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# SOLUTIONS MANUAL

**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

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PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

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TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

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4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

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2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

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Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

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11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. Answer. (b) Frenkel defect. 2. (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure. (c) line defects. (e) metallic. (b) mechanism of plastic deformation.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation. (c) 2. and (f) type of dislocation. Answer. (b) covalent. (b). Answer. (e) 2. (b). (d) ionic. (b) and (f). (b) FCC. (c). (d) 2.10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation. and (f) van der Waals. or (c) HCP. (e) slip mechanism.Answer. (c). and (d). 6 . Answer. (c) hydrogen. (c) more likely at high deformation rates. (d) point defects.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC. or (e) surface defects.

2% offset value . The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform. 7 . tensile.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer. the material must be strong. the cross-sectional area decreases. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area.1 3. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens.8 3. Review Questions 3. State Hooke's Law.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer. 3. Answer. In a compression test.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. and shear. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity. 3. What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer.2%.2 3. 3. while in a tensile test. It is usually measured as the . Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε.6 Define yield strength of a material.5 Define tensile strength of a material. for ease of manufacturing. Answer. 3. Answer.7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer. When the material does not strain harden.9 3. compressive. 3. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses. in general. the material should not be strong. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen. What is work hardening? Answer.3 3. To achieve design function and quality. The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained.

S = 0. For each question. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity. all correct answers must be given. 3. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses. The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time.3. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth. 3. Answer.18 Define viscosity of a fluid. 3. G = 0. (d) shear. (b) hardness. A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature. on average? Answer. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.4 E. 3. on average. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (f) true stress.19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid? Answer.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS. It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere. (c) reduction in area.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics. 3. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials.7 TS.20 What is viscoelasticity. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). the greater the viscosity. 8 . 3. 3. 3. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material.1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression. Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material. oils) are Newtonian fluids. and (f) yield. on average. 3.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal. as a material property? Answer. area) of the indentation. (e) tensile. the thicker the fluid. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Most liquids (water.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials. on average? Answer. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials.

7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (a) 3.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test. or (e) polystyrene. (d). (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen. (d) titanium.the flow curve.Answer. Answer. (c) 3.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. or (b) true stress. Answer. (d) high carbon steel. (b) 3. (b) elastic and strain hardening.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. (c) steel. (c) 3. as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. (c) perfectly elastic. 3. (b) gray cast iron. (b) 3. or (b) less than its tensile strength. (b) 3. 9 . or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails. (b) elastic and strain hardening. The plastic region is characterized by a power function . (c) hardened tool steel.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. (a) 3. 3. (b) elastic and strain hardening. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress. and (e). (c) perfectly elastic. Answer. (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain. Answer. Answer.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. (a) 3. Answer. (b) diamond. Answer.10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. (c) perfectly elastic. or (d) none of the above. (a).2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength. or (b) true strain. or (d) none of the above.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. or (e) tungsten. (b) 3. Answer. or (d) none of the above. Answer. Answer.

284 = 28. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.0)/2.000 lb. determine the percent reduction in area.0 . (b) modulus of elasticity E.3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0.000/200 = 490 MPa.5 x 10 3 MPa.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60.54 = 54% 3.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2. (a) determine the percent elongation. (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity). The corresponding gage length = 2. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow.2/50 = 0.50 = 50% 10 .000 lb/in2 3. This is the 0. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2.0083 .1.50. Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity.2.0 .000 N is reached at a gage length = 64.0. (a) 3.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 .25 in2. The maximum load = 60.23 . Solution: (a) % elongation = (64.0.0 = 0. (a) determine the percent elongation.4 In Problem 3.002 = 0. and (c) tensile strength TS.000/0. (c) TS = 168. This answer may require some justification.2 . Strictly speaking.2 percent yield point.0083 in.000/0.5 .60 . (b). Answer.5 = 64.14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity. (b) modulus of elasticity E.0)/2.00215 = 29.000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.3 In Problem 3.0 in and an area = 0.2.2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2.2 percent yield point.6/2.0)/50. The corresponding gage length = 50.0.Answer. e = (50.5 = 0. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0. Solution: (a) Y = 98.92)/200 = 0. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32. Solution: (a) Y = 32. Answer. This is the 0.000/0.2.25)/0. determine the percent reduction in area. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.2% offset. (a). Solution: (a) % elongation = (2. (c).0026 E = σ/e = 490/0.2 mm. (b) plasticity.000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2.50)/50 = 14. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3.000/200 = 840 MPa. and (c) tensile strength TS. 3.002 = 0. 3.0026 = 188.23 mm. however. (c) viscosity.5 = 120.5 in 2.0 = 0. The maximum load = 168. However.00215 E = σ/e = 64. (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow.2% offset.000 N.60 in.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98. e = (2. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape.

08 at a stress = 265 MPa. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred.1678 = 404.5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125. (b) From the plot. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131.524 mm2.578 153.5. Strain ε = ln(147. Y = 310.1/(0.85 MPa 11 .27 MPa.0488 (2) A = 7812.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation.27) n 325/265 = (0.1/(0.143 mm2.375) n 1.00 20. (d) From the plot. Solution: (a) Student exercise.1 = K(0.25 mm.01 = 53.2264 = (3.625 MPa.6 In Problem 3.283 = 909.sectional area = 62. true strain = 0.1 MPa.579 140.25/125) = 0.2 ε 0.3238) 0.00184.3405 = 1.1622) n 544.1622/0.2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910. (c) First data point is prior to yielding.0488) .0488) n and (2) 544.1 = K(0.10 The maximum load is 28.793 125.3238) n ln(1. the true strain = 0.1622) .0488) n 1.4056 = (3. Solution: (1) 265 = K(0.27/0.2011 n n = 0. Strain e = (125. (1) A = V/L = 7812. When the true stress = 325 MPa.1678 = 404.01 27.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.2264) 1.01 mm.08) . we have (1) 387.2041 n = 0.1 MPa. Strain ε = ln(131.08) n n ln(3.23 23.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.462 160.25 27.08) n and (2) 325 = K(0.524 = 387.4056) = n ln(3. Determine: (b) yield strength Y.7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen.9 MPa K = 544.042 131.23 .5) = 7812.5/131.2164 n = 0.6 MPa.01/125) = 0. Flow Curve 3. TS = 426.143 = 544. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62.375) = ln(1.27.5/147.1 = (0.0 mm and the cross. Stress σ = 28913/53. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147.25 = 59.4 MPa Use average K = 910. E = 310.283 3. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0. (d) tensile strength TS.283 = 910. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387.125)/125 = 0.27) .27/0.5 mm3.00184 = 168. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation. Stress σ = 23042/59. (c) modulus of elasticity E.05 28. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.913 147.1/387.3.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17.

0) = 0. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.25.470/0.191 ε 0. the gage length = 2.22 = 45. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.25) .3125 = 44.1076) n ln(1.3964 n = 0.4865 = (2. then n = 0.000 lb/in 2.10) .4326 3.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0.0 in and an area = 0.000(.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0.223) n 1.2/2.10) n and (2) 55.000 = K(0. Without knowing any more about the test.2 = 0. and at another point in the test prior to necking.000(. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts.4336) = n ln(2.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.4 = 31.45.000/54.25/0.50 in 2.0(0. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.25) n 55. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0.33 = 1.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1.10) n 1. (1) 31.0/3.3 and K = 600 MPa. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2.0) 3.8 During a tensile test.5) n n ln(2.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.800/31.0/2.4336 = (2.000/37.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/.000/(0.000 lb/in 2.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55.4326 = 100.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.000 lb/in2.5 = 0. and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40. at a true stress = 55.5)/.28 = 492. Solution: (1) 37.4865) 0.0) = 0.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region.45) .3125 in 2 So.5)/.9163 n = 0.000 lb/in 2.000 = K(0. a metal has a true strain = 0.4326 = 100.28) .000 = (0.0) .28. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa.28 3.85 ε 0.1076) 12 .000) 1/.22 and K = 54. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.0.000/(0. At one point in the tensile test.000 lb/in 2.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3. the true strain = 0.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28. Solution: (a) Yf = 54. true stress σ = 28.1678 3.000(0. we have K = 345/(0.00 3.7407) 4. Using this value in the flow curve equation.The flow curve equation is: σ = 404. true stress σ = 24. Later.10 at a true stress = 37.5) = 1.28 with a corresponding true stress = 345.3 = (1.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100.0 MPa.5) = ln(1.800 = K(0.223 (2) A = 1. the gage length = 3.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492.470) n 44.22 = (0.256 3.7 ε 0.000 lb/in 2.250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.223) n and (2) 44. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2.250 = (0.4 in 2 So.250 = K(0.5/2.545 = 0.

0 to 100. (6) 100. (3) 85.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -. The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b).75)/75 = 5/75 = 0.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.0 mm. (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 .75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.0) = 0.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b).693) = 0.500 Therefore. Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result.0 to 95.250/(0.7455 n . the summation becomes closer to the integration value.383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 . 3.800/(0.483 = 64.0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 .0 = 1.105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 .515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31. (2) 80. Solution: Engineering strain e = (2. (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75. Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test.0 True strain ε = ln(2.483 Use average K = 64.15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section.3602 = . True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation.0 mm. we have V = AoLo = AL 13 .483 n = 0.0) = ln(2.0 to 105.0 mm. As the interval size is reduced. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression).693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp. (a) Determine the engineering strain. it will be negative value because of compression). (b) Determine the true strain.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0.0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 .4667) = 0.5 Lo 3.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero.(-0.0 to 85.95)/95 = 5/95 = 0. and (7) 105. If the metal had been strained in compression.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0. which is impossible.0 mm before necking occurs.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 .470) .0 mm.0 mm.516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64.0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 .0 mm.0 .0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 . (4) 90. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume. (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0.483 3.223) = 64.0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0.515 ε 0.0/1. and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again. Lf = 0.0 to 90. (5) 95.693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1.0)/1.85)/85 = 5/85 = 0.14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length.0 mm.0 mm..13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.0 to 80.1.0 to 110.4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1.

5 mm.Lo = 0.24 Lo A = Ao/1. Solution: Elongation = (L . ε = ln(1 + e) 3.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1.221) 2 = 1. determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37.5 MPa and n = 0. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure.Lo/Lo = L/Lo .0 in and cross-sectional area = 0. At necking.20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e). calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62. L/Lo = Ao/A A = πD2 and Ao = πDo2 Ao/A = πDo2 /πD2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3.3 MPa 3.2 MPa. However.1 Rearranging. Its elongation at this point is 24%. Therefore.Af)/Ao = 0.26.4918(382.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248. Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L . Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area.24 L .8065 Ao True stress σ = 37.0. then true stress σ = 248.24 Lo L = 1. Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.Lo)/Lo = 0.6(. 3.18 A copper wire of diameter 0.24 = 0.4) .24) = 0.25 = 992.000/0.80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248. This is a true stress.4 = 382.75 Ao Ao . 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1).4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = . it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen.215 Compression 3. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D).4/2 = 0.5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37.2/0. n = ε.Af = 0.15.40 and K = 551.386. Necking begins immediately thereafter.000 lb.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo .6 MPa.section increases uniformly.17 Based on results of a tensile test. Therefore.4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio. TS = 1.(.Therefore. the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0. Based on this information. 0.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm.75A o = 0.2 Do/D = exp. TS is defined as an engineering stress.221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1.2 MPa.75 Ao . Therefore. Assuming that the cross.8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao .8065(0.5) = 91. From Problem 3.3) = 570.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2. 14 .3 MPa. σ = 551.2) = 1.

3.22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.6) = 0.257) .1(818. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test.6 in.7(1293.209 in 2.000 lb.5(0.26 = 420.224/30.103 = 137.872 n n = 0.1) = 884.511) .1) = 426.5/37.000 lb.0(1 .223.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79.5) 2/4 = 3.767 in2 Y = 140.00264 Strain including offset = 0.000 lb.00464 is h = 2.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.26 = 521.00264 + 0.223/0.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79. At F = 260. ε = ln(62.6 = 2.6) = 257.714/(0. True strain ε = ln(2. True strain σ = 140.5π(25) 2/4 = 30679. the height has been reduced to 1.002 = 0.389 lb/in2. The metal yields (0.000/2.667) = 0. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm. Ao = πDo/4 = π(1.5(.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπDo2/4 = 62.714 lb/in2 at ε = 0.223) .7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75.770 N (b) At h = 37.0 in and diameter = 1.1 mm2 F = 683. A = V/L = 75.223 Yf = 620.534/1.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.6 mm2 F = 420. Solution: For h = 58 mm. 117.6/50 = 613. Determine the force required to achieve this compression.35 = 683.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0.06) 0.095 N.5/50) = ln(1.5 = 818.4006 = 3.9907 in. Area A = 3.862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.06) n ln(1.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78.2% offset) at a load = 140.00464.775 = 78.511 Yf = 620.534 in3.5) = ln(1. (a) At h = 50 mm. and (2) σ = 117.000/1.000/1.00464 Height h at strain = 0.775 in 2.862 lb/in2.000. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.312 N 3.0. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπD2/4 = 2π(1.534/1.1(613.000 mm3 At h = 58 mm.000/58 = 1293.9907 = 1.103 Bending and Shear 15 .00464) n 1. assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.493 = (48.35. A = 3.0/1.5) 2/4 = 1.209 = 117.493) = n ln(48.223) .5 mm.862 = (0.767 = 79. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1. True stress σ = 260.6 /37.103 K = 117.00464) = 1.1 mm2 F = 521.000 = 0.293) = 0.714/78. ε = ln(62. (b) flow curve parameters K and n.714 lb/in 2.389 ε .6 mm3.5 in. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.257 Yf = 1100(.25) = 0. At a load of 260.

and (c) shear modulus.01309 = 3. What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 101. and (c) shear modulus.667 N. Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb.01745)/2.906 lb/in2.25 in.5 x 0. Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°. Determine: (a) the shear stress.252) = 163.3. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π(1.3(2π/360) = 0. Hardness 3. (b) shear strain. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°. wall thickness = 0. 3.0 = 0. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded.39/0.0 in.179 MPa.002618 = 29.5(1700)(2.005236)/50 = 0.01745 rad. and gage length = 50 mm.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3.1)) = 42. and gage length = 2.50 in and h = 0. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π(25) 2(3)) = 76.441 lb/in2.01309 (c) τ = Gγ. α = .26. a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0. α = 1(2π/360) = 0.9004. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 .26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm.3. (b) shear strain. In testing.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material.25.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm. The length of the specimen between supports = 2. γ = 25(0. (b) γ = Rα/L.10 in.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test. Calculate the shear strength of the metal.5FL/bh2 = 1.441/0. G = τ/γ = 42. what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2πR2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π(1. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0.24 x 10 6 lb/in2. Determine: (a) the shear stress.005236 rad.5) = 3000/(10π x 0.29 In Problem 3.3°.30 In a Brinell hardness test.27 In a torsion test. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test. wall thickness = 3 mm. Determine the BHN for the metal. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1.5) 2(0.2 mm.22).0)/(0. 3.86 MPa.002618 (c) τ = Gγ.0 in. γ = 1.5(0. Determine the shear strain for this situation. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1.200 lb/in2.39 MPa. h = 10 mm.5258) = 182 BHN 3.27.5 in. 3. Solution: TRS = 1.1)) = 67. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball. 3.(102 .5 x 60) = 16.. for which equipment is available in the company.5) 2(0. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.28 In Problem 3. (b) γ = Rα/L. 3. 3. G = τ/γ = 76. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π(10 .

but many of them are. Based on the BHN determined in that problem. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60.6 mm and length = 50. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min. The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation.30 that the specimen is steel. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182. estimate the tensile strength of the steel. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid.000 lb/in2. separated by a space of 4 mm.35 Two parallel surfaces.34 Two flat plates. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials.000 lb/in 2. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No. Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load. (b) Based on Table 3. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0.000 lb/in2. 3.000 to 70.008 N-s/m2.000) = 32.555.33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor. from a legal standpoint. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area.700 lb/in2. and (3) Durometer. 3.36 A 125. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test. 3. This lies outside the specified range of 60. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0. 3.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid.5 in that is occupied by a fluid. However. Viscosity of Fluids 3.14 Pas.000/45. A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118. Using this ratio. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0.555(59. determine the viscosity of the fluid.0006 lb-sec/in2. TS = 500(182) = 91.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125.32 Suppose in Problem 3. the claim is not correct.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0. what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN).0 mm. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25. separated by a space of 0. (2) Scleroscope.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0.000 lb/in2. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity. 17 . Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec.000 to 70. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material.000 = 0. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec.2 in the text (page 47). Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing.

6 mm2 = 19729.1 N Torque T = 24.7 N/mm2)(19729.6 s-1 τ = (0.6) = 1221.6 .Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π(125.2(10-6)) = 24.7 Pa = 1221.3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.506 N-m 18 .14)(8726.6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.125)/2 = 0.3 = 8726.7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.2(10-6) m2 d = (125.1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.4 N-mm = 1.

Answer. Answer. Review Questions 4. Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer.2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material.4 Define the specific heat property of a material. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point). According to Fick's first law. in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding. Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current. contact area.9 Define the resistivity of a material. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal.1 4.11 What is an electrolyte? 19 . What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus. Answer. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid. finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point.7 Define thermal diffusivity. concentration gradient. 4. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree. 4. In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass. 4. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass. 4. Answer.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer. What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). Between the solidus and liquidus. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer).4 4. 4. and time.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer. 4. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness.8 4. Answer.6 4. Density is the weight per unit volume.

or (d) tin. (c) gold. (b) zero conductivity. (e) temperature.Answer. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature. (b) 20 . Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) magnesium. all correct answers must be given. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus. (c) density. Answer. 4. (a) In the heating of most metal alloys.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (c) 4. and (f). (a).8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. (b) copper. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (f) time. Answer. (b). as time elapses. the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced. 4. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld.2 4. (b) contact area.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. 4. (d) melting point.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer. (b) concrete. Answer. In these cases. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum. (4. (d) 4. This is perhaps a trick question. or (b) false. (e). (b) copper. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. (c) polyethylene. Answer. (d) 4. (b) 4. or (b) false.3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true.5). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. of (b) solidus. or (d) silver. (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal. Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq. or (d) water.

using data in Table 4.193 cal.25. (a) Problems 4.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0.98 mm.2.0 in)(500°F .02 + 0. r = 1.0.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.007854(10-6) m2) = 2164.00)(T2 .70/1. 1 cm on each side. Heat = (0. α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4. Solution: Increase = (6.70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C). From Table 4.4.01512) 3 = 1.1. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10.0 + 24(10-6)(1.0003T2 T2 = -46.T2).98 .1.T2).01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1.L1 = αL1 (T2 .007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4.014 = 0.007854 mm2 = 0. Answer. thus ρ at 650°C = 2.0288 in.70 g/cm3)(300°C .0003T2 . α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 .70°F) = 0. Refer to Table 4.00 mm. Revise Eq.9 In an electrolytic cell.20) = 1.0 cal = 4.006 -.3 With reference to Table 4. Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24. Solution.3.67° C ° 4.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25.7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m R = (1.3 as a reference.1) 2/4 = 0. A = π(0.1) to D2 . determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C.02 = 0.1. the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.04605 = 2.21°C) = 158.581 g/cm3 4.0)(650 . 24.D1 = αD1 (T2 .0003(T2 .196 J.006 = 0.65 Ω 21 . Determine its density at 650°C. Solution: R = rL/A.0 in. Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube.1. 4.20) -0.02 = 300(10-6)(T2 .7 x 10-8 Ω-m2/m)(10 m)/( 0.21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2. To be readily inserted. This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation. 4.7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10.0003T2 -0. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling.1 as a reference.4 With reference to Table 4. L2 = 1. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F. or (b) negative.184J.10 mm? Use Table 4.5(10-2) Ω = 21.20) = 0. so heat = 662. Solution: For steel. (4.20) -0. Conversion: 1.00 = 12(10-6)(25.

5 5. etc. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average. 5.3 Define nominal surface. waviness. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed. Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture.1) and (5. including roughness. perfectly round if referring to a round surface.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer.6 Within the scope of surface texture. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing.2 DIMENSIONS. 5. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary. 5. what does surface roughness mean? Answer. friction and wear. and thermal electrical contacts.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics. 5. It is assumed perfectly smooth.1 5. (5. Answer. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations. Review Questions 5. Answer. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties. and flaws. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction. (2) it does not indicate lay.9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture. 22 . AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer. see Eqs.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer.3) in the text. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry.4 Define surface texture. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length. Answer. mating of components in assembly. safety. TOLERANCES. 5. 5. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. lay. 5. Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface.

5. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension.Answer. (d) oil films. and (e). and superfinishing. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.1). Answer. 5. (c) heat affected zone. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 23 . flame cutting). Answer. or (f) voids.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes.1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. chemical. (a) and (d). (c) 5. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) plastic deformation. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. For each question. The changes and injuries include: cracks. lapping.5 5. and (e) surface cracks. or (d) variation in manufacturing. and thermal cutting (e.g. Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing. (e) recrystallization. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. hot rolling. intergranular attack. (a). residual stresses. sawing. (b) measurement error.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness. polishing. (see Table 5. (c). craters. (b). and electrical. (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface. The energy forms can be any of several types. etc. metallurgical changes resulting from heat. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. Answer. (b) hardness variations. including mechanical.. and (d) roundness. Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface. (c) hardness variations. 5. (b) concentricity. and (e). Answer. 5. 5. variations in hardness near the surface. (c) cylindricity.13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. Answer. 5. (b) 5. all correct answers must be given.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer. thermal. Answer. (b).

or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. or (c) no effect. Answer. (b) 5. (a). (b) grinding. Answer. (c). (d) sand casting. Also. and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. (d) sand casting. (b) grinding.9 5. (c) machining. (d). (c) machining. or (e) sawing. (b) decrease. Answer. (b) microstructure near the surface. (e). Accept either answer. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. Answer.7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. or (e) sawing.8 5. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. (b). (c) microcracks beneath the surface. (e) surface roughness.5. (d) substrate microstructure. 24 .

. Ni. What is the definition of an alloy? Answer.6 6. Answer. we should also mention the most important. as indicated by its phase diagram. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. which includes all others.11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel. good electrical and thermal conductivity. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal. 6. 6. which are based on iron. Why is it so simple? Answer. Mg2Pb) is formed. Mo. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr. Mn. and nonferrous. Mo. Ferrous metals. Answer. What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer. 6. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels.11%. The carbon content ranges from 2. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer.5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution. The carbon content ranges from 0. Answer. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them. such as a metallic compound (e. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase. which is C. All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying.7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. 6.11% to about 5%.2 6. Answer. and V.. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness. 6.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer.02% to 2. Mn. Review Questions 6. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment.8 6.3 6.g. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase.1 6. Cr. 25 . at least one of which is metallic.g. and higher density than ceramics or polymers.

22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals).. e. It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. 6. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel. 6.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios. which increases wear resistance. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film). 6.12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer. 6. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. 6. 6. good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. high electrical and thermal conductivity. V) form hard carbides with C. The important applications are: (1) die castings . Its high electrical conductivity.g. 6. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel. 6.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer.13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. Chromium.16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer.Several of the alloying elements (Cr. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. 6. stainless steel. (2) as a coating in galvanized steel. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing). (a) tin. formability.zinc is an easy metal to cast. Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. and high temperature strength. 6. 6. Mo. and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance. 6. however. Aluminum is noted for its low density. and low strength. (b) zinc. Silicon. Answer.23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 .14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer.17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass.15 Besides high carbon content.

The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. Answer. 6. 6. according to the base metal used in the alloy. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) iron. (d) high stiffness. (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum. Name the three groups. or (e) silicon. Mo and W are the most important. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 6. (b) copper. Answer.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals. tantalum (Ta). (d) 27 . 6. 6. For each question.26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. 6. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. or (e) ionic bonding.27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. gold. molybdenum (Mo). (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive. (c) high electrical resistivity. Solder.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity. (b) cementite. (a) The principal noble metals are copper. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures. (d) ferrite. and (3) cobalt-based alloys. and (3) heat treatment . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. and silver.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. (d) magnesium. (a) 6. (c) delta. (2) nickel-based alloys. (c) and (e).Answer. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals. platinum.28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. (b) high strength. (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). 6. (2) cold working. in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal. or (e) gamma. and tungsten (W). all correct answers must be given. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer.

(b) magnesium. (d) molybdenum. Answer. (e) zinc. or (d) titanium. (b) 6. (d) tin. (b) hypoeutectoid. Answer. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX. (c) nickel.15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (c). (a) 6.8 6. (b). (c) cementite. or (e) 30XX. (b) 10XX. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false. and (e) tungsten.0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid. (c) tin. (e) zinc. (b) manganese. (b) gray cast iron.6 6. (a). Answer.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon. 6. (c) hypereutectoid. (c) gold. (b) chromium. (d) silver. Answer. Answer. (b) copper. or (e) vanadium.6. Answer.7 6. Answer. (c) malleable iron.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium. (c) gold. (d) nickel. (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false. or (d) white cast iron. (b) manganese. Answer. 6. (d) vanadium. (c) platinum. (c) nickel. (c) molybdenum. (a) and (d). or (d) wrought iron.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. (d) silver. 28 . Answer. Answer. and (d). (c) 6. or (e) scheelite. (b) 6. (b) 6.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina.5 6.9 6.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum. (b) bauxite. Answer.4 A steel with 1. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. or (e) tungsten. Answer. or (e) tungsten. (d) hematite.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. (d) 12XX. (b) lead. (c) 11XX. (b) copper.

6. Liquid phase proportion = 4. α phase composition = 18% Sn .2 For the preceding problem. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F). Solid phase composition = 83% Ni .Answer. CS = 12 mm. If so. (d) tin.2 mm. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. 6.44% Pb. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm.3. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F).5) = 15/25. (d) Problems 6. 6.3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6.3. Solution: From Fig 6.3.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6.29 6.5 = 0. Solution: From Fig 6. Solution: From Fig 6. CS = 15 mm.8 mm. CS = 4. (b) and (e).4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.8/13 = 0. what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder. Solution: From Fig 6. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0.6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6. β phase composition = 98% Sn .2.35% Cu. (b) lead.82% Pb.32 α phase proportion = 7. 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.7 For the preceding problem. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn .17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F). Solution: From Fig 6.59 α phase proportion = 10. (c) magnesium. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni .2% Pb. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.22% Pb. 6.41 6. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.5 mm. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn .3. Solution: From Fig 6.5 = 0.3.5/25.2.3.17% Cu.5 For the preceding problem.3.2/(13) = 0. is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F).68 29 . Answer.2.71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0. or (e) zinc.

identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. and (c) gamma. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C. 30 . Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide. (b) gamma + iron carbide.4.6.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6. and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C.

carbides).1 7. silicon. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer. Usually electrical and thermal insulators. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer. 31 . thermal expansion usually less than metals. 7.. Because they are not compounds. bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. 7.2 7. no ductility.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. they are alternative forms of the element carbon. medium density (typically below the density of metals).12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer.11 What is glazing. 7. A ceramic is an inorganic. Answer.8 7. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. nonmetallic compound. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous).9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware. Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica. Usually high hardness.10 What is clay. as applied to ceramics? Answer. oxides. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive. brittle. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4). Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e. Review Questions 7.5 7. aluminum. while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure.6 7. usually formed into useful products by a heating process. Oxygen. Covalent and ionic bonding. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant. used in making ceramic products? Answer.3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer. high melting temperatures. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. 7. and iron.g. What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. 7.7 7. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. pottery. They are both minerals of alumina.g..

For each question. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers. 7. lenses). and other applications where hardness is a critical factor. 7. basic substances. (e) 32 . (6) adding color to the glass. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. 7.7.16 Define glass. Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces. (c) feldspar. 7. rock drilling bits. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. or (e) silicon. nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. or silicon dioxide (SiO 2). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (3) retarding devitrification . thus leading to highly anisotropic properties. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.g.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (e) silica. Silica.. dies for powder metallurgy.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. such as WC-Co? Answer. as mentioned in the text? Answer. Answer. Silicon. drawing dies. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating. 7. (b) corundum. (d) oxygen.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum. (c) iron. (b) calcium. and nitrogen. 7. (d) kaolinite. Glass is an inorganic. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e. aluminum. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride. (d) 7.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer.20 What is graphite? Answer. 7. or water. oxygen. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 7.

Answer. or (e) tungsten carbide. (b) electrical conductor. or (b) 50% polycrystalline.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china.0. (c) 33 . (a). (b) 95% vitreous.7 7. or (e) silicon dioxide. (b) carbon dioxide. 7. (c) 4. (a) and (d). (d) 8. (d) silicon dioxide.7.0 (b) 2. relative to other ceramics. or (d) strong. (b) 7. (b) earthenware. (d) quartz.14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times.0. (b) earthenware. or (d) stoneware. (d) MgO.0. (b) It's reversed in the statement. (c) cubic boron nitride. 7. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. (d) silicon carbide. (b) bauxite. Answer. (b). (c) porcelain.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing. Answer.6 7. (c) 1950s. (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina. Answer. (c) porcelain. (c) carbon monoxide. (b) 1800s. Answer. Answer. Answer. (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3.8 7.4 7. (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4. and (c). (a) 7. or (e) 16. (a) 7. or (b) false. Answer. Answer. or (d) stoneware. (c) corundum. or (e) SiO 2.0. (c) 7. Answer. Answer. or (e) sandstone. (c) high thermal expansion. or (b) false.13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1. Answer. (b) calcium oxide.5 7. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true. or (d) 1980.

1 for descriptions. (2) thermosetting polymers. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered. Answer. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 . 8. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules. See Article 10. Review Questions 8.1. If the amount of cross-linking is low. 8. 8. density.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer. In general. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. Answer. In addition. called mers.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating. (3) block.8 What is a copolymer? Answer. How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods. The molecules consist of repeating units. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. connected end to end. polymers have lower strength.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. such as ethylene and propylene. (2) random. and temperature resistance compared to metals. and (3) elastomers. What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer. See Article 10.8 8.1.2 8. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. 8. 8. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer. 8. if cross-linking is significant. stiffness. An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic.10 What is a terpolymer? Answer. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule. and (4) graft.1 8. 8. hardness.4 for descriptions.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. also known as condensation polymerization.

8. cross-linking agents. 8. brittle. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation. (3) stereoregularity . These differences account for HDPE higher density. 8. stiffness. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose. C2H4 8.Answer.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer. 8. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping. stiffness.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer.20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene. 35 . Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals. Other additives include: lubricants . 8.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer. 8. colorants.isotactic polymers always form crystals. Answer.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. 8. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase. (2) copolymers do not form crystals. Polyamides. capable of higher service temperatures. and melting temperature increase.16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. 8. 8. 8.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways. Density. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible.to reduce friction and improve flow. Thermosets are more rigid. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. atactic polymers never form crystals.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic. No. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. flame retardents.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. Name the three ways. and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. antioxidants. and cannot be remelted.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer. and ultraviolet light absorbers. and melting point. and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization. 8. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature.

(a) 8. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.1 Of the three polymer types. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false. the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. (c) C3H6. 8. and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (d) C5H8. (b) C2H4.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. or (c) elastomers. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Why are their properties so different? Answer. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems. or (c) elastomers. Polyisoprene. or (c) elastomers. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid. 8. (c) 8.linking? (a) thermoplastics. Answer. 8. 8.Answer. 8. Answer. (b) thermosets. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. (b) thermosets. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties. all correct answers must be given.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics. (b) thermosets.linked. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. (2) catalyst-activated systems. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg. Light cross-linking allows extensibility.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. or (e) C8H8. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked. and (3) mixing-activated systems. 8. Answer. For each question. in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction. Answer. (b) 36 .4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases. (a) 8.

(b) decreases. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule.9 8. (a) 8. (c) nylon. or (d) urethanes. (d) polystyrene. (c) silicones.8 8. (b) thermosetting. (b). or (e) polyvinylchloride. (c) and (d). (e) polyethylene. (c). (c) polyester. 8. Answer. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false. 37 .11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics.17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized. strong. (b) 8. transparent. (a). (b) cellulose acetate. (d) polyethylene. (a) 8. Answer. (d) polychloroprene. Answer. Answer. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly.7 8. Answer.8. or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose. Answer. or (c) remains fairly constant. 8. Answer. or (f) polyurethane. Answer. Answer.16 Among the thermosetting polymers. or (d) none of the above. (c) polypropylene.13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false. and (e). (b) 8. or (c) elastomeric. Answer. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. (a) 8.12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. (b) nylon. or (e) polypropylene. (d) the polymer becomes stiff. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false. (b) polyethylene. its density (a) increases. the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies. Answer. (b) 8. (b) phenolics. and elastic.

Answer. (d) C5H8. (d) polyurethane. and (c).19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. (c) polybutadiene. (d) 8. Answer. (b) isoprene rubber. (b). or (f) thermoplastic elastomers.18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2. (a). (c) C3H6. Answer. (b) C2H4. or (e) C8H8. (e) 38 . 8. (e) styrene-butadiene rubber.

9. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs).8 What is a whisker? Answer. hairlike crystal of very high strength. Examples given in Table 9. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs). Answer.7 9. Review Questions 9. Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Answer. Answer. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls. and (2) honeycomb.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer. such as wood. in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. Metal matrix composites (MMCs). some of them are obtained from sources in nature. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures. 9. plywood. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals.2 are: automotive tires.3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer. 9. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins.2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to. printed circuit boards. A whisker is a thin. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases. 9.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. 9.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 .9 9. honeycomb sandwich structures. or polymers alone. Answer. 9. and windshield glass.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. (2) particles and flakes. Synthetic composites are manufactured. ceramics.1 9. The forms are: (1) fibers. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each.

and low thermal expansion for many FRPs. (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents . 9.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs. An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. Answer. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials.17 What is a hybrid composite? Answer. Answer. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite. poor toughness. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal.16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts. all correct answers must be given. it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix. 9. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio. 9. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components.the reinforcing phase in particular . they fit within the definition.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. Yes. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials. Kevlar. good fatigue strength. good corrosion resistance. 9.12 What is a cermet? Answer. 9. tennis rackets. automobile body panels. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (3) the interaction of the phases. 9.Answer. For each question.and the resulting structure of the material. printed circuit boards. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).reinforced plastic composite materials. 9. low density. 9. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets. or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer.15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer. 9. E-glass. and a variety of other items. A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength. high modulus-to-weight ratio. and susceptibility to thermal cracking. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material. 9. boat hulls.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber. In the text.

(b) flakes. (b) properties are the same in every direction. (b) phenolic molding compound. Answer. 9. (a) 9. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. or (f) zinc. (d). 9. (c) hot hardness. (c) plywood. (c). or (c) PMC. 9.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. (d) modulus of elasticity. (b). Answer. (e) Kevlar 49. (e). or (d) infiltrated phase.4 9. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) magnesium. (b) 9. Answer. and (f). (f) tungsten. (c) particles. (c) carbon/graphite. Answer. (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Answer. (c) iron. (d) cobalt. Answer.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. (e) titanium.7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. or (g) tungsten carbide. Answer. (d) epoxy. Answer.10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. (c) carbon. (g) 9. (e) and (f). (e) rubber in automobile tires. (d) Portland cement. (e) graphite. (a). or (g) SiO 2. Answer.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. and (e). (c) 9. (b) copper.reduces the score by 1 point. (f) wood. (b) hardness. (d) lead.2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false. (e) nickel. (b) boron. (a). Answer. (c) 9. or (f) toughness. and (g) unsaturated polyester. or (c) thermosets. (b) thermoplastics. 41 . 9. (f) Kevlar 49. or (g) 1020 steel. (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. (f) S-glass.9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers. (b) boron. (c) cobalt. (b) chromium. (c) 9. (b) MMC. (e) tensile strength.

and (f). (c). 42 . (a).Answer. (b). (e).

7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes. Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. (3) very large parts are possible. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification.5 10. and (5) environmental problems. Answer. Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties. (3) poor dimensional accuracy. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes. 10. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer.6 10. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. Review Questions 10. The most important casting process is sand casting. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. or continuity equation. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part. 10.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. (2) porosity. A foundry. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal. 10. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold. meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow.3 10. The continuity law.10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top. 10.10 10. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer. 10. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. while a core determines its internal geometry. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible. 43 .

10. 10. or (b) drag. where TST = total solidification time. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope. V = volume of casting. Answer. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state. all correct answers must be given.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature. (2) metal alloy composition. 10. (c) container for holding liquid metal.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2. Hence.3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus.2 10. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state. 10. Answer. or (b) permanent mold. and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings. (a) In casting. A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal. Answer. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.10. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. solidification occurs at a single temperature. (b) box which holds the cope and drag. 10. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Cm = constant. a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen. (3) viscosity of liquid metal. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature. and A = surface area of casting. (b) 44 .16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid. 10.1 10. 10.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer. rather than over a temperature range. The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer.

(a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present.3 J/g. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. 10. (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold.1 and 4. and (d) top riser. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature. Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4. Answer. (c) side riser. (d) mushy zone. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. Answer.05) = 6597. Answer. Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum. (b) open riser. (b) greater.8 10. Tm = melting temperature.2 in this text. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature.7 10. the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. (d). or (c) smaller.2(1. Answer. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity.5 10. where A = surface area of casting. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal. (b) ingot segregation. The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389.9 10. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold.4 In foundry work.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283. (c) Tm. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. (e) V/A. starting from a room temperature of 25°C. and V = volume of casting. (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion.3 cm3 45 . (c). In a sand casting mold. Answer. or (e) solidus.6 10. (b) Hf. Hf = heat of fusion. (c) metal that is not part of the casting. Solution: Volume V = πD2h/4= π(40) 2(5)/4 = 6283. Answer. or (f) (V/A)2.10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10.10. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification.1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. and (e). (a) and (c). (c) liquidus. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. (d) V. Answer. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity.

70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0. (b) the volume rate of flow. W = 10 in.265 Btu 10.1) = 660.2 sec.001 m3.324 x 660{0.5 = (4636.5 = 68.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741. H = 0. If the sprue is 25 cm long.000/741.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75.324 lbm/in 3. (b) the volume rate of flow.0 in.1 and 4. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity.5 = (3. specific heat of the metal = 0.636 in2 10.2.8 + 389.1981)} = 213.435. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm.0/34. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in.7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s.096) 0.1).6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold. It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate. in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal.093(1981 .70(6597. The cross-section of the sprue is round.88(660-25) + 389.26 + 80 + 15. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue. top and bottom.21} H = 58. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate. melting point = 1981 F.6 in/sec) = 0. and D = 3 in. What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0. At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue.3 + 123.88 J/g-°C Heat required = 2. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.5 = 34. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1.5 = 78.0 l/s = 1.8) 0. 46 .000.5 in2.71{558. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.2} = 19.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.090(2150 .3){0.000.2 x 12 x 8) 0. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity. (12.84{177.88(800-660)} = 17.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.082. The mold cavity has a volume = 0. whose volume = 75 in3.200 = 1. the cross-sectional area = 1.75) + 80 + 0.0 in.2 x 12 x 6. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue.0) 0.5 = (2 x 32.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0.812. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec. with a diameter at the top = 3.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6.21 Cal/g-°C = 0.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10.4 cm. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring.000.05 = 2. density ρ = 2. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2.From Table 4. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.0 in 2.35 s 10.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1. 10.1 x 0.090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state.3 + 0. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.756 J 10.

(c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold.39 cm 10.6 in 2. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.3.914 in Head loss = 6.51)/π = 5. riser.5(0.8 h0.978 h = 1.000(. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity.5 = 55.0) 0.951)(.82 mm 10.0 in long before leading into the mold cavity.0 + 25. (b) the total volume of the mold.6%. Solution: For copper.333 = 95.914 = 2.6(8.0 .10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm.5 cm/s) = 4. This is more than the theoretical time required.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0. h0. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1.9%. Solution: For aluminum.086 in Shrinkage 10.6 in 2. whose volume = 65 in 3.5 = 55. rearranging.2 x 12 x 6. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.0/27.60 = 40.5 = 221. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879.9589) = 119.8817 Linear contraction = (0.075) = 1. The downsprue is 6.0) + 0.9782 = 3.056) = 0. solidification shrinkage is 4.178 cm 47 . solid contraction during cooling = 5.0 in/sec.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33.5%. runner. solidification shrinkage = 6. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.8 + 0.675) 0.8 = 1.0 in long. solid contraction during cooling is 7.0 + 0.066)(1-0.6%. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube.9589) = 239.863 cm H = 20(0.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68.5 = 68.333 = 0.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1.5 = 27. and it is 8. At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.6)(6. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.000.2 x 12 x h) 0.000.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity.9589) = 19.1 x 0. W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm.8 in2 and at the base = 0.51 cm2 Area of sprue A = πD2/4. and sprue.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.0) = 99. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.0/3 = 33.025) = 879. The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3. 100 mm on a side. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0.0/0. area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221.000(1-0.8 During pouring into a sand mold.000. It takes a total of 3. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.725 cm W = 125(0. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum.74 cm2 D = 2.8817) 0.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99.6 = 55.049)(1-0.

333 = 0. solid contraction during cooling is 7.00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1. solidification shrinkage is 4. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0.080) = 0. width = 10 cm. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0. The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.0348 .0 min/cm2.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.75 in.333 = 0.03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.471 in and t = 0.0441 .0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1. Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2. and thickness = 20 mm.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1. which means it expands during solidification.2%. Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.025)(1-0.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12.072) = 0.040)(1-0.045)(1-0.92 mm/m 10.0 in and thickness = 0.0275)(1-0.1.9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.00192 . solidification shrinkage is 4.418 in/ft 10.750(1.1.9578) -1 = 1.072) = 0.5%.49 min 10.00(1.333 = 0. solid contraction = 7.5%.0%.0) = 1.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1. solid contraction during cooling is 8.8909) 0.0) = 0.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.9981) -1 = 1. solid contraction during cooling = 3. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.99425) 0.8909 Linear contraction = (0. solidification shrinkage = -2.1.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel.75%.03927) = 0.0%.9025 Linear contraction = (0. Solution: For brass.03927) = 12.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.99425 Linear contraction = (0. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm.9 in Chvorinov's Rule.8786) 0.333 = 0.9664) -1 = 1.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc. Solution: For gray CI.8786 Linear contraction = (0. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4. Solution: For 1% carbon steel. based on previous experience.10.9622) -1 = 1.030) = 0.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.5%. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 .9025) 0. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.0%.2%.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions.0) = 44. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2.1 mm/m 10.

42 in 3 D = (38.27 min.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.2836 = 70.5π(3.732)/4 = 42.53/4π = 5.374) = 4.53 in3 Length L = 70.19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4.732) = 68.000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.622) 2 = 4.61 = 0.32 in 3)/1.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρV. Solution: (a) For steel.0/5. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = πD2t/4 = π(500) 2(20)/4 = 3.0/(0.7375 Cm = 6.3 s = 1.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify.24 min.991/424. thus L = 1.343/6126 = 5. TST = 11.42) 0.53) = 42.1015 = 38. The cube was 50 mm on a side. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.32/68. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125. Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(30) 2(50)/4 = 35. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3.713.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2.1015D 3 D3 = (42.9 .77 TST = 2.0 min to completely solidify.53/95.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum. 10.374 in L = 1.115) 2 = 171.732 in (c) V = πD2L/4 = π(3.232 (5.77) 2 = 74.926.63 = 0. ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0. 10. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.04 in 2 V/A = 42.343 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = π(30) 2/2 + π(30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35.926.374) 2(4. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule.000 = 8.622 in. Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb. 49 . This casting takes 6.374) 2 + π(3.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule.0(3.7353) 2 = 11.333) 2 = 2.61) = 95.9 = 4(600/760) 1.5 s = 2.53 in 3 Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2L/4 = 4πL = 70.04 = 0.86 min 10.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.4025(3.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.000/15.03(.4025D)/4 = 1.0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb.991 mm3 Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDt = π(500) 2/2 + π(500)(20) = 424.63 in 2 (V/A) = 70. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold.32 in 3 A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0. If Cm = 2. and (b) the dimensions.374)(4.333 = 3. V = W/ρ = 20/0.4025D Volume V = πD2L/4 = π(4) 2(1. The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm.9 = 2.61 in Area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(4) 2/4 + π(4)(5. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm.

910 dm3.1667) 2Cm = 0.723 min. (c) If Cm = 3. (2) a cylinder.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = πD3/4 = 1.241 dm Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1. compute the total solidification time for each casting. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm).0326Cm 50 . Solution: For ease of computation.0 dm3. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = πD2H/4 = π(1) 2(1)/4 = π/4 = 0. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.2067) 2Cm = 0.0 = 0.02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers.0 dm2 V/A = 1. D = H = (1. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = π(1) 3/6 = π/6 dm3 Sphere area A = πD2 = π(1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π/6)/ π = 1/6 = 0.02778(350) = 9.333 = 1. (1) Sphere volume V = πD3/6 = 1.836 dm2 V/A = 1.5π = 0. D3 = 6/π = 1. and (3) cube V = 1.536 dm2 V/A = 1.524 dm3 = 524 cm3.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2. Accordingly.084) 2/4 + π(1.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3.0/4.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1.02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1. For all three geometries.273 dm3 Therefore.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.910) 0.0/5.0.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 2π(1) 2/4 + π(1)(1) = π/2 + π = 1. (b) Based on the results of part (a). 10. Solution: For ease of computation.1667) 2Cm = 0.084) = 5.7854 dm3 = 785. in which the L/D ratio = 1.5π dm2 V/A = .836 = 0.25π = 0.4 cm3. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. (b) Based on the results of part (a). the volume V = 1000 cm3. however.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.241) 2 = 4. (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm.25π/1. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.1667) 2Cm = 0.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. compute the total solidification time for each casting. cylinder V = 0. D3 = 4/π = 1.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1. Note.084)(1.1806) 2Cm = 0.0 dm3. and (3) a cube. D = (1. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.273) 0.0/6.0 dm3.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6.536 = 0.0 dm3 = 1000cm3.10. and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm.333 = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. then TST = 0.

02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser. L = 1.0697(0. The length of the cylinder is to be 1.800 mm2 V/A = 360. determine the diameter-to. πD = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π)0. since V/A ratio is greatest.75) = 230.0 in 2 51 .375/0.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = πD3/6 = 0.333 From the previous expression for L.0866) 2 = 0.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging. with length = 200 mm. the V/A ratio must be maximized.25(3. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3.333 Thus.0 dm2 V/A = 1.1667D TST = 1.5236D 3 Riser area A = πD2 = 3.0)(0.333. If the metal is cast iron.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify. The casting is a rectangular plate.5236D 3/3.1416D 2 = 0.5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0. and thickness = 18 mm. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1.41 min Cube: TST = 0.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold.0866) 2 = 3.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold. (c) Given that Cm = 3.0326(350) = 11.0 dm3. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360.0 10.0) 2 + 4(10.5) = 4. and Cm = 16. substituting in the equation for D that we have developed. For a given cylinder volume.001936 = 2259.5 min.7 mm2 D = 47.75(10. L = 4V/πD2 = 4V/π(4V/π)0.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7.000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π)0.25 times its diameter.667 = (4V/π)0.800 = 7. Cylinder volume V = πD2L/4.02778(350) = 9.5/(7. width = 100 mm. determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0. L = 4V/πD2 Cylinder area A = 2πD2/4 + πDL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = πD2/2 + πDL = πD2/2 + πD(4V/πD2) = πD2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = πD .001936D 2 D2 = 4.1667D)2 = 0.0 = 0. Solution: To maximize TST.000/50.5 mm 10.0428(350) = 14.1416D 2 V/A = 0.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10. The casting is a square plate.0/6.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.1667) 2Cm = 0.50 min Cm = 3.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold.75 inch.375 min = 0.72 min 10.

5(0.36 = 0.5 = 2.25D) = 0.5π(5) 2(1)/4 = 9.21 min D2 = 2.25(2.0(0. 10.974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12.5102 = 4.5 in 3 V(5 in.70 min Riser TST = 1.5 = 2.5417 = 4.1786D Riser TST = 16.657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0.5 .5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.3125πD3/1.3125πD3 Riser area A = 2πD2/4 + πDH = 0.657 .2(1.21 min Riser volume V = πD2H/4 = 0.817 + 7.0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3.5) 2/4) = 7.5πD2 = 1.25πD3/1.5πD2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2.266 in 2 D = 2.5 + 9.75πD2 = 0.5417D 2 D2 = 2.081 in H = 1.03189)D2 = 0.3316 D = (4.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1. The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.602 in.30(1.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.5 + 2. and L = 2.5π + 12. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12. If Cm = 19.305 in Casting TST = 19.3261) 2 = 1.5) 2π/4 + 2.065 in.31 min Riser volume V = πD2L/4 = πD3/4 = 0.5πD2 + 1.0 = 62.1786D)2 = 16.5π(3+1) = 203.3316) 0.305) 2 = 1.0(0. 52 .31/0.081) = 2.4π(1.974/203.5π(3) + 1.5πD2 V/A = .5π(5) 2/4) .5 x 1.0π(2.25.75πD2 V/A = 0.21/0. in which the units are inches.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.25πD2 = 1.5) 2/4 .25πD3 Riser area A = πDL + 2πD2/4 = πD2 + 0.V/A = 75/230 = 0.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.18.36 in 2 V/A = 61.25πD2(1.5102D 2 = 2. half disk) = 0. Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.065 in.70) = 2.81 + 0.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12.5(D/6) 2 = 0.0 in 3 Total V = 62.3 x 6) + 2(.0 = 61.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout). half disk) + V(upright tube) .31 = 19.

2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting.7 11. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold. aluminum. and magnesium.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. Common die cast metals include: zinc. What is the difference between a split pattern and a match. (3) thermal stability .6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer. and why? Answer. Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity.chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source. 11. brass. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried. cold-chamber or hot-chamber. 11. The usual properties are: (1) strength . Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold. a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate.plate pattern? Answer. The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes. Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low. lead.1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 .ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal. 11.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces. and (2) permanent mold processes. (4) collapsibility .can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity. (2) permeability . 11. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal. tin. (5) reusability .3 What is a chaplet? Answer. 11. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins.ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting.9 What is flash in die casting? Answer.4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer. Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder. 11. 11.

(b) downward force = Wm . (d) sand casting.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. See Article 11. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) die casting. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. (c) sand casting. (d) shell molding. For each question. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base. or (d) upward force = Wm . 11. or (d) mold is dry. (6) heat treatment. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (d) SiSO 4. the shape is solid. (4) shrinkage cavity. and (6) hot tearing. Answer. (5) repair if needed. General defects include: (1) misruns. in which the sprues. and (7) machining.named? (a) green is the color of the mold. (3) cold shots. (b) SiO. (2) core removal. Answer. 11. a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced. or (c) smaller. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (f) vacuum molding.Wc. Answer.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. In true centrifugal casting. 11. 11.2 In sand casting. (3) surface cleaning. (c) mold is cured.Wc. risers. (5) microporosity. or (e) shell casting. (b) moisture is contained in the mold. an example is a railway wheel. (e) slush casting. (a) 11. all correct answers must be given. These operations include: (1) trimming. (d) 11. (d) 11. Answer.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3.11 What is a cupola? Answer. In semicentrifugal casting. 54 . The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting. Answer. (b) 11. (c) SiO 2. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting.6.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) same size. (2) cold shuts.3 11. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).1. (b) low pressure casting. (c) upward force = Wm + Wc.Answer. the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. (4) inspection. and flash are removed. (c) investment casting. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. runners.

(c). (c). (e) tungsten.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. Answer. (c) steel. Answer. (c) SiC. and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting. and (e) "pipe" formation. (d) cast steel. and (f) zinc. and (e) mold can be reused. and (f). (c) 11. or (e) zinc alloys. (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity. (c) low pressure casting. (d). (d) tin. (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin.11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. (a). (e).15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. and (e). (c) 55 . or (d) zinc. (b) bronze. (e) 11. Answer. Answer. 11. (c) lost-foam process. (d) larger parts can be casted.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells. (b). (b) and (c).9 In plaster mold casting. and (c) shell molding. (b) full-mold process. (b) 11. (c) steel. 11. (d) sand casting. Answer. (a). Answer. (c) higher production rates. (d) microporosity. and (f). (e) slush casting.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding. 11. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. (b) 11. Answer. (c) 11. 11. (d). Answer. (b) cast iron. or (d) SiO 2. Answer.Answer. or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form. (a). 11. or (e) lost-wax process. and (f). (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. (b) higher melting temperature metals.7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. (b) cast iron. (c). (b) die casting. (a). the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (b) investment casting.10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting. Answer. (c) cast iron.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. (d) shell molding. (d) lost pattern process. (c) plaster mold casting.

steel casting density = 7. density of brass ρ = 0. Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage.000 g V = 3698 cm3. Solution: From Table 13. 3. outside diameter = 8. and the metal poured is brass. Fb = 101.17 kg. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.6V = 6. The sections will have a length = 42.Problems Buoyancy Force 11.4 = 0.22V = 23 kg = 23.1.058) = 18.0 cm.1. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability.313 lb/in3.85 = 82.0 in. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 . 11. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring. Solution: From Table 13. determine the G-factor. 11.26 lb/in3.18.Wc Wc = 157(0.3698 = 1302 cm3. Fb = Wm .815 = 149 N.73 lb. (a) Wc = 325(0.3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.184 g = 10.184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11. and wall 56 . The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs. Fb = 40.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg.73 . The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3.85 lb.4). Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring.88 lb.82 lb. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core.26) = 40. (b) Wm = 325(. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.17 .Wc = 7. The lengths will be 1. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing.5 cm. Solution: Sand density = 1. Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7.5(π(1000)/30) 2/981 = 83. (11..11 = 31. Solution: From Eq.82V .2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.058) = 9. At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core. 11.82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm .0 in 3.313) = 101. and (b) above the core.82) = 10.4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg.5 m with outside diameter = 15.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing.8 11.20) x 9.71 lb. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force. GF = R(πN/30) 2/g = 7.106 lb. Wm = 157(0. Difference = (35. and inside diameter = 12.82 .0 in.6 g/cm3. density of cast iron ρ = 0.9.01246 m3. If the volume of the core = 325 in.1.

but its weight would be zero.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9. the rotational speed is not sufficient. The tubes have a length = 1. OD = 15 cm.8) = 68.62 cm3) = 548.7 rev/min.5) 2 .333 ft. Taking these factors into account.50 in.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.0) = π((7.5484 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (7. Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting. Fc = 338.163) 2/(.0/4 = . Thus.75)(913.0 m. v = πRN/30 = π(.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0.25 m.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth.1. determine the G-factor.2) = 28. Volume of molten metal V = 0.thickness = 0. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π(10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .163 m/s GF = (9. GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0. diameter = 0.252 .125)(700)/30 = 9. and ID = 12 cm. (b) When operating at this speed.011074/(1-.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm.0) = 63.333)(500)/30 = 17.049)(1-. Thus. how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity.81 kg-m/s2.54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation.011074 m3 From Table 12.(6) 2)(1.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0.125 x 9.0)/2 = 6.5 = 913. which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min.01259 m3 11.4 g = 0.5 + 6.8 m/s2 v = πRN/30 = π(.Ri2)(1.075) = 0.9/9.7)/30 = 645.7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (.75 x 10-2 m) = 338.333 x 32.75 cm v = π(6.25-.(.62g/cm3)(63.81 = 34.25π(.62 cm3 Mass m = (8.45 ft/sec.5% for copper. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70. solidification shrinkage = 4. GF = v2/Rg = (17.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.5(8)/12 = 0. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).5484 kg)(6. what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting. 11.86 cm/s = 6. and wall thickness = 15 mm. R = 0. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min.252 . (b) Use 1.. D = 15 cm N = (30/π)(2g x 70/15) .03) 2)π x 1.55 N Fc/A = (34. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful.222) = 0.4586 m/s)2/(6. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9.45) 2/(. it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 .

1.4 N)/(0. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .302)(5) = 2454.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).8957) = 2740. Area of this length of mold wall A = πDoL = π(65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0. determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall.. Use g = 981 cm/s2.299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19.932.0 in at the bottom.299 m/s)2/(0.5/π = 1237.25)(406.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π(Ro2 .9 g = 19.9 cm/s = 13.0 mm. The inside diameter of the tube = 5.5 in at the top and 5.1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.07 m. OD = 65 cm.1021 m2) = 10.4 N Fc/A = (1114. Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.316 kg)(13.7 N/m2 = 10. 11. However.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11. outside diameter = 70 mm.87g/cm3)(2454.25 cm = 0. this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it.5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .1. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate.0 in.1/9.2 cm3 11.072) = 1 . and ID = 60 cm. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed.3125 m v = π(31.03)(1-.(1-. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10.12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants.(60/2) 2)(5.932.4/(0.0 in and outside diameter = 6.5 percent.52 . 11.005)(1-.4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7.07) . D = Do = 65 cm.casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.5%.914.4)/30 = 1329. and from Table 10. the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7.4 cm3) = 19.10(b). and thickness = 6.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0.2%.914.10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation. N = 30(2g x GF/D).0) = 2454.316 kg v = πRN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 . (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq. Solution: D = 70 mm = 0.Ri2)L = π(32. Fc = 10. (11.5/π = 406.Ri2)(L) = π((65/2) 2 .5).81 kg-m/s2.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10.8957 = 0. The pipe has length = 0. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0.8 x 60/. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation. 11.4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60. With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action.4 rev/min.5 m.3125 m) = 10.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π(Ro2 . In the absence of gravity.81 = 1114.7 rev/min.315.5/π = 30(2 x 9. N = 406. g = 9.

5 = .224 in.5 L = 10 in.5 = (13.5 = 500π/30 = 52. density ρ = 0.y.8 x 0.304+y) 2-(3.Solution: Use Eq.0/2 = 2.3.5.5 N = (30/π)(3.02814 (2 x 6.304+y) 2-(3.005625)).3042 + 6.085 Ri2 = 16.3042 + 6.50 in.Ri2)L = π(4. 59 .0 .5 = (30/π)(2 x 9. Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.5493(5888) .56 Rt2-.5 = (30/π)(2 x 32.080 = 3.313 lb/in3 (Table 11.5 Given N = 1000.14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter.0) = 239.02 . If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm. determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.608y + y2)).0 lbs.99 mm.y2). = 0.5 = 9. and that is the Dt = 6.36 (3.6/15π = 5.7 rev/min 11.313 = 239.384 in.92/(Rt2-.5 = 1.5/2 = 2.0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).5 = 30(11592) .208332).36) 2 = 2741.0752). Db = 6. Defects and Design Considerations 11.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).229172-.3042 + 6.22917 ft Rb = 5.007055 Rt = 0.6.00143 Rt2 = .92/2741.02814 (3.005625 + 0. = 0.1).5 = 1. both aluminum castings.216y) .2 m.085 = 10. N = (30/π)(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).304 + y and Rb = Ri .3042 .5 = 500 rev/min (3. Solution: For brass.304+y) 2-(3.0. The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components.75 in.6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape). thus 1000π/30 = (11592/((3.92/(Rt2-.5 = 1. (11. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.8333 ft Rt = 5.007055) .92/(Rt2-.304 . The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π(Ro2 .304 + 0.768 in.0/.2/(Rt2-.080 in.635 (y) .02814 y = . 11.005625)).02 .304 .Ri2)(15.608y) .0 in.608y + y2 .y = 3. = 0.5 = 732.56 = 0.001430 = 0.304-y) 2)).(3.6 in 3 (4.20833 ft N = (30/π)(2 x 32.448 in. determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm.075 m.2 x 12 x 15/((3. If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm.5 ((3.2 x . Rt = 3.608y .005625 = 3.304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3.304-y) 2). Rb = 3.5/1000π = 1. Volume of casting V = 75.005625) = (52.5 = 1.8333/(. both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.080 = 3.02814 (3.304-y) 2)). Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0.608y + y2 .02814 3.08399 m = 83. where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb. Solution: L = 200 mm = 0.15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15.915 in 2 Ri = 3.Ri2) = 239.

11. Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. However. (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature. (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low. 60 . However. it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns.17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly. thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes. (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1).a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries.reason for the defects. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder. One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity.

In the press-and-blow process. grinding.5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking. and (3) heat treatment. polishing. Answer. (2) shaping. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking. yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. 12. (1) raw materials preparation and melting. What is the difference? Answer. Glass is vitreous .9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn. Answer. if needed. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers. In the Danner process.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass.it is in the glassy state. etching) are performed on some glass products.8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. 12. The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. 12. Answer. Name three of the four types. Name and briefly describe one of them.. Answer. (2) day tanks.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel. Name and briefly describe one of them. by and large.SiO2. During hardening. and (4) electric furnaces. A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. the initial forming step is pressing of the part.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer. 12. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. and (2) centrifugal spraying. polycrystalline materials. 12. and (2) the float process.g. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface. The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types. Silica .12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer.2 12. (3) continuous tank furnaces. 12. Finishing operations (e. 12. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer. whereas traditional and new ceramics are. 61 . in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness.

(c) 12. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. Laminated glass. (c) polycrystalline. (b) makes the glass easier to melt. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. (See Section 14. For each question. Answer. It is a slow process for these large products.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles. (d) 12. 12. not tensile loads. (a) True. or (e) vitreous. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (e) 12. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment. (b) devitrified. or (b) false. 12. (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. (b) 12. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification.12. 12. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (2) ceramics are brittle. or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer.4. (4) screw threads should be course. in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. 12. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer. Answer. which strengthens it. Answer.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. as the interior cools and contracts. Answer. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken. so avoid impact loading. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes. Answer. (c) makes the glass stronger. Answer. or (d) the starting materials in melting. 62 . (c) the name given to the melting furnace. (d) vitiated. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).

(b) pressing. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7.25 times 10 minutes or 22. or (c) 30 minutes. Answer. (c) a sintering furnace. (d) an annealing furnace. and (e) spinning. (a) True. (b) It's the reverse. (d) 63 . (c) quenching. or (e) none of the above. 20 minutes is closest. (b) a melting furnace. (d) sintering. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. Answer. (c) rolling. (b) 15 minutes.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles. or (d) spinning.9 12.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing. (b) pressing.5 minutes.8 12. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. 12. That would indicate an annealing time of 0.30/0. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders. Answer.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars. 12.12.5 mm (0. (c) 20 minutes.202 = 2.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes. or (b) false. Answer. Answer. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0.

(2) in general.6 Define die swell in extrusion. In plastic extrusion. Answer. Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice.13 13. (2) compression section. as classified by the resulting product geometry. (4) great flexibility in geometry. The categories are: (1) extrusion.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . identify the sections. 13. (5) foamed products. Other properties include: viscoelasticity. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt.8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. (4) fibers. 13. Answer. Answer.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature. in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer.the tendency to return to its previous shape. and (2) shear rate. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated. and (3) metering section.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes. Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice. less energy employed than in metalworking processes. 13. (3) forming of continuous sheets and films.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian. 13.5 Besides viscosity. (1) feed section. Answer. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate. (2) molding. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory . (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity. 13. 13. Answer. 13. Answer. 13. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice. as exhibited by die swell in extrusion. Of course.

which are the most important? Answer. 13.5 mm). 13.5 mm) thick. (4) sheet and film. 65 . 13. what is the most important application? Answer. and rayon. (1) solid profiles. Answer. In addition.020 in (0. The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic.Answer. such as rounds and L-shapes. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps.20 Gates in injection molds have several functions.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity. (2) the thinner cross.17 Briefly describe the injection molding process. 13.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. See beginning of Section 15. See Figure 13. (2) build pressure. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate. while film stock is less than 0. 13. The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt. (3) wire and cable coating. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer. Answer.10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer.13 Describe the calendering process. Polyester is the most important commercially. Textiles. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage.6. 13. In the process. 13. name them. a filament is a fiber of continuous length. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components. such as tubes.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. Answer. 13. Thickness.15 Technically. 13. there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC.020 in (0. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. 13. 13.17. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory. A fiber is a long. acrylics. Answer. (2) hollow profiles. identify them. and (5) filaments (continuous fibers). Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. followed by nylon.

Blow molding is used to produce hollow.22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding. 13. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . 13. 13. flashing.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer.21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel. such as bottles. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. 13. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material. 13. 13. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8. called chemical blowing agents. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer .27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer. so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced.3. and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. As the mold opens.1). while in other thermoforming processes.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer.23 Describe structural foam molding. only one mold form is required. sink marks. 13. In mechanical thermoforming.mixing a liquid resin with air by. this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core. then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction. the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system. Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film. Answer. Answer. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length. in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins. A positive mold has a convex shape.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. seamless containers. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. 66 .plate mold in injection molding? Answer. 13.28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer. and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur. matching mold halves are required. a negative mold has a concave cavity. The defects include: short shots.13.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer.25 What is reaction injection molding? Answer.

(b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals. (b) die section. (b) polymer type. For each question. (c) both of the above. (e) metering section. plastics are soluble in many common solvents. or (e) slit-die extrusion. Answer. 13. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (f) shaping section. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. (a). (d) mold. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes. Also. Answer. (c) 13. The other parameters.31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. (d) heating section. (c) rate of flow. 13. Finally. (a). Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) and (c) 67 . (d) doctor blade method.13. and (d). all correct answers must be given. Answer. Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. (b) hopper.6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. (c). (c) feed section. (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation. Answer. (b) calendering. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. (c). which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (e) 13. better than many ceramics. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them.5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. 13. or (d) none of the above. (b) and (d). (c) chill-roll extrusion. 13. and (e) part ejection unit. (c) injection unit. Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (b). (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good. (d) temperature. so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. Answer.

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The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

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13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π(5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π(4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/πD If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π) = 17.66° ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π(800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/πD) = tan-1(4.8/4π) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = πp(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π(350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π(22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π(.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π(3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π(.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π(4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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0343) = 2. The ball will be 1.25 = 13. What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0.125 in.5 . Solution: (a) rsd = 20.5)/112 = 0. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0.281 tm = (1. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene.2 mm.24.5 mm.16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16.73 lb/in2 .24) 3(.35) 3(2)(20)/.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in. 462 mm 13.18)(0. rsd = 27/20 = 1. Solution: (a) Dd = (11. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20.125)(1.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value.0 mm.505 mm (b) tp = (1. If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0.Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13.0 mm tm = (1. 13. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm.5x12) 3 .18 in 3 Weight = (63.5 mm.281) 2 (1. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1. The observed die swell is 1.5 mm. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.25) 3(2.5 + 7.95.5) = 2.125 in.0 = 0.5)/2 = 2. If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.95(62.1.17 lb. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1.25) in text.4/1728) = 0.7.18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11. respectively. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison. and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3. and wall thickness td = (1. and td = (11.5/160 = 1.16667π[(1.00)/2 = 1.0429 in.5)/2 = 9.Di3)/6 = 0. (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter.(1.5x12 . (a) Why is thinning 73 .0)/100.25 in and inside diameter = 1.19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm. Using a micrometer. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).0429)/6.281) 2(1. 13.125)/6.5 mm and inside diameter = 7. The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold.00 in.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π(Do3 . and td = (22 .25. 13.0)/2 = 0.18)/2 = 2 mm. The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle).17 A blow molding operation produces a 6. Some wall thickness are less.25 = 0. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1.5)(16.25 .25 .013 in. 13.40 = 246 mm.21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup.0)(9. (15.2/16) 3] = 63.331 mm (= 0. Solution: Density ρ = 0.5 mm after exiting the die orifice.shaped part.35 Rearranging Eq.1. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.40 mm. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1.

occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet.38 in the text. (b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold. Hence. However. or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13. 74 . thinning in these sides results. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching.

antioxidants. (b) belted bias. 14. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate. and blowing agents to make foam rubber. 14. (4) shaping. and (3) molding and curing. (2) calendering. this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained. 14. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. (3) coating.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction.3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer. plasticizers to soften the rubber.14 14. belted bias and radial ply tires use belts. (3) mixing. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction. Answer. skimming. and (4) molding.6 14.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . The three steps are: (1) preform the components. Answer. and (c) radial ply. 14. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. 14. see Article 14. extenders to reduce cost. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. coloring pigments. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts. Calendering. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days. 14. and spraying.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber. and (5) vulcanization.5 14. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads.4.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. 14. dipping. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer. (a) diagonal ply.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber. reinforcing fillers. The categories are: (1) extrusion.1. (2) compounding.

the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences. Answer. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants. or (d) transfer molding. (c) stearic acid. Answer.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate. Answer. (c) pneumatic tires. (b) injection molding. all correct answers must be given. (b) conveyor belts. (a) and (b) 14. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. 76 . (b) 14. (c) polyisoprene. For each question. or (d) 45. However. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. (a) 14. Answer.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear. (c) 14. (d) plasticizers and softening oils. 14. (b) carbon black. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer.Answer. (b) 15.11 What is a TPE? Answer.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming. or (d) tennis balls. and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts. or (e) reclaimed rubber. or (d) polystyrene. or (d) during curing. (b) carbon black. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (c) 14. What are some examples of these differences? Answer. (b) while building the carcass. (c) thermoforming. 14. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding. (b) polyisobutylene. (d) sulfur. and (e) zinc oxide. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates.3 Of the following rubber additives. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part. (c) during molding. (c) 25. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 14. (b) 14.

(b) compression molding. Answer. (c) 14.Answer.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. (b) and (e) 14. or (e) vulcanization. (d) injection molding. Answer. (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber. (c) extrusion. 77 .9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false.

layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold.9 What is an autoclave? Answer.1 15. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers. In the context of fiber reinforcement.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer. Answer. fillers. In the prepreg approach. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. Because in hand lay-up. 15. 15. 15. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer. A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder. SMC consists of TS polymer resin. (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process. and BMCs.3 15. 15.15 15.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer. 15. PMC molding compounds include SMCs. Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios. In wet lay-up.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer. whereas in spray-up.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer. orientation of the fibers is controlled. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies.2 15. TMCs. what is a mat? Answer. An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer. the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry. and chopped glass fibers. A roving consists of untwisted filaments. 78 .250 inch. 15.6 15.

since each correct answer is worth 1 point. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed. 15. (b) thermoplastics. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding.15.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer. scissors. laser beam cutting. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers. steel-rule blanking dies. 15. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers. Answer. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses. For each question. (c) 79 . and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. all correct answers must be given. power shears.impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product. 15. RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 15.19 How are FRPs cut? Answer. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives. 15. 15.12 What is preform molding? Answer. CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin. or (c) thermosets.16 Describe the pultrusion process. Answer. Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length). 15. 15.14 What is filament winding? Answer. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures. and water jet cutting.15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer. and water jet cutting. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. diamond cutting tools.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM). Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools. The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. Filament winding is a process in which resin.17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer.

15.2

Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .5πL2 + πL2 = 1.5πL2, and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.25πL3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = πD3/6 = 0.25πL3 D3 = 6(0.25πL3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5πL2)(1.1447 L)/0.25πL3 = 6.868

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0625πL3 = 7. constitute 25% of total 2 lb. 50% are 0.284)/0.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0..51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.6 = 11. Thus.25π(10L)2 L = 25πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.5 that the average particle diameter = 0.001 in.004) 3/6 = 0.00001256 in2 = 12.001) 3/6 = 0.284(33.6 Solve Problem 16. (b) If the packing factor = 0. V = πD3/6 = 0. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0.001 in.5L)L = 0.004 in.5π(0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = .6.00005027 in2 = 50.00000003351 = 33.0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.001 in.625πL2)(0.5 lb = 0.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2.375 L3)0.516 x 10-9) = 0.375L3 D = (0.284)/0.5L = D. Assume the same packing factor. and 25% are 0.0/(1. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.0/0.5π(10L)2 + π(10L)L = 50πL2 + 10πL2 = 60πL2. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile. Thus..003 in.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1.6 = 11.004 in.25π(0.5πL2 = 0.7 Suppose in Problem 16.125πL2 + 0.27 x 10-6) = 10.0/(9. A = 2πD2/4 + πDL = 0. Note: the density of iron = 0. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.56 x 10-6) = 21.0625πL3)/ π = 0.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0. 10L = D. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.5.284(0. the sizes vary. Given this distribution.74 in3 16.19 x 10-9) = 1..5 lb Number of particles in 0.0625πL3 D3 = 6(0.002 in.284(4.0/0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.002) 3/6 = 0.002 in.116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.002 in.004) 2 = 0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0. For this shape.362 x 109 85 .284 lb/in3.313 L)/25πL3 = 12.721 L)/0.6.00000000418 = 4.5L)2 L = 0. except that the diameter of the particles is 0.333 = 0. however.681 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. and V = (πD2/4)L = 0.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0.333 = 5.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60πL2)(5. determine the volume taken by the pile.2102 x 109)(50.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0.75 16.625πL2.1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. V = πD3/6 = π(0.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0. V = πD3/6 = 25πL3 D3 = 6(25πL3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0. = 0.002) 2 = 0.5/(0.27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.1487 x 10-9) = 3. 0.681 x 109)(12.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb.6.74 in3 16.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.2102 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0. V = πD3/6 = π(0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.10. For this cylinder shape.0625πL3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.5L)2 + π(0.002 in.

004 in. V = π(0.1 mm = 0.003 in.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.563 x 103 + 3. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.91 x 1012)( 0.563 x 103 + 10.0/0.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization. = (0.1 x 10-3 m is V = πD3/6 = π(0.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.284(4.015 x 10-9) = 0.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0.632 x 10 3 in2.6 = 59.51 x 10-9 = 51. V = π(0. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0.124 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.8406 x 109)(12.900% 16.362 x 109)(3.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.5 lb = 0. 16.003) 2 = 28.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.9958 x 104 = 59. is A = πD2 = π(0.5236 x 10-12 = 1.592. constitute 25% of total 2 lb. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0.274 x 10-6) = 3.004) 3/6 = 33.004 in.958 .142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0. = 1. is V = πD3/6 = π(0.567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.002) 2 = 12.000 .002) 3/6 = 4.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2.5 lb Number of particles in 0..566 x 10-6) = 10.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders.91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1.567 x 109)( 50.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0. = (3.1 x 10-3 m is A = πD2 = π(0.5/(4.124 x 109)(28.592 x 103 = 2.004) 2 = 50.958 m2 Added surface area = 59.002 in. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.284(14.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10.015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.864)/864 = 299.9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.506 x 103 = 24.0/(1.001) 2 = 3. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.002 in.952 m2 16.0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.002 in.003 in.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.142 x 10-6) = 10.003 in.001 in.8406 x 109 A = πD2 = π(0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1. = 0.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρV = 0.8(b). The 86 .5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.A = πD2 = π(0.592.003) 3/6 = 14.. = (0.19 x 10-9) = 0.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization. see Figure 2.

5.5372 + 4.25π(3. determine its final porosity. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%. the inside diameter = 22 mm.667 x .unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face. Let true specific volume = 1.0.25π(442 .0.8752)(0.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part. Accordingly.833 By Eq. using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa.0.4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm.414D.125) = 4 spheres.1925) = 6.4(207) = 236. The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume. Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16.82 .8284 = 0. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0.25 .90 of value after pressing. porosity = 1 .0944/2.90) = 1.25π(2.2 = 0.7). (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell.Di2) = 0.25π(2. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0.556(75. Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction.062 kN 16. The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor.52)(1.0.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0. The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1. (c) V = 0.167 16. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1. (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis. What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders.0 x .1.25π(Do2 .5) + 8(.5.0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere.Di2) = 0.833 = 0. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation.8284 D3. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected. shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis.000 lb/in2. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face).25π(2.715 lb = 208 tons.5) = 0.5) + 0. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D.071 in3 87 . Dimensions are inches.82 .222) = 1140. bulk specific volume = 2.0/1.0. The packing factor = 2. (18.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75.000) = 416.0/(2. In the subsequent sintering operation.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0. The outside diameter = 44 mm. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners. the face is a square with each edge = D√2 = 1. Volume of 4 spheres = 4πD3/6 = 2.11 In a certain pressing operation.414D)3 = 2.8752) = 5.82 .13 The part shown in Figure P16.25π(Do2 .7405 = 74. Thus.

284 lb/in3. (c) Class IV. part weight W = 6. Dimensions are mm. 88 . Solution: (a) Class II.90) = 1.1. one level of press control.14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions. 16. 2 directions of pressing.55 lb. 2 directions of pressing. density of iron ρ = 0. 4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design. At 10% porosity. one direction part is relatively thin. 3 levels of press control required. and how many levels of press control will be required.284)(0.071(0. one level of press control.From Table 4. (b) Class I. (d) Class IV. indicate which PM class the parts belong to. 2 directions because of axial thickness.14.

Answer. For semi. (2) jiggering. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold. the water content is usually less than 5%. (3) drying.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 . 17. and (4) extrusion. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. 17. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. Answer. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer.7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer.17 17. and carbides. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity. 17. molding. (2) shaping.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing.dry pressing.4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall. Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence. 17.1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. It is suited to the manufacture of flatware. 17. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. Answer. and (4) firing. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel. 17. and throwing. For dry pressing. nitrides. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity. Kiln. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay). in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape. 17. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape. 17. (3) plastic pressing. The difference is in the starting clay.2 17. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides.

In freeze drying. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. Answer. 17. or (d) silicon dioxide. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. 17. (a) 17. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics. (2) ceramics are brittle. is referred to as a glaze. not tensile loads. so avoid impact loading. (6) no screw threads. (b) hydrogen oxide. 17. For each question. (c) hydrous aluminum silicate. Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. Answer. (3) part geometries should be simple. 17.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 17. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. How is this possible? Answer. all correct answers must be given. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) jaw crusher. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber.Answer. (5) take into account shrinkage. 17. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece.16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer.11 Why is the drying step. usually consisting of ceramic oxides. Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming.12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. or (d) roll crusher.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer. 90 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.14 Describe the doctor-blade process. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. The coating. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 17. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. (b) hammer mill. In the doctor-blade process.

Answer. (c) hot pressing. (c) 17. (b) cermet. (b) 17.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. Answer. (b) jangling.Answer. (c) 17. or (e) isostatic pressing. (a) 17.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating. (b) freeze drying. Answer. (b) and (c) 17.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes. (c) 17.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process. (c) sharp edges. or (b) false. (b) rounded inside corners. (d) jolleying. Answer. or (b) false. and (e) 91 . Answer.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic. (d) thin sections. (d) remove material.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%. (b) 17. or (d) 40%. (c) increase dimensional accuracy. Answer. (c) composite. Answer. (a). (c) 20%. or (d) metal.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material.4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. Answer. or (e) spinning. or (e) work harden the surface. (c). (d). (b) 10%. (b) improve surface finish. (c) jiggering. (d) injection molding. or (e) threads. strength increases with grain size: (a) true. (a) and (e) 17.

Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts. 18. In bulk deformation. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools. Answer. (18. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow.8 What is isothermal forming? Answer.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. (2) increases forces and power required. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart. 18. 18. 18. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart. Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice. the shape changes are significant. and (5) no heating of work required. In sheet metal processes. Answer. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. The flow curve is defined in Eq.18 18. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. Describe it.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer. Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it. Because these operations are generally performed on presses.1) as Yf = Kεn.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. 18. and (3) wearing of the tools. Answer. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer. Answer. (2) better surface finish. 92 .6 18. 18.3 18.5 18.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process. How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer. Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. 18. the area-to-volume ratio is high.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. causing residual stresses and product defects.

(b). or (d) 1/(1+n). (c) extrusion. Answer. (b) (1+n). (b) 0. (c).73. (e) lower deformation forces required. Answer. 18. and (e) rolling. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) less overall energy required. (c) 0.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. (d) forging.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely. or (c) no effect. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation. Answer.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region. and (f) more significant shape changes are possible. (c) isotropic mechanical properties.7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress. or (c) increases flow stress. (b) increased strength properties. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d).1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0. or (d) 0. (d) 18. 93 . and (f).1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending.4Tm.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (d) 18.8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. and (e). (c). Answer. the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. (a). or (b) low volume-to-area ratio. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.20 for a certain metal. During a forming operation. (b) has no effect. (e). (c) 1/n. 18. or (b) plastic region. where n is the strain hardening exponent. For each question. Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. (b) 18.6Tm. Answer. (c) 18.2Tm. all correct answers must be given. (b) deep drawing. Answer. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 18. (b) lower.4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n. (b) 18.

57 = 0.2 = 469.4 MPa.3 in.0 in is stretched to a length = 3. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2. Solution: ε = ln (1.501) 0.75n 0.333 94 .27.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40.69315) 0.501) 0. Average flow stress Y = 850(0.26.0) = ln 0.73) 0. A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.2/1.27 ε must be equal to 1.2 MPa f 18.19.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε(n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) ε f 18. Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation.501 Flow stress Yf = 35. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq. Eq.5 MPa.6 For a certain metal.0) .Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. f 18.27/1.19 = 37. Average flow stress Y = 600(0. Average flow stress Y = 35. f 18.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35.5 in. (18. (18.000(0.000(0. Solution: ε = ln (3.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0.2) in the text.19 = 31. Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40.75(1+n) = 0.0.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation.0) = ln 1. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm.000(0.27 = 700/1.25 = 0.451) 0. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε .5 in and length = 3.26/1.26 = 23.65 = 0.5/3.75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0.30.30/1.27 = 551. Average flow stress Y = 40.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.73) 0.30 = 669.000(0.352 lb/in2. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1. Y = 700(1. f 18. f 18.9 MPa.26 = 29.206 lb/in2.2 = 563.30 = 514.3/2.0 in is compressed to a length of 1. K = 700 MPa and n = 0.5 = -0.309 lb/in2.75 1 = 0.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0.4 MPa.69315) 0.451) 0. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K. Solution: Y = 0.19/1.75 + 0.75n n = 0.240 lb/in2.

1/0.625 s-1 At L = 170 mm.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0.0 = 0.0 in/sec. Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2.4(20.5 in.8) = -0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8.4 28. 95 .0 in.55786 ε = 0.9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm..922 s -1 18.5 in.0 in.. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0.1 m/s. strain rate = 1/7.. the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1.4) 1.20 = 0.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0.526 s-1 At L = 200 mm. determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part.17 = 0.1/0.7726 Af = Ao/1. strain rate = 1/7. (c) 100/sec.000 ε .000 ε . strain rate = 0.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm.1/0.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm.000/35. During the deformation..000 = 35. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20.000 lb/in 2.1/0. If the average flow stress on the part is 20.1/0.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. strain rate = 0.000 = 0.0 = 0.4 ln ε = ln (0. strain rate = 0. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm.1667 sec-1 At L = 6. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0. strain rate = 0.0/sec. strain rate = 1/6.4 0.0 = 0.22314 ln ε = -0.667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3.4 = -0.5 = 0. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm.15 = 0.5724 Ao/Af = 1.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm.564Ao Strain Rate 18.1429 sec-1 At L = 7.0 in.1250 sec-1 18. strain rate = 0. strain rate = 1/6. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6.18 = 0.7726 = 0.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching.0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds.1538 sec-1 At L = 7..500 s-1 18.01/sec (b) 1.1/0.10 A specimen with 6. (b) h = 75 mm. strain rate = 1/8.5 = 0.8 = ε .588 s-1 At L = 180 mm.8 K = 35.4/(1.1333 sec-1 At L = 8.19 = 0.15. The strength constant C = 30. strain rate = 0.16 = 0. and (c) h = 51 mm. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm.0 in.000) = 35.18.22314/0.

207 = 300/3.207 = 160.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C. (a) Determine C and m.1973 0. and at a strain rate = 250/s. (a) Determine C and m.7038 – 5.13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq.000/23.207 (1) C = 160/(12) .0366 m = 0.1.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.6286 m = 0.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45.000(0. At a strain rate = 12/s. (b) If the temperature were 900°F.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1.0) . 96 .4 C = 14.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 . (18.14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F. At a strain rate = 10/sec.000 lb/in 2.m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 . The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C.4849 m = 5. the stress = 300 MPa.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1. (b) If the temperature were 600°C. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 .1973 = 45000/3.m ln 12 = ln 300 .000 lb/in 2.0819 = 14.6726 = 95. and at a strain rate = 300/sec.1361 = 95.601. the stress = 45.67117 = 3.000 = C(300) m 45.000 = 1.5752 = 14.658 (2) C = 300/(250) .4849)m = 5.15 = 59.5215 m (5.601.4012 m m = 0.4 (2) C = 45000/3000. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase.4) for a certain metal. C = 95. 18. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23.000(1.9656 = m ln 30 0.660 Averaging these values.858 lb/in2 18.m ln 250 5. the stress is measured at 160 MPa.000(100) .15 = 30.0752 – 2. the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease.036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30. the stress is measured at 23.5215 – 2.01) .15 = 15.601.7038 – 5.0752 3.

Answer. The two types of forging machines are hammers. 19. and (3) closed die forging. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling. rails. 19. Answer. (2) reduce draft in each pass. 19. thread rolling.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill. Answer. and roll forging. some are net shape processes.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer. (2) impression die forging. Answer.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer. 19. which impact the workpart. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock. 19. 19.19 19.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer. round bar and rod stock. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used.8 19. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. roll piercing. 19.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling. name the three basic types. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging. By this classification. which apply a gradual pressure to the work. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side. gear rolling. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste.4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels.7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. 19. and presses.10 What is isothermal forging? 97 . identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls.

(c) roll velocity. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. 19. Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) four-high mill. tubes and pipes.3. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. channels). 19.1. Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. (c) forging. (b) hobbing. 19. (e). and (f). (a). 19.11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion. (c). Answer.Answer. the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. shower stalls.14 In a wire drawing operation. (b). Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength.4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal. See Article 19. (a) and (b).1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work. Answer. or (e) three-high configuration. and rods of various cross-section. Answer. or (g) upsetting. aluminum beverage cans. and (d) rolling. For each question. all correct answers must be given. (e) roll piercing. and battery cases. (e) strain. (f) tube sinking. Answer. (b) continuous rolling mill. 19. and (d). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 19. Answer. (d) stock thickness.3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. 19. Answer. (d) roll forging. (d) reversing mill. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer. (b) extrusion. (c) ring rolling. 98 . since each correct answer is worth 1 point. although tensile stresses are applied to the work.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. (a). (a) and (c). They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder. 19. (b) roll diameter.

Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.9 19. and (f). drawn into wire stock.02w o) = 640/30. under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal. Entrance speed = 16 m/min. Answer.5)/18. (c) forging. Answer. and (d) rolling.10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing.63.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. (c) 1. (b). and rotational speed = 18. (c) forging.0 ft long.2 A 2. (b) Problems Rolling 19. (b) extrusion.5 = 0. (e) thread rolling.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. and upset forged to form the nail head. towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation.0. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation.0333) 0. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to . (a). (b) extrusion. 19. µ2 = 10/300 = 0.72.0 in thick slab is 10. and (d). and (c) forward slip. Roll radius = 300 mm. (d).02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1.5 = 0. (d) roll forging. no friction.30 = 10 mm.vr)/vr = (20.915 m/min (c) s = (vf . Answer.6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining. Bar stock is rolled. (b) 0. and (d) rolling. (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. (b). (c). and (f) upsetting.13 19. and no redundant work.8 19. Theoretically. Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity.7 19.0333 µ = (0. It is expected 99 .19.1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation.tf = 40 . Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible. Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation. (c) impact extrusion.6 = 20.0 in wide and 12. (a). 19.02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1.5 rev/min.18. Answer. (b).915 . (b) fullering. or (d) 2.

12945) = 6.0) = 51.03)(10.0)(1. (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0.5.0) = 10.0)(1.78 ft/min. and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0. tf = 50 . Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand.27 mm.71 mm.0. = 26.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass. tf = 28. Solution: (a) After three passes.844 in.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 .752 x 2. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass.12945) = 4.033 x 10.71 = 25.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .875/50 = 0.98 .0)(12 x 12)/(0. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.63 mm. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand.75 x 2.87055 x = 1 . tf = 37.0)(40)/(0.25 mm 19.03)(1.927)Lf Lf = (2.0)(12 x 12) = (0.0)(1.25)/7.5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.5) 1/5 = 0.753 x 2.12945) = 5.6.15) 2 (350) = 7.that for this metal and reduction.53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.03 x 10.4.x) = 0.032 x 10. wf = (1. Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.12945) = 3.0)(10.x) n = 25/50 = 0.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf .15) 2 (350) = 7.78 ft/min.03 x 10. Step 2: vf = (0. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs.875 = 3.91 = 32.844)(10. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand.27 = 28.98(0.927) = 312.25)/4 = 6.0)(10.844)(10.0) = 51.0)(10. Try n = 5: (1 .75)(0.927 in.5 (1 .0)(40)/(0. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction. 100 .75 x 2.98 mm Pass 4: d = 32. Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm.0.89 .0)(1.47 mm. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0.4. 19.4 In the previous problem.75)(0. the slab will widen by 3% in each step.12945.032 x 10.x) n = 25 (1 .3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill. rather than the draft. and n = number of passes.tf)/dmax = (50 .5) 1/4 = 0.75)(2. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.71 .63 = 37. and (b) forward slip s.0) = 0.53 .89(0. Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0.0)(40)/(0.71(0.1575. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass.71 mm Pass 5: d = 28. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37.3. the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 .15. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0.1591.3 in.91 mm.875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to . Step 1: vf = (2. If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min. towoLo = tfwfLf (2. Final thickness is to be 13 mm. tf = 43.1575. and roll speed is the same for the three steps. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min.x) = (.53(0.87055 = 0. tf = (0.0) = 51. The number of passes must be an integer. Step 3: vf = (0.47 = 43.8409 = 0.8409 x = 1 .78 ft/min. tf = 32.752 x 2.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7.12945) = 4.00 mm 19.03)(1.x) = (.0)(1.

0.3/3.4) = 34. The final thickness is to be 0.5(1 + s)vr1 .vr)/vr svr = vf .3 in.4 = 1.74989 = r = 0.3 (1 .10) 1/8 = 0. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1.0 in. width = 15.0 in.01% at each stand. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1.089 (c) v1 = 34. vr1 = πDNr = π(2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31.2) = 51.5v1 Substituting (Eq.x) 8 = 0. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31.x) 8 = 0. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf . Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2. wo = w1 = w2 Therefore. and (c) forward slip.1 m/min.0(1 . if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min. 2) By constant volume.2501 = 25. Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in. (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8. (b) Forward slip s = (vf .10 (1 .5v1 (Eq.2/31. t1 = 25 . Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands.0vo = 0.6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2.50v2 v2 = 1.5(31. t2 = 19 . 3) Combining (Eqs. Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1. Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2.0 = 0.vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1.0 in.3 in. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3.2 m/min.(c) Also.74989 x = 1 .42) = 47. thus vr2 = 1. to tf = 0. Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2.6 = 13 mm.vr)/vr svr = vf .42 m/min. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1.vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 . It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min. and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min. 3. Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2. 2 and 3). previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1. and length = 10 ft. 1) At stand 2.5vr1 vr2 = 1. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width.5(34. in 8 stands. (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34.2 (1 + s) = 34. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1. Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence.75v1 = 0. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq. and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand.3 m/min. 1). determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand.2 m/min (Eq. Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand. 19.x) = (0.6 = 19 mm. to = 25 mm. (1 + s)vr2 = 1.5v1 = 1.089 s = 0. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3.

vr1 = πDNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282. wo = w1 = w2 = . Determine: (a) roll force.10609 x 282.. . Since s is a constant.8 ft/min From equations for forward slip. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = .2501) = 0.10609vr2 Rearranging.0(1 .04) = 426.20 = 5 mm.78/(1-r)2 = 53. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width. Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3.1 rev/min Nr5 = 0.78/(1-r)6 = 168. 3(1 . The roll has a radius = 500 mm. The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0. where vr8 = roll speed.5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282. 19.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0. .223 102 . and its speed = 30 m/min. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation. v8 = exit speed of slab. where vr1 = roll speed.10609 x 282. as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377. . .78/(1-0.10609 x 282. v2 = exit speed of slab.74989 = 426. At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8. where r = 0.10609 x 282. where vr2 = roll speed.2501) = 0.10006 in.At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 .132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .78 = 1.0(10 ft) = 0. : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min.426N r2 = 0.10609 x 282. .8/377. 3vo = 3(1 . vr2 = Nr2/0. . (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8. At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 .78/(1-r)3 = 71.9.7503 in.132 s = 0. v1 = exit speed of slab.10609 x 282. w8 Therefore. toLo = t8L8 3.8 (1 + s) = 426.10609 x 282. .2501 as determined in part (a).132.426(40) = 377.3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0. By constant volume. vr1 : vr2 : . .2501) 7(.78/(1-r) = 0.25 = 0.8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0.78) = 0. : vr8 = v1 : v2 : . (b) roll torque.3) = 2400 ft/min.132 s = 0.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0. = t8v8 to = 3.10609 = 9.0. Contact length L = (500 x 5) . tovo = t1v = t2v2 = .10609 x 282.78/(1-r)4 = 94.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0.10609vr Nr2 = 0.r)2v2 = .78/(1-r)7 = 224. Etc.r)8v8 .78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282. .78/(1-r)5 = 126.0(.2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0. . . .74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0.7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm.r)v1 = 3(1 .5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.14 = 1.2. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282.

2.1823 Y = 25.604 N-m/s = 92.16/1.417 N (b) Torque T = 0.591 N-m/s = 92. Determine: (a) roll force.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.8.050) = 95.35 x 10-3) = 92.9 Solve Problem 19.311.5 = 35.592 rev/s Power P = 2π(1. True strain ε = ln(3.0 .000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0. 19.5) = ln 1.318 rev/s Power P = 2π(0.223 Y = 240(0.5(1.159 rev/s Power P = 2π(0. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.851.311.851.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.Y = 240(0.829 N (b) Torque T = 0.81 x 10-3) = 92.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19.417)(15.554 N-m/s = 92.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.311. but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.16.5(1.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.5 = 2.20 = 148.20 = 5 mm. 19. and its speed = 30 ft/min.20/1.35) = 1.81) = 585. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .250) = 19.851.74)(9. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation.095)(35.223 Y = 240(0.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm.318)(1.829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.25 = 0.095)(35. Contact length L = (50 x 5) ..771 lb 103 .55 rev/min = 0.16 = 16.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.35 x 10-3) = 23. The roll has a radius = 15 in. and note the important effect of roll radius on force.591 W 19.8 Solve Problem 19.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.5 rev/min = 1.500) = 9.414(2.5 = 15. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25. only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.417)(15.5) .7 and 19.74 in.0/2.20 = 0. In fact.50 in.0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2.20 = 5 mm.592)(585.223) 0.25 = 0.81 x 10-3) = 4.1(250)(50) = 1.223) 0.0) = 404.20/1.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3.1(250)(15.35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced.81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.10 A 3.000(0. Contact length L = (250 x 5) .7.1 rev/min = 0. Compare the results with the previous two problems. torque and power.20 = 148.5 in.5(585. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .1823) 0.20 = 148.1(250)(35.223) 0. Contact length L = (15 x 0.20/1. (b) roll torque.159)(1.

000(ε)0/1.548N = 39.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1.617. It is desired to reduce a 1.333 = 1.600.5 = 2.5/1.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.5 = 400.771)(2.82)(404.5 .000 N = 7.12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1.(b) Torque T = 0.0) = 5.285 = 0.000 N (b) Torque T = 0.5 ft/min 19.74) = 554.1054 Y = 600(0.02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0.18 mm = 0.000) = 67.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.000(10) (12d) 0.000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20.74) = 26. (b) True strain ε = ln(1. It can exert a maximum force = 400.167 in.0112) = 37.22/1.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π(12/60)(672.88) = 49.18 = 2.0112)(0. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.536 in-lb.000 = 2.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.333 in.741 in-lb/min HP = (26.000)(2.5(672.000 lb/in2. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.0112) = 3. In the heated condition.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.22.5 = 400. the work material has a strength coefficient = 20.5 Y = 20. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft.82 rev/min.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in.1054) 0.741 in-lb/min)/(396.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero.13 Solve Problem 19.000)(0.617. ε = ln(1. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20. and (c) power required for this operation.0 in.5 = 11. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .111 = 0.5 .000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0.88 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(7. (b) roll torque.0.771)(2.0 = 20.000/200. Power P = 2π(3.026.2) = 0. 104 .026. Determine: (a) roll force.000)(0.2 hp 19.697 W 19. The starting plate is 200 mm wide. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.000 lb. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 .15. P = 2πN(400.600.333) 0.0 12 d = 2. The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp.548N in-lb/min 5. Draft d = 1.5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3.5(401.0 mm.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm. (b) associated true strain.672 MN = 672. The starting plate is 10 in wide.167) = ln 1. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.

486.887 lb/in2.5 Try d = 0.641 = 11.15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0.391(0.457) . ε = ln(1.887 = 0.457 Y = 17.5 = 11.15 = 15.15/1.547/13..5/1.95 in.20. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.55 = 0.4055) . tf = 1.50 . (d) 0.5/0.489 lb/in2.4055 Y = 17. (d) 0.15 = 17.5/0.391(0.58) = 6.547/15.5 = 2.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.391(0.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.000)(2.3 Try d = 0.223 Y = 17. P = 2πN(400.15 = 15.555.11) = 38.14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0.15 = 15.5 in.5 .0.189 = 0. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm.556.391(0.5/0. tf = 1.50 = 0.0. The work material has a flow 105 .3 in.600.5 ε = ln(1.5873 = 0.486. (d) 0.945 in.5 = 34.5 .5 .5 = 400.547/15.5 = 11.462 Y = 17. ε = ln(1.5 = 11.5 = 400.691.000N = 39.189 lb/in2.11 rev/min vr = 2πRN = 2π(12/12)(6..547/15. (b) True strain ε = ln(1.5/tf) Y = 20.945) = ln 1.58 in.15 = 13.391ε . (d) 0.5/1. tf = 1.0.55 in.5 = 1.462 = 0.555 = 0.7602 d = 0..3 = 1. Final height = 20 mm.462 lb/in2.489 = 0.2 in.547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.555) 0.000/34.462) .95) = ln 1.5 = 11.945) = 0.558.641 Y (d) 0. Draft d = 1.745 d = 0. ε = ln(1. which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.223) . tf = 1.2) = ln 1.0 in.0.5 .579 = 0.000 N = 6.8315 d = 0.578.000N in-lb/min 6.25 = 0. ε = ln(1.0) = ln 1. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.555 in.600.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.55 Try d = 0.Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work. Try d = 0. which is very close to the trial value of d = 0.000(ε)0..747 d = 0.

Yf = 600(0.10.693 N (b) Given h = 30.540 mm3 from part (a) above.5 in.15.3) = ln 1.2)(50)/39.5/2.6)(2618) = 1.274) 0.002).002) = 2.495 = 1.693 Yf = 600(0.557 N (c) Given h = 20.087 = 0.5 in.273/2.5 in and h = 2.000(0.693) 0.1 F = 1.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.495 = 4.5) 2(2.661 N 19.61 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.2)(57.6 MPa.000(0.579 lb (b) Given h = 2. and (c) at h = 20 mm.4(.002) = 39.5/1.283 F = 1.2 MPa V = 78.002). A = V/h = 78.273/1.748)(4.002.5) = 614.556 lb/in2 V = 12.04 F = 1.283(574.92 = 1963. ε = ln(2.556)(4. A = V/h = 78.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.287 Yf = 600(0.4(.6 MPa V = 78.5)/4 = 12.9.12 = 284.9 = 1.9) = ln 1. and h = 40 .7)/20 = 1.154 F = 1. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.0834) 0.3 = 1.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0. ε = ln(2.40(0.495 A = V/h = 12.2.4(. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.92 A = V/h = 78.000(0.540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57.560.46) = 225.822 lb (c) Given h = 1.9 = 6. (b) at height h = 2.540 mm3 from part (a) above.12.0834 Yf = 40.4(.540/39.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.6)(1963.3 in.15 = 27.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.9 in. ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2.948)(6.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1.15 = 15.695 lb 106 .274 Yf = 40.748 lb/in2 and h = 2.87 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0. (c) h = 1.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0.12 = 516.333 = 0.060(32.540 mm3 Given ε = 0.04(15.1)(2. and (d) h = 1.5 .5(0.4(.0 = 0.287) 0. Yf = 40.273 in 3 from part (a) above.948 lb/in2 V = 12.34) = 153.002) 0.045(27.3.5)/2. A = V/h = 12.7 mm (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.060 F = 1.045 F = 1.154(516.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(50) 2(40)/4 = 78. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.002) 0.87)/1. At h = 1.273 in 3 from part (a) above.273/2. Solution: (a) V = πD2L/4 = π(2.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.7)/30 = 1.1(284.316 = 0. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.92 = 1. At h = 20.2)(70.892.9.002. At h = 30.1)(2. (b) at h = 30 mm.2)(3927) = 2.15 = 32.1)(2. A = V/h = 12.3 = 5.61)/2.3.92) = 80.12 = 574. At h = 2.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = πD2L/4 = π(2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = πD2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = πD2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = πDf2hf/4 = π(9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = πDo2/4 = π(4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π(9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = πDo2ho/4 = π(25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = πDf2/4 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π)0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = πDo2ho/4 = π(30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π)0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π)0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π)0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π)0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π)0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = πDo2/4 = π(1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π(2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = πDo2 h/4 = 0.25π(35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

true strain.0/1.: pressure p = 42.0/1.5/1. L = 2.3.5D f = 0. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = πR12(Lo .: pressure p = 42.404 + 2 x 2.672 in.5 in.: pressure p = 42.8 and b = 1.0 in.3(2. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2. the die angle α = 90°.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15.950 lb/in2 184.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2.330(3. The die angle = 90°. (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.549 + 2 x 0. we have π(Lo .0 .75 in.549 + 2 x 1.75 in.7726) = 4. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber. The height of the frustum h = (R1 .25) = L = 1.5D o = 1. The volume of the frustum is V = 0.0/1.330(3.5(1.5) 2 = 16.(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.20 = 42.5/1.8326) = 3.25) = 285.328 in L1 = 3. a = 0.0 x 0.677 lb/in2 251.8326) 0.031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3. (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.0) 2(Lo .672(16) = 42.: pressure p = 42.: pressure p = 42.25 = 0. and extrusion strain.140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.L1) = π(1.25 = 1.25) = L = 0.0 in and length = 3.031/π = 0. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15.25) = L = 1.000(4.25) = L = 0. Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1.05/1. excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.L1) = 1. (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0).2.252) = 1.549 + 2 x 2.0.000(2.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.20.7726) 0/1. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26. 112 .330(3. a = 0. With a reduction rx = 16.0 in.02 + 1.330(3. 19. the final part length.000(1.330(3.549 + 2 x 1.333π(0.0 in on a side.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem.50 in.031 in 3 (Lo .75)(1.8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.0 in.328 = 2.0 in and R2 = 0.0) = 106.0) 2/(0.0 in.8 and b = 1.25 in.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.549 + 2 x 0.333πh(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.549 (d) Y = 45.25 + 0.086 lb/in2 150.0 in and Do = 2.0.0 = 15.813 lb/in2 217.8 + 1.L1) = 1.404 Y = 15. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process.672 in. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum.0 in.8 + 1.0 .5 in.R2)/tan 45 = 1.5 in thick.229 lb/in2 19.672/2.

698 lb/in2 19.5642 in.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm.0)(π x 22/4) = 9.478/1200 = 1140.8) 2.426 . The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π)0.0 in.02(4.29.142/1.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19. A = 1200 mm2. (d) Y = 26.5 = 0.0 = 7.0 = 3.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0.8 mm.368.8 + 1.571 = 7.545) 2. If the die angle in this operation = 90°.0/π)0.520.02(224/122. Solution: From Problem 19.98 + 0.368.0) = 4. and (2) extrudate. (b) shape factor.234 113 .2 = 22.261)(2. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.145 ε x = 0.. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0.5)(π x 22/4) = 1. Die angle = 90°.5642) = 3.5. The butt volume V1 = 0.855/1. Original volume V = (3. Cc = 2π(0. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.16.5 = 19.623 ε x = 0.0 in 2.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section. A = 1.520.571 in 3. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1. Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19.8 + 1.4 mm 19.531 .000(1.261 lb/in3 f p = 1.5(1.068= 1.142 in2 Af = 1.54) = 122.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082.25π(88) 2(250) = 1.0 in2.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0.006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0.142 ε = ln 3. and (2) extrudate.623) = 3.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.855 in. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm.152.1/1200= 5.1. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1. Thus.3(1. Cc = 2π(19.8 and b = 1.053 mm3.0 = 1. length L = 1.145) 0. rx = 5. Thus.545 in.25 = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π(88) 2/4 = 6082.0 x 1.5 in.25π(88) 2(25) = 152. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0.174) = 48. length L = 7.053 = 1.068 ε = ln 5.54 mm.0 in 2 rx = 3.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = πDo2/4 = π(2) 2/4 = 3.006(22.855 in 3.478 mm3. The butt volume V1 = (0.29.0/3.426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.2/1. The radius of the circle is R = (1.145) = 2.98 + 0.25 = 1. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.142 = 1. Kx = 0. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2.

1600)(95) = 67.53 114 . The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.6 mm2 F = 912.86 mm2.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.74/94.402) = 706.25 mm.02(282.86/π)0. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm. V1 = 0. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π(50 + 40) = 90π = 282. and h = 95 mm.25 = 1.74 mm.75 mm2 Af = 0.25 = 321.6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1.25π(40) 2 = 1256.45/68.969 mm3 h = 39.3 MPa f Ao = 0.16 = 223. R = 10. A = 706.75.5h = 76.623) 0.8) 2.47 mm Kx = 0. V2 = 0. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.16/1.267 N 19.25π(50) 2(h) = 1963.3(1256. determine the extrusion force.73)(2. Kx = 0.Y = 240(1.8 and b = 1.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm.151.22.πRi2 = π(252 . ID = 40 mm.146.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107.5 + 67.33) = 912.6)( 3. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm.897) = 68. R = 19.06 mm2 Cx = πDo + πDi = π(50 + 45) = 298.25/1.5 = 76. The radius of the circle is R = (706.5(1.816.75/706.98 + 0.25π(502 .25.402)(95) = 0.32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19.5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817.0218 ε x = 0.544 mm.25π(2500 .02(160/122.057(223. (b) shape factor.06/π = 118.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76.2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.45 mm R2 = 373.25π(50) 2 = 1963.02(298.151.5 = 15 mm.1) = 12. and thickness of base = 5 mm.98 + 0.52) = 373.5.25π(50) 2(5) = 9817.25) 2.25 = 1. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = πR2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381. Cc = 2πR = 2π(10.86 = 2. Cc = 2π(15) = 94.897 mm. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.217(321.778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section. height = 100 mm.25π(502 .544) = 122.97.32. ID = 40 mm.969 mm3 V = 0.2 (6082.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring. (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0.778 = 1.016 (b) Ax = πRo2 .6) = 1.8 + 1.430 N 19.33 Y = 400(1.0218) = 2. Cc = 2πR = 2π(19.25 = 1.47) 2.0218) 0. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.8 mm Kx = 0.98 + 0.86 mm2 rx = 1963.

(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .08) 2.0695 .98 + 0.22)(0.2(1 + 0. R2 = 550/π = 175.966) = 1.12(D/Lc) D = 0.0 + 2.2 MPa f φ = 0.07/tan 15)(1.35 in.0695/4.35) = 0.33 Wire of starting diameter = 3. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.9094) = ln 1.30 = 284.5(3.5) = 2.5(3.9094)/9.6) = 783.25π(0.07.02(680/145.247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.88 + 0.0962) = ln 2.4.17.22.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7.177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 .0 mm is drawn to 2.0962 in2 r = (0.02(230/83.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 284.22/1.09 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(23.44 = 0.14) 2.5)/sin 15 = 0. and (c) draw force required for the operation.365) 0.14 mm Kx = 0.966 φ = 0.5) 2 = 4.365 Y = 500(0.0962)/0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.0. R2 = 1675/π = 533.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees. K = 500 MPa and n = 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.2.23 mm Cc = 2πR = 2π(13. For the work metal. R = 13. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .50 in and final diameter = 0.6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4.5(.35) 2 = 0.07.0695 = 0.0416 = 0.25 = 1.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.23) = 83.1964 . Starting diameter = 0.7137 Y = 45.0) 2 = 9.1964 in2 Af = 0. (b) draw stress.88 + 0.000(0.9094(159.1964/0.0695 mm2 Af = 0.50) 2 = 0.9094 mm2 r = (9.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.25 = 1. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .30/1. R = 23.425 115 . (b) draw force for the operation. Determine: (a) area reduction.365) = 159.1.75/0.75 Lc = 0.0 .5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = πR2 = 1675.25π(3.626 Drawing 19. Determine: (a) area reduction.7137) 0.25π(0.5 N 19.12(2.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = πR2 = 550.22 = 34.98 + 0.50 + 0.25π(2.1964 = 0.09) = 145. The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.88 + 0.08 mm Kx = 0.30.

3) = 1.000 = 12.88 + 0.7 .288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.5 mm Lc = 0.9)/ 6361.25π(0.000(0.1118)/sin 12 = 0.288)(0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.9 (61.7 = 0. Solution: First draw: Do = 0.1118 in D = 0.20 area reduction. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.7 mm2 Df = Do .15/1.2231) 0. (c) draw force required for the operation.250 = 0.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.84 hp 19.d = 90 .12(D/Lc) Df = 0.15 = 27.6 N-m/s = 4524.1184 Lc = 0.009819) = ln 1.7 /4417.5(0. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.Lc = 0.1118) = 0.03173) = 1.15.0.5 = 0.25π(90) 2 = 6361.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0.3 mm φ = 0. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.125 + 0.9 mm2 r = (6361.25π(75) 2 = 4417.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f 116 .3607) = 1.5(90 .10.475 N-m/min = 4524.88 + 0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.08/tan 18)(1.021)(0.4417. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0.50 .88 + 0.012273/0.8) .2) = 0.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°.125 in.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417.5(.125) 2 = 0.2231 r = (Ao .7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423.012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0.5(90 + 75) = 82.12(0.88 + 0.Af)/Ao .12(0.75)/sin 18 = 24. (b) draw stress.475(1 m/min) = 271..15 = 75 mm.08.1/tan 12)(1.6 W 19.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423.03173 φ = 0.0.1184/0.0.125 .88 + 0.012773(1 .600/33.9) = ln 1.12(82.125(1 . and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40.125(.45) = 271. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.247)(1 + 0. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1.3607 φ = 0.5(0.5/24.475 N (d) P = 271. Af = Ao(1 .425/0.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.0 m/min.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm. Determine: (a) area reduction. Ao = 0.r) = 0.0962(34. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .50 hp at 90% efficiency.5 = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.3646) = 61. Af = 0.r)0.440 = 0. Y = 40.

33)(0.25π(0.r) = 0.009819(1 .09819(27.1118 in.007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1. Ao = 0.0. The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed.4462) = 214 lb.775)(1 + 0.2231 = 0.009819 in2 r = (Ao .1118(1 .24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0.0.0269 φ = 0.88 + 0.1118) 2 = 0.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.000(0.1118 + 0. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.100)/sin 12 = 0.15/1.818)(1 + 0.1/tan 12)(1.2) = 0.2231) = 119 lb 1.1/tan 12)(1.0269) = 1.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.5 x 0.5 = 0.009819/0.1118(.100 in D = 0.F = 0.5/214 = 3.1059/0.5 v = 742.007855) = ln 1.100) = 0.90(33.5 v = 742.15 = 30.Af)/Ao . or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.250 = 0.5/119 = 6.1059 Lc = 0.r)0. 117 .35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α)φ(ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.4462 Y = 40.8) ..5 = 0.4462) 0.5(0.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.35)(0.5(0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742. 1.47 ft/sec Note: The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence.1118 . P = Fv = 214v = 742.2231 + 0.88 + 0. Af = Ao(1 .12(0.007855(30.

20. In reverse drawing.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer. The three operations are: (1) cutting. 20. 20. For a blanking operation. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance. DR = D/Dp. drawing ratio greater than 2.. one in one direction.14. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence. the second in the opposite direction. where t = stock thickness.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing.9 What is stretch forming? Answer. In edge bending.20 20. die size = blank size. two draws are accomplished on the part.g.9. See Figure 20. 20. In redrawing. the shape change is significant enough (e. (2) bending. (2) tearing. A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer. and (3) drawing. Answer. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio. 20. Answer. See Article 20. In V-bending. (2) reduction.8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. and Dp = punch diameter. and (4) surface scratches.4.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps.10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle. In blanking of a round sheet metal part. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part. t/D. r = (D . Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters. Answer. Answer. 118 .1 20. Review Questions 20. D = blank diameter. 20. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend. See Figure 20. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending. 20.Dp)/D. divided by the angle of the tooling.3. (3) earing. Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change. probably with annealing between the steps.

Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. 20. For each question. See Article 20. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) be increased. (a) 20. (a) and (c).13 What is the Guerin process? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (2) straight-sided frame.3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength. also called C-frame.5. (b) modulus of elasticity. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process. or (b) punch. See Article 20.1. (c) 20. Answer. 119 . 20. 20.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming.2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening. (b) shear. Answer. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. 20. 20.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases. the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased. or (c) be unaffected. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer. (c) shear strength. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.10. (d) tensile strength. or (e) yield strength. all correct answers must be given. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame. (b) 20.Answer.6. and (c) tensile.1. The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch).4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive. 20. See Section 20.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer. Answer. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer.

(b) Which of the following processes are classified as high. (g) trimming. (d) wiping die for edge bending. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. Answer.75) = 0. (h) tube bending.11 Answer. Die diameter = Db = 75. (e) progressive die. Answer. 20. (d) r = 65%.0 mm. (b) electromagnetic forming.8 20. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining. c = 0. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force.2 Thus. and (i) tube forming.6 20. Punch diameter = Db .15) = 74. Answer.20.75 mm thick. (a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die. (b) DR = 2.060(4.1. (c). (c) electron beam cutting. (b).0 mm. (b) and (d). 120 . or (f) V-die. and (e).70 mm.1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4. (b) open back inclinable. a = 0.075(2.2(0. or (c) greater than. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation.7 20. Answer.075. and (e) straight-sided. (b) combination die. (f) hydroforming. and (i).060. (c).285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2.0) = 0.0 . and (h) shear spinning. and (e) t/D = 2%. (c) hemming.1. (c) compound die. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending. Solution: From Table 20.energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining. (d) explosive forming. c = at = 0. (c) r = 0.2c = 75. Thus. (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed. Answer. (b) flanging. The part is circular with diameter = 75.9 20.35. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20.7. (d) ironing. (a).7. a = 0. Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. (e) notching. (b) equal to.15 mm. (c) press brake. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent.10 20. (d) solid gap. Problems Cutting Operations 20. Answer. (f) shear spinning. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations. (g) redrawing.5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch. 20. (e) Guerin process.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard).

Solution: From Table 20.000 inch inset dimension remains the same.4.0117) = 0.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20.500 .3. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation.0) = 125.2(0.0117 in. 1.9766 in.938 lb = 62.9766 in.2. c = 0. from Problem 20. c = 0. L = 3.2) = 0.65) = 164. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa.0 + 1.97 tons 20. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 . What are the possible reasons for the burrs.8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.5 + 2. 2. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa.4.65 mm F = 350(2.4766 in.045(3.2(0.5 mm F = 0.2 mm from Problem 20.500 inch length dimension = 3. L = πD = 75π = 235.0 + 1.874 N 20. Solution: F = 0.4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.144) = 30.045.2(0.075.2c = 65 .5) = 193.7(290)(3.075(5/32) = 0.144) = 64.000 inch width dimension = 2.0 + 1.000 .0 mm from Problem 20.0 = 13. Thus. 20.00 inch extension widths = 1.0 in.0117) = 3. a = 0.2)(298.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.0)(235. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm.4.0 .955 N 20. Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation.1. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20.2 mm thick. Blanking punch: 3.4.2. Solution: F = StL t = 2.0117) = 1.1. Thus.29 mm 20. top and bottom 1.7(TS)tL t =3.0 + 2. Solution: From Table 20. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard).6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20.5 + 1.20. a = 0.000 lb/in 2.2(0.0 + 1. F = 62.3.000(5/32)(13.

5(4. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending. Solution: For V-bending.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm. Determine the blank size required.333 BA = 2π(135/360)(6.75 mm A = 180 . Kba = 0. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch.5)/(4. Therefore.5 = 105. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length.0 inches by 1. 122 . BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9.4173 in.0.Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness.3756 in.9 except that the bend radius R = 6.5 = 115.5 BA = 2π(135/360)(9.0 .337. A’ = 45°.000 in.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20.4173 = 4. For convenience.9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4.35)/(4.8122) + 0.9. the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1. Bending 20. The part drawing is given in Figure P20. its length will be greater after the bend than before.0417 in.3756) = 1. die maker must rebuild the punch and die. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1. R = 4.000 in.75) = 2. Its length before bending = 4. Therefore.A’ = 135°.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend.75) = 27. The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π(90/360)(0.33 x 0.48 mm 20.A’ = 135°. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. 20. therefore.15625) = 0.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.10 Solve Problem 20.35 mm A = 180 . If they are.2.0.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4.1875 + 0. L = 50 + 18.5 x 4.333 x 4.35 + 0. (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2. A’ = 45°. If not. from the end. (b) Also.8122 in.87 mm 20.5 + 0.1875 + 0. regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges. R = 6.37 + 37.35 mm. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value.98 + 37. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend.75 mm thick cold rolled steel.33 B = 2π(90/360)(0. Kba = 0. Solution: From drawing. Solution: From drawing.75) = 18. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.15625) = 0. therefore. (2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn.75) = 1. Kba = 0.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm.5 x 0. L = 50 + 27. BA = 2π(A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6. Kbf = 1. (2) If the die is not worn.33.

and t/D > 1%.Dp)/D = (175 . the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 .0). 20. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2. Kbf = 0.1/DR 20.33.13 Solve Problem 20.25 (b) r = (D . Solution: For V-bending. Compute the required force to bend the part. 20.11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1.33.33(70. If the blank diameter = 225 mm.75 inch. r < 50%. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.33(70. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.100)/175 = 0.100)/225 = 0.000)(1.33.14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0.429 = 42.18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation.16 A sheetmetal part 3.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm.33(620)(32)(4.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D .75 (b) r = (D .9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0. Kbf = 0. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.33(620)(32)(4.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm.19 Solve Problem 20.33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20.5 mm in a V-die.75 = 1128 lb.12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm. r is too large (greater than 50%).5)(5/32) 2/1.89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die. and t/D is too small (less than 1%).000 lb/in 2.909 N 20.0114 = 1.000)(1.Dp)/D = (225 .0. Solution: For V-bending.25 = 2728 lb. The material has a tensile strength = 70. determine: (a) drawing ratio.15 Solve Problem 20.75) 2/25 = 5. Kbf = 1.0 mm thick and 20. 20.75) 2/38 = 15.667 N 20.25 inches.14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2.555 = 55. However.Dp/D = 1 . Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1. (b) reduction.5)(5/32) 2/0. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0. The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa. Solution: Reduction r = (D .Dp/D = 1 . F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20.33. given that the die opening = 15 mm.0089 = 0. The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm. Kbf = 1.

015(180)π(1502 .0.000)(7.7) = 110.7) = 166. Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314.16h = 16.(4 + 2.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.000)(7.875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0.0 = 1. Thus.7) = π(4)(0.0 mm. Assuming the punch radius = 0.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch. To compute the cup surface area. The metal has a tensile strength = 60.46 (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp .053 314.5% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . (c) drawing force.942 N 20.5/4. (d) Fh = 0.(80 + 2.94.756 lb. and (2) base.5/4.875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.5/4 .015(30.125)(60.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.125 + 2 x 0. and (d) blankholder force. compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 . This is less than the specified 75 mm height.770 lb 20.0.125 + 2 x 0.7) = 354. Solution: (a) DR = 7.8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5.58752) Fh = 49. let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.16h + 7854. (b) reduction.000)π(7. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.0 inches and a height = 2.16h + 7854= 24.height. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch.125/7. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.667% (c) F = πDpt(TS)(D/Dp . The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank.15625) 2) = 0.015(180)π(1502 .20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4.1875/7.56 mm.0 = 1.(Dp + 2. Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 100πh + π(100) 2/4 = 100πh + 2500π = 314.52 . Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.418 N.4.0. and the starting blank diameter = 7.5 = 0.875 (b) t/D = 0. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup.0.1875)(60.5/4 . (b) reduction. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm.015(30.(4 + 2. The stock thickness = 3. Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch.15625) 2) = 49.000)π(7.62) Fh = 114.770 lb (same as previous problem) 20.025 = 2.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick.21 Solve Problem 20.0.52 .015Yπ(D2 . Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal.000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30.2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0.7) = π(4)(0.133 lb.2 x 0.5 inches.52 .199 h = 51.0 inches. (d) Fh = 0.000 lb/in 2.015Yπ(D2 .5 = 0. (c) drawing force.2 x 0.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm.053 mm2. (d) Fh = 0.7) = π(80)(3)(400)(150/80 .000)π(7. 20.0.(Dp + 2.01667 = 1. Punch and die radii = 4 mm.5 inches. The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3. Solution: (a) DR = 7.015(30. Blank area = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24. and (d) blankholder force.

however. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.265 = 4. Whereas the operation in Problem 20. Solution: Use surface area computation. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero.825 D = 9.425) = 53.25πD2 = 25. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4.25) 2/4 = 14. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9.842 D2 = 76. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = 5π(3.0218 = 2.78π(0.847 + 14.0 = 1.0 mm stock.25π in2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. 20.48 = 0. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing.25 A drawing operation is performed on 3.7855 = 18.050/5. Cup area = wall area + base area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(50) + 0.375 in.0.89 = 0.978.964. this operation may not be feasible. and (3) base.589) = 8. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.operation with no material left in the flange. (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = πD/4 = 0. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0.25πD2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.89/5. this 125 .375 = 4.18%. with a punch radius Rp = 0..25 = 101.125/9.25π D2 = 25. Thus.26%.0.25 in.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.25π(70) 2 = 14.0126 = 1.375) = 0.375 sin 45 = 0. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation. the blank size would be slightly smaller. radius.842 in 2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.847 in 2 A3 = π(4.7855 = 97. Because DR > 2.23 was not feasible.0.7855D 2 = 76.375 inch. A1 = πDph = π(5.890 in. A2 = 4.425 in.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0.589 in.25 + 2 x 0. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm.80 .23 except use a punch radius = 0. Of course.48 mm. which would reduce DR. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.807 + 8. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls. assuming thickness t remains constant.900 D = 137.0 = 2.7855D 2 = 14.25/0. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible.188 = 76.846 mm2.01.050 in.24 Solve Problem 20.48/70 = 1. assuming thickness t remains constant.0 .846 D2 = 14.25π(5) 2 = 25. With a rounded punch radius.8) + 0. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2.0)(3.375 = 3. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137. assuming thickness t remains constant.846/0.0 D = 10. which has a diameter = 5. whose height = 3.2 x 0.188 in2 Total area of cup = 53.375 radius at the base of the cup. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.265 beyond the center of the 0.842/0.780 in.25π(2 x 0. 20. t/D = 3/137.

25 except that the height = 60 mm. The material is anisotropic.25π(70) 2 = 17. Also.1 + 1963. One has ears.28 mm.047.071 = 64.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = πDph + πDp2/4 = π(70)(60) + 0.28/70 = 2. Thus.2 x 10 = 50 mm.6 + 3166.7855 = 20. this operation is considered infeasible. 126 . (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup.995. 20.5 D2 = 16.125.25π(2 x 10) = 15.375 in. and (3) base. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7.8 = 16.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm.0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. assuming thickness t remains constant.045 mm2. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing. another has wrinkles. and still a third has torn sections at its base.071 beyond the center of the 0. whose height = 60 . One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties.10.125.142 mm.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop. Solution: Use surface area computation.142π(15.0 D = 143.045/0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143. There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal. t/D = 3/147.26 Solve Problem 20.0.71 mm.31/70 = 2.5 mm2 Blank area = πD2/4 = 0.31 = 0.04%.0204 = 2.5/0.7855D 2 = 16. 20. Blank area = πD2/4 = 0. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible. A2 = 64. Since the DR is greater than 2. radius. this operation is considered infeasible. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.71) = 3166. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls.7855D 2 = 17. Since the DR is greater than 2.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10.7855 = 21.10 = 50 mm. as in the previous problem.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. The samples have various defects.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2πRp/4 = 0. 20. This may not be possible since a design change is required. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147.045 D2 = 17.125.27 Solve Problem 20.1 mm2 A3 = π(50) 2/4 = 1963. which has a diameter = 70 . A1 = πDph = π(70)(50) = 10.31 mm.995.700 D = 147.529.375 radius at the base of the cup.

000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.25 inches.75 in..002 as start of yielding.81 in.14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq.25 = 40.16 D = 4.000(0.361) = 0. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0. let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3.601 = 4. Other Operations 20. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal.75)/4 = 2.75 in. Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base.118 = 0. remains the same during stretching.30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20. to 2(102 + 52)0.361 in.125π(2.5 = 3.5 + 2 x 0.25)/4 = 0.25. (22.25π[(0.516 in 3 V3 = (2. D . The diameter of 3.361/20) = ln 1.(2. Yf = 70.1073 in. assuming width L = 10 in.5 . its height = 1.(0.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0.0 in. (20.12(20/22.516 + 0.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius.75 inch blank diameter.25 = 14. ε = ln(22.25) 2] .764 lb.30.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0. the length of the piece is increased from 20.1116 (c) At the final length of 22.5 inches.375 + 0.1073)(40.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used. according to Eq. V1 = (1.30(b).375) 2] = 0. 20.5 .5 inches.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.375 + 0. tf = 0.547 D2 = 4.2 x 0.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing.430 + 1. (3) base.457π(0.0.25)D2/4 = 0.2 x 0.125 inch and the width = 10 inches. 127 .1964) = 1.547/0.25) + 2.12)(14.803) = 17.14).459 lb/in2 F = 10(0. The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0.375 inch.5) 2)/4 = 1. and the corner radius at the base = 0.5 = 22.25/2)sin 45 = 2.375) 2π(0. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.459) = 43. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.375)π[(2.29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0. F = LtYf Yf = 70.1963 = 23. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume. (c) stretching force F.5 .002) 0.000(0.547 in 3 Volume of blank = πD2t/4 = π(0.25) 2 . V2 = 2.25) + 2(0.413 lb.1116) 0.457 in. The inside diameter of the cup = 2. (b) After stretching.1963D 2 = 4. (2) toroid at base.361 in. (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs.

25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0.32. the walls of the tube are flattening badly. 128 .33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20. 20. 20. (3) Pack sand into the tube. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm. and (b) the spinning reduction r.57 = 38. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall.2)/2.413) sin 26.50 = 50% 20.32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20.732. Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°.836 lb.5) = 1.75 mm. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm. Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion. The starting thickness = 2. radius = 25 + (100 .31 using a conventional spinning operation.57° Fdie = 2( 43.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1.2 mm (b) r = (t .31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20. The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant. The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall.4 = 0.tf)/t = (2.(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26.4)sin 30 = 2. The wall thickness on the tube = 4.4(0.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations.31 were made by shear spinning.4 – 1.4 mm. Solution: From part drawing.

6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. Answer. used in operations such as milling and drilling. Answer. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish. (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials. Answer. Answer. The three common machining processes are: (1) turning.4 Name the three most common machining processes. 21. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types.3 21. 21. and (4) it can create good surface finishes.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions. and (3) continuous with built-up edge. Answer. feed.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting. Answer.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. 129 . 21. in which the chip is formed into separated segments. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used. and (3) milling. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process. depth of cut. used in operations such as turning and boring. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. (2) continuous. 21.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools.7 What is a machine tool? Answer. Cutting conditions include: speed. 21. (2) drilling. 21.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape. In machining. in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face. 21. 21.

as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting. all correct answers must be given.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer. (c) milling. (d) 21. or (d) 3. The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. 21. Answer.13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer. and d. Answer.1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching.Answer.3 in 3/min.025 in 3/min.0 in3/min. (b) drilling. or (d) to/w. or (d) low v. (c) f/d.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min. or (d) turning. f = 0.2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder. or (c) discontinuous. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) 21. 130 . 21. Answer. (c) round hole. (d) screw threads. (b) high v. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous. and d.010 in/rev. high f and d. (c) low v. (c) 21. or (e) sphere. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.6 in 3/min. Answer. (b) to/tc. low f and d.100 inch. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) continuous with built-up edge.5 21. 21. (c) 3. For each question. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material. f. (b) flat plane. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v. 21. (d) 21.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer. (b) 0. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased. and d = 0. f.

.β/2.16): φ = 45 + α/2 .518 = 2.15) = 1. Answer.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0.37° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51.4286 φ = tan-1(. (b) 0.028 = 0. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation. (a) 21. Eq. or (d) steel.025 inch. (b) and (e).4286 cos -5/(1 .2 In Problem 21.210 = 2. (b) brass. suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°. determine (a) the shear plane angle. or (c) 0. 21.948 131 .0) = 2. and (c) the shear strain for the operation. Answer.35 + tan (19.1. rearranging.3°.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum. β = 2(45) + α .35 = 0.7 According to the Merchant equation.85°. (21. Answer. Assuming that the friction angle remains the same.. (c) decrease in shear plane angle. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.37 – (-5)) = 2.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19. or (e) increase in shear plane angle. (c) 21.848 + 0.4615 φ = tan-1(.Answer. (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21.4116) = 22.1. Using the Merchant Equation.199 21.85 .028 in.185 21.10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed.85 + tan (26. the tool has a rake angle = 15°. (c) 21.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation.30/0. Answer.37 + tan (22.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation.35° ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0.010 inch. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.12 mm. all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle. (c) cast iron. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.012/0. (d) increase in cutting temperature.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.65 mm.35 . Solution: From Problem 21.975 + 0.3° Now.4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(.4615 cos 15/(1 . an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results. (b) decrease in power requirements.30/tan 19.430 + 0. φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(.351 = 3.85) = 51.3/2 = 19. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.5062) = 26. the tool has a rake angle = -5°.65 = 0.2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26.85° ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26. α = 15° and φ = 26. The chip thickness before the cut = 0. (b) the chip thickness.

8) = 41. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.0077 in 2 S = 162.015.8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21.7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°.38 = 3. 132 .3916) = 21.0/. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.301 = 1.92 21. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0. Solution: φ = tan-1(0. (c) the friction angle.54 mm.55 cos 15/(1 . Solution: (a) r = to/tc.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(.55 = 0. the width of the cut = 0.291sin 22. β = 2(45) + 10 .25 mm. Based on your answers to the previous problem. and (d) the friction force.9 N/mm2 = 95.0)/sin 21.0.94 = 162. the width of the cut = 5. The rake angle = 10°.022 in. and (e) the shear strain.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(.6)(5.8 + tan (31.94° Fs = 300 cos 22.24° µ = tan 52.291 21.55.000 lb/in 2. (c) the thrust force. and d = 3.88 (e) γ = cot 31.2(31. compute: (a) the shear force. (b) the shear angle.38 cos 5/(1 .21. and (c) material removal rate.23 = 95.463 cos 10/(1 .0 mm.38 – 1589 sin 21.6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb.8 .3 N As = (0. (b) shear strain.3646 = 8.25/0.6194) = 31.94 = 0.100 in.5° ° (d) µ = tan 41. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.4 .2(22.6. As = (0.012/.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s.38 = 789.9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α/2 . β = 2(45) + α .200 in.1 = 1.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(.4.94) = 54.94 . The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.5 = 0.012 in and w = 0.0.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.015)(0.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N.294 = 2.8° ° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 . Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation.38 21.3/8.38) = 52.9/0.β/2. rearranging.10) = 2.2)/sin 22. (b) the cutting force. (b) φ = tan-1(. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.4 + tan (26.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0.1° µ = tan 54.017 + 0. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0.9 lb.615 + 0..0 mm.167 lb/in2. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. f = 0.4° ° (b) γ = cot 26. and the chip thickness ratio = 0..54 = 0.38. (d) the coefficient of friction.4 cos 10/(1 .0) = 1500 mm3/s 21. tc = to/r = 0. to = 0.23 mm2 S = 789.24 = 1.25)(3.4959) = 26.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.15) = 1. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.463 φ = tan-1(. The rake angle = 5°.4233) = 22.0077 = 21.

5 cos 20/(1 .9 -20) = 238 lb.8 + 41. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 .5° ° (b) As = (0.000) = 228 lb.(-5))/cos (18. The shear strength of the work material = 40. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. Determine: (a) the shear plane angle. Fs = AsS = 0. the rake angle = -5°.012)(0.000) = 91.000 lb/in 2. and (e) the shear strain.9 .00702(50.015 in.2 lb.93 (e) γ = cot 31.Solution: (a) As = (0.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation.42.00702 in 2. (c) the friction angle.2 cos 15 = 115 lb.2 mm and w = 4.5 -15) = 77.10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.10)/sin 31.00456 in 2.2(29. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.7) = 47.3384) = 18.1° ° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .77. The chip ratio r = 0. (d) F = 397 sin 20 .5 . (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) . Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.7 = 0. (b) the shear force.20)/cos (29. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) .. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.6° Fc = 351 cos (47. determine: (a) the shear plane angle. and d = 0.000 lb/in 2. and width of cut = 0.150 in.5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0.0028(40.15)/sin 29.9° Fc = 228 cos (50. (d) the coefficient of friction. to = 0.35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0. (b) the shear force. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.5668) = 29.50.8 + tan (31. Fs = AsS = 0.2 lb.4.7° ° (b) As = (0.00456(50. tc = to/r = 0. 21.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.6 .(-5)) = 665 lb.00228 in 2.010 in/rev.35 cos -5/(1 .870 cos (-5) = 808 lb.000) = 351 lb.8 = 0. (b) Fc = 91.597 + 0.15) = 2.6 .(-5))/cos (18.15)/cos (31.7 + 47..5 .8 + 41.09 21. The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°.238 cos 20 = 359 lb.5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(.4 cos -5/(1 .8 .4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.15)/sin 18.9 -20) = 397 lb. (c) cutting force and thrust force.015)(0.4 = 0. 133 . f = 0.6 . (d) F = 155 sin 15 .5 = 0.5 + 50. The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.9 .7 + 47.2(18.8) = 42.9° ° (d) µ = tan 42. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.20)/cos (29. (c) cutting force and feed force.015)(0.2(21.6 .9 = 0. 21. 21.11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.2/.(-5)) = 870 lb. resulting in a chip ratio = 0. and (d) friction force.5) = 50. Ft = 228 sin (50.0 mm.5 -15) = 155 lb.2 sin (41.2 cos (41.15)/cos (31.489 = 3. Fs = AsS = 0. Ft = 351 sin (47.3851) = 21.. chip thickness before the cut = 0.35.100 in. (b) the shear angle.5 + 50. (c) Ft = 91.

The following conditions are used: v = 3. and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.16 Show how Eq.5(b).6. 21. 21. (21.1 .10) = 236 lb. Ft = 98.2 .10) = 161 lb. r cos (φ . tan φ = r cos α/(1 .D. Fs.9) = 41.0) = 51.2 lb. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio.13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa.r sin α) Q.00256(50.9 = 1.284(250) = 321 N.2(27.0 + 51. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.10) = 229 lb.2(24. Fs = AsS = 0.7) = 568 N.5285) = 27.7) = 387 N.9 .42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.4462) = 24. Fs = AsS = 1.284 mm2.4233) = 22.10)/sin 24.15 Show how Eq.10)/cos (24. 134 . and Fn (Eqs.D.010)(0.r sin α Rearranging. The resulting chip ratio = 0.000 lb/in 2.7)/cos (27. and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.00245 in 2. (21.9) = 54.3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio.9° Fc = 98.1 . Eq. γ = cot φ + tan (φ .E.100 in.2) and Figure 21.17 Derive the force equations for F.2 .. a feed of 0.2)(3.2 cos (51.1° Fc = 128 cos (54. Solution: In the figure.10)/sin 22.0)/sin 27.1 .10)/cos (22. d = 3. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.20 mm/rev.00245(40.2): r = to/tc = sin φ/cos (φ .9° ° As = (0.9 .4) is derived from Figure 21. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 .9) through (21.10) = 179 lb. (21. (c) cutting force and feed force. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.9 + 41.0° ° (b) As = (0. we obtain r cos α/tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α/tan φ = 1 ..010)(0.α) Thus.00257 in 2. 21. The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50.Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. 21.α) Rearranging.9 + 54. 21. (c) β = 2(45) + 7 .2 . γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ .42 cos 10/(1 .9 = 0.4 cos 10/(1 . N.2 .11.9 .1 .0. Eq.0 m/s.E.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21.000) = 98.5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.α) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ.2(22. (b) the shear force.9° ° (b) As = (0.5 cos 7/(1 . (21.14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°.α) Q. Determine the cutting force and the feed force. Ft = 128 sin (54.9 + 54.10)/cos (22.9 .000) = 128 lb.0 mm.2° Fc = 321 cos (41.5. Fs = AsS = 0.2 sin (51.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0. β = 2(45) + 10 .α) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ .0 = 0.10)/cos (24.40.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0.0 + 51.9 + 41. Solution: φ = tan-1(0. (21.7)/cos (27. Ff = 321 sin (41. f = 0.

3.11. Eq. feed = 0. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.E.25 mm/rev. for f = 0.020 in/rev.D. and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line. Pg = 29.85) = 2.8 J/mm3) = 17. U = 2. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N.12): In Figure 23.500 W = 17. Next. and depth of cut = 7. N = Fc cos α .90 = 19. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous. (21. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%.11): In Figure 23.D. What horsepower is required of the drive motor.E.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.D. Ft now makes an angle α with F. (21.500 J/s = 17. Eq.25 mm)(7.11. f = 0. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value.5 mm.50 mm. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α. Pg = 17.” Using Figure 21.3.5 mm) = 750. Thus.000 mm3/min = 12. The vector F is divided into two line segments.Ft sin φ Q. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead.85.44 kW 21.750 J/s = 29. Q.E. (21.10): In Figure 23.20 In a turning operation on aluminum.8(0. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F.11.Ft sin α Q.75/0. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.500 mm3/s P c = (12. correction factor = 0. whose length = Fc cos α. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ. Use Table 21.500 mm3/s)(2.5 mm) = 375. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc. With the correction factor.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn. Solution: From Table 21.18.11. F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α.8 J/mm3. (21. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ . Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q. Power and Energy in Machining 21.06 kW 21.D.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. U = 2.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2.19 In previous Problem 21.38 J/mm3) = 29. From Table 21.250 in.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. Hence.Solution: Eq. Eq. and d = 0.9): In Figure 23. cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min.5/0.90 = 33.E. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ. 135 .50 mm)(7.750 W = 29.50 mm/rev.38 J/mm3. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect.14. Hence.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ. U = 2. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0. the cutting speed = 200 m/min.

400 f f = 22.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0.2 hp HPg = 12. taking the correction factor into account.45 mm/rev.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. From your answers to those problems. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21. thus U = 2.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21. feed = 0.24 For Problem 21. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.000 = 0.2 in3/min)(1.88 = 10.94 hp.3.-lb/in3. 22.90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower. and depth of cut = 0.000 = 0.500/50. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe. Based on these values.01 in.88 = 0.020 in/rev = to.7 and 21.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129. For f = 0.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum.8(0.2/0. Fc = 155 lb.52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed.020)(0. available horsepower = 0.000 f f = 22. 21.9.90) = 2. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0. (b) the metal removal rate in in.100) = 2.400 f Again setting available power = required power. Solution: From Table 21. Since feed is greater than 0. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe.012)(0.3.010 in/rev in the table.0 hp 21.010 in/rev. 21. (c) HPu = 0.326 hp/(in.500/56.5 (103) = 22.12.3. HPc = HPu x MRR. Required Pc = (2.500W Required power Pc = (2.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0.87 = 14.500 = 56. 3/min.14. correction factor in Figure 21. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW.80. 3/min.9(0.) = 7.150 in. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation. (c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation. HPu = 1.52 hp required. 136 .8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56.Solution: From Table 21.000 f Setting available power = required power. HPc = (7. HPc = 155(200)/33.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.25)(54) = 12.2 in.8.3. Solution: (a) From Problem 21.94/2.167 in.400 = 0. correction factor = 0. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.0 mm.150 in.500 = 50. Solution: From Table 21. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min. At efficiency E = 90%./ft)(0.8 is v = 200 ft/min.)(0.3/min.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3). 22.52)(20 x 103) f = 50. 21.9.14 = 0. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(. the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2.88 in. for this feed. U = 2. HPu = 0..90) = 22. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3).402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However. find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation.

correction factor = 0.6 m/s. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(.65 hp 21.6) = 2.75)(4. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem. MRR = vfd = 5.0) = 2. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation.16/0.12. 21.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN).75 mm/rev = to.Solution: (a) From Problem 21.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow. Solution: (a) From Table 21.80. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.63/3.63/0. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.3.6 in3/min.7(2.6 = 179.26 Solve Problem 21.3.0)(1.005)(0. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).16 hp (b) HPg = 2. U = 0.24 except that the feed f = 0.8(0.25/0. HPu = 1.8 = 2450 W.000 = 1.25)(2.3. For f = 0. f = 0.010)(0. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3. f = 0.3.8)(103) = 1.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.010 in/rev in the table. HPu = 0.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.25 mm/rev in the table.25 hp (b) HPg = 2. Since feed is greater than 0.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W.3.25(1.075 in. and d = 2.8 = 2.6(3.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN).6 in 3/min HPc = 0. 137 . the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min. P c = U x MRR = 0. (b) HPg = 1.3.000 in-lb/in3. Solution: (a) From Table 21.85. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness. P c = U x MRR = 0. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater.28 Solve Problem 21.9(103) mm3/s.54 hp 21. U = 0.100) = 3.3 m/s.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel. HPc = 179(300)/33. For f = 0. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(.075) = 3.3(103)(.7)(3. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.8(103) mm3/s. in Watts. Fc = 179 lb. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0.14.075) = 1.14. 21. Since feed is lower than 0.8 = 2460 W.6(103)(.8) = 2.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.63 hp.25 mm/rev. MRR = vfd = 1. 21. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. f = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.6 = 0.75 mm/rev. HPu = 1. Solution: (a) From Table 21.010 in/rev. and d = 4.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum. correction factor = 1.01)(0.9)(103) = 1.0) = 3. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0. and d = 0.04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0.85.0 mm.005 in/rev = to.85 = 2.85 = 2.27 but with the following changes: v = 1.25.0 mm.

015)(0.5392) = 28.375/1.7 g/cm3)(1.010 in/rev. Fc = 47.3.75 in 3/min HPc = 0.333 T = 20 + (0. Taking this correction factor into account.10) = 83. Since feed is greater than 0.97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.4 .010 in.0075)(0.3 mm x 2 mm) = 1.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33. 21.3 mm/90 mm2/s)0. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.37) = 20° + 585° = 605° C ° 138 . HPc = HPu x MRR. Fc = 33. density = 2.85 = 9.333 = 20 + 246.9(2.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.3)(6.3 for a to of 0.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min.6(785)/33.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.0 mm.00119 in 2 Fs = 40.3/300) = 913 lb. After the cut.97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0.3 in 3/min. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4.010 in/rev in the table. HP = 83. The chip thickness after the cut is 0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.000(0. Using Cook's equation.000 = 1.0 m/s.99 hp. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0.14 to account for the fact that f = 0.0075/0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process. (b) Based on horsepower. (b) MRR = 785 x 12(0.3 mm.3/0.0. HPu = 1. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%.010 in/rev.000 lb/in2.015 = 0.75) = 8. Solution: ρC = (2.015 in/rev.6 lb. Cutting Temperature 21.833 N-m/mm3/2.9 cm2/s. For f = 0. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C.1 J/g-C.14. v = 500 rev/min(6π/12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0.31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation.4° As = 0. The shear strength of the work = 40.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.45.0075 in/rev instead of 0.3 = 0.3 + 43.0075(0.5 lb.4 .075)/sin 28. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.1 J/g-°C) = 2. and w = 2. the depth of cut is 0. and thermal diffusivity = 0. to = 0.0075 in/rev. feed = 0.000. r = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21.3 for a feed f = 0. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(.The feed is . 21. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.3 hp HPg = 8. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP. compute the horsepower at the drive motor.5 φ = tan-1(0.99/5. HPu = 1.075 in.000 (HP/v) = 33.7 g/cm3. The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.075) = 5.015 in/rev = to.95(1.10)/cos(28.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0.15 = 0. Rearranging.015 in.2469 x 103 C)(13.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28.5 cos(43. HPu = 0.3 = 0. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21.97 J/cm3-°C = 2.95. and depth = 0.000 (8. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions.3) = 43.15 from Fig.33) .9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0.125) = 6. correction factor = 0.3.5 cos 10/(1 .4 x 1.0 in diameter.00119) = 47. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.

use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F.8)/3. and depth d = 0.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.1.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21.87 g/cm3 = 7.14) 0. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min.100 in. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min. = 70 in/sec.333 = 70 + (0.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0.06)0.333 = 70 + (0.7) = 0.4(2.010/0. to = 0.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0. Solution: MRR = vtow. 1 cal = 4.11(4.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.4 x 440.8 J/mm3 From Table 4.100 in.008 x 0.333 = 70 + (968)(1.000/110)(70 x 0.046 J/s-mm-°C /[(7.0 m/s. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0.000(1. feed f = 0. to = f = 0. = 60 in/sec. v = MRR/tow = 1.186 J.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 . determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F. C = 0. Since f = 0. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F.25 mm.010 in and width of cut = 0.3. Assume ambient temperature = 20°C. Solution: From Table 21. Solution: From Table 21.333 = 70 + (872)(3.000/124)(30 x 0. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation.3.14 in 2/sec.87 g/cm3)(0.460 J/ g-°C ρC = (7.3). T = 70 + (0. T = 70 + (0.333 = 309(3.. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρC K = 0. Using Cook's equation.32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3. Thus.0075 in/rev.01 x 0.62(10-3)(3(103)(0.46 J/g-°C) = 12.1) = 440.333 = T = 70 + (0.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21.100) = 250. and thermal diffusivity = 0.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min. T = 70 + (0.000 in-lb/in 3.100 in.000 in-lb/in 3.14) 0.21. and thermal diffusivity = 0.25)/12.4 x 300.008/0. From note “a” at the bottom of the table.4U/ρC)(vto/K)0. feed = 0.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4.309(103)(59.333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0.25 mm T = 0. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.8 in 3/min. If the feed f = to = 0.100) = 300.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4. U = 2.0075 in/rev. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400.000/200)(60 x 0.000 in-lb/in 3.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb.010 x 0.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell. thermal conductivity k = 0.4 x 250.8/(0. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F.2.0075/0. Therefore U = 400.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C ° 21.3.11 Cal/g-°C. and depth = 4. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.140 in 2/sec.10.214) 0. C = 0.18) 0. correction factor = 1.46 J/g-°C) = 3.046 J/s-mm-°C From Eq.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation. and w = 0.008 in.667) 0.186) = 0.1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1.000 in-lb/in 3. ρ = 7. (4. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0.0 mm.1.

(2) v = 130 m/min.5 x 10-3/0.561 = 106.024) 0.3835 – 5. determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation. T = 592°C.m ln 100 = ln 592 .47 m = 0.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0.333 U = (700 – 2-)(3.744 = 106.338 = 592/5.5 (10-3) J/mm3-C.87°C (pretty close to the given value of 552°C).72 N-m/mm3 21.1589 m = 0.37 During a turning operation.25)})0.333 = 5.95(0. Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model. T = 505°C.2246 – 4.6052 m = 6. Eq.23).338 = 551.4)(K/vto)0.m ln 160 6. and depth of cut = 4. (21. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 . T = 552°C.75 x 10-3)(0. (3) v = 160 m/min. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3. 140 .25 mm/rev.21.0752 m 0. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C. feed = 0.333 U = 680(8. Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation.2888) = 1.45 Use K = 106.45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106. U = T(ρC/0.36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min.44 (2) K = 592/1600. a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature.45(130) 0. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation.338 (1) K = 505/1000.00 mm.338 = 505/4. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min.

Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole. 22. 22. (3) collet. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation. Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine. Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool. Answer.7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. (2) chuck.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry. 22. Answer.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer. examples include straight turning. 22.4 Describe the turning process.1. and profile milling.6. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape. 22.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. Answer. 22. shaper. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers. Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers). when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . 22.22 22.1. taper turning. and (4) face plate. both are described in Article 25.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer. common examples include form turning and drilling.4. See Article 25. 22. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread. Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine. or planer. Answer. Answer. Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling.

milling. A blind hole does not exit the work. 22.g.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer. What is pocket milling? Answer. 22. generally with single point tools.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer. the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. 22. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e. drilling).11 What is a blind hole? Answer. 22.g. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e. and automatic workpart positioning.15 Describe profile milling. 22.18 What is a machining center? Answer.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. 22. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface.the work rotates about it.. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing. 22. drilling). A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe. 22. cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer. 22. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart. A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts. milling.14 22. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part.20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 . In peripheral milling. while a turning center performs turning type operations. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing. In up milling. in face milling. by comparison. while a dead center does not rotate . The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle.Answer. Answer.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer. 22. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction. in down milling. a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart..

143 . Answer.Answer.2 In a turning operation. (a) 22. (b) and (d). and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool. (b) 22. (b) cut-off tool. (b) lathe. (2) bandsawing. or (d) 2 x feed. (b) 22. (c) drilling. (d) single point turning tool. or (f) turning. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. or (e) shaper. permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part. the cutting tool is stationary. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) drill bit. and (d) profile milling. (d) milling. or (e) threading tool. 22. Answer. and (3) circular sawing. (b) 2 x depth of cut. Answer. (c).5 Knurling is performed on a lathe. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. while in planing.23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. (e) planing. and (f) 22.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring. as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. (c) 1 x feed. and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion.6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) broaching. all correct answers must be given.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 22. Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. (b) contour turning. Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing. For each question. 22. (a). (c) drilling.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. 22. 22.21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer. the work is stationary during the cut.4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. (d) planer. (d). (b). Answer. In shaping. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (c) milling machine. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (e). (c). the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut.

(c) screw machine. (d) speed lathe. Answer. or (d) slab milling. fr = 6.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 . (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position.366(.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine. or (e) turret lathe. (c) plain milling. the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter. Solution: (a) N = (2. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart.10 22.11 22. and (e) universal milling machine. Answer. (b) MRR = vfd = (2. (22.2 s = 7. (d) ram mill. (d) 22.91 = 471. and (e) provide an internal thread. Answer.9 22.22.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.8 22. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart.0 mm. Cutting conditions are: v = 2.366 rev/s. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq.0 mm.5 m/s)(103)(. (22. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool.1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe. (c). (b) peripheral milling. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type. (c) improve surface finish on a hole. (b) engine lathe.2 In a production turning operation.3 mm/rev. (b). or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool.0 min.3) = 1. and (b) metal removal rate. and d = 2. (b) knee-and-column. Answer. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart.12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22. (c) profiling mill. Using a feed = 0.125π = 6. Answer. Determine: (a) cutting time. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22. and (d).3 mm)(2. The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter.5 m/s)/.4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq.85 min. Answer.5 m/s. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling. (b) enlarge a drilled hole. f = 0.

The total 145 .0 mm) = 1.25 mm/rev.125 in. (b) cutting time.30)(10-3)(5. Combining. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut.6 A 4.5 = 150π(565. volume cut V = Ad = (354.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π(R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0. f = 0. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0. N = 200.125 in. (22. f = 0. The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends.3 rev/min 22.5 Given R1 = 100 mm. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm.3. (22.4. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0.125)(0.0 mm.012 in/rev.0 minutes.000/100π = 636.015 in/rev.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.91 min.0) = 0. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end. and (c) metal removal rate.7 m/min 22. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut.0 mm) = 150. Feed = 0. and Tm = 7.00 . and this operation will be the final cut.25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe. With this workholding setup.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm).214 mm2)(3.641 mm3)/(150.0 mm. 22. and d = 0. A = π(100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0. R2 = 50 mm.000/200π = 318.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe.5 A workbar with 5. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel.3.Then substituting for N from Eq.0 minutes.012) = 7. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter.5 = 354. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305.5 rev/min.67 = 10. The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1.084) = 423.5(0.6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).25 mm)(3.4) can be used.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4. Solution: (a) depth d = (5.012) = 3. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5.062. and h = 750 mm.15)/(0.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3. A 40.3) and (22. fr = 305. Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed.1257(103) m/min = 125.000) 0. and the time to reverse the bar is 3.5 rev/min 22.0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center.1) we get Tm = πDoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24). one end must be turned to diameter. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center. Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = πDoL/fTm Tm = π(0.4)(0. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs.67 in/min Tm = 40/3.25)(7. Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.75)/2 = 0.062.084 min from Problem 22. N = v/πD = 200.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3.000 mm3/min) = 7. N = 750/(0.2 in3/min.

Tm = 15.7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation.61 min. v = (30 rev/min)(25π/12) = 196.4 rev/min.5 x 12)(0.50 in.4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart.015) = 4.583 in/min.020)(0.75 in.96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.5)/4. fr = 286.. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do . MRR = (196.15)(452 . and (b) metal removal rate during the operation.4 x 12)(0. after the drill bit reaches full diameter.65 mm 146 . Solution: (a) A = 0. and depth = 0. feed = 0.7 tan 31 = 7. Tm = 10.Di)/2 = (45 . Total cycle time = 5.5/4. length.252) = 164. Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min. cut remaining 10 in..5(0. Solution: First end: cut 15 in.297 = 3.7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill..50 in. this reduces diameter to 3.25π(0.5(0.4(0. Drilling 22.297 in/min.0 min.25)/2 = 10 in..5/4.44 + 2.. fr = 305.73 = 12.8 Solve previous Problem 22.150 in.5 ft/min. of 25 in.75π = 305. Loading and unloading bar takes 5.583 = 3.15) = 12. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.61 + 3.020)(0. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min.25 mm/rev. The part has an outside diameter = 45.07 in3/min 22.5 ft/min MRR = (353.4 ft/min. and the point angle = 118°.75π = 305..5 rev/min.73 in3/min at Di = 25 in.0 in and inside diameter = 25 in. Reverse bar which takes 3.297 = 2. 22.15) = 12.5)/4.020)(0.4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation.015) = 4. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut.29 = 19. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353.50 in.25πd(Do2 .015) = 4.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164.96 min.44 min. fr = (30 rev/min)(0.0 min. fr = 286. N = 300 x 12/3.020 in/rev.5 rev/min. length.020 in/rev) = 0. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation.5(25. Tm = (10 + 0.9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.583 = 2. this reduces diameter to 3.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0.. N = 300 x 12/3. MRR = (353.583 in/min. Tm = (15 + 0.38 + 3. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed. v = (30 rev/min)(45π/12) = 353..4(0.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in.0 + 3. Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation.15) = 7.4 rev/min.6 = 16. of 25 in. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.015) = 4.Di2) = 0.96/12. fr = 305.0 + 2.75 in.297 in/min. feed = 0.5 x 12)(0.72 min. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min.6 in/rev Tm = 10/0. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.

1 min.056 min.25) = 0. With 100 holes.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth.25) = 78. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0.015 in/rev.00075) = 2. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees. the number of moves between holes = 99.5 + 0. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0.5 + A + 1. 147 .7 in/min = 5.000 mm/75π = 339.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1.315 + 1. and (b) the material removal rate during the cut. f = 0. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0. Distance per hole = 0. Milling 22.5 in. New drilling time Tm = 13.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point.7 rev/min.4π = 313. and d = 7.916 in/min.001 in/rev) = 3.675. overhangs the width of the part on both sides.0 in/min.0 min. It takes 4. New feed f = 0..112 + 0.056) + 99(0.0.0 mm. the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1.3(0.001(1.5 min(3. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0.736 min (b) MRR = 0. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15.7 min.) = 13. fr = 1527.20) = 3600 rev/min.0 in/min.3 = 0.015) = 22. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter.2 mm/tooth.1) = 26. Solution: N = 80.002 in/rev. assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job. using a back and forth path between holes. New feed rate fr = 3600(0.00075 in/min.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger.0 in/min. Time to move between holes = 1.2 mm3/min 22. Hole depth d = 4.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate. Also. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0.75 A = 0.5 in.5 in/2.25π(25.5/15 = 0. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%.112 min.7(0.75π = 1527.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7.N = 25(103)/25.5 in above the work surface. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0.3 rev/min fr = 313.315 in. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1.7 in/min. The milling cutter.112/2 = 0.916 = 0.75) tan(90 .75)/22. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.4) 2(78.63)/78.5 rev/min. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth. 22. There are 100 holes in all. Time to retract drill from hole = 0. Tm = (0. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min.3) = 39. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole.5 in.5(0.5 x 100) = 0.

366(4)(.5 in diameter and eight teeth.59 min. A = (d(D-d)).150(25.46 in/min. MRR = 100(7)(271. Tm = (12.414 in Tm = (12. 22.fr = 339.010 in/tooth. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. 22. fr = 152.6 mm/min. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2.64 in3/min. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6.46) = 7. Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min.0(. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.82 in3/min.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1.150 in.15 except that the workpiece is 5.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6.46 in/min.5 in.75 in Tm = (10. Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s.0 + 2 x 1.875 = 80 s = 1.5 = 21.25(2.120 mm3/min.0 in wide.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.98 min.200 in.0 + 2 x 1.5 = (7(75-7)).5(4)(0.0 in long by 2.250 in.5 rev/min. and d = 0.5-.010) = 25.150(25.0 + 0.14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10.0 in wide.6) = 190. Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.0(.46) = 3. Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min.5 = 1. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6. and d = 0.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide.0 in by 40. The helical milling cutter. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. f = 0.46 = 0. f = 0.8(8)(0. and d = 5.0 in.185 min.75)/11 = 0.25)).010) = 25. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3.0 in wide.020 in/pass. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. Other Operations 22.009) = 11. 25.333 min.5 = (.5 = 0.5 mm3/s 22. MRR = 3. A = O = (1(3-1)). A = (d(D-d)).009 in/tooth. fr = 636.5 rev/min.414)/25.0 in/min. 22.27 mm/tooth.0 in long by 3.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12. A = O = 3/2 = 1. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter.2) = 271. MRR = 1. which has a 2.5π = 152. The length of the 148 .0) = 8.0 mm.58 min. MRR = 2.16 Solve previous Problem 22.5(4)(0. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636.82)/271. fr = 636.5(4)(0. f = 0. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides.875) = 3437.0 in diameter.6 = 1.82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.5)/25.8 rev/min.0(. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting.25)(11. f = 0.25 in3/min.27) = 6. and d = 0.46 = 0. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min.366 rev/s fr = 6.

including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration. Number of passes = 25.2625 min. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke.2625) = 525.15) = 0.0/0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0.35) = 437. Total time per pass = 0.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0.1125 min.5 min.1125 = 0. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in.15 = 0.0 min. Time per reverse stroke = 0.2) = 0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. Total time per pass = 0.20 + 0. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case. Time per reverse stroke = 0.35 min.2 min.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel.15 + 0.75(.15 min.15 min. The return stroke.) is in direction of stroke. Number of passes = 40.0/0.) is in direction of stroke. How long will it take to complete the job.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in.75(. 149 .

23. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. (5) chip disposal problems. 23. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear. 150 . Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool. and (3) gradual wear. (2) temperature failure. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. (2) chromium.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer. Answer. and nose radius wear. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear.6 In addition to cutting speed. and (4) carbon. 23. (7) power increase. depth of cut. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. (3) vanadium. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. 23.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining. Answer. and/or work material hardness. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material. (3) diffusion. corresponding to the tool point. corresponding to the surface of the work. (8) workpiece count. Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion. (2) adhesion. Answer. 23. what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. 23.3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. (6) degradation of finish.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining. 23. called flank wear.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer. (4) sound of the tool.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. 23. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry.

The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. The most common method of application is flooding. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces. (2) emulsified oils. 23. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. and Al2O3. (6) side cutting edge angle. SPD. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. and (7) nose radius. TiC.chemical fluids.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication. 23.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. Other methods include: mist application. fluid. an example being high speed. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer.hole delivery. Answer. and CBN.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer. Answer. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. lower machine tool maintenance. Answer. ceramics. better hygiene. and (3) chemical and semi. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils. 23. (2) side rake angle.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. and manual application. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. 23.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts. There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank. The common coatings are: TiN. 23. (4) side relief angle. (5) end cutting edge angle. reduced disposal costs. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts. and longer cutting tool life. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function.15 23. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants. used for some cemented carbides.23.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. 23. cermets. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. (3) end relief angle.12 23. 23. During cutting. Answer. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength. (2) brazed inserts. Answer. 151 . used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides.

(c) C5. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (d) 152 . contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) increases toughness. and (e). Answer. (c). (a) 23. (c) TiC.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. (b) improves strength and hardness. (d) nickel. and (d) increases hot hardness. (b) increases hardness. all correct answers must be given. (b).7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel. 23.3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. (b) Co. (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. molds. and bacteria. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion. and (d). including tramp oil. or (d) C7. Answer. Answer. Answer. and (e) WC. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) and (c). or (c) feed.6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co. 23. (a).23. (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. (b) cobalt.20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. 23. (b) C3. (c) and (d). which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed. (d) TaC. which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. (b). garbage. (b) Ni. (c) chromium. Answer. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. fungi.1 Of the following cutting conditions. (d) TiC. (c) increases corrosion resistance. 23. and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling. (b) depth of cut. (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. (c) 23. 23.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. (c) CrC. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. Answer. and (e) WC. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (e) tungsten. Answer. small chips. For each question.

(b) electroplating.0 min using criterion FW = 0.9 23. or (e) tungsten carbide. T = 20.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel.2776 n = 0. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece.3026 n 0.97 Cutting time. Using 0. plot your results determined in the previous part.75 mm.10 Answer.50 mm of flank land wear.99 15 0. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds.6 min using criterion FW = 0.50 0. (c) high speed steel. From the plot. mm.58 20 0.50 mm.50 mm. and (e) wash away chips.3894 = 404.73 25 0. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.2 Solve Problem 23. T = 10.0 4. (d) titanium carbide. At v = 165 m/min. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface. plot flank wear as a function of time. (d) remove heat from the process. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min.20 0.22 3 0. (a) and (b) Student exercises.75 mm. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20.1059 + 2. The feed rate was 0.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0. (a) and (c). The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. or (d) pressing and sintering.0 min using criterion FW = 0.0 mm. (b) reduce forces and power.33 0.80 13 0.47 7 0. 23.0155 n = 5.40 0.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4.4) n = C.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20. (c) As a comparison.4) n = 165(10. (c) and (d).8283 + 3. (a) and (b) Student exercises.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure.46 23. T = 13.0) 0. (c) physical vapor deposition. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations.3894 = 404.45 0. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation.4 min using criterion FW = 0.57 9 0. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots.3894 (1) C = 125(20. Solution: At v = 125 m/min.4) 0.35 5 0.23. T = 5.46 C = 404. Answer.7129 n = 0. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. and (2) 165(10. Answer.70 11 0. 153 . Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23. Flank wear. min. (b) cubic boron nitride.46 (2) C = 165(10.12 0. mm. At v = 165 m/min.27 0.

1059 + 1.0371/.3894 (1) C = 125(13.77 (b) 90 T. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.14286) n ln 1.4012 n 4.0) = 291.171 C = 350(7) .171 = (1.2619 = 182.14 (2) C = 165(5.4012 .437) = 182. T = 30 min.3365 = 1. (2) v = 75 m/min. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.8277) C = 182. (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation.0) n = 165(5.0 m/s. the likely tool material is high speed steel.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13. (2) v = 250 ft/min.13 min.77/90 = 2. T = 10 min.0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2.6052 .4 m/min. (b) Based on the n and C values.2877 = 1. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min.77 v = 182.0986 n n = 0.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1. Based on your equation. (c) v (20) ..2619 = 182.6052 + 2.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.77 Check: C = 75(30) . and (2) 165(5.77/2. (d) For T = 10 min.0373.3894 = 291. 23.8421 n = 0.5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4. T = 50 min.818 = 15.1914 = 83.4.2619 .037 T = 2.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min.3026 n = 4.6 4.3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) .2. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.2619 = 2.15 C = 291.77 T.4 = n ln 7.15 23. T = 7 min. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min.171 = 488/1.0 m/s.848 = 17. (c) At v = 300 ft/min. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13..0 = ln 165 + n ln 5. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.8283 + 2.4825 = 329 ft/min.3296 0.14286 0.7228 n 0.0) n = C.171 = 350(1. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.9661 n n = 0.6267) 5. v = C/Tn = 488/10.4 = (7.6) 0. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.3026) n 0.3175 + 3. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1.2619 = 75(2. 154 .171 = 250(1.2619 = 182.3175 = (3. 23.5649 n = 5.2 min.2776 n = 0.2619 = 182.77/(20) .2.

9957 n = 0. (2) Tm = π(125 mm)(0.677 n = 4.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0. Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data. T = 47 min. (3) v = 100 m/min.54) n = C (2) 120(109.43 23.50 mm flank wear. T = 14.1929 .2012 C = 180 (14. Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long.2012 .0 m/s = 60 m/min. but if cutting speed = 2. (1) 160(5.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5.2314 (b) At v = 1.692 n 5. T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23.3 m)/(3. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes.223 = 229.0151 n n = 0. T = 5. the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min. 130(12) .225 mm) = 174.75 min.7875 = (4. Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229).2314 = 240 (T)0. A feed rate of 0. 23. (2) v = 130 m/min.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.54) n = 120(109.0) 1/0.0 m/s = 240 m/min.223 = 130(1. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.6 In a production turning operation.225 mm) = 261.80s = 4. T = 5(2.1929 + 2.5.08) n = C 180(14.677) n 0.1.4054 = 2.7404) = 226.8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23.3215 = 400 min. T = 25(4.2.08 min.6931 n = 0. (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min. If cutting speed = 3.909 min.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23.363 min. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job.0 T = (4. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.25 min.7875 + 4.54) C = 308.75) n = 100(47) n 155 .909) = 14. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data.0 min.1 is: vT0. complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve.363) = 109.3 This represents a difference of less than 1.53 s = 2.0 m/s.54 min.0 m/s)(0. 60(T)0. 120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min.0 2.08) 5.4.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts.2314 = (4) 4.2%.4. Solution: (1) Tm = π(125 mm)(0. then C = 4.692 . (1) 180(14.0 n ln 20 = ln 2.54) = ln 120 + n ln(109.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14.0 m/s.2314 = 240/60 = 4. 23. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C.

7875 + 2. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s. n = 0.3 mm/rev. T = 40 min.25 = 2.1009 n n = 0.4998 + 3.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0.2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0.75) 0. Eq.54 m/s 23.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min.08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s.25 = 14.S.1). Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min.5%.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2.6889 n 0. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T.2 = ln 120 + 0.4054 m = -0.8 here vs.25 = 1000(Tref)0.6094) = 0.08(2. a flank wear level of 0.4849 n = 4.3 0.14.25 = (60) 0. where the U.1 (n = 0. (23. C = 229 in Example 23.2) m = K (2) (1. where v = m/s and T = s.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0.239 ln 12 + m ln 0. (b) Using your equation.2877 = 1.566 = 2.8501 n 0.224 (1) C = 160(5. Solution: vT0.204 n n = 0.50 mm in Example 23. T = 10 min.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.0752 + 1. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23.224 = 235.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5.108 156 . This represents a difference of less than 0.239 ln 10 + m ln 0. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations. and K.78316 The converted value of C = 5.1).20 mm/rev. and that the C value is higher here (C = 236.2040) -0.3 mm/rev. where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds. f = 0. The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2.14/9600.20 mm/rev. Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric).ln 160 + n ln 5. (Tref)0.10 Q.224 here vs. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.25) 0.5 x 60)(40) n(0.6052 + 3. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data.1). f = 0.0 m/s. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0.7.7 (3) C = 100(47) 0.14 The converted equation is: vT0. A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n.223 in Example 23.7492 n = 4.D.0436 m = 0.78316) = 14.5503 + m (-1. (a) Determine n.14/5.0 m/s.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5.25 = 14.224 = 236.5939 + m (-1. m. m.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1.4700 = 2.E.25 = 1000. f = 0. Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data. and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation. (2) v = 1.9 use average: C = 236. T = 12 min.224 = 236.2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4. That is.0 min tool life.5 m/s. SI: v = 14. and (3) v = 2. The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs. USCU: v = 1000/160. compute the tool life when v = 1.4).3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0.5 m/s and f = 0.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT. 23.

0794) + m (-4.239(0. metal removed = 10(1. and (3) v = 400 ft/min. metal removed = 10(10.010) 0. For 10 min.65 90(T)0.3) 0.311 T = 2.1997 + 4.010) 0.572) = 5.3026 n = 5.125. C = 60 ft/min.333 = 150 ft/min.010 in/rev. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel.6 ft/min.1997) 0.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.01)(0.2 in3 157 . (d) ceramic. (b) high speed steel.3 (2) 300(35) 0.3026 . MRR = (47.2527 n n = 0.2297(0.015) 0. and K.108 =120(1.2297(0.010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0.9915 + 2. T = 35 min. and K.3 mm/rev (1.1264 = 400(1.8404) = K = 182.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4. m.5 x 60)(T)0.2) 0.1264 = 400(1.25. (23. T = 10 min.010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0.2297(2.10) = 10.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0.5587) = 379.108 = 182. For 10 min.5 x 12)(0. (2) v = 300 ft/min. C = 200 ft/min.5 ft/min.2.2629)(0.0 in/rev.7038 + 3. 23.11 Eq.778 = 843.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0.2297(0. f = 0.572 in 3/min.6971)(0.12 in 3/min.5 m/s.239(0. MRR = (150 x 12)(0.1264 = 300(2. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value.2297(2. m.8) = 18.65 (T)0.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.0794) = m(-4. T = 8 min.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials.125 = 200/1. f = 0.5587) = 379.65 (b) v = 1.10) = 1.6052) 0.259 = 47.80 in 3/min.5881) = 379.05127 = 0.01)(0.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0. MRR = (843. f = 0. f = 0.(1) K = 120(12) 0. and (e) coated carbide. 23. metal removed = 10(0.811)(0.6 x 12)(0. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0.2 are based on a feed rate of 0.12 The n and C values in Table 23. For 10 min.1 = 60/1.4055 m m = 0.2877 = 1.01)(0.6123)(0.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1.5553 n 0.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0. C = 1500 ft/min.3 K = 379.4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed.0 mm.015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.10) = 0.2297(2.8781) = 182.3026) + m (-4.015 0. v = 60/100.3111/. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min. (c) cemented carbide.010 in/rev.239 = 33. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n.10.3 (3) 400(8) 0.3 min.12) = 101.239(0.239 = 2.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0.015 in/rev.25 = 1500/1. Determine n.6052) = 0. v = 1500/100. v = 200/100.

14 in 3/min.25 min.00 in.82) 0.003)(917) = 2. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0.7073 n = 0.25 = 2200/1. metal removed = 10(14.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min. For 10 min. feed rate fr = (0.15 = 120(1.4055 n = 0. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes. for 5 holes.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/.25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.23 and C = 400.10) = 30. v = 12000/100. T = 5(0.5978 n 2.52389(108)}0. Formulating the data as vTn = C. for 50 holes. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0.75 in/min) = 0. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. C = 10.33(108) (v) -4. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min. v = 2200/100.2987 = 202.5 in3 23.423 min 158 .0 in/(2.5π/12) = 917 rev/min.3478 = 0.75 in/min.99 v-1 = 2057.364 min.3478(v) -4. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed. Units for the Taylor equation are min.01)(0.82 4.34 C = 120(1.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0.85 in 3/min. For 10 min. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1. metal removed = 10(30.833 in/min) = 0. and tool life T is expressed in min. Formulating the data as vTn = C. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes. time per hole = 1.52389(108)}1/3.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27. we have: 80(27.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1. and d = 3.4 mm/rev.15 0. At 120 surface ft/min.01)(0.0 mm.82 min. T = 50(0.0 in/(1.25) n = 120(1.5π/12) = 611 rev/min.3478 = {0. feed rate fr = (0. Cutting conditions are: f = 0.52389(108) v = {0.4(10-3)v = 3926.3478 v3.25) = 80(1.33(108) (v) -4.3478 = 2057. N = (80)/(.14) = 301.545 min.99/v = 3926.000 ft/min.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27. The feed rate of the drill was 0.382 + 3. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.545 min) = 27.32 23.10) = 14.6417) = 131.981 = 2512 ft/min.60.003 in/rev. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part. C = 2200 ft/min.14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned. At 80 surface ft/min.15 C = 80(27.0 in thick.7875 + 0.778 = 1237 ft/min. corresponding to the plate thickness.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min.23 = (400/v) 4.364 min) = 1.85) = 148. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole.99 (202. Tm = πDL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(500)(1000)(10-6)/0. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm.003)(611) = 1. we have: 120(1. time per hole = 1.3478 = 4004.3051 n = 4.25.094) = 131.6 = 12000/3.833 in/min.18) -1 = 19.29 C = 131.(d) Ceramic: n = 0. N = (120)/(.

8561(1012) (v) -4.389.0 in.38 (476. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed.3333 = 476.56) -1= 55. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.0 = 13004.0 in and length = 32 in.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel.389. Units for the Taylor equation are min. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0.0125)v = 26. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case.0 v3.25 = (1300/v) 4.38 (v) -1= 2. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades. Specify a non-steel roughing grade. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter. (b) high speed steel. Choose grade 2. the starting diameter = 26.56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26.23 = (400/202.56) 1/. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel.375 min T = (1300/476. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing.18) 1/. Tm = πDL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π(26.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/. Specify a non-steel finishing grade.0)/12(0.375 min Tooling Applications 23.25 = (1300/476.125 in. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt. 23. (b) Rough milling of aluminum.25)(48. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length.423 min 23. These grades are listed below by chemical composition. 159 .08229(108) v = {1. (c) Finish turning of brass.0 Setting Tm = T: 26.56) 4. For each material that is not a good candidate.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt. Choose grade 4. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0.25 in and the length = 48.0 = 55. give the reason why it is not.0 = 2.0 = 1.389. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt.08229(108)}1/3 = {1.0(v) -4.T = (400/202. (c) cemented carbide. Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing. Choose grade 1.8561(1012) (v) -4. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.08229(108)}0. explain your recommendation.389.0125 in/rev.18) 4.25 and C = 1300.3478 = 19. (d) ceramic. and depth of cut = 0. (d) Machining cast iron. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.38/v = 26. For each of the following tool materials. In the final pass.

12 = (1. C = 200 + 25 = 225. it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting. When a coolant is used in the operation. (a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel. so toughness is important in the tool material. (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness. Increase = (110. resulting in friction heat.5889) 8.2. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min.95) = 67.25 = 7:1. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole.42. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1. thus causing overheating of the drill.2 .120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry. the value of C is increased by 10%.2 in the text.2 min.125 = (1.25 min = 156.21. T = (200/125) 1/.95 min. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content). the 160 . Nevertheless.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel.42)/21.40 min. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut.6% 23.75:0.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/.21 = 121% 23.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting. With coolant: 90(T)0. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0. n = 0. As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting.6) 8 = 42. he says.8) 8 = 110." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here. what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23. Second. Dry: at v = 125 ft/min.20 A high speed steel 6. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0. With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min. and feed = 0. With cutting fluid.444) 8.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1.42 min. and hole depth = 40 mm.12 = (1. First. Increase = (47.3333 = 21. The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. "the chips are clogging in the flutes.42 = 1. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used. Cutting Fluids 23. T = (225/125) 1/. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23.3333 = 47.10 mm/rev.40 .125 = (1.

manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. a requirement of the drilling operation. 161 . then retract the drill. Since overheating is a problem. it makes sense to try a coolant. then drill some more. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given. The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. as a substitute for the cutting oil. Third. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips. etc. Finally. with overheating as a problem. one with good lubricating qualities. and we assume it cannot be changed. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter.

and thermal diffusivity. and (4) ease of chip disposal. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects. (3) surface finish.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer. (2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation. e.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material. 24. and backlash in the feed mechanism. 24. 24. (3) limiting cutting forces. and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials.7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining.2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation. lapping..6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer. Answer. 24. (2) roughing or finishing operation. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost. 24. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity. Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup.1 Define machinability. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. 24. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. (2) tool nose radius. (2) forces and power. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work. whether turning or milling. and tool shape (nose radius in particular).9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms. which factors are affected by cutting speed. What is the fourth term? 162 . The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. feed. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design. and (4) surface roughness requirements. Answer. 24. 24. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. and (3) feed or chip load. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. Answer. Because additional operations such as grinding. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions. strength.g.

0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material. or (e) sawing. (a) 24. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (f) low value of Ra. (d) surface roughness. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. (b) drilling. (a) 24. 24. dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge.6 When cutting a ductile work material. (c) end milling. which means lower value of Ra. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. (c) high value of Ra. (c) end milling. (d) planing. (b). (e) stainless steel.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following.Answer. Cutting speed for minimum cost.5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. or (g) unhardened tool steel. (b) drilling. all correct answers must be given. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). In general. whose rating = 1. Answer. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. if applicable) the tool. Answer. (g) zero shear plane angle. (e) 24. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer. which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. (b) cutting temperature. and (f) 24.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. Answer. (d) long tool life. (e). Answer. Answer. (e) tool life. which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. (b) 24.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1. or (f) tool wear. (d). (f) titanium alloys. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. (d) planing.4 163 . or (e) turning. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) copper. an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. (e) low cutting forces. (a) 24. (b) cast iron. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) ease of chip disposal. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum. 24. (d) low carbon steel. The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding.

the Taylor parameters were n = 0.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time.96 = 96% 24.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0.29 = 256.24.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison.27 = 179. Answer.5 = 1.22 and C = 420.27 and C = 450. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60.7 m/min MR = 198.27 = (3. or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost. the parameter values were n = 0. and (b) setup time for the machine tool. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0. Answer.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/.8/58.22 = 198.29 = 152. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min.107 = 110.9 24.3/152.8 min MR = 107.5 = 1. (b) 24.21 = 169.6/256. (a) Problems Machinability 24. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison.84 = 184% 164 . These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling. For the new material. For the new material.8) 4.0) 3. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting.2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results.21 and C = 400.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/.22 = (2.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10. and (d) tool change time.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10. Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min. For the base material (B1112 steel). A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material. For the base material (B1112).21 = 246.3 m/min MR = 169.29 and C = 500.704= 58.6 = 1. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.545 = 107. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30. Answer. Compute the machinability rating for this case.7/179.4 = 0.6 m/min MR = 246. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.

010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min.2.2 in Eq. From Fig. feed = 0. From Fig. (a) From Table 24.196 mm (here.5 = 1. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30.6) = 195 ft/min. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min.75)(10-3) = 38. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1. MR for 4130 = 0. rai = 1.3). (b) From Table 24. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging. = 100 µin.50. and speed = 2 m/s.35(144. (24.1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. = 150 µin.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. MR for B1113 = 1.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart.3 Ra = 1.100 in. rai = 1. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness.3 x 1.1.65.3).556 = 144. Recommended v30 = 1. and depth of cut = 4. rai = 1.02 x 100 = 102 µ in.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used. (24.2. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0. extrapolating Figure 24.0 mm. Recommended v30 = 0. Determine the surface roughness for this cut. 24.2 mm/rev. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0.2 = 1.1. (c) From Table 24.1.8 Solve previous Problem 24.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0.50(144. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.010 in/rev and d = 0.196(10-8) m2 165 .02 Ra = 1. Recommended v30 = 0. 24.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling.84(10-8) m2 f = (3. 24. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min.2 Ri = 1.75)(10-3)/1.00125 mm.24.2 = 31. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0.6(10-6)(32)(0. Based on this information.015 in/pass.96(10-4) m = 0. MR for C1008 = 0.00015 in.6) = 94 ft/min.0 mm.35.6 µm.9 Ra = 1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. Surface Roughness 24.2 ratio rai = 1.13 and C = 225.9 x 150 = 285 µ in. 24. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy.25 µm.0001 in.63 µ m. and machinability data given in Table 24.84(10-8) m2)0. the nose radius on the tool = 1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.6 ft/min.2. 24.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1. so Ra = 1.4(10-9) = 3. = 1. feed rate = 0. Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut.0 in Eq.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials.125 in. From Fig.65(144.4 In a turning operation on cast iron.6) = 72 ft/min.96(10-9) = 3. 24. from Figure 24.6(10-6)(32)(0. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness.25 = 1. The nose radius on the tool = 0.75 mm.13 = 225/1.2 ratio rai = 1. and depth of cut = 0. Determine the surface roughness for this operation. Cutting speed = 150 m/min.

24.0 in Eq. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.0 in.2)(10-3) = 61.27 = 25.2 mm. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.35(0. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v.3(4)(0.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50.2 ratio rai = 1.5 = 2.13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel.2 ratio rai = 1.144(10-8) m2 f = (6.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0.2 ratio rai = 1.75 mm 24. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter.5 m/s and d = 3.3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0.3).0 mm. Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR.79(10-4) m = 0.27. and (3) increase relief angle. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3.5 = 7.35f 2/32NR Rearranging.48(10-4) m = 0. so Ra = 1. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min. The nose radius on the tool = 1. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min. To obtain the best possible finish. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min. Cutting conditions: v = 1.8 µm.9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1. The work material is cast iron. (24.3 mm/rev. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25.0 mm. 24. 166 .44(10-9) = 6.35Ri = 1.179 mm (here. fr = Nntf = 509. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f. (2) increase rake angle.6(10-6)(32)(1.27 = 32/1.f = 3.5 = 1.3 rev/min. NR = 1. and d = 4. Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.00475 m = 4. from Figure 24.196(10-8) m2)0. f = 0. (24.6 µm. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in. Without knowing any more about the job. from Figure 24. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA).0071 in/rev.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1.46 in/min.0071) = 14. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min.35 in Eq.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in.144(10-8) m2)0. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected.8)(10-6) = 0. and that the depth of cut will be 0. (2) increase cutting speed v.080 in. N = v/πD = (400 x 12)/3π = 509. so Ra = 1. which is a ductile grade. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation. Therefore.3).1 x 10-3 = 0. from Figure 24. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work.2 µin.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1.248 mm (here.4 x 10-6). Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra. The part is made of a free-machining steel. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate. (3) use cutting fluid. Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50.

8 µin.25-0. The operator and machine tool rate = $30. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.125(0.15 = 64/1.015 in/tooth.506) 7. and cutting speed = 150 ft/min. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm.45.015) 2/(1.13 = (1.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1.15.0. rai = 1. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0.518) = 0.45.4 mm/rev. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling.125(0.51 in 3/min.15 = 55. 25.fnt/π) = 0.15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2. Machining Economics 24.00.50 min to change tools.50 in diameter.125(0. Ra = 1.35 mm/tooth.35x4/π) = 0. From Fig. (b) tool life in min of cutting.26 = 50. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83.45.1)(3. It takes 2. 167 .692 = 23.8 µ in. From Fig.43 Ra = 1.015x4/π) = 22.5D . MRR = 2.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0. 25.125f 2/(0. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.Try v = 400 ft/min. rai = 1.25+0.503) = 0. 24. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling.26.0091 in/rev. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(.4 x 49. Compare at v = 300 ft/min.45.13 . Ra = 1.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83.43 Ra = 1. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation.8) 1/.5D+fnt/π) = 0.fnt/π) = 0. The chip load f = 0. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter.35x4/π) = 0.13 = 75/[6. MRR = 3.5D + fnt/π) = 0.2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76. rai = 1.2 x 10-6). (b) Tmax = (75/49. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50.719 µ m.0087 in/rev. 25. which maximizes MRR = 3.0091 in/rev.43(0.741 µ m.015x4/π) = 22.5)].35) 2/(30 + 0.4 x 10-6).125(0.42 min.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76.125f 2/(.6 µin.27 = 49. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.8 x 103) = 3. rai = 1. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.5 = 0. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product. From Fig.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter.35) 2/(30 .26 Ri Ri = Ra/1.26 = 64/1.125f 2/(0.5 = 0.51 in 3/min.5D .8 m/min.015) 2/(1.692 x 3. 25.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/.51 in3/min. From Fig. and (b) down-milling. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. Feed = 0.00/hr. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0. and cutting speed v = 1. 24.787 min.518 µm.5] .503 µm.2 µ in.125f 2/(.43(0.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating. and (b) down-milling.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3.0 m/s. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55.

034) 3.5 + 4.27 and C = 1200.06) + 2. The workpart to be used in the 168 .704 x 1.50(6. Co = $33/hr = $0. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.0 min.692 = 76.1)(.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped.55/min Cc = 0.0/7 = $3.1)(1.825)]. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3.1)(.27 = 1200/[2.00/hr.42 min/pc. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0.0 + 4.787 = 6. np = 4. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0.55(5. np = 76. It takes 3. Cc = 0. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/. and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20.5] .27 .00/6 = $3.055/1. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1.50/((1/.18 except that in part (a).50 min to change tools.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.00/hr.6 m/min. The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5.50/min vmin = 75[.323 min.704 x 2.50/(6.76) 7.42/3.63 min/pc.75)].0/3 = $3.0 + 1.27 = (2.00/hr.16 except that in part (a).42 + 3.323 + 1.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.704 = 4.06 min/pc.55(5.55/min vmin = 1200[.55/(2. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/.85/pc 24.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.50 x 3.27 = (1.0 + 1. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(3)(18)/(.5 + 2.27 = 590 ft/min.07/pc 24.27 = 822 ft/min. (b) Tmin = (75/42.0/17 = $3.27 .0 in.13 . The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0. np = 13. For the brazed insert. there are four cutting edges per insert.0 in and diameter = 3.460) 3. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product. (b) tool life in min of cutting.823) + 2. the price of the tool = $30.843 + 1.4 x 42.55/((1/.13 = (1.00.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).00.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.323 = 3.843 = 7.6) 1/.25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0. For the disposable inserts.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling.823 min/pc.42 = 17.37 min/pc.13 = 42.19 Solve previous Problem 24.96/4.843 min. and the tool change time = 1.17 Solve previous Problem 24.5/6 = 6. price of each insert = $6.0 + 3. determine cutting speed for minimum cost. (c) Tm = πDL/fv = π(80)(300)/(. Cc = 0.00))].55 x 1. The feed = 0.00))].704 = 13.5/3 = 4.06 min.63) + 4.5/17 = 6.013 in/rev. The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33.37) + 4.692 x 5. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/.89 min.0 min.6 x 103) = 4.89/1.5)].55/pc 24.5/7 = 5. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2. Machine time on the lathe costs $24.787 + 3.27 = 1200[.np = 23.96 min.50(6. Cc = 0. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.13 = 75[.32/pc 24.18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18.013 x 590 x 12) = 1.013 x 822 x 12) = 1.

0/8 = 3.20 except that in part (a).40/min.4 + 1.25 .67/18 = $1.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2.25 = 300[0.5 mm in diameter. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production.9/0. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.25 min.25 = 228.0/((1/0. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.40 x 3.0 + 1.50))].0) = 3.0/18 = 4.30)(10-3)(154.0/1.30 mm/rev.50/8 = $1. (c) Tm = π(62.25 .0/(3 x 3.0))]. cemented carbide.0)].0 + 1.67)/0.16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2.67/edge vmax = 300[1. and ceramic.0 m/min.67/6 = $2.87)]. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem.72) + 1.0 min to load and unload the work.4) = 36.0 m/min.4 = 3(1. (b) Tmax = (1/0.0/(3 x 1.1)(0.59 + 1.0 + 1.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.21 Solve previous Problem 24.1)(3) = 3(3. Cc = 0.0) = 3(1.2 m/min.25 = 300[1.25 .67/edge vmin = 300[0.4) = 1.30)(10-3)(173.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.1)(0.40(3.4) = 14.40/min. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel.42 = 6.34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.25 .25 = 173.1)(0.25 = 300[0. the 169 .25 = 154.40/(3 x 4.87/0. and it takes 2. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.25 = 300[1.50/edge vmax = 300[1.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.5)(375)/(0.58) + 1.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.58 min/pc.08 = 2.5/2.0 + 3. (b) Tmin = (1/0.0 + 1.01 min/pc np = 36.0 min.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.92) + 3.40/((1/0.comparison is 375 mm long and 62. Cc = 0. (c) Tm = π(62.92 min/pc. Ct = $6/4 = $1.1)(3.42 min/pc np = 9. For the two tooling cases.40(3. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.2) = 1. (c) Tm = π(62.50/2 = $2.0/6 = 3.5)(375)/(0. Cc = 0.78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2.1)(1.0)].25 .5)(375)/(0.4 m/min. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.4 = 3(4.25 = 122.18 min/pc.0 min.59 min/pc np = 14.72 min/pc.01 = 18.59 = 8.0/2 = 3. For the high speed steel tool. The feed = 0.67))].25 .40(3. (b) tool lives.25/1.01 + 3. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate.5)(375)/(0.40/min.0)].4 x 3 + 3.08 min/pc np = 3.18) + 3.08 + 1.5)/0. (c) Tm = π(62.40(4.1)(1. Cycle time and cost per piece are less. 24.40/(3 x 1.0) = 9.5 min. cycle times are less.40 x 1. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece.0/((1/0. 24. Ct = $6/4 = $1.50/edge vmin = 300[0.0/1.40/min.30)(10-3)(122) = 2.9)].25 . Cc = 0.42 + 3.0 + 2. (b) Tmin = (1/0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.1)(0.40/((1/0.25 .

8 hr.1)(0. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0. The cost of machine time = $30/hr.Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0. vmin = 70[0.81 + 3.74 pc/hr. Co = $30/hr = $0.1)(.1)(0.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0 mm and length = 290 mm.0)]. The cost per insert for the carbide = $6.125 = 42.6 = 3.16) + 1.0 mm.6 and C = 3.50)/.0/11 = 7.81 = 11.00))].50(2.50 x 1 + 1.25 pc/hr. (d) Cc = 0.16 min/pc.0 hr.0 + 0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.81min/pc np = 56/4.50(7.50(2.50 = $2.00/edge.125 . (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.0(60) + 100(7.0/12 = 2.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.25(10-3)42.125 and C = 70. vmin = 500[.0 min for both tools.79 min/pc.33))]. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.25 .50) = 56 min. vmin = 3. (b) tool lives.50/(.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2.0 + 2.50/. The price of the HSS tool is $15.667(1.50 = 3(1. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.1)(.783 hr = 14. and for the ceramic: n = 0.50/((1/.0/21 = 2. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.1)(.25 mm/rev.125 .08) = 828 min = 13.65 hr.50) = 9 min.667 x 1.44/0.50 x 1 + 1.0(60) + 100(2.25(10-3)1756) = 0.706)/399 = 0. (d) Cc = 0.6 .50 x 1.116 min/pc np = 2.50 = 7(4.581 = 58.6 = 1756 m/min.0 + 1.50/min. (c) cycle time. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6.25 and C = 500.81)/828 = 0. The part dimensions are: diameter = 56.83)].0/. and depth = 3. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0.44 min.50 x 1.50/((1/.0 + 0.25 . (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.00 and for the ceramic = $8. Co = $30/hr = $0.00/12 = $1.50) = 2.33/edge.08 min/pc.50/11 = $3.000[.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.00.33/21 = $1.50 = 0.50)].0)/. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.50/(3 x 1. Setup time for the batch is 2. Time to change parts = 2.50/((1/.706min/pc np = 9/0. Tool change time = 1.000.0 min.6 .4 m/min. (d) Cc = 0. Feed = 0.50/edge.50.08) + 2.50/(7 x 4.25(10-3)289) = 0.25 = 289 m/min.33)/.116 + 1. (b) Tmin = (1/. (b) Tmin = (1/0.0 + 1.125 = 70[0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.706 = 12.50 x 3 + 2.25 = 500[.706 + 1.50/min. (b) Tmin = (1/.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2.50))].1)(0.0 + 4.4) = 4.15/pc 170 .177 = 17. Co = $30/hr = $0.50 x 3.79) + 1.77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.000[. Tool change time = 3 min.79) = 399 min = 6.50/min.83/.8 hr = 7. (d) cost per production unit. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1. For the three tooling cases.

6 = 3.25 = 380 m/min. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0/5 = 2.537 min/pc np = 3/0. 171 . The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.50/edge. (d) Cc = 0.14 min/pc.053 min/pc np = 0.1)(3. vmax = 70/[(1/.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.(e) Time to complete batch = 2.33/edge.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.23 Solve previous Problem 24.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate.6 hr = 17.1)(1.22 except that in parts (a) and (b). (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.25(10-3)3825) = 0.125 . Co = $30/hr = $0. Co = $30/hr = $0.667 min. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6.0 min.67 hr = 7. setup time and workpart handling time.25min/pc np = 21/4.116)/336 = 0.125 = 70/[7 x 3)].50/min. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0)].1)(1.6 . (b) Tmax = (1/0. vmax = 3.667 x 1.6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2.00/edge.537)/394 = 0.0 + 0.6 .00) + 2.25 .1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min. Co = $30/hr = $0.67 hr.50/min.0] . and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.74) = 394 min = 6.25(10-3)380) = 0.25 .25 + 3. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.0)].000/[.50/min. vmax = 500/[(1/. However.537 + 1.50/4 = $4.125 .25(10-3)484) = 4.23 pc/hr.0 + 0.0) = 3(1.9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2.00/5 = $1.0/4 = 7.667(1) = .60 hr.0)].57 hr = 15.25)/820 = 0.6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.00) = 820 min = 13. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.0 + 4.1)(1) = 0.86 pc/hr. (b) Tmax = (1/0.125 = 48 m/min.0) = 3. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.50 = $2.518 = 51.25 = 4. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13. (d) Cc = 0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.053 + 1.0(60) + 100(2.57 hr.1)(1.0(60) + 100(7. 24.537 = 5.667/0.32 pc/hr.74 min/pc.0(60) + 100(2. batch time.16) = 336 min = 5.000/[(1/. specifically.136 = 13.035 = 3.0/12 = 2.6 = 3825 m/min.74) + 1.00 min/pc.50(7. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.50(2. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. (c) Tm = π(56)(290(10-6))/(0.0)]. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.

293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed.015) = 13.23 = 850/[(3.00 min). The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2.50 per cutting edge. 24.96 pc/hr. Tmax = (1/. 24. Tm = π(28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42. (c) cost of the production 172 .NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0. and tooling cost = $3. The feed rate = 0. vmax = 850/[(1/.8 = 2.7 + 3/. (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.1)(3.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0. Tm = π(28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.00/cutting edge.50(2. Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece.00 in and its length = 10 in.26 and C = 900 (ft/min).0 min.0) = 3.0)]. specifically.125 in.14) = 334 min = 5. 5 .57 hr.23 and C = 850 (ft/min). What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling. Rc = 60/29.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling. The starting diameter of the work is 3. the cutting tool must be periodically changed.7 min/pc np = 10/13. 4 .14) + 1.348(3.2 + 3/15 = 46.8 min.25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle.4 min.4 min).00/hr.10 min).2 min/pc np = 540/34. Rc = 60/46. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.00 min.23 = 500 ft/min. and 6 .053)/334 = 0. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0. The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 .4 = 1. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time. However. Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min. This tool change time takes 1.016 = 1. In addition.73 = 29.(d) Cc = 0.0(60) + 100(2.23 = 540 min.7 = 0.0 min.015 in/rev. feed = 0.33/12 = $1.007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0.Operator loads part into machine.1)(3.0 min. Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish. 2 . setup time and workpart handling time.100 in.015) = 34. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost. The diameter = 28.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1.348 x 3.24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts.18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. Tool change time = 3. The time required to load and unload the parts = 12.NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed).2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed).57 hr = 17.23 . (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%. The operator loads and unloads the machine.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed.0) = 10.0)].73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13.00 min). starts cycle (1. and depth = 0. batch time. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0.23 .0 in. 3 .0 in and the length of the bore = 14.

010 x 0. tool life T = (200/125) 1/. volume cut per tool life = 43/0. Solution: Cutting dry.45 = $5.5 in 3 between tool changes.65/((1/.125 = 140.125 and C = 200.9 in 3 between tool changes.125 and C = 225.50 x 2. (2) At 125 ft/min. (24. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430.36 min/pc.65 x 1.00)/72.65)].0 + 2.5 = $0.65/min.125 = (1.26 . Assume both passes have equal Tm.1)(. volume cut per tool life = 110/0.010 x 0. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better.5927 min. For T = 110 min. Tm = 1.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2.36) + (0. cost/in 3 = 0.0(60) + 300(7. Tm = π(3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel.0/(140. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).100) = 0. vmin = 900[.5927 = 72.100) = 0.5 min.6/2.5 + 2.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts.846 x 2.1)(. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr. Ignore effects of workpart handling time.5 + 2 x 2.6 x 12 x 0. and Co = $30/hr = $0. Tt = 2.65) = 11. The ideal roughness is given by Eq. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison. cost/in 3 = 0.100 in. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life.0 in3/MRR = 1.50(.6) 8 = 43 min. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2.75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7.63 min/pc.00/cutting edge. (1) cutting at a speed of 140.45 = 7.010 in/rev and depth = 0. 24.65/(2.5 min.2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness. np = 2.353/in3.36 = 4. Use 1.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life. the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation.846(2.00)/164. np = 11.26 = 476 ft/min..65 x 1 + 2. 24. Justify you answer with calculations. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0.6667 = 164.0/(125 x 12 x 0. which effect is better.5 + 2 x 2.65/.007) = 2.6667) + (0. given that tooling cost = $2.00 per cutting edge. (c) Cc = . With a cutting fluid.0 in3/MRR = 1.36 + 1.341/in3. (1) At 140.0/2.77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3. Time to index each 173 . Ignoring work handling time.6 min.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison.5927) + (0. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8. Tm = 1. Ignoring work handling time.26 As indicated in Section 24.9 = $0.4.65 = 2. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0. Feed = 0.26 .50/min. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool.50(.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3.26 = 900[.65(2. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min.6667 min.00 and there are four edges per insert).5 + 2.15 hr.00)/2. tool change time = 2.6 ft/min. For T = 43 min.0)/. (c) Economically.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24. (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid.00))]. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling. taking into account the material and cutting speed.63) = 2469 min = 41.65 x 1 + 2.50 x 2.125. (b) Tmin = (1/. At v = 125 ft/min.cycle.

65/(0. in/rev. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure.4(10-6) in.5 ft/min and f = 0.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq. min.00794 in. (interpreted as in.23))(0.5 ft/min Select v = 353.2. (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).23 = 612.5 vmin = 582.09357}0.55 = 40.23 f 0.5 min. (24.75/f0.5 x 10-6)0. Ct = $1.15).65/(0.5(10-6) in.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355.E.75/cutting edge.9).18 = 53. (24.14): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .5 µ-in.75/f0.75/0.2 = 63(10-6) in.6 vmin = 609. = 63 x 10-6 in.5 + 1. The workpiece length = 30.23))(0. = 53.75)}0.23/(1-0.D Verify that the derivative of Eq. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0.75)}0. v = cutting speed. ft/min. the ratio from Figure 24.0 in and its diameter = 3./rev for turning) C = vT0.4(10-6) in.5 = 0.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24.8): Tc = Th + πDL/fv + Tt(πDLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (πDL/f)v-1 + (TtπDL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .65 x 0.2 rai = 1.23 = 582. = 52.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0.55 = 40.00794 = 582.5 = 0. The machine and operator’s rate = $39. Solution: Starting with Eq.75)}0. C = vT0.23 = 40.5{0.5 = 0.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337. (24.23 = 40.5{0.23))(0.6{0.5{(0.14) results in Eq.2 = 53.4 x 10-6) in.2 = 52.2 = 63/1.23 = 609.(πDL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(πDL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (πDL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)πDL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 . (24.8 ft/min.2 = 52.5 x 10-6) in. the ratio from Figure 24.65/min.5 vmin = 612. Ri = Ra/1.00 per hour including applicable overheads.2 ft/min.29 Q.23 = 40.23 = 337.75. Solution: Starting with Eq. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec.00731 in.5 + 1. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52.5(10-6) in.75/0. (24. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in.23 = 353.00725 = 612.1). where T = tool life.4 x 10-6)0.0073 in/rev.23 = 355.55 = 40. Rearranging Eq.23/(1-0.65 x 0. and f = feed. Ri = Ra/1.75/f0.18.09357}0.4 µ-in.00731 = 609.8) results in Eq. Thus. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53.5 in.2 f = (52. C = vT0.23/(1-0. (24.6{(0.2 f = (53.65/(0.65 x 0.75/0.2 rai = 1. 24.5{(0. (24.55 = 40.2 = 63/1.00725 in. Thus.5 + 1.09357}0.

D 175 .E.vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.

(4) resinoid. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting. 25. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. and (5) wheel grade. A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material. 25. Answer.8 Grinding creates high temperatures.clay and ceramics. and (3) bond fracture. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond .7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer. 25. and (6) metallic. (2) attritious wear. High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer. 25. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel. Review Questions 25. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel. in which the grains become dull during cutting. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains. and (4) diamond. (2) silicate. (3) bonding material. (4) wheel structure. (3) rubber. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels. (2) very fine finishes.25 25. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect . How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide. (3) cubic boron nitride.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer. and (3) close tolerances.5 What is wheel structure? Answer. Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials. (2) silicon carbide. What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer. 25.smaller chip size means higher specific energy. (2) grit size. (5) shellac. An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart. 25. 176 .6 What is wheel grade? Answer. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness.1 25. The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture.

or (d) turning.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer. Answer. lapping. 25. Instead of a grinding wheel. 25..12 25. (b) milling. superfinishing. abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion. (b) cubic boron nitride. or (c) silicon carbide. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes. rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate. and polishing. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates. For each question.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer. the depth of cut is very high . buffing. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding.25.11 What is truing. Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e. 25. Choose a diamond wheel. (c) shaping. 25. and (4) reduce workpiece temperature. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. 25. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 25.and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction. (3) wash away chips. Truing is similar to dressing.2 Of the following abrasive materials. (2) remove heat. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 177 . and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. High finish abrasive processes include: honing.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding .14 What is centerless grinding? Answer.10 What is dressing. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits. In creep feed grinding. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer.1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates.g. 25. which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (b) 25.

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π/4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π/4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = NπD = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = πDN = π(7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = π(125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π(0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π(150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135° °

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = πDrNr sin I = π(5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note: Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

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(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX-S-150-E-5-B-XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX-B-150-P-XY-V-XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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and (4) chemical.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining. 26. WJC cuts with a narrow. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. but not including conventional machining.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer. based on principal energy form. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26. As discharge current increases. and grinding. 26. 26.4 Describe the water jet cutting process. 183 . abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency. MRR increases and surface finish is degraded. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer. Answer. perform the cutting. 26. Answer. The three types are: electrochemical machining.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes. 26. The four categories are: (1) mechanical. Answer. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer. cavity. abrasive water jet cutting. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. deburring. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining. and is fed slowly into the work. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface. 26. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part. or kerf (in wire EDM). Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes.6 26. high velocity water stream.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. The abrasives. (2) electrical.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting. impinging against the work surface. In ultrasonic machining. Answer. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge. Name the four categories. Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. 26. (3) thermal. 26. Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream.

(b) 5500°C (10.000°F). (d) 26. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (4) demasking. (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels. (d) ultrasonic machining.14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining. (2) masking. (3) etching. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. The four steps are: (1) cleaning. it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. propane.000°C (20. MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene). Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge.Answer. (a). (b) laser beam machining. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 26. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. Answer.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false. The three steps are: (1) cut and peel. Answer.000°F). (a) 26. (e) water jet cutting. Principal fuels are acetylene.13 26.500°C (30. propylene. 26. all correct answers must be given. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) 8300°C (15.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). 184 . Answer. 26. and natural gas 26. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (d).1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding.diameter ratio. When exposed.12 26. and (f) wire EDM. (c) milling.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting. and (e). and (3) photographic resist. (c). Answer.000°F). and (e) cutting of plastic sheets.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false.000°F). What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (e) 16. (b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal. What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer. (c) and (d). (d) 11. 26.5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to. and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light. (2) screen resist.

(c) C I t. and (g) wire EDM. (d) laser beam machining. and (g) wire EDM. and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in). identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used.0625 in).0 by 5. (d) and (f).6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. (f) water jet cutting. Answer. (b) chemical milling. The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. where A = degree of anisotropy. (b) chemical milling. 75 by 125 mm (3.26. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (e) oxyfuel cutting. Answer. Of the following processes.1 mm (0. t = time.9 26. less than 0.11 Problems General 26. (b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address. (d) oxyfuel cutting. (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. I = current. (b) electrochemical machining.1 For each of the following applications. and (g) wire EDM. d = depth of cut. (a) A matrix of 0. C = specific removal rate. (c) EDM.8 26. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1.004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3. (d) laser beam machining. in a 3/8. (d) laser beam machining.7 26. Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining. 26. (c) laser beam machining. (c) EDM. (d) laser beam machining. and u = undercut. and (g) wire EDM.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section.15 in).0 by 0. the depth of the hole is 3.10 26.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining.75 in). (c) EDM. (e) oxyfuel cutting.015 inch wide. (f) ultrasonic machining.6 mm ( 0. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1. and present arguments to support your selection.125 in) thick hardened tool steel. (c) EDM. (e) and (g). and (e) u/d. (e) oxyfuel cutting.2 mm (0. 0. and (g) water jet cutting.0 by 0. which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining. Answer. Answer. (e) plasma arc cutting. The matrix is rectangular.8 mm (0. 185 . (b) chemical milling. (d) d/u.5 in) thick plate of glass.5 mm (0. Answer.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (f) water jet cutting. (f) water jet cutting. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12. (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2.0 in) cube of steel. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0.6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in). (b) 1/A. (f) water jet cutting. Answer. (a) and (d). (b) chemical milling.

1. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application. WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0.5 in 2..56 mm3/s = 3693.125/0.125 inch thick hardened steel. C = 3.5 In an electrochemical machining operation.15 in.25. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application. (a) If the process is 90% efficient. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. LBM might also work. 26.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts. (26. Solution: In plasma arc cutting.2). determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min. by 14 in posters. (26. whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26.004 in.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3. This is probably the best process. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm.6 mm3/min) = 3324.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0. in block of steel. which properties make them difficult to cut.004 = 31. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation.1. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine. and the voltage = 12 volts. Rearranging. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials.5 inch thick plate glass. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26.1. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive. hole diameter = 0.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm.2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. The applied current = 1500 amps.9(3693. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0. The material being cut is pure aluminum. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. (a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 . and the process could be readily automated. separation between holes = 0. I = EA/gr in Eq. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2).6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. 26. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material. making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods.0625 in. Possible process: photochemical engraving. Electrochemical Machining 26. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq.3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics.095 mm 26.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61.

(a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps.3675 mm/s) = 0.349 mm/s) = 57.efficient. (26.005 in on a side.000126 in 3/A-min.280/812 = 16. 187 . At 90% efficiency fr = 0.9 Same as Problem 26.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency.1.0000476 = 2101 A.2) = 0.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten.1.0 in thick. Electric Discharge Machining 26.189(0.0032 in.95(0.553 = 0.280/22.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut.S.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through.2 ohm-in.1701 in 3/min = 10.3 s 26. fr = 0. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2. MRR = KI/Tm1. To speed the cutting process. Solution: From Table 26. Customary units and express the answer in in 3.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4. fr = CI/A = 0. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut. To cut through a 2.000135 in 3/A-min.1.6) fr = CI/A = (7.0000529 I) = 0.000126(1500) = 0. Rearranging.7). C = 0.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency.23 = 664(20)/(2321.0/20 = 0.0000476 I in/min.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency. The block is 2.23 = 664(20)/(34101.206 in3/hr. 26.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0.0000476 I I = 0. The hole is 25 mm on each side. The applied current = 1000 amps. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr.25π(3.1.146 = 0.3.878 mm3 26.90) = 0. Use U. Using an efficiency of 95%.02) = 2. (b) I = EA/gr.5)/(1500 x 6. C = 7.000135 I/2. (26.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick.9(0.7).1 in/min. MRR = KI/Tm1. Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 4.23) = 13.1 = 0.5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2.7 A 3. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26. determine the amount of material removed in the same time. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6.355 mm3/s = 58. C = 0.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3.23) = 13. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.1/0. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq.8. determine how long it will take to cut the hole. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.52 . g = EA/Ir = 12(2. The overcut is expected to be 0. (b) If the work material were tin. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc. (26.1.553 in 2 From Table 26. fr = 0.

925 = 0.93/16.083 in/min. (26.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart.01 I = 0. MRR = 5.7).165(7.125 mm.0107 in3/min 26. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0. MRR = 5.79 mm/min 26. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates.005 in.000292 = 34. using Eq.23 = 5.08 I/17.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0.0 inch thickness = 2.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0.002293 = 874. Using Eq. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum.002293 in/min.4/1.75(0.08(20)/(61701.1.23 = 101.1.24)/26511.0/0.007 in. Using a discharge current = 7 amps. Tm = 2802°F for iron.248 = 0.56/6255 = 0.393 = 0. Solution: From Figure 6. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq.6/17.553 = 0.02 mm. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4.01/0.000292 I = 0. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation.155 mm2 fr = 49.01 in 3/min.4. Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM).Solution: (a) From Table 4.005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0.13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0. MRR = 664(10)/(15001.1. (27. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 .23 = 35. MRR = 5. 26.08(20)/28021. MRR = KI/Tm1.00525 = 1. Using a discharge current = 10 amps.6/45. (26. in preliminary cuts.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM.7).7).08(7)/12201.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6. MRR = 5.23) = 6640/8065 = 0. 3 (b) From Table 4.1327 in.23 = 5. MRR = KI/Tm1. (26. 3/s = 3.1.23 = 5.1. 3 26.0) = 1.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2. MRR = 5.23 (USCS).000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0.08(20)/(4201.001 in.005685/0.0603 in. Tm = 2802°F for iron.007) = 0. so that the kerf width will be 0. Tm = 2651 F for iron.155 = 42. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq.00525 in 2 fr = 0.08 I/28021.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26.6/1685 = 0. (26. Time to machine the 2.393 = 0. 26.4.23) = 101.23 = 173. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0. 0.00584/2.3 min = 14.165 mm. what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4. From Table 4.08(34.7). From Table 4.11 A metal removal rate of 0.24 A. 3/s = 0.7).00221 in.57 hr. However.23) = 101.08 I/Tm1. so that the kerf width will be 0.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0.1.62 in. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.

The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9. The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9.75.16965 in 3/min = 10.28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6." he suggests.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26.2 = 5.001 in/min)(169.024 = 500 min.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0.33 hr. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method.0 – 0.4/0. The penetration rate for this combination is 0.807 mm2) = 1915.024 mm/min)(79.025 mm are not being achieved.8 in 26.9(a).8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6.4 in. area of an ellipse A = πab = π(9.0 = 0.14 mm 26.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0.86 = 8.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate.75. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased.. As it turns out.25 mm thick. the process is producing a large proportion of scrap.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy.001 = 400 min.807 mm2 MRR = (0. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr. Chemical Machining 26. surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges. = 6.86) = 386. undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1. = 8.0 in. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.65 in. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant. The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH.000 – 193 = 79. The sheet is 0.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm.86) = 186. Specified tolerances of ±0. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy. The photoresist method should have been used. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution.0. undercut u = d/Fe = 0. (b) time required to machine to depth.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6.65 in 2) = 0. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm.4 mm3/min.4/2. (c) Given Fe = 2.2 = 8. 2 MRR = (0. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min.75 = 6.0)(6. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm.π(15) 2) = 80. (c) Given Fe = 1.0) = 54π = 169. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0.0 in and b = 6. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth.0 – 0. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased.67 hr. "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect. 189 .28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 . The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. by 6 in.

0914 in. 190 . Undercut u = 0.2(0. Diameter of opening = 0. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern.0043 in.0075 in. etching will occur on both sides of the part. determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern.015 in. consisting of a matrix of 0.0043) = 0.75. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern.75 = 0. Fe = 1.015/2 = 0. Solution: From Table 26. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0.26. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes.100 .0075/1.18 In a chemical blanking operation.100 in diameter holes. Therefore. In chemical blanking.2.

and nickel. 27. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. 27. If the steel is heat treated. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer. Review Questions 27. 27. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling.6 What function is served by tempering? Answer. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working. Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching. Answer. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase.27 27. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve.4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer. Answer.3 27. Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed.1 27.7 Define hardenability? Answer. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened.11 How does carburizing work? Answer. 27. 191 . molybdenum.8 27. relieve stresses.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel. 27. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer.2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer. Answer.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods. 27. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour. manganese. thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite.10 Define precipitation hardening? Answer. and increase toughness and ductility. 27.

electron beam (EB) heating. (b) brass. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. or (f) tempering. (b). (b) quenching.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. (c) oil. or (e) vacuum furnaces. (b) carbonitriding.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating. Answer.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (b) brine.Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 27. (d). (a). (c) induction heating. however. or (e) nitriding. (b) ductility.2 Of the following quenching media. (b) increase toughness. or (c) solution treatment. (d) laser beam heating. (d) hardness. Answer. Answer. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) hardenability.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. (a) 27. (b) fluidized bed furnaces. (d) 27. or (d) steel. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (f). (d) reduce brittleness. (c) austenitizing. (d) normalizing. (a). (c) recrystallization of the metal. (c) 27.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness. or (e) strength. the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability. Answer. 27. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.6 In precipitation hardening. (c) carburizing. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (d). (c). and laser beam (LB) heating. (c). For each question. Answer. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air. all correct answers must be given. (e) reduce density. (f) 27. Answer. Answer. 192 . (c) copper alloys. 27. or (f) relieve stresses. (d) chromizing. Answer. (b) annealing. (b) 27.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing. induction hardening. or (d) pure water. (e) quenching.

(2) emulsion cleaning.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer. (4) acid cleaning and pickling. such as metal chips. 28. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. In mass finishing. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing. The process is also known as aluminizing.9 What is calorizing? Answer. 193 . improving smoothness. 28. adding luster. buffing. (3) solvent cleaning. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. 28. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning. 28. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material. Answer. alloy steels. but the process involves penetration of high.8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer. 28. and scale. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling). Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding.4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods.5 In addition to surface cleaning. (2) solid particles. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface. polishing. abrasive grits. Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface. Ion implantation produces a similar result. 28. shop dirt. Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28. (3) buffing and polishing compounds. honing. What are the reasons? Answer. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. (2) to improve hygiene conditions. lapping. and dust. Answer. 28. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance. 28.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer. and (4) oxide films. and enhancing surface properties. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement. rust.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing? Answer.

(a). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) limestone. (b) corundum. and (e) SiC. such as barrel tumbling. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing.1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance. (a). Answer.2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. Answer. (d) SiC. (b) blast finishing.4 In sand blasting. (b) crushed nut shells. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3.3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false. 28. (a). (c). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (e). or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. Answer. (e) 28. (c). For each question. (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength. Answer. or (d) trichlorethylene.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. or (e) vapor degreasing. (b) sodium hydroxide. or (e) SiO 2.5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing. 28. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. (c) diffusion.6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation. (c) nylon beads. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 28. Answer. 28. (b). (b) doping. (c) hot sand blasting. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) 194 . (a) 28. which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. Answer. (d). or (d) siliconizing. (d). 28. (c) emery. all correct answers must be given. (c) sulfuric acid. and (e). (b). (a) 28. (d) tumbling. Answer.

10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer.3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer. (1) Corrosion protection. (4) organic coating painting. (3) wear resistance. chromates. 29. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal. 29. (5) improved solderability. 29. (2) chemical surface treatments. Steel. The common coating processes are: (1) plating.1 29. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. (3) provide a specified color. that permit the part to be removed.8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. (33.29 29.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer. 195 . One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel.9 What is a conversion coating? Answer. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. electroplating uses electrolysis. (5) porcelain enameling. (2) attractive appearance. Best example is aluminum anodizing. such as a taper. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features. 29. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it. Identify the most common types of coating processes. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. 29. Review Questions 29.1). (2) enhance appearance. Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface.6 29. such as anodizing. (4) increased electrical conductivity. and (2) sacrificial protection. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing. and oxides. Answer. 29.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer.7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface. Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion. The most common conversion coatings are phosphates. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq.

17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer. indicate the distinction. spraying. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim. 29.12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases. immersion (dip coating). TiC and TiN.29. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. and flow coating.15 Name the three basic types of PVD. (3) solvents. Answer.2. 29. These methods are described in Article 33. deposition of metal in electronic connections. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface.. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface. 196 . Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation. 29. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers. (2) dyes or pigments. What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer. The major ingredients are: (1) binder. The main methods include: brushing and rolling. Answer. Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer. 29. In PVD. 29.16 Define sputtering yield? Answer. 29.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings. Titanium nitride (TiN). the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart. antireflection coatings on optical lenses. which are polymers. which provide color. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. TiN).14 29.4.g. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface. 29. and cutting tool coatings (e.13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface.11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures. (2) sputtering.19 29. 29. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure. 29.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer. (2) grain size control. and (3) ion plating.

or (e) zinc. Answer. (c) 0. (b) lead. (d) ion implantation. (d) nickel. Answer. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate. (e) 29. or (e) zinc. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.001 in. 29.24 In porcelain enameling. (b) 29. (d) galvanizing. what is frit? Answer. Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating. (e) 197 . or (e) terneplating. or (e) physical vapor deposition.003 in. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (d) titanium.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition. Answer. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) conversion coating.Answer.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing? (a) iron.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0. For each question. all correct answers must be given. (b) chromium. (c) steel. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer.100 in. (c) electroless plating. Answer. (b) defect in arc welding. (c) steel. 29.6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum. 29.23 29. Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. or (d) 0. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29. with thicknesses up to 0. (a) 29. or (e) phosphate coatings. (b) anodizing. (b) 0. (c) copper. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a) and (d).0001 in. Answer. (b) chromate coatings. (b) magnesium. (d) tin. (e) 29. (d) electroplating. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) diffusion.5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing. or (e) tin.010 in.

3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487.14 Problems Electroplating 29. Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding. (b) liquid solution. (d) electroplating.15 g/cm3.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni. or (d) powders. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion. Answer. Answer. (b) and (c). (b) brazing. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process. (b) an electroplating process.15) = 11.12 29. (c) neon.35 mm3/10. Answer.95(4.95(4.9 29.5 mm3 = 1.8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon.049 mm 29. (c) dip coating.29. Volume V = ECIt = 0. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 . or (e) oxygen.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated. Answer. or (d) metal spraying.1. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition. Answer. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools. Volume V = ECIt = 0.1 ρ = 7. (d) nitrogen. C = 4.000 mm2 = 0.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10. (a) 29. Answer.6245(7. Weight W = 1. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (c) fluidized bed.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4.11 29. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29. Answer.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.10 29.0 in2 is to be chrome plated.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29. (b) hard facing.615 g 29. (c) metallizing. C = 4. (c) and (d). (d) immersion. (b) electrostatic spraying. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface. and (e) roller coating. (c) molten liquid.1.13 29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (b) chlorine.

98(2. C = 1.15(0.1. C = 2.80(3.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29.00073 in. each with a surface area = 0. where I = current.1(20) 2) = 0.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min. cathode efficiency E = 95%. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0.95(1.6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2. C = 0.95 cm2 = 53. At $300/oz.1 min.99 29.15(0.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.003954 t in 3.277) = $82.1.1.698 lb/in 3)(0. 29. total area A = 25(0.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min. Area A = 100(7. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0.02477 in 3) = 0.5) = 12.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0.1.695 = 0.Solution: From Table 29.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0. C = 3. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps.8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0. 0. cathode efficiency E = 95%.00198 in.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0. and t = time.001) = 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. Volume V = ECIt = 0. Solution: From Table 29.00386 in3 29. cathode efficiency E = 98%.00207 in 3.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0.01729 lb = 0.698 lb/in 3. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0.8 in2.1. each with a surface area A = 7.1.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete.57/780 = 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0. 29.6/53. Volume V = ECIt = 0. cathode efficiency E = 80%.2t.022 mm 29. V = 0. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.0 + 0. C = 0.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12.57 in 3.02477 in 3.95(3.5 = 0.003954 = 9.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169.036 t = 0.036/0. cathode efficiency E = 15%. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts.277 oz. Plating thickness d = 0.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536. C = 3. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation.000138 in.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated. value of plated gold = $300(0. min. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte.02477/12.00207/15 = 0.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces. amps.6 mm3. The plating metal is chromium. Volume V = ECIt = 0. 199 . using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min. The parts are identical. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0. Solution: From Table 29. Solution: (a) From Table 29.5 in 2.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0.003954 t = 0.

3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50.7 mm2.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks.010/0.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0.15(2. If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0.7 cm2. Each part has a surface are = 22.44 min.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0. total area A = 40(22.7) = 908 cm2 = 90. 200 . how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29. t = 0.3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.03304(10-4) = 0. cathode efficiency E = 15%.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.3 t mm3)/(90.1.010 Thus.800 mm2) = 0.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0.03304(10-4) t = 0.29.010 mm on the surface of each part. C = 2. 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.010 mm.

8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals.9 Name and sketch the five joint types.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer. so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce.30 30. 30. Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. Answer. In arc welding and resistance welding. (5) edge. (3) lap.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld? 201 . In a fusion weld. In arc welding. See Figure 28. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. Review Questions 30.4 30. fumes. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint. whereas in machine welding. Five joint types are: (1) butt. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas. Define the term fusion weld. (4) tee. smoke.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer. (3) most economical in terms of material usage. Other hazards include sparks. the fuels are a fire hazard. the metal is melted. (2) corner. 30. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished.3 30. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning. In gas welding. What is an autogenous weld? Answer. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart. Answer.3 in text for sketches.5 30. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker. (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect. In a solid state weld. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. (3) difficult to disassemble.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer. so the parts are joined permanently. Answer. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually.6 30. the metal is not melted. and weld spatter. 30. 30. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint.

For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner.11 Define and sketch a groove weld? Answer.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding. 30. 30. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer.5 in text for sketch.4 in text for sketch. lap.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld. See Figure 28.12 30. but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. all correct answers must be given. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source. 30. A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap.13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer. and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 30. and tee joints. Answer.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding.17 What is epitaxial grain growth. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 202 . and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length. 30. See Figure 28.18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal. 30. 30. Because it does not join to distinct parts.

(b) corner. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. 30. otherwise. (c) For metallurgical reasons. (b) false. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals. (c) melting temperature.4 30.6 30. (b) heat of fusion. (c) lap. (d) lap. (c) single fillet weld for tee joint.3 30.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (b) corner. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion.5(f). (d) tee. (e) tee. (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30. (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint. (b) corner.5(f). Both metals melt. and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld. Answer. 30. Answer. Answer. (b) false.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30. (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. Answer. (d) modulus of elasticity. Answer. (c).5(a). Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power. (b) high power density.8 Problems Joint design 30. for a butt weld. (b) Similar to Figure 30. (c) square. (c) edge. (b) round. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt.1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point.30. 203 . (c) Same as Figure 30.5 30. (d) lap. (c) edge. or (e) thermal conductivity. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30.7 30.4(d) but one side only.4(c) but one side only.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. (b). both sides. or (d) triangular. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input. (c) low power. and (d). Answer. the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. Answer. but both sides as in Figure 30. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular. or (d) low power density. Answer. (e) tee.

33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. Solution: (a) From Table 30. This power density is sufficient for welding. (30. and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.5) = 1.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30.252 .4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel.07 J/mm3 Eq.25 inch.2) for SI units: Um = 3.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 500°C.0) 2/4 = 7.2) for SI units: Um = 3.5 Btu/in3 30.00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π(0.50(2. (30. Solution: (a) From Table 30. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq.12)/4 = 0. 204 .0.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.2.25 Btu/sec)/0.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part.625 Btu/sec)/0. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq.Power density 30.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. (30.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.2.32 J/mm3 Eq.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π(0.5 Btu/sec.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. (30. The heated area is approximately circular.1) 2/4 = 0.0412 in 2 Power P = (0.1 Btu/in3 30.0412 in 2 = 15.27 J/mm3 Eq.2) for SI units: Um = 3. Unit melting energy 30. Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq.2.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1. (30.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. (30.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87.88 J/mm3 Eq. (30. 30. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2.50)(2.1 inch.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C. Power density PD = 1800 W/7. The heated area is circular.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases.2) for SI units: Um = 3. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq.5) = 0.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface.2. (30. Power P = 0.0.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. 750°C.75 . Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π(3.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter.

if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.91 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 500° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3.20 J/mm3 ° 30. For Tm = 500° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30. Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. The plot is left as a student exercise. 3000°F.45 in 3 Hm = 137.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3000° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1.2) for SI units: Um = 3.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0.2.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.6? Solution: (a) Eq. The plot is based on the following calculated values.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0. (30.392 J at source.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5. 1500°F.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.148/(0. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld. H = 61.47 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 2000° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3. (30.7? Solution: (a) Eq.2) for SI units: Um = 3. On the plot. The plot is left as a student exercise.8 and f2 = 0. (30.2.8 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2500° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1. 2000°F.4(0.99 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 750° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3.29(4000) = 37.45) = 61.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3. The plot is based on the following calculated values.467 x 10-5 Tm2. Solution: Eq. H = 37.6 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 3500° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1.7) = 98. On the plot.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0.48 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1000° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3.33 x 10-6 Tm2.7.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.6) = 77.40 J/mm3 ° For Tm = 1500° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.9 and the melting efficiency = 0. 2500°F. 1000°F.9 x 0.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137.1000°C. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1.4 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 2000° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1.467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.1 Btu at source.3 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1500° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.2. Solution: Eq.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128. For Tm = 250° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.8 x 0.045 in2 and is 10 inches long. (30.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.5 Btu/in3 ° For Tm = 1000° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1. and 3500°F.2.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56.9 and f2 = 0. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31.8/(0.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0. and 2000°C. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F.6.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30. 205 .467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. 30. 1500°C.0 Btu/in3 ° 30.045(10) = 0.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20.

21) + (2.70) + ρHf = 0.284(0.45) = 18.284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3. (30.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3.11)(2700 . Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. In SI.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 .21) + ρHf Um = (7.45 in 3 Hm = 41. In SI.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2. melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C. (30.2. In USCS.21) + (7.25. so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.2).215 Btu/lb-°F = 900 J/kg-°C. (30. and (2) the heat of fusion.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise. These values show a greater difference than for aluminum.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .284(117) = 115. In USCS. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρC(Tm . The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30.215)(1220 .12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W.096(170) = 40. Um = ρC(Tm .2): Um = 1. specific heat C = 0. Energy balance in welding 30.0 mm2. (30.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41.4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. (30.S.45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.30.90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference.9 x 0. (30. Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.1 Btu at source. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15.2): Um = 3.4(0.9 and f2 = 0.045(10) = 0.4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.70) + ρHf = 0.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395. Customary units or the International System. 30. except that the metal to be welded is aluminum.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.6/(0.35) = 59.096(0.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference. (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C. Um = ρC(Tm .2) for USCS units: Um = 1.21) + ρHf Um = (2. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature.9. Use either the U. Are the values close enough to validate Eq.70) + 0. density ρ = 0. H = 18.11 Btu/lb-°F = 460 J/kg-°C.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference.70) + 0. density ρ = 0. specific heat C = 0. Um = ρC(Tm .390 J/kg.2): Um = 3. Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references.2): Um = 1. These values for aluminum show good agreement.2.7. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1.10 Solve the previous problem. and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel. Um = ρC(Tm .123 J/kg.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7. 206 . Solution: (a) Eq.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq. (30.Tambient) + ρHf .

005) = 0. Um = 1. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.214 HR HR = 15/. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.8.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.487/4 = 0. If f 1 = 0. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel.95(0.0 mm/s.8(0. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.5.1 Btu/min. Solution: From Table 30.Solution: From Table 30. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41.5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W.5) = 0.04) = 16. whose melting point is assumed to be the same.15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0.07 x 15) = 7.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min. f 2 = 0.9(0.2.95 and f 2 = 0.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld. f 2 = 0. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5.005 in 3.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.0 mm will be added to the plate. Solution: Um = 1.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. Um = 3.31 Btu/min. 30.0 mm. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0.214 = 70. Solution: Um = 3. but with penetration into the base metal. on average.5.025) = 0. Um = 3.40(22)(5)/(0. 30.7 in/min. 30.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec.2. If f 1 = 0.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel.5)HR/(88.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate.04 in2.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld.5. Solution: From Table 30.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded.85 x 0.2.4(0.5)(125)/(74.207 Btu H = 0.07 x 25) = 7.487 Btu HR = 0.25)(3000)/(6.95.122 Btu/sec = 7. Tm = 1350°K for copper. 30. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. Aw = 0. 30.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88.6)(3000)/(9.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.15 mm/s. Aw = 22.207/(0.6.9 x 0. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld. If f 1 = 0. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded.95 x 0. using welding passes separated by 5 mm. A thickness of 2.85.5.8 x 0. Ignore the 207 .4 mm/s. 30.9(0.0 mm2. Solution: Um = 1. and the metal to be welded was aluminum.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation.

000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14.33 min. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.2.8 x 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation.6.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14.000/7 = 2000 s = 33.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate. Um = 3. 208 . determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source.32(6 x 5)(7)/(0. Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel.

and (2) flux. An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. or GTAW. Arc welding. Answer.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW).1 31. 31. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. and others. also provide filler metal for the welding joint. What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. Review Questions 31.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer. arc time. and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms. such as argon and helium. Answer. SAW. 31.3 Define what an electrical arc is. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. melting occurs at the faying surfaces. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. The consumable type. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire. no melting occurs.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. and "other. The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting. 31. such as in GMAW. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux. which would be difficult to do automatically.4 What do the terms arc-on time. In fusion welding. Name and define the two types. in addition to being the electrode for the process. 31. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently. in solid state welding. In arc welding.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer. Answer. 31.31 31. oxyfuel welding. thermit welding. consumable bare wire electrode. such as tungsten and carbon. FCAW. resistance welding. 31.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding. Answer. LBW. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous. Answer. Answer. Consumable and nonconsumable. (1) Shielding gas.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process." The other category includes EBW. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. 209 . 31.

Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation. LBM has certain advantages over EBM. and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. What are they? 210 .14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer.13 Define resistance welding. during which the weld nugget solidifies. High resistivity. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas. 31.17 Describe cross-wire welding. 31. Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills.16 What is resistance projection welding? Answer. low electrical and thermal conductivity. 31. Because the arc is restricted in diameter. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts.4 sec). in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0.1 to 0. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. 31. 31. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces. 31.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer. and low melting point.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. Answer. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. What is that disadvantage? Answer. resulting in much higher power densities. Answer.31. Define pressure gas welding. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld. Answer. Answer. The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes. thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area.18 31. (3) weld. 31. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode.12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. 31. Answer. and molding shoes to contain the molten pool. (4) hold.11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes. 31.

particularly arc welding. and radiographic tests. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. (3) heat sinks. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints. (2) nondestructive evaluation.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer. It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. (4) incomplete fusion. cracks. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. magnetic particle. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). Answer. Answer. 31. (6) selecting proper welding conditions. moisture. which includes dye-penetrant. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. and other visible defects.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer.). (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage. 31. (2) roll welding. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM.Answer. etc.g. then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. (7) preheating of base parts. Answer. (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. 31. 31. thermal conductivity. Describe and distinguish the two types. explained in the text in Section 29. In inertia friction welding. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 .. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. The following measures.6. Name the variations. melting point. and (3) destructive tests.26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer. can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures. the original welding process. and metallurgical tests. (2) cavities. 31. one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding.27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. (8) stress relief of the weldment. (1) cracks. (2) metal properties (e. (3) and hot pressure welding. (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. 31. 31. Answer. In continuous-drive friction welding. The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding. (3) solid inclusions. ultrasonic. (1) Cold welding. 31. coefficient of thermal expansion). when the right temperature is reached. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability.23 There are two basic types of friction welding.

Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). not by the transfer of molten metal. Answer. (b) electron beam welding.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (b) GMAW. (c) explosive welding. (d) thermit welding. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. (b) false. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) HPW. (c) LBW. (c) and (d) 31.6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. (c) GTAW. or (d) SMAW. (a) 31. 31. Answer. (b) GMAW. or (d) SMAW. (a) and (c) 31. Answer. as opposed to horizontal. (b). 31. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. (d) RSW. (b) 212 .8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. and (e) upset welding. or overhead arc welding positions.5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. (b) false. (3) Whenever possible. vertical.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding. design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed. (c) GTAW. and (d) 31. (c) 31. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows. and (d) OAW. Answer. all correct answers must be given.Answer. (a) and (b) 31. (d) percussion welding. (b) friction welding.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW. (c) pressure gas welding. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. (c) roll welding. (2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. (b) The arc is sustained. For each question. Answer. (a). (b) resistance spot welding.

12 31. (d) ultrasonic welding. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable. (b) PAW.18 31.17 31. no pressure is used in these processes. The heat readily flows 31.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. or (d) SMAW.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity. Answer. (b) false. (c) SAW. or (b) false. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. one of the highest of any metal. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. (b) forge welding. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. and (e) nitrogen. (c) GTAW. (b) false. (b) false. (c) helium. 31. (b) carbon monoxide. (b) false. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. Answer. hence.16 31. (b) false.13 31. such as aluminum and copper. or (d) SMAW. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined. (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW. (b) GMAW.10 31. Answer. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. (d). and no filler metal is added: (a) true. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. (b) Metals with low resistivities.14 31.19 213 . Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. (c) friction welding. (b) GMAW. (d) hydrogen. Answer. Answer. are difficult to weld in RW. (c) GTAW. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW. Answer. Answer. Answer. (b).31." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. Answer.11 31. Answer. or (a) TIG. but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld. Answer. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy.

Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell.0 mm diameter is added to the operation.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0.65. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder.8 min. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated). the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other.5 = 14. and it takes the welder 5.0 min.2 J/mm3) = 421.3 J/mm3. and f 2 = 0. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments. and 2.5 + 2. the welder is idle (resting).85)(0. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made. The conditions are: E = 25 volts.5 = 5. The unit melting energy for steel = 10. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm. fitter and robot work simultaneously. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded.0 = 4.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min. and while the welder is working. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0.into the body of the parts that are to be welded. Problems Arc welding 31. the fitter is idle. two welding fixtures. Arc time = 5.133 min.5% (b) Rp = 60/9.1 W (b) WVR = (4303. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle.0 + 2.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5.0 = 35. The fitter takes 5.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle. I = 125 amps. 31.29 pc/hr.0 min. which task requires 5.9 mm3/sec. Every 750 mm of weld length. 31.0 min to accomplish the change. whose unit melting energy Um = 9. the welding stick must be changed.0) = 9. Arc time = 5.3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5.5 + 5. and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts. (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5.133 = 33.0/9.0 = 55.0 min. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 .5 = 5.5 + 5.2 In the previous problem.2 J/mm3.5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5. At the end of each work cycle.5 = 15.1 W)/(10.0 = 6.5 + (1/5)(5. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts.133 = 3. If filler metal wire of 3. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. While the fitter is working.0 + 1.67 pc/hr.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0.0/15.0) + 2.1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle. f 1 = 0.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15.75)(30)(225) = 4303.0 + 2. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14. which takes 0. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW).0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter. With two fixtures. they switch places. 31.0/14.8) + 2.70.75.133 + 2.

The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0.54 in/min. 215 . Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.2 in/rev.82 mm/s.9 x 25 x 125) = 0.90.05 = 17. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0.76 in/min. f2 = 0.50 in 3/min)/0.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30.07 = 10.250 W v = 0. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps. Therefore.3(Aw)(5) 1421. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0.1. (a) Find f 2.125(0.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6.9 for FCAW. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0.5)(20)(250)/(2.0 ft. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together.9(0. Tm = 930°K for aluminum.filler and base metal.77 mm/s 31. 31.50)/7.65(0.9 = 46. = 0. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation. so 75 Btu/sec = 79. I = 125 amps.12 in 2.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = πD2/4 = π(3) 2/4 = 7.06967 rev/min. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0.2.877/0.05 in2. and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal.2 in/rev) = 0. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head.5 Aw Aw = 1421. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts.877 in 3/min.76 in/min)/(226.95(0.120) = 0.88 x 80) = 9. Circumference C = πD = 12 x 6π = 226.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. so 150 Btu/sec = 158. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3.263 in/sec = 15. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0.9/46. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3. Rotational speed N = (15. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld. 31. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.250 x 0. v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79. Um = 3.57 = 0.70)(25)(125) = 9. and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0.01462 in 3/sec. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0.5. Solution: From Table 31.01462)/(0.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0. a typical value for GMAW.7)(25)(300)/(158.95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0.7. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps.50 in 3 per minute. From Table 30.5 = 30.

1 mm3) = 142. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget. The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3. Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0. time duration = 0.5)/4 = 49. the weld duration t = 0. The weld current in the operation is 10. If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms.5% 31.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1.554/0.2 in/rev)/(15.0 mm thick. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127.17 sec.060 in. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = πD2/4 = π(0.175 = 17.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152. The weld duration will be set at 0.19) 2(0. I = 12. 31. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work).2 sec. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6) 2(4.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum.255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0.4/405 = 0.000 amps.90 J/mm3. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6. Continuous motion 216 .0017) = 0. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0.19) 2/4 = 0.5 mm thick.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.19 in and thickness = 0.35 x 103 = 12.1% 31. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget.76 in/min) = 14.3 sec.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.15 sec.11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2. so 9025 W = 8.0 J/mm3.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0.351 = 35. each 2.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10.060)/4 = 0. determine the minimum current level required in this operation. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.0 mm in diameter by 2. Welding current I = 6.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon).1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2. Resistance welding 31.5 mm thick.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(0.0 mm.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0. To achieve required strength.0 mm in diameter and 4. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms. The resulting weld nugget measures 5.5)/4 = 127.35 min.9 J/mm3)(49.350 A.255/1.554 Btu/sec PD = 8.000 amps.454 = 0.64 x 106 A2.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = πD2d/4 = π(5) 2(2.

3 sec.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. Solution: (a) From Table 30. N = v/πD = (276.29 J/mm3)(84. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0. with the changes noted here. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3. and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.3 sec = (0.3 sec = 19.3 sec = 4.3 + 1. N = v/πD = (1153. (b) Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(6.000 t.441 rev/min. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0.61 mm/s.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation.0 s.3 sec as in previous problem.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.9 mm/min. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time. surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6.welding is used.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem.23 mm/s) = 5.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding. = 276.0) 2(3.14 mm3 217 . Therefore. 31. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped).25 in. Hm = (9.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0.29 J/mm3 from previous problem. H = I2Rt = (10. Given these conditions. 31. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3.23 mm/s = 1153.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0.82 mm3 Hm = (9. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given. the current is stopped abruptly. The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1.13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100. Given the conditions from the previous problem.77 mm.00 mm/1. Solution: Hm = UmV V = πD2d/4 = π(4) 2(2)/4 = 25. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1. determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget. where I = amp and t = sec. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape.836 rev/min.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0. Um = 3.0)/4 = 84. At the end of the power-on time. The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel.8 mm/min. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1.3 sec)(19.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10. The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms. (c) At this higher rotational speed.29 J/mm3)(84.3 sec. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam. Movement of wheel during 0.29 J/mm3.2. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget).0 = 1.

If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25.30) 2/4 = 0.5 = 0.85. The unit melting energy = 5. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0.3 mm in diameter.94 Btu/sec-in.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam.75.14 mm3) = 251.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(0.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.6 = 18. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %.0 W/mm2 31.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762. so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.4/0. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. beam current = 30 milliamp.000t3/3 = 31481.25.5 W Area A = πD2/4 = π(0.375) 2/4 = 0.08 Btu/sec) = 1.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.700 Btu/hr = 4. and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. and (c) average power density in the circular area.0707 mm3 PD = 2762.031943) 1/3 = 0. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100.0 J/mm3.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. and (c) average power density in the circular area.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene. 2 Power density PD = 0.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = πD2/4 = π(9. 2 Electron beam welding 31.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14.000t)2 R dt = 100. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0.375 in.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.1104 in 2) = 6.6/31481.0 mm.85.25 = 1005.6 t3 = 1005. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2. 218 .074 W/mm2 31. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0. Oxyfuel Welding 31. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.14 Suppose in Example 31.60(1910)/63. H = 850.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.317 s.25(4.0 mm thick. The weld joint is to be 0. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0.3 m3/hr)(91.031943 t = (0.0) 2/4 = 63.0707 = 39.5 t3 = 1005. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.35 mm by 3.4 J H = 251.02 Btu/sec)/(0.75(1.5/0.35 mm wide. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV.1104 in.

133 Btu/sec PD = 2.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0. beam current = 100 milliamp. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2.020 in. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = πD2/4 = π(0.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 .05 mm/s 31.18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV. and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.85(0.000314 in 3 Power P = 0.75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5.133/0.05 mm2 v = 0.0 x 1.35)(3.05) = 91. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.020) 2/4 = 0.0) = 1.

8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer.32 32. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer. (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible.9 What is dip brazing? Answer. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). What is capillary action? Answer. SOLDERING. (3) have a low viscosity when melted. (2) have a low melting temperature. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. In butt joints. Butt and lap joints. It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings. (4) be a good wetting agent.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer. the overlap area is made as large as possible.10 Define braze welding. whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used. no melting of the base metal(s) occurs. 32.2 BRAZING.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. 32. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter. 32. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity.1 32. 32. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs. 32. In brazed or soldered lap joints. What are some of these changes? Answer. Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation. 32. and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement. 220 . A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. 32. In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below. In brazing and soldering.5 32.

epoxies). 32. 32. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts. heating of the adhesive.15 What is wave soldering? Answer. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints.12 32. (2) melt the solder. Tin and lead. 221 . (2) various heating methods available. 32. What is meant by the term curing? Answer.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. and application of pressure. 32. 32. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint. and (5) ease of repair and rework. Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends. A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong.14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint. Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint. 32. 32. such as a V-joint. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals.g. (3) part sizes are limited. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs.16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer. (3) convey solder to the joint. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation.Answer. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans. 32. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint.13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. rigid components.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer. use of ultraviolet light. Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer.18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs.. 32. 32.

010 in. Answer. 32. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding.010 to 0. (2) inorganic adhesives (e. Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques. 32. or (c) weaker than. (2) fragile parts can be joined. (3) service temperatures are limited. Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials . or (b) false.250 mm (0. (b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing. (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. 32. (c) 0.. (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals. (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics).20 in. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true. 32.001 in. or (b) false.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.). and (7) roll coating.025 mm (0.23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer.24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods. Answer.g. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (5) low curing temperatures.250 to 2. and (7) simplified joint design. (5) spraying. all correct answers must be given. 32. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service. (2) use of manual rollers. (4) use of flow guns. 222 .g.1 In brazing. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint. (5) curing times can limit production rates.. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials.).0025 to 0.Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. sodium silicate).. Answer.5 to 5. 32. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult.0 mm (0.50 mm (0. Methods include: (1) manual brushing.001 to 0. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0. or (d) 2.100 in. (6) automatic dispensers. (3) silk screening. (b) stronger than.0001 to 0. (b) 0. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to. 32. and (3) synthetic adhesives (e.025 to 0.). collagen). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.10 to 0.25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e.).similar or dissimilar. For each question. starch.22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer.g. (b) 32. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness. Answer.

Answer. (c) lead.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase. Answer. 32. (c). (a). (a) 32. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true. 32. (b) peeling. (b) natural rosin fluxes. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble.8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride. (b) gold. and (e) wave soldering. (e) ad infinitum.9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony. (c) soldering iron. (c) shear. Answer. (c) adhesive. (b). (b) promote wetting of the surfaces. and (d) tension. (d) stronger joint than welding.13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage. (a). which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. 223 .7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. (a). and (c). 32. (d) torch soldering.14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding. and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive. (b) adherent.11 In adhesive bonding. (c) and (e). or (b) false. (b) infrared soldering. (d). 32. Answer. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. and (c). or (e) tin. (b) 32. (c) and (d). (b) mechanical interlocking. 32. Answer. or (b) false. Answer. 32. and (e). Answer. Answer. (d) adhibit. Answer. (b). (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. 32. (d) silver. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined. Answer. (a) 32. 32. Answer.

(a) 224 .Answer.

In an expansion fit. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component. (1) The method is fast. 33. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level.. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole. Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads.33 33. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts. 33.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e. welding. Both are externally threaded fasteners. upon warming to room temperature.4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly . (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads. A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt.g.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer.)? Answer.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer. 33. brazing. etc. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part. 225 . Answer. to replace worn-out components.7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer. For maintenance and repair service. 33. Then. or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw.10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. 33. Also. 33. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component. In a shrink fit.5 What is torque-turn tightening? Answer. and to make adjustments. (2) no tooling is required.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners. 33.8 What is a rivet? Answer. Review Questions 33. 33.not possible with welding and brazing.

Assembly is by simple insertion. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins. (4) Use only high quality components. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. or (d) torque wrench. e. (c) stall-motor wrenches. or (b) machining. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint.g. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. holes. the fasteners are preformed. If all of the components can be added vertically from above.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. integral fasteners. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners. (b) snap fit. Parts with hooks. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders. this is the ideal situation. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly. instead use snap fits. 226 . Answer.2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features. the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. usually from above. retaining rings.12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. Answer. that is. (a) 33. 33. slots.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly. 33. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. (5) Use of snap fit assembly.33.. For each question. Use threaded fasteners only where justified. (5) Avoid parts that tangle. Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required. 33. Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. In stapling. (3) Limit the required directions of access. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 33. all correct answers must be given. where disassembly or adjustment is required. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime.

and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. (c). (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design. (a) 33. or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads. (b). (a) and (e). or (b) false.g. Answer. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head. the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly. (c) excessive tensile stresses. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part..6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly. so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. whereas in an expansion fit.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods. Answer. (b). All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles. and (d) 33. and (d). (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. an interference fit is formed. (c). Answer.9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. 33. Answer. and (c). (a). (b) no special tools are required. (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. 33. Answer. 33.Answer. (b). or (b) false. (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. (a).8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods.5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. When brought back to room temperature in either case. Answer. (a) true. (b). they require less assembly time. it then expands to form the interference fit. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost. Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it. (b) ease of disassembly. or (b) false. 227 . and (d) 33. 33. (a). In an expansion fit. Answer.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true.

16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33.4) = 15.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb.375 . Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt.99 mm2 σ = 0.2 A Metric 10 x 1. or 3/4-10.5 screw (10 mm diameter.000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33. A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench.25(0. If the torque coefficient C = 0. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved.5 N-mm = 0. T = CDF = 0.2 x 16) = 3750 N.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter.20. 1/2-13. Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0. Solution: As = 0.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20.23. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening.23(5)(250) = 287.25π(0. 5/8-11.Problems Threaded Fasteners 33.0.94 N/mm2 = 23.3/0. If the torque coefficient C = 0.9743/10) 2 = 0.3 lb.0. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant. determine the torque that should be applied. 33.7 = 23.375)(2557.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter.22(0. 228 . and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0. 5/16-18.334 in2 σ = 833. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120.0775) = 2557. determine the tensile stress on the bolt. which is 33. Torque coefficient C = 0. As = 0.5 lb.2 x 0.000/(0.99) = 8698.657.9382 x 1. T = CDF = 0.000(0.9382 x 2) 2 = 156.25.5) = 240 in-lb.1 N-mm = 15.75 . As = 0. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application. 33. 33. which is 300 MPa.4 N.75) = 833.20. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable. However.1). Solution: As = 0.18.18(10)(8698.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33.3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter. It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength. 3/8-16.1).25π(0.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33. 33.20.2875 N-m.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N.66 N-m.22.25π(16 .9743/16) 2 = 0.0 in.25π(10 .4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.5) 2 = 57.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength.7 mm2 σ = 3750/156. pitch p = 1. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12. If the torque coefficient C = 0.94 MPa. Solution: T = CDF = 0.0.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57. Solution: T = CDF = 0. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0.0. determine the tension in the bolt. 33.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12.

9743/20) = 0.302) = 460 MPa 33.9743/n) = (0. Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20. Try (5): (D .25 .5)(552)/ (552 . (2) 5/16-18.9743/n) = (0.998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1.000 lb/in2 33.0 mm.Dp2) = 2(161.998 in-lb.6) 229 .992) = 2.75 x 120.0 = 25.5364 in.000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar. (33.Dp2) = 2(40.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69. (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35.9) Eq.002)(1.0. Interference Fits 33.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.0.25π(1.9743/n) 2 (D . (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0.75(33. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .02)(352 . (4) 1/2-13.Solution: (a) As = 0. It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal.02)(252 . Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear.02 mm.000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 .25π(D .302)/(30 x 552) = 161.000 lb/in2 Eq. σ = 120.132) = 643.1 MPa 33.2013 in. (33. The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth.0 .000(0.752 -1.000) = 0.4605 will be sufficient.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209. Obviously.000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.625)(14.Dp2) = 25.Dp2) = 2(234.0)(14. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF . (3) 3/8-16.2)(352)/(352 . (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D . The collar has an internal diameter = 0.000 in. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter.9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69.992) = 1.000/2.408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .0. (5) 5/8-11. For the alloy bolt.10 mm.212 in2 (D . The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.132) = 643.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft.500 in.4605 in.408)(1. T = CDF = 0.11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.2(0.000(0. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1.1665 in2/0. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly. use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.752 .6057) = 14.752)/ (1.5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .0. and the collar has an outside diameter = 25. The outside diameter of the collar is 1.4605 in. As = F/σ = 14992/(0.000)(0.0. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly.0 x 1.000(0.625 .0.750 in. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter. pf = 209. none of the D values below 0.02)/(1.8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209.0. Use 5/8-11 bolt.6057 in2 F = σAs = 0.0.132)/(13 x 252) = 234.992 lb.1665 in2 = 0.132)/(13 x 352) = 277.0.000 lb/in2.9743/11) = 0.6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000 in and its outside diameter = 2. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13. T = CDF = 0.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.02) = 120.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277. For the 5/8-11 bolt.0 mm.6)(252)/(252 . Using a safety factor SF = 2. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt.10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0.9743/8) 2 = 0.874 in-lb.1665 in 2 As = 0. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .10)(552 .2(1.9743/n) 2 = 0.752) = 40.25π = 0.9743/n) = 0.1. The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2. > 0.

0)(2.52)/(1.1 x 10-6(30)(500 .00233 in. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12. the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0. The shaft diameter = 1.950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34.174 mm. yield strength = 450 MPa.8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .70) 1. 33.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.507 .007 in.Dp ) i = 10. If it must be reduced in size by 0.507/1.02 .00233)(3. 1. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 .507 = D1 + 0.D1 = 6.000(2.507 .52)/(22 x 106 x (2.500 + 0.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F.02)/(2 x 2.D1) = -0.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.30 = 12.200 lb/in2 33. 33. (33.02 .12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40. pf = σe(Dc2 . For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F. Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0.21) T2 .0 x 10-6 m/m/°C. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0.02) = 34. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature.00057 in.8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.007 = 1.52) = 10. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12.D1 = 0. determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled.4977 = 0.500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq. then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0. Solution: D2 . and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa.1. At room temperature (20°C). Solution: (D2 .4977 in.500 in.6 + 21 = -180. Solution: (D2 . For steel.02)/ (3.52) = 93.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.00623 D1 D1 = 1.007 in.00623 D1 = 1.13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C).Rearranging. respectively.500 . Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.000 lb/in 2 and α = 6.174 = 30.000.0042 in.02)) = 0.500(1.52 .00623 = 1.5 x 3. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6. E = 30.6° C ° 33.04 mm.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole.T1) = 6.1. (b) Interference i = 1.21 = -0.6 T2 = -201.1. determine the increase in diameter of the pin.20 = 24.20/(24.21) D2 = 30 + 0. and the pin has a diameter = 40.8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201.5) 2 2 2 Rearranging.Dp2)/2D c2 = 25.02 mm.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 .00623 D1 1. pf = 30 x 106 (0.00 mm and 40.950)(3.52 .0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C)..0)(700 .D1) = αD1(T2 . (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).007.00 mm. Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.1. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75.7 x 10-6(1. 33.D1 = D2 .15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.1.

07477(109) N/m2 = 74.2(10-6) = 480.8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.000(10-6) + 9604.04) – 40.8(10-6) -60.for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = αD1(T2 – T1) = (40.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.24(10-6) T2 -50.15 231 .00 – 0.06 = 480.8(10-6) = 480.02 = 12(10-6)(40.395.02)(T2 – 20) -0.9° C ° (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0. then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.

Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling.34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34. A long filament of wax or polymer. Stereolithography. Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer. which one is the most widely used? Answer.2 34. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer.8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer. Answer. Besides the starting material.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer. (2) tessellation of the geometric model. (2) solid.5 34. 34. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing. all correct answers must be given. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item. 34. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer.3 34. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).1 What is rapid prototyping? Provide a definition of the term. and (3) powders. Answer. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons). (1) Liquid. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies. For each question. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing. The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. 34. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 . which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume. 34.

and (d) Problems 34. (c) part accuracy. and (f) 34. 233 .8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers. Answer.4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (a).25 mm. (d) solid ground curing. (b) fused deposition modeling. and (d) part shrinkage. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements. Neglect the time for postcuring. (d) solid ground curing. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. Answer. (c) 34. (b) limited material variety. Layer thickness = 0. (c) selective laser sintering. 34. and (f) stereolithography. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. 34. and (e) stereolithography. Answer. (e) 34. (c). (c) laminated object manufacturing. (d) solid ground curing. (c) and (e) 34. Answer. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). (d) and (e) 34. (c) selective laser sintering. (d) selective laser sintering. Answer. and (e) three dimensional printing. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (e). (e) solid ground curing.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (b) fused deposition modeling. (b). and (e) stereolithography.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography. (d) solid ground curing. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm. parts with intricate internal geometries. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. (c) laminated object manufacturing. Answer. (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded.2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Answer. Answer. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0.10 mm. and (e) stereolithography. 34. (b) fused deposition modeling. (b) fused deposition modeling.reduces the score by 1 point.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false. (b) fused deposition modeling. (c) selective laser sintering.

66 + 10 = 21. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15.25) 2 = 1. Layer thickness is to be 0.040 s = 84. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s.24 hr 34. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25.20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0. Solution: Volume of cube V = πR2h/3 = π(35) 2(40)/3 = 51. 34.8/(0. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30.94 + 4000 = 8047. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm. average area/layer = (256.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography.22 x 500) = 11.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value .20 mm) = 1282.25 mm.20 mm.within round-off error.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20.9 s = 134.8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.25π(1. Between layers.0 min = 5.227 mm)(30.10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part.2) = 20.6 hr 34.1 except that the layer thickness = 0. Neglect postcuring time.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.13 min = 2. Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography.0 min = 1. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.3 The part in Problem 34. the feed rate from the spool is zero. It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1.133) = 8053.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. except using the following additional information. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.6 mm/s) = 37.313 mm3)/200 = 256.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.66 s 234 .313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.4 hr 34.2 Solve Problem 34.4 Solve Problem 34.3. The diameter of the laser beam = 0.2 + 10 = 25.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1.40 mm.33 s = 134. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s.000 mm3)/( 37.2) = 5.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material.22 mm.25 mm.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.56 mm3)/(0. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = πD2/4 = 0.133 + 10 = 20.2 + 10 = 25.20 mm.160 s = 336. The layer thickness = 0.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.000 mm3 Tc = (152. Layer area Ai same for all layers.22 min = 2.

907 s + 231.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring.5 – 0.2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0.6 + 113.78 min = 3.22 mm2)/(0.5) = 1546. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm.37 + 10 = 22. Neglect postcuring time.4 s = 34. handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle.20 mm. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.1 = 1212.20 hr.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864. handle diameter = 12 mm.70 + 10 = 19.7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base. circumference C = (29.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34.7 mm2)/(0. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0. (2) cup ring and handle.66 s) = 4332.292) = 2058.6 +113.1 + (390.70) + 50(22.5 – 0.92 + 10 = 48.0 – 56.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π(752 – 652)/4 + π(12) 2/4 = 1099.5 = 5844.4 s = 72.9 + 113.5π(12) 2/4) A1 = 4417. For a cone. Solution: For LOM.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34. Layer thickness = 0. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0. The laser beam diameter = 0.Cycle time Tc = 200(21. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.25 mm.37) Tc = 13.2 mm2)/(0. the total surface area (not including the base) = πR(R2 + h2)0. we need the circumference of each layer.92) + 525(19. inside diameter = 65 mm.1 + (390.86 hr.5 A = π(35)(352 + 40)0. and handle bar.20 mm) = 146.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48. 34.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.5π(12) 2/4) A3 = 1099.5 mm2)/(0.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0. and (3) top of cup.20 mm. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam. outside diameter = 75 mm.25 x 500) + 10 = 12.2 min = 1.20 mm.92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212. handle.292 + 10 = 10.5) = 4864.1 (in text).57 hr. Layer thickness = 0. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes. 235 .25 x 500) + 10 = 38. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. 34.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer.3 min = 0.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146. Area (1): A1 = π(75) 2/4 + π(12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29.0 – 56. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide.

(2) IC fabrication. in which layers are added. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. 35.10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 . A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer.1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e.35 35.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer. X-ray lithography. cut into chips. and (3) IC packaging.g. 35. Answer. in which the wafers are tested. Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. 35.5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer. diodes. and dirt). Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important). 35. viruses. and the chips are encapsulated in a package. cigarette smoke. For example. 35. oil.8 Answer. and processing equipment (wear particles.3 Describe the planar process. 35. and ion lithography.. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing. altered.5 microns per cubic foot. Review Questions 35. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material.7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer. 35. and hair). to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers. It is the Czocralski process. altering.9 What is a photoresist? Answer. and gallium arsenide. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes .4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35. transistors.5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air. a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0. the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0. germanium. A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range.adding.

Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (e) wafer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 35. 35. the transferred images are sharper.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing.000. 237 . Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc. or (d) 100 million. 35.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it. (2) proximity printing. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand. Define epitaxial deposition. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. Answer. the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm. Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. (c) die. (d) package. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (3) projection printing. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer. Answer. (b) device.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer. DIP stands for dual in-line package.Answer.12 35.15 What is Rent's Rule? Answer. (b) 10.16 35. 35. and heat dissipation. 35.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. adding a solid lid to complete the package. encase chip for protection. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package. (c) 1 million. 35.17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. Answer. 35. What is a DIP? Answer.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer. Because it has a shorter wavelength. For each question. Answer. (c) 35.

Answer. which reduces the length to 950 mm. (a) 35.4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. Answer.10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. Answer. (b) and (c). and (f). (c) Si3N4. (f) thermal oxidation.6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (c) ion implantation. 35. Answer.8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony. Answer. (b) copper. (c) gold. (a) and (c). (b) SiC. (d) physical vapor deposition. (b) and (d). 35. (b) arsenic.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (e) silicon. (b) diffusion. or (e) silicon dioxide. (b) copper. Answer. Answer. Answer. A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 . Answer. (c) boron. (d) epoxies. (c) infrared light. or (d) SiO 2. (b) aluminum oxide. (c) gold. (c) ion implantation. or (f) silver. (b) 35. (d) 35. Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. (d) ultraviolet light. or (f) silver. (e) plasma etching. or (g) wet etching. (d) nitrogen. (d).5 After exposure to light. (e) phosphorous. (b) diffusion. (e) silicon.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature. or (e) X-ray. or (g) wet etching. (a) 35. (d) 35. (c) 35. (a). (b) incandescent light. (e) plasma etching. or (b) wet chemical etching. (f) thermal oxidation. (c) copper.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum. (d) physical vapor deposition. (d) nickel. (d) nickel. Answer.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum. 35. Answer. The diameter is ground to 100 mm.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. The seed and tang ends are removed. or (f) potassium. (c) 35.

082 = 1125.0. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.00 in. chord As = πR2θ/360 . reducing the effective length to 48.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . R = 55) = πR2h/3 = 0.0) = 43.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039.994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9.5θ = sin-1(1.0128) = 48/(0. Ac = πR2 = π(50) 2 = 7854. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.028.820. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape. V2 = πD2L/4 = π(5.92°.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903.921) = 19.972 mm3.101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm.0. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0.921 inch (125 mm).0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1.25) = πR2h/3 = 0.As = 7854. The seed and tang ends are cut off.095 . The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0.095 = 54. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.295) + 1039.0. 35.33) = 1144.4605) 2 = 19.465.820. (b) how many wafers are cut from it. in 3. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0. determine: (a) the original volume of the boule.8 ..5(50) 2 sin 34. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced.082 in 3 V = 2(43.As.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17.25 inches and a length of 5 ft. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0. 0.0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = πR2θ/360 .5 = 46.625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot.As. D = 5.333π(55) 2(125) = 395.2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.0 .3 mm2 Aw = Ac . mm3. θ = 34.625/4. Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. D = 110. V2 = πR2L = π(55) 2(950) = 9.354.101/9.5(60-48) = 6.8) = 4.extends from one end to the other.7(0.333π(5. assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.465. Ac = πR2 = π(2.46°.025 + 0. .354.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807.5R2 sin θ.50 + 0.972) + 9.92 = 761.5) = 3903.0378) = 1269. As = π(50) 2(34. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord. 239 .820.4605 in.3 = 7807.0/(0.715.625 in.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48.0.46.994 = 5. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4.28°. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0.33 mm.0128 inch.5R2 sin θ.52%.92)/360 . 0.25/2) 2(6. A primary flat of width 1.921/2 = 2.50 mm.028.152 = 9. The diameter is ground to 4.025 inch thick.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.295 in3.5(1200-950) = 125.4.

3)/ 9503.053 .5 → 121 chips 240 .82%.672 . As = π(2. 35.4717) = 598.621 = 527. Thus.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.8869 = 0.11. if each chip is 0.θ = 38. Chip area Ac = (0.4 Solve the previous problem.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0.4605) 2 sin 38.053 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 175π = 549.463/0.0.0194 .0372 .621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125.3 mm2 Circumference C = πD = 110π = 345.56°.1 = 311 chips 35.051/1125. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.053/25 .As = 19. (b) wafer diameter.5(2.65) 2/4 = 10.3/25 .65π = 11.56)/360 . Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(3.9503.1 . only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter.25) 2 = 0.8691(0. How many square IC chips can be processed within this area. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.45.549. 35. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.1.56 = 2.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle.345.3 = 153% increase Note: These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size.8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost. Thus.4605) 2(38.8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18.0.598. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(175) 2/4 = 24.0625 . What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips.467 in. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24. our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10.025) = 0.0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.5 A 4.9 = 121.25 = 167.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac . Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width. and (c) processable wafer area.463 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 3.4 .0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. Thus.672 = 46. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503.69.467/0.8/5 = 962 . Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24.6/5 = 380.1503 = 18. Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(110) 2/4 = 9503.65 inches in diameter.

what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.14.5). Using Rent's Rule (C = 4. and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins .7 .65) 2/4 = 16.5 and m = 0.003) = 0.5(nc)0.5 = 48/4.2.4 = 213.a total of 256 pins.a total of 32 pins. and the number of chips increases by 76%.667 nc = (10.35. Solution: 48 = 4. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled. Mask opening size = 10. the wafer area increases by 62%. u = d/∞ = 0 µm.58.2(0) = 10.0. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side . Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.2(2.667) 2 = 113. only use a wafer size of 6.5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package.5 and m = 0.0625 .8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer. u = d/1.5) = 5.56(0.400 + 0.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates.3 → 142 input/output pins 35.3 → 213 chips Note: the wafer diameter increases by about 27%. if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package.2 = 2. Chip area Ac = (0.400 mm thick. 35. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4.982/0.5 = 142.6 Solve the previous problem. and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity.25 = 271.2. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = πD2/4 = π(4. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side . our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.5 nc0.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads. Thus.40168 mm 35.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost. If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0.8 → 113 logic gates 35.25) 2 = 0. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.a total of 64 I/O pins.0 µ m IC Packaging 35. what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞.400 .608/0.50 inches in diameter. Mask opening size = 10.44d Final thickness tf = 0.5(1000) 0.982 in 2 Circumference C = πD = 4.5 µm. The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm.5 = 10. This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters.9 In the previous problem.608 in. resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick.2 = 3/1.0 .65π = 14. 241 .0 .0 inches whose processable area is 5.0 µ m 35.5 and m = 0. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.

0 = 32/6 = 5.11): nio = 1. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.333) 1/.25. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.0 and m = 0. nc0. find nc if nio = 32. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.5 = 1.12 = 31.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.5 .11). what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 .slice yield Ys = 50%.4427 ln (1.143.12 = nio/6.0 (64 x 64) 0.5 and m = 0.5nc0. and final test yield Yt = 90%. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. (1).13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4. (35. crystal-to. find nc if nio = 64.0 nc0.4427 = 22.728 memory cells (b) Eq.0 and m = 0.11): nio = 1.5. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq.0.12).4427 ln nc 32 = 1.18) = 4. nc0.3 → 3236 logic gates 35.14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells. 35.12 = 6.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.333 = 1.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq.0 nc0.5 + 0. (35.12 = 6.5 = 56.5 = 256/4. Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.333) 8.4427 ln nc = 1.5 ln nio = ln 4.11): nio = 1.12 = 6.000) 0.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1.16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads.5 ln nio = 0.294.967. Yields in IC Processing 35.12 nc0. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.50408 ln nio = 3.0(4096) 0.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq.4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1. (35.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4. nc0.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4. nio = 4.5 = 64/4.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip.0 (1.0 nc0.89 nc = 3236.5 ln nio = ln 4. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4.12 = 16. find nc if nio = 256. wafer yield Yw = 70%.4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%.12 = (5.00816 nio = nc = 20.5(nc)0.11 nc = 50. Using nio in place of nc in Eq.5 and (2) nio = nc.5nio0. How many memory cells can be contained in the device. 35.5 = 7. determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package. and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.12).12).0 and m = 0. (35.5(nc)0.5 = 14.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.000.5 .5 .22 nc = 202.5 = 32/4.9 → 19 pins.000.333 nc = (5. (35.5 ln nio ln nio . If a starting boule weighs 75 kg.18 nc = exp(22.5(nc)0.305 memory cells. (35. 35.000) = 19.

35. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0. (35. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.14 cm2 0.90) = 0.5)(0.25 x 0.806D = 1 .0.00344 (b) Eq. (a) Eq. Solution: Eq.0945 Wf = YWi = 0.83 = e-143. as the method of estimating yield.15). Eq.18633/143. Eq.50)(0. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).32) = 1/6. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0.806 = 0.25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.314 mm2 = 143.32) = e-5.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.14D ln 0.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14.0945(75) = 7.14): Ym = e-AD = e-17. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%. The area of the processed chips occupies 65.00143 defects/cm2. Eq. (35.70)(0.15).14D D = 0.9 → 85 good chips 35.15 35. (35.14D -0.25(0. Eq.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side.314 mm2 = 143.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4.384 = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%.14D) = 0. (35.17/118.15). and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.251 Number of good chips = 0. (35. 35.027) = e-1.18633 = -143.419 Number of good chips = 0. what is the density of point defects D? 243 . determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics. (35. (35.60)(0.83 = 1/(1 + 143.72 in2 (a) Eq.419(205) = 85.32 defects/in 2.17 D = 0. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution).83 = 0.09 kg 35. (35.14 cm2 0.25% of the total wafer area on one side.14D) 0.251(205) = 51. Solution: Wafer area A = π(100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0. The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.14 = 0. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate. (35.027 defects/cm2.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20.14).806D = 1 118.67 = 0.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17. (35.14). Solution: Processable area A = π(4.00130 defects/cm2.21 In the previous problem.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π(135) 2/4 = 14. (35.027) = 1/2.4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq.384 = 0.83 = -143.72 x 0.75) 2/4 = 17.67 = 0. Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate. Eq. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.83 + 118.83(1 + 143.75 inches in diameter.0 in 2.72(0.

2877 = -20D D = 0. (35. 244 .75 = e-20D ln 0.75 = -20D -0.2877/20 = 0.Solution: Eq.14): Ym = e-AD 0.01438 defects/in2.

2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. Review Questions 36.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected. (3) PCB to rack or chassis. such as silk screening. and (2) after the board has been populated with components. and (3) multilayer board. 36. The two methods are: (1) screening. 36. (4) heat dissipation. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer.9 What is continuity testing. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. (2) double -sided board. 36.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections. 245 . A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer. Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. 36. Answer. and (2) photolithography.7 36. (1) chip to package. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer.36 36. The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology. 36. (2) component to PCB. and (2) surface mount technology.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is. (3) environmental protection. The three types are: (1) single -sided board. 36. (2) structural support. also known as through-hole technology. Answer. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. 36. What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer.

The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. (2) higher packing densities. 36. (3) repair faulty solder joints. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder. Answer.36. The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface. (2) insert missing components. 36. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components. 246 .20 What is a pin connector? Answer. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections. 36. 36.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer.15 What is a solder paste? Answer.12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. The two methods are: (1) soldering. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board.16 36. Answer. 36. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer. (3) inspection.14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer. A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering. 36. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact. 36. Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. and rework are more difficult. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle.11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. and (2) pressure connections. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board. 36. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT. testing. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer.

(b) 36. Answer. (c) intraconnections on the chip. (c) reflow soldering. (c) 36.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication. Answer.001 inch. (d) torch soldering. (c) epoxy. (b) E-glass. (c) 36. 36. (b) IC chip to package. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists.010 inch. (c) nickel. (d) third. (b) 36. (c) second. Answer. (b) first.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. Answer. (a) 36. (c) second. or (e) fourth. or (d) wiring and cabling connections.100 inch.9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering. (b) gold. 247 . (a) and (e). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0.8 In addition to copper. (c) and (d). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. or (e) fourth. (a) 36. and (e) wave soldering. (e) polyethylene. Answer.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. (b) 0. (b) infrared soldering.0001 inch. (c) 0.10 In general. Answer. or (b) positive resists.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). all correct answers must be given. (d) third. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or (d) tin. (b) first. or (d) 0. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth. (d) 36.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth. 36. Answer. or (b) through-hole technology. (d) phenolic. and (f) polypropylene. or (b) electroplating. 36. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum.

(a) 36. and (d) sockets. (a).12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. (b). (b) and (d) 248 . (b) terminal blocks. Answer. Answer. (c) press fitting.Answer.11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering. or (d) pressure connections. (b) insulation displacement. and (d) 36. (c) retaining rings.

(3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale. such as high strength and elasticity. 37. typically.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances. good hardness. owing to their widespread use in microelectronics.7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device. 37. and relatively low density. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 37. and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments.6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits.9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products. 37.37 37. 37.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device.1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system. Review Questions 37. (3) microstructures and microcomponents. (2) microactuators.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). 249 . 37. 37.

250 . (c) micromachines. (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b). 37. 37. electrodeposition. 37. (d) potassium hydroxide. (b) microelectromechanical systems.1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology. (e) lithography.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m. and alteration. (a) True or (b) false. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. 37. (c) X-ray radiation. and plastic molding. and (c).6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. 37. Answer: (a). (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. (c) nickel. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. 37. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given.3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention. Answer: (b). Answer: (b). (d) lithography. Answer: (a) and (c).4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. Answer: (e). (d). (c) lithographic applications. and (e). (b) gold.8 In the LIGA process. grinding.5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features. (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) oil pressure sensors. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. 37. (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. (b) natural light. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. Answer: (d). For each question. Answer: (a). (e) silicon. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) alcohol blood level sensors. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already. (e) precision engineering. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. 37. Answer: (a).9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 37. (d) nanotechnology.

This is not the same as photolithography. Answer: (c). in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. 37. Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m.10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m.Answer: (b). thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly. 251 .

Answer. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. The three basic components are: (1) part program. 38.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system.6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder. In point-to-point. It consists of a light source. a photodetector. 38. In continuous path. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer. there is no feedback of the output value. each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location. As the shaft rotates.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity. In incremental positioning. In an open loop system. 38.38 38. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. 38. the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. a closed loop system is preferred. Answer. The disk is connected. In a closed loop system. 38. the trajectory of the movement is controlled. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment. either directly or through a gear train. In absolute positioning. (2) machine control unit. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program. angular position and rotational speed can be determined. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. and (3) processing equipment. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer. one command at a time. 38. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object.

(3) simpler fixtures.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer.15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. 38.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control. A gripper is one form of end effector. In powered leadthrough. sequencing. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. In manual leadthrough. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. 38.Answer. and (6) reduced human error.13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes. 38. (2) lower manufacturing lead times. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. For each question. The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. (4) drafting.productive time. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer. Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator. timing. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (2) electronic component insertion. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 38. which are then recorded into memory. Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non. (3) electrical wire wrap machines.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions. (5) improved accuracy. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites.14 In robot programming. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. (4) greater flexibility. 38. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. counting. which are recorded into memory for later execution. What is an end effector? Answer. and (6) coordinate measuring machines. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 38. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. Answer. all correct answers must be given.12 38. 38. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 . since each correct answer is worth 1 point.

and (f) turning. (b). Answer. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance. and (d).5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers. or (c) polar coordinates. Answer. or (b) positioning. (a) 38. or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move. or (b) point-to-point. Answer.reduces the score by 1 point. The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles. The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min. Answer. or (e) resistance welding. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) drilling. and (e). (b). (c).point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. (d) point-to-point command. (c) 38. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 . (d) milling. (b) control resolution.5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. (c).3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy.1 A leadscrew with a 7. 38. (b) cylindrical coordinates. (c) inspection. (b) assembly. (e) spot welding. and (e) task requires mobility. 38. (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. 38. (d) machine loading and unloading. Answer. (a) 38. (b) hazardous work environment. or (c) repeatability. (a) and (e). (d) multiple work shifts.4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command. (b) 38. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. (c) repetitive work cycle. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path. Answer. Answer.2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. (b) 38.6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. Answer.1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates.7 In robotics.

668 B ln 2 = ln 16.5) = 166.016 = 16.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.5 mm/250 = 0. The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10. 0.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20.5) = 72.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0.5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem.25 x 1.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.005) = ± 0. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7.122 mm. For the positioning system.0)/(0.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew).44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5.00 in at a feed rate of 30. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm.67 Hz 38. and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position. fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0.005 mm.5(0.0 in/min.122) + 3(0.67 Hz 38. and (c) repeatability. Thus.1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.025 Use B = 15 bits 38.03. determine: (a) control resolution. CR = Max{CR1. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1.1667 x 1.7212 B = 14.2 Referring to the previous problem. (b) Accuracy = 0. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0.250 in.122 mm. The table must move a distance of 5. 0.667 2B = = 16.69315 B = 9.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0. CR2} = Max{0.015 mm. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0.668 0. (b) accuracy.122} = 0.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance.076 mm.5 x 1.005) = 0. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.0 in/min. set CR1 = CR2.03 mm. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 .25) = 266.

0001) = 0.001 in.2 in.67 Hz 38. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor. The mechanical errors in the motor.18/0.0008 in.001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor. gear box.0002) = 0.2) = 667. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed.0002 in.001 in.0004 = 0.0003 = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0.005 mm.5 CR + 3 σ 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.18 in.0006 = 0.38.5 CR + 0. The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0.5 CR CR = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. Mechanical errors in the motor.0. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min.010 = 0.015 = 0.0001 in. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).5 CR + 3 σ 0. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.02 mm.015 0.0005 = 0. gear box.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0.001 = 0. and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy.18) = 729.5 CR + 3(0.0003 0.2/(2 x 0. leadscrew.025 mm. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 . leadscrew.5 CR + 0.2/2ns ns = 0. and a positioning accuracy = 0.0. leadscrew.025 .6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0.18/ns ns = 0.005) = 0.0008 = 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0.167 Hz 38.5 CR + 3(0.6° ° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0.5 CR CR = 0.025 = 0.001 .5 CR CR = 0.0006 0. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0.0008 in.5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor.7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.0008 = p/ns = 0.5 CR + 3(0.5 CR + 3 σ 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4.5 CR + 0.0.0008 . (b) the associated step angle.5 mm.

11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor. 25) to (100.0/(10 x 20) = 0. 38.535 = 0.025. 150) ∆x = 100 . (b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514.025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25.5/(5 x 0. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm. ∆y = 150 . The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min. There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes. 38.0 = 1029 rev/min. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5.5 = 1250 Hz 38. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64.25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308.0 mm and provides an axis range = 300. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5. Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns .02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4. The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20. and optical encoder.0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew.ns = 4.5)/5.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor.7)/5. (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 .10 Same as the previous problem.000 pulses.5 mm/min.5 in at a feed rate = 20.00458} = 0. Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5.0 = 617.4(20)/60 = 205. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min. Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses.8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction.25) to point (100.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.4 rev/min. fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7. leadscrew. leadscrew.025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308.0 mm.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514.25 = 75 mm. Rearranging.150)? Ignore acceleration. 0.00458 mm CR = Max{0. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1). The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333.0 in/min. and optical encoder. Rearranging. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution.

5(225)/0.002 in. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine.Rearranging. 38. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min.25 m/s and chip load = 0. Tm = 300/3.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns . and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor.2)/12 = 13. Solution: (a) N = (1. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s.016 mm.33 in/min. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0.89 rev/s. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in. The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s. 38. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system. 258 .978 mm/s. fr = N f nt = 19. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.05)(4) = 3. 38.002 in. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38.26 min. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.05 mm. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0. (b) N = fr /p = (3. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0.1667 = 120 rev/min. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20. Cutting speed = 1.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0.89(0. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table.2/100 = 0.2/100 = 0. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.2) = 160 in/min.663 rev/s.25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center.4 s = 1. np = xns/p = 7.125 pulses.13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew).978 = 75. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable.0 mm.0 mm.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.1667 = 10.

62 = 4.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory.5) to point (1.5(-0.05 mm Accuracy = 0.75 Hz 38. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center.0 .5 = 5.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.7/-2. also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved. which has 4 threads/in.20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 . and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated.5) = 113.62 mm/min)/(6.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.663) = 165. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16.06 mm.5 CR = 0. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement.8 rev/min. ∆x = 1. Tm = 325/71. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.94 rev/min.0.0004 in. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis.5 CR + 0. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut.58 Hz 38. 1. (b) N = fr /p = (71. Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0. (b) Move from (3.15 = 0.0 mm. ∆y = 7. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6.7 in. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11. fr = N f nt = 596.10 CR = 0.05 rev/min.5 cos 113. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0. To execute a certain programmed instruction.20 2B – 1 = 750/0. Angle A = tan-1(5.0.16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length.5 in/min.250/(5 x 125) = 0. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3.fp = ns N = 250(0.0 mm.05)(125)/60 = 125.012/(.15 0.54 min.7° frx = 7.5 in/min.5.15 mm.8(0.25 . 7.5) to (1.25 mm and repeatability = ±0.5 = -2.0.5 in.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.1. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596.2) at fr = 7.06)(2) = 71. 7.17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table..94)/60 = 79.0 mm/rev) = 11.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0.5.4017) = -3. It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk). 1.3. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12.25 mm = 0.15/3 = 0. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0.2 .15 mm σ = 0.62 mm/min.7 = 7. the table must be moved from point (3.25) = 12. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0.

the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.25 mm.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0. is specified as 0. The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid.0131 = 0. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew). (a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy.87 → 12 bits. CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.15 mm Accuracy = 0.876 B = 9.0169/0.2 B ln 2 = ln 969.0169 CR = 0.030°.25 .20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link.25 mm = 0. The accuracy of the joint-link combination. (b) Given CR = 0.5 CR + 0. given the repeatability error. The joint must have an accuracy of 0. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.0. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5.0 mm.0338 in Since CR is positive.030 in.5 CR + 0.2 2B = 969.030 0.15 = 0.5 CR + 3σ = 0.0005236) = 0. range = (2π(75)/360) x 25 = 32.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5.725/0.030 = 0.05) = ± 0.5 = 0.0338 from part (a). Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.15 0.0338 32.69315 B = 8. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance.5 CR = 0.10 CR = 0. so there are no additional errors due to deflection. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0. Accuracy = 0.0/(2 x 0.030° = 2π(0. The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0.6931 B = 6.5 CR = 0.030 .22978 38. 0.725 in.0338 2B – 1 = 32.0131 in.030° of rotation.19 B = 11.0338 = 968.2 0. End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0. Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0. Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement.20) = 12.725/(2B – 1) = 0.5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.0005236 rad.0131 Specified accuracy = 0.05 mm.5 CR + 0.92 → 10 bits 260 .0131 0. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.0.030)/360 = 0.

Answer. Answer.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. 39. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. inspection. multiple machines with manual handling. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 . A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode. (5) workpart control. 39. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. (6) tool management. 39. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. Answer.9 39. assembly. multiple machines with mechanized handling. What are the advantages of FMS technology. 39. A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes.3 Define cellular manufacturing? Answer.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer. (3) production control.1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. 39. 39.4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer. and sheet metal processing.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology.2 What is a part family? Answer. and flexible manufacturing systems.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. In GT. 39.39 39. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. Applications include: machining. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family. (2) NC part program download. 39. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family. flexible manufacturing cells. (7) work transport control. (2) accept changes in schedule. (4)machine control. and (8) general system management.7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer.

(c) master schedule. Answer. (b) material handling system.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production. 39. Answer. and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. Answer. (b) design. (b) engineering drawings. (d) mass production. (b) 39. (c) nonrotational parts. (b) 39. (d) plastic parts. (c) length-to-diameter ratio. (e) 262 . (e) medium volume. low volume production. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) batch size. 39.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system.7 Industrial robots can. 39. (b) low variety. Answer. or (e) route sheets. or (e) weight of parts processed. or (c) six machines. (d) major process. in general.Answer. (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. (c) low volume. (e). and (d) weight. (b) metal parts. (d) production schedule. (d) processing equipment. (b) four machines. (c) part family. (e) 39. Answer. 39. or (e) rotational parts. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. all correct answers must be given.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) and (c). For each question. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. and (f).8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 39. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts. and (f) tolerances. (c). Answer. (e).2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate. (e) part dimensions. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (2) reduced work-in-process. Answer. (c) manufacturing. medium variety production. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines.

Answer. (c) manual assembly lines. (d) 263 .9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (b) machine vision. or (f) transfer lines.39. (d) numerical control.

1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line? Answer.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. 40. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action. Answer. and (3) work flow principle. 40. Answer. Answer. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations. 40. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product. Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations.40 40.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. (2) interchangeable parts. 40. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. also known as division of labor. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. (2) scheduling the models is more difficult. 264 . Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. A batch model line produces the different products in batches. Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. Answer. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next. 40. with a setup changeover between the products. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models.9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. 40. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models. (2) synchronous transfer. Both lines are used to make multiple product types. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. 40.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based.2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. Review Questions 40. and (3) asynchronous transfer. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously.

2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous. 40.11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e. all correct answers must be given.40. machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations.13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. and (3) multiple manning. (c) order of work stations along the line. or (c) synchronous. (2) repositioning time during Tc. Reasons include: tool changes. 40. The entire work cycle is performed at one station.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next. or (c) medium production. 40.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop. The repositioning time is called the transfer time. (c) 40. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. 40. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name.. (d) 265 . Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) mass production. what is that name? Answer.10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. sudden mechanical and electrical failures. Answer.g.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer. 40. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (a) 40. (b) continuous.

33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(. Answer. (c) machining. and 7.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100. Solution: (a) Rp = 100.06 → 47 workers 40.04) = 26.97.92.000 units. (b) automotive chassis fabrication.9 min.6 → 34 stations 40. (b) continuous.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex. Work content time = 42. (d) pressworking. line efficiency = 95%. Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40.9/(0. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line. (d) involves straight-line motions. 40. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td.14 min. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42. The line will operate 50 wks/year. (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line. (b) consists of multiple work elements.0/1.Tr = 1. and balancing efficiency is 93%.1 = 0.2 In the previous problem.5) = 53.95)/50 = 1. and (b) number of workers required.5 hr/shift. Ts = Tc .0 min.92 x 0. balancing efficiency Eb = 0.97)/53.7 Answer. and (f).14 .09125 = 38. (a) and (c).09125 min. compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min. Repositioning time = 6 sec. (c) involves a single work element. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. 5 shifts/wk. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr.04 min.000/(50 x 5 x 7. (e) requires sensory capability. w = Min Int ≥ 42.0/(. Ts = Tc .33 = 1.0.1 = 1. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor.99125) = 46. The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly.78 → 27 workers 266 .40.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1. Answer. Answer.Tr = 1.99125 min. (c) parts passed by hand. or (e) spotwelding.0. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec.6 40.5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1. (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous.5 40. (d). or (d) synchronous. w = Min Int ≥ 25.4. Assume line efficiency E = 0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand.4 = 33.93 x 1. (c). and (f) simple.09125 .

The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr. From previous experience with similar products.08Tc = 0.0 hours/shift. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line.8/(32 x 1.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60.9325 (c) Tr = 0.Tr = Tc . and the transfer time = 6 seconds. but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7. Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc.40.4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48. The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr. balancing efficiency = 93%.03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1.63875) = 0.85 min.63875 min. and a repositioning time of 0. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22.85) = 27. It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop. (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1. and 8. Determine the balance delay.0 .5.8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2. Solution: (a) E = 7.93 x . 40.95 min.0. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots. (2) paint shop.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.1425 min. The workers remain seated along the line.95)/32 = 1.15 = 1.50 min. the average manning level is 2.78125) = 1. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor. Trim-chassis-final has no automation.6/8. 267 .5 = 500 stations 40. Ts = Tc .000 units annually. proportion uptime = 95%.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station. Both of these departments are highly automated.55 sec. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.Tr = 0. This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day. w = 24(1. and the paint shop coats the bodies. = 8.15 min is allowed for each worker. There are 15.95)/60 = 0.5 x 60/(0.08(1.15 = 0.0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc .78125) = 0. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1. and (c) repositioning time Tr.Tr = 2. determine: (a) the cycle time. (b) balancing efficiency.5 = 18.6 hr on average. Assume E = Eb = 1.90)/36 = 1.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0.2 minutes.0.5.90.0.0(60)/30 = 2. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.92(1. The required production rate is 30 units per hour.92 Tc = 0. (3) trim-chassis-final department.8 min.0.67 → 19 stations 40.25.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. Proportion uptime E = 0. two shifts/day. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant.5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240.78125 min Ts = Tc . Determine: (a) line efficiency. Solution: (a) Rp = 240.0 x 1. 5 days/week.95 .0 = 0.9 min. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour.

5 = 1. (d) What is the average manning level on the line.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min.5 + .95)/31.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs.15 = 1. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr. the remaining stations each have one worker. It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1.0) = 0. find: (a) cycle time.78 = 1.92 on the manual stations. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22. The line operates at 95% uptime.9(1.1867 min.933 40.0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1. 268 .3% 40. Tc = Ts + Tr = 1.92 x 1. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec. (b) Ts = Tc .068 min. (b) number of workstations.Tr = 0.50 .65/. (c) the balancing efficiency.2 .7935 min.417 40.9Tc = 0.333(24) x 2 + 0.6435 min.068) = 55. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47. The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min. and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%.Tr = 1.5 units per hour. There are 24 workstations on the line.1 = 1. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor.95 = 1.40) = 0. w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 .2/(17 x 1. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously.933 = 93.0/(0.1867) = 1. one-third of which have two workers.92(34.40 min.78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(.0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers. uptime efficiency = 89%.0 min.89)/45 = 1.0.Tr = 1. Ts = Tc . where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.2 = 1.5 min.95(60)/47.97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0. Determine: (a) number of workers.7935 . and (d) average manning level. (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line.55) = 31. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1.0.2 min.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a). Tp = Tc/E = 1.65 min.0. The manual stations each have one worker. Because of the automated stations.0 min If perfect balance. The remaining stations have one worker.Ts = Tc . of direct manual labor. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1. w = 0. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0.8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55.737 = 34.2 min/cycle. then Eb = 1.0 x 1. Ts = 1. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0.15 = 1. w= Twc/EbTs = 55..737 min.

5 + 0. Determine: (a) hourly production rate.95 5 1.225 = 0. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0.92 + 0.1 = 19.50 min. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.9127 Automated Production Lines 40. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.015.15 + 0.5 = 25.5 hrs Q = 25.25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period.95 + 1.0) = 1.05 min Eb = 6.5/3.075(3.10 = 1.008) = 0.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25.10 + 1.725 = 0. If the value added per unit produced = $4. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line.80 = 6.25 min. which is accomplished by a human worker.5 E = 25.690 40.015) = 0.1 = 0. will the computer system pay for 269 . It costs $75/hour to operate the line. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30. Rp = 60/0.78 min.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0.6435) = 0.06 + 0.484 40.50 + 0. and (c) the line efficiency. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week.0) = 0.00. The other five perform processing operations.10 3 1.15 + 0.15) = 8.725 min. and hours of downtime = 14.842 40.5/40 = 0. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec.06 6 0. The number of downtime occurrences = 110. Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10.60 = 3. the line does not achieve this rate.15 4 0. EH = 40E = 40 .50 + 1.80 2 1. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E.5 + .78/8.10 min. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour. One station is used for loading and unloading.075 Tp = 0.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations.5/0.14.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1.0 min to make repairs and restart.6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0. Probability of a station failure is p = 0.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1.05 = 0.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour.80 + 1.16 Tp = 1. The line operates 4000 hours per year. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3.5 hours.5(60)/1.60. exclusive of materials.725 = 82.11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1. since the line efficiency E = 0.13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period. However.16(10. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25. and (b) line efficiency.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec.0 minutes.92 7 0.

000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33. Based on previous experience. Rp = 60/1. Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1.8 min.0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120.25%)(2. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2.8) = 0.01)(5.000 = $53. and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.2 + 0.0 .0) = 9.1.itself within one year of operation.2) = 0.333/yr.7/1.00(133.6 min.8/0.01.8/14 + 0.75(0.333 units/yr Revenues = $4.2 min. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9. and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a). This is more than enough to justify the $25.00(120.7 + 0.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion.33) = 133.$480. Tp = Tc/E = 1. Ignore material costs in your calculations.86 pc/hr E = 0. Tp = 1. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533. Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300. Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate. FTd = (1 .333.000 investment.2 min.05(14) = 0.05 = 196 n = (196) .00Q = $4.4 = 42.05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9.000/yr. Rp = 60/1.333) = $533.8/n + n(0.8/n + 0.4 min.8 = 33.0 min. FTd = Tp .333 .50 270 .15 An automated transfer line is to be designed. and Tp = 2.7 = 1. The total work content time = 9.05n dTp/dn = -9.0 min. the average downtime per occurrence = 5.000) = $480.000 units/yr Revenues = $4.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp.0 min. This is reduced by 25% with new system.8/n.4 = 0.6 = 2.6 = 1. 40.8/n2 + 0.Tc.2/.

1 41.g. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e. and gages will be needed. (5) methods for manual operations (e.7 In the make or buy decision.41 41...6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning. for example. 41. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart..g.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. 41. drawn metal bar. Answer. 41. fixtures. Table 41. dies. and so forth. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation). why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally. (3) what tools. (2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement. (7) estimates of production costs.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed.g. 41.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer. Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. Answer. Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. 41. manufacturing research. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped. Review Questions 41. rolled sheet metal. (2) equipment selection. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required.4 What is a route sheet? Answer. molds. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. e.1 in the text. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes. loading and unloading a production machine). See Example 41. (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. 271 . casting.

12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle? Answer. Table 41. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability.1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. 41. (i) sheet metal stamping. (c) drilling with a twist drill. 41. (d) electroplating. 272 . Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. maintainability. For each question. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication. and (7) possible need for alternative sources. These factors include installability. (11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list. (3) production quantity. Answer. (3) Use common parts across product lines. (9) Use modular design. The factors include: (1) cost. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. upgradeability. (g) rolling. (d) process planning. all correct answers must be given. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design.Answer. (f) impression die forging. as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. and (p) ultrasonic machining. 41.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability. (n) trepanning.11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders.5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components. and (f). (b) facilities planning. (3) design for life cycle. (2) whether the process is available internally. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. In addition. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. reliability. (2) design for quality. (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item. (4) Product life. (b) anodizing. 41. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (o) turning. (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. (e) product design. and (4) design for cost. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (k) spot welding. (a). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (h) sand casting. 41. (7) Minimize flexible components. 41. (c). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and disposability. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. (d). (6) supplier reliability. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (8) Design for ease of assembly. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging. serviceability. (2) Use standard commercially available components. (c) process improvement.

5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP. (a). (i) sheet metal stamping. (o) turning. and (m). (i) sheet metal stamping. (b) retrieval CAPP. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (g) rolling. (n). (b) anodizing. (n) trepanning. (k) spot welding. or (d) none of the preceding. Answer. (n) trepanning. (d) electroplating. (o). (e). (m) tempering of martensitic steel. Answer. (b) 273 . 41. 41. (l). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. and (p) ultrasonic machining. and (h). (g) rolling. (h) sand casting. and (p) ultrasonic machining. and (p). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (k) spot welding. (h) sand casting. (c) traditional process planning. (f) impression die forging.3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (f). (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (f) impression die forging. (c). (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (i). Answer.4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (j).Answer. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (c) drilling with a twist drill. 41. (o) turning. (b) anodizing. (g). (d) electroplating.

10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer. for example. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels. 42. In a reorder point system. increase shift hours.42 42. (2) sales forecasts. 42. 42. Answer. End products and spare parts experience independent demand. Common use items are materials.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 . Production rate is greater than demand rate. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items. authorize overtime. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. increase number of shifts. Answer. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure. 42. and (3) spare parts.1 42. 42.6 In MRP. Answer. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. as the Japanese view it.3 42. or a component that is used on more than one product. a starting material that is used on more than one component. and (3) inventory record file. Reduction of in-process inventory.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule. components. what are common use items? Answer. and subcontracting work to outside vendors. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning. Answer. 42.5 Define reorder point inventory system.9 42. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer.

42. 42. (c) inventory storage space. (c) manufacturing engineering. (b) economic order quantity. or (e) material requirements planning.range production quantities. and (e). (b) independent demand items. (c) general product lines. authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. Answer. (c).6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) investment. (c) 275 . 42. Answer. (c) low production quantities. 42. (d) master production schedule. (e) interest rate.2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. In a push system. Answer.7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning. and (f) spare tires.Answer. and (g).5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items. (d) holding cost. (d) setup.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime. (c) cost per piece. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) batch size. (d) mass production. (d). and (e) raw materials. (e) sales forecasts. (d). all correct answers must be given.4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. Answer. (c) obsolescence. or (e) product design. (e). (b) manufacturing logistics. The three phases are (1) order release. (e) spoilage. (b) and (e). (b) direct labor. (c) just-in-time production. (2) order scheduling. 42. (b). authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) firm customer orders. 42. Answer. and (g) storage. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (f). and (f) setup cost. (a).1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. and (e) mid. In a pull system. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. and (3) order progress. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (d) production equipment. (d) mass production quantities.11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer. For each question. 42. (b) and (d). (b) 42. Answer. (b). (f) stock-out.

5 x 250/(0.06075 hr = 3. 42. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr.00)(7217/2) + 2. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.process in the factory.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0.42. Setup cost to produce this product is $300.000 x 2.00)(2000/2) + 2. Answer.30(4.625 = $16. (d) releasing orders to the shop. Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0.000 units.3 A product is produced in batches.5 x 250(50.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company. Batch size = 2000 units. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly). Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment. To keep in-process inventories low. Annual demand is 60. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.0 hr.825 .3(9. Annual demand for the part is 15.5 = (2 x 60.00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0.25(4.00))0.00))0. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. (b) floor foundation in the factory.5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.5 hr.25 x 4. Setup time to run a batch = 2.5 = (2 x 20.000 x 300/(.00))0.2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20.5 x 250(50.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0.1 A product is made-to-stock.00)(6000/2) + 300(60. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr.30 x 4. Annual demand = 50. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9.00.65 min. Ch = $1.00. and unit cost of the product = $4. (c) managing work-in.00.0 hr. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year.8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.000 units.000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42.000 x 2 x 200/(12 x .8660 = $8165 42. Each unit costs $4. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation. cost per unit = $6.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42. holding cost rate = 2. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr.000 units.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.30(4.000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16.025(6. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2.000/2000) = 1200 + 15.00/unit.025 x 6.5 = (2 x 50. 276 . and annual holding cost rate = 30%.000 units.5%/month. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine.

60 42.05(1000/2) + 50(40. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.50 + 2121.000/8944) = 223. Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero.79 Material Requirements Planning 42.05.21 = $1802.1 hr.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1.5 = 8944.00 x 200(15.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000. manufacturing.000/4243) = 2121. Cost to order the component is around $50.000 x 20/1.000/775) = 387.00) 0.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42.1) = $20.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10.05) 0.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0. TIC = 0.00 For the EOQ = 8944.61 = $447.60 + 223. TIC = 0. C2.50 + 387.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component.000 x 50/Ch)0.00(775/2) + 20(15.2.00(4243/2) + 3. Use a format similar to Figure 42.Also.00 x 200/1.10 = $774.5 1000 = (2 x 40.000 x 50/1000 = $4. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. Each bin holds 1000 units. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1.14 = $4242.21 Additional cost = 2250.00 .447.000 x 50/0.6. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0. determine the time-phased requirements for M2. if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes. what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually.5 Ch = 2 x 40. EOQ = (2 x 40.00) 0.05(8944/2) + 50(40. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs. The annual usage of the component is 40. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 . (a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents. EOQ = (2 x 15.5 = (2 x 15.7.000 x 3.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1.000 units. Ordering.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1.

Use a format similar to Figure 42.7. determine the time-phased requirements for M5.8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1.2.8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4. manufacturing. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 .M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5.6. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1. Ordering. Assume no common use items. zero for S2. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. C5.

2.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution. let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4.0 45.0 _____ 24.0 ______ 152. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6. Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr.333 20.0 7. This is fewer than the number of hours required.11 In the previous problem. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product. To meet the weekly production.0 min. The plant normally operates one shift (7.333 Hrs/wk center 56.0 50.0 5. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4.333 = 20.333 Totals 42.333 26.0 13.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr. overtime must be used.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20. This is fewer than the number of hours required.0 hours per shift).0 min.0 20.333 hr. In both cases.0 min.0 6. assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6. propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three.0 46.0 50. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week. overtime must be used.0 ______ 128. 3.333 + 26 = 152. 3. To meet the weekly production. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A.0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7.333 Hrs/product 56.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13.0 min.333 ______ 152. this will require an additional setup 279 .0 Run hours 50. Product 2: Time per batch = 5. Solution: Determine time to produce each product. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible.

0 5.50 hr. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.50 40.B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A .33 Hrs/wk center 41.33 Totals 42.QIII) + 6.0 . (c) shortest processing time.13 40.80 13.06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.00 ______ 128.0/0.7 = 2 Sequence = C .0 5.06667(528) = 41.15) . The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.0 + QI(4/60) = 6.333 .50 20.20 14.50 26.0 .05(900 .10 = 710 TI = 5. and (e) critical ratio. There are three orders (A.0 + 0.10 QI = 76.0 7.06667(528) = 41.0 + 0.06667Q I 2(0.333 .0 = 70.06667Q I Work center II: TII =6.5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 .0 _____ 35.0.0 .05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5.50 14.A 280 .33 Hrs/product 41.0 6.0. Work center III: TIII = 5.05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5.333 .05(710) = 40.06667Q I = 76.50 9.0 = 71.80 20. Work center I: TI = 6.B .0. B.0 + 0.20 41.0 + 0.0.20 20.05Q III 2(0.0 + 0.6.133 hr.0 + 400(3/60) = 76. Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A .33 40.00 ______ 163. The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.50 hr TII = 76. (d) least slack time.20 hr TII = 76.0 + 0.333 QI = 70.5. The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.0.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.15) .05(710) = 40.0 + 0.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .13334 = 528 TI = 6.15) .06667 QI) = 0.333/0.16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 .A .0.QI) + 7.13334 QI = 76.33 35.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15. (b) earliest due date.0 6.We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3.C .B .C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .50 ______ 163.0 Run hours 35.05 QIII) = 0. We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4.05 QIII = 76.0 + 0.0 .0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.06667(750 .333 .0 QI = 71.

0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .A 281 .15)/5 = 2.15)/7 = 1.C .15)/16 = 1.1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .286 Sequence = B .

The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations. Review Questions 43. 43. This indicates that something is wrong with the process. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). measurements of the characteristic of interest are made. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. and (2) freedom from deficiencies. (c) no missing parts. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. (d). 282 . the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (e) reliability.3 Define process capability. Answer.43 43. In control charts for attributes. and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. In control charts for variables. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. (d) product weight. Answer. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features.7 When interpreting a control chart. called assignable variation. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. and (e).6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer.1 43. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits. 43.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature.5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. 43. (3) sudden changes in average. 43. 43. Answer. A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. all correct answers must be given. (b). (b) location of ON/OFF switch.

250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same. using the standard normal distribution.00 283 . Answer. and (d). (c) radius of a cylindrical part.255)/0. then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. (c) loss function. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6. z = (6. (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest. (c).004 cm and tolerance limits 2.4 43.2. (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G.43.255)/0. and (e) robust design.243 to 6.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1.004 = -4. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart.50. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.013 cm. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6.004 cm. Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43. (c) upper design tolerance limit. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample.263 . z = (6. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6. (b) control charts.250 ±0. and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart. 43. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.7 Answer. Determine the process capability. (b) 65%.6 43. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample. (c) 95%. or (d) range of sample values.255 ± 0.2 In the previous problem. (a). Answer. (b) points near the central line.004 = +2.004) = 6. (c) number of defects in a sample. (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts. (c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x . Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6. Answer. Answer. Answer.255 cm and σ = 0.0.255 cm. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6. (c) and (e).5 43. or (e) 100%.3 43. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean.6.267 cm 43. (b) number of reworked parts in a sample.255 ± 3(0.263. (d) Pareto priority index. In a control chart. or (d) upper value of the maximum range R.237 . Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling. (d) 99%.237 to 2.

19 mm.77. z = (26.23°) = 2.27%.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.41%. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0. Pr(z < -3.77) = approx. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.6)/0. Pr(z < -3.69°.6 ± 1. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.79°.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28.53) = 1.0 to 30.28.6)/0. The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.0 mm.53) = 28.28.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.004 cm and tolerance limits 6.Using tables of the standard normal distribution. z = (30. (b) Given process mean µ = 6.0 mm.25. z = (6.64) = 0. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28.12%.250 cm and σ = 0.6.1° ± 0.64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution. On the upper side of the tolerance limit. 0.25) = 0. z = (6.0 mm and σ = 0. 43.250)/0. determine the value of the process capability index. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.41° to 92.25) = 0. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0001 = 0.02%.237 to 6.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit.0 mm. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90.250)/0.53 = +2.0006.0)/0.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.004 = -3.53 mm.88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0.3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92.0 .1°.6 mm and σ = 0.53 mm and tolerance limits 26. Pr(z > 3. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28.28.237 . The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0.01.53 = -3. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.5 In the previous problem.0/(6 x 0.00) = 0.53 = -4. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4.0227 = 2.9 → virtually no defects.0 .0001 + 0.28. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.25.004 = +3. Pr(z > 2.258 284 . On the lower side of the tolerance limit. 0. z = (30. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° .1 ± 3(0.0006 = 0.6 mm.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.0°.23°.0 ±2.0002 = 0.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same. Pr(z > 2. Pr(z > 3. determine the value of the process capability index.53 = +3.263.0 mm.0 . Determine the process capability.0 .6. 43.0041 = 0. (a) Determine the process capability. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0)/0.01 to 30. (b) Given process mean µ = 28.23) = 92.263 .0006 + 0.77) = approx. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°.6 ± 3(0. 43.0 to 30. Using tables of the standard normal distribution. z = (26. Solution: (a) PC = 92.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0012 = 0. using the standard normal distribution.

Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance. The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm.005 in.010 in.0212 cm 43.00707) = 5.002 inch.5 = (0.0333 mm .020/4 = 0.005) 2 = 0. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach. Ta = ± 0..002) = ± 0.000 ± 0. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1.500 cm and standard deviation = 0.00005) 0. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2. Interpret this to be ± 0. T2 = 2T. Ta = (20 x 0.0 mm with tolerance = ±0. Thus. 43. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here. significantly beyond the specified tolerance.000 cm.1333 mm = ± 0. T = 0. 43.005 in. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated.0667 mm.43. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process..6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2.40 mm.010 inch.00005 σa = (0. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0.20 mm. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.005 cm. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0.40/6 = 0. 10 mm. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0. T1 = 0.50 cm dimension are parallel.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0.010 in. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0.040 in. T2 = 0.500 inch.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0. 285 . All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0. T3 = 0. Interpret this to be ± 0.0667 mm = ± 0. and 15 mm.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0.010. However.00032) 0. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions.5 = 0.0042)0. Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts. T1 = T. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C.010 inch).9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30.8 The assembly in Figure P43.500) ± 3(0.200 mm = ± 0.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2.250 ±0. The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0.40 mm. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile.020 inch (±0. so that the thick assembly has the same profile.0179 in.0004/4 = 0. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances.00895 in.020) 2 = 0.0667 mm.625 inch. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5.100 mm. T3 = 3T.5 = 0. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0.

28 + 9.2 mm and σ = 0. T2 = 2T.A2 R = 9.20 mm = CL LCL = x .23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.24 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .23)/10 = 9. Ta = 1.2 mm and σ = 0.5 = 0. LCL.5 = 3. Ta = 0.1069 mm.8485 = ± 0.22 0.6 mm = ± 0.24) = 9.3207 mm = ± 0.17 0. then Ti = 6σ = 0.5 = (14T2)0.5 PC = 1. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.2) = 1. has a thickness = 10.19 0.24 + 0.1069 mm = ± 0.2138 mm = ± 0.1 mm for the thickness.30 + 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.32) 0.5 = (8(0.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.40 mm. and UCL for the x and R charts.19 + 0.20 0.1604 mm. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1. Again.5.80 mm.566 mm = ± 0.15 0.5. then Ti = 6σ = 0. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0.27 6 9. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C.24 + 9.21 8 9.20 + 9.0. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .424 mm Control Charts 43.17 3 9.3(10) = 20 mm.26 5 9. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. Given that assembly PCI = 1. 43.24 (a) x chart: x = 9.008889) 0.5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0.15 + 9.5 = (0.20 0.30 4 9.0333 mm.03333) 2)0.0 mm.12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.373(0. T3 = 3T.21 10 9.3(10) = 20 mm. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part.373(0. Therefore. 43.19 7 9.20 .22 + 9.17 + 0. s x R 1 9. 286 .19 + 9.27 + 0.7417 T T = 0.0333 mm.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1.0. T2 = 0.21 + 0. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.24) = 9.40/3. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1.23)/10 = 0.20 + 0.24 2 9.5 = (8(0.2895 mm.32 9 9.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.0.32 + 0.1069 T1 = 0.17 + 9.283 mm.5 = (0.12 + 9.26 + 0.2/6 = 0.0943) = 0.0.20 + 9. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1.28 0. Each part used in the assembly. T1 = T. each with independent variability. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm).23 0.0535 mm .20 R = Σ R/7 = (0.0. with process capability = ±0.2/6 = 0.10 Figure P43.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C.1105 mm.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0. T3 = 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 9.21 + 0. Thus.0943 mm Ta = 9(0. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0.7417 = 0.12 0.2) 2)0. including the base part.5 = 0.0.

0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.860 + 0.013 7 1.004 + 0.577(0.008 + 0.000 + 0.A2 R = 1.999 0.027) = 0.014 + 0. s x R 1 1. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest.136(0.14 In 12 samples of size n = 7.24) = 0.017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1.860 . The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches).419(0.006 0. = CL LCL = x .027) = 0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2.020 + 0.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control.8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0.014 4 1.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1. the average value of the sample means is x = 6.076(0. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.027 cm.020 5 0.419(0.0133) = 1.996 + 0.995 + 1.017)/7 = 0. LCL. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts. 43.15 n /3 = 0. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part.027) 7 /3 = 0.0133) = 0.011 + 0.860 cm for the dimension of interest.0281 in. (a) Determine the values of the center. (b) Student exercise.006)/7 = 1.114(0.999 + 0. UCL = D4 R = 2. 43.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6.0.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.008 6 0.011 3 0.0133) = 0.010 2 0.4474 mm.027) = 6.998 + 1.013 + 0. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.995 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 1.000 .027) = 6. R chart: R = 0.996 0. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0.9923 in.0.577(0.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.A2 R = 6.114(0.0326 mm.002 0.860 cm = CL LCL = x .R chart: R = 0.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0. (b) Student exercise. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .000 R = Σ R/7 = (0.0077 in.000 in.0133) = 0.010 + 0.004 0.924(0.998 0.419(0.5. and UCL for x and R charts.002 + 0.

UCL = D4 R = 1.11 = CL LCL = p . estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .14) 2 = 62 (0.87 ) / 90 = 0. A p chart is to be constructed.24 .11(0.03545) = 0.382. 13(0 . A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.03545) = 0.24.298 43.17 UCL .777(8. LCL and UCL for the p chart. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected.11(0.7. Determine the center.11 + 3(0.0626) = -0.3(0.2 → 259 288 . and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.8955.11 + 3 0 .5) 10 /3 = 2.16 n /3 = 0.308(8. 89) / 25 = 0.0196 = 36(0. Determine the center.17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart.11 .19 and UCL = 0.09 . Solution: Use p = 1 .7596. The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117.3 0.5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.3 0 .618.75.223(8.0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.5) = 15.308(8.5) = 1.7/90 = 0. (c) Based on the data given. Solution: d = 117/10 = 11.A2 R = 100 .09 = CL LCL = p .3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.13 .18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%.3(0.13 .0.83)/n = 5. Solution: p = 0.17 (0 .3 0 .87 ) / 90 = 0.0.14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 . Solution: p = 2.83/n) 0.11 + 3 0.11 + 3(0.09 + 3(0.24 + .5) = 97.control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.5(UCL + LCL) = 0. The number of chips per wafer is 200.17 x 0.09 (0.91 = 0.5(. 89) / 25 = 0.75/25 = 0. 91) / 90 = 0.1045. p = 11. Determine the center. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.0626) = 0.0796/0.078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0202) = 0. 13(0 .0796/n n = 5.11 + 3 0 . LCL.236 43.09 .0202) = 0.0.17)(0. and the average number of defects per sample was 2.308(8. LCL and UCL for the p chart. (b) R chart: R = 8.1507 43. 91) / 90 = 0.83 ) / n (0.LCL = 0.10) = 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0196 = 259.11 .5) = 102.10 = 0. UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0.09 (0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.13 = CL LCL = p .3(0.19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0.

5(. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0.05) 2 = 0.05 = 3 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.5(UCL + LCL) = 0.10 + 0) = 0. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116. 05( 0.0025 = 171 43.7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148. p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.4275/n n = 0.95 ) / n (0. Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c .3 c = 116 .43.21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly. Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation.05)(0.10.0025 = 32 (0.95)/n = 0.3 116 = 83. Solution: p = 0.4275/0.3 → 148 289 .05 LCL = p .

The desirable features include: high resolution. 44.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. wide operating range.44 44. Besides good accuracy and precision. What is meant by the term calibration? Answer. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation. electric current. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units. length). what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. and low cost.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique. a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications.. 44. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e.5 44. and light radiation. The six quantities are: length. temperature. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. ease of calibration.1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer. 44. In measurement. speed of response.g. What are these possible actions? Answer. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e. time. 44. Answer.9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. mass. Review Questions 44. laser measuring methods. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision.2 How does gaging differ from measuring? Answer..8 What is the rule of 10? Answer.6 44. 44. Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. 44.g. and electrical field techniques. dimension) satisfies the specification or not. high reliability. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic. In inspection. 44. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. 290 .

The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam. A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces. when the probe contacts the part. 44. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. 44.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine? Answer. (e) temperature. (d) rational prefixes for units. 44. inductance). (e) Panama. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. 0 or 1). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white. (d) Japan. (f) Russia. (d) mass. or (f) time. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. (b) length. In a binary vision system. and converts from time to a linear dimension.3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China. (b) defined in terms of the human body. all correct answers must be given. (c) light radiation. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.15 What is a binary vision system? Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. For each question. 44. Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. (g) 291 . (c) Germany. and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound). radiation (X-ray). (c) originated in Great Britain. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 44. Answer.12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer. (b) 44. Answer. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. Answer. or (g) United States. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances.14 Describe a scanning laser system. 44. Answer.1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing.44. the x-y-z coordinates are recorded.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. (b) France. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. (d) and (e). which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current.

Answer. (d) hard polymers. (c) checks maximum size. and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. (g) steel rule. and (e). (d) shaft diameter. A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. (b) gaging. (b) coordinate measuring systems.6 44. Answer. (c) safety monitoring. (g) snap gages.5 44.destructive testing.12 44. (c) laser techniques. and (e) surface roughness. Answer. and (e) snap gage. Answer. Answer. (a). In a GO/NO-GO gage. (g). and (i) vernier caliper. Answer. Answer. (b). (c) part length. (c) and (d). (h) surface plate. Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. or (d) non. (c) 100% perfect quality. (b) coordinate measuring machine.7 44. (d) machine vision.8 44. (d) plug gage. Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. and (i). (d). Answer. Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection. (e). (b) dial indicator. (e) micrometer.10 44. (c). and (g). (b) cast iron. (c) dial indicators. (f) scanning laser systems. (d). (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing. (b). (b). (b) hole diameter. (a). (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. or (e) stainless steel.44. (a). (d) machine vision. (a) 44. An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth.11 44. (b) limit gage. (c) measuring. or (e) checks minimum size. (b) object identification. (c) divider. which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. (b). (d) micrometer. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator. and (h) ultrasonic techniques.9 44. (c) granite. and (f) X-ray radiation. (d) checks minimum material condition. (f) sine bar. (b) checks maximum material condition. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks. and (e). Answer. (e) micrometers. (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. (c) master gage. (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products. (e) outside calipers.13 292 . Answer.