The written test is an aptitude examination designed to test your general intelligence and basic understanding of Mathematics, Applied Sciences / Engineering and Analytical/logical thinking. This written test is like GRE Engineering. To help you in preparing for the written test, a brief outline of this test is presented below. Some of the questions may require numerical calculations, so you must bring your own calculator. IT MAY BE NOTED THAT WRITING TABLES MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE DURING THE WRITTEN TEST. THEREFORE, ALL CANDIDATES ARE ADVISED TO BRING THEIR OWN WRITING CLIP BOARDS FOR THEIR CONVENIENCE DURING THE WRITTEN TEST. The instructions sheet that will accompany the actual written test is attached. Read these instructions carefully now to save time during the examination. In order to give you an idea of the nature of the written test, some representative questions are also enclosed. WRITTEN TEST OUTLINE. The question paper is divided into two parts i.e. Part (A) and (B). There will be 50 questions in Part (A) and 50 Questions in Part (B). Part (A) is the general part to be attempted by all the candidates whereas Part (B) is the subject part having subject papers. Only the subject paper relevant to the candidate’s academic background may be attempted by the candidate. The candidate should mention the subject paper he/she is attempting by filling the appropriate section of the answer sheet. The maximum time allowed is 3 hours. 1) General Part: a) It consists of three field namely Mathematics, Physics and English. b) General Part must be attempted by all the candidates c) General Part will have 50 questions in all. 20 from Mathematics & Physics reespectively and 10 from English i) Mathematics (Level F.Sc and B.Sc) Basic Calculus Vector Algebra Differential Equations Matrices Complex Variables Statistics Boolean Algebra

ii) Physics (Level F.Sc and B.Sc) iii) English 2) Subject Part: It consists of papers from the following basic fields. Each of these papers will have 50 questions in all. Physics Mechanical Chemistry Metallurgy / Material Chemical Mechatronics Computer Mining Civil Geology / Geo Physics Electrical / Electronics / Telecommunication a) Only one of these subject papers relevant to the candidates background may be attempted by the candidate. b) The candidate should mention the subject paper he/she is attempting by filling the appropriate section of the answer sheet
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Reactive intermediated and approx. Digital Logic) Electronics. Electronic & approx. molecular structure) Physical Chemistry (General Chemistry. Mechanical-Energy Balance. Extraction. 20% Heat Transfer. Light and optics and Modern Physics CHEMISTRY RELATED TOPICS SHARE Analytical Chemistry (Classical Quantitative Analysis. Applications. 20% CHEMICAL RELATED TOPICS SHARE Mass/Energy Balances and Thermodynamics (Mass Balances. approx. 15% Power approx. Periodic & family trends. 30% Kinematics. ***************************************** Details Of Topics And Their Share In The Subject Part Of The Question Paper PHYSICS RELATED TOPICS SHARE Mechanics . 25% Nuclear Structure. approx. Electric and Magnetic Field Theory and approx. 15% Inorganic Chemistry (Basic Chemistry of Elements. Kinetics) MECHANICAL RELATED TOPICS SHARE Mechanical Design and Anlysis approx. Mass Transfer Contactors (Absorption.REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER IT IS IMPORTANT TO NOTE THAT IN ORDER TO QUALIFY THE WRITTEN TEST YOU HAVE TO QUALIFY IN EACH PART SEPARATELY. approx. 20% Controls and Communications Systems approx. Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machinery approx. Thermodynamics All topics have equal share in the paper Electricity and Magnetism. Energy Balances and approx. THEREFORE YOU ARE STRONGLY ADVISED TO ATTEMPT QUESTIONS IN BOTH THE PARTS. 20% ELECTRICAL / ELECTRONICS / TELECOMMUNICATION RELATED TOPICS SHARE Basic Electrical Engineering. 45% applications. 20% Distillation. (Electric circuits. Transition Metal / Coordination Chemistry) Organic Chemistry (Conversion of functional groups. Instrumental Analysis) approx. Waves. Stripping. 20% Heat Transfer (Mechanisms. 20% Mass Transfer (Phase Equilibria. Dynamics and Vibration approx. 15% Materials and Manufacturing approx. 30% reaction mechanisms. 30% Quantum and Structural Chemistry. Flow Measurement Techniques. approx. 15% Thermodynamics and Energy Convesion Processes approx. Electronic Circuits and Components approx. Miscellaneous Separation Processes) Page 2 of 9 . Classical and Statistical Thermodynamics. 20% Thermodynamics) Fluids (Fluid Transport.

Reactor Design & Evaluation. 18% approx.REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER Kinetics (Reaction Parameters. 18% approx. Heterogeneous Reaction Systems) Process Control METALLURGY/MATERIAL RELATED TOPICS Physical Metallurgy. 10% SHARE approx. 20% approx. 20% approx. 18% approx.) CIVIL RELATED TOPICS Environmental Geo-Technical Structural Transportation Water Resources MECHATRONICS RELATED TOPICS Basic Mechanical Engineering Electrical & Electronic Engineering Systems Design Engineering Control Engineering Computer Engineering &Science Robotics and Factory Automation GEOLOGY / GEO PHYSICS RELATED TOPICS Plate Tectonic / Earthquake Physical Geology Structural Gelogy Petrology Mineralogy ***************************************** Page 3 of 9 approx. 20% approx. 10% approx. 20% SHARE 10% 30% 10% 30% 10% 10% SHARE . Mechanical Metallurgy Thermodynamics & Phase Transformations Ferrous & Non-ferrous Alloys and Their Extraction Composites. 10% SHARE All topics have almost equal share in the paper SHARE approx. discrete mathematics etc. software engineering. 18% approx. 18% approx. Reaction Rate. 20% approx. Polymers and Ceramics X-ray Diffraction + Optical Metallography + Electron Microscopy + Non Destructive Testing Corrosion and Surface Engineering Material Processing COMPUTER RELATED TOPICS Programming Operating Systems Data Structures Computer Architecture Networking Others (databases.

Do not use the answer sheet for any rough work. A. place your printed answer sheet inside the question paper and return both the question paper and the answer sheet to the invigilator/exam staff. 2.. 8. Please note that one mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Name. Do not bend. 9. Please read the following instructions carefully before attempting the question paper. In order to qualify the admission test you have to qualify both the parts A and B. Mobile phones are strictly prohibited in the examination hall. roll or fold the printed answer sheet. 3. Do not overwrite or fill more than one choice for a single question. Anyone found using unfair means will be disqualified right away. 7. 11. and D) for each question. 10. B. 4. Please check that a one-page printed answer sheet has been provided to you. You must write your Roll no. Page 4 of 9 . Please check that the question paper given to you contains fifty (50) questions in Part (A) and fifty (50) questions in the subject paper in Part (B). 12. Borrowing calculator is not allowed. 5. Exam city and put your signature in the spaces provided on this page and also on the answer sheet. 6. C. After the test is over. You may do your rough work anywhere on the question paper. there are FOUR choices (i. Erasing is not allowed. On the printed answer sheet. Use your own calculator only. Therefore. Put your pens down as soon as you hear “Stop Writing”. Each correct answer will carry three marks. you are advised to attempt maximum questions from each part. Fill the appropriate choice with a fine tip black marker or ball point only. 13.REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER Pakistan Institute of Engineering and Applied Sciences ADMISSION TEST TIME ALLOWED: Three (3) Roll Number: _____________________________________ Question Book No: ___________________________ Name: ___________________________________________ Exam City: __________________________________ (Use BLOCK Letters) Signature: ___________________________________ Date: __________________________________ Signature: _______________________________________ Subject option for Part (B): ___________________ 1. otherwise your paper may be cancelled.e.

Tables have been formulated to demonstrate the magnitude of any earthquake from any seismograph.2 According to the information in the passage. (B) a × b + c = a × b c + a × c b ) Physics The average distance from the sun to the earth is approximately 93 million miles. The approximate speed (km per second) of the earth in its orbit around the sun is closest to : (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 30 Q.C. (A) Q. Power consumed by two 100 W bulbs in series supplied with 220 volts ac will be: (A) 200 W (B) 100 W (C) 50 W (D) 25 W And so on English Questions: 1 – 3 The Richter scale is a numerical logarithmic scale developed and introduced by Charles R. ( ) ( ) ( ) a × (b + c ) = ( a × b) + ( a × c ) ( ) ( ) ( (D) a × ( b + c ) = ( a + b ) × c .REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER PART (A) (GENERAL PART) Q.2. Richter in 1935 to measure the amplitude of the largest trace recorded by a standard seismograph one hundred kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake. which of the following numbers would indicate that there had probably been damage to the immediate area only? (A) The distance from the epicenter (C) The degree of damage (B) The amplitude of the largest trace (D) The location of the epicenter And so on Page 5 of 9 . dy =1 dx (B) dy −1 = dx x (C) dy − y = dx x (D) dy − x = y dx Which of the following is correct? (C) (A) a × b + c = a × c + b + c And so on Q.3 According to the Richter scale. y = ln ( x ) 4 is solution of the differential equation (A) Mathematics Q. its angular velocity in radians per second is then closest to : (A) 2π (B) 4π (C) 6π (D) 8π Q. for a one-unit increase in magnitude. For example. Q.2. The differential equation representing the family of curves xy = c is: dy = e4x dx (B) d 2 y dy + =4 dx 2 dx (C) 4 dy 1 = dx x (D) none of A.0 to 7.5 would be expected to cause localized damage. The Richter scale considers earthquake of 6. but most of them are so minor that they pass unnoticed.. It is estimated that almost one million earthquakes occur each year.3.1. Richter (B) Seismography (C) Earthquakes (D) The Richter scale Q. what does Richter scale record? (A) History (B) Biography (C) Geology (D) Mathematics Q.1 What does this passage mainly discuss? (A) Charles F. there is an increase of times thirty in released energy. and those of magnitude 2 may be felt.B. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5. A wheel is revolving at a steady rate of 120 rev/min.75 as great and 7.3.75 as major.1.

02×1023 Q.1 An inclined plane is often used to assist in lifting heavy objects.REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER PART (B) (SUBJECT PART) Physics Which of the following has an upper limit of λ = 18760 A for hydrogen spectral series? (A) Balmer series (B) Lyman series (C) Brackett series (D) Paschen series Q. kinetic energy is kA2/2 (C) Both kinetic & potential energy contribute equally to give a total energy of kA2/2 (D) Potential energy is less than kinetic energy Q. at maximum displacement (k = spring constant.02×1023 (D) 2. then uncertainty in the energy of a photon which is emitted from an atom in approximately 0.2 How many atoms of oxygen are present in 5.6 liters of SO2? (A) ¼ · 6. e = 1.02×1023 (C) 1.02×1023 (B) ½ · 6.1 If the capacitor C is initially charged to 2 V in the following figure the value of output voltage after 2ms of closing of switch is: (A) 3 V (B) 2.3 o Page 6 of 9 . Which of the following statements is correct about chemical equilibrium ? (A) At equilibrium no more reactants are transformed into products (B) At equilibrium the rate constant for the forward and reverse reaction are equal (c) At equilibrium there are equal amounts of reactants and products (D) At equilibrium the forward and reverse rates are equal Q.0 · 6.4 × 10 −19 ergs (B) All of the others (C) 4 × 10 −7 ev (D) 6.4 × 10 −26 J Q.2 If h = 6.6 × 10−19 C.5 V (C) 1.3 Which of the following could not be explained on wave nature of radiation? (c) polarization of electromagnetic (A) interference of light (B) diffraction of light (D) photoelectric emission And so on Chemistry Q.63 × 10−34J-s. This is done since the: (A) Force is reduced (B) Work is reduced (C) Potential energy is increased (D) Weight is increased Q.5 V (D) 4.0 · 6.1.5 V Q.3 Molecules of an ideal gas exert a force on the container walls due to (A) Surface tension of the gas (B) Cohesion between molecules of gas & its container wall (C) Gravitational repulsion at the wall (D) Collision between molecules of the gas & its container wall And so on Mechanical Q.2 For a mass suspended by a spring.01 microsecond is (A) 6. potential energy is kA2/2 (B) Potential energy is zero.1 For a gas that is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically there is no change in (A) Internal energy (B) Temperature (C) Entropy (D) Both a and b And so on Electrical/Electronics/Telecommunication Q. a is displacement amplitude) (A) Kinetic energy is zero.

C la attice the pa acking sequence of atoms is (A) AB AB AB __ __ (B) BC BC BC __ __ (C) AC AC AC __ _ (D) ABC A B _ C __ ABC __ __ Q.2.3 Page 7 of 9 P . The empirical rule to p predict the existence of solid solubilit is called e ty (A) Leve Rule er (B) Hund’s Ru ule (C) Henry’s Rule (D) Hum e me-Rothery’s Rule Q. ne .REPRESEN NTATIVE QU UESTIONS O TEST PAP OF PER Q. A gas phase reaction takes place on the surf n e face of a cyllindrical cata alyst particle If the proce is e.9 N (Compress (B) 4.8 W (B) 6.70 N (Compr 07 ressive) (D) 0.2. the initial c 20°C.9 N (Extensive) (C) 0.5 hown below. The force in the .1.1. C.C.70 N (Extensiv 07 ve) And so on Metallur / Materia rgy al Q. n spring will be: sive) (A) 4. In screw dislocation.7 W C ot ated from thiis data (D) Can no be calcula Q. In F.2 The digita logic circu shown in the following figure is an iimplementa al uit ation of (A) (B) (C) (D) Two Tw input mu ultiplier A false circuit t Two Tw input Sub btractor Two Tw input ad dder The effec of the neg ct gative feedb back on an a amplifier is to (A) incre ease gain (B) make th amplifier o he oscillate (C) impro oved stability y (D) both (A) and (C) ) And so on Ch hemical Q.2 (A) Bus (B) W WAN (C) LAN ) (D) Hub Q. B. And so on Co omputer Q.3. If th average heat transfe coefficient is 10 W/m he er t cooling rate of ball is clos sest to: (A) 18.1 omputer term minology ref to: fers The term ‘word’ in co (A) Bits fo ormed into g groups (B) Coded instr ructions (C) Stored instructions (D) Program mming langu uage used A networ of geographically dista compute and term rk ant ers minals is called a Q.3 W 3 ( C) 4. A 10 cm diameter spherical steel ball at 80°C is suddenly quenched in a large bu C ucket of wate at er 2-s. Water flo in a 3 cm ID U-bend pipe with a f ows m p flow rate of 0 kg/s as sh 0. t dislocation line is d the (A) para to burger’s vector allel (B) perp pendicular to burger’s ve o ector (C) at an angle of 30o to the bur n 0 rger’s vector r (D) Non of A. ess controlled by the diffusion of reac d ctants on the catalyst surface than b doubling the catalyst surface e by t area the rate of reac ction will be: (A) Doub bled (B) Inc creased 4 tim mes ( C) Reduced by Half (D) U ) b Unchanged Q.3.

j0) in the G(s) H(s) plane.2. 0) (B) (σx. σy) (C) [0. Q. Mechatronics Polling is a method used for (A) determining the state of the microprocessor (B) establishing communication between the CPU and peripheral (C) establishing a priority for communication with several peripherals (D) determining the next instruction Q2. The Nyquist plot of loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a closed loop control system passes through the point (-1. 0] The statement that a fluid’s velocity of flow through a porous medium is directly related to the hydraulic gradient.3 The CMOS circuit shown in the following figure. the centre has coordinates (A) (0. is known as (A) Hook’s Law (B) Stoke’s Law (C) Newton’s Law (D) Darcey’s Law How much axial load can a compression block (cross-section = 100 by 100 mm) carry if its rupture stresses in compression and shear are 20 and 9 MPa respectively? (B) 90 kN (C) 180 kN (D) 400 kN Q.5 (σx + σy). The phase margin of the system is (A) 0° (B) 45° (C) 90° (D) 180° And so on Page 8 of 9 .REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER Q. In the Mohr’s stress circle. (A) 200 kN And so on Q1.5 (σx + σy)] (D) [0. robots are being increasingly used for (A) loading / unloading conveyor systems (B) large area cover (C) providing intricate movements (D) assembly operations particularly in the field of electronics Q3. 0. is an implementation of Vn S p S D Vo D D V n channel V S D S (A) NOR gate (B) NAND gate (C) AND gate (D) None of the others Civil And so on Q. Selective Compliant Assembly Robot Arm (SCARA).1.3.

An explosion which will not initiate with a No.8 cap is classified as A) Blasting Agent B) High Explosive C) Low explosive D) None of these And so on Page 9 of 9 . The portion of the continental margin that marks the true edge of the continent is the: A) abyssal plain. Q3. Q3.REPRESENTATIVE QUESTIONS OF TEST PAPER Geology / Geo Physics Q1. C) Mars D) Earth Q2. D) none of these. The Sun is part of the: A) Asteroid belt. The most dense planet is: A) Jupiter B) Venus B) Oort Cloud belt. B) continental rise. D) continental shelf. Which of the following has higher detonation velocity? A) Slurry B) Water gel C) Emulsion D) ANFO The water resistance of ANFO is: A) Very good B) Good C) Fair D) Poor Q2. C) Milky Way galaxy. C) continental slope. And so on Mining Q1.

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