BIOCHEMISTRY NATIONAL BOARD EXAM REVIEW Larry D.
Barnes Department of Biochemistry University of Texas Health Science Center at San Antonio June, 2004 Addendum, June 2005 (pg. 35)
The following questions (1-243) are from nine National Dental Board Examinations in Biochemistry-Physiology from 1978-1998. 1998 is the latest board exam released by the American Dental Association. This compilation of questions is intended to show the format, the subject areas generally covered, and the general level of knowledge required. Answers with some commentary are given beginning on page 29. The addenum begins on page 35 followed by answers.
BASIC CHEMISTRY 1. Which of the following characterizes exergonic reactions? A. B. C. D. E. 3. Decreased entropy Increased enthalpy Decreased enthalpy Negative free energy change Positive free energy change 2. What thermodynamic parameter is a measure of randomness or disorder in a system? A. B. C. D. E. Entropy Enthalpy Free energy Potential energy Activation energy
Atoms are isotopes of each other only if A. their nuclei contain the same number of neutrons. B. their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass numbers differ. C. their mass numbers are the same, but their atomic numbers differ. D. one is a beta emitter, but the other is an alpha emitter.
4. Which of the following substances is LEAST polar? A. B. C. D. Ethanol Cholesterol Palmitic acid Glycocholic acid
5. Which of the following characterizes an asymmetric carbon? A. A carbon atom with four identical groups attached to it. B. A carbon atom with four different groups attached to it. C. A carbon with at least one carboxyl and one amino group attached to it. D. A carbon atom that has two heavy groups on one side and two light groups on the other. 7. Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure different from all the others? A. B. C. D. E. 1 M glucose 1 M sodium chloride 1 M potassium nitrate 1 N lithium iodide 1 N hydrochloric acid
6. Which of the following compounds does NOT contain a high-energy bond? A. B. C. D. E. ATP Acetyl CoA UDP-glucose Glucose-6-phosphate Phosphoenolypyruvate
BUFFERS and pH
8. The Henderson-Hasselbach equations shows that A. B. C. D. dilution of a buffer increases its pH. pH = pka when an acid is 0.1 N pH = pka when an acid is half neutralized. pH is independent of the dissociation constant of the acid 9. Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has 10-5 M concentration of OH- ion? A. B. C. D. E. 5 7 9 Determine only if the pKa is known. Determinable only if the base composition is known.
10. If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric point of a protein, then how will the protein respond in an electrophoretic system? It will A. B. C. D. E. become denatured. migrate to the negative pole. migrate to the positive pole. remain stationary and unchanged. separate into its different monomeric forms.
11. A physiologic buffer functions to A. regulate the partial pressure of venous carbon dioxide. B. carry fixed acid from the site of its elimination to the site of its production. C. transport carbon dioxide from the site of its production to the site of its elimination. D. minimize the increase in hydrogen ion concentration that accompanies cellular acid production. E. maximize the decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that accompanies alkali formation. 13. The buffer system most important in maintaining the physiological pH of plasma is A. B. C. D. E. protein/proteinate acetic acid/acetate carbonic acid/bicarbonate phosphoric acid/phosphate hydroxybutyric acid/hydroxybutyrate
12. All of the following function in buffer systems in the blood EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. NaCl. H2C03. NaHCO3. Na2HPO4. NaH2PO4.
BICARBONATE/CO2 14. Neutralization of acids by saliva results mainly from which of the following salivary contents? A. B. C. D. E. Mucin Ammonia Carbonate Bicarbonate Amino acids 15. MOST of the CO2 in blood is combined as A. H2C03. B. C. D. E. HCO 3. CH3 –COOH. carbonic acid carbaminohemoglobin.
BICARBONATE/CO2 (Continued) 16. The bicarbonate buffer system of the blood is very efficient because A. bicarbonate is rapidly excreted by the kidneys. B. bicarbonate is able to be stored in the tissue. C. carbon dioxide is able to combine with hemoglobin D. carbon dioxide forms a stable combination with base. E. carbon dioxide is rapidly eliminated through the lungs. 18. Absence of which of the following blood enzymes drastically reduces blood CO2 carrying capacity? A. B. C. D. E. Carbonic anhydrase Alkaline phosphatase Pyruvate carboxykinase Histidine decarboxylase Serum glutamic-oxaloacetate transaminase 17. The normal blood bicarbonate-carbonic acid ratio is 20:1. A patient with a 10:1 ratio is in A. B. C. D. E. compensated alkalosis. compensated acidosis. uncompensated alkalosis. uncompensated acidosis. none of the above. This patient’s ratio is within normal limits.
PROTEINS 19. Removal of a molecule of water between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second amino acid results in formation of a A. B. C. D. E. zwitterion. polypeptide. peptide bond. hydrogen bond. glycosidic bond. 20. Which of the following BEST explains why proteins are able to buffer physiologic solutions over a wide range of pH? A. They are macromolecules of high molecular weight. B. They contain many functional groups with differing pKs. C. They have unique tertiary structures that sequester hydrogen ions. D. They have peptide bonds that are resistant to hydrolysis. 22. Which of the following is the best method for determining the three-dimensional structure of protein? A. B. C. D. E. Dialysis Electrophoresis X-ray diffraction Ultracentrifugation None of these
21. Denaturation usually destroys all of the following bonds in protein EXCEPT A. B. C. D. hydrogen bonds. covalent bonds. hydrophobic bonds. electrostatic bonds.
23. The amino acid that contributes to the tertiary structure of a protein by causing a bend when it occurs in the primary sequence is A. B. C. D. E. leucine. alanine. proline. tyrosine. aspartic acid.
24. A mucin is which of the following types of proteins? A. B. C. D. E. Simple protein Phosphoprotein Chromoprotein. Nucleoprotein. Glycoprotein.
25. How will a protein respond in an electrophoretic system, should the pH become lower than the isoelectric point of the protein? A. B. C. D. E. It will become denaturated. It will migrate to the negative pole. It will migrate to the positive pole. It will remain stationary and unchanged. It will separate into its different monomeric forms.
ENZYMES 26. Which of the following is true regarding enzymes? A. B. C. D. Are not reusable Are needed in large amounts Catalyze endergonic reactions only Increase the energy of activation of the reaction E. Decrease the energy of activation of the reaction 28. The Km value of an enzyme is numerically equal to A. half the maximum velocity expressed in moles/liter. B. velocity of a reaction divided by substrate concentration. C. substrate concentration in moles/liter necessary to achieve half the maximum velocity of a reaction. D. maximum velocity divided by half the substrate concentration in moles necessary to achieve maximum velocity. 27. The optimum pH for an enzyme is the A. B. C. D. isoelectric point of the enzyme. pH of most rapid reaction rate. pH at which the enzyme is most soluble. pH of most rapid denaturation of the enzyme
29. In the relationship between the concentrations of substrate and the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the existence of a limited value (Vmax) of the reaction rate is due primarily to the A. exhaustion of the substrate supply. B. saturation of the enzyme with substrate. C. inhibition of the enzyme by the reaction products. D. denaturation of the enzyme at higher substrate concentrations. E. balance between the increase in reaction rate with increasing substrate concentrations and accelerated destruction of the enzyme at higher substrate concentrations.
Oxidation Hydrolysis Acetylation Phosphorylation Dephosphorylation
. Which of the following liver enzymes. D. Nuclei Lysosomes Microsomes Mitochondria All of the above
34. pyrophosphatase and alkaline phosphatase. Enzymes for electron transport reactions are most active and concentrated in which of the following structures of the animal cell? A. C. Dental plaque arises primarily as a result of 39. the enzyme would convert substrate to product faster. B. E. enolase and phosphorylase. Which of the following enzymes converts trypsinogen to trypsin? A. E. B. C would be a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C would be a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. D.30. E. D. carbonic anhydrase and alkaline phosphatase. Protein kinase regulate the activities of key enzymes through which of the following? A. D. B. Which of the following enzymes is essentially absent from normal mammalian muscle? A. it would take less substrate to drive the reaction to half-maximum velocity than without C. C. Allosteric Competitive Irreversible Uncompetitive Noncompetitive
31. B. C. D. D. C. C. increases the Km for an enzyme-substrate reaction.
37. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting A. E. The velocity vs. C. Glucokinase Phosphorylase Glucose-6-phosphatase Glucose-6-phosphate isomerase Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
ENZYMES (Continued) 38. amylase enolase phosphatase phosphorylase
35. which of the following would be true about that enzyme? A. With C present. alkaline phosphatase and catalase. E. B. ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase even though ATP also is a substrate for the enzyme. Enterokinase Peptidase Secretin Pepsin
36. 32. C. C. pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase. D. E. C. B. B. If the presence of a specific compound. [S] plot for the enzyme would be the same with or without C. With C present. Two enzymes that have been postulated to play very important roles in calcification are A. B. Which of the following types of inhibition BEST explains this phenomenon? A. D.
cellulose. Glucokinase Aldolase Hexokinase Enolase Glucose-6-phosphatase
COLLAGEN 40.enzymatic reactions using which of the following? A. elastin. C. chitin. before formation of their respective amino acyl-tRNA’s. E. Destruction of collagen can be caused by collagenases. gives the liver an advantage over other cells in taking up glucose after a meal? A. Alpha-ketoglutarate. D. The molecular weight of collagen is above 100. C. after translation. albumin. oxygen. in the mitochondrial matrix. Hydroxyproline is incorporated into the molecule by tRNA. keratin. Sucrose and lipid Sucrose and saliva Glucose and saliva Glucose and protein
from other tissues.000 C. D. D. C. D. collagen. D. E. The physiologic importance of hemoglobin lies in 47. B. E. 41. The major protein produced by the odontoblast and contained in the organic matrix of dentin is A. C. B. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen biosynthesis occurs A. and ascorbic acid are essential for which of the following processes? A. D. D. C. The most abundant protein (by weight) in which the human body is A. Incorporation of proline Hydroxylation of proline Gamma-carboxylation of proline Oxidative deamination of lysine Activation of procollagen peptidase
42. 44. while proline or lysine is bound to the peptidyl (P) site on the ribosome.
45. collagen. Easily stretched Absence of proline Disulfide crosslinking Triple helix structure About one-third glycine
HEMOGLOBIN 46. chondroitin. B. E. E.
43. Which of the following do elastin and collagen have in common? A. keratin. C. B. B. Collagen has a trihelical structure. B. D. B. Which of the following statements concerning collagen is INCORRECT? A. Collagen contains both hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine residues. Which of the following is NOT a part of the
. elastin. B. C. E.
5. proteolytic action in the liver. no effect on the ability of blood to pick up oxygen. almost 2. C. pH CO2 Temperature Hydrogen ion concentration 2. less than 1. the substitution of a valine for a glutamic acid residue in hemoglobin S results from A. D. Which of the following enzymes or processes ensures that the correct amino acid is incorporated for a particular codon during protein
51. The consequence of appreciable conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin is A. B. a significant increase in carbon dioxide combining power. greater than 3. B. under conditions where pO2 = 30 torrs. C. exposure to low oxygen tension.
PROTEIN SYNTHESIS 52. B. E. E. D. greater than 2. 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPG)
50. reversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme prosthetic group. None of the above 48. C. E.its ability to combine A. C. B. Iron Protein Magnesium Histidine Pyrrole ring
49. the average number of O2 molecules bound per hemoglobin molecule is closest to A. B. irreversibly with oxygen and CO2. C. reversibly with oxygen at the ferric heme prosthetic group. Compared with hemoglobin A.
hemoglobin molecule? A. a noticeable decrease in the ability of blood to transport oxygen. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen diminishes as which of the following is decreased? A. E. Assuming that P50 = 26 torrs. a genetic mutation irradiation of hemoglobin A. D. D. The process by which genetic information flows from RNA to protein is 53. C. a noticeable increase in the ability of blood to pick up oxygen. B. irreversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme prosthetic group. D. D. E. a significant decrease in carbon dioxide combining power.
glucose. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. transfer RNA. fructose. Hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase yields A. Proline Arginine Tryptophan Asparagine Hydroxylysine
mutation. translation in eukaryotes. C. tRNA which cannot bind amino acids. B. E. Some carbohydrates convert Cu2+ ions to Cu+ ions. B. fructose and maltose. None of the above
CARBOHYDRATES (Continued) 61. translation. D. mitochondrial RNA. D. In this system. B. The arrangement of sugars into D. This property is related to their ability to act as
. B. C. C. B. transcription in eukaryotes. none of the above. transcription. B. 58. B. Streptomycin is an antibiotic which inhibits the process of A. glyceraldehyde. E. D. C. D. E. 60. The termination of synthesis of a polypeptide is believed to involve A. the elongation factor G serves to A. glucose and fructose. D.
synthesis? A. ribosomal RNA. translation in prokaryotes. polyuridylic acid functions as A. hydrolysis of messenger RNA. DNA. glucose only. B. D. In prokaryotic protein synthesis.and Lconfigurations is based upon their resemblance to D. B. E. Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide? 62.
CARBOHYDRATES 59. glycine. D. DNA replication in prokaryotes. E. Polyuridylic acid in a cell-free system capable of protein synthesis results in production of polyphenylalanine. C. E. prevent the larger ribosomal subunits from binding with those that are smaller.A. anticodon-codon interaction. Amino Acyl-tRNA synthetase Ribosomal protein synthesis Post-transcription splicing RNA synthetase Helicase
54. translocate the growing peptide chain and to move the ribosome along the mRNA. D. messenger RNA. C. C. C.and LA. nonsense codons. E. facilitate the binding of Fmet tRNA. transcription in prokaryotes. glucose and maltose. replication. glucose and galactose.
56. C. Each of the following represents an amino acid found in proteins and used directly in the reactions of protein synthesis EXCEPT one. D. form the initiation complex.
C. C. Carbohydrate is stored in the body principally as A. D. Aplpha-1. E. glycogen. E. connective tissue. E. D. The most biologically important physiochemical property of connective tissue which is regulated by its mucopolysaccharide molecules is
. E. B. How many anomeric carbons are present in a fructose molecule? A. 68. D. B. Which of the following functions as part of the extracellular matrix? A. E. hyaluronidase. 0 1 2 5 6
70. C. 64. C. sucrose. a reducing agent. neither a reducing agent nor an oxidizing agent. D.
66. both a reducing agent and an oxidizing agent. The large number of alcohol groups on the polysaccharide chaining H-bond to water. B. glycogen. Central hyaluronate (a helix) trapping water within C. D. C. glucose. Which of the following molecule features contributes to the water-binding properties of proteoglycans? A. B. B. Each of the following is a glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT one. The large number of serine and theronine residues in the core protein offering Hbonding sites. glycosaminoglycans. The carbohydrate in highest concentration in resting muscle is A. glucose. The carboxyl groups acting as buffers B. What linkages occur in glycogen at branch points between glucose units? A.
CARBOHYDRATES (Continued) 71. D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. inositol. C. C. D. D. B. maltose. an oxidizing agent. sucrose.6 Beta-1. Mucin Heparin Collaginase Chondroitin sulfate Dolichol phosphate
69. nucleic acids. B. B.4 Alpha-1.6
65. The space between the core proteins and the hyaluronate being highly charged. D.3 Beta-1. Chondroitin sulfate Dermatan sulfate Hyaluronic acid Heparan sulfate Keratin
67. C. lactose. C. D. glycogen. Glycosaminoglycans function as important structural components of A.4 Beta-1. E. E. B.A.
Amylose Glucose Fructose Glyceraldehyde Glucuronic acid
buffering capacity. B. D.
NUCLEIC ACIDS (Continued) 80. UV light absorption increasing C. B. RNA from DNA. each of the following events take place EXCEPT one. C. Transcription is the cellular process of making A. the existence of multiple species of ribosomes for control of messenger translation. B. D. B. a common tRNA for at least two amino acids. E. Which of the following bonds link the monomeric units of nucleic acids? A. then what is the molar content of G (guanine)? A. solubility in dilute acides. Which of the following is a pyrimidine base that is present in RNA but is NOT present in DNA? A. D. Which event is this EXCEPTION? A. supersaturation with calcium ions. rRNA mRNA cDNA tRNA hnRNA
76. E. Total G-C content of total DNA increasing B. guanine on 1 strand is joined to cytosine on the complementary strand by which of the following bonds? A. new DNA. Amide 1 hydrogen 2 hydrogen 3 hydrogen Phosphodiester
75. As DNA is denatured. The degenerate nature of the genetic code implies A. C. B. D. E. B. E.
NUCLEIC ACIDS 72.A. The function of which of the following types of nucleic acid is to activate and select specific amino acids for protein synthesis? A. C. C. E. B. C. B. D. Base stacking becoming disrupted E. the existence of multiple codons for each amino acid. Pentoses Phosphates Amino acids Purine bases Pyrimidine bases
78. Hydrogen bond breaking 77. C. D. Ionic Peptide Thioester Glycosidic Phosphodiester
74. Which of the following is true of the Tm (melting temperature) of a given DNA double helix? A. Complementary strands becoming random coils D. that a remarkable degree of inaccuracy occurs in transcription. Which of the following are NOT produced by the hydrolysis of nucleic acids? A. If the molar percentage of A (adenine) in a native DNA specimen is 22%. Uracil Guanine Thymine Adenine Cytosine 73. Is a function of the base composition
. C. 22% 28% 44% 56% 78%
79. D. In the DNA molecule. E. 81.
viscosity. D. C. B.
. DNA ligase RNA polymerase DNA polymerase I Restriction nucleases Reverse transcriptase
82. Two genes conferring resistance to different antibiotics D. Large size to facilitate plasmid’s entry into cells
85. Can be measured by observing the change in chemical composition D. sterol. Which of the following is LEAST descriptive of lipids? A. Each of the following is involved in gene cloning EXCEPT one. Nonpolar Carbon-containing Amphipathic Hydrophilic 87. arachidonic acid. D. Must be able to replicate synchronously with the host chromosome B. Separating polyclonal antibodies E. C. C. Which of the following substances represents an unsaturated fatty acid? A. Cholesterol Palmitate Stearate Choline Oleate
88. palmitoleic acid. Preparing enzymes that synthesize nucleic acids B. D. proteins from amino acids by way of RNA. Estrogens Androgens Progestagens Glucocorticoids Mineralocorticoids
LIPIDS (Continued) 90. Neutral fats contain mixtures of one or more fatty acids esterified with A. Isolating the genome of an organism C. B. Gangliosides are glycolipids found on various cell surfaces. B. myristic acid. Several unique recognition sequences for one restriction enzyme C. The polymerase chain reaction is MOST useful for which of the following? A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. none of the above. alkylation of the guanine in DNA. E. stearic acid. D. Which of the following classes of steroids contain 18 carbons and an aromatic ring? A. Synthesizing RNA and DNA
LIPIDS 86. Amplifying a specific DNA sequence D. C. B. C. linoleic and linolenic acids yield A.
B. B. multiple acetate fragments. B. DNA damage by ultraviolet light is due to A. Upon complete hydrogenation. Can be used to accurately predict its molecular weight C. E. This component is 91. C. their unit composition contains another characteristic component.
89. B. D. Plasmid vectors suitable for cloning have which of the following characteristics? A.C. Is higher if individual strands of the DNA double helix are parallel rather than antiparallel 83. D. frequent replacement in the DNA molecule of purines by pyrimidines. E. induction of dimerization by way of covalent bonds between adjacent thymine groups. D. D. E. oleic. excessive unwinding of the DNA molecule C. 84. In addition to sphinogosine.
E. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? A.
95. which of the following are the products of hydrolysis of lecithin? A. choline Sphingosine. sucrose. Acetic Stearic Myristic Palmitic Arachidonic
94. nine moles of acetyl CoA. no flavoprotein enzymes are required for catabolism. C. In addition to phosphoric acid.
B. one mole of acetic acid.
. an intermediate in the synthetic process. one mole of hydroxybutyric acid. excreted in the feces. B. malonyl CoA is an intermediate in synthesis. The pathway of extramitochondrial synthesis of even-numbered fatty acids differs from that of the catabolism of fatty acids in that A. acyl carrier protein is needed in catabolism. carbon dioxide provides an anaerobic environment that prevents oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups in the reactive sites of the enzyme system. D. D. oxaloacetate. B. choline Glyceraldehyde. B. Citrate. C. B. one mole of acetoacetic acid. Glycerol. D. 96. E. C. Beta oxidation of a mole of an 18 carbon fatty acid under physiologic conditions produces A. The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling step in the de novo synthesis of fatty acids is regulated allosterically by the positive modulator A. fatty acids. C.
97. the largest portion of bile salts are A. fatty acids. N-acetylneuraminic acid. E. D. E. inositol Glyceraldehyde. C. D. bicarbonate is a positive effector for this system and favorably alters the conformation of its enzymes.A. C. plasmalogen. B. After functioning in the small intestines. ATP. N-acetylmuramic acid. C. Sodium taurocholate and glycocholate are necessary for the absorption of A. carbon dioxide is incorporated into carbamyl phosphate. B. fatty acids. fatty acids. Carbon dioxide or bicarbonate is required in the biosynthesis of fatty acids because A. C. propionyl CoA may serve as an intermediate in synthesis. lecithin. D. the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system is very efficient at the pH optimum of this sensitive enzyme system. E. ethanolamine
93. acetic acid. sphinogosine. nine moles of acetic acid. serine Glycerol. 99. D. B. triglyceride. E. NADPH. cyclic AMP. D. carbon dioxide is incorporated into acetyl coenzyme A forming malonyl coenzyme A. E. alcohols of high molecular weight.
LIPIDS (Continued) 98. a reactive intermediate in the synthetic process.
E. Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic system is transported to the liver as which of the following? A. B. C. B. 108. prostaglandin. C. D.
glycerol. E. D. E. 101. D. B.B. D. Which of the following is MOST often associated with free fatty acid transport in human blood? A. triglycerides. B. Very low density lipoprotein Low density lipoprotein Chylomicrons Liposomes Micelles
100. C. B. C. Squalene Hexosamine Cholic acid Pregnanediol Deoxycholic acid
MEMBRANES 103. macroglobulin. Which of the following represents a polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly found in animal cell membranes? A. fatty acids. triacylglyceride. nucleic acids. E. Albumin Globulin Cholesterol Sphingolipid Mucopolysaccharide
Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholesterol? A. D. The fluid-mosaic model for membrane structure proposes that A. B. reabsorbed into the portal circulation and reused. B. E. deoxycholate. D. D. cholesterol. C. sphingomyelins. E. Cholesterol Ganglioside Triglyceride Sphingomyelin Phosphatidylcholine
106. The major lipids that make up the cell membrane are A. steroids. E. fatty acids. amino acids. E. reabsorbed into the central lacteal. Oleic Lactic Sialic Stearic Linoleic
MEMBRANES (Continued) 107. destroyed by bacteria in the large intestines. removed from the circulation by the kidneys and excreted in the urine. C. E. C. The major driving force for formation of a lipid micelle is A.
B. phospholipids. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. D.
105. protein-lipid interaction. The most abundant nonphospholipid component of the cell membrane is A. D. 104. B. hydrophobic interaction between
. C. the outer and inner faces of the membrane are identical. 102. Each of the following lipid classes is incorporated into membranes EXCEPT one. C.
B. C. C. E. B. D.B. Reactions that have unfavorable energetics (i. Serine Glycerol Phospholipid Triglyceride
hydrocarbon tails. A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates. glycerol. phosphoglucoisomerase.
. A number of catabolic pathways are allosterically inhibited by an increase in the concentration of which of the following? A. participation of an energy-requiring active transport system. ADP 116. In the glycolytic sequence. oxaloacetate. Mediated (facilitated) diffusion of substances across cell membranes differs from simple diffusion in that mediated diffusion A.
METABOLISM 113. Coupling Allosterism Modification Microscopic reversibility 114. D. acetyl CoA. C. Which of the following features distinguishes active transport from facilitated diffusion? A. E. The rapid movement of a substance across a biologic membrane against a concentration gradient requires A. D. Specificity Carrier-mediated Requires metabolic energy Presence of a transport maximum (Tm)
111. Which of the following molecules would likely form a micelle when mixed with water and agitated? A. + ∆G0) in metabolic pathways may be driven to completion by which of the following processes? A. peripheral proteins are situated only on the outer face of the plasma membrane.
METABOLISM (Continued) 115. D. acetoacetate. hydrogen bonding between water molecules of the micellar core. B. electrostatic interaction between the micellar core and polar heads. requires another solute. B. C.e. B. facilitated diffusion of the substance aided by some binding system in the membrane 112. that the substance be negatively charged. is a one-directional process. fatty acids and amino acids is A. exhibits saturation kinetics. requires ATP. D. C. that the substance be readily soluble in the lipid barrier of the membrane. D. that the substance be carried across the membrane by rapid influx of the solvent.
110. acetylcholine. D. integral proteins are associated with the hydrophobic phase of the bilayer.. D. B. both polar and nonpolar ends of membrane phospholipids are within the hydrophobic phase of the bilayer. C. 109. C. C. the enzyme that brings about the transition from 6-carbon metabolites to 3-carbon metabolites is A.
C. serving as a substrate for glycogen phosphorylase. muscle glycogen differs in structure from liver glycogen. E. (3) glucuronic acid for heparin synthesis. D. C. E. phosphorylase. Cyclic 3’.
117. Cytoplasm Membrane Cell wall Nucleus Mitochondria
121. B. Consider the conversion: alanine – lactic acid – glucose. Functions of the hexose monophosphate shunt include the production of (1) NADP for lactate oxidation. glycogenolysis.
AMP ATP NAD+ Pyruvate
B. (2) NADPH for fatty acid synthesis. glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in muscle. D. D. C. glycolysis. gluconeogenesis. 120. C. D. Under strict anaerobic conditions. serving as a precursor of 5’ AMP which is a cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase. muscle does not contain phosphoglucomutase. promoting the formation of a phosphorylated form of glycogen phosphorylase. Muscle glycogen does not yield blood glucose directly but liver glycogen does because A. An H+ gradient across the inner membrane 124. Excess H+ in the matrix B. E. E. hexokinase. aldolase. D. muscle cells are impermeable to glucose. Enzymes that catalyze the anaerobic processes of carbohydrate metabolism are found predominantly in which part of a cell? A. This is an example of A. B. Transamination Aldolization Reductive synthesis Oxidative deamination Oxidative phosphorylation
119. 122. C.
phosphofructokinase. E. B. B. D. 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. furnishing phosphate for the phosphorolysis of glycogen.
METABOLISM (Continued) 123. C. synthesis of glycerol. B. 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. Energy for ATP synthesis is derived from the electron transport system by which of the following processes? A.B. the catabolism of one glucose molecule would yield a net of A. B.
118. C. 5’-AMP increases the rate of glycogenolysis by A. D. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. hexokinase is not present in liver. C. The chemical energy generated by mitochondrial electron transport results from which of the following? A. D.
The formation of thioesters in the matrix D. Glycogen Acetyl CoA Lactic acid Creatine phosphate Adenosine triphosphate
127. and (5) D. and (5) B. (3). Urea production Oxidative deamination Transamination reactions Cleavage of peptide bonds Oxidation of α-keto acids derived from amino acids. The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due principally to the level of which of the following? A. oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid. nucleus. B. Urea B. E. Formation of a dipeptide with glutamate B. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the catabolism of many amino acids? A. A conformational change in the inner membrane
(4) D-ribose for nucleic acid synthesis. Acids found in the citric acid (Krebs) cycle are A. (1). The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the condensation of which of the following two molecules? A. Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in the A. D. (5) ATP for anaerobic muscle contraction. (1) and (4) C. Pyruvate and malate NAD+ and oxaloacetate NAD+ and oxalosuccinate Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate Acetyl coenzyme A and oxalosuccinate
125. If protein is catabolized for energy. Which of the following represents the chemical substance that is the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction? A. (3) only 126. oxaloacetic acid and aspartic acid. Decarboxylation of the alpha carboxyl group to form a primary amine
METABOLISM (Continued) 131. Ammonia C. The amino group in carbamyl phosphate is directly donated by aspartate in a 132. then MOST of the energy is derived from which of the following? A. B. C. B. E. E. A. D. Which of the following statements is NOT true about ammonia and the α-amino group of amino acids? A. nonparticulate cytoplasm. C. None of the above
128. B. Conjugation of the alpha carboxyl group to glucuronate E. glucuronic acid and aspartic acid. (2) and (4) E. ribosomes. D. E. E. Conjugation of the alpha amino to glucuronate C. D. NH+4 is formed from glutamine in the kidney. B. glutamic acid and succinic acid. Creatine
. B. mitochondria. Transamination of the alpha amino to a keto acid D.
130. oxaloacetic acid and α-ketoglutaric acid.
129. D. C. C.C. (2). (3). C.
fatty-acid synthesis. B. transamination of aspartic acid. Glutamate Glutamine Aspartate Succinate Pyridoxine phosphate
D. cleavage of β-hydroxy. D. acidosis. the Krebs-Henseleit (urea) cycle. gluconeogenesis. E. Uric acid
134. B. Urea Ammonia Uric acid Creatinine Aspartic acid
136. D. C. the hexose monophosphate shunt. E. carboxylation of pyruvic acid. the tricarboxylic acid cycle. After prolonged acidosis. the Krebs cycle
138. B. 133. D. Liver Brain Kidney Muscle
135. acetyl CoA is usually channeled into A. Arginine E. Glutamate dehydrogenase can catalyze the formation of glutamate from ammonia and αketoglutarate using NADPH as a cofactor. Excessive utilization of fats by the body as a source of energy during disturbances in carbohydrate metabolism can lead to all of the following conditions EXCEPT A. Mobilization of fat stored in adipocytes involves A. ketonuria. oxidation of L-β-hydroxybutyrate followed by deacylation. The final step in the complete metabolism of fat is carried out by means of A. oxidative decarboxylation of αketoglutarate. The ketone body acetoacetate is synthesized inside mitochondria of hepatocytes by A. 140.transamination reaction. B. C. D. activation of fatty acids by synthesis of acyl CoA. E. B. D. phosphorylation of glycerol at the expense of ATP.
137. cholesterol synthesis. ketosis. In relative insulin insufficiency. ketone-body formation. E. the reductive fixation of CO2. E. C. which of the following represents the nitrogenous product that is excreted in high amounts in the urine? A. anaerobic glycolysis. C. B. rearrangement of fatty acids in triglycerides. activation of triglyceride lipase by ADP. C. C.
. alkalosis. What is the product P in the following reaction? α-ketoglutarate + alanine = pyruvate + P A. D. C. Which of the following tissues is primarily responsible for formation of urea? A. C. Cellular levels of ammonia must be maintained at low concentrations because of its toxicity. B. D. D.β-methylglutaryl CoA. C.
METABOLISM (Continued) 139. D. B.
Glucose Steroids Cholic acid Oxaloacetate Ketone bodies
148. Urease Uricase Xanthine oxidase Aspartate transcarbamoylase Carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase
METABOLISM (Continued) 149. decarboxylation of aromatic amino acids. The metabolite. Level of beta-hydroxybutyric acid in the urine is depressed. adenosine phosphate. D. gluconeogenesis. Ribose phosphate needed for nucleic acid synthesis can be derived from A. on rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. D. Which of the following is a source of transferable methyl groups in metabolism? A. E. the pentose phosphate pathway. C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is derived MOST immediately from A. Prostaglandins are made within cells A. formylation. C. C. How do inadequate insulin levels. D. Purine ribonucleoside phosphates are all synthesized de novo from the common intermediate A. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of uric acid from purines? A. Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually converted into which of the following? A. guanosine phosphate. C. methionine activation. B.
142. 143. C.
147. D. Coenzyme A participates in A. such as those which occur in diabetes mellitus. on an RNA template. from polyunsaturated fatty acids. E. ergosterol. guanosine diphosphate. inosine phosphate. C. B. B. B. NAD+ NADH NADP+ NADPH FADH2
145. deoxyadenosine phosphate. Storage of cholesterol by the Kupffer cells is increased.E. B. 7-dehydro-sitosterol. D. B. B. the Krebs’ tricarboxylic acid cycle. C. E. D. Glucose utilization is increased. B. E. C. protein synthesis. D. activation of triglyceride lipase by a cAMP dependent protein kinase. 22-dihydro-ergosterol. Valine Choline Leucine Isoleucine 150. affect fat metabolism? A.
141. Which of the following is necessary for de novo synthesis of cholesterol? A. Utilization of fat for energy is increased. D. cholesterol. B. E.
144. one-carbon transfer from tetrahydrofolate derivatives. D. D. E. activation of carboxyl groups. from progesterone. B. 7-dehydro-cholesterol. C. from methionine.
D. The general reaction for the transfer of a “onecarbon fragment” requires the coenzyme A. kidney. C. D. liver.
157.151. thiamine pyrophosphate. tetrahydrofolic acid. D. cobalamin. Which of the following vitamins is necessary as a coenzyme in the initial steps of fatty acid synthesis? A. C. C.
158. E. pyridoxal (as pyridoxal phosphate). E. D. skin. E. D. Hydroxylation at the 1 position of 25hydroxycholecalciferol occurs primarily in the A. CO2 acceptors coenzymes in redox reactions. A vitamin derivative concerned with conversion of glucose to lactic acid is A. pantothenic acid (as coenzyme A). B. Tay-Sach disease is associated with an inborn error of metabolism involving a specific enzyme which normally degrades a particular molecule in the gray matter. Polysaccharides Acylglycerols Gangliosides Fatty acids Proteins
152. intestinal mucosa. D. Biotin Thiamine Vitamin A Vitamin D Riboflavin
VITAMINS (Continued) 159. Pellagra Addison’s disease Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus Parkinson’s disease
VITAMINS 153. Derivatives of riboflavin and niacin function as A.
156. B. C. E. D. flavin adenine dinucleotide. C. replacements for each other in biologic reactions. Pantothenic acid is an integral part of A. Adenine Inosine Xanthine Thyroxin Pyridoxine 154. thiamine (as cocarboxylase). C. B. B. Decarboxylation in the liver UV activation of precursors in skin Metabolism by gut bacteria Deamination in the kidney 160.
155. nicotinamide (as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide). D. B. C. factors in transamination reactions. C. B. B. Which of the following is a vitamin? A. C. pyridoxine phosphate. Which of the following is required for vitamin D3 synthesis? A. This enzyme acts on which of the following? A. pyridoxal phosphate. B. C. folic acid. B. B.
. Glucosuria with hyperglycemia usually occurs in which of the following? A. NAD+. E. D. diphosphopyridine nucleotide. D. E. coenzyme A.
162. C. B. B. prevent pellagra. C. enamel. D. The function of vitamin K is involved directly with A. D. regulation of calcium in the blood. A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely affects the A. B. pulp.161. D. Osteoblasts form the organic matrix of bone
163. E. E. Prevents pernicious anemia B. Which of the following is a function of vitamin B6 (pyrodoxal phosphate)? A. maintain the integrity of connective tissues. B. The vascular system is more important to these tissues than to enamel and. B. D. E. Vitamin A functions to A. synthesis of prothrombin. 165. Dentin is the most sensitive tissue in the body to a vitamin C deficiency. activation of the Stuart factor. cementum. Vitamin C has metabolic interrelations with other vitamins that have a greater influence on dentin and cementum than on enamel. 168. B. Prevents microcytic hypochromic anemia
166. Vitamin C influences the formation of collagen. C. NAD+ FAD Pyridoxine Lipoic acid Thiamine pyrophosphate
164. C. Acts as coenzyme in transamination reaction D. D. Which of the following is NOT involved as a cofactor in formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate? A. C. the organic matrix found in dentin and cementum. The effect of a vitamin C deficiency on the developing tooth is primarily on the calcification of dentin and cementum. This can best be explained by which of the following statements? A. Which of the following vitamins can be supplied to humans by the normal action of intestinal flora? A. promote absorption of calcium. B. E. D. the vascular system is subject to hemorrhage. E. A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for which of the following? A. To which of the following avitaminoses is the
. dentin. Allows adaptation to dim light C. C. C. Production of menadiol Esterfication of retinol Hydrolysis of peptide bonds Cross-linking of fibrinogen Carboxylation of glutamate side chains
VITAMINS (Continued) 167. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. transcriptional control for fibrinogen synthesis. This does happen. in an avitaminosis C. A D E K None of the above
169. but the reason is obscure. promote differentiation of epithelial cells.
B. aids in absorption of carbohydrates. tryptophan Phenylalanine. E. glucose. has a high caloric value. proteins. D. A and B12. riboflavin. vitamin A. A deficiency of rhodopsin is most likely caused by decreased dietary intake of A. C. nucleoproteins. leucine Leucine. D. 178. C and E. C. lysine. B. D. serine. is necessary for storage of carbohydrates. B. Negative nitrogen balance (nitrogen excretion > intake) may be cause by A. C. B. minerals. B. Which of the following minerals are most frequently in short supply in American diet?
. Which of the following groups includes only amino acids essential for humans? A. A and C. Valine. B. Niacin Thiamine Riboflavin None of the above
176. tryptophan. E. D. B.
179. C. B. lipids. synthesis and catabolism of equal amounts of body protein. nucleic acids. E.prior to calcification of the tissue. C. D. A diet rich in tryptophan offsets a deficiency of which of the following vitamins? A. methylene folic acid derivatives. Some amino acids need not be present in the diet of an animal because of the animal’s ability to synthesize the acids at an adequate rate. A deficiency of choline in the diet can cause abnormalities in the metabolism of A. D. proline Tryptophan. C. E. dietary lack of essential amino acid. Which of the following amino acids lessens the need for phenylalanine? A. 172. metabolism of carbohydrates. A and D.
NUTRITION (Continued) 177. carbon dioxide. C. E. methionine. This process requires vitamins A. protein synthesis. C. Purine bases taken in the human diet in the form of DNA or RNA are mostly
180. Lysine Leucine Glycine Tyrosine Tryptophan
175. B. D. glycine Tyrosine. E. threonine. adenine. A B2 B6 C Niacin
NUTRITION 171. C. growth. D. D. methionine. D and E. B. A principal source of carbon for these amino acids is A.
gingival most susceptible? A. provides essential fatty acids. Lipid is required in the average diet because it A. isoleucine
173. C. carbohydrates. D.
C. E. B. D. 181. ACTH. Which of the following hormones is NOT synthesized from cholesterol?
190. Which of the following must be digested before being in a form that can be absorbed by enterocytes? A. Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of A. production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption. Which of the following represents the amount of dietary calcium normally absorbed from the gut of an adult man? A. stimulation of the thyroid gland. C. E. Ketoacidosis Severe metabolic alkalosis A deficiency in prostaglandin formation An inability to synthesize ascorbic acid
HORMONES 187. 0. excreted in the form of uric acid. B.0. D. D.
185.0 2. calcitonin. adrenalin. An amount less than 50% An amount between 60-70% An amount between 80-100% An amount dependent up the mucosal ferritin level
A. Insulin Glucagon Cortisol Thyroxine Ephinephrine
186. C. C. thyroxin. its chemical type and its
. Which of the following hormones is a polypeptide? A. D. C. C.5.
Calcium and iron Calcium and iodine Sulfur and potassium Iodine.A. D. C.0. magnesium and iron
182. D. C. A sustained. In which of the following combinations is the name of the hormone. D. increased ability to cross-link fibrin. 3. 1. B. B. B. C. E. excreted as urea. Epinephrine Testosterone Progesterone Triiodotyronine Follicle-stimulating hormone 188. E.0. D. C. B. B. broken down to give NH3 and either malonic acid or methylmalonic acid. severe carbohydrate deficiency in the diet will result in which of the following? A. Which of the following is secreted more during the absorptive state than during the postabsorptive state? A. Monoglycerides Fatty acids Fructose Glycine Maltose
183. B. D. A diet deficient in calcium will result in A. parathyroid hormone. 4. 184.
189. production of calcitonin and a low blood calcium level. B. D. The recommended daily dietary allowances for Ca and P provide a Ca/P intake of approximately A. E. B. reused and converted to ATP needed as a source of energy.
ATP. C. Each of the following characterizes a peptide hormone EXCEPT one. C. Progesterone Testosterone Estradiol Cortisol Relaxin A. B. B. glycogen synthetase. C. D. stimulation of protein synthesis and increased entry of glucose into muscles and adipose tissues are biologic actions of the hormone A. C. Which of the following hormones does NOT induce activation of adenylate cyclase? A. A segment of the polypeptide chain is removed. Disulfide bonds are formed. aldosterone and testosterone. D. B. D. 200. adenylate cyclase. C. The polypeptide chain is lengthened. Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in muscle cells which in turn activate A. muscle glycolysis. D. insulin and calcitonin. Disulfide bonds are broken. C. insulin.
197. E. glycogen phosphorylase.
194. liver glycogenolysis. E. AMP. D. the growth hormone. D. Two hormones which act similarly to increase glycogen and lipid breakdown as well as cyclic AMP synthesis are A. C. “second” messenger for many peptide and polypeptide hormones is A. D. epinephrine. D. Which of the following generates a slowly developing long-term response in target tissues by binding to an intracellular receptor? A. cyclic AMP. Stored in secretory granules Synthesized in a precursor form Binds to intracellular receptors Acts by generating a second messenger Usually transported unbound in plasma
192. B. ATPase.
195. Which of the following is a principal action of insulin? A. Which of the following takes place as proinsulin is converted to insulin? A. B. glucagons. Inhibition of lipolysis. The intracellular. adenyl cyclase. C. parathyroid hormone and glucagon. E. B. B. E. E. D. D.tissue of origin correctly matched? A. E. C. E. C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. testosterone. cortisol. Glucagon Estrogen Prolactin Growth hormone Parathyroid hormone
193. a cytoplasmic receptor. B. Insulin Glucagon Epinephrine Parathyroid hormone
HORMONES (Continued) 199. Aldosterone-peptide-pancreas Glucagon-peptide-adrenal cortex Epinephrine-steroid-adrenal medulla ACTH-polypeptide-adrenal cortex Vasopressin-peptide-posterior pituitary
191. B. glucagon and epinephrine. inhibition of cortisol action. glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase. The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated primarily through A. E. C. D. B. C. B.
198. D. B. To mobilize lipid deposits To enhance cell permeability to glucose To decrease cell permeability to glucose To conserve glucose by breaking down amino acids
. enhanced glucose reabsorption by renal tubules.
It decreases the glomerular filtration rate. B. increased deposition of calcium phosphate in bone. D. It decreases the pore size of the distal tubules and the collecting ducts. 204. accelerating the removal of calcium and phosphate from the skeleton but not from the teeth. decreasing the excretion of sodium and chloride. B. B. decreased absorption of phosphate. D. increased reabsorption of calcium phosphate from bone. It inhibits the action of glutaminase. Sodium balance Gluconeogenesis Lipid digestion Protein degradation Carbohydrate metabolism
202. Each of the following is an effect of parathyroid hormone EXCEPT one. The low serum phosphate level in hyperparathyroidism is caused by A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Stimulation of osteoclastic activity in bone C. storage of excess minerals in the bones. A parathyroidectomized animal will exhibit which levels of calcium and phosphate ion concentration in the plasma? Calcium A. E. Which of the following BEST explains the primary action of antidiuretic hormone? A. D. C. E.
HORMONES (Continued) 207. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of calcium 206. B. Aldosterone is normally associated with partial regulation of which of the following processes? A. C. B. Which of the following are the immediate effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium and phosphate? Serum calcium A. C. Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by kidney D. a high blood calcium level. retention of phosphates by the kidneys. D. increased renal loss of phosphate. It increases the H2O permeability of the collecting ducts and the distal tubules. chronic tetany. D. Increased Increased Decreased No change Decreased Serum phosphate Increased Decreased Decreased Increased No change
. The parathyroid hormone acts in the body by A. C. E. All of the above
205. B. E. Low Normal High Normal Low Phosphate ion concentration High Low Low Normal Low 208. D. B. decreasing absorption of calcium in the intestinal tract. C. Hyperparathyroidism is marked by A.201. D. C. E. E. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver. Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in kidney B. C. It decreases the activity of the Na-K pump in the distal tubule. Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by kidney E. increased irritability of excitable tissues.
absorption of F ions onto hydroxyapatite crystal surfaces. 7-dehydrocholesterol.
215. B. substitution of OH ions by F ions. B. E. is derived from cholesterol. a reduction in rate of solubilization of enamel as fluoride content of the tissue increases. tyrosine and thyronine. They increase the intracellular Ca++ concentration. The mechanism of systemic fluoride action in reducing dental decay is most likely the result of A.25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. The gallbladder is caused to contract by the hormone A. 217. B. Androgens are produced in the testis and A. 213. E. B.209. C. FLUORIDE 216. thyroxin and triiodotyrosine. adrenal medulla. They activate specific genes. secretion of carboxypeptidase. thyroxin and triiodothyronine. B. 1. cholecalciferol. secretin. D. C. D. E. E. adrenal cortex. an increase in carbohydrate metabolism in the oral cavity as a result of enzyme inhibition. Two are considered thyroid hormones. is released in response to signals from the hypothalamic-posterior pituitary complex. They activate initiation factors for protein synthesis. Thyroid hormones. Hydrolysis of thyroglobulin liberates a number of iodinated compounds. C. reaction of F ions with hydroxylysine residues. D. D. pancreozymin. They bind to cell membrane receptors and activate adenylate cyclase. The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the kidney is A. gastrin. These are A. Which of the following describes the principal mechanism by which glucocorticoids stimulate their target cells? A. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol. is released in response to signals from the hypothalamic-anterior pituitary complex. enterogastrone. They allosterically modify adenylate cyclase activity. flow of pancreatic juice. is derived from amino acids. deposition of CaF2 in areas of enamel susceptible to bacterial penetration. B. cholecystokinin. E. C. thyroid. D. C.
214. D. tyrosine and diiodotyrosine. B. an increase in hardness of the tooth. Fluoroapatite can form during hard tissue formation by a (an) A. Secretin functions in digestion of proteins by increasing A. E.
211. an inhibition of proteolytic enzymes. flow of bile.
210. reaction between CaF2 and CaHPO4. D.
. B. 212. C. C. B. secretion of pepsin. C. D. C. pituitary. ergosterol. glucocorticoids and gonadal steroids are similar in that each A. D. hypothalamus. acts on only one target organ or tissue.
water-mineral ratio. It passes the placental barrier relatively slowly. C. C. D. Which of the following describes this role? A. Platelets play an important role in hemostasis. At 1 ppm. B. and increase in bleeding time due to lack of thrombin formation. They supply fibrin stabilizing factor. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis. preventing the reaction of thrombin with fibrinogen. release of lipoprotein lipase to the blood and rapid clearance of chylomicrons. 220. D. B. D. A deficiency in vitamin K would affect blood clotting chiefly by A. C. Which of the following compounds is NOT involved in coagulation of blood? A. preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. All of the above
BLOOD CLOTTING (Continued) 224. preventing the contraction of the clot. odorless and colorless. E. B. D. Which of the following ions is involved in blood
. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin. rate of bone remodeling or turnover. It is expected rapidly by the kidney. preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. They agglutinate and plug small. C. 226. thus retarding blood clotting. C. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting which of the following? A. amount of ionizable fluoride in the diet. 223. In water. B. D. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation. B. retardation of fibrinogen synthesis by the liver. C. Amylase Enolase Phosphatase Phosphorylase
BLOOD CLOTTING 222. Fe+2 Ca+2 Prothrombin Fibrinogen Thromboplastin
227.218. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning fluoride? A. B. age of the individual. it is tasteless. D. decreasing prothrombin production. ruptured vessels. C. It occurs only in the ionic form in plasma. D. B. E. The rate of fluoride incorporation into bone depends upon the A. elevated non-esterified fatty acids which chelate serum calcium. The anticaries effect of fluoride is LEAST related to which of the following? A. Administration of heparin to a human results in symptoms similar to vitamin K deficiency in that both conditions result in A. C. E. E. It is deposited in calcified tissues. E. Ion exchange Decreased solubility Facilitation of remineralization Its presence during enamel formation Activation of plaque polysaccharide hydrolysis
221. E. B. Which of the following represents the normal 225.
D. Which of the following noncollagenous protein components BEST characterizes dentin matrix? A. C. B. B. Fibrin Thrombospondin Prothrombin Thromboplastin Fibrinogen
clotting? A. Calcitonin Osteogenin Osteonectin Amelogenin Fibronectin
BONES AND TEETH (Continued) 234. Iron Sodium Calcium Potassium
BONES AND TEETH 228. E. Laminin Vimentin Phosphophoryn Osteonectin Fibronectin
231. Enamel contains more collagen. Enamel contains more magnesium and carbonate. E. Which of the following represent(s) the matrix proteins of enamel? A. Enamel crystals have more surface area. E. Contains 12 ions per unit cell
237. C. lipids. D. D. D. C. C. C. D.substrate of thrombin? A. B. E. D. B. 229. 232. The lack of which of the following substances during tooth formation most likely induces enamel hypoplasia? A. E. Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed. Which of the following BEST characterizes hydroxyapatite? A. E. Vitamins A and D
. C. D. C. D. D. Enamel contains amelogenins in its organic matrix. B. Which of the following has a high affinity for binding calcium and collagen in the calcifying matrix? A. B. Which of following is the major protein component of cementum? A. Buffering Phosphate source Sodium reservoir Fluoride reservoir Calcium reservoir
236. D. C. Protein content of enamel from mature teeth is approximately what per cent of enamel weight? A. C. glycosaminoglycans. E. Elastin Keratin Collagen Amelogenin Osteonectin
233. Which of the following functions of bone could be considered the most prominent? A. dextrans. B. C. Has an amphiphilic surface B. 0. The organic matrix of bone is composed largely of collagen and A. B. B. Carboxylglutamic acid containing proteins Type I collagen Amelogenins Proteoglycans Elastin
230. B.1-1% 5-10% 15-20% 25-30% 50-55% 235. citrate. Which of the following explains why enamel is harder than bone? A. E.
D. C. C. B. The primary effect of calcitonin is to A. E. C. Which of the following vitamins is the LEAST likely to be involved in tooth development and calcification? A. The hormone influences the rate of bone resorption. B. B. B. amylopectin. mucopolysaccharide. The hormone causes a decrease in new bone formation. D. C. C. E. increase calcium absorption from the intestine. B. C. E. dextran-like glucan. decrease calcium absorption from the intestine. The action on bone is related to its action on phosphate excretion. amylase. 241. D. The effect of parathyroid extract is to influence osteoclastic activity. Which of the following sweeteners is nonnutritive as well as non-cariogenic? A. C.
Vitamins C and D Vitamins C and K Phosphorus and iron Calcium and fluoride
239. D. inhibit bone resorption. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite 238. A B1 C D
B. Which of the following represents a soluble polysaccharide found in dental plaque and is formed from the fructose moiety of sucrose? A. 242. glycogen-like glucan. increase bone resorption. As found in bone and enamel contains no ion substitutions D. Levan Dextran Amylopectin Hyaluronic acid
. D-fructose Saccharin Galactose Sorbitol Maltose
240. D. The extracellular polysaccharides synthesized by cariogenic streptococci in the presence of excess sucrose are best described as A. Which of the following is NOT a theory of the effect of parathyroid hormone on bone? A. D. B. D.C.
17. non-competitive. C B B C C E B The same question appeared on the 1979 and 1985 exams and a variation was on 6 other exams. D B E D A Same question in 1978. bicarbonate and CO2. 18. 16. 24. Know the characteristics of competitive. covalent. A question on pI. Very similar question in 1978. 1981. have appeared on several exams. 27. and a similar question in 1996. hydrophobic. A good question on this physiologic buffer system. Know this fundamental equation. 10. 25. Know what a peptide bond is as well as the other types of bonds found in proteins (ionic.BIOCHEMISTRY NATIONAL BOARD EXAM REVIEW ANSWERS and COMMENTARY BASIC CHEMISTRY There are usually 1-2 basic chemistry questions. 15. 11. and 1996. Know the definition of the kinetic parameters. 1982. Same question in 1989 and 1996.
PROTEINS 19. 3. and 1987. 30. 1985. hydrogen.
BUFFERS AND pH 8. A variation of this 1998 question on carbonic anhydrase appeared on the 1987 exam. 1981 and 1996. as indicated by the choice of answers. 7. 6. 14.
BICARBONATE/CO2 There are usually 1-2 questions covering carbonic acid. 28. Very similar question in 1996 and 1998. E B C B A
Same question in 1981. 23. D A B B B D A Same question in 1987 and 1998. 20. 29. 21. 1. Same question in 1985 and 1998. 2. pH and electrophoresis of a protein or peptide is common. 9. Be familiar with physiologic buffers. C C B D A C A question on the Henderson-Hasselbalch question appeared on exams in 1978. 13. 12. and 1987. and 1998.
Similar questions about types of proteins. disulfide) Same question in 1978. 22. 5. 1985. 1979. 1985. uncompetitive and
. 1989. 4. Km and Vmax.
41. Know the common zymogens and how they are activated. 33. 70. 49. 58.
D A D B A D C B A
mixed inhibition. 57. C A C A C B E
CARBOHYDRATES 59. 62. 51. A question on configuration is common. 43. 65.)
. D C D A E A
Know the effects of pH. Know characteristics of allosteric modifiers. There is frequently a question on enolase because it is inhibited by fluoride.
HEMOGLOBIN 46. Questions on post-translational modifications of collagen are very common. 61. 67. 50. 63.
PROTEIN SYNTHESIS 52. 60. 37. 69. 36. C D A A B B D D D E D D A question on sucrose is almost inevitable. 47.
COLLAGEN 40. A question related to sickle cell anemia occurs frequently. 35. 48. 44. 56. 68. 42. (Next two questions for example.
Generally there are 2-3 questions on amino sugar compounds and glycoaminoglycans. 45. 66. often in terms of specific enzymes. 38. CO2. Regulation of enzyme activity by phosphorylation is a common question. 32. 39. 34. and 2. D B C A D E Know all aspects of collagen.3-bisphosphoglycerate on binding of O2 to hemoglobin. 55.31. 53. 54. 64.
C A C E C B C B D C
. 107. 110.
MEMBRANES Questions on membranes tend to focus on composition and transport. 78. 109. 91. 76. 100. 88. 99. and functions.
There is usually 1-2 questions on the composition and function of bile salts.
NUCLEIC ACIDS The number of questions on nucleic acids and molecular biology have increased in recent years. 73. D E A A E B B E C C A B D D A C A
Same question on exams in 1985 and 1987. 103. 112. 98. reactions. 81. 105. 1987. 96. and 1989. 85. 86. 1987. 93. 104. The same or similar question appeared on at least 4 exams.71. 83. 87. See the following questions. 102. 108.
LIPIDS Generally. 75. 95. 74. metabolism. Know what the different classes of serum lipoproteins transport and to where. 90. 77. and 1996. A E D A C D B C B A D B C C
Know base pairing. 79. 106. The same or similar question was on exams in 1979. 80. Know fatty acid synthesis and degradation ( β-oxidation). 72. 84. 101. 97. 92. lipids are emphasized: different classes of lipids. 82. 111. 89. Same question on exams in 1985. 94.
122. lipid. 127. 118. 139. 131. 156. A good question. 153. 146. 116.
At least one question on ketogenesis. 158. 114. 147. 151. 129. 140. 130. 133. 148. or ketone bodies is common. 119. 154. amino acid.
At least 1 question on electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation is common. 128. 152. A B C E A E A A C E B D E D C E E C B A A A B D A C B E B E D D C B A C B D C C
A similar question has been on at least four exams. 145. 120. 137.
VITAMINS There is usually several questions on vitamins because of their involvement in many biological processes. 124. See following two questions. The identical question or a similar one has appeared on at least 5 exams. 143. E B D B D A
. 136. 125. 123. 121. 134. ketosis. 144. and nucleotide metabolism are included.
A good question that covers several aspects of amino acid metabolism. 115. 126. 149. 155. 132. 138.METABOLISM Carbohydrate.
Know cholesterol metabolism. 117. 142. 150. 113. See following question. 141. 135. 157.
186. 196. 189. 170. Consequently. 174. 182. 194.159. 172. 185. See the following 6 questions. lipids and proteins. 179. glucagon) and hypoglycemic (insulin) hormones. 181. 160. 192. 187. 200. 165.
B C C B C C C E A D B D
A question on vitamin D is common. 191. 197. 188. 171. 184. 175. 178. 167. See following 4 questions. 166.
NUTRITION Nutrition concerns the major food stuffs of carbohydrates.
Know the hyperglycemic (epinephrine. nutrition is related to some previous subjects and the questions will overlap. 190. 193. See following 2 questions. 161.
A similar question has appeared on at least 3 exams. 177. 173.
HORMONES Questions cover the chemical composition. and physiological functions of hormones. 168. 164. 180. 195. mechanism of action. 198. and micronutrients (vitamins and minerals). 176. essential dietary substances. 183. 162. Know vitamin K.
Know calcium. 199. C C E D A C B A B A A D B E A A Esential amino acids and related metabolism tend to be emphasized. 169. biosynthesis. 163. E B E E C B C D C B D A A B
A good question because it covers different characteristics of a particular hormone.
A B B E B A A C C D A A E C A
A question on aldosterone has appeared on at least 5 exams. E A C E E B This same question has appeared on at least 4 exams. 211. See the following 5 questions. 220. 212. there is more than 1 question on vasopressin on the same exam. 217. 219. 232. 221. Occasionally. 228. 229.201. 202. 225. 218. 204. 205. 207. 203. 242. D C A C C C A E D A B B B B E A
. 235. 226. 224. 214. and caries are emphasized. 234. 241. 210. 208. the effects of hormones and vitamins.
BLOOD CLOTTING 222. 231. 238. 240.
FLUORIDE 216. 236. 215. 230. 233. 237. A question on antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) has appeared on at least 7 exams. A B B A E C
BONES and TEETH The composition and properties of bones and teeth. 243. Questions on parathyroid hormone and calcitonin and their regulation of calcium and phosphate levels are emphasized. 223. 213. 239. 227. 206.
The “testlets” had only a few questions that were specifically Biochemistry.06 (the isoelectric pH for glycine)? The glycine molecules will A. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by binding to non-active sites Which of the following describes a major effect of sickle cell anemia? A. which each covered 5 to 13 questions. E. The exam was divided into two parts with 200 questions on each part (3. Below are Biochemistry questions from the pilot exam. B. Decreased number of subunits in hemoglobin
. Eighty percent of the questions were based on fundamental knowledge similar to those questions in the previous portion of this review material. JUNE. Absence of biphosphoglycerate binding of hemoglobin B. B. There were four “testlets” on each part of the pilot exam. not move. A4. Which of the following pairs of amino acids is expected to be found on the interior of a globular protein? A. Twenty percent of the questions were based on clinical cases (“testlets”) that each covered all four of the general subject areas noted above. D. move to the cathode. C.5 hrs for each part). C. Substitution of 2 proximal histidines C. Pepsin Amylase Hexokinase Adenylate cyclase Carbonic anhydrase
D. Dental Anatomy & Occlusion. HEMOGLOBIN A2.ADDENDUM. D. pH A1. C. move to the anode. C. but have included only the corresponding questions that were identified as Biochemistry. Which of the following describes the movement of glycine molecules in an electric field at a pH of 6. move to both anode and cathode. the American Dental Association released a National Board Comprehensive Part I Pilot Examination. I have included some “testlets” from the pilot exam. B. D. Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin
Zinc is an essential component of which of the following? A.
PROTEIN. D. ENZYMES. A P 50 value for hemoglobin similar to that of
myoglobin E. E. Which of the following is an allosteric effector of an enzymatic reaction? A. Lysine and arginine Arginine and leucine Leucine and valine Valine and glutamic acid Glutamic acid and lysine A5. Answers are given at the end of the questions. B. Competitive inhibitor Noncompetitive inhibitor Substance that binds to the substrate Substance affecting enzymatic activity by binding to the active site E. A3. 2005
In 2004. This pilot examination was composed of 400 questions that covered Biochemistry-Physiology. Microbiology-Pathology. and Anatomic Sciences.
Which of the following is MOST likely to promote depolymerization of extracellular matrix? A. Which of the following is the pathway that results in the formation of glucose in the liver from lactate produced in muscle? A. A8. valine. C. E. and hydroxyproline. Glucose can be made from each of the following substances EXCEPT one. Beta-1.6 C. E. glycine. D. B. and lysine. What are predominant linkages in glycogen between glucose units? A. D. B. Inhibition of adenylate cyclase
A14. B. tyrosine. A7.COLLAGEN. desmosine. The unique amino acid composition of collagen is reflected in the high content of A. C. Glucose-6-phosphatase is found associated with which of the following? A. Niacin Vitamin E Ascorbic acid Pantothenic acid
A9. threonine.Alpha-1. Cortisone Collagenase Chymotrypsin Hyaluronidase
Which of the following vitamins is essential for the normal elaboration and maintenance of bone matrix. EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX. C. and proline. proline. D. Lactate Acetyl CoA Glycerol Pyruvate Fructose
A13. C.3 D.4 B. C. cysteine. and proline. cartilage. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Has a nonpolar surface B. D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite E. Zymogen activation B. D. Which of the following statements BEST describes hydroxyapatite in enamel? A.6 A12. Has 10 ions in each unit cell C. B. C. and dentin? A. D. Contains no ion substitutions D. cysteine.4 E. Beta-1.Alpha-1. B. hydroxylysine. and phenylalanine. ENAMEL A6. Kidneys and liver Liver and muscles Kidneys and brain Kidneys and muscles
. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a C. Cori cycle Glycolysis Citric acid cycle Pentose phosphate pathway A11. Which of the following mechanisms operates in liver cells to regulate breakdown of glycogen? A. B. Has a solubility that decreases as the pH decreases
CARBOHYDRATES A10. glycine.Beta-1. Induction of phosphorylase b by an inducer D.
E. Exonuclease Endonuclease Ligase DNA polymerase RNA polymerase
A21. Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments? A. D. Hairpin loop structures can be generated B. Unwind DNA. Which of the following BEST describes restriction enzymes? A. Eastern Southern Northern Western
A23. Remove exons during RNA splicing. They will always have identical sequences C. B. B. C-T E. B. D. B. B. G-U D. A plasmid DNA ligase A retrovirus RNA polymerase Reverse transcriptase A16. D.NUCLEIC ACIDS A15. C. E. C. Which of the following is produced when a mutation occurs in an enzyme controlling a signal pathway involved in cell growth processes? A. D. E. Epigene Antigene Oncogene Monogene Transgene
. C. B. B. Stabilize DNA in a compact form. E.G-C B.A-T C. Which of the following BEST describes the major function of histones? A. Exonucleases Topiosomerases Enzymes that degrade RNA Non-specific endonucleases Site-specific endonucleases
A22. then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA? A. B. C. C. Separated strands are able to reassociate D. Ligase Exonuclease Endonuclease DNA polymerase RNA polymerase
A19. C. Stabilize RNA during transcription. C. E. D. Activate genes. D. DNA that is complementary to mRNA can be made using which of the following? A. They cannot get back together once separated A20. Which of the following base pairs promotes helix stabilization in DNA but does NOT do so in RNA? A. D. Which of the following represents the consequence of the fact that DNA strands are complementary? A. Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in DNA? A. C. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5’ACG3’. 5’ CGT 3’ 5’ CGU 3’ 5’ TGC 3’ 5’ UAG 3’ 5’ UGC 3’
A18. E. Which of the following enzymes synthesizes polynucleotide chains from nucleotides and does NOT require a primer chain? A.A-U A17. D. E.
D. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. E. This enzyme is A. O2 B. homocysteine and ornithine. lipoprotein. pyruvate carboxylase. has a transport maximum. Sodium Ethanol
occurs as an endergonic (positive ΔG) process. B. Tricarboxylic acid cycle Pyruvate dehydrogenase Amino acid catabolism Beta oxidation Glycolysis
A27. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. C. cysteine and serine. A26. D. B. E. B. D. uses ATP as an energy source. C. CO2 C.LIPIDS A25. protein. E. Bile salts are sodium salts of bile acid that are conjugated with A. Facilitated diffusion DIFFERS from active transport in that net transport by facilitated diffusion A. carbohydrate. The first step in the pathway for fatty acid synthesis is catalyzed by an allosteric enzyme which is the principal regulator of the pathway. B. C. D.
MEMBRANES/TRANSPORT A29. requires a concentration gradient. B. Active transport systems generally involve specific binding molecules that are classified as a A. D. phospholipid. thiolase. E. Glycerol Glucagon Acetyl CoA Acetoacetate Phosphatidycholine
A28. citrate synthetase. A30. lipid. C. taurine and glycine methionine and lysine. NADH NADPH Na+ gradient across the luminal membrane H+ gradient across the luminal membrane
. acetyl CoA carboxylase. C. C. Each of the following is expected to be active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which of the following provides the immediate energy source for the transport of glucose into intestinal epithelial cells? A. H2O
D. C. B.
A31. The cell membrane is LEAST permeable to which of the following substances?
A. D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. B. D.
Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine? A. Androgen Estrogen Norepinephrine
. C. the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
A40. The catabolism of which of the following results in no energy production in the form of ATP? A. D. C. Lipid Protein Nucleotide Carbohydrate
A35. Which of the following directly catalyzes urea formation in a cell? A. B. C. Urease Uricase Arginase Glutaminase
A36. B. Which of the following hormones exerts the LEAST effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissues? A. the hydrolysis of BetaGammasubunits. B. The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires A. C. the alpha-subunit to bind GDP. D. E. E. B. B. testes. and eyes? A. Tyrosine Cysteine Lysine Creatine Galactosamine
HORMONES A38. Urea Ammonia Creatine Uric acid Creatinine
A37. hair. Which of the following compound is a precursor of the pigments of the skin. C. Hormones that exert their effects through the activation of second messengers are A. C. adrenal cortex. C. and placenta. Gastrin Secretin Galla Bombesin Cholecystokinin A39. secreted by ovaries. D. D. D. C. B. Which of the following promotes the release of bile from the gallbladder? A. C. E. B. usually water soluble peptide/protein hormones. B.METABOLISM A33. B. lipophilic. D. initially bound to cytoplasmic hormone receptors. Amino acids Fatty acids Carbohydrates Proteins A34. A41. D. Which of the following substances is the predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity? A.
his mandible deviates to the left. C. NAD Biotin Coenzyme A Thiamine pyrophosphate A43. E. C. Upon opening. and he suffered a fall while having an insulin reaction. Niacin Thiamine Folic acid Riboflavin Pyridoxine
A44. D. Mitosis Replication Translation Transcription mRNA splicing
A45. D. Which of the following glucose transporters was responsible for the patient’s “insulin reaction”? A. Acts as a source of glucose for the hypoglycemic patient. E. C. B. D. B. C. A panoramic radiograph reveals a fracture of the left condylar neck. and the patient is taking rifampin (Rifadin®).
VITAMINS/COENZYMES A42. Oral exam shows gingival swelling and erythema around partially erupted Tooth #32. A47. Stimulates secretion of insulin in the hyperglycemic patient. E. Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating active tuberculosis because it targets which of the following pathways? A. D. Each of the following coenzymes is a component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex EXCEPT one. A 15-year-old male presents for emergency care. the dentist notes that the standard medical emergency kit contains an ampule of glucagon. The medical history indicates a recent positive PPD skin test. Testlet 2.D. GLUT-1 GLUT-2 GLUT-3 GLUT-4 GLUT-5
A46. the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets. A 23-year-old female present with complaints of difficulty in opening her mouth and a low-grade fever of several days’ duration. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Coma Dizziness Confusion Convulsion Hyperventilation
. Testlet 1. Which of the following coenzymes is required for the synthesis of pyrimidines. The extra-oral exam shows diffuse swelling at the angle of the right mandible and lacteral neck. For which of the following reasons would glucagon be used? A. E. B. The patient’s “insulin reaction” represented a sudden fall in blood glucose because he had taken his normal insulin dose but did not eat breakfast. He is non-compliant with his type I diabetes regimen. B. Each of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia EXCEPT one. Promotes glycogen formation in the hyperglycemic patient. B. D. C. E. D. C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. He struck his chin and lacerated his tongue.
Thyroid hormone Parathyroid hormone
D. such as thymine? A. B. Before examining this patient. Promotes glycogenolysis in the hypoglycemic patient.
D. Bone resorption is noted from detectable reduction in height of the alveolar ridges due to the ill-fitting denture. Administration of a local anesthetic with epinephrine will MOST likely produce which of the following cardiovascular effects? A. She has worn them for 15 years. B. An 80-year-old female with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with a complaint of pain under her complete dentures when biting. D. but seldom removes or cleans them. Removal of the dentures reveals diffuse erythema of underlying mucosal tissue. Increased heart rate Decreased heart rate Increased diastolic blood pressure Decreased systolic blood pressure
A48.Testlet 3. C. E. C. B. Insulin Estrogen Aldosterone Thyroid stimulating hormone Parathyroid hormone
. The bone resorption seen in elderly patients with low dietary calcium is enhanced by which of the following hormones? A. A49.
A30. A24. A22. A10. A19. A39. A48. A43.
A C E E C D D C D A B A B A B B E C C C E B E C D
A26. A3. A46. A25. A4. A21.
D D B C D B C B C C A A E B C B B C D C E D E A
. A36. A34. A12. A44. A7. A14.Answers for Addendum. A2. A16. A35. A11. A29. A47. A38. A17. A45. A40. A27. A5. A33. A49. A15. A20. A8. A18. A6. 2005
A1. A23. A37. A31. June. A41. A32. A9. A13. A42. A28.