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SEMESTER –I Duration: Multiple-choice questions:

DATE: Max.marks:

Which of the following statement is true? a) Every Indian registered aircraft is required to possess a current & valid C of A. b) C of A is necessary even if the aircraft is flown in the vicinity of departing aerodrome for the purpose of test for renewal of C of A. c) It is the responsibility of the manufacturer and DGCA to ensure that the aircraft has a valid C of A. d) All above statements are true. Mark the correct statement, regarding the responsibility of the operator a) Carryout scheduled inspection as approved by DGCA b) Ensure pilot to operate the aircraft by virtue of his experience c) All defects encountered in flight need not to be reported to airworthiness directorate d) All of the above CAR is issued under the provision of a) 133A of aircraft rule 1937 c) A and B are correct b) Section 5 (B) of aircraft act 1934 d) None of the above




The promulgation of CAR is to meet a) Duties and obligations of contracting state b) Harmonization of requirements with FAA / JAA etc c) A and B are correct d) None of the above Why is harmonization of CAR required with other airworthiness regulatory authorities like FAA/JAA? a) For easy exchange of products among various countries. b) For easy exchange of services among various countries. c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above Whenever the revision takes place to the entire CAR series a) Revision and date shall appear on every page of the series b) Revision and date shall appear in the first page only



2 c) d) 7. CAR series originally issued dated will be changed to the revision effective date None of the above

Objectives and targets of airworthiness department is to a) Ensure design levels of reliability b) Ensure operating safety of civil aircrafts c) Promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards d) All the above are correct Which type of maintenance process is suitable for components not affecting the safety of Aircraft? a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenance c) (a) and (b) are correct d) Condition monitoring Which type of maintenance would you suggest for the servicing of fuel control unit: a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition c) Condition monitoring d) Any other special type of maintenance process which, is specially designed for FCU Total no. of engine hours = a) No. of airframe hours x no. of aircraft in the fleet b) No. of airframe hours x no. of engines installed on that type of aircraft. c) No. of engines in the fleet x total no. of aircraft of all types with the operator. d) None of these. What is the %of dispatch reliability of an organization having conducted 5277 flights out which 134 flights are delayed for more than 15 minutes? a) 2.54% b) 6.8% c) 98.46% d) None of the above Organization, which need not to send the data on mechanical delay of the flights a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator c) Private Operator d) Other than (a) is correct . Mark the correct sentence, if any a) Private operators should furnish data regarding dispatch reliability every 06 months. b) Scheduled operators furnish emergency landing data to RAWO/Sub-RAWO every month. c) Non-scheduled operators & training aircraft operator would furnish information regarding dispatch reliability every 03 months to RAWO/SubRAWO. d) All are correct statements. Effective safety regulation and oversight of airworthiness functions can be achieved by joint efforts of a) Operator, AMO and Regulating authority








3 b) Operator, Manufacturers and DGCA c) Operator, Accountable Manager and QCM d) All the above During the scrutiny of the data sent by the operator on routine basis, if any adverse trend observed it is corrected by the following recommendations by the RAWO a) Varying the process of maintenance b) Reviewing the qualification of certifying personnel c) Additional preventive maintenance d) All the above Calculate IFSD rate for the PT-6A-42 Engine 30105, for a particular duration, when aircraft is operated for 500 flight hours, the above mentioned engine is met with IFSD for 6 times a) 0.012 b) 0.006 c) 0.024 d) None of the above The aim of safety oversight airworthiness programme is to a) Prevent operators from maintaining their airworthiness standards at a level above the level required by the regulations. b) Detect the strengths in the engineering activities of the operators. c) To take corrective actions in time before they become a potential safety hazard. d) All of the above. Mark the correct statement, if any. a) All public transport aircraft shall be maintained by approved organizations. b) All work done by approved organizations will be regulated by an approved QCM. c) RAWO/Sub-RAWO carries out surveillance checks to ensure that the laid down standards are enforced. d) All above correct. 19. Which statutory document is used by DGCA to ensure airworthiness and safety oversight? a) Quality control manual b) Aircraft maintenance manual b) Civil aviation requirements c) All the above 20. Rule____ requires that all aircraft to be operated in India needs to be registered a) Rule 5 b) Rule 48 c) Rule 61 d) Rule 62 21. The nationality and registration markings shall be painted on the Indian regd. aircraft as per a) Rule 62 b) Rule 134 c) Rule 37 d) Rule 48 22. Rule 49 deals with a) Type certificate b) Registration c) Issue of CAR d) Airworthiness





23. Rule 60 deals with a) Licensing of AME’s c) Defects and defective parts

b) Maintenance standards and certification d) Weight and balance


24. The QC dept.’s duties shall include to ensure a) That catering items bought are of good quality and from DGCA approved sources. b) That all passengers in the aircraft have proper authority to travel. c) That all vendors hold DGCA approval. d) None of the above. 25. Situations indicating negative trends in the maintenance standards of an operator include a) Increase in MEL items and the length of time they remain deferred. b) Improvements in the dispatch reliability status. c) Decrease in the no. of passengers traveled. d) None of the above 26. a) c) Repeat pilot report means Improved system reliability b) Pilot needs to be awarded for his alertness Decreased system reliability d) None of these

27. Emergency responding in airworthiness performance monitoring system include identifying a) IFSD b) Uncontained engine failure c) De-pressurization d) All above 28. Mark the incorrect statement, if any. a) Any foreign AME employed should pass an oral check with DGCA. b) An AME employed from other airlines should pass an oral check with DGCA before certifying aircraft. c) Any foreign AME employed should get security clearance from home ministry & external affairs ministry through his embassy. d) Foreign AME employed should know Indian rules and regulations, CAR’s & QC manual. 29. For serious lapses in the airworthiness maintenance programme and in airworthiness performance monitoring programme – the punitive action will be initiated by a) QCM b) RAWO c) DAW (Hqs.) d) Officer in charge RAWO/Sub-RAWO 30. Mark the correct statement, if any. a) Operator shall make arrangements with other approved organization for replay of CVR. b) For readout of FDR/DFDR operator should have own facilities or make arrangements with other approved organizations, which shall be acceptable to DGCA. c) The oversight of airworthiness functions is the responsibility of DGCA only. d) All of the above.



Which of the following is Airworthiness performance data? a) Routine maintenance b) Scheduled inspection c) Service bulletins d) Pilot report compiled ATA

code wise 32. The organizations need not to prepare MEL is a) Private Operator b) c) As in (a) issued with MMEL d) 33. As in (a) not issued with MMEL Flying clubs

The operator has to prepare MEL by consulting a) Engineering / operational deportment of the operator b) MMEL c) As in (b) duly approved by the regulatory authority of the country of manufacturing d) All the above Judge the Component / System malfunction be included in the MEL a) Engine rpm Indicator b) PA system c) Wings d) None of the above Intention of Invoking MEL is a) To permit the operation of the aircraft with inoperative equipment within the frame work of controlled and sound programme of repair and parts replacement b) To make the profit for the airlines c) To reduce the workload of the crew d) None of the above Select the wrong statement, if any a) MEL defects shall be rectified at first available opportunity. b) In any case, MEL defects shall be rectified once aircraft returns to the main base. c) MEL defects can be carried forward for indefinite periods provided they are covered in MMEL also. d) All above statements are correct. CAR section 2, Series B Part II is issued vide (Preparation of CCL & ECL) Aircraft rule a) 7B b) 133A c) 50 d) 15 Amendment to the MEL is the responsibility of a) AME b) Chief Engineerc) QCM d) None of the above Information contained in the preamble to MEL is a) Method informing AME about the unseviceability of item / defects b) Specific programme of rectification





38. 39.

6 c) d) 40. 41. As in (b) in respect of each aircraft consistent with safety, which will have the prior approval of DGCA. All the above are correct

Rule, which governs the preparation of cockpit and emergency checklist, is a) Rule 7A b) Rule 133A c) Rule 8B d) None of the above Cockpit and emergency check list is available in manufacturers a) Operations manual b) Crew operating manual c) Flight manual d) All the above Which manual gives the information about the inoperative system when or where required to be replaced a) QC Manual b) Maintenance Manual c) Engineering Organization Manual d) None of the above Any deviation to the manufacturer’s procedures in the cockpit checklist is to be followed after a) Obtaining concurrence from DGCA b) obtaining concurrence from RAO c) QCM can approve the deviation d) None of the above Aircraft requiring two or more crewmembers must follow the procedure of ___while using cockpit checklist a) Challenge and response b) Reading and performing c) Following action by action d) None of the above State the rules which governs the defect reporting, recording, investigation, rectification, and analysis a) 60 b) 59 c) 5 d) All the above are correct Repetitive defect means a) Defect which recurs in the same aircraft b) Defect which recurs in the different aircraft c) (a) or (b) defect should repeat d) None of the above Arrange the action required in a chronological order, if an aircraft is suffering with a major defect a) Initial information, details information, investigation progress report, Investigation report b) Initial information, investigation progress report, investigation report, detailed information report c) Initial information, investigation report, investigation progress report, detailed information report d) None of the above is in correct order. The purpose of investigation of defect is to a) Punish the person who caused the defect b) Avoid the recurrence of defects








7 c) Avoid duplicated penal action against offender d) None of the above 49. What is the periodicity of forwarding fleet performance report by the operators other than scheduled operator? a) One month b) Six month c) Four months d) none of the above The parameter- no. of `take offs’ per delay is part of a) Fleet performance, Engg statistics and analysis b) Report rendering to RAO after the aircraft is delayed to a scheduled service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft defect c) Delay investigation report d) All of the above are correct What is the duration of preserving aircraft component associated with the major defects? a) One month b) Fort night c) Two months d) None of the above Which of the following is a Group I major defect? I – Fires during flight II – IFSD because of flameout III – IFSD due to icing IV – Defect of propeller feathering system V – IFSD with external damage to the engine a) All b) I, II, III, IV c) I & V d) I, II & IV How many aircraft can constitute a fleet a) Minimum two of particular type of model c) Minimum five of particular type or model b) Minimum four of particular type d) none of the above






What are the documents, which give detailed information about fleet performance, engine statistics and analysis? a) AAC 4 of 2002 b) AAC 5 of 2001 c) AAC 5 of 2002 d) AAC 5 of 2003 An operator may face service difficulties on account of defects malfunction and shall be reported to manufacturers / designers a) At the earliest b) As in (a) with in 7 days of occurrence c) As in (a) not later than two week of occurrence d) None of the above What is the duration within which the major defects investigation to be completed a) 6 months of its occurrence b) 4 months of its occurrence c) 3 months of its occurrence d) none of the above Records associated with defects shall be preserved for a period of a) Two weeks b) One month c) Six months d) none



57. 58.

The operator operating public transport aircraft should record in the flight report, a) Defects observed by the crew during pre-flight prior to the take off b) Record special reports with all details regarding incidents

8 c) Flight sectors of short duration, where the aircraft is unable to obtain stabilized cruise conditions of flight, recording of parameters, may be omitted d) All the above are correct Pilot of a Operator of public transport, observed a defect during flight, but not entered in PDR then, a) AME need not to rectify the defect till, the defect report for the previous flight is filled and signed by the crew. b) AME should ask the crew with regard to defect and rectify at the earliest c) AME will release the aircraft, by invoking the provision of MEL d) A and C are correct Name the operator, who can afford to record the defect observed by the flight crew in a register a) Scheduled Operator b) Non-scheduled operator c) Other than public transport operator d) A or B is correct Operator of private aircraft, responsibility of making periodic assessment about the defects reported lies with a) QCM b) AME c) Approved person d) None of the above Operator of non-public transport aircraft, when flying out station away from parent base, the defect observed shall be recorded in a) Journey logbook b) As in (a) column X c) As in (a) column XII d) As in (a) Column XI Defect reporting / rectification procedures pertaining to the operators except public transport aircraft. Mark the correct statement a) Defect observed in the aircraft during pre flight must be recorded in the register b) Defect observed in the aircraft away from the parent base may be recorded in the JLB c) If the aircraft is temperately based away from the normal base, defect register may also be located in the temporary base d) All are correct statement Analytical study of in flight Instrument readings / recordings of aircraft is applicable to a) Public transport aircraft b) Non public transport aircraft c) As in (a) fitted with turbo jet engine d) As in (c) not engaged in scheduled services Periodicity for the evaluation of the collected data from the in flight instrument reading / recording is a) Two months b) Three months c) Quarterly d) None Name the instrument reading, which is not considered, for analytical study of in flight instrument a) Voltmeter reading b) EGT c) Propeller rpm d) EPR











Airframe performance is evaluated based on a) Fuel flow and TAS b) c) ROC d)

Fuel flow and IAS None


Procedure for analytical study is reflected in a) Airplane maintenance Manual b) Engine maintenance manual c) A or B is correct d) None of the above In the event of Deterioration of engine being observed a) Replacement of engine is advised b) Curative measure is taken c) As in (b) is not satisfactory then (a) is advised d) None of the above Maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to a) AMO b) Approved orgn. which holds approval in Cat-C in accordance with series “E” part I c) (a) or (b) operating scheduled flights d) Any approved organization Purpose of reliability method is a) To help in identifying the potential problem area existing on its aircraft and engines b) Organization to amend and refine its existing system of operation c) To alert the organization in time to take preventive or curative measures d) All above are correct Reliability control programme once it is approved become the part of a) MS Manual b) QC Manual c) Quality Assurance Manual d) None of the above Reliability monitoring unit will gather information from the primary sources like a) Shop findings b) Bench check reports c) Sampling Inspections d) All the above The RMU will gather information from a) Circulars issued by DGCA b) Service bulletins issued by manufacturer c) Pilot reports d) All of the above Aircraft system reliability will be measured by a) Unscheduled removals applicable to system per 1000 hours b) Confirmed failures applicable to the system per 1000 hours c) No. of pilot reported defects applicable to the system per 1000 hours d) All the above are correct Alert notices will be issued by..…to all concerned persons and a report shall be forwarded on….. of every month a) QCM and 25th b) RMU & 25th c) QAM & 25th d) None of the above










77. 78.

The alert value will be numerically equal to ………… a) Mean Value b) Mean value + Two standard deviations c) Mean of the Mean value d) None of the above Name the operator and the duration regarding development of monthly graphic display covering operating experience for at least a) Scheduled operator and one month b) Non-schedule operator and one month c) Private operator and three months d) none of the above All the graphic display regarding operators experience shall be preserved for a period of a) One year b) Three yearsc) Five years d) None of the above Following changes to bring the alert value under control need not have the prior approval of DGCA a) Service time decrease in schedule b) Data analysis method c) Data collection system d) All the above Reliability programme of aircraft engines applicable to a) Non-scheduled operators b) Private operators c) Flying clubs d) None of the above Name the type of IFSD need not to be used in computing operator’s shut down rate a) Critical shut downs b) Non-critical shut downs for training c) Non-critical shut downs for test d) B and C are correct State the rule that lays down the requirements for grant of approval to an organization a) Rule 133A b) Rule 133 B c) Rule 133 C d) None of the above DGCA Hqs. will receive the operators report regarding exceeding of alert value from a) QCM b) RMU in QC dept. c) Accountable Manager d) none of these Mark the wrong statement, if any. a) Any change in data collection system for maintenance control reliability method will need DGCA approval b) The maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to scheduled airlines only. c) A likely source of information for reliability control is sampling inspection. d) Operators who are having a continuous in flight monitoring of instruments can alter the computation method of alert value on their own. If an operator’s engine reliability index is above alert value, then he will a) ground all his aircraft and analyze the problem b) ask the engine manufacturers to rectify c) prepare a corrective programme & submit to RAWO d) overhauls all affected engines











SSID means a) Special Servicing Inspection Document b) Special Structural Inspection Document c) Supplemental Structural Inspection Document d) Significant Structural Insp. Document Initial periods for component TBO’s in respect of state govt. aircraft shall be approved by a) DGCA Hqs b) RAWO where operator is located c) Aviation adviser to the state govt. d) None of the above An operator can apply for upward revision of maintenance periods/TBO’s if a) Minimum four consecutive major maintenance schedules reveal satisfactory condition of aircraft/component b) Component premature removal rate is within 0.3/1000 hours continuously for last 06 months c) They are having minimum 05 years experience in operating the type of aircraft d) Both a) and b) The requirements are enumerated for an AO located outside India in a) CAR Section – 2 Series “E” Part-I b) Rule 133B c) AAC 4 of 1998 d) All the above are correct Mark the incorrect sentence. a) Cat- A organizations manufacture aircraft/aircraft components/aircraft goods. b) For Cat A, B, C, D& E organizations separate approval in cat F is not required. c) The organization, which tests the RPM gauge, will be approved in D category. d) The approval to organizations is based on the concept of delegated system of responsibility. If you are having an organization for carrying out inspection of components by magnetic particle method, the organization shall seek approval in ___ category a) A Category b) C Category c) D Category d) None of the above Separate approval in category in “F” is required for the organization approved for___ if he wants to establish a store a) D category b) G Category c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above Certificate of Approval contains a) Privileges of an AO c) Defining the limits of an AO b) d) Scope of approval none of the above are correct








12 95. Certificate of maintenance is issued in respect of a) Light aircraft after carryout routine inspection schedules b) Heavy aircraft after carryout special inspection schedules c) Light aircraft after carrying out modification and overhaul process and treatment d) All of the above Quality assurance manual is a documents detailing a) Operators procedures and practices in detail b) As in (a) observance of which will ensure compliance with the airworthiness c) As in (b) and safety requirement of the DGCA and manufacturer d) None of the above is correct Release note can be issued by a) An AO only c) Chief designer b) Any organization manufacturing aircraft part d) All of the above are correct




Rejection note can be issued by a) An AO b) Any other organization with maintenance capacity c) All the above are correct d) None of the above is correct Granting approval in any category will be depend upon a) Scope of the approval shall be less than 100 hrs. Inspection schedule b) Request of the applicant and not on his capability c) As in (b) and approval will be specified in certificate of approval / capability list while granting initial approval d) None of the above Mark the incorrect statement, if any. a) An organization will be initially granted part approval, and given 03 months time to meet the deficiencies for final grant of approval. b) Granting approval will be dependant on request of the applicant and his capability/capacity to perform work as required by DGCA. c) Scope of approval for routine maintenance of aircraft shall not be less than 100 hrs inspection schedule. d) No incorrect statement. Organization located in India seeking approval shall submit application in form a) CA 182 B b) CA 182 C c) CA 182 D d) None of the above Mark the wrong statement, if any. a) In case Indian operators desire to carry out maintenance activities including daily insp. of their fleet outside India, DGCA HQs. will grant such approval. b) For grant of approval, a statement signed by the Accountable Manager is mandatory. c) CA 182 D is used for renewal of approval of foreign organizations. d) All above statements are correct.



101. 102.



Approval of Indian organization affected by a) Director of airworthiness of region b) DAW at DGCA c) Controller of Airworthiness d) Any DGCA Officer of the region Name of the manual, which shall reflect the scope of the approval a) QC manual b) QA manual c) Maintenance system manual d) None of the above The storage and handling procedures for Electro static device components are detailed in …… for guidance a) AAC 5 of 2000 b) ACC 4 of 2000 c) AAC 6 of 2001 d) None of the above Scope of approval of an organization will depend on a) Qualification of QCM & Dy. QCM b) Capacity of the organization and availability of the equipments c) Both a) & b) d) none Name the eligible person who cannot be an accountable manager a) Chief executive b) Dy. MD c) Any other person not having necessary financial authority to ensure compliance of safety requirements d) MD Nodal officer can be appointed by a) State government b) As in (a) who is having own AMO c) As in (a) who has contracted maintenance of his aircraft to an AMO d) General aviation organization Qualification and experience for a nodal officer is a) A senior person in department having 5 years of aviation experience b) A senior person in department having 10 years of aviation experience c) As in (b) satisfied to DGCA d) As in (a) or (b) satisfied to RAO The function of nodal officer is to a) Ensure that all personnel are appropriately trained and qualified to accomplish the work b) Ensure that appropriate instructions are developed, maintained, documented and followed for compliance with requirements. c) Provide required spare parts and components from approved sources with appropriate documents before use on aircraft. d) All of the above.








14 111. Certifying staff of an AO issuing C of M must have a) Involved in at least 3 months of actual maintenance experience in preceding 24 months. b) As in (a) get sufficient refresher course in each 2 years period c) As in (b) the programme for the training is reflected in QC or training manual d) None of the above Quality control cell of an AO has to monitor a) Product standard b) Airworthiness of aircraft engine / components c) Compliance with adequate procedures to ensure good maintenance practices stipulated by manufacturers/ DGCA d) All of the above Internal audit of an AO is performed by a) QC department b) c) Reliability monitoring unit d) Quality assurance unit none of the above




Mark the wrong statements, if any. a) The quality assurance personnel will be from QC dept., who shall be highly experienced and have rating/approval in their area of work. b) The quality assurance manager gives his report directly to QCM. c) The application for grant of approval of fuel companies shall be submitted at DGCA HQs. d) All are incorrect statements. Frequency of an internal audit to be carried out by an AO is a) Once in year b) Thrice in year c) Twice in year d) None

115. 116.

For an operator who carried out his first in house audit of the year in June, the next audit can be carried out in a) Next year July b) November c) September d) One audit is sufficient Who will ensure that necessary corrective action is taken promptly on the observations made by audit team during spot checks and internal audit? a) Accountable manager b) QA Manager c) QC Manager d) Nodal Officer Mark the correct statement, if any. a) A copy of safety audit report along with remedial action taken by the QCM shall be reported to RAWO/Sub RAWO b) DGCA shall take disciplinary action on the basis of above report c) Procedure for in house audit is reflected in maintenance system manual d) None of the above is correct statement



15 119. Quality control and Quality assurance manual of Indian airlines will be approved by a) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO where IA Head Office is based c) DGCA Head quarters d) None of the above QC manual of fuel companies shall be submitted for approval at a) RAWO b) DGCA HQs c) Sub-RAWO where the fuel company is based d) None of the above Maintenance system manual of an AO to be approved by a) RAWO b) DGCA HQs c) As in (a) consultation with (b) d) None of the above A list of maintenance related forms would be available in a) Maintenance system manual b) Engg. Organization manual c) QC manual, Section II- maintenance d) Quality assurance manual Name the manual that contains the procedure for use spares under a pool agreement a) Maintenance system manual b) Aircraft Manual c) Engg. Organization Manual d) None of the above A list containing current life of every major component shall be reflected in a) QC manual b) QA manual c) EO Manual d) None of above The approval of an AO valid up to a) 12 months from the date of issue / renewal b) Valid up to 31 Dec of the year in which issued/renewed c) As in (b) subjected to comply with regulation and requirements d) As in (C) and payment of any charges prescribed by DGCA Kingfisher Airlines will start scheduled airlines operation from April 2005 with Airbus A-320 aircraft. They have an approved QCM who has 10 years experience in A-320 aircraft. Their inspection schedules shall be approved by a) QCM b) Sub-RAWOc) DGCA HQs. d) none of these Mark the correct statement, if any. a) The inspection schedule of organization approved in Cat D will be approved by QCM if it has more than 03 years experience b) DGCA HQs shall approve inspection schedule of Cat E organizations. c) Once approved no item of inspection can be removed from inspection schedules of Cat A organizations. d) All correct statements. CAR Series E Part VII deals with a) Fuels & lubricants b) Stores c) AMO d) Test laboratories





124. 125.





Organizations approved in Cat D shall issue a) Certificate of manufacture


Release notes

16 c) Certificate of maintenance 130. d) None of these.

Organizations seeking approval in Cat D shall have to meet the requirements laid down in a) CAR Series E Part VII b) CAR Series E Part II c) CAR Series E Part I d) CAR Series E Part IV Mark the correct statement, if any. a) The third copy of release note will be sent to RAWO b) The fourth copy of rejection note will be sent to RAWO c) When a new certificate of approval is issued, previously issued certificate is to be returned to the RAWO. d) All correct statements. Petroleum in bulk means a) Petroleum contained in a container exceeding 900 ltrs. in capacity. b) Petroleum in a receptacle in excess of 1900 ltrs. c) Petroleum in a receptacle exceeding 900 gallons in capacity. d) None of these. Which organization needs an approval from Chief Inspector of Explosives, in addition to approvals from DGCA? a) Cat A b) Cat E c) Cat D d) All approvals are granted by DGCA, no additional approval needed. Organizations approved in Cat E will issue a voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation fuel delivered by it into an aircraft in order to certify a) Quantity b) Quality c) Airworthiness requirements d) none of these Release notes shall be preserved by approved stores organizations for at least a) Ten years b) Five years c) Two years d) One year Rule____ specifies that applicants who have passed a course from DGCA approved institute will be granted one year relaxation in total aeronautical experience for grant of AME license. a) 60 b) 61 c) 62 d) 63 Instructors in a training school shall be approved by a) Chief Instructor b) local airworthiness office where school is situated c) RAWO c) none of the above Which of the following is not part of training manual? a) Names and experience of all regular instructors b) Names and address of all students semester wise c) Details of practical training to be imparted d) All above are part of training manual. Mark the correct statements, if any. a) Cat D organizations shall preserve their records for five years.





135. 136.




17 b) Cat G organizations shall preserve their records for five years. c) Cat F organizations shall preserve their records for five years. d) All are correct statements. 140. The quantity of unusable fuel is to be determined if not available in the flight manual before a) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft c) Complete overhaul of aircraft d) All of the above Fuelling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo-propeller engine is with in a) 30 mtrs from refueling point/refuelling eqpt. / vent b) As in a) within 15 mtrs. c) As in a) within 43 mtrs. d) None of these. Who will furnish the fuelling company personnel with information regarding correct procedure of fuelling and precautions to be observed for a type of aircraft? a) QCM of the fuelling company b) The manufacturer c) Aircraft operator d) none of these To prevent water remaining in the tanks all the filters should be purged once in a) 02 weeks b) Every week c) Every month d) Every day Mark the incorrect statement, if any. a) The aircraft shall not be refuelled with in 30 mtrs of radar equipment under test. b) The aircraft wheel chocks are placed properly and aircraft brakes are applied before refuelling is started. c) The refuelling equipment shall follow oblique approach to the aircraft by reversing the equipment towards the aircraft. d) No incorrect statement. Mark the correct statement, if any. a) Over wing refuelling shall be carried out during electrical storms only if the aircraft is properly earthed and bonded to the aircraft. b) During refuelling, the refuelling valve will be opened first and ensured that the fuel flows into the aircraft. Only after that bonding connections will be made to ensure safety. c) Both a) & b) are correct d) Both a) & b) are incorrect. Drag chains are used during refuelling for a) To hold the aircraft firmly to prevent it from moving during refuelling. b) To hold the refuelling equipment firmly to prevent it from rolling and damaging/harming aircraft and personnel during refuelling. c) Static electricity discharge bonding. d) Earthing. Recorded data such as fuel flow Vs TAS in case of jet engine public transport aircraft shall be evaluated against a) Alert values suggested by operator b) Alert values approved by DGCA



143. 144.




18 c) Alert values every month 148. d) All are correct

Mark the correct statement, if any. a) Fixed wing aircrafts and Helicopter with a seating capacity of greater than 20 shall be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. b) During refueling only strobe lighting of all types will be permitted to be operated. c) In case of a fuel spillage covering an area greater than 5 sq. mtrs, fuelling operations shall stop. d) All the above are correct statements. Barrelled AVGAS if remains unused for ___ period should be lab tested before use. a) Six weeks b) Six months c) Six years d) none of these

149. 150.

In checking the aircraft wheels for high temperature the wheels shall be approached from the a) Front & back c) Left side or right side c) Top side d) No such restrictions Essay type questions: (Marks) 01. What are the conditions for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? 02. What is the objective of airworthiness directorate? 03. What is critical shut down? (03) (02) (02) (03) 05. What recommendations does the airworthiness authority give when adverse trends are observed in any operator’s maintenance standards? 06. What is the aim of safety oversight programme? standards? 08. Through which statutory/regulatory documents does the DGCA ensure the Safety oversight of an operator? 09. Write short notes on conditions for using MEL? 10. What does preamble of MEL contain? (03) (03) (04) (02) (04) (04)

04. What are the conditions for employing a foreign AME before he certifies an aircraft?

07. Name examples of at least 05 situations that indicate negative trends in maintenance


Define the following. a) Condition monitoring

19 b) Emergency check list c) Damage tolerant d) Quality control e) Certificate of maintenance f) Aircraft components g) Maintenance h) Approved organization i) Defect j) Scheduled operator k) Certificate of Manufacture l) FRC (2 Marks each)

13. What is the content of the report, which an operator shall submit to RAWO within 24 hours in case of a mechanical delay of 15 minutes or more for dispatch? 14. What details does the fleet performance & engg. statistics report of a scheduled operator contain and at what periodicity shall they prepare it? 15. Name at least 03 defects classified as group I defects? 16. List out at least 03 defects classified as group II defects? (03) (05) (03) (05)

17. What are the primary sources of information for maintenance control by reliability? (04) 18. Briefly explain the action to be taken if any system of an aircraft is above alert value. (05) 19. What changes in maintenance control reliability method will require prior approval of DGCA? value? 21. What corrective programme will be undertaken by the operator when his engine reliability index is above alert value? 22. At what periodicity will the average fuel and oil consumption of LA engine be entered in engine logbook? 23. List out the input parameters for on condition maintenance of piston engines 24. What factors will be kept in view while determining proven service life of an (03) (10) (04) (05) (03) 20. What shall the RAWO do when any operator’s engine reliability index is above alert

20 aircraft/component? periods/TBO’s? 26. Define briefly the categories in which DGCA grants approval to aviation organizations and the scope of each category. 27. Who can become an Accountable Manager and explain his duties briefly? 28. Write short notes on QCM. 29. Who needs a nodal officer and what are his qualification and experience requirements? and who approves them? 31. What is the content of Engineering organization manual? 32. Write any 05 points to be covered in MSM. 33. What is the requirement for approval remaining valid? 34. What is release note? Who can issue release notes? Write distribution of release notes. 35. What is rejection note? Who can issue rejection notes? Write the distribution of rejection notes 36. What changes in the organization shall be notified to DGCA by AO? 37. Write briefly the contents of QC manual. 38. What is the difference between bonded stores and quarantine stores? 39. What is the qualification requirement for CI of an AME school? 40. What documents are required in a night halt station? below 5700 Kgs. AUW. 42. What are the conditions for refuelling an aircraft with passengers on board? 43. What is the grade of filter required for AVGAS and ATF tank installations? or sump? (05) (03) (04) (04) (03) (04) (04) (03) (04) (03) (05) (03) (05) (04) (03) (06) 30. List out the manuals required to be prepared by the organizations seeking approval (06) (04) (03) (07) (03)

25. Under which conditions can an operator apply for upward revision of maintenance

41. Briefly explain the method of determination of unusable fuel in case of light aircrafts

44. What are the occasions when the sampling of fuel should be carried out from a tank 45. What are the checks to be carried out on a new hose to be used on fuel installations? (03) ------------------------------------------ END ----------------------------------------------