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the question mark in the following equations?

8 2 1

1. + = ?

12 5 3

3 2 3 3

1) 2) 3) 4)

7 5 8 5

5) None of these

2. 4500 18 122 = ? 4

1) 32 2) 26 3) 28 4) 34

5) None of these

3.

3

32768 = ?

1) 38 2) 34 3) 36 4) 32

5) None of these

4. 19

2

+ 28

2

16

2

= ?

1) 889 2) 888 3) 883 4) 885

5) None of these

5. 63 14 + 334 = ? + (12)

2

1) 1078 2) 1072 3) 1077 4) 7074

5) None of these

6. [(452 4) + 62] / 5 = ?

1) 48 2) 37 3) 45 4) 35

5) None of these

7. (14 24) + (27 12) = ?

1) 650 2) 665 3) 660 4) 655

5) None of these

8. (4.7 12 8) + (6.8 16 10) + ?

1) 1533.9 2) 1539.2 3) 1532.9

4) 1536.9 5) None of these

2 1 3

9. of of of 48685 = ?

5 3 5

1) 3287.5 2) 3415.6 3) 3894.8

4) 2967.4 5) None of these

10. 421 38 3543 = ?

1) 15112 2) 10624 3) 12455

4) 13185 5) None of these

11. ? 48 12 = 171

1) 684 2) 566 3) 698 4) 596

5) None of these

12. 13

11.2

13

3.6

= ?

1) 13

12.3

2) 13

7.6

3) 13

14.8

4) 13

10.3

5) None of these

13. 11.11 + 111.1 + 1111.11 = ?

1) 1323.23 2) 1233.32

3) 1322.33 4) 1232.22

5) None of these

14. 5 ? = 9884 16

1) 123.55 2) 91.25 3) 103.18 4) 115.65

5) None of these

15. 26.5% of 488 = ?

1) 205.65 2) 211.72 3) 145.67 4) 129.32

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following graph

carefully which shows percentage of marks

obtained by students in 6 subjects and answer the

questions given below:

16. What is the average marks obtained by

Student F in Hindi, English and Science sub-

jects together?

1) 78 2) 82.4 3) 78.8 4) 84

5) None of these

17. What are the average marks obtained by all

the students in Science?

1) 87 2) 86.5 3) 90 4) 87.5 5) None

18. What is the ratio of the marks scored by E in

Science and that in Hindi?

1) 35:83 2) 61:75 3) 83:85 4) 75:61

5) None of these

19. If a minimum of 101 marks in Science subject

is required for opting science stream in the

next academic year, how many students will

not able to opt science stream due to insuffi-

cient marks in Science subject?

1) None 2) Two 3) Four

4) Five 5) Three

20. What is the total marks obtained by D in Hindi,

E in Social Studies and C in Mathematics put

together?

1) 258 2) 244 3) 235

4) 210 5) None of these

21. The sum of five consecutive even numbers is

400. What is the half of the sum of the smallest

number and the largest number of the set?

1) 80 2) 81 3) 79

4) 82 5) None of these

22. The ratio of Prashanth's and Chalapathi's pre-

sent ages is 5:6. Three years hence the ratio of

their ages will be 6:7 respectively. What was

Chalapathi's age eight years ago?

1) 7 Years 2) 10 Years

3) 26 Years 4) 18 Years

5) None of these

23. In how many different ways can the letters of

the word QUOTED be arranged?

1) 720 2) 360 3) 1440

4) 320 5) None of these

24. Anusha scored 33 marks in English, 37 marks

in Science, 28 marks in Maths, 26 marks in

Hindi and 32 marks in Social Studies. The

maximum marks a student can score in each

subject is 60. How much % did Anusha get in

the exam?

1) 52 2) 54 3) 48

4) 53 5) None of these

25. 37% of a number is 114.7. What is 130% of

that number?

1) 406 2) 405 3) 403

4) 407 5) None of these

26. What will be the average of the following set of

scores?

69, 89, 34, 76, 54, 68, 28, 46

1) 53 2) 55 3) 57

4) 56 5) None of these

27. What will be the resultant if the square of 109

is subtracted from the square of 210?

1) 32220 2) 32209 3) 32291

4) 32217 5) None of these

28. What will be the compound interest accrued on

a principal amount of Rs. 32,500 at the rate of

5 p.c.p.a. after a period of 2 years?

1) Rs.3332.78 2) Rs.3335.35

3) Rs.3333.27 4) Rs.3331.25

5) None of these

29. The average of five numbers is 50.8. The aver-

age of the first and the second number is 29.

The average of the fourth and the fifth number

is 66.5. What is the third

number?

1) 65 2) 73 3) 61

4) 77 5) None of these

30. A train covers 430 km in 5

hours. The speed of a bike

is half the speed of the train.

How much time will the bike

take to cover a distance of

301 km?

1) 6 hours 2) 7 hours

3) 8 hours 4) 9 hours

5) None of these

31. If the following fractions are arranged in

ascending order (from left to right), which of

them will be second from the right end?

2 4 12 7 5

, ,

,

,

9 7 17 13 11

4 12 2 5

1) 2) 3) 4)

7 17 9 11

5) None of these

32. Last year the total number of students in a

school was 4500. 48% of the total students

were females. This

year 60 males left

the school. What is

the present ratio of

the number of

males to the number of females in the school?

1) 19:17 2) 18:17 3) 23:18 4) 23:17

5) None of these

33. What is the least number that can be added to

2020 to make it a perfect square?

1) 4 2) 6 3) 5 4) 3 5) None

Directions (Q. 34-35): What approximate value

should come in place of question mark in the

following questions?

2

34. 62627 = ?

1) 280 2) 220 3) 250 4) 330 5) 190

35. 44.979 20.011 9.968 = ?

1) 30 2) 60 3) 150 4) 180 5) 90

Directions (Q. 36-40): What should come in place

of the question mark in the following number

series?

36. 600 564 539 523 514 ?

1) 500 2) 520 3) 510 4) 540 5) 515

37. 550000 110000 2200 440 88 ?

1) 16.4 2) 18.3 3) 17.6 4) 14.5

5) None of these

38. 2 12 60 240 720 ?

1) 1445 2) 1440 3) 1420 4) 1444

5) None of these

39. 80 48 64 56 60 ?

1) 57 2) 68 3) 54 4) 62 5) 58

40. 32 38 50 68 92 ?

1) 118 2) 128 3) 124 4) 122 5) 116

REASONING REASONING

41. 'Players' are related to 'Team' in the same way

'Books' is related to ?

1) Exams 2) Library 3) Reading

4) Writer 5) Chapter

42. Jwala Gutta, winner of Arujuna award, for bad-

minton, started from Point P and walked 2 m

towards west. She then took a right turn and

walked 3 m before taking a left turn and walk-

ing 5 m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3 m

and stopped a Point Q. How far is Point Q from

Point P?

1) 2 m 2) 6 m 3) 7 m 4) 8 m 5) 12 m

43. In a certain code 'where have you been' is writ-

ten as 'been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1' and 'vis-

iting London this summer' is written as 'London

4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1'. How will 'repair

may computer yesterday' be written ?

1) Computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1

2) Yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 1

3) Computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4

4) Yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 1

5) Computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1

44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the English alphabetical series

and so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to the group?

1) MLJ 2) WVT 3) OMK 4) JIG 5) TSQ

45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to the group?

1) Diameter 2) Circumference

3) Centre 4) Circle 5) Radius

Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following informa-

tion carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a cir-

cular table facing the centre but not necessarily in

the same order.

G sits third to the right of F. G sits second to the

left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and

C. F and A are immediate neighbours of each

other. Only one person sits between F and B. E

and G sit opposite to each other.

46. Four of the following five are similar in a certain

way based on their position in the seating

arrangement. Which of the following does not

belong to that group?

1) EH 2) CF 3) AG 4) BD 5) HG

47. Who amongst the following represent immedi-

ate neighbours of D?

1) EH 2) CG 3) FB 4) HG 5) CB

48. What is the position of A with respect to G in

the above arrangement?

1) Third to the right 2) Second to the left

3) Fifth to the right 4) Immediate right

5) Third to the left

49. What will come in place of question mark

according to the above seating

arrangement?

EF CG HB FA ?

1) GD 2) CG 3) GH 4) BH 5) CD

50. Who sits to the immediate right of A?

1) E 2) C 3) B 4) F 5) D

Directions (Q. 51-55): Study the following arrange-

ment carefully and answer the questions given

below :

6 4 2 5 2 8 5 2 6 4 1 3 9 1 8 1 2 5 8 6 3 5 1 4

9 4 7 3 2 7 2 5 9

51. How many 4's are there in the above arrange-

ment, each of which is immediately preceded

by a digit which has a numerical value of more

than four?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

52. Which of the following is seventh to the left of

the twentieth from the left end of the above

arrangement?

1) 3 2) 9 3) 2 4) 7 5) 1

53. If all the even digits are deleted from the above

arrangement, which of the following will be

tenth from the right end of the arrangement?

1) 9 2) 5 3) 1 4) 3 5) 7

54. How many such 5's are there in the above

arrangement each of which is immediately

preceded by an odd digit and immediately

followed by an even digit?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

55. How many such 1's are there in the above

arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a perfect square?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

5) More than three

Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following informa-

tion to answer the given questions:

In a certain code 'ring a bell' is written as '582',

'did not ring' is written as '359' and 'not a reason' is

written as '729'.

56. Which of the following represents 'did not'?

1) 23 2) 29 3) 35 4) 52 5) 93

57. What is the code for 'bell'?

1) 5 2) 8 3) 2 4) 7 5) None

58. What does '2' stand for?

1) ring 2) a 3) bell 4) reason 5) not

59. What does '7' stand for?

1) not 2) a 3) ring 4) reason

5) Either 'a' or 'not'

60. What is the code for 'ring'?

1) 8 2) 2 3) 5 4) 3 5) 9

Directions (Q. 61-65): Following questions are

based on the five three-digit numbers given below

219 742 936 587 853

61. If all the numbers are arranged in descending

order from left to right, which of the following

will be the product of the first and the second

digits of the number which is exactly in the mid-

dle of the new arrangement?

1) 18 2) 28 3) 54 4) 21 5) 45

62. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is

subtracted from the third digit of each of the

numbers. What will be the difference between

the first digit of the highest number and the

third digit of the lowest number?

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2 5)

SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST

Max Marks: 200 Total Questions: 200 Time: 135 Minutes

www.eenadupratibha.net _.. o.-e _.-..e o.-e _..e e- . e ..e -.- --.-.

Student (Out of (Out of (Out of (Out of (Out of (Out of

175) 80) 125) 100) 120) 35)

A 87 84 91 66 39 84

B 58 68 87 74 57 79

C 63 71 81 94 44 86

D 48 57 70 79 68 44

E 83 83 49 77 55 50

F 74 68 42 63 61 58

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