degrees # b) 3 degrees c) 5 degrees

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568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error 569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) Parallax error # b) Surface reflection c) Static to avoid dust attraction 570. Versine signal is governed by # a) roll b) pitch c) yaw 571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4% # b) 7% c) 10.321% 572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is a) 20 inches # b) 24 inches c) 28 inches 573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with # a) an inclinometer b) micrometer c) spirit level 574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by # a) Tachogenerator b) Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor 575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are a) down b) neutral # c) droop 576. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution b) range accuracy # c) bearing resolution Page 66 - Mod 13

577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage?

a) 115V b) 345V c) 460V

578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the a) opening dia. of pitot head b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates # c) external dia of pitot head 579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication # a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment b) it does not have any adjustment c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments 580. A shunt wound generator fitted potentiometer is fitted # a) in series with the field winding b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output on an aircraft,a preset

581. Battery trays are a) metal for earthing purposes # b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte 582. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel b) series # c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option 583. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth b) Positive to battery relay # c) Positive to external power relay Page 67 - Mod 13

584. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is # a) 115 degrees F b) 144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C 585. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by # a) constant voltage b) constant current c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage 586. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21 # b) Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21 587. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length # b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length 588. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is # a) stationary b) fluctuating c) pulse width modulating 589. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors b) diodes and transformers # c) zeners and transistors 590. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by a) voltage coil b) current coil # c) voltage and current coil 591. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency b) decreases output voltage # c) increases output voltage and increases frequency 592. Inductive reactive load causes a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated # c) increase in torque only Page 68 - Mod 13

593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work b) reactive power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work 594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by # a) angle of swash plate b) IDG c) restriction valve 595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery b) short circuits # c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults 596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be # a) stationary b) rotating at idle c) rotating at Nsync 597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to # a) enable generators to be paralleled b) prevent engine overload c) maintain constant load on the generator 598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is # a) activation of the time delay circuit b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay 599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the # a) CSD drives shaft had sheared b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative 600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will a) decrease and amperage output increases b) increases and amperage output increases # c) remain constant and amperage output increases 601. Directional property is exhibited by a) the sense antenna # b) the loop antenna c) both the sense and loop ant.nna Page 69 - Mod 13

602. In ADF system, Goniometer a) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna # b) effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna c) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna 603. In an aircraft VOR receiver a) 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal # b) 30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz variable phase signal c) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal 604. In CVOR,9960 c/ s AM subcarrier is used in a) VAR phase # b) REF phase c) station identification Morse code 605. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because a) DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors # b) DVOR ground installation is relatively simpler c) DVOR is compatible for digital processing 606. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on a) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of 20.3 microseconds # b) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation c) a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds 607. In ILS, the glide slope provides a) lateral steering # b) vertical steering c) distance checks 608. The components of an ILS are: a) A localizer and a glide slope # b) A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons c) A localizer and the marker beacons 609. If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver ,the deviation indicator will show a) the flag # b) fly right c) fly left Page 70 - Mod 13

610. Localizer modulation depth is a) 2% # b) 20% c) 50% 611. The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have a midband length of # a) p /4 b) p /2 c) p 612. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip must have a length of about a) 29 cm # b) 59 cm c) 70 cm 613. An isotropic radiator a) is an end fed p/ 2 unipole # b) has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern c) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram 614. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will be # a) 1.5:1 b) 2:1 c) 2.5:1 615. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be # a) reverse R 1+ R 2 connections only b) reverse R 1+ R 2 and S 1 + S2 connections c) reverse R 1+ S 2 connections 616. The mode S squitter pulse will a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation # b) contain the aircraft identity c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information 617. When using the GPS a) database card must be replaced every 28 days # b) once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate with a warning message c) once the database expires the system will not operate 618. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo # a) receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12 db b) increased by 10 to 12 db c) marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level Page 71 - Mod 13

619. In a CVR system hot mics a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches # b) is a term applied to all the aircrafts mics c) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch 620. A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds, the slant range to the transponder is approximately # a) 196 nm b) 200 nm c) 200 statute miles 621. The most common type of gyro used in an INS is # A) a single rate integrating gyro wih viscosity damping b) a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy current damping c) a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to sense rate of displacement 622. A laser dither mechanism ensures that # a) optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together b) the contra rotating beams are synchronised together c) that the two contra rotating beams are each at different frequencies 623. Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited a) modes 1, 3, 4 a, 6 b) modes 2, 4, 5 # c) modes 4b ,5 624. The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated # a) once only b) twice only c) three times only 625. DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how many sub-frames? # a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 626. The middle marker is keyed with a) dots b) dashes # c) alternate dots and dashes

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627. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR? a) 25/75 b) 25/5 # c) 75/75 628. An accelerometer in an INS must be able to detect accelerations down to a) 10-3 g b) 10-2 g # c) 10-6 g 629. An accelerometer has a) low inertia, free suspension # b) high inertia, restrained c) high inertia, free suspension 630. When a compass is in the slave mode a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated # b) azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit 631. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the a) battery bus bar # b) battery bus bar or ground services c) ground services 632. Bandwidth of HF transmission is a) 1 khz b) 1.5 khz # c) 3 khz 633. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect? # a) More deviation b) More variation c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only 634. GPS # a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits b) uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits 635. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect # a) galley servic b) IFE c) first officers transfer bus Page 73 - Mod 13

636. What manoeuvre does TCAS II adv a) TA # b) RA c) either RA or 637. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ? # a) White diamonds, red squa s and amber circles b) White squares, red diam . c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares 638. A RAT provides AC power of around # a) 7.5 kva b) 63 kva c) 28 VAC 639. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the a) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated # b) CSD drive shaft has sheared c) bus tie interlock is inoperative 640. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is affected by a) contactors b) Generator Control Unit (GCU) # c) But Tie Bar (BTB) 641. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) reactive power from the generator that does work b) apparent power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work 642. Parallel distribution systems can typically found on all a) twin-engined aircraft # b) aircraft with 3 or more engines c) aircraft with 4 or more engines 643. Aircraft generators are connected in a) series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel to each other # b) series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other c) parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other 644. Mach trim counters # a) longitudinal instability b) lateral instability c) vertical instability Page 74 - Mod 13

645. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from a) Ground services bus b) Ground handling bus # c) Transfer bus 646. TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if # a) aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet vertically of each other b) a collision is within 25 -35 seconds of occurring c) a collision is within 35 -40 seconds of occurring 647. A split flap a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted b) forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted # c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted 648. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when a) APP switch is pressed # b) the aircraft captures the glideslope c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal 649. The auto gain voltage of weather radar is set a) in the workshop # b) by the manufacturer c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is obtained 650 . Airspeed hold is a # a) pitch mode b) lateral mode c) heading mode 651. When servicing an RVSM aircraft a) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable # b) the alt alert must be serviceable c) the alt hold must be serviceable 652. An ASI compressibility error correction will be a) Positive # b) Negative c) Both 653. A GNS satellite system transmis a) vertically polarise b) horizontally polarise # c) right hand circular

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654. An anti-servo tab # a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral b) moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the pilot c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist the pilot 655. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use a) 3 phase AC # b) Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter 656. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be a) 300 m # b) 400 m c) 800 m 657. ADF quadrantal error will be at a) 0 Degrees # b) 45 Degrees c) 90 Degrees 658. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing a) trailing edge b) leading edge lower surface # c) leading edge upper surface 659. A plain flap a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface b) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface # c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing 660. Compass error Q corrections correct a) A error b) B error # c) C error 661. ICAO Standard atmosphere is a) taken from data measured at the equator # b) taken from data measured at 45 degrees North c) relevant to set parameters 662. In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver fails before localizer capture a) No auto land b) Reverts to cat II # c) Continues to auto land Page 76 - Mod 13

663. a receiver having an IF of 465 KHz .is tuned to 1300 Khz, which of the following signals could interact with the L O second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used # a) 3995 Khz b) 2230 Khz c) 465 khz 664. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time? # a) multiple Rx and only one Tx b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx c) only one Rx and only one Tx 665. The frequency range 300KHz-3 MHz is called the a) LF band # b) MF band c) VHF band 666. DME squitter comes from # a) DME station b) interrogator c) test set 667. The decision height on the Radio Altimeter system is adjusted by # a) moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication b) selecting a switch on the control panel c) moving a bug on the Barometric altimeter 668. How does the crew select decision height? a) selected on the main altimeter # b) Selected on the radio al c) selecting a switch on the control panel 669. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals? # a) Switchable d.c b) Switchable a.c c) variable d.c 670. The AFCS remains in control: a) until 2 seconds after touchdown b) until reverse thrust is selected # c) until disengaged by flight crew 671. The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the # a) E field lies b) H field lies c) E and H fields are parallel

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672. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use a) 3-phase AC # b) single phase AC for indicator and transmitter c) single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter 673. # The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by a) direct coupling to an RF amplifier b) a buffer amplifier c) tight coupling to an RF amplifier

674.

What does a current limiter fuse do? a) Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit damage # b) Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds c) React when the circuit gets warm 675. How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave landing system? a) Reverse the phases b) TO/FRO # c) Note scan cycle start time 676. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before crimping? a) Just terminate # b) Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide c) Degrease spripped cable 677. The distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is limited a) by local weather conditions in the troposphere # b) to radio line of sight c) to conditions in the ionosphere 678. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA 100 system? # a) Fin b) Horizontal Stabilizer c) Fuselage 679. A Mach meter # a) compensates for square law b) does not compensate for square law c) uses a spring and bar 680. An aircraft increases in altitude, the ASI indication remains constant, what will happen to the True airspeed value? # a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same Page 78 - Mod 13

681. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has # a) maximum impedance b) minimum impedance c) the same impedance as at any other frequency 682. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to a) 1000 MHz # b) 100 MHz c) 30 MHz 683. The RF resistance of an inductor a) decreases as frequency is increased b) increases as frequency is increased # c) is independent of frequency 684. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit a) offers minimum impedance # b) has minimum voltage developed across it c) has maximum circulating currents 685. The aircraft is programmed to leave the glideslope at a) 300 ft b) the decrab phase # c) the start of flare 686. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in a) COMPLETELY blank display on one CDU b) down-grade of the landing category # c) no effect on the CDU 687. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle? # a) Before takeoff b) After takeoff c) Only with the autopilot engaged 688. Tx output stages are normally run in class C # a) because the efficiency is high b) so that the output is rich in harmonics c) as higher gains can be obtained 689. Which of the following has the best frequency stability? a) Hartley # b) Colpitts c) Tuned collector tuned base 690. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a a) resistive bridge network # b) high 'Q' resonant circuit c) pair of tuned circuits Page 79 - Mod 13

691. Air density compensation requires a) OAT b) altitude # c) altitude and OAT 692. Time base of PPI display is a) a ramp b) a square wave # c) a trapezoid 693. The image channel ratio is a) response at image channel frequency over response at wanted signal frequency b) response at image channel frequency over response at 2 nd channel frequency c) response at wanted channel frequency over response at image channel frequency 694. Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at twice the a) L O frequency away from the selected frequency # b) I F away from the selected frequency c) I F away from the L O frequency ---695. The maximum acceptable tuning ratio of an RF amplifier is a) 9:1 b) 6:1 c) 3:1 696. Single Side Band filters are # a) 3 Khz b) 1 Khz c) 6 Khz 697. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receive # a) decrease for low signal b) increase for low signal c) increase for high signal 698. Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about # a) 80 knots b) 110 knots c) 30 knots 699. Go-around mode can be initiated a) after glideslope capture b) at any time # c) below 2000 ft Page 80 - Mod 13

700. An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around during the autoland phase, the aircraft will a) increase speed # b) increase speed and rotate nose up c) rotate nose up 701. The integrity of an auotpilot must be increased when the aircraft is flying at a) higher speeds b) lower speeds # c) approach and landing phases 702. Vortex ring start requires a) retreating blade stall b) advancing blade stall # c) power on descent 703. A receiver with a high I F will successfully reject a) the adjacent/image frequency # b) the 2nd channel/image frequency c) the 2nd channel/adjacent frequency 704. An I F amplifier unit consist of four amplifiers. The amplifiers are normally coupled by a) resistor/capacitor coupling b) pure resistor coupling # c) transformer coupling 705. Man made noise a) mainly above 12mhz b) only in the LF band # c) mainly below 12 mhz 706. A receiver having an IF of which of the following signals coulharmonics to produce a receivused # a) 3995 Khz . b) 2230 Khz . c) 465 Khz 707. With a Vertical Gyro simulatescanner in left hand position a) tilt up # b) tilt down c) tilt right 708. Signals used during the flare are a) GS and rad alt b) GS and integrated pitch # c) Rad alt and integrated pitch Page 81 - Mod 13

709. An autoland is carrid out in which sequence a) GS capture, LOC capture, attitude hold, flare # b) LOC capture, GS capture, Attitude hold, Flare c) LOC capture, GS capture, Flare, Attitude hold 710. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach, the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) triplex system # b) duplex system c) dual/dual system 711. A single side b a) High level modulation # b) Low level modulation c) One half of the high le 712. Three RF amplifiers of is the output? # a) 30 dB and 10 KHz b) 10 dB and 1000 KHz c) 30 dB and 1000 KHz 713. What aircraft system supplies horizon? a) Generator bus b) Normal power, then switches to emergency supply in an emergency # c) Battery Bus 714. Flight Director bars controls move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/speed? a) Rate feedback b) Position feedback # c) Instrument amplifier gain 715. Voice clipping a) increases the depth of modulation # b) decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals c) maintains an average depth of modulation 716. A padder capacitor has most efficiency at # a) the lowest frequency of the L O b) the middle frequency of the L O c) the highest frequancy of the L O 717. The ATC aerial has a polar diagram which is # a) directional b) omni-dirrectional c) limacon shaped Page 82 - Mod 13

718. The speech clipping modulating circuit a) increases the average depth of modulation b) clips high amplitude signals # c) cuts out high tone sounds 719. The Glide-slope signal integrator a) maintains the glide- slope signal b) increases the glide-slope signal # c) decreases the glide-slope signal 720. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate, the instrument that s most affected is the # a) rate of change indicator b) altimeter c) airspeed indicator 721. Glide slope gain programming is based on a) pressure altitude b) altitude above MSL and radio altitude # c) radio altitude 722. Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation # a) above about 100 MHz b) not below 1000 MHz c) from about 10 MHz upwards 723. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro b) an RVDT # c) an LVDT 724. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is # a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 725. A valid interrogation will # a) disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME b) enable the RX, disable the encoder and disable the DME c) disable the R 726. When calibrating an electronic fuel capacitance indicating system, what piece of test equipment would you use? # a) a bridge b) a decade c) a potentiometer

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727. To check side lobe suppression # a) select ATC on ASP b) use a ramp test set c) carry out a self test 728. On an FMCS CDU, you can select # a) N 1 Thrust b) VNAV c) VOR 729. What is an Ideal VSWR on a Radio Transmission line? # a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1.5:1 730. What is Track angle? # a) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track b) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft longitudinal axis c) The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track 731. RNAV accuracy is a) +/- 5nm # b) +/- 5nm 95% c) +/- 1nm 85% 732. In colour WXR AGC is set a) in workshop # b) automatically on receiver noise level c) by operator on manually adjusted gain control 733. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in a) Vertical # b) Horizontal c) Pitch and Roll 734. With an ATC code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are # a) B 2 and B 4 b) B 1 and B 5 c) B 0 and B 6 735. What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation? # a) 2 DME signals b) 1 VOR and c) 1 VOR /DME signal

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736. The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters. Master frequency a) higher than slave b) lower than slave # c) same as slave 737. The loop aerial polar diagram is a a) c ardioid # b) figure 8 c) c ircle 738. Single Side Band filters are # a) 3 Khz b) 1 Khz c) 6 Khz 739. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver will # a) decrease for low signal b) increase for low signal c) increase for high signal 740. A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target distance a) 12.5 Nautical miles # b) 25 Nautical miles c) 30 Nautical miles 741. A receiver in which selected converted to a single frequen a) Wideband TRF b) Multi-channel receive # c) superhet rece 742. The noise factor of a receiveis 15:1 and O/P signal to a) 0.8 # b) 1.25 c) 2.5 743. A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject a) the adjacent/image frequency # b) the 2nd channel/image frequency c) the 2nd channel/adjacent frequency 744. The frequency spectrum of noise is # a) infinitely wide b) restricted to the audio band c) restricted to the HF band

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745. Man made noise causes interference a) mainly above 12 Mhz b) only in the LF band # c) mainly below 12 Mhz 476. The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of a) capacitive reactance b) resistance # c) capacitance 747. Rad Alt failure effects which system? a) Mode S transponder # b) GPWS c) nav management systems 748. A Mode S equipped aircraft has its RA area breached by a Mode A only equipped aircraft. What warning does the Mode S aircraft get? # a) TA visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning b) RA visual and climb or descend aural warning c) ATA visual warning only 749. A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is a) highly cambered # b) symmetrically camber c) reverse camber 750. What is the maximum value of installation tester that may be used on a fuel contents system? a) 300 Volt b) 250 Volt # c) You cannot use one on the fuel contents system 751. The glideslope signal integrator # a) maintains glideslope signal b) increases glideslope signal c) decreases glideslope signal 752. On a Cat 3 B landing the localizer signal is used at which phase? # a) Rollout b) Flare c) Touchdown 753. ARINC 429 operates at which speed? # a) 13 kb/s or 100 kb/s b) 2 Mb/s c) 1.3 Mb/s

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754. An aircraft landing on QFE the altimeter will # a) read zero on touchdown b) read airfield height on landing c) read local area pressure 755. A rate gyro has a) one degree of freedom along the lateral axis # b) a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal axis c) a calibrated spring bet 756. Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag clearing may cause a) the instrument to erect false datum # b) application of a large torque to the control phase windings causing failure c) You must use the Fast erection switch to clear the flag 757. Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will # a) cause contents to overead b) cause contents to under read c) short out capacitance probe and trip CB 758. A Loran C transmission consists of a) 6 pulses each 270 microseconds long # b) 8 pulses each 270 microseconds long c) 6 pulses with a total pulse train length of 8.27 ms 759. ARINC 629 operates at which speed ? a) 1300 Kb/s b) 1000 Kb/s # c) 2000 Kb/s 760. With an increase in fwd velocity of a helicopter the increase in parasitic drag will cause the fuselage attitude to a) remain level b) pitch up # c) pitch down 761. On a helicopter rotor disc lift happens # a) immediately $ b) 90 degrees later c) 180 degrees later 762. Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR a) Increase b) Decrease # c) Do not affect Page 87 - Mod 13

763. GPS L 1 and L 2 signals are # a) Bi phase 50 bit/ sec b) 10.2 KHZ send rate c) 1KHz send rate 764. ILS indicator is a) parallel to filters # b) series with filters c) across filters 765. Voice/Range switch selected to range a) allows NAV/ADF and DME through cancelling out voice spectrum # b) allows NAV/ADF and cancels out voice spectrum c) allows noise spectrum through 766. Altitude hold mode, what signal is washed out? a) Altitude # b) Pitch angle c) Rate of climb 767. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows NAV, and ADF through $ b) allows NAV, ADF, and DME through c) allows NAV, and DME through 768. ADF, quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators # a) Across loop aerial b) Across sense aerial c) Across goniometer 769. With AGC inop, sensitivity will be effected to signals with # a) low signal strength b) High signal strength c) Both 770. Lift in a helicopter is a result of a) Angle of attack X velocity squared and forward speed # b) Angle of attack X velocity squared c) Pitch X square root of speed 771. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only b) roll channel c) pitch and roll channel

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772. The stall margin mode is controlled by a) EPR limits b) Speed bug cursors # c) A O A and flap position sensors 773. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in # a) a blank display on one CDU b) a down grade of the landing category c) no effect on the CDU di 774. When a compass is in the slave mode a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated # b) azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit 775. Versine signal is governed by # a) roll b) pitch c) yaw 776. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation a) 2 degrees # b) 3 degrees c) 5 degrees 777. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification b) amplification first the c) no attenuation but amplification 778. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal # b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 779. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 780. If one FMS fails in a dual system a) system operation will not be affected # b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer Page 89 - Mod 13

781. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90 o b) 180 o c) 0 o 782. When approaching the speed of s # a) pressure above the wing the wing in places b) pressure above the wing equals the pressure below the wing c) pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below the wing 783. A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the length of the P 2 pulse? # a) 0.8 s b) 1.6 s c) 2 s 784. ATCRBS reply pulses are a) 0.8 s wide # b) 0.45 s wide c) 1.45 s wide 785. What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI? a) 1.45 s b) 2 s c) 4.35 s

786. Range resolution in a radars # a) shorter Pulse b) longer Pulse c) narrower Beam 787. What is the time between the ATCRBS reply a) 21 s # b) 20.3 s c) 21.7 s 788. Rear navigation lights have a) steady white light with a viewing angle of 60 degrees b) flashing white light with a viweing angle of 60 degrees # c) steady white light with a viewing angle of 140 degrees 789. Runway turn off lights have a viewing angle of # a) 50 degrees b) 110 degrees c) 160 degrees

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790. Using the following: FS 345, RWS 45, where is this located? a) 345" back from the nose, 45" from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing b) 345" back from the datum line, 45" from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing # c) 345" back from the nose and 45" along the right wing 791. When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you would expect a) 1 Megohm when cold # b) 3 Megohm when hot and when cooled down c) 5 Megohm 792. Slewing of the INS gimballed platform simulates in-flight attitude changes up to a) 360 deg in roll and 85 deg in pitch # b) 71 deg in pitch and 180 deg in azimuth c) 110 deg in pitch and 360 deg in azimuth 793. Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in a) output datum advanced 180 deg b) data to coincide # c) output datum advanced 240 deg 794. Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when # a) spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom b) gimbal rings are mutually not at right angles to each other c) bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance 795. In a turn co-ordinator the output axis of the rate gyro is a) parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft # b) set at 30 deg to the c) parallel to the lateral axis to make the gyro sensitive to rolling and banking as well as turning 796. All fly to information in an EFIS System is displayed in a) White # b) Magenta c) Green 797. In an EICAS display all scales, normal operating range of pointers and digital readouts a # a) White b) green c) Magenta

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798. The scratch pad in an FMS CDU occupies a) 24 character spaces of the bottom line b) the last 12 character spaces of the bottom line # c) first 12 character spaces of the bottom line 799. The term oblate spheroid refers to a) tilting of the earth about the axis # b) flattening at the Polar Regions c) the network of meridians imagined to cover the earth 800. The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic meridian at any place is a) inclination # b) declination c) angle of dip 801. Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas temperature indications are a) Copper-Constantan b) Iron-Constantan # c) Chromel-Alumel 802. Wing loading of an aircraft a) varies with dynamic loading due to air currents # b) is independent of altitude c) decreases with density 803. Glide slope frequency is a) 108.10-119.95 # b) 328.6-335.4 c) 108.00-118 804. ADF operation range is at # a) MF band b) HF band c) VHF band 805. ADF system sense aerial is a) null # b) null Cardioid c) rotating figure of 8 806. Outer marker frequency is a) 3000 hz b) 1300 hz # c) 400 hz

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807. Tripping the GCR will a) trip the GCB b) de-excite the generator # c) both (a) and (b) 808. In a synchronous motor the rotor is # a) excited by DC b) excited by AC c) self excited 809. the difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed is called a) differential speed b) loss # c) slip 810. A squirrel cage rotor will be found in # a) an induction motor b) a synchronous motor c) a hysteresis motor 811. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of sound are a) hypersonic # b) supersonic c) hyposonic 812. If the pilot reports autoland failure, and no fault found during ground checks. What action do you take? a) Sign off as no fault found $ b) Ask Pilot to carry out CAT 1 autoland c) Ask pilot to carry out CAT 1 or CAT 2 autoland 813. What is a fairlead? # a) A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc b) A guard to prevent control cables coming off pulleys c) An extension to a control cable 814. FMC provides data envelope for a) ATC b) TCAS # c) GPWS 815. In a capacitive fuel contents system changes in temperature are compensated by # a) placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance b) adjustment of a potentiometer c) placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance Page 93 - Mod 13

816. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch a) removes all messages from the display # b) removes caution and advisory messages c) removes advisory messages 817. The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by information fed from a) The Pitot and Static sensors b) The Mach unit # c) The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor 818. The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables a) the accelerometers to correct the axes b) sets the start co- ordinates # c) Gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination 819. Pin Programming is allowed a) under CAA Rules # b) to provide reference to FMS computer as to which side of datum it is fitted to c) to enter aircraft performance data base 820. The Janus beam is for a) working out acceleration b) levelling the aerial # c) to compensate for attitude changes 821. Absolute pressure of 25 psi is a) 39.7 PSI b) 14 PSI # c) 10.3 PSI 822. JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after accident or incident a) 30 days after incident 60 days after accident # b) 60 days c) 30 Days 823. Coefficient A correction is carried out a) before C after B # b) after B and after C c) before B and after C 824. A combined ASI indicates Mach a) above 0.15 b) above 10000 feet # c) all the time airspeed present Page 94 - Mod 13

825. Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the magnets are a) Parallel b) 45 degrees # c) 90 degrees 826. Sonar Locator Beacons are a # a) ICAO Requirement b) ANO Requirement c) Company Requi 827. INS power is provided by a) DC normal and DC emerge # b) AC normal and DC emergency c) AC normal and AC emergen y 828. Aircraft is 9000 ft. When is it out of VHF range a) 100 nm b) 120 nm # c) 140 nm 829. CVR is unserviceable a) The aircraft cannot fly unless required data is recorded by FDR $ b) The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceablity c) The aircraft can fly for 4 days since unserviceablity 830. A semi monocoque structure is one which has a) an external load bearing skin with no internal load bearing structure # b) an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure c) a tubular internal structure fabric covered 831. Which of the following is correct? a) feedback = error - demand # b) error = demand - feedback c) demand = feedback - error 832. A member designed to take mainly compressive load is called a a) tie b) beam # c) strut 833. Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting the skin between longerons are called a) ribs # b) stringers c) frames Page 95 - Mod 13

834. A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally be constructed from a) warren truss structure # b) semi monocoque structure c) geodetic structure 835. If the common portion of the winding of a autotransformer used to supply a 26 vac light bulb from a 115 vac busbar goes open circuit the light bulb will a) flicker b) go dim # c) blow 836. MCDUs a) are used to transmit dat to ground # b) enable dialog with cent c) store fault data 837. The uploading function on a on -board maintenance system enables a) data to be taken from on-board maintenance system # b) the on-board data base to be updated c) the on-board maintenance system to be interrogated by the engineer 838. If the output of the generator starts to fall, a pulse width modulated field supply will # a) increase the mark-to -space ratio b) decrease the mark-to- space ratio c) double the mark-to-space ratio 839. In a starter generator which coil is used for starting? # a) Shunt, series and compensating windings b) series compensating windings c) Shunt compensating windings 840. A gate valve is installed in a vacuum system is to prevent a) back pressure due to engine surge # b) oil entering gyro when shut down c) reverse flow due to engine backfire 841. Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is a) 800 ft b) 1000 ft # c) 2000 ft

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842. The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in a) Millibars # b) Inches of Mercury c) PSI 843. Before processing an AM USB signal what needs to be done? # a) Carrier added b) Carrier removed c) Carrier integrated 844. On power up, IRS a) obtains latitude from previous position # b) compares longitude from previous position c) obtains both from previous position 845. The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a a) ASI b) VSI # c) Mach Meter 846. Speed mode stall margins are governed by # a) AOA and flap position b) Pitch angle and speed c) AOA and speed 847. When performing an ADF bearing check, commercial stations a) can be used # b) can be used in addition to ADF nav stations c) can not be used as they are the wrong frequency 848. A fuel system that corrects fuel SG is calibrated in # a) Pounds or KGs b) Litres c) Gallons 849. DME interrogation is carried out a) 63 kHz above transmitted frequency b) 63 kHz below transmitted frequency # c) 63 kHz above or below transmitted frequency 850. In ground mode the FMS uses which of the following for velocity calculations? # a) IRS b) RHO-RHO c) RHO-THETA

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851. Component P relates to a) coefficient A # b) coefficient B c) coefficient C 852. During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor fails, THR CLP is annuciated on the mode annunciator panel when # a) aircraft leaves ground b) a pre-determined rad alt setting c) V 2, as determined by the autothrottle computer 853. Confirmation of the correct operation of an ATC transponder ident function, is verified by # a) use of a ramp test set b) observation of the ATC transponder control head ident light c) telephone contact with the receiving ATC cell 854. IRS serviceability for in-service drift is ascertained by # a) 3+3t b) CDU fault code interrogation c) apparent drift divided by flight time 855. In a IRS system the accelerometer is double interrogated for # a) distance b) acceleration c) velocity 856. During an ACARS transmission a 1 is generated by a) the +ve half of a 1200 hz waveform # b) the -ve half of a 1200 hz waveform c) a 2400 hz waveform ---857. ACARS transmits it's data using a) hexadecimal code b) binary code c) octal code 858. In flight mode, the FMS preference of data source is # a) IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA b) RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA c) RHO-THETA, RHO-RHO, IRS 859. In aileron control # a) the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron b) the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron c) it is assisted by the rudder

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860. RNAV uses which inputs? a) IRS, ADF, VOR, DME b) ADF, GPS, VOR # c) IRS, VOR, GPS, DME ---861. To calibrate a temp bulb a) connect decade box in series with bulb b) connect decade box to power supply c) disconnect temp bulb and install decade box in its place 862. Janus in doppler radar a) Adjusts signal for overwater flight # b) allows adjustment for antenna pitch c) adjusts for lateral and vertical steering ---863. ATC altitude readout is a) series Tx with binary encoding b) series Tx with octal encoding c) parallel Tx with binary encoding 864. If radio deviation is fed only to the autopilot roll channel what will happen? # a) Aircraft will fly in circles b) Aircraft will drift from centreline c) Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline 865. Attenuation in a co-axial cable # a) increases with frequency increase b) decreases with frequency decrease c) is not affected by frequency 866. Stab trim goes into high speed mode when a) Flaps are extended # b) Flaps are retracted c) cruise altitude is reached 867. # A standby artificial horizon is a a) space gyro b) earth gyro c) free gyro

---878.

Pitot static lines in helicopters a) are made of stainless steel, and must withstand twice normal working pressure b) must provide an accurate indication of the flight regime below 20 knots c) must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified flight envolope Page 99 - Mod 13

869. EGPWS mode 2 announces a) sink rate # b) whoop whoop pull up c) too low flaps ---870. The maximum power developed in a radar system waveguide is controlled by a) the minimum size of the slot b) the maximum size of the slot c) It is not affected by slot size 871. Altitude hold, when engaged, provides a washout input to the? a) vertical gyro b) roll channel $ c) autopilot pitch servo 872. An electro-magnetic microphone requires which type of input a) dc b) ac $ c) none 873. Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing) would be indicated by $ a) VSI showing rate of climb b) VSI showing rate of descent c) VSI remaining in a fixed position 874. Alpha angle relates to which system? $ a) Angle of attack system b) Mach trim system c) Flap blowback system 875. When a standby compass is replaced, on installation the compensator magnets should be set to a) the same setting as the removed compass $ b) the neutral setting on the new unit c) maximum setting on the new unit ---876. Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest influence at a) 90 degrees b) 45 degrees c) when parallel to each other ---877. If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the aircraft is at altitude, mach meter will indicate a) an increase b) a decrease c) no change Page 100 - Mod 13

---878. The FBW system uses two elevator and aileron computers (ELACs) a) this is to provide redundancy b) they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and elevator computers (SECs) fail c) each computer achieves control and monitoring of the three electric motors which power the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) ---879. In a minimum speed protection mode the autothrottle uses signals derived from the angle of attack (AOA) sensors and a) landing gear position sensors to maintain the aircraft speed above stall b) flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed c) flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the correct angle of attack within the stall margin ---880. A versine signal is typically fed from the roll channel a) to adjust the roll angle to suit the approach turn during autoland b) and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position signals to adjust for loss of lift during a turn c) and modified by aircraft attitude and pitch rate signals to limit the pitch angle during approach 881. What is the main operating principle of MLS? a) phase shift between Tx and Rx # b) time difference between TO and FRO pulse c) signal strength (mV) difference between left and right beam 882. How does a Rx know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been selected? a) Manually selected by operator # b) Logic control circuit in control unit c) A different receiver is used 883. What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase of an AC generator? a) Negative phase sequencing b) Open phase # c) Differential protection ---884. An aircraft is on course on an ILS Localiser. What is the depth of modulation? a) zero b) 20% c) 50%

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885. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere? a) Relative humidity # b) Absolute humidity c) Dew point 886. How is the flight deck informed of an ACARS transmission? a) SELCAL # b) ONSIDE VHF T/R c) A double chime 887. EFIS display ,SG 1 + SG 2 are for captain and FO displays what is the purpose of SG 3? # a) Backup for SG 1 and 2 b) ECAM upper display c) ECAM lower display ---888. The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings for a) SG of fuel b) permittivity c) zero reading ---889. How do you reset a GCR trip? a) Manually from the flight deck b) Automatically once the fault goes away c) Manually at the GCU ---890. Peak power = 10 kW, duty cycle = 2.4 ms, pulse duration =6 microseconds. What is mean power? a) Approx .4 W b) 14 W c) 24 W 891. In a FBW system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control system in pitch a) is not possible because of the built-in redundancy for all elements # b) would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel c) would cause the captain's sidestick controller to take over pitch functions 892. Capture of a localiser beam is normally dependent on a change of bank angle command based on a) airspeed, deviation and altitude # b) attitude, distance from transmitter and runway heading c) ground speed, intercept angle and distance form beam Page 102 - Mod 13

893. A control wheel action in roll, with the autopilot engaged, operates a transducer which outputs a signal $ a) via a force level detector, which on changeover, cancels attitude hold and feeds a supply allowing the pilot gradual and increasing bank angle control b) which disengages the autopilot allowing total manual freedom of operation and requires no re-engage action on completion c) which on changeover, causes the aircraft to roll wings level through a supply feeding to a point between the roll rate limiter and the EHSV, allowing the pilot total freedom of control ---894. The roll-down solid state switch in a typical flight control computer is designed to a) roll down the trim integrator output to zero allowing the aircraft to wings level from an angle of up to ten degrees b) roll down the attitude integrator output to zero allowing the aircraft to wings level from an angle of up to five degrees c) apply a nose down signal to the aircraft within two seconds of main wheel touchdown during autoland ---895. Engaging an autopilot to command with the flight director on causes the autopilot to engage to the existing flight director roll mode except if the flight director is in a) go-around, the command mode is heading hold b) glide-slope, the command mode is flight level change c) take-off, the command mode is speed 896. The Dutch roll filter used on most yaw damper systems operates with a demodulator and modulator in series, between which is an electronic circuit. this circuit is a a) wide band pass filter featuring an integrated output b) wide band pass filter featuring a differentiate output $ c) narrow band filter featuring a differentiate output 897. During tests on the yaw damper servo actuator, the output shaft constantly over-runs its desired displacement. A probable cause is that the a) detent spring has lost its tension $ b) position LVDT (linear variable differential transformer) is out of tolerance c) the rate feedback circuit is open-circuit 898. In a typical lateral central control actuator, the pressure regulator module is designed to $ a) allow manual control inputs to override the autopilot inputs b) limit the amount of detent piston movement so that the controls remain within safe working limits c) allow control of the input crank backdrive so that excessive stick movement is limited Page 103 - Mod 13

899. The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a frequency of thirty seven kilo-hertz $ a) with an operational time of at least thirty days b) and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four thousand feet c) and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres 900. The flight recorder accelerometer used in the DFDR system measures vertical acceleration as one of its parameters to values between a) plus four g  and minus two g with a null output of one point six to plus or minus twenty eight millivolts dc $ b) plus six  g  and minus three  g with a null output of one point eight volts plus or minus twenty five millivolts dc c) plus eight g  to minus four g with a null output of two volts plus or minus twenty millivolts 901. Panels that are attached to the aircraft by answered questionfasteners are: # a) tertiary structure b) secondary structure c) primary structure 902. As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to carry out a check using the self Start page and Bookshopthe aircraft integrated data system (AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes the printer to print in a) eighty column mode $ b) sixty six column mode c) forty column mode 903. When the busyindicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR system, this indicates that the: a) cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use $ b) data is being received and the cartridge cannot be ejected c) data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected 904. In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of currently received data can be achieved at a) the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight data acquisition unit (DFDAU) $ b) the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder (QAR) c) the DFDAU built in test equipment (BITE)

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905. During a change to a lower altitude the piston unit in an IVSI (instantaneous vertical speed indicator) will create, for an instant more # a) more pressure to the capsule only b) pressure to both case and capsule c) more suction to the capsule only 906. Movement of the collective control will a) increase the pitch of the tail rotor b) tilt the disc and increase engine power # c) increase the pitch of the main rotor blades 907. Gust Load Alleviation Function in a FBW system a) may be controlled by the elevators # b) uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts c) is achieved by the weight saving from elimination of cables, feel units and other conventional items 908. Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is fitted to a) increase roll control authority of the autopilot b) improve trim control due to lateral centre of gravity changes # c) improve fatigue life, due to aero elasticity and high lift loads 909. When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to structure with a single fastener a) place the smallest terminal nearest the structure, covered by a spacer, with the others, to a maximum of six, stacked in increasing size # b) install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned in decreasing size c) connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in any order 910. If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the expected resistance value when carrying out a check should be # a) 0.5 milliohms b) 1.5 milliohms c) 2.5 milliohms 911. An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that runs normally the length of the fuselage is known as a) intercostal # b) stringer c) cleat

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912. A panel at STN + 88 /WL -12 is located 88 units a) rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water line datum b) forward of the aircraft vertical centre and 12 units below the water line datum # c) rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline 913. Cantilever construction is structure supported at a) each end and in the centre # b) one end only c) each end 914. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is known as: a) semi-monocoque b) semi-stressed # c) monocoque 915. The purpose of the mercury switch in the rotating platform system is to a) always ensure that the platform is maintained level in space when the autopilot is engaged $ b) level the platform when the autopilot is disengaged c) level the platform system when installing 916. When the rotor of an ac tacho-generator is stationary, the rotor has a) no circulating currents $ b) circulating currents c) no magnetic field 917. An AC tacho-generator stator has a) two windings 180 apart b) three windings 120 apart # c) two windings 90 apart 918. The sense of a control surface feed back signal will a) assist the signal displacing the servo b) reverse when the control surface limit is reached $ c) oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface 919. A servo tacho-generator feed back signal is required to a) assist the demand applied to servo-motor b) ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal $ c) damp out oscillations of a control movement

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920. One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must a) disengage on A/P engagement $ b) be engaged at all times c) disengage as soon as hard over is detected 921. When the autopilot is disengaged, moving the control column forward will cause the pitch CWS sensor a) to produce only a small pitch down signal $ b) to produce a significant signal which has pitch down sense c) to produce a significant signal witch has a pitch up sense 922. To increase the gain of an amplifier it is necessary to $ a) reduce the tacho-generator feedback b) increase the tacho-generator feedback c) increase to position feedback ---923. The advantage of a force-balanced rate gyro over a simple mechanically restrained gyro is a) the gyro can be self-monitored b) the gyro can have a larger signal output c) cross channel feedback is not required 924. The outputs of a slaved directional gyro to an autopilot consist of a) pitch and roll angles b) azimuth rate signals $ c) azimuth direction information 925. The type of amplifier used to over come difficult in amplifying DC or very low frequency signals and to prevent drift is a) buffer amplif b) chopper ampli $ c) integrator amplifier 926. In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and dual roll-framcommand output from the autopilot servo amplifier a) both valves will be closed $ b) both valves will be open for an equal period of time c) both roll fram actuators will fully retract 927. A resistance capacitor low pass filter will have a) both resistance and cap b) the output taken across the resistor $ c) the out put taken across the capacitor 928. The maximum level output of a series limiter using switch diode is set by a) voltage of the signal $ b) the dc bias passing through the diodes c) diode reverse resistance Page 107 - Mod 13

929. When DC motors are used as servomotors they are usually a) high current low voltage type $ b) split field type c) high torque heavy armature type 930. Buffer amplifiers are used when a) an impedance change (low to high) is required $ b) an impedance change (high to low) is required c) high amplification factors are required

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