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3. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
4. Paper carries 60 questions. 15 question from Mathematics (115), 15 question from Physics(16-30),
15 question from Chemistry (3145) & 15 question from Biology (4660) each of 3 (three) marks.
5. Any rough work should be done only on the blank space provided at the end of question paper.
6. For each correct answer gets 3 marks, each wrong answer gets a penalty of 1 mark.
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IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
id8261296 pdfMachine by Broadgun Software - a great PDF writer! - a great PDF creator! - http://www.pdfmachine.com http://www.broadgun.com
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #1
PRACTICE TEST PAPER -3 (IJSO)
1. Three circles each of radius r units are drawn inside an equilateral triangle of side a units, such that each
circle touches the other two and two sides of the triangle as shown in the figure, (P, Q and R are the
centres of the three circles). Then relation between r and a is
(A) a = 2 ( ) 1 3 + r (B) a = ( ) 1 3 + r (C) a =( ) 2 3 + r (D) a = 2 ( ) 2 3 + r
2. A point is taken anywhere inside an equilateral triangle. From this point perpendiculars are drawn to each
side of the triangle. If 's' be the sum of these perpendiculars and 2a be the length of the side of the triangle,
then
(A) s >
3
a (B) s =
3
a (C) s <
3
a (D) s = 3 a
3. A Rhombus of side of 10 cm has two angles of 60 each. Find its area.
(A) 35
3
cm
2
(B) 40
3
cm
2
(C) 45
3
cm
2
(D) 50
3
cm
2
4. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the suns altitude is 30. When the suns altitude is 60, then
the length of shadow will be
(A) 60 m (B) 15 m (C) 10 m (D) 5m
5. A triangle with side lengths in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 is inscribed in a circle of radius 3. The area of the triangle,
is equal to
(A) 8.64 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 10.28
6. If a sphere of radius 10 cm is melted and converted into 8 balls. Find the surface area of each ball in cm.
(A) 75 t (B) 60 t (C) 50 t (D) 100 t
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #2
7. If
u
=
u sin b
y
cos a
x
and
u

u sin
by
cos
ax
= a
2
b
2
then find the value of
2
2
2
2
b
y
a
x
+
.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
8. A circle with area A
1
is contained in the interior of a large circle with area A
1
+ A
2
. If the radius of the larger
circle is 3 and A
1
, A
2
, A
1
+ A
2
are in AP, then the radius of the smaller circle is :
(A)
2
3
(B) 1 (C)
3
2
(D)
3
9. Given a number of the form a + b
2
, where a, b are rational numbers with a = or b = 0, there exists a
number p + q
2
, with p, q rational number, such that (a + b
2
)(p + q
2
) = 1. The value of (p
2
2q
2
), is
(A)
2 2 2
2 2
) b 4 a (
b 2 a

(B)
2 2
2 2
b 2 a
b 2 a
+

(C)
2 2
b 2 a
1

(D)
2 2
b 4 a
1

10. If the common points of the graphs of y = x


2
6x + 2 and x + 2y = 4 are A and B find the coefficients of
the midpoint of AB
(A) A =
4
11
, B =
8
5
(B) A =
8
5
, B =
3
1
(C) A =
4
11
, B =
8
5
(D) A =
8
5
, B =
3
1
11. If X + Y + Z = 30, (X,Y, Z > 0), then the value of (X 2) (Y 3) (Z 4) will be
(A)
1000 >
(B)
800 >
(C)
500 >
(D)
343 s
12. If x + y = 5xy, y + z = 6yz, z + x = 7zx find the value of x + y + z.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these
13. The quadratic equation a x
2
+ bx + c = 0 has real roots o and |. If a, b, c real and of the same sign, then
(A) o and | are both positive
(B) o and | are both negative
(C) o and | are of opposite sign
(D) nothing can be said about the signs of o and | as the information is insufficient.
14. If the centroid of a triangle formed by the points (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at the origin, then a
3
+ b
3
+ c
3
:
(A) abc (B) a + b + c (C) 3abc (D) 0
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #3
15. Find the sum of (2.5)
2
+ 5
2
+ (7.5)
2
+ 10
2
+ 12.5
2
+ -------- + (50)
2
.
(A) 35175 (B) 17587 (C) 17937 (D) None of these
16. Figure shows a point object placed between two parallal mirrors its distance from M
1
is 2cm and that
from M
2
is 8 cm. Find out the no. of images.
O
M
1
M
2
2 cm 8 cm
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D)
17. Find the angle of incidence of ray for which it passes through the pole, given that MI || CP.
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 45
18. Find the position of final image after three successive reflections taking first reflection at m
1
O
15cm
m
1
R.O.C. = 20cm
m
2
40 cm
(A) 30 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 12.5 cm
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #4
19. An extended object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of cancave mirror of radius of curva-
ture 20 cm at a distance of 15 cm from pole. Find the lateral maghification produced.
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 3
20. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere (

=
3
) , at an angle of incidence 60. Find the total devia-
tion after two refractions.
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
21. A stationary ball weighing 0.25 kg acquires a speed of 10 m/s when hit by a hockey stick. The impulse
imparted to the ball is :
(A) 0.25 N s (B) 2.5 N s (C) 2 N s (D) 0.5 N s
22. A machine, which is 75% efficient, uses 12 J of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass through a certain
distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity at the end of its fall is (in m/
s) :
(A)
24
(B)
12
(C)
18
(D)
9
23. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60. It gets reflected with the
same speed and angle as shown here. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.20 s, what is the average
force exerted on the ball by the wall?
(A) 150 N (B) Zero (C) N 3 150 (D) 300 N
24. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be :
(A) 0.5 m (B) 0.15 m (C) 0.12 m (D) 1.5 m
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #5
25. Four masses are located as shown in the figure. Acceleration due to gravity is same everywhere. What is
the position of centre of gravity for the system ?
1m 2m 3m 4m
1kg 2kg 3kg 4kg
O
(A) 2m (B) 2.5 m (C) 3 m (D) 2.7 m
26. A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and is used to pull the trolly along a flat surface as shown in
the fig. The reading on the spring balance remains at 10 kg during the motion. The acceleration of the
trolly is (Use g= 9.8 m
2
) :
(A) 4.9 ms
2
(B) 9.8 ms
2
(C) 49 ms
2
(D) 98 ms
2
27. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along a smooth horizontal surface. The mssses of the blocks
and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F is :
4kg
3kg 2kg 1kg
60
F
30N
(A) 50 N (B) 100 N (C) 125 N (D) 200 N
28. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of the 1kg mass and the tension in the string connecting
between A and B is :
(A)
g
4
downward,
8g
7
(B)
g
4
upward,
g
7
(C)
g
7
downward,
6
7
g (D)
g
2
upward, g
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #6
29. Two forces F
1
and F
2
(>F
1
) are applied at a free ends of uniform rod kept on a horizontal frictionless
surface. find the tension in rod at a distance x from end A.
(A) T = F
2

( )
x
L
F F 1
2

(B) T = F
2
+
( )
x
L
F F 1
2

(C) T = F
1
+
( )
x
L
F F 1
2

(D) T = F
1

( )
x
L
F F 1
2

30. In the figure, the pulley P moves to the right with a constant speed u. The downward speed of A is v
A
and the
speed of B to the right is v
B
.
A
v
A
P
u
B
v
B
(A) v
B
= v
A
(B) v
B
= u + v
A
(C) v
B
+ u = v
A
(D) The two blocks have accelerations of the same magnitude
31. Roasting is done in -
(A) Blast furnace (B) Reverberatory furnace
(C) Resistance furnace (D) Muffle furnace
32. Leaching method is used for concentration of -
(A) Haematite (B) Copper pyrite (C) bauxite (D) Galena
33. Which of the following metals is used in thermite process ?
(A) C (B) Zn (C) H (D)Al
34. To remove gangue, certain substance is mixed with concentrated ore which combine with the gangue to
form a fusible material which is not soluble in molten metal. The substance used is called ------- and the
fusible material formed during reduction process is called ----------.
(A) slag, flux (B) sludge , anode mud
(C) flux, slag (D) anode mud, sludge
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #7
35. Cryolite is -
(A) Na
3
AlF
6
and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for decreasing electrical conductivity.
(B) Na
3
AlF
6
and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for lowering the melting point of alumina.
(C) KCl.MgCl
2
.6H
2
O and is ore of magnesium.
(D) KCl. MgCl
2
.6H
2
O and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for decreasing the melting point of alumina
36. Choose the correct statement -
(i)
130
52
Te ,
130
54
Xe ,
130
56
Ba are isobars. (ii)
14
6
C ,
15
7
N ,
18
8
O are isotones.
(iii)
1
1
H ,
2
1
H ,
3
1
H are isotopes.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) all (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i) and (ii) only
37. Which of the following is correct statement about Rutherfords atomic model ?
(A) Rutherford used a beam of beta (|) particles for his experiment.
(B) A circular screen coated with zinc phosphide was placed on the other side of the gold foil.
(C) A very few (about 1 in 20,000) alpha (o) particles were deflected backward on their path at an angle of 90.
(D) The positively charged heavy mass which occupies only a small space as compared to the total
space occupied by the atom is called nucleus.
38. Rutherford experiment which established the nuclear model of the atom used a beam of -
(A) |-particles which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed.
(B) -rays which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons.
(C) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
(D) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
39. The maximum no. of electrons with clockwise spin that can be accommodated in a f sub-shell is-
(A) 14 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 10
40. Which of the following statements is false about Thomsons atomic model ?
(A) Thomson atomic model could explain the electrical neutrality of an atom.
(B) Thomson proposed that an atom consists of a sphere of negative charge in which protons are embed-
ded like plums in pudding.
(C) This model could not satisfy experimental facts proposed by Rutherford and hence discarded.
(D) Thomson tried to explain the the arrangement of electrons and protons within the atom.
41. Aluminium is diagonally related to -
(A) Li (B) Si (C) Be (D) B
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #8
42. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s
2
, 2s
2
, 2p
6
,3s
2
, 3p
3
. What is the atomic number of the
element which is just below the above element in the periodic table ?
(A) 34 (B) 49 (C) 33 (D) 31
43. Which of the following represents the correct order of electron affinities ?
(A) Cl > Br > I > F (B) Cl > F < Br < I (C) F > Cl > Br > I (D) Cl > F > Br > I
44. In the Long Form of the periodic table, all the non-metals are placed with -
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
45. Which pair of the elements has same chemical properties ?
(A) 13, 22 (B) 3, 11 (C) 4, 24 (D) 2, 4
46. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) AIDS - DNA virus (B) Cholera - Mycobacterium
(C) Sleeping sickness - Trypanosoma (D) Food poisoning- Clostridium tetani
47. Antibodies are produced by ?
(A) RBCs (B) cell plasma (C) B - lymphocytes (D) saliva
48. Anaemia can be caused due to the lack of
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Folic Acid (C) Iron (D) All of these
49. Diseases of the heart, joints and nervous system are called
(A) Communicable diseases (B) Degenerative diseases
(C) Deficiency diseases (D) Allergies
50. Which of the following is sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Syphilis (B) Gonorrhoea (C) AIDS (D) All of these
51. Freshly released human egg has
(A) one Y chromosome (B) one X chromosome
(C) two - X - chromosome (D) one X - chromosomes and one Y-chromosomes
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #9
52. Plannaria cut into number of pieces will
(A) die (B) sporulate
(C) develop sex organs (D) regenerate to form new individuals
53. Proper labelling of (1), (2), (3), & (4) -
(A) gamete, fertilization, male & female
(B) gametogenesis, zygote, female & male
(C) gametogenesis, fertilization, female & male
(D) gamete, fertilization, female & male
54. The structures meant for the nourishment of developing embryo in case of plant & animal are:
(A) Pollen tube & Placenta respectively (B) Endosperm & Placenta respectively
(C) Placenta & Pollen tube respectively (D) None of these
55. Syngamy refers to
(A) fusion of one of the sperms with secondary nucleus
(B) fusion of one sperm with the egg
(C) fusion of one of the sperm with an egg and the other with secondary nucleus
(D) fusion of one of the sperm with synergids
56. Some cellular structures are bounded by single or double membranes while some others are without
menbrane. Match the organelle in List I with the nature of membranes in List II and select the correct
answer -
List-I List-II
(a) Vacuole (i) Without membrane
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Single membrane
(c) Ribosomes (iii) Tonoplast
(d) Nucleus (iv) Double porous membrane
A B C D
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iii)
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #10
57. The organelle, which acts as a factory for the synthesis of sugars in autotrophic eukaryotes, is
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) ribosome (D) lysosome
58. Living part of a cell is called :
(A) Cell wall (B) Protoplasm (C) Hyaloplasm (D) Cell sap
59. Which cell organelle is abundantly found in white blood cells, secretory cells of liver, kidney, tadpole's
tail and helps in degenerating action ?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosome (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
60. If a plant cell has its cell wall removed and is placed in a hypotonic solution what will happen to the cell ?
(A) The cell wall will already be dead because plant cells cannot survive without a cell wall.
(B) The cell will expand and eventually burst.
(C) The cell will shrink because the vacuole gets smaller.
(D) The nucleus will burst but the cell will stay intact.
ANSWER KEY
IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D C A D A D C A,C D D B C D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D B C B B B C C B C C D C C B
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B C D C B B D D B B C C D B B
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C C D B D B D D B B C B B C B