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------------------------------------------------------------------------------CCNA: Semester 2 Module 1

1 The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

debugging * password recovery * routing data between networks troubleshooting * connecting one router to another

2 ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. W hich items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the route r for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

straight-through cable terminal emulation software * rollover cable * RJ-45 to DB-9 connector * V.35 cable

3 Which ports on Cisco routers can be used for initial configuration? (Choose tw o.)

Ethernet console * auxiliary * serial AUI BRI

4 Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connecti ons on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

They are non-network connections. * They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network. They are synchronous serial ports. They are used for initial router configuration. * They are asynchronous serial ports. * They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

5 Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

hubs routers * communication servers * transceivers modems * multi-port repeaters

6 Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooti ng? (Choose two.)

can be accessed remotely does not depend on network services * displays startup and error messages by default * does not require special components

7 Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standar ds? (Choose two.)

physical layer * application layer transport layer data link layer * session layer

8 What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

ARP tables bridging tables routing tables * switching tables

9 A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following compo nents stores a copy of the router's configuration file?

metal-oxide memory read only memory flash memory non-volatile random access memory *

10 Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series r outer? (Choose two.)

holds the startup configuration by default can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules* stores Cisco IOS software images * stores routing table information by default maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted

11 During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable i s required for connecting a PC to the console port?

twisted crossover rollover * straight

12 Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

provide temporary memory for the router configuration files connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit * can be on the motherboard or a separate module * hold the IOS image connect the router to LANs and WANs *

13 Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

contains startup configuration file stores routing table * holds fast switching cache *

retains contents when power is removed stores running configuration file *

14 Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

volatile random access memory read only memory non-volatile random access memory * flash memory

15 Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 ser ies router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a route r to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN * a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch *

16 What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traf fic through its interfaces?

packet configuration configuration files * flash memory internal components

17 Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

CPU * hard drive input/output interfaces * keyboard monitor system bus *

18

Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a r outer. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are cor rectly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

bits per second data bits * parity * stop bits * flow control

19 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table retains contents when power is removed * stores the startup configuration file * contains the running configuration file stores the ARP table

20 Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connect ion on a router? (Choose three.)

troubleshooting problems * monitoring the system * capturing LAN data packets configuring the router * routing data packets

21 An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

switching * static addressing IETF standardization dynamic or static routing * consistent end-to-end addressing *

22 Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

connects peripherals in a single location connects multiple networks in a single building provides connectivity on a LAN provides connectivity over a large geographic area *

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 2

1 What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)

the last restart method * the tftp software version installed the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used the configuration register settings * the location used for loading the IOS *

2 What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?

2400 4800 9600 * 14200 38400

3 Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secr et are both configured on a router?

enable password

enable secret * Neither. They are both enabled. Neither. They cancel each other out.

4 The active IOS of the router is initialized from FLASH. In this scenario, what commands would be used to display the name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)

Router#show IOS Router#show flash * Router#show nvram Router#show version * Router#show startup-config Router#show running-config

5 Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?

Ctrl-A * Ctrl-B Esc-A Esc-B Ctrl-C Ctrl-Z

6 What is the maximum number of commands allowed in the history buffer?

10 20 128

255 256 *

7 Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)

recover from system failures * create startup configuration files recover from lost passwords * configure IP addresses on all router interfaces perform high level diagnostics

8 What is the default sequence for loading the IOS?

NVRAM, TFTP, FLASH NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE FLASH, ROM, TFTP FLASH, TFTP, ROM * TFTP, FLASH, ROM

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configur e a router?

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a straight through cable 3) the router's console port

1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a crossover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port 1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's console port 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port * 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's console port 1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port

10 When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which stat ements are true regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router displa y? (Choose two.)

Press the Spacebar to display the next line. Press the Spacebar to view the next screen. * Press the PgDn key to view the next screen. Press the Enter key to display the next line. * Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

11 Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?

use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router

* telnet to the router through a serial port use a vty port through the Ethernet interface use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

12 What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network adminis trator? (Choose three.)

the amount of NVRAM required to run the image the hardware platform the image runs on * the various software platforms the image can run on special features and capabilities of the image * the bandwidth supported by the IOS where the image executes from and if it has been compressed *

13 Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)

immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start after issuing the command Router#setup * during the initial configuration of a router * after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router * after deleting the running configuration

14 What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?

all show commands allowed in privileged mode all commands beginning with the letters sh * an incomplete command error message

an invalid command error message

15 Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What a re those two levels? (Choose two.)

global privileged * local user * interface

16 Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interf ace configuration mode?

Ctrl-P Ctrl-Shift-6, then X Ctrl-Z * Esc

17 Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration * load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

18 Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are corre ct? (Choose three.)

User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation. * Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operat ion. Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes. On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is C ore1#. * The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable. A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode. *

19 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following c onnection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

console AUX Telnet * modem

20 What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

NVRAM, FLASH, ROM FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE * FLASH, TFTP, ROM

21 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Recall up to 15 command lines by default. Set the command history buffer size. * Recall previously entered commands. * Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 3

1 Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three .)

reduces network complexity * increases unplanned downtime limits unplanned downtime * increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance limits events that may impact network performance *

2 A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of t

he problem?

an incorrect host table entry * an incorrect ARP table entry an incorrect routing table entry an incorrect protocol configured an incorrect subnet mask

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configu ration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0 Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown * Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224 * Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000 * Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

4 Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)

Router# show ram Router# show flash * Router# show hosts Router# show history Router# show version * Router# show startup-config *

5 Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate informatio n. (Choose two.)

circuit number host IP address * telnet password * number of hops between routers purpose and location of the interface

6 Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router . (Choose two.)

delete flash erase startup-config * erase running-config * restart reload delete NVRAM

7 Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table t hat is created by this association?

IP table SAP table ARP table MAC table HOST table * RARP table

8 Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a networ k TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Router# copy run tftp Router# copy tftp run Router# copy running-config tftp * Router# copy tftp running-config * Router(config)# copy running-config tftp Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

9 Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Cho ose two.)

They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenan ce. * They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users. * They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login. They should be seen only by system administrators. They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

10 What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?

permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1 renames the router as HQ defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1 configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1 *

11 What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)

DTE * DCE shutdown * no IP address * clock rate 56000 encapsulation ARPA

12 What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?

portsmouth# portsmouth(config)# * invalid input detected router(config-host)# hostname = portsmouth portsmouth# ? command not recognized router(config)#

13 A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration fil es. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Router(config)#enable cisco secret Router(config)#enable cisco Router(config)#service password-encryption *

Router(config)#enable secret cisco * Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco Router(config)#service encryption-password

14 Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?

Router(config-line)#config telnet Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5 Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4* Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# login

Router(config-line)# config telnet Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

15 An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on t his LAN? (Choose two.)

Enter the command no shutdown. * A password must be set on the interface. The interface DCE clock rate must be set. The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access. The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask. * The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured .

16 What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

up, line protocol down down, line protocol down * adminstratively down, line protocol down up, line protocol up

17 Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)

Router(privileged)# Router(config)# * Router(command)# Router(config-router)# * Router(config-if)# * Router(exec)#

18 Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.

1)Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN 2)Router# configure terminal* Router(config)# interface e0 Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN 3)Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface e0 Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN 4)Router# configure terminal Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

19 Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three .)

all network hosts network server * floppy disk * TFTP server * server that is not on the network

20 Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable Router(config-if)# no down Router(config-if)# s0 active Router(config-if)# interface up Router(config-if)# no shutdown *

21 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Se lect the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose thre e.)

VTY interface * console interface * Ethernet interface secret EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode * router configuration mode

22 What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that a re directly connected?

a clock rate on the DTE interface a no clock rate command on the DTE interface no configuration is required a clock rate on the DCE interface *

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 4

1 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected t o the administrator's console, what must happen?

The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router. The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote r outer. * The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire net work CDP advertisements. The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.

2 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command ? (Choose three.)

load platform * reliability holdtime* local interface *

3 What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?

Router(config-if)# cdp enable * Router(config-if)# cdp run

Router(config-if)# cdp start Router(config-if)# cdp config

4 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco route r. After issuing the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is not active. What might be the problem?

The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt. The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run. CDP has not been configured globally. * The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E. By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.* If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchan ge CDP information. Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output display of three asterisks (***) indicate?

The command was issued from the wrong prompt. Each datagram was successfully sent.

One of the routers is unreachable.* There are three hops between source and destination.

7 For which of the following network layer protocols does CDP provide informatio n? (Choose three.)

IP * RIP SNMP AppleTalk * IPX * IGRP

Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?

show cdp * show cdp neighbors show cdp neighbors detail show cdp detail show cdp traffic

9 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?

specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet resets the traffic counters back to zero specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates *

deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors

10 What is the main use of Telnet?

transfer of data between end users verification of simple connectivity routing of data packets remote connection to network devices *

11 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process use d by CDP to provide information about neighboring devices. What information is d isplayed by these TLVs? (Choose three.)

interface information of the connected device * all networks connected to the neighboring device name of the connected device * routing protocol used on the neighboring device holdtime for advertisements *

12 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)

It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.* Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network lay er address. It is the most complete testing mechanism available. * Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting. * Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between s ource and destination.

13

An administrator logged into Workstation 2 initiates a Telnet session to GAD. Th e administrator then telnets from GAD to BHM. What will happen if the Enter key is pressed at the privileged mode prompt after the session with BHM is suspended ?

The GAD session will be resumed. The BHM session will be resumed. * The GAD session will be terminated. The BHM session will be terminated.

14

Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS conn ection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote conn ection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?

Atlanta> connect Dallas Atlanta> 197.72.3.2 * Atlanta# 206.157.85.1 Atlanta# telnet Dallas

15 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a remote router. The Telnet session was left connected. If the defaul t Telnet configuration is used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?

The Telnet session entered a "sleep" state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.

The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on. The Telnet session suspended itself and will resume when the Enter key is presse d. The Telnet session terminated itself after 10 minutes of inactivity. * The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered a gain

16 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?

Ctrl-Shift-S Ctrl-Shift-6 Ctrl-Shift-6, then x * Ctrl-Alt-S Ctrl-Alt-6 Ctrl-Alt-6, then x

17 An administrator can successfully ping between the Lubbock and Memphis router s. The command Lubbock# telnet Memphis is entered but the Memphis router cannot be reached. What are possible reasons for this failure? (Choose two.)

The Lubbock router does not have any entries in its host table.* Lubbock is not an entry in the host table of the Memphis router. Access to a DNS server is not available. * The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Memphis router. The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Lubbock router.

18 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?

5 * 8 10

19 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?

Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the entire internetwork. Use ping to determine the status of RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors detai l command. Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command. * Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbor s command

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 5

The commands shown in the graphic were entered to alter the startup sequence of the router. On the next reload, which IOS will be loaded?

The router will load c2500-js-l.112-26d. The router will load c2500-d-l.120-9. The router will load the IOS from ROM. The router will boot into ROM monitor mode.*

2 Where does a router look for boot system statements?

ROM RAM NVRAM * Flash

3 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)

Enter configuration mode. Enter the IP address to the TFTP server. * Use the copy running-config tftp command. *

Use the copy tftp running-config command. Name the configuration file or accept the default name. *

4 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.

provides working storage stores a fully functional IOS image * stores the startup configuration file initializes the code used to boot the router

5 Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap information?

config-image config-system config-register * config-bootfield config system bootstrap

6 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot system command? (Choose two.)

TFTP server * HTTP server Telnet server Flash memory * NVRAM memory

7 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic operations? (Choose two.)

a tftp server a configuration file * a configuration register file an operating system file * a DNS table

8 The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)

The flash image is corrupt. * A console cable is disconnected. The flash image is located in NVRAM. The startup configuration file is incomplete. The router encountered a hardware error. *

9 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS. The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run. The software is version 12.1, 4th revision. * The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size. The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform. *

10 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?

the bootstrap the boot field * the IOS locator the system image loader

11 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

The startup sequence will reset. The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode. * The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired. The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration. The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

12 What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?

rommon1> config-register 0x2102 rommon1> boot flash:filename * rommon1> xmodem:filename rommon1> boot system flash:filename rommon1> reload system flash:

13 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 indicate on a router?

It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM. It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH. It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM. * It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.

14 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.

provides working storage stores a fully functional IOS image stores the startup configuration file * initializes the code that is used to boot the router

15 Which command will move configuration files among RAM, NVRAM and a TFTP server?

ping copy * move setup bootp backup

16 Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?

Router# copy tftp flash *

Router# copy flash tftp

Router(config)# copy tftp flash

Router(config)# copy flash tftp

17 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot the IOS?

RAMR ROM FLASH * EPROM ROMMON

18 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)

A series of "!'s" are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash. * The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to flash. After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified. * A series of "e's" are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash. *

Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.

19 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?

The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM. * The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing. The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM. The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 6

1 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.) Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks. * Switches forward destination address information to each router. Hosts communicate destination network information to each router. Other routers forward information about known networks. * Routes are entered manually by a network administrator. * Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables. 2 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.) The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database. Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are conne cted. * After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communic ate changes in a topology.* Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector pr

otocols. 3 What is the purpose of a routing protocol? It is used to build and maintain ARP tables. It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets. It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network. It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. * It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forw arding. 4 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172. 16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.) This command is used to set up a static route. * This command is used to set up a default route. This command is entered from global configuration mode. * All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1. * All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0. 5 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have c onverged? The The The The routers routers routers routers in in in in the the the the network network network network are are are are operating operating operating operating with with with with dynamic routing protocols. compatible versions of IOS. the same routing tables. consistent routing knowledge. *

6 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router. allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface * enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a pac ket 7 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur? Link state advertisements are sent from other routers. Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator. * Best path information is communicated by network hosts. The routing table is updated by neighboring routers. 8 Given the following commands: Router(config)# router rip Router(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 What can be concluded about the routing processes used on the router? (Choose th ree.) A link state routing protocol was used. A distance vector routing protocol was used. * Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds. * Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds. Hop count is the only metric used for route selection. * Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are used as metrics for route selection.

9 Refer to the network topology shown. Which of the following commands will config ure a route to the 172.31.3.0 network that the router will consider to be most r eliable? Montana(config)# Montana(config)# Utah(config)# ip Utah(config)# ip ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1 ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1 * route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1 route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1

10 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions? source IP address source MAC address destination IP address * destination MAC address 11 The routers shown in the graphic receive routing updates every 30 seconds by def ault. Select the commands that were configured on Router2 to achieve this update interval. (Choose two.) 1)Router2(config)# router rip * 2)Router2(config)# router igrp 200 3)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 201.100.11.0 210.93.105.0 4)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 255.255.255.0 Router2(config-router)# network 210.93.105.0 255.255.255.0 Router2(config-router)# network 201.100.11.0 255.255.255.0 5)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 * Router2(config-router)# network 201.100.11.0 Router2(config-router)# network 210.93.105.0

12 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. The administrator o f the network has decided that a more advanced routing protocol using a combinat ion of both distance vector and link state features will be implemented. Which p rotocol should the administrator select for the network? RIP IGRP BGP OSPF EIGRP * 13 Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the O rlando routing table? (Choose two.) The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link lo

ses power. * A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface. * A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power. The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned. A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 netw ork. A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails. 14 Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose thr ee.) Each router develops its own map of the entire network. * Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur. * Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization. * Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routin g protocols. Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence afte r changes have occurred than those using distance vector protocols. 15 Which protocol provides enough information in its addressing scheme to allow a packet to be forwarded from one host to another? (Choose two.) IP * IGRP EIGRP IPX * OSPF RIP 16 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological ma p of the entire internetwork? static Bellman-Ford exterior gateway Internetwork Packet Exchange distance vector link-state * 17 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.) data encryption error notification packet switching * address identification path determination * packet validation 18 Which protocol can be used to route traffic between two ISPs? RIP BGP * IGRP OSPF EIGRP

19 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interio r routing protocol? to to to to 20 Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 netwo rk to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.) Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1 Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1 * Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1 Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2 * Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1 21 Given the following commands: Router(config)# router igrp 300 Router(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 What can be concluded about the routing process on this router? (Choose three.) A distance vector routing protocol was used. * A link state routing protocol was used. Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds. Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds. * Hop count is the metric used for route selection. Bandwidth, load, delay and reliability are the metrics used for route selection. * 22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.) Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems. Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems. * An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations. An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN. * The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address. 23 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1 .1, what does the address 192.10.1.1 represent? the the the the source host next hop router * outbound interface destination network tell tell tell tell the the the the router router router router how to reach those networks which attached networks participate in routing updates * which set of metrics to use for the attached networks which routing protocol to use

24 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protoc ols? Routers will not Hosts are unable Routers may make * Routers will not nverged. allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged. to access their gateway until the network has converged. incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. allow configuration changes to be made until the network has co

25 Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.) RouterB(config)# RouterC(config)# RouterA(config)# RouterB(config)# RouterC(config)# RouterA(config)# ip ip ip ip ip ip route route route route route route 192.168.5.0 192.168.1.0 192.168.3.0 192.168.1.0 192.168.2.0 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 S1 S1 * 192.168.2.2 * 192.168.2.2 192.168.4.1 * 192.168.2.1

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 7

1 If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements are true? (Choose two.) Router Router Router Router E E E E will will will will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0. ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0. use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0. * not send routing updates via interface fa0/0. *

2 Which command set will stop the IGRP routing process? RouterB(config)# router igrp 101 RouterB(config-router)#shutdown RouterB(config)# router igrp 101 RouterB(config-router)#network no 192.168.2.0 RouterB(config)# no router igrp 101 * RouterB(config)# router no igrp 101 3 According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) The The The The The el. metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24. hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2. * total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16. logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1. * devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' lab

4 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not con verged? (Choose three.) routing loops * inconsistent traffic forwarding *

no traffic forwarding until system converges inconsistent routing table entries * routing table updates sent to wrong destinations 5 Which of the following routes within an autonomous system does not include sub net information? interior routes system routes * border routes exterior routes 6 The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's convergence time. How can this be accomplished? disable split horizon on the routers increase the update interval on the routers change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds * change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds 7 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.) periodically, periodically, periodically, if optionally 8 The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Rout er2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the netwo rk for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention me chanism is in effect? split horizon error condition hold-down timer route poisoning * count to infinity 9 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command: 192.168.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0 Based on this information, which routing protocol is enabled? IP RIP IGRP * IGP OSPF 10 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command: 192.168.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0 What is the administrative distance of the routing protocol enabled? every 30 seconds * every 60 seconds every 90 seconds configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update) *

30 80 100 * 135 80135 11 What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 ? (Choose two.) RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to Route rA. * During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports t hat includes the inaccessible network. During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops. Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from Rou terB. * RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to Route rC. 12 Which of the following is a correct IGRP configuration for the routers shown in the network diagram? RouterA(config)# router igrp RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 RouterB(config)# router igrp 101 RouterB(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 RouterA(config)# router igrp 45 * RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 RouterB(config)# router igrp 1 RouterB(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 RouterA(config)# router igrp 1 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 RouterB(config)# router igrp 45 RouterB(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0

13 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send ?

a partial routing table to each router in the LAN a partial routing table to each router in the WAN the entire routing table to each neighboring router * the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system 14 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing int erface is not available? The route is removed from the table.* The router polls neighbors for a replacement route. The route remains in the table because it was defined as static. The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device. 15 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector netw ork, which of the following occurs? The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented. * The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification. Path entries are checked for routing loops. The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented. Static routes are updated with the new information. 16 Refer to the graphic. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing pr otocol has been configured on the router? OSPF RIP IGRP * BGP Static 17 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.) The maximum metric value is 255 hops. The maximum metric value is 15 hops. * Routing updates occur every 30 seconds. * Routing updates occur every 90 seconds. It is a distance vector routing protocol. * It is a link state routing protocol. 18 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route ? when when when when the metric value of the route decreases the route is marked as inaccessible * the metric value for the route improves a regular update is received from a neighboring router

19 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router? debug ip rip * show ip route show ip interface show ip protocols debug ip rip config show ip rip database

20 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect rou ting information? Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time. Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source. * New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted. The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence. New route information is suppressed until the system has converged. 21 The command show ip protocols was just issued and the following line was disp layed in the output: Gateway 192.168.2.1 Distance 100 Last Update 00:00:54 When should the next routing table update be received assuming the configuration uses default values? 6 seconds 24 seconds 30 seconds 36 seconds * 90 seconds 22 A router has several classful networks in its routing table. If the router re ceives packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table and the ip classles s command is disabled but a default route is defined, what will happen to the pa ckets? The packets will be forwarded using the default route. The packets will be forwarded using a route for one of the major networks. A nonreachable message will be returned to the source. The packets will be discarded. * A default route will be developed by the router. 23 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routin g protocol? (Choose two.) A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destinat ion. * RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing. * RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though equal parallel paths exist. RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count. Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calcula ted. 24 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing informa tion travels through the network? (Choose two.) advertise supported applications identify new destinations * calculate packet speed verify network scalability identify invalid networks * 25 Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Ro uter B for all connected networks?

1)RouterB# router rip RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0 RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0 RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0 2)RouterB(config)# router rip RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0 3)RouterB(config)# configure router rip RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0 4)RouterB(config)# router rip RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0 5)RouterB(config)# router rip * RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0 26 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary rout e failed? configure configure configure configure ue * the the the the route route route route with a metric greater than the default value and the router will activate it as needed to activate by using the redistribute static command with an administrative distance greater than the default val

http://www.testanswers.info/content-18.html 1 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed? ICMP and ping RIP and TTL upper layer protocols * lower layer protocols Internet layer protocols network access layer protocols 2 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks? Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update ro uting tables. ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur. ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.* ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure occurred.

3 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destinatio n, what happens to the value in the TTL field?" It is increased by one. It is decreased by one. * It stays the same. It is reset to 0. Nothing. 4 If workstation 4 sends a message to workstation 2 and it is not delivered, which protocol will report this failure? Internet Protocol User Datagram Protocol Transmission Control Protocol Internet Control Message Protocol * 5 What does a router do if it is unable to deliver a packet to its destination? (Choose two.) The The The The The router router router router router sends the original packet back to the source. keeps the packet in its buffer until the next routing table update. sends an ICMP "Destination Unreachable" message back to the source. * sends out a broadcast message in search of the destination. discards the original packet. *

6 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.) ICMP ICMP ICMP ICMP ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack. is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack. * notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred. * is connection-oriented. messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

7 Which confirms the availability of a destination? (Choose two.) The source issues an echo reply after receiving an echo request from the destina tion. The destination returns an exact copy of the data sent by the source. * The source sends an echo request and receives an echo reply. * The source sends the data to the destination without receiving a reply. The destination sends an echo request and receives an echo reply. 8 Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/ 0 interface went down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure? Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it d id not receive the packet. Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that t he packet could not be delivered. * Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device. Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4. Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to c ontinue the transmission.

9 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication ove r an internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.) The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same. A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks. * Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have k nowledge of how to reach the destination network. * The source and destination host subnet masks must match. The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their res pective gateway devices.* 10 Which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delive ry failures occur? source devices only * destination devices only intermediary devices source and destination devices source, intermediary, and destination devices 11 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachab le message to be sent? A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic. A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network. * A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information. The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent. 12 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered ? ICMP echo request * ICMP echo reply UDP echo request UDP error message 13 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability? echo echo echo echo request issued by source * reply issued by source request issued by destination reply issued by destination

14 Which ICMP message is sent to a source host when the hop count to the destina tion is greater than the TTL value of a packet? echo reply timestamp reply destination unreachable time exceeded * source quench

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 9

1 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network i s not available? time exceeded redirect X destination unreachable source quench parameter problem echo reply 2 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.) Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt. X The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations. By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session . X The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router ope ration. The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently for troubleshooting. The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an int erface and error messages generated by nodes on the network. 3 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default rout es? (Choose two.) ip static-route X ip route ip network-route X ip default-network ip default-static 4 At which OSI layer does the routing of email packets from the source network to the destination network occur? application session transport X network 5 *** 797.jpeg *** When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receiv es the output shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors? (Choose three.) There could be Layer 3 addressing problems. X There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment. X The router hardware could be defective. There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.

X There could be a problem with the cabling. 6 *** 793.jpg *** Which two are true regarding the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.) Network 192.168.44.0 is 610 routers away from the source router. X A packet destined for host 192.168.80.24 will be forwarded out the Serial0 int erface. The subnet mask for the networks is 255.255.255.240. X The router is receiving IGRP updates through its serial interface. This router is using three different routing protocols. 7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the following conditions would never occur in the output of this command? serial1 is up, line protocol is up serial1 is up, line protocol is down serial1 is down, line protocol is down X serial1 is down, line protocol is up serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down 8 *** 1394.jpg *** After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following in formation is returned. Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2) 1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec 2 * * * 3 * * * What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given? Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A. X There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C. Router C is not running CDP. Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices. Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A. 9 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative dis tance of 0, what does this indicate to the router? The packet should be discarded. The destination is unreachable. X The destination is a directly connected network. The source of the update for that route is unreliable. 10 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that references the IP address of the next hop? 0 1 * 5 20 11 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocol command is executed? (C hoose three.) X sources of routing updates

X networks being advertised routing protocol up or down configured routed protocols Layer 2 status of the interface X update timer values 12 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the rou ting updates. Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are advertised in the update? Router# show interfaces Router# show controllers serial X Router# show ip protocols Router# show ip route Router# show running-config 13 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a La yer 2 problem? Serial1 is up, line protocol is up. Serial1 is up, line protocol is down. * Serial1 is down, line protocol is down. Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down. 14 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial 1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are poss ible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.) There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link. X A Layer 1 issue exists. X An interface problem exists. The clockrate was not set during configuration. X There is no usable media for the protocol. Keepalive messages are not being sent. 15 *** 954.jpg *** Refer to the network graphic. A packet needs to travel from Router F to Router A . Which path would be selected by the RIP routing protocol if the default metric s are used? F, G, E, D, B, A F, E, D, C, A X F, E, D, A F, E, D, B, A 16 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network host? ping telnet * tracert debug 17 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.) to list available routes for forwarding data * to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network to select the best path to a destination *

18 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.) X secure operation highly adaptable low maintenance configuration X low processor overhead X precise control of path selection 19 *** 796.jpeg *** After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an i ncreasing number of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this i ncrease? (Choose two.) There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface. There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider. * There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU. * There is noise on the serial line. 20 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks an d subnetworks? Router# show ip interfaces Router# show ip connections X Router# show ip route Router# show ip networks 21 *** 945.jpg *** Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing table of Router A? R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0 R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1 R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0 * R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1 R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1 R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0 R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial 22 *** 808.jpg *** The network administrator shown in the graphic can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from her workstation fails to open a session with the intranet.xyz.com server. Which of the following could cause this problem? (Choose two.) upper-layer application problems * domain name system problems * IP debugging problems IP routing problems ICMP connectivity problems 23 *** 952.jpg *** Refer to the network and routing table entries shown in the graphic. What will h appen when a packet destined for network 192.66.7.0 is received by Router A? It will be forwarded through interface S1.

It will be forwarded to the default route. It will be directed toward the Internet. X It will be discarded.

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 10

1 A computer programmer is developing software that requires a reliable stream of data. Which protocol can be used in the software design to eliminate the need fo r building error detection and recovery into the application program? X TCP IP ICMP UDP HTTP

2 Which of the following would an administrator do to defend against a denial of s ervice SYN flooding attack? (Choose two.) Hide the source of incoming IP addresses. X Decrease the connection timeout period. Synchronize all host communication. X Increase the connection queue size. Flood the network with false SYN requests.

3 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)? PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process. PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments b e retransmitted if one segment is corrupt. X PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent. PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

4 Which of the following describe types of port numbers that can be represented in the header of TCP and UDP segments? (Choose two.) connectionless X well-known operational X dynamic static

5 Why is TCP considered a connection-oriented protocol? It establishes a virtual connection between hosts using a two-way handshake. It uses IP to guarantee delivery of packets between hosts. X It requires hosts to go through a synchronization process prior to data transm ission. It creates a connection that depends on application layer protocols for error de tection.

6 What is the purpose of using port numbers in the transport layer? to identify the segment as being either TCP or UDP to provide reliability during data transport

to identify the interface port number used by the router when forwarding data X to track multiple conversations that occur between hosts

7 What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery of data segments? upper layer protocols lower layer protocols X sequence numbers port numbers

8 Which authority has control over the assignment of port numbers for applications ? IEEE X IANA InterNIC Software Developers Association

9 Which of the following describes how TCP adds reliability to communication? (Cho ose two.) X Hosts using TCP set up virtual circuits at the beginning of the transmission u sing the three-way handshake. Hosts using TCP set the error-checking frequency at the beginning of the transmi ssion and maintain this frequency for the duration. X The receiving host acknowledges that it has received the expected number of se gments and requests additional data. The receiving host acknowledges any incorrectly received data and requests retra nsmission of damaged or missing bytes.

10 Which address is dynamically assigned by the source host when forwarding data? destination IP address

destination port number default gateway address source IP address X source port number

11 Which of the following are functions of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) translation of data X synchronization path determination X flow control data representation X reliability

12 Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header? data X segment packet frame bit

13 What is the purpose of the three-way handshake that occurs between hosts using T CP as the transport layer protocol? to determine the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required to allow a host to forward data to a router X to establish a round trip connection between sender and receiver before data i s transferred

to provide a mechanism for data encryption and compression

14 At which point in the transmission process are segments numbered? when received when reassembling X before transmission while negotiating window size

15 ** 745.JPG **

What type of segment and data is shown in the graphic? a UDP segment carrying e-mail traffic a TCP segment carrying FTP traffic an IP segment carrying FTP traffic a UDP segment carrying web traffic X a TCP segment carrying web traffic an IP segment carrying e-mail traffic

16 When a host receives a data segment, what allows the host to determine which app lication should receive the segment? IP source address IP destination address PAR sliding window X port number SYN packet

17

Which statement is true regarding the TCP protocol? Flow control at the transport layer is provided by adding a sequence number to e ach segment. X A sliding window allows for communicating devices to negotiate the amount of u nacknowledged data that can be sent. A window size of 1 would require a receiving device to send ACK 1 after the Segm ent 1 has been received. TCP is used by sending hosts to segment large data files prior to transmission w hile IP is used by receiving host to reassemble the smaller segments.

18 What is used by both TCP and UDP when creating a segment? IP address MAC address IPX address X socket or port number acknowledgment number sequence number

19 What is used by UDP to determine if the data or header has been transferred with out corruption? lower layer protocols X checksum PAR sliding window acknowledgment and retransmission IP

20 How are originating source port numbers assigned during the data encapsulation p rocess? assigned manually by the user when starting the application

X assigned dynamically by the source host assigned by the routing protocol during the lookup process assigned by the destination host during session negotiation

21 Which of the following protocols uses UDP for transport layer services? SMTP HTTP X DNS FTP

22 Which of the following determines the amount of data that can be sent without an acknowledgment when sending a TCP segment? segment number priority number X window size value in the length field value in the port field acknowledgment number

23 During the encapsulation process, in which order are the IP address, MAC address , and port number assigned when the router is establishing communication with th e TFTP server? IP address, MAC address, port number MAC address, IP address, port number X port number, IP address, MAC address port number, MAC address, IP address

24

Which of the following describes a type of denial of service attack designed to exploit the normal function of the TCP three-way handshake? X A host sends a packet with a spoofed source IP address. A host sends a packet with an incorrect destination IP address. A source sends a packet containing a garbled header. A host sends an oversized packet that fills the memory buffers of the destinatio n host. A host sends a packet that contains a virus. A host sends a packet that contains a worm.

CCNA: Semester 2 Module 11

1 **1376.jpg**

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effec t will the ACL have on network traffic? All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied. All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0. X All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be deni ed. All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied. All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

2 **733.jpg**

Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.) Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0 Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any

X Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0 Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

X Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255 Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

3 The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

What can be concluded about this set of commands? The access list statements are misconfigured. All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied. X The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed. The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

4 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is tru e, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet? The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed. The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message. The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the p ackets to flow through uninhibited. X The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the p ackets to be dropped.

5 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL. Router# access-list 10 permit any Router# access-list 101 permit any X Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

6 **732.jpg**

Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic goi ng to the 192.168.2.0 network.

Router1# configure terminal Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0

Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0 Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in

Router2(config)# interface s1 Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

X Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0 Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0 Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

Router2# configure terminal Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

7 Which statements are true regarding the meaning of the access control list wildc ard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.) The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. X The last three bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched. X The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched. The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

8 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a matc h is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)

The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated. X The accept or reject action is performed. The packet is forwarded to the next hop. X The remaining ACL statements are not checked. The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

9 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two) Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99. Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement. X Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses. X Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL. Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the sam e direction.

10 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.) X to provide a basic level of security for network access to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets X to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port X to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the netwo rk

11 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three. ) packet size X protocol suite X source address X destination address

source router interface destination router interface

12 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks? The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function. The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask. X A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked. A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

13 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.) X An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement. X A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched. A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement. A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwar ded by default. X Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of t he ACL statement list. Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

14 **959.jpg**

An access list has been created that will deny the host 204.204.7.89 access to a n ftp server located at 196.6.13.254.

access-list 111 deny tcp 204.204.7.89 0.0.0.0 196.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 21 access-list 111 permit tcp any any

Which of the following groups of commands will place this ACL in the proper loca tion? Router2(config)# interface s0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in

Router2(config)# interface fa0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out

X Router2(config)# interface fa0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in

Router3(config)# interface fa0/0 Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in

Router3(config)# interface s0/1 Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out

Router3(config)# interface fa0/0 Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out

15 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.) X Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1 X Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0 Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0 Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 2 3 Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0 .255 eq 80

16 **1379.jpg**

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effec t will this ACL have on network traffic? X Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be pe rmitted all other access. All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied. All traffic from that interface will be denied. No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this AC L.

17 **1396.jpg**

Create an access list that will prevent only the host 192.5.5.148 from accessing a web site located at 210.93.105.50. access-list 10 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 host 210.93.105.50 eq 80 access-list 10 permit tcp any any

access-list 10 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 10 permit tcp any any

X access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 80 access-list 100 permit tcp any any

access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.255 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.255 eq 80 access-list 100 permit tcp any any

access-list 100 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 255.255.255.255 210.93.105.50 255.255. 255.255 eq 80 access-list 100 permit tcp any any

18

A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be con figured to filter packets on this router? 1 2 3 6 X 12

19 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct pro tocol?(Choose three.) 0 - standard IP X 99 - standard IP X 100 - extended IP 210 - extended IP 678 - extended IPX X 888 - standard IPX

1 What is accomplished by segmenting a LAN with a bridge? *increase large collision domains reduce large collision domains reduce small broadcast domains increase small broadcast domains

2 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a sta

ndard edition of the IOS? 4 *5 8 10

3 What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching? *no error checking a decrease in error checking decrease in number of collision domains decrease in bandwidth increased latency

4 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.) *Packets are put into frames. Data is packaged into a packet. Data is segmented into segments. Data is converted for Internet travel. *An address is added to identify the directly connected device.

5 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.) *twisted pair cable T style connectors *baseband transmission 10 gigabits per second data rate *10 megabits per second data rate decimal encoded data transmission

6 A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.) *Enter the command no shutdown. A password must be set on the interface. The interface DCE clock rate must be set. The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access. *The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask. The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured

7 Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choos e three.) Category 5 UTP * Category 5e UTP * Category 3 UTP * coaxial cable multi-mode fiber single mode fiber

8 If 4 bits are borrowed from the host field of a Class C address to create subnet s, what will the range of usable host addresses be in the last subnet? .224 to .239 .225 to .239 .225 to .254 .241 to .254 .241 to .255

*.240 to .255

9 Which of the following describe how a device on a LAN builds a table of MAC addr esses? (Choose two.) *by monitoring the traffic that occurs on the local network segment via FTP from the nearest router by sending a request to the nearest domain name server *by broadcasting an ARP request

10 Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Con trol method views the link? ring shared bus point-to-point * star extended star

11 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)? PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process. PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments b e retransmitted if one segment is corrupt. *PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received b y another host before additional data segments are sent. PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

12

Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.) decimal number in first octet between 127-191 decimal number in first octect between 128-192 *decimal number in first octect between 128-191 first bit of binary IP address is 0 *first two bits of binary IP address are 10 first three bits of IP binary address are 110

13 An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved an d the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the sc reen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no] :" Why did this dialog appear? There was a POST failure. The incorrect IOS loaded. There was an error in the startup configuration file. *The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.

14 What operations are performed during router initialization? (Choose three.) *The IOS is loaded into RAM. *The generic bootstrap loader tests all interfaces. All directly connected network devices are identified. *A valid configuration file is loaded from NVRAM if specified by the configurati on register. A question driven setup menu is presented if a valid configuration file cannot b e loaded.

15

For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the f ollowing will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (C hoose three.)

RJ-11 BNC connectors RJ-48 patch cables RJ-45 connectors * Category 5 UTP cables * hubs or switches *

16 A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with e ach subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriat e one? 255.255.0.0 255.255.240.0 255.255.255.0 *255.255.255.192 255.255.255.224

17 A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Route r> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.) *The ip host table on the router is not configured. The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt. The routing table is missing.

*Domain name services are not available.

18 Which of the following network components would be considered Layer 1 devices? ( Choose three.) *hub router bridge switch *repeater *transceiver

19 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal atte nuation affects the data delivery? *100 meters 185 meters 300 meters 500 meters

20 What is the result of executing the erase startup-config command? It deletes the active configuration file from RAM. *It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM. It deletes the saved configuration file from ROM. It deletes the saved configuration file from the C: drive.

21

Which of the following imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic? Bridge Repeater *Router Transceiver

22 Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination? netstat ping Telnet *traceroute

23 Which device is considered a multi-port bridge? hub router *switch gateway transceiver repeater

24 What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model? Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Department of the Navy (DoN) Department of Defense (DoD) * Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) Stanford University

25 Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown? CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E. *By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C. If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchan ge CDP information. Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

26 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route f ailed? configure the route with a metric greater than the default value configure the route and the router will activate it as needed configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command *configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default va lue

27 Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correc t answer from the list below. 156 158 160 *162 164 166

28 What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.) *A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.

Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retr ansmission of the damaged packet. The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each s tation may begin retransmitting. *The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data. *The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode. Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.

29 Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.) Ethernet *Token Ring *FDDI Frame Relay ISDN

30 What is the length of a MAC address? 8 bits 8 bytes 24 bits 24 bytes *48 bits 48 bytes

31 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.) address resolution *end-to-end communication *flow control

*reliability of data delivery path determination data representation

32 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes RAM. *provides working storage stores a fully functional IOS image stores the startup configuration file initializes the code used in router startup

33 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks an d subnetworks? Router# show ip interfaces Router# show ip connections *Router# show ip route Router# show ip networks

34 Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Cho ose three.) Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once. *Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates. *Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates. Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network. *Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers. Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.

35

Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network i s not available? time exceeded redirect *destination unreachable source quench parameter problem echo reply

36 How many total subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 to a Class B network? 4 6 *64 252 255 1024

37 Which of the following conditions will cause a router using holddown timers to i gnore an update? an update from a different router with a better metric an update from a different router with a poorer metric an update from the same router with a better metric *an update from the same router with a poorer metric

38 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops? type-of-service

identification flags *time-to-live header checksum

39 Which of the following is a network type that is widely used in dialup networkin g? shared media *point-to-point extended shared media point-to-multipoint

40 When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assig ned to devices? 1022 510 254 126 30 *6

41 Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at which OSI Layer? physical layer network layer *data link layer presentation layer

42 Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a rou ter? SNMP *TFTP UDP TCP

43 Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP model? FTP *UDP IP TFTP

44 Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex transmission? more collision domains fewer collision domains *no collision domains no increase in broadcast domains more broadcast domains

45 ?????? Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask i s 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.) *75.32.75.15 205.16.35.11 *199.254.129.111 *129.130.17.143

135.22.55.93 105.33.62.213

46 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routi ng table? dynamic interior *static standard

47 What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses? *ARP DNS DHCP RARP

48 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data comm unication services? session *transport network data link

49 Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.) permits network address duplication *allows for address flexibility

*prevents address replication provides broadcast containment *adds low-level security allows for more network hosts available

50 How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248? 3 5 *6 8 30 8190

51 After a Telnet session has been suspended, which actions will restart the sessio n? (Choose two.) *pressing Enter to restart the most recent session *using the resume command followed by a session ID typing the session ID followed by pressing Enter using the resume command followed by the IP address

52 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media? *Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5

Layer 6

53 Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet? *TCP SMTP UDP SNMP

54 ??????????????? Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a routing pro tocol to be implemented in an enterprise network? (Choose three.) *bandwidth consumption *router memory requirements router location spanning tree size *router processor capability flow control capability

55 A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.) The router will block the ping request message. The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response. Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B. Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A. *Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B. *Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.

56 Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configu ration file during the boot process? Boot mode Config mode *Setup mode Startup mode

57 Which protocol of the TCP/IP model internet layer provides connectionless, besteffort-delivery of datagrams? ARP ICMP *IP RARP TCP DNS

58 Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision? *destination IP address MAC address source IP address encapsulation address default gateway

59 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM. provides working storage stores a fully functional IOS image

*stores the startup configuration file initializes the code that is used to boot the router

60 Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols? A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maint ain tables for a routing protocol. *A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintai n tables for a routed protocol. Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly. There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

1. Internetworking functions of the network layer include network addressing and best path selection for traffic. What is best-path selection? The network layer uses the IP routing table to send packets from the source network to the destination network. After the router determines which path to use, it proceeds with forwarding the packet. It takes the packet that it accepted on one interface and forwards it to another interface or port that reflects the best path to the packets destination. 2. In network addressing, one part of the address is used to identify the path u sed by the router and the other is used for ports or devices on the network. Which part of the address is used to identify the path used by the router? The router uses the network portion of the address to make path selections to pass the packet to the next router along the path. 3. Routed protocols allow routers to direct user traffic, and routing protocols work between routers to maintain path tables. Explain this key difference. Routed protocolAny network protocol that provides enough

information in its network layer address to allow a packet to be forwarded from one host to another host based on the addressing scheme. Routed protocols define the field formats within a packet. Packets are generally conveyed from end system to end system. A routed protocol uses the routing table to forward packets. The Internet Protocol (IP) is an example of a routed protocol. Routing protocolSupport a routed protocol by providing mechanisms for sharing routing information. Routing protocol messages move between the routers. A routing protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers to update and maintain tables. TCP/IP examples of routing protocols include the following: Routing Information Protocol (RIP) ? ? ? ? Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) 4. Network discovery for distance-vector routing involves exchange of routing tables; problems can include slow convergence. What other problems can occur as a result of exchanging routing tables? Routing loops can occur if a networks slow convergence on a new configuration causes inconsistent routing entries. 5. For link-state routing, routers calculate the shortest paths to other routers ; problems can include inconsistent updates. What other problems might occur with link-state routing? Two link-state concerns exist: processing and memory requirements, and bandwidth requirements 6. Balanced hybrid routing uses attributes of both link-state and distance-vecto

r routing, and can apply paths to several protocols. What advantages does balance hybrid routing offer? Balanced hybrid routing protocols use distance vectors with more accurate metrics to determine the best paths to destination networks. However, they differ from most distance-vector protocols by using topology changes to trigger routing database updates. The balanced hybrid routing protocol converges rapidly, like the link-state protocolsVocabula ry Exercise Define the following terms as completely as you can. Refer to the online curriculum or Chapter 15 from the Cisco Networking Academy Program CCNA 1 and 2 Companion Guide, Third Edition, for help. Default routeRouting table entry that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is not explicitly listed in the routing table. DelayThe time between the initiation of a transaction by a sender and the first response received by the sender. Also the time required to move a packet from source to destination over a given path. Dynamic routingRouting that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic changes. Also called adaptive routing. Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) Advanced version of IGRP developed by Cisco. Provides superior convergence properties and operating efficiency, and combines the advantages of link-state protocols with those of distance-vector protocols. HeaderControl information placed before data when encapsulating that data for network transmission. Hop countRouting metric used to measure the distance between a source and a destination. RIP uses hop count as its sole metric. HopTerm describing the passage of a data packet between two network nodes (for example, between two routers). IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) IGRP was developed by Cisco to address the problems associated with routing in large, heterogeneous networks. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) Link-state, hierarchical IGP routing

algorithm proposed as a successor to RIP in the Internet community. OSPF features include least-cost routing, multipath routing, and load balancing. OSPF was derived from an early version of the ISIS protocol. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) IGP supplied with UNIX BSD systems. The most common IGP in the Internet. RIP uses hop count as a routing metric. Routing metricMethod by which a routing algorithm determines that one route is better than another. This information is stored in routing tables. Metrics in clude bandwidth, communication cost, delay, hop count, load, MTU, path cost, and reliability. Sometimes referred to simply as a metric. Routing protocolProtocol that accomplishes routing through the implementation of a specific routing algorithm. Examples of routing protocols include IGRP, OSPF, and RIP. Static routeRoute that is explicitly configured and entered into the routing table. Static routes take precedence over routes chosen by dynamic routing protocols. Copyright 2003, Cisco Systems, Inc. Stub networkNetwork that has only a single connection to a router. Focus Questions 1. What does a router do? What improvements do network addresses offer over physical addresses? Routers are internetworking devices that operate at OSI Layer 3 (the network layer). They tie together, or interconnect, network segments or entire networks, as shown in Figure 10-3. They pass data packets between networks based on Layer 3 information. Network addresses have logical or hierarchical addresses, which allows for the grouping of end stations into such things as departments, floors, or buildings. 2. Distinguish between routed protocols and routing protocols. Routed protocols are used between router to direct user traffic. Any network protocol that provides enough information in its network layer

address to be forwarded from host to host based on the addressing scheme is a routed protocol. The most relevant example for this discussion is IP. Routing protocols are used only between routers to maintain routing tables. Examples are RIP and IGRP. Routing protocols support routed protocols by providing a mechanism for sharing routing information messages among routers. 3. How does multiprotocol routing enable the Internet to exist? There are many different host systems all over the world, with many different routed protocols. Multiprotocol routingby which a router can pass traffic from Novell, Apple, DEC, IP and many other networks allows these diverse hosts to communicate. 4. List and briefly describe at least five examples of routing metrics. The metrics most commonly used by routers include the following: BandwidthThe data capacity of a link DelayLength of time required to move a packet from source to destination LoadAmount of activity on a network resource such as a router or a link ReliabilityUsually refers to the error rate of each network link Hop countNumber of passages of a packet through the output port of one router TicksDelay on a data link using IBM PC clock ticks CostArbitrary value, usually based on bandwidth or other measurements, that is assigned by the network administrator 5. Briefly describe distance-vector routing. Distance vector-based routing algorithms pass periodic copies of a routing table from router to routers; each router receives a routing table from its direct neighbors. CCNA Exam Review Questions The following questions help you review for the CCNA exam. Answers appear in

Appendix B, "CCNA Exam Review Questions Answer Key." 1. What function allows routers to evaluate available routes to a destination an d to establish the preferred handling of a packet? A. Data linkage B. Path determination C. SDLC interface protocol D. Frame Relay 2. What information do routing services use to evaluate network paths? A. MAC addresses B. Name server tables C. Network topology D. ARP requests 3. Where can routing services obtain the network topology information that is needed to evaluate network paths? A. From RARP and ARP tables B. From network name servers C. From bridges talking to routers during messaging sessions D.

From information that dynamic processes collect 4. What two functions does a router use to relay packets from one data link to another? A. Link-state testing and convergence B. Convergence and switching C. Path determination and link-state testing D. Path determination and switching 5. How does the network layer send packets from the source to the destination? A. It uses an IP routing table. B. It uses ARP responses. C. It refers to a name server. D. It refers to the bridge. 6. What happens at the router during a switching operation? A. The router changes from link-state to distance-vector mode. B. A packet that is accepted on one interface is forwarded to another interface or port that reflects the best path to the destination. C. A test message is sent over the proposed route to make sure it is operational.

D. The received packet has the header stripped, read, and a new header attached listing the next stop on the route. 7. Why is it important to prevent unnecessary broadcasts over the entire internetwork? A. Broadcasts incur processing overhead and waste network capacity. B. Broadcasts cannot be sent as multiphase transmissions, so routers must change modes to deal with them. C. Broadcasts are common causes of collisions and should be avoided whenever possible. D. Broadcasts can quickly relay bad routing tables throughout an internetwork. 8. How does the network layer avoid unnecessary broadcast messages? A. By using error-trapping algorithms B. By using consistent end-to-end addressing C. By using name servers to do lookup functions D. By using link-state detection 9. What problem for the network layer does using consistent end-to-end addressing solve? A. It reduces the chance of infinite loops.

B. It avoids split horizons. C. It avoids unnecessary broadcast messages. D. It reduces count to infinity problems. 10. What two parts of an address do routers use to forward traffic through a network? A. Network address and host address B. Network address and MAC address C. Host address and MAC address D. MAC address and subnet mask 11. Which network device uses the network address to define a path? A. Bridge B. Router C. Hub D. Server 12. How does a router make path selections? A. By looking at the network portion of the address B. By looking at the host portion of the address

C. By looking at mean distances between routers D. By looking at the port or device on the network 13. What does the host address specify? A. Type of device B. Distance to the nearest network hub C. Specific port or device on the network D. Network the device is on 14. How does the host portion of an address help a router in its path determinat ion function? A. It defines a path through the network. B. It contains distance information that can be used to calculate the shortest route. C. It refers to a specific port on the router that leads to an adjacent router in that direction. D. It tells the router the type of device and its distance from the router. 15. What does the switching function of a router do? A. It allows greater throughput and capacity by multitasking. B.

It allows the router to accept a packet on one interface and forward it on another interface. C. It exchanges the old header of a data packet for a new header that includes path information for the next router. D. It changes the router from receive and send mode to broadcast mode when part of the network fails. 16. Which of the following best describes a routed protocol? A. It provides enough information to allow a packet to be forwarded from host to host. B. It provides information that is necessary to pass data packets up to the next highest network layer. C. It allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update address tables. D. It allows routers to bind MAC and IP addresses together. 17. Which of the following is an example of a routed protocol? A. RIP B. IP C. IGRP D. OSPF 18. Which of the following best describes a routed protocol?

A. It passes data packets to the next highest network layer. B. It binds MAC and IP addresses together. C. It defines the format and use of fields within a packet. D. It exchanges routing tables and shares routing information between routers. 19. Which of the following best describes a routing protocol? A. It provides information to allow a packet to be forwarded from host to host. B. It binds MAC and IP addresses together. C. It defines the format and use of fields within a data packet. D. It allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update address tables. 20. Which of the following best describes the difference between routed versus routing protocols? A. Routed protocols are used between routers to maintain tables, whereas routing protocols are used between routers to direct traffic. B. Routed protocols use distance-vector algorithms, whereas routing protocols use link-state algorithms. C.

Routed protocols are used between routers to direct traffic, whereas routing protocols are used between routers to maintain tables. D. Routed protocols use dynamic addressing, whereas routing protocols use static addressing. 21. What happens when a data-link frame is received on a router interface? A. The packet header is removed and a new one with additional routing information is attached. B. A frame header is sent to check the path integrity prior to sending the packet on toward its destination. C. The packet is sent to the nearest bridge, which forwards it to the next router or the final destination. D. The header is examined to determine the destination network and consults the routing table to see which outgoing interface is associated with that network. 22. What happens after a router has matched the destination network with an outgoing interface? A. The packet is sent to the nearest bridge that forwards it to the next router or the final destination. B. A frame header is sent to check the path integrity prior to sending the packet on toward its destination. C. The packet is queued for delivery to the next hop in the path.

D. The packet header is removed and a new one with additional routing information is attached. 23. Which of the following best describes a data-link frame header? A. It controls information placed in front of data when it is readied for network transmission. B. It broadcasts a message sent over the network to warn routers of network failures in specific links. C. It is a diagnostic message used to check network links for problems. D. Packets are sent by routers to other routers to update routing tables. 24. What is the control information called that is placed in front of data in a data packet? A. Addressing B. Header C. Trailer D. Encapsulate 25. Which of the following best describes a hop? A. Passage of a data packet between two routers B.

Device that connects two or more networks C. Shortest distance between source and destination D. Exchange and copying of ARP tables between two noncontiguous network devices 26. What is the passage of a data packet between two routers called? A. Exchange B. Hop C. Transmittal D. Signaling 27. Which of the following best describes multiprotocol routing? A. Capability to send packets simultaneously out different ports B. Capability to shift from static to dynamic routing as network loads change C. Capability to maintain routing tables for several routed protocols concurrently D. Capability to rewrite frame headers to formats that are compatible with different networks 28. What does multiprotocol routing allow routers to do? A. Rewrite frame headers to formats that are compatible with

different networks B. Shift from static to dynamic routing as network loads change C. Send packets simultaneously out different ports D. Deliver packets from several routed protocols over the same data links 29. Which of the following best describes static routing? A. A route that the network administrator manually enters into a routing table B. A route that is received from the local name server C. A route that is automatically entered into a routing table D .An optimum route between devices as determined by the RARP table 30. Which of the following best describes dynamic routing? A. Automatic updating of routing tables whenever new information is received from the internetwork B. Manual entry of data into a routing table by the network administrator C. Following preset paths from device to device D. RARP server determining optimum route between devices and

copying those routes into a routing table 31. What type of routing occurs without the intervention of a network administrator? A. Default B. Dynamic C. Progressive D. Static 32. What is one advantage of static routing? A. It is more secure because parts of an internetwork can be hidden. B. It requires little active management by the network administrator. C. It adjusts automatically to topology or traffic changes. D. It can compensate for router failures by using alternate paths. 33. What is one advantage of using static routing on a stub network? A. It compensates for route failures by using alternative paths. B. It requires little active management by the network administrator. C. It adjusts automatically to topology or traffic changes. D. It avoids the network overhead required by dynamic routing.

34. What are the two major classes of routing algorithms? A. Checksum and link state B. Checksum and traffic load C. Distance vector and traffic load A. It determines the direction and distance to any link in the internetwork. B. Each router maintains a complex database of internetwork topology information. C. Computationally, it is rather complex. D. Its method of routing prevents loops and minimizes counting to infinity. 36. What do distance vector algorithms require of routers? A. Default routes for major internetwork nodes in case of corrupted routing tables B. Sending its entire routing table in each update to its neighbors C. Fast response times and ample memory D. Maintaining a complex database of internetwork topology information 37. Why is it important in distance vector algorithms for routers to send copies of

their routing table to neighboring routers? A. To prevent error propagation B. To stop routing loops C. To enable split horizon mapping D. To communicate topology changes quickly 38. What is a major drawback of distance vector algorithms? A. More network traffic B. Computationally difficult C. Prone to routing loops D. Cannot implement hold-down timers 39. What is one disadvantage of distance vector algorithms? A. Routers do not know the exact topology of an internetwork, only distances between points. B. They have more network traffic. C. Computationally, they are difficult. D. They cannot implement hold-down timers. 40. What is one advantage of distance vector algorithms? A.

They are not likely to count to infinity. B. They implement easily on large networks. C. They are not prone to routing loops. D. They are simpler computationally. 41. Which of the following best describes link-state algorithms? A. They recreate the exact topology of the entire internetwork. B. They require minimal computations. C. They determine distance and direction to any link on the internetwork. D. They use little network overhead and reduce overall traffic. 42. Which of the following best describes link-state algorithms? A. They use little network overhead and reduce overall traffic. B. Each router broadcasts information about the network to all nodes on the network. C. They determine distance and direction to any link on the internetwork. D. They use little network overhead and increase overall traffic. 43. Which of the following is true about link-state routing algorithms? A.

They require less network traffic than distance-vector algorithms. B. Computationally, they are rather simple. C. They require less router memory and slower response times. D. They maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect. 44. Which of the following best describes convergence? A. When messages simultaneously reach a router and a collision occurs B. When several routers simultaneously route packets along the same path C. When all routers in an internetwork have the same knowledge of the structure and topology of the internetwork D. When several messages are being sent to the same destination 45. Which of the following terms describes an internetwork state in which all routers have the same knowledge of the structure and topology of the internetwork? A. Congruence B. Equivalence C. Correspondence D.

Convergence 46. Why is fast convergence a desirable attribute of a routing protocol? A. It reduces the time period over which routers make incorrect routing decisions. B. It reduces network traffic. C. It reduces routing loop time. D. It reduces memory requirements of local routers. 47. After a network topology change, which of the following routing protocol characteristics reduces incorrect or wasteful routing decisions? A. Symmetry B. Convergence C. Equivalence D. Correspondence 48. What is a routing loop? A. A route to often-requested destinations B. A network path that is circular and has no branches C. A packet that cycles repeatedly through a constant series of network nodes D.

A process that routers go through when performing self diagnostics 49. What is the process called in which packets never reach their destination bu t instead cycle repeatedly through the same series of network nodes? A. Split horizon B. End-to-end messaging C. Convergence D. Routing loop 50. Why do routing loops occur? A. There is slow convergence after a modification to the internetwork. B. Split horizons are artificially created. C. Network segments fail catastrophically and take other network segments down in a cascade effect. D. The network administrator never established or initiated default routes. 51. Why do routing loops occur? A. Split horizons are artificially created. B. A network device fails, and that information is slowly passed to all the routers in the internetwork.

C. The network administrator never established or initiated default routes. D. Network segments fail catastrophically and take other network segments down in a cascade effect. 52. Why does the problem of counting to infinity occur? A. Split horizon B. Noncongruence C. Slow convergence D. Router inequivalence 53. Which of the following best describes the count to infinity problem? A. Routers continuously increment the hop count as a routing loop proceeds. B. Packets cycle repeatedly through a constant series of network nodes. C. During heavy traffic periods, freak collisions can occur and damage the packet headers. D. After a split horizon occurs, two sets of metrics exist for the same destination, and neither matches that in the routing table. 54. How can the count to infinity problem be prevented? A.

By forcing a routing loop B. By invoking a split horizon process C. By tracking network traffic levels and regulating flow D. By imposing an arbitrary hop-count limit 55. How can the count to infinity problem be solved? A. By initiating a routing loop B. By defining infinity as some maximum number C. By switching from distance-vector to link-state mode D. By forcing a router convergence and reconciliation 56. What happens when the hop count exceeds the maximum in a routing loop? A. The loop ends and the data packet is returned to the source for retransmission later. B. The default route is recalled and used. C. The network is considered unreachable, and the loop ends. D. A count to infinity is initiated, and a split horizon is invoked. 57. How can the count to infinity problem be prevented? A. By using routing loops B.

By using split horizon routing systems C. By increasing router memory D. By using hold-down timers 58. Which of the following best describes hold-down timers? A. Timer that synchronizes the router table update process B. Time during which messages are held if network segment is temporarily unavailable C. Time that is allowed before intervention to halt routing loop D. Time during which routers will neither send nor receive updated routing tables 59. Why are hold-down timers useful? A. They flush bad information about a route from all routers in the network. B. They force all routers in a segment to synchronize switching operations. C. They reduce the amount of network traffic during high traffic periods. D. They provide a mechanism for bypassing failed sections of the network. 60. When are routers placed in a hold-down state?

A. When a routing loop occurs B. When a link in a route fails C. When a routing table becomes corrupted D. When convergence occurs too slowly 61. How does a hold-down timer work? A. By holding messages in routing loops for a given time period, the hold-down timer reduces network traffic at peak times. B. When the hop count exceeds a fixed value, the hold-down timer holds the message until a split horizon is established. C. When a router receives an update indicating that a network is inaccessible, the router marks the route and starts a hold-down timer. D. When a count is started, a hold-down timer is started, too; if the count continues after a given time period, the timer halts the process and returns control to the nearest router. 62. What are the major two link-state concerns? A. Split horizons and convergence B. Processing and memory requirements C. Routing loops and equivalence D.

Table copying and counting to infinity 63. Which of the following best describes link-state advertisement (LSA)? A. Broadcast message that occurs in response to a convergence call B. Broadcast message that relays state of data links (up or down) to all routers C. Broadcast packet that contains information about neighbors and path costs D. Broadcast packet that is initiated by an active routing loop 64. What are LSAs used for? A. To halt routing loops B. To determine path metrics C. To broadcast convergence calls D. To maintain routing tables of receiving routers 65. What is the most complex and important aspect of link-state routing? A. Making sure all routers get all the necessary LSA packets B. Ensuring that convergence occurs rapidly C. Avoiding routing loops during initial startup D. Providing mechanisms for split horizons and count to infinity

avoidance 66. What happens if routers have different sets of LSAs? A. A checksum procedure is initiated and faulty routing tables are repaired. B. Routes become unreachable because routers disagree about a link. C. A master comparison is forced, and subsequent convergence on a single routing table occurs. D. A broadcast message is sent with the master copy of the routing table to all routers. 67. What is one problem with link-state updating? A. It is easy to start a routing loop and subsequent count to infinity. B. Routers can become unreachable because they do not have a complete picture of the internetwork. C. In synchronizing large networks, it is difficult to tell which updates are correct. D. If the master routing table is corrupted, the entire network will go down. 68. What is one problem with link-state updating? A. Routers can become unreachable because they don't have a complete picture of the internetwork.

B. It is easy to start a routing loop and subsequent count to infinity. C. If the master routing table is corrupted, the entire network will go down. D. The order of router startup alters the topology that was learned. 69. Which of the following is correct? A. Distance-vector routing gets all topological data from the routing tables of its neighbors, whereas link-state routing develops a map of the network by accumulating LSAs. B. Distance-vector routing develops a map of the network, whereas link-state routing gets topological data from the routing tables of its neighbors. C. Distance-vector routing requires a lot of bandwidth and network overhead, whereas link-state routing requires considerably less. D. Distance-vector routing has a quick convergence time, whereas link-state routing has a slow convergence time and is prone to routing loops. 70. Which of the following is correct? A. Distance-vector routing requires a lot of bandwidth and network overhead, whereas link-state routing requires considerably less. B. Distance-vector routing determines the best path by adding to

the metric value it receives, whereas link-state routing has the routers calculating their own shortest path to destinations. C. Distance-vector routing has quick convergence time, whereas linkstate routing has a slow convergence time and is prone to routing loops. D. Distance-vector routing has the routers calculate their own shortest path to destinations, whereas link-state routing determines the best path by adding to the metric value it receives from its neighbors. 71. Which of the following is correct? A. Distance-vector routing has a quick convergence time, whereas link-state routing has a slow convergence time and is prone to routing loops. B. Distance-vector routing requires a lot of bandwidth and network overhead, whereas link-state routing requires considerably less. C. Distance-vector routing updates for topology change with periodic table updates, whereas link-state routing updates are triggered by topology changes. D. Distance-vector routing updates are triggered by topology changes, whereas link-state routing updates for topology change with periodic scheduled table updates. 72. Which of the following best describes hybrid routing? A. It uses distance vectors to determine best paths, but topology changes trigger routing table updates.

B. It uses distance-vector routing to determine best paths between topology during high-traffic periods. C. It uses topology to determine best paths but does frequent routing table updates. D. It uses topology to determine best paths but uses distance vectors to circumvent inactive network links.