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MATERIALS ENGINEER ACCREDITATION EXAMINATION REVIEWER

SCHEDULE OF MINIMUM TEST REQUIREMENTS (FREQUENCY)

Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition) PART C - EARTHWORKS ITEM 100 CLEARING AND GRUBBING * This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation and debris as designated in the contract. Tests: None ITEM 101 REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS * This item shall consist of the removal wholly or in part, and satisfactory disposal of all buildings, fences, structures, old pavements abandoned pipelines, and any other obstruction which are not designated or permitted to remain. Tests: None ITEM 102 EXCAVATION * This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of materials. Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable ITEM 103 STRUCTURE EXCAVATION * This item shall consist of the necessary excavation for foundation of bridges, culverts, under-drains, and other structures not otherwise provided in the specifications. If the excavated materials are washed, the volume involved shall be reported so that quality control requirements may be adjusted accordingly (submit Project Engineer Certificate of Waste). If the excavated materials are incorporated into the work: Tests: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test For every 150 mm in uncompacted depth: 1 D, Field Density ITEM 104 EMBANKMENT * This item shall consist of the construction of embankment. Tests: For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test

For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof: At least one group of three in situ density test. The layer shall be placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on the result of compacted trials. ITEM 105 SUBGRADE PREPARATION * This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying structural layers. Tests: Same as for Item 104 ITEM 106 COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS * This item shall be used in determining the density requirements of selected embankments, sub-grade, bases and bituminous concrete. Tests: Same as for Items104, 105, 200, 201, 202, 203, 204, 205, 206 and 300 ITEM 107 OVERHAUL * This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance. Tests: None PART D SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE ITEM 200 AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE * This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base course on a prepared sub-grade. Tests: For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion) For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 CBR, California Bearing Test For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of compaction test trials: At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500 m2 or fraction thereof ITEM 201 AGGREGATE BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course on a prepared sub-grade. Tests: For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test

1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion) For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 CBR, California Bearing Test For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of compaction test trials: At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500 m2 or fraction thereof ITEM 202 CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compacting crushed gravel, crushed stone or crush rock on a prepared sub-grade. Tests: Same as for Item 201 For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 F, Fractured face ITEM 203 LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime and water in proper proportions. Amount of lime to be added: 3 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test Tests: A. SOIL AGGREGATE For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) For every1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion) B. MIX For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test 1 UC, Unconfined Compaction Test C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth: 1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof 1 T, Thickness determination fro every 150 m or fraction thereof D. HYDRATED LIME For every 100T or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test ITEM 204 PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate, Portland cement and water in proper proportions. Amount of cement to be added:

6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate Tests: A. SOIL AGGREGATE Same as for Item 203 B. CEMENT 1 Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof C. WATER 1 Q, Quality Test/Project Engineers Certificate D. MIX For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test 1 UC, Unconfined Compaction Test 1 CBR, California Bearing Ratio E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth: 1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof 1 T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction thereof ITEM 205 ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate and asphaltic material in proper proportions. Amount of asphalt to be added: 4 7 mass of dry soil aggregate Tests: A. SOIL AGGREGATE Same as for Item 203 B. EMULSIFIED ASPHALT 1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T of 200 drums or fraction thereof C. MIX Same as for Item 203 C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE Same as for Item 203 ITEM 206 PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE COURSE * This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate Portland cement and water in proper proportion. Amount of cement to be added: 6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate Tests: A. SOIL AGGREGATE Same as for Item 203 B. PORTLAND CEMENT For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:

1 Q, Quality Test C. MIX Same as for Item 204 D. WATER 1 Q, Quality Test/Project Engineers Certificate E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth: 1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof 1 T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction thereof ITEM 207 AGGREGATE STOCKPILE * This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations. Tests: Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification PART E SURFACE COURSES ITEM 300 AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE * This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed aggregate and other binder material. Tests: For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI) For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion) For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of compaction test trials: At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500 m2 or fraction thereof For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 F, Fractured face ITEM 301 BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT * This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course. Quantity: 1 to 2 L/m2 Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums ITEM 302 BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT * This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement concrete with bituminous material.

Quantity: 0.2 to 0.7 L/m2 Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums ITEM 303 BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT * This item shall consist of an application of bituminous material with or w/o an application of aggregate on an existing bituminous surface course. A. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 0.2 to 1.5 L/m2 Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums B. COVER AGGREGATES Quantity: 5 to 14 kg/m2 Test: For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test ITEM 304 BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT * This item shall consist of either a single application of bituminous materials followed by a single spreading of aggregate (single surface treatment) or two applications bituminous material each followed. A. AGGREGATES Quantity: 13.6 to 38 kg/m2 if using cut back asphalt or asphalt cement 13.6 to 19.04 kg/m2 if using emulsified asphalt Tests: For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PI) For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion) For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 F, Fractured Face B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using cut back asphalt or asphalt cement 1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using emulsified asphalt ITEM 305 BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT * This item shall consist of furnishing and placing one or more aggregate and one or more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat a with cover aggregate constructed on a prepared base. A. AGGREGATES

Quantity: Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt Course (crushed) 80 kg/m2 Key (crushed) 24 kg/m2 Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m2 B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 7.2 to 11 L/m2 Test: Same as for Item 301 ITEM 306 BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE * This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous road mix surface course on a prepared base. A. AGGREGATES Tests: Same as for Item 304 B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: Using cut back asphalt 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate Using emulsified asphalt 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate Tests: Same as for Item 301 C. MIX Tests: For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test 1 Ext, Stability Test 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test D. HYDRATED LIME Tests: For every 100T or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test E. COMPACTED PAVEMENT Tests: For each full days operation: D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more than three (3) samples shall be taken ITEM 307 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX SURFACE COURSE GENERAL * This item includes general requirements that are applicable to all type of bituminous surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregate or kind and amount of bituminous material. A. AGGREGATE Tests: For every 75 m3/200T or fraction thereof:

1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping and Bulk specific gravity) 1 F, Fractured face B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof C. MIX Tests: For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof: 1 G. Grading Test 1 Ext, Stability Test 1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test D. HYDRATED LIME Tests: For every 100T or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test E. MINERAL FILLER Tests: For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI) F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT Tests: For each full days operation: D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more than three (3) samples shall be taken ITEM 308 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX SURFACE COURSE COLD LAID * This item shall consist of constructing Bituminous Surface Course (Asphalt Cold Mix) prepared in central mixing plant, laid cold on a prepared base. A.AGGREGATE Tests: Same as for Item 307 B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: Using cut back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate Using emulsified asphalt 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof C. MIX Tests: Same as for Item 307 D. HYDRATED LIME

Tests: Same as for Item 307 E. MINERAL FILLER Tests: For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI) F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT Tests: Same as for Item 307 ITEM 309 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE MIXTURE) * This item shall consist of a bituminous stockpile maintenance mixture composed of aggregate, mineral filler, hydrated lime and bituminous material mixed in a central plant. A. AGGREGATE Tests: Same as for Item 307 B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 4 to 10 mass percent of total mix Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof C. MIX Tests: Same as for Item 307 D. HYDRATED LIME Tests: Same as for Item 307 E. MINERAL FILLER Tests: Same as for Item 307 F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT Tests: Same as for Item 307 ITEM 310 BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE HOT LAID * This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous concrete surface course composed of aggregate, mineral filler and bituminous material mixed in a central plant, constructed and laid hot on prepared base. A. AGGREGATES Tests: Same as for Item 307 B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Quantity: 5 to 8 mass percent of total mix

Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof C. MIX Tests: Same as for Item 307 D. HYDRATED LIME Tests: Same as for Item 307 E. MINERAL FILLER Tests: Same as for Item 307 F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT Tests: Same as for Item 307 ITEM 311 PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT * This item shall consist of pavement of Portland cement concrete, with or without reinforcement, constructed on the prepared base. A. CEMENT Quantity: 9.0 bags/m3 (40 kg/bag) Test: For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test B. FINE AGGREGATE Quantity: 0.50 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded course aggregate 0.54 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse aggregate Tests: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale) b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength) For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test C. COURSE AGGREGATE Quantity: 0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate 2 3 0.68 m /m concrete if using angular or crushed coarse aggregate Tests: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:

a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight) b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption and Abrasion) For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test D. WATER Test: 1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if source is questionable E. JOINT FILLER 1. Poured joint filler Test: 1 Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each shipment 2. Pre molded joint filler Test: 1 Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment G. STEEL BARS Test: For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size: 1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis) H. CONCRETE Test: Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples: 1 Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2 of pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3 I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT Test: Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when two (2) lanes are poured concurrently PART F BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION ITEM 400 - PILING * This item shall consist of piling, furnished, driven or placed, cut and spliced. A. TIMBER PILES Test:

1 Inspection Report for each size and shipment of timber B. CONCRETE PILES a.) Concrete Test: Same as for Item 405 b.) Reinforcing Steel Test: Same as for Item 404 C. STRUCTURAL PILES Tests: 1 IR, inspection Report 1 Q, Quality Test or Mill Test Certificate ITEM 401 RAILINGS * This item shall consist of furnishing, fabricating or placing, for bridges and other structures of the material of combination of materials. A. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405, Class C B. REINFORCING STEEL Test: Same as for Item 404 ITEM 402 TIMBER STRUCTURES * This item shall consist of construction of timber structures to the dimensions, lines and grades as shown on the plans. Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test or Manufacturers Certificate for each type of material used 1 IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of timber ITEM 403 METAL STRUCTURES * This work shall consist of steel structures portions of composite structures, constructed in reasonably close conformity with the lines, grades and dimension. Tests: 1 Q, Quality Test or Manufacturers Certificate for each type of material used 1 IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of metal ITEM 404 REINFORCING STEEL * This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required. A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE Test: For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size: 1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis) B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH Test:

1 Q, Quality Test ITEM 405 STRUCTURAL CONCRETE * This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements. A. CEMENT Quantity: (40 kg/bag) Class A 9 bags/m3 of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa Class B 8 bags/m3 of concrete 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa Class C 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa Class B 11 bags/m3 of concrete 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa Class Seal 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa Test: For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test B. FINE AGGREGATES Quantity: ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED Class A 0.50 0.54 m2/m3 of concrete Class B 0.45 0.52 m2/m3 of concrete Class C 0.53 0.59 m2/m3 of concrete Class P 0.44 0.47 m2/m3 of concrete Test: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale) b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength) For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test C. COARSE AGGREGATES Quantity: ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete Test: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:

1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption, Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight) b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test: 1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption and Abrasion) For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test D. WATER Tests: 1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if source is questionable E. PRE MOLDED FILLER FRO EXPANSION JOINTS Test: 1 Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT Test: For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size: 1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis) G. CONCRETE Tests: Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1) set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken from each days pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of concrete or fraction thereof ITEM 406 PRE STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES * This item shall consist of pre-stressed concrete structures and the pre-stressed concrete portions of composite structures. A. CONCRETE Tests: Same as for Item 405, Class P B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT Test: Same as for Item 404 C. WIRE STRAND Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 20T or fraction thereof ITEM 407 CONCRETE STRUCTURES *This item shall consist of the general description of the materials, equipment, workmanship and construction requirements of concrete structures and the concrete portions of composite structures. Tests: Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411 Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality

ITEM 408 STEEL BRIDGES * This item shall consist of construction of steel structure conforming to the lines, grades, dimension and designs. Tests: Same as for Item 403 and 411 Painting: 1 Q, One 20 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof 1 Q, One 4 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof ITEM 409 WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL * This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type. Test: Same as for 403 and Inspection Report ITEM 410 TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER * This item shall consist of structural timber of the specie size called on the plans either treated or untreated as called for in the proposal. Test: 1 IR, Inspection report 1 Q, Quality Test for preservatives ITEM 411 PAINT * This item shall consist of furnishing and applying all paint materials including vehicles, pigments, pastes, dryers, thinners, and mixed paints for steel and wooden structures. Test: 1 Q, One 20 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof 1 Q, One 4 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof ITEM 412 ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS *This item shall consist of the requirement for elastomeric bearing pads whose main function is to transfer loads or accommodate relative movement between a bridge superstructure and its supporting structures ITEM 413 PRE MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND STRUCTURAL CONCRETE * Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and structural construction.

PART G DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES ITEM 500 PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS * This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm drains.

A. PIPES Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength, Absorption and Dimension) Alternative Requirements: 1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3) concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty five (25) pipe cast in the field 2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty five (25) pipes cast in the field B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER Cement, fine aggregates and water: Test: Same as for Item 405 ITEM 501 UNDERDRAINS * This item shall consist of constructing under drains, using pipe and granular filter materials, under drain pipe outlets, and blind drain using granular materials. A. CONCRETE PIPE (NON REINFORCED) Test: Quality Test for 0.5% of the number of pipes for each size but not less than two (2) for Strength, Absorption and Dimension Alternative requirements: 1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3) concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty five (25) pipe cast in the field 2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty five (25) pipes cast in the field B. CLAY PIPE Test: Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 200 pieces of each size, with a minimum number of two (2) specimens for Strength, Absorption and Dimension ITEM 502 MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS * This item shall consist of the construction, reconstruction or adjustment of manholes, inlets, and catch basins. A. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405, Class A B. LIDS, CAST IRON FRAMES AND GRATING Test: Inspection Report ITEM 503 DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME

* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal sizes of industry standard sized pits. ITEM 504 CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE STRUCTURES * This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant structures. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 505 RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP * This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the case maybe, with or without filter backing. Test: Same as for Item 505 (Cement Aggregate ratio = 1:3) ITEM 506 STONE MASONRY * This item shall consist of stone masonry of minor structures, in headwalls for culverts, in retaining walls at the toes of slopes. A. CEMENT Quantity: 2 bags/m3 of concrete Test: For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test (Cement Aggregate ratio = 1:2) B. FINE AGGREGATE Quantity: 0.17 m2/m3 of concrete Test: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405) For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof: 1 G, Grading Test C. STONE Test: Inspection Report D. WATER Test: 1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if source is questionable ITEM 507 RUBBLE CONCRETE * This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete. ITEM 508 HAND LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 509 SHEET PILES * This item shall consist of furnishing, driving cutting off of sheet pile. A. TIMBER SHEET PILES Test: Inspection Report B. CONCRETE SHEET PILES Test: Same as for Item 400 C. STEEL SHEET PILES Test: Same as for Item 403 ITEM 510 CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION * This item shall consist of furnishing and placing of concrete slope protection including all necessary excavation, a bed course and reinforced concrete to the required thickness and extent to protect slope against erosion. A. BED COURSE Test: Same as for Item 200 B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT Test: Same as for Item 404 C. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405 ITEM 511 GABIONS * This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks installed at the location designated. Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment PART H MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES ITEM 600 CURB AND GUTTER * This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of concrete. A. CONCRETE Quantity: 0.078 m3/m (curb only)

0.092 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type A) 0.145 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type B) 0.074 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type C) Test: Same as for Item 405 B. JOINT FILLER Test: Same as for Item 311 ITEM 601 SIDEWALK * This item shall consist of construction of asphalt of Portland cement concrete sidewalk. A. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405, Class A B. PRE MOLDED EXPANSION JOINT FILLER Test: Same as for Item 311 ITEM 602 MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS * This item shall consist of right-of-way monuments, maintenance marker posts, kilometer posts and/ or guideposts. A. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405, Class A B. REINFORCING STEEL Test: Same as for Item 404 C. TIMBER Test: Same as for Item 410 D. PAINT Test: Same as for Item 411 ITEM 603 GUARDRAIL * This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails. A. STEEL POSTS Test: Same as for Item 403 B. TIMBER POSTS Test: Same as for Item 410 C. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 405 D. REINFORCING STEEL

Test: Same as for Item 404 E. RAIL Test: Inspection Report F. PAINT Test: Same as for Item 411 ITEM 604 FENCING * This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing of post and barb wire or chain link fences. A. BARB WIRE, CHAIN LINK FABRIC Test: 1 Q, Quality Test B. CONCRETE POSTS Test: Same as for Item 405 C. STEEL REINFORCEMENT Test: Same as for Item 404 ITEM 605 ROAD SIGN * This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 606 PAVEMENT MARKINGS * This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement. Test: Same as for Item 411 ITEM 607 REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS * This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the surface of the pavement. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 608 TOPSOIL * This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from designated areas, haul and spread. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 609 SPRIGGING * This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.

Test: Inspection Report ITEM 610 SODDING * This item shall consist of furnishing and laying of live sod on the shoulders, slopes, ditches, or other locations as designated, construction of sod ditch checks or similar appurtenances. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 611 TREE PLANTING * This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas. Test: Inspection Report ITEM 612 REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING * This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.

PART I MATERIALS DETAILS ITEM 700 HYDRATED CEMENT Test: Same as for Item 405 ITEM 701 CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED) Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof ITEM 702 BITUMINOUS MATERIALS Test: Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310 ITEM 703 AGGREGATES Test: Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities ITEM 703A MINERAL FILLER * This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter. Test: Same as for Item 307

ITEM 704 MASONRY UNITS Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof ITEM 705 JOINT MATERIALS Test: Same as for Items 311 and 500 ITEM 706 CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES A. CONCRETE Test: Same as for Item 500 B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES Test: Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs ITEM 707 METAL PIPE Test: Same as for Item 400 ITEM 708 CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE * This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of concrete admixtures. Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment ITEM 709 PAINTS Test: Same as for Item 411 ITEM 710 REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE A. REINFORCING STEEL Test: Same as for Item 404 B.WIRE ROPE Test: Same as for Item 406 ITEM 711 FENCE AND GUARDRAIL A. FENCE Test: Same as for Item 604 B. GUARDRAIL Test: Same as for Item 603

ITEM 712 STRUCTURAL METAL Test: Same as for Items 403 and 406 ITEM 713 TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER Test: Same as for Item 410 ITEM 714 WATER Test: Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test, if source is questionable ITEM 715 GEOTEXTILES * This item covers geotextiles fabric for use in subsurface drainage, hydraulic filter, erosion control, sediment control, pavement superstructures as a water proofing and stress relieving membrane, and as permeable separator to prevent mixing of dissimilar materials.

TABLES

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES

MATERIALS

MNIMUM TESTING REQUIREMENTS

MINIMUM QUANTITY/VOLUME OF MATERIALS FOR EACH SAMPLE SUBMITTED

1. Cement 2. Asphaltic material 3. Aspahlt mix 4. Aggregates a. coarse aggregate b. fine aggregate 5. Soil aggregates a. Classification b. Routinary tests c. MDR test and CBR 6. Non Reinforced Concrete Pipes 7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes 8.Steel pipe (galvanized) 9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB) a. strength b. moisture content 10. Steel bar 11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 12. Wire strand 13. Gabion 14. Paints 15. Joint filler (pre molded) 16. Curing compound 17. Concrete cylinder 18. Concrete beam 19. Concrete core 20. Asphalt core 21. Water a. Chemical analysis b. Sediment load analysis 22. Structural steel/sheet 23. Hydrated lime

1 sample per 2000 bags 1 sample per 40T or 200 drums 1 sample per 130T 1 sample per 1,500 m3 1 sample per 1,500 m3

10 kg 5L 20 kg 70 kg 50 kg 20 kg 50 kg 50 kg

2 pipes min./0.5% of no. of pipes 1 sample per 50 pipes or 2% of # of pipes 1 sample per 500 lengths 1 sample per 10,000 units 1 sample per 10T 1 sample per 100 sheets 1 sample per 20T 1 sample per 100 cans 1 sample per 75 m3 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1 day pouring 5 holes for every km/lane 1 core for every 100m

2 pipes 1 pipe (1 m length) 2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken from both ends w/ thread 3 units 3 units 1m 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm 2m 1m x 2m 1 - 4L can 1 400mm x 400mm 1L 1 set (3 cylinders) 1 set (3 cylinders)

500 ml 500 ml 1 sample per 50T 1 sample per 100T Reduced section as prescribed

COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE

Class of concrete

Minimum cement content per

Maximum water cement ratio

Consistency range in slump

Designated size of coarse

Minimum compressive strength of

cu. m kg (bags) kg/kg mm (inch) 50 -100 (2 4) 50 -100 (2 4) 50 -100 (2 4) 100 max ( 4 max) 100 200 (4 8)

aggregate square opening std. mm 37. 5 4.75 (1 - No. 4) 50.0 4.75 (2 - No. 4) 12. 5 4.75 ( - No. 4) 19.0 4.75 (3/4 - No. 4) 25.0 4.75 (1 - No. 4)

150mm x 300mm concrete cylinder @ 28 days MN/m2 (psi) 20.7 (3000) 16.5 (2400) 20.7 (3000) 37. 7 (5000) 20.7 (3000)

A B C P Seal

360 (9) 320 (8.5) 380 (9.5) 440 (11) 380 (9.5)

0.53 0.58 0.55 0.49 0.58

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN STRENGTH

Deficiency in strength of concrete pavement Percent (%) Less than 5 5 to less than 10 10 to less than 15 15 to less than 20 20 to less than 25 25 or more

Percent (%) of contract price allowed 100 80 70 60 50 0

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN THICKNESS

Deficiency in the average thickness per lot(mm) 05

Percent (%) of contract price per lot 100

6 10 11 15 16 20 21 25 more than 25

95 85 70 50 removed and replaced (no payment)

COMMON LABORATORY TESTS

Kind of material Cement Coarse aggregate

Type of test Physical and chemical Grading Specific gravity Absorption Abrasion Unit weight Grading Specific gravity Absorption Unit weight Grading Liquid limit Plastic limit Compaction CBR Abrasion

Test duration per sample (min. # of days) 8 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 7 1 4 4 1 1 1

Fine aggregate

Soil aggregates mixture (subbase, base and surfaces courses

Asphalt Paint Concrete cylinder Concrete beam Concrete core

Physical Physical and chemical Compressive Flexural Cutting of sample

LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS ITEM 104 Abrasion loss Plastic index Liquid limit Permitted variation from design THICKNESS OF LAYER Permitted variation from design LEVEL OF SURFACE Permitted surface irregularity measured by 3m straight edge Permitted variation from design cross fall or camber Permitted variation from design longitudinal grade over 25m length California Bearing Ratio 6% max 30% max ITEM 105 ITEM 200 50% max 12% max 35% max 20mm 1TEM 201 50% max 6% max 25% max 10mm ITEM 202 45% max 6% max 25% max ITEM 203 4% to 10% ITEM 300 45% max 4% to 9% 35% max +15mm, -5mm

+20mm, -30mm

+10mm, -20mm

-5mm, -10mm

+15mm, -5mm

30mm

20mm

5mm

5mm

0.5%

0.3%

0.2%

+0.2%

0.1%

0.1%

0.1%

+0.1%

80% min DIMESION OF PILES 25% min (1m from the butt) minimum maximum 300mm 450mm 320mm 450mm 350mm 500mm

80% min

100%

80% min

Length of pile less than 12m 12m to 18m more than 18m

Minimum tip 200mm 180mm 150mm

REMOVAL OF FORMS Scope of work Centering under girders, beams, frames or arches Floors slabs Walls Columns Sides of beams and all other vertical surfaces Minimum time 14 days 14 days 1 day 2 days 1 day Minimum % of design strength 80% 70% 70% 70% 70%

SIEVE SIZES NO. 200 NO. 100 NO. 60 NO.50 NO. 40 NO. 30 0.075mm 0.150mm 0.300mm 0.250mm 0.425mm 0.600mm NO. 20 NO. 16 NO. 12 NO. 10 NO. 8 NO. 4 0.840mm 1.180mm 1.700mm 2.000mm 2.360mm 4.750mm

DETAILS OF WELDS Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part 5mm 13mm 6mm 19mm 8mm 32mm 10mm 51mm 13mm 152mm 16mm 152mm and above MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING GRADE 40 24 times bar 20 times bar GRADE 60 36 times bar 24 times bar

Tension Compression

MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)

Sieve size NO. 30 NO. 50 NO. 200

Mass % passing 100 95 100 70 - 100

HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701) Sieve size NO. 20 NO. 200 Mass % passing 100 85 - 100

MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURE CONTENT Sieve No. (passing) NO. 40 NO. 10 NO. 4 1 2 Weight 25 grams 50 grams 200 grams 300 grams 500 grams 1000 grams

REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete? Answer: concrete cylinder sample 2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete? Answer: Slump test 3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test? Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment 4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete? Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample 5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts 6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Answer: Reflectorized paint 7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen? Answer: asphalt 8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed? Answer: 24 hours 9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat? Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m 10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade 11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? Answer: concrete beam sample 12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)? Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD 13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)? Answer: 3 grading tests 14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials? Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials 15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201? Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively 16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201? Answer: 80% maximum 17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement? Answer: Blown Asphalt 18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)? Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement 19. What is the machine used for abrasion test? Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201? Answer: by Field Density Test 21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI? Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit 22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis? Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis 23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3? Answer: 101.86% 24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement? Answer: 5 holes/km/lane 25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven dried weight of 138.2 grams? Answer: 17.58% 26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean? Answer: the soil is clayey 27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven dried? Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight 28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained? Answer: 110 5C 29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable? Answer: because it can affect its weight 30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content? Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of an air dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of the original sample from the field. 31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents? Answer: 2000 bags 32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test? Answer: 2 pcs 1 m sample

33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be? Answer: Superplasticizer 34. What is the use of blown asphalt? Answer: as joint filler and water proofing 35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt? Answer: Asphalt Cement 36. How many days does the sample for Immersion Compression Test be soaked in water? Answer: 4 days @ 50C 37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition 38. Paint is composed of _____ Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads 39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample? Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip 40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing? Answer: 23C 1.7C 41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63F to 85F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times. Answer: three (3) 42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 F 3F Answer: Twenty four (24) 43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil? Answer: high degree of compressibility 44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve? Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm) 45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture Density Relation Test (MDR) is T 180?

Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop 46. A bean mold measuring 6 x 6 x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied? Answer: 60 blows/layer 47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix? Answer: 5.10% 48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat? Answer: Cut back asphalt 49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of approximately _____? Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2 50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt content? Answer: 4.7% to 5.5% 51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of soil? Answer: 95% degree of compaction 52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class A is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class B? Answer: 8 bags/cu.m 53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____? Answer: Contractor 54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates? Answer: Once the source is identified 55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class P is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class C? Answer: 3,000 psi 56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixers nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturers standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixers nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place. Answer: Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm? Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected location 58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt? Answer: hot climate (cold climate higher penetration grade or soft asphalt) 59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material? Answer: Materials test results/reports 60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____? Answer: consistency 61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____? Answer: consistency of concrete 62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full days operation? Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples 63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements? Answer: four (4) 64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements? Answer: nine (9) 65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why? Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect 66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix? Answer: 20 liters 67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______. Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture 68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the project? Answer: four (4) pails 69. Aggregate Sub base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis? Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project? Answer: Two (2) samples 71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m? Answer: Six (6) compaction tests 72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports? Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test 73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)? Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water 74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)? Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water 75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this? Answer: Quality Control Program 76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size? Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample 77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed. Answer: Fourteen (14) 78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the project? Answer: Status of Test 79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8 (3.2 mm). Answer: Plastic Limit 80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows. Answer: Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete? Answer: 127 mm 82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear? Answer: 30 33 rpm 83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class A concrete? Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water 84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs? Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum 85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____? Answer: week 86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested: Answer: before it is incorporated into work 87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement? Answer: 200 mm loose measurement 88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry? Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption 89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer? Answer: Sample Card 90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed? Answer: Three (3) 91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested

just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample? Answer: One (1) month 92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing? Answer: Four (4) 93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field density test? Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test 94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why? Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result 95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test? Answer: Extraction Test 96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test? Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool 97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test? Answer: glass plate 98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix? Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 60 cm interval 99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the stability of the slope. Answer: Berm 100. In soil and sub surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density 101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit. Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m 102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs. Answer: Class B

103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs. Answer: Class A 104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs. Answer: Class C 105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs. Answer: Class D 106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry. Answer: 150 mm 107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300. Answer: 1 inch 108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300. Answer: 35% 109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300. Answer: 4% to 9% 110. Range of sand size. Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm 111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids Answer: void ratio 112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids Answer: moisture content 113. Significance of grading test are, except Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of soil 114. Significance of plasticity index are, except Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil 115. Properties of concrete are, except Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking 116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except

Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base 117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state. Answer: Liquidity Index 118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index 119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches. Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 80%) 120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs. Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 70%) 121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls. Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%) 122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns. Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength 70%) 123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces. Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%) 124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load Answer: Pile cap 125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer. Answer: 150 mm 126. Class of concrete deposited in water. Answer: Class Seal 127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings. Answer: Class A 128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement. Answer: Class B

129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors. Answer: Class C 130. Class of concrete used in pre stressed concrete structures and members. Answer: Class P 131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit Answer: 1.50 m 132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings Answer: Item 612 133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300 Answer: + 15 mm and 5 mm 134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____ Answer: 3% to 5 % 135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____ Answer: plain bars 136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days. Answer: 3.80 MPa 137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub base shall spread and compacted in ____ ` Answer: two or more layers 138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____ Answer: 80% 139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201. Answer: 10 mm 140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard Answer: No. 40 141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____ Answer: 1,120 kg/m3 142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15% Answer: 70%

143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation Answer: Transverse Construction Joint 144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310 Answer: 6.0 mm 145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application? Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2 146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____ Answer: four (4) 147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density 148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits 149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4 150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material Answer: Group Index 151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm Answer: 353 sets 152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings Answer: 30% 153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings Answer: 6% 154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds Answer: 80% and 55% respectively 155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 90 157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 89 158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer Answer: 95% 159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long 160. At least how many in situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m 2 of each layer of compacted fill? Answer: three (3) 161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 Answer: 12% 162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 Answer: 35% 163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 Answer: 2 164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 96 165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 Answer: 50% 166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200 Answer: 25% 167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by Answer: AASHTO T 193 168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course Answer: 100% 169. In place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 191

170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel. Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel) 171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B Answer: 1 inch 172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202 Answer: 45% 173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202 Answer: 50% 174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202 Answer: 80% 175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A Answer: 1 inch 176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A Answer: 2 177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B Answer: 1 inch 178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase. Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203) 179. The required plasticity index for Item 203 Answer: 4% to 10% 180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203 Answer: 50% 181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B Answer: 2 182. Item number for water? Answer: Item 714 183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?

Answer: 3% to 12% 184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203 Answer: 100% 185. Required percent compaction for Item 203 Answer: 100% 186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling Answer: Pneumatic tire roller 187. Equipment to be used for final rolling Answer: 3 wheel tandem type steel wheel roller 188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame Answer: flash point 189. It is a manually operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index. Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device 190. It is used for the rapid in situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound granular properties. Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer 191. What is the thinnest cut back asphalt? Answer: MC 3000 192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular piles? Answer: Test Pitting 193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing pavement. Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer 194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling? Answer: Rebar Locator 195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?

Answer: 3 meter straight edge 196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content? Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge 197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement. Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger 198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in situ or pre cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections. Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester 199. Soil stabilizing agent Answer: Lime for silty and clayey soil Cement fro sandy soil 200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state. Answer: LIQUID LIMIT 201. Water content at which soil passes from semi solid to plastic state. Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT 202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi solid. Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT 203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____ Answer: tie bars 204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented by these high spots _____ Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only. 205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____ Answer: Once a year 206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?

Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes 207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture? Answer: 2 208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____ Answer: 1800 lbs 209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will develop at _____ Answer: 60 210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method? Answer: 75 blows 211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt? Answer: 85 100 212. In case of scarcity or non availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used? Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P 213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method. Answer: 4.50 MPa 214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____ Answer: Steel forms of an approved section 215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____ Answer: Within 24 hours 216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement Answer: 24 hours 217. The required slump of concrete using slip form method of paving is _____ Answer: 1 inches 218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____ Answer: 25% or more 219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured? Answer: 1,000 ln.m

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently? Answer: 500 ln. m 221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm 222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day? Answer: 1 set 223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved? Answer: 80% of the designed 28 day compressive strength 224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 20 mm reinforcing steel. Answer: 6d (20 mm 25 mm = 8d: 28 mm and above = 10d) 225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching. Answer: 4 to 6 rpm 226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water? Answer: 10 to 20 cm 227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course. Answer: Prime Coat 228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment? Answer: Item 304 229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job mix formula for Item 310? Answer: 0.4% 230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface? Answer: Seal Coat 231. Job mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310. Answer: 10C 232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full days operation? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm 233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?

Answer: 107C 234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310. Answer: 5 kph 235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack. Answer: faulting 236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______ Answer: 100 mm 237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____ Answer: 1.0 mass % 238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap. Answer: 800 mm (Class A 300 mm; Class B 500 mm; Class C 600 mm) 239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course. Answer: Tack Coat 240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement? Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2 241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut back asphalt? Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2 242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the surface? Answer: 6 mm 243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310? Answer: 1.40 MPa 244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65? Answer: 70% minimum 245. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve. Answer: 7 246. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).

Answer: 4 247. .Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve. Answer: 2 248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load. Answer: stability 249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic. Answer: durability 250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads. Answer: fatigue resistance 251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade. Answer: flexibility 252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310. Answer: 92% to 95% 253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix? Answer: Immersion Compression Test 254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement? Answer: 60 70 and 85 100 255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion Compression Test is performed. Answer: stability 256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability. Answer: decrease 257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used? Answer: armored thermometer 258. Peat and muck soils are considered as: Answer: highly organic soils 259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub base or base course construction?

Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction method. 260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road? Answer: excessive asphalt content 261. A good subgrade soil should have the following: Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit 262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____ Answer: determine the trend of its strength development 263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three edge bearing test machine? Answer: 0.3 mm crack 264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____ Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 175 psi/second (flexural) 265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality should: Answer: be retested prior to use 266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose. Answer: Stabilization 267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this test? Answer: referee test 268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength? Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days 269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix? Answer: tacky 270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____ Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel 271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____ Answer: weak subgrade

272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____ Answer: very stable 273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___ Answer: normal 274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil? Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil 275. What is the significance of field density test? Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction. 276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false? Answer: true 277. How to prepare or to come up with an air dried sample? Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun 278. If it is impossible to air dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used? Answer: oven dry the sample @ 60C 279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size? Answer: Method A & B use sample passing No. 4 Method C & D use sample passing inch 280. What is the difference between T 99 and T 180 compaction test method? Answer: T 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12 drop while T 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18 drop. 281. What is particle size analysis? Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis 282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals? Answer: distilled water 283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____? Answer: 10 mm 284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated? Answer: 2 rps

285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what will the soil thread begin to break? Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8) 286. What is specific gravity? Answer; It is used in a gravimetric volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature) 287. What is the approximate area for density control strips? Answer: 335 sq. m 288. What Item of work is embankment? Answer: Item 104 289. What kind of material for Item 200? Answer: Aggregate sub base course 290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104? Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3 openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11) 291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201? Answer: 100% 292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction test? Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC) 293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)? Answer: Any clean, dry, free flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve 294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone? Answer: inch (12.7 mm) 295. What are the apparatus used in FDT? Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name) 296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water? Answer: 15 to 19 hours

297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition? Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition 298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates? Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request 299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast iron spheres used in abrasion test? Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm and each weighing between 390 455 grams 300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres? Answer: 5,000 grams 25 grams 301. What is significance of abrasion test? Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling. 302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test? Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm) 303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test? Answer: 14 days 304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point? Answer: R = PL bd2 305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point? Answer: R = 3PL 2bd2 306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete? Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same as the rod.

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required? Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units) 308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units? Answer: Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum 309. What is the strength requirement for non load bearing concrete masonry units? Answer: Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum 310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars? Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade. 311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB? Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB 312. What is the required testing requirement for paints? Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail) 313. SS l or SS lh is what kind of asphalt? Answer: slow setting emulsified asphalt 314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed? Answer: 24 hours 315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat? Answer: cut back asphalt 316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP? Answer: 25 pieces 317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement? Answer: thickness and density of pavement 318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____ Answer: Materials logbook

319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in situ test that measures what? Answer: depth of soil layer 320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____ Answer: segregation 321. A one lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried out in _____? Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m 322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted? Answer: higher 323. Quality of factory produced RCCP may be best established through what? Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples 324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course? Answer: geotextiles 325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6 x 6 x 21 beam mold be rodded? Answer: 63 blows/layer 326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or _______. Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture 327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____ Answer: 29C 328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP? Answer: 12 sets 329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test? Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted? Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water cement ratio is not exceeded. 331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture? Answer: TAR is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood. PETROLEUM ASPHALT are the products of the distillation of crude oil. 332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts? Answer: Asphalt cement, cut back asphalt, emulsified asphalt 333. What are the solvents of cut back asphalts? Answer: GASOLINE for rapid curing type KEROSENE for medium curing type DIESEL for slow curing type 334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____. Answer: CATIONIC EMULSION works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron. ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron. 335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310? Answer: asphalt cement 336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement? Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt 337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected? Answer: climatic condition 338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job mix formula? Answer: three (3) weeks 339. Who will approve the job mix formula? Answer: DPWH PE and ME 340. The job mix formula contains provisions the following: Answer:

a. b. c. d.

grading of aggregates percentage and type of asphalt temperature of aggregates and asphalt temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed? Answer: 66C to 107C 342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density? Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable 343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density? Answer: trial section 344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement? Answer: temperature 345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done? Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the rollers width. 346. After the final rolling, what will be checked? Answer: degree of compaction 347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____ Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density 348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement? Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature 349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement? Answer: by the use of core drill or saw 350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated? Answer: 40 mm 75 mm 351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated? Answer: 10 mm 40 mm 352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing? Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds 353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at the site?

Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators 354. How is concrete consolidated? Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically 355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used? Answer: longitudinal construction joint 356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem? Answer: deformed steel tie bars 357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw? Answer: not less than 50 mm 358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____ Answer: not less than 6 mm 359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing? Answer: sawing shall be omitted 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____ Answer: asphalt or other materials 361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement? Answer: dowel 362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____ Answer: thin film of bitumen 363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____ Answer: brooming 364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement? Answer: 1.5 mm 365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____ Answer: 72 hours

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following: Answer: a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement c. by ponding d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface 367. When is the right time to seal the joints? Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic 368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook 95)? Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand 369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____? Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH 370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____ Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME 371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the project based on test results? Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH 372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness. Answer: asphaltene 373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve? Answer: No. 200 374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____ Answer: pothole patching 375. VMA means Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates 376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen Answer: 124C 377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is Answer: 163C 378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is Answer: 121C - 188C

379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from Answer: 177C - 191C 380. The maximum absorption content of CHB Answer: 240 kg/m3 381. The maximum moisture content of CHB Answer: 45% 382. SPT means Answer: Standard Penetration Test 383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample Answer: Shelby tube 384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample Answer: wax 385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample Answer: split spoon sampler 386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity Answer: Standard Penetration Test 387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring Answer: diamond bit 388. CQCA means Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly) 389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from Answer: 1.01 1.04 390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt? Answer: cationic 391. How many group of three in situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer? Answer: fifteen (15) 392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is Answer: 0.06% 394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars? Answer: TENSILE STRENGTH GRADE 40 483 MPa GRADE 60 621 MPa GRADE 75 689 MPa 395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent Answer: clay content 396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is Answer: air dried condition 397. The method in the determination of density of soil in place Answer: Sand cone method 398. Air dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200 399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? Answer: a. subbase materials b. surfacing materials c. base course materials 400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast iron spheres or steel spheres. Answer: GRADING A 12 spheres GRADING B 11 spheres GRADING C 8 spheres GRADING D 6 spheres 401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is Answer: 100 rpm 402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used (Item 206) Answer: two (2) hours

YIELD POINT 276 MPa 414 MPa 517 MPa

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has set. Answer: 40 kph 404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation Answer: 90 minutes 405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete. 406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you recommend? Answer: conduct recoring 407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates Answer: excessive asphalt 408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement? Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893) 409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil. Answer: Flow curve 410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____ Answer: abrasion loss 411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm? Answer: 24.7 liters 412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____ Answer: 2.75 413. The standard packaging weight of cement Answer: 40 kg/bag 414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix. Answer: curing compound

415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night. Answer: reflectorized paint 416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time. Answer: glass beads 417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units. Answer: Latex 418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test. Answer: Triple spot test 419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating. Answer: Single spot test 420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle. Answer: Enamel 421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates Answer: good subgrade material 422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted. Answer: Control strips 423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position. Answer: tremie with 250 mm 424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 2.15 425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint. Answer: 102.5C 426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 10 minutes 427. The rate of application of traffic paint. Answer: 0.33 lit/m2

428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. Answer: 15 30 minutes 429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint. Answer: 10 kg 430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture. Answer: vernier caliper 431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement. Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens. 432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen. Answer: gasoline 433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on Answer: mass of dry aggregates 434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture. Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates 435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt. Answer: penetrometer 436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil. Answer: Distillation 437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt. Answer: Softening point 438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100% 439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310. Answer: 200F to 225F 440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked? Answer: yellowish brown 441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? Answer: seven (7)

442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? Answer: two (2) 443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at Answer: approximately quarter points 444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes Answer: bleeding 445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler? Answer: not greater than 4 446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle. Answer: raveling 447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligators skin or chicken wire. Answer: alligator cracking 448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work. Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements 449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: 10 mass % 450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: 12 mass % 451. Additives used in concrete mixing. Answer: admixtures 452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate. Answer: Soundness test 453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on Answer: Absolute Design Method 454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than Answer: 45 minutes

455. The final setting time of Portland cement Answer: 10 hours 456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement Answer: Ottawa sand 457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus 458. A mixture of cement and water is Answer: cement paste 459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory. Answer: Gillmore needle 460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is Answer: 19.3 MPa 461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave? Answer: crumbled 462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete Answer: first seven (7) days 463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent. Answer: sampling 464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves. Answer: disturbed samples 465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties. Answer: thin walled tube sampling 467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory. Answer: government

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable. Answer: undisturbed samples 469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete. Answer: retarder 470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete. Answer: accelerator 471. The best enemy of construction. Answer: water 472. The following are considered unsuitable materials: Answer: a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots and sewage b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55% d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100% e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3 f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer 473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course? Answer: 0 12% 474. The rate of application of special curing agent Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m 475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel. Answer: sounding 476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed? Answer: Liquid limit test 477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is Answer: 20mm 478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber. Answer: 10 days

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening. Answer: 2mm 480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer. Answer: 2.5m 3.5 (concrete) 4.5m (timber) 481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation. Answer: Compaction 482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials. Answer: liquid limit of fines 483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section. Answer: 3 to 5 484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____. Answer: greater than 0.14, greater than 0.002 485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 hour strength by _____. Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70% 486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure. Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi 487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete. Answer: air entraining admixtures 488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make up for the past or future loss of time. Answer: Delivery control 489. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface. ` Answer: potholes

490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement. Answer: corrugation 491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement. Answer: shoving 492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths. Answer: rutting 492. It is the chief load bearing of gravel road? Answer: base or subbase course 493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means. Answer: 3 meters 494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade. Answer: base course 495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered. Answer: 40 times bar 496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension. Answer: Structural concrete 497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons. Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi) 498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure. Answer: transom 499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____. Answer: one (1) meter, 30m 500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler? Answer: 50mm 501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling. Answer: 1.50m length 502. The initial diameter of bore hole. Answer: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter? Answer: 67mm 504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic. Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade) 505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic. Answer: 500m (along centerline) 506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground. Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road) 507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project Answer: 1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run) 1 boring for each pier for multi span (3m into the bed rocks) 508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam. Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline Depth = times base width 509. For ports and harbors projects: Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves) 510. For buildings (large area greater than 930 m2): Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below lowest foundation) 511. For buildings less than 930 m2 Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners 512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm. Answer: Flush Surface Reflector 513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed. Answer: shrinkage cracking 514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design? Answer: consistency 515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.

Answer: 4mm 516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation. Answer: Cordoning 517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation. Answer: Drenching 518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____ Answer: 22% 519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____ Answer: 14% 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position. Answer: 244 kg/m2 521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank. Answer: 1,033.50 KPa 522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke. Answer: 831.48 kg/m 523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed. Answer: 2.5 meters 524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water. Answer: dredging 525. The slope of batter piles Answer: 1:6 526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____ Answer: 0.12% 527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design Answer: 20% 528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the ground. Answer: Minor excavation

529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity. Answer: footing 530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above. Answer: Boring test 531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground. Answer: 700mm 532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill. Answer: 100mm 533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column. Answer: Spread footing 534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state. Answer: 3% 535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional compaction 536. Liquid limit is usually Answer: greater than plastic limit 537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least Answer: 100% modified proctor 538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do? Answer: conduct immediate re testing for verification 539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer? Answer: a. sampling of material b. analysis of test result of material c. scheduling of delivery of materials d. design of concrete mix 540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be Answer: volume

541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true? Answer: a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum moisture content b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC d. none of the above 542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture content? Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact 543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness Answer: - 5mm 544. Geosynthetics may be used for Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control 545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content? Answer: a. beam balance b. oven c. moisture can d. extruder 546. Steel bars are considered undersize if Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesnt meet the manufactured size 547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements except grading. What will you recommend? Answer: reprocess the materials by blending 548. Concrete curing refers to Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength 549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties? Answer: organic 550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant? Answer: Moisture Density relation test

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is Answer: No. 10 552. What is the volume of the mold using 6 for AASHTO T 180 D method in compaction test? Answer: 0.002124 m3 553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve Answer: sand 554. What is ASTM? Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials 555. What is AASHTO? Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials 556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under Answer: ASTM & AASHTO 557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre bidding qualifications? Answer: large 558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104? Answer: of the thickness 559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve? Answer: colloids 560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen Answer: 25mm 561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt clay materials Answer: soil aggregates 562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi rounded with an average dimension between 75mm 305mm Answer: boulders 563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow straight. Answer: Pruning

564. The road near or abutting a bridge. Answer: Approach 565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done Answer: before the construction work 566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity Answer: sand and gravel 567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of Answer: 20 meters 568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade material for road construction is classified as Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method 569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity 570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of the embankment 571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement especially during the first seven days? Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks 572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete? Answer: Liquid membrane forming 573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen? Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date 574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure? Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength 575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high water content Answer: Weak Subgrade 576. What is Twelve Inch Layer Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to the full width of the embankment 577. What is Rock Embankment Method? Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade 578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment? Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted 579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement? Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered) 580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment? Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has reached stability or the required settlement 581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment? Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate consideration 582. Mixture of fine grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry) 583. What is the formula for percentage of wear? Answer: Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100 original wt. 584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass like reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky Answer: bleeding 585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather Answer: buckling 586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement

Answer: crushing 587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance Answer: Overhaul 588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio? Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water 589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204? Answer: 6 10 mass % of the dry soil 590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics? Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi 591. What is quality? Answer: It the degree of excellence 592. What is control? Answer: Is to regulate 593. What is quality control? Answer: It is conformance to requirements 594. What is assurance? Answer: it the degree of certainty 595. What are the two kinds of control activities? Answer: Inspection and Testing 596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level? Answer: 4 5 feet 597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay? Answer: Mechanic Stabilization 598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt 599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable? Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement? Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road mixing or priming 601. The theory of concrete design mix is to Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar 602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on Answer: cement type, cement content and water content 603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)? Answer: Type I 604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? Answer: Type II 605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement? Answer: Type III 606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement? Answer: Type IV 607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? Answer: Type V 608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement? Answer: Type 1S 609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement? Answer: Type 1P 610. Type I is for general use such as Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes 611. Type III cement is used for Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength 612. Type IV is used for Answer: massive structures such as dams 613. Type V cement is used for Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was Answer: Joseph Aspdin 615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica 616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker 617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called Answer: volcanic earth 618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of Answer: C3S and C2S 619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by Answer: C3A and C4AF 620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed Answer: hydration 621. Calcium Silicate Gel (CSH) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland cement Answer: water 622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means Answer: the setting time is larger 623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concretes Answer: alkalinity 624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel 625. The water required for concrete mix should be Answer: fresh water 626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains Answer: chloride 627. The entrapped air in concrete is Answer: accidental and unwanted

628. The entrained air in concrete is Answer: deliberate and desirable 629. We use aggregate in concrete as Answer: filler materials in concrete 630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence: Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy 631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete? Answer: a. calcium b. chloride c. coal d. sulphate 632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will only result to sacrifice in Answer: strength 633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc and no single core is less than _____ Answer: 85% of fc, 75% of fc 634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities Answer: Colormatic Test 635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if: Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag 636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates Answer: fineness modulus 637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates Answer: free water 638. What do you mean by SSD? Answer: Saturated Surface Dry 639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity Answer: consistency 640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is Answer: objectionable

641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as Answer: Water reducing admixture 642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments? Answer: five (5) 643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure Answer: bearing capacity 644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay Answer: 2 645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to Answer: 0.1g 646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a Answer: dessicator 647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass Answer: 4 hours 648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the oven within Answer: 1 hour 649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about Answer: 2 hours 650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above Answer: Boring Test 651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil Answer: calcium tri chloride 652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is Answer: low 653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement Answer: hot mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk Answer: 1.5 m 655. The limit of water cement ratio of concrete Answer: 0.50 0.60 656. A cement which has a cementitious effect Answer: Portland cement 657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under these loads is reduced Answer: Pre stressing 658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials? Answer: Phospho - molydate 659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10% Answer: phosphorous 660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement Answer: 0.60 m 661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it? Answer: 10 mm slump = 2 kg/m3 from (water) air entrapment = 3 kg/ m3 of average (water) 662. In non entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained? Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small bigger aggregates) 663. In air entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained? Answer: 8% - 3% (small bigger aggregates) 664. For a constant water cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved? Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced 665. What will happen if you lower the water cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients? Answer: it will acquire strength 666. What is the mixing time of concrete? Answer: 1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T 60 seconds

Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T 90 seconds 667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____ Answer: 1 hours 668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts? Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining 669. When will truck mixing start? Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added 15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32C temperature is present 670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why? Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete 671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation? Answer: pipes with of 4 or less