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Incomplete/incorrect/carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
3. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
4. Paper carries 60 questions. 15 question from Mathematics (115), 15 question from Physics(16-30),
15 question from Chemistry (3145) & 15 question from Biology (4660) each of 3 (three) marks.
5. Any rough work should be done only on the blank space provided at the end of question paper.
6. For each correct answer gets 3 marks, each wrong answer gets a penalty of 1 mark.
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IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2
id7891359 pdfMachine by Broadgun Software - a great PDF writer! - a great PDF creator! - http://www.pdfmachine.com http://www.broadgun.com
Space for rough work
IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #1
PRACTICE TEST PAPER -2 (IJSO)
1. If x is a positive integer less than 100, then the number of x which make
x 4 3 2 1 + + + +
an integer is:
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
2. The sum of any three distinct natural numbers arranged in ascending order is 200 such that the second
number is a perfect cube. How many possible values are there for this number ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
3. The lengths of the sides of a right angled triangle are all given in natural numbers. If two of these numbers
are odd and they differ by 50, then the least possible value for the third side is :
(A) 61 (B) 60 (C) 51 (D) 50
4. How many pairs of natural numbers are there so that difference of their squares is 60 ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
5. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10. In another number system using base 4, the
counting proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 .... The twentieth number in this system will be
(A) 40 (B) 320 (C) 210 (D) 110
6. E is the midpoint of diagonal BD of a parallelogram ABCD. If the point E is joined to a point F on DA such
that DF =
3
1
DA, then the ratio of the area of ADEF to the area of quadrilateral ABEF is :
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1: 4 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 2 : 5
7. How many 4-digit numbers are there with the property that it is a square and the number obtained by
increasing all its digits by 1 is also a square ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
8. The number of 2-digit numbers n such that 3 divides n 2 and 5 divides n 3 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 10
9. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm, whose centres are 25 cm apart
is :
(A) 24 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm
10. The number (1024)
1024
is obtained by raising (16)
16
to the power n. What is the value of n ?
(A) 64 (B) 64
2
(C) 64
64
(D) 160
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #2
11. The sum of 7 consecutive positive integers is equal to the sum of the next five consecutive integers. What
is the largest among the 12 numbers ?
(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D 21
12. In the given diagram shown below, if PB = 8 cm, AB = 4 cm, PD = 6 cm, then CD = ?

A
C
B
D
P
8 cm
6 cm
4 cm
?
(A)
3
16
cm (B) 10 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 7 cm
13. Let 0 < a < b < c be 3 distinct digits. The sum of all 3-digit numbers formed by using all the 3 digits once
each is 1554. The value of c is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
14. In the figure, AB = AC = AD,then which of the following is always true.
(A) ZBCD is a right angle. (B) ZBCD is an acute angle.
(C) ZBCD is an obtuse angle. (D) AABC is an equilateral triangle
15. Two parallel chords of a circle of radius 5 cm, are 4 cm and 6 cm long. What is the perpendicular distance
between the chords, if it is mentioned that both the chords are on the same half of the circle ?
(A)
4 21
(B)
4 21 +
(C)
21 4
(D) None of these
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #3
16. In the circuit shown, the galvanometer reads zero. If battery H has negligible internal resistance, the
value of X in O is:
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 500
17. An electric bulb rated for 500 watts at 100 volts is used in a circuit having a 200 volts supply. The
resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb, so that the bulb delivers 500 watts is ....... ohms.:
(A) 25 O (B) 20 O (C) 50 O (D) 30 O
18. A wire of resistance 0.5O m
1
is bent into a circle of radius 1m. The same wire is connected across a
diameter AB as shown in figure. The equivalent resistances in ohm is :
(A) t (B) t +1 (C)
( 2)
t
t +
(D)
( 4)
t
t +
19. In the circuit shown below, all the resistances are equal, each equal to R. The equivalent resistance
between points A and C is :
R R
R
R
R
R R
R
A D
C B
(A) R (B) 4R
(C) R /2 (D) none of the above
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #4
20. In the given network of four resistances, the equivalent resistance is
(A) 20 O (B) 5.4 O (C) 12 O (D) 4.5 O
21. A circuit shown in figure consists two ideal batteries connected in series through two resistances.
Find the value of current in the circuit.
R
1
a
b c
d
R
2
(A) 0.5 A (B) 0.6 A (C) 0.7 A (D) 0.4 A
22. 5 charges each of magnitude 10
5
C and mass 1 kg are placed (fixed) symmetrically about a movable
central charges of magnitude 5 10
5
C and mass 0.5 kg as shown. The charges at P
1
is removed. The
acceleration of the central charge is :
[Given OP
1
= OP
2
= OP
3
= OP
4
= OP
5
1 m ;
0
4
1
tc
= 9 10
9
in SI units]
P
1
P
2
P
3
P
4
P
5
O
(A) 9 m s
2
upwards
(B) 9 m s
2
downwards
(C) 4.5 m s
2
upwards
(D) 4.5 m s
2
downwards
23. A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly n times & then cut to form five identical
wires. These wires are arranged as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between A & B
will be:
(A)
5
R n
(B) 2
n 5
R
(C)
5
R n
2
(D)
2
R n
2
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #5
24. The net resistance between points P and Q in the circuit shown in fig. is
(A) R/2 (B) 2R/5 (C) 3R/5 (D) R/3
25. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B is
(A)
9
R 5
(B)
3
R 2
(C) R (D) None of these
26. For a fixed incedent light ray, if the mirror be rotated through an angle u (abut an axis which lies in the
plane of mirror and perpendicular to the plane of incidence) , then reflected ray turns through the angle
in same sence.
(A) u (B) 2u (C) 3u (D) u/2
27. Find the region on y-axis in which reflected rays are present . object is at A(2,0) and MN is a plane
mirror, as shown
A(2,0)
(4,2)
(4,3)
N
M
X
Y
(A) From (0,6) to (0,9) (B) From (0,6) to (9,0)
(C) From (0,-6) to (0,-9) (D) From (-6,0) to (-9,0)
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #6
28. An object moves with 5m/s towards right while the mirror moves with 1 m/s towards the left as shown.
Find the velocity of image.
mirror
1m/s
5m/s
O
(A) 7 m/s towards left (B) 7 m/s towards right (C) 5 m/s towards left (D) 5 m/s towards right
29. There is a point object and a plane mirror. It the mirror is moved by 10 cm away from the object find the
distance which the image will move.
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
30. In the situation shown in figure, find the elelocity of image
O
30
5 m/s
60
y
x
10 m/s
(A) 5(1 +
3
)
i
+ 5
3 j

(B) 5(1+
3
)
i
+ 5
3 j

(C) 5(1+
3
)
i
5
3 j

(D) 5(1+
3
)
i
5
3 j

31. If from 10 moles NH


3
and 5 moles of H
2
SO
4
all the H- atoms are removed in order to form hydrogen gas.
Then the number of hydrogen molecules formed is -
(A) 20 N
A
(B) 40 N
A
(C) 10 N
A
(D) 50 N
A
32. 50 g of CaCO
3
is allowed to react with 73.5 g of H
3
PO
4
. Then the amount of calcium phosphate formed is-
(A) 51.67 mol (B)
6
1
mol (C) 6 mol (D) None of these
33. A gaseous alkane is exploded with oxygen. The moles of O
2
for complete combustion and CO
2
formed is
in the ratio 7 : 4. The molecular formula of alkane will be -
(A) C
3
H
8
(B) C
3
H
6
(C) C
2
H
6
(D) C
3
H
8
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #7
34. A mixture of 1 mol of Al and 3 mol of Cl
2
are allowed to react as :
2Al(s) + 3Cl
2
(g) 2AlCl
3
(s)
(i) Which is limiting reagent ?
(ii) How many moles of AlCl
3
are formed ?
(iii) Moles of excess reagent left unreacted is ?
(A) (i) Al, (ii) 1, (iii) 1.5 (B) (i) Cl
2
, (ii) 2, (iii) 2
(C) (i) Al, (ii) 0.5, (iii) 1.5 (D) (i) Cl
2
, (ii) 1, (iii) 1.5
35. 22.4 litre of water vapour at NTP, when condensed to water occupies an approximate volume of -
(A) 18 (B) 1 (C) 1 m (D) 18 m
36. 0.63 g of dibasic acid was dissolved in water. The volume of the solution was made 100 ml. 20 ml of this
acid solution required 10 ml
5
N
NaOH solution. Molecular mass of the acid will be -
(A) 63 g (B) 126 g (C) 31.5 g (D) 94.5 g
37. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H
3
PO
4
) in the equation.
NaOH + H
3
PO
4
NaH
2
PO
4
+ H
2
O is -
(A) 59 (B) 49 (C) 25 (D) 98
38. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of the solution is :
(A) 1.14 mol kg
1
(B) 3.28 mol kg
1
(C) 2.28 mol kg
1
(D) 0.44 mol kg
1
39. Temporary hardness of water is due to -
(A) Bicarbonates of sodium and potassium (B) Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
(C) Fluorides of calcium and magnesium (D) Fluorides of sodium and potassium
40. What approximate volume of 0.4 M Ba(OH)
2
must be added to 50 ml of 0.3 M NaOH to get a solution in
which the molarity of the OH

ions is 0.5 M ?
(A) 33 ml (B) 66 ml (C) 133 ml (D) 100 ml
41. An element A reacts with oxygen to produce A
2
O
3
.1g of A produces 1.1596 g of A
2
O
3
. The atomic
mass of element A will be -
(A) 20.70 (B) 66.85 (C) 100.2 (D) 150.4
42. Solution of NaHSO
4
will be -
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) None of these
43. The equivalent mass of MnSO
4
becomes half of its molecular mass when it is converted into :
(A) MnO
4

(B) MnO
2
(C) MnO
4
2
(D) Mn
2
O
4
2
44. A solution containing 4.2 g of KOH and Ca(OH)
2
is neutralized by an acid. If it consumes 0.1 equivalent of
the acid, then% of Ca(OH)
2
in mixture is -
(A) 35% (B) 65% (C) 14.7% (D) 85.3%
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #8
45. Arrange the following in increasing order of pH -
NaOH, Na
2
CO
3
, NH
4
OH, CH
3
COOH, NaCl, HCl
(A) HCl < CH
3
COOH < NaCl < Na
2
CO
3
< NH
4
OH < NaOH
(B) CH
3
COOH < HCl < NaCl < Na
2
CO
3
< NH
4
OH < NaOH
(C) CH
3
COOH < HCl < NaCl < NaOH < Na
2
CO
3
< NH
4
OH
(D) HCl < CH
3
COOH < NaCl < NH
4
OH < Na
2
CO
3
< NaOH
46. Five out of twenty plants obtained by selfing a red flowered plant were having white flowers. This is an
indication that plant is :
(A) Homozygous (B) Heterozygous (C) Homogenous (D) Heterogenous
47. A pure tall pea plant can be distinguished form a hybrid tall pea plant by :
(A) Measuring its height (B) Gibberellin treatment
(C) Selfing and noting that all progeny are tall (D) Selfing and noting that all progeny are short
48. If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf plant, the proportion of dwarf progeny
would be:
(A) 50% (B) 25% (C) 75% (D) 10%
49. A nucleoside is :
(A) Base + sugar (B) Base + phosphate
(C) Sugar + phosphate (D) Base + sugar + phosphate
50. In crossing self fertilised plants the flowers are first emasculated.Whcih organ of the palnts is removed in
this process ?
(A) Stigma (B) Anthers (C) Ovules (D) Sepals
51. Blood will loose maximum O
2
while passing through
(A) alveolar Capillaries (B) Arteries (C) Veins (D) tissue Capillaries
52. Cell formed in bone marrow include
(A) RBC only (B) RBC & WBC (C) WBC only (D) lymphocytes only
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IJSO_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #9
53. Which is used to prevent bleeding ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin B
12
(D) Vitamin K
54. Pulmonary artery carries
(A) Pure blood to lungs (B) Pure blood to heart (C) impure blood to lungs (D) impure blood to heart
55. The plants die due to wilting when
(A) Available light is reduced to half (B) Xylem is blocked
(C) A few roots are broken (D) Phloem is blocked
56. Glucagon is secreted from which cells of Islet of Langerhans
(A) o Cells (B) | Cells (C) Cells (D) Both o & | cells
57. Which of the following is called as stress hormone ?
(A) ABA (B) IAA (C) GA (D) None
58. Synapse is a close proximity of -
(A) two veins (B) two arteries (C) two neurons (D) two lymphatics
59. Exophthalmic goitre is caused due to
(A) hypersecretion of thyrocalcitonin (B) hyposecretion of thyrocalcitonin
(C) hypersecretion of thyroxine (D) hyposecretion of thyroxine
60. If a person happens to take large amount of water, the amount of ADH in blood will
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) First increase then decrease (D) None of these
ANSWER KEY
IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B B B C D C B B A D B B B A A
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B D D D A A C B A B A A B A
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A B C A D B D C B A D A B B A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B C A A B D B D C B A A C C B