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1 MEJAYAN IX / 1 Science - BIOLOGY 2. Understanding the survival of living things 2.1. Describing the concept of heredity in living things 1. Describing the genetic material responsible for heredity (genes and chromosomes) 2. Distinguishing understanding the nature of dominant, recessive and intermediate : 3 Hour Lesson (1 X Meeting) Indikator Mendeskripsikan materi genetis yang bertanggung jawab dalam pewarisan sifat (kromosom dan gen) Membedakan pengertian sifat dominan, resesif, dan intermediat. Menjelaskan berbagai macam istilah dalam persilangan Membedakan genotip dan fenotip dan gamet Karakter Bangsa rasa ingin tahu, jujur, tanggung jawab rasa ingin tahu, jujur, tanggung jawab, teliti rasa ingin tahu, jujur, tanggung jawab rasa ingin tahu, jujur, tanggung jawab
Allocation of Time N0 1 2 3 4
A. Learning Objectives: After participating in the learning process is expected Learners can: 1. Explain the meaning of chromosomes and genes. 2. Describe the different understanding of nature 3. Distinguishing understanding the nature of dominant, recessive and intermediate. 4. Distinguishing the nature of genotypic and phenotypic characteristics 5. Describe the different nature of homozygote and heterozygote 6. Explain the meaning of pure strains B. Learning Materials Genetics: Inheritance properties of living things The Monk and his peas An Austrian monk, Gregor Mendel, developed the fundamental principles that would become the modern science of genetics. Mendel demonstrated that heritable properties are parceled out in discrete units, independently inherited. These eventually were termed genes. Gregor Mendel, the Austrian monk who figured out the rules of hereity. The above photo is from http://www.open.cz/project/tourist/person/photo.htm. Mendel reasoned an organism for genetic experiments should have: 1. a number of different traits that can be studied 2. plant should be self-fertilizing and have a flower structure that limits accidental contact 3. offspring of self-fertilized plants should be fully fertile. Mendel's experimental organism was a common garden pea (Pisum sativum), which has a flower that lends itself to self-pollination. The male parts of the flower are termed the anthers. They produce pollen, which contains the male gametes (sperm). The female parts of the flower are the stigma, style, and ovary. The egg (female gamete) is produced in the ovary. The process of pollination (the transfer of pollen from anther to stigma) occurs prior to the opening of the pea flower. The pollen grain grows a pollen tube which allows the sperm to travel through the stigma and style, eventually reaching the ovary. The ripened ovary wall becomes the fruit (in this case the pea pod). Most flowers allow cross-pollination, which can be difficult to deal with in genetic studies if the male parent plant is not known. Since pea plants are self-pollinators, the genetics of the parent can be more easily understood. Peas are also self-compatible, allowing self-fertilized embryos to develop as readily as out-fertilized embryos. Mendel tested all 34 varieties of peas available to Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 1 of 24
him through seed dealers. The garden peas were planted and studied for eight years. Each character studied had two distinct forms, such as tall or short plant height, or smooth or wrinkled seeds. Mendel's experiments used some 28,000 pea plants.
Some of Mendel's traits as expressed in garden peas. Images from Purves et al., Life: The Science of Biology, 4th Edition, by Sinauer Associates (www.sinauer.com) and WH Freeman (www.whfreeman.com) Mendel's contribution was unique because of his methodical approach to a definite problem, use of clear-cut variables and application of mathematics (statistics) to the problem. Gregor Using pea plants and statistical methods, Mendel was able to demonstrate that traits were passed from each parent to their offspring through the inheritance of genes. Mendel's work showed: 1. Each parent contributes one factor of each trait shown in offspring. 2. The two members of each pair of factors segregate from each other during gamete formation. 3. The blending theory of inheritance was discounted. 4. Males and females contribute equally to the traits in their offspring. 5. Acquired traits are not inherited. Gene - a unit of inheritance that usually is directly responsible for one trait or character. Allele - an alternate form of a gene. Usually there are two alleles for every gene, sometimes as many a three or four. Homozygous - when the two alleles are the same. Heterozygous - when the two alleles are different, in such cases the dominant allele is expressed. Dominant - a term applied to the trait (allele) that is expressed irregardless of the second allele. Recessive - a term applied to a trait that is only expressed when the second allele is the same (e.g. short plants are homozygous for the recessive allele). Phenotype - the physical expression of the allelic composition for the trait under study. Genotype - the allelic composition of an organism. Punnett squares - probability diagram illustrating the possible offspring of a mating. Mendel studied seven traits which appeared in two discrete forms, rather than continuous characters which are often difficult to distinguish. When "true-breeding" tall plants were crossed with "true-breeding" short plants, all of the offspring were tall plants. The parents in the cross were the P1 generation, and the offspring represented the F1 generation. The trait referred to as tall was considered dominant, while short was recessive. Dominant traits were defined by Mendel as those which appeared in the F1 generation in crosses between true-breeding strains. Recessives were those which "skipped" a generation, being expressed only when the dominant
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trait is absent. Mendel's plants exhibited complete dominance, in which the phenotypic expression of alleles was either dominant or recessive, not "in between". When members of the F1 generation were crossed, Mendel recovered mostly tall offspring, with some short ones also occurring. Upon statistically analyzing the F2 generation, Mendel determined the ratio of tall to short plants was approximately 3:1. Short plants have skipped the F1 generation, and show up in the F2 and succeeding generations. Mendel concluded that the traits under study were governed by discrete (separable) factors. The factors were inherited in pairs, with each generation having a pair of trait factors. We now refer to these trait factors as alleles. Having traits inherited in pairs allows for the observed phenomena of traits "skipping" generations. Summary of Mendel's Results: 1. The F1 offspring showed only one of the two parental traits, and always the same trait. 2. Results were always the same regardless of which parent donated the pollen (was male). 3. The trait not shown in the F1 reappeared in the F2 in about 25% of the offspring. 4. Traits remained unchanged when passed to offspring: they did not blend in any offspring but behaved as separate units. 5. Reciprocal crosses showed each parent made an equal contribution to the offspring. Mendel's Conclusions: 1. Evidence indicated factors could be hidden or unexpressed, these are the recessive traits. 2. The term phenotype refers to the outward appearance of a trait, while the term genotype is used for the genetic makeup of an organism. 3. Male and female contributed equally to the offsprings' genetic makeup: therefore the number of traits was probably two (the simplest solution). 4. Upper case letters are traditionally used to denote dominant traits, lower case letters for recessives. Mendel reasoned that factors must segregate from each other during gamete formation (remember, meiosis was not yet known!) to retain the number of traits at 2. The Principle of Segregation proposes the separation of paired factors during gamete formation, with each gamete receiving one or the other factor, usually not both. Organisms carry two alleles for every trait. These traits separate during the formation of gametes. C. Learning Methods 1. Model: Cooperative learning 2. Method: Group discussion D. Step Activities: a. Preliminary Activities • Motivation: Which Comes from the properties we have? • Prerequisite knowledge: Students have to understand cell division by mitosis and meiosis b. Core Activities: The teacher divides students into groups - groups Provides information about chromosomes and genes Provides information about different properties, dominant, recessive and intermediate Ask students to discuss and report on its activities to classify the properties of dominant, recessive and intermediate c. End Activities Teachers and students make a conclusion / summary of study results The teacher gave a test to determine the absorption of the newly learned material Teachers give homework. E. Learning Resources a. Natural Science Books b. LKS c. Other relevant books F. Assessment of Learning Outcomes a. Technical assessment: written test b. Form of the instrument: double and Field Options c. Instruments: Attached
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Mengetahui Kepala SMPN 1 MEJAYAN
Mejayan, Januari 2011 Guru Mata Pelajaran IPA-BIOLOGI
Drs. DOLI SAPARDI, M.Pd. NIP. 19640703 199003 1 013
AGUS JOKO SUNGKONO, S.Pd. NIP. 19660228 198903 1 005
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WRITTEN TEST INSTRUMENT Competency Standards Basic Competence Form of instrument : 2. Understanding the survival of living things : 2.1 To describe the concept of heredity in living things : Multiple Choice and Description
I. Put a cross on the letter in front of the correct answer! No Instruments 1 Yang berfungsi pembawa sifat dari induk kepada keturunannyaadalah … a. kromosom b. gen c. sitoplasma d. nukleoplasma The main function of the nature of the keturunannyaadalah ... a. chromosome b. gene c. cytoplasm d.nukleoplasma 2 Penurunan sifat pada perkawinan ditentukan oleh …. a. kromosom b. cuaca c. gen d. kecerdasa. The decline in marriage is determined by nature .... a. chromosome b. weather c. gene d. kecerdasa. 3 Gen yang sifatnya menonjol sehingga gen itu muncul sebagai fenotip suatu individu disebut gen … a. resesif b. galur murni c. intermediate d. dominant Genes that are protruding so that the gene is emerging as the phenotype of an individual called a gene ... a. recessive b. pure line c. intermediate d. dominant 4 Perkawinan silang dengan melibatkan hanya satu sifat beda dinamakan …. a. pembastaran b. monohibrida c. dihibrida d. trihibrida marriages involve only a single cross with different properties are called .... a. crossbreeding b. monohibrida c. dihibrida d. trihibrida 5 Sifat-sifat yang tampak dari suatu individu disebut …. a. genotip b. heterozygote c. fenotip d. homozygote
The properties that appear from an individual known as .... a. genotype b. heterozygote c. phenotype d. homozygote 6 Pasangan sifat genotip yang berbeda disebut …. a. genotip b. homozygote c. fenotip Pairs of different genotypes of nature is called .... a. genotype b. homozygote c. phenotype 7 d. heterozygote d. heterozygote
Sifat beda tertentu yang bertahan dari generasi ke generasi disebut …. a. dominant b. resesif c. intermediate d. galur murni The nature of specific differences that persist from generation to generation is called .... a. dominant b. recessive c. intermediate d. pure line
Sifat makhluk hidup yang dikaji pewarisannya dari generasi ke generasi melalui pembiakan secara kawin disebut …. a. tingkah laku b. sifat beda c. adaptasi d. budaya The nature of living beings who studied inheritance from generation to generation through mating of breeding are called .... a. behavior b. different nature c. adaptation d. culture Jumlah 8
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II. Jawablah pertanyaan berikut dengan singkat dan jelas ! II. Answer the following questions briefly and clearly! No 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Instrumen Jelaskan yang dimaksud sifat beda dibidang genetika ! Sebutkan 5 contoh sifat fenotip pada pohon mangga ! Apa manfaat symbol sebagai tanda untuk tiap sifat beda? Jelaskan yang dimaksud sifat beda homozygote ! Jelaskan perbedaan sifat genotip dan sifat fenotip ! 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Describe the nature of the difference is in the field of genetics! Please list five examples of the nature of phenotypes at the mango tree! What are the benefits of the symbol as a mark for each character different? Explain the difference is the nature of homozygote! Explain the differences in the nature of the genotype and the nature of phenotypes! Jumlah Skor 2 5 2 2 2
Kunci Jawaban PG: No Jwb 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B Skor 1 1 1 1 No Jwb 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. B Jumlah Skor 1 1 1 1 8 2 5
Kunci Jawaban Uraian: 1. Sifat makhluk hidupyang dikaji pewarisannya dari generasi ke generasi melalui pembiakan secara kawin. 2. - Buah manis - Bentuk bulat - warna kulit buah hijau - bentukdaun lonjong - warna daging buah kuning 3. Memudahkan penghitungan keturunan 4. Pasangan sifat beda genotip yang mempunyai sifat sama 5. Genotip Sifat yang tak terlihat Fenotip Sifat yang terlihat Answers Description: 1. The nature of creatures studied hidupyang inheritance from generation to generation through breeding is mating. 2. - Fruit sweet - Shape Round - Color green rind - Oval leaf shape - The color yellow flesh 3. Facilitate counting descent 4. Couple different nature which have the nature of the same genotype 5. The invisible nature of genotypic The nature of the visible phenotype Jumlah
2 2 2
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LEMBAR KEGIATAN SISWA (LKS) Kegiatan 2.3 MENULIS PERSILANGAN DIHIBRIDA YANG DILENGKAPI DENGAN SIMBOL GENOTIP Satu sifat beda dominan penuh terhadap pasangannya Apa yang dikerjakan 1. Bekerjalah dalam kelompok 2. Baca dan pahami informasi berikut! Ratna menyilangkan tanaman ercis berbiji bulat berwarna kuning dengan tanaman ercis berbiji keriput berwarna hijau. Bulat dominan terhadap keriput sedangkan kuning dominan terhadap hijau. Persilangan tersebut sampai menghasilkan turunan kedua. 3. Tulislah bagan persilangan itu lengkap dengan simbol-simbol genotipnya. 4. Sifat beda apa yang muncul pada turunan pertama ? Berapa jumlah sifat beda pada turunan kedua ? Sebutkan tiap sifat beda pada turunan kedua itu dan bagaimana perbandingan satu sama lain ? 5. Serahkan tugas yang telah dikerjakan ini kepada guru. Bagan : STUDENT ACTIVITY SHEET (BLM) Activity 2.3 WRITING Crossing DIHIBRIDA GenoType WITH SYMBOLS The dominant nature of the different management to the spouse What do 1. Work in groups 2. Read and understand the following information! Rachel crossed pea plants with yellow round seeded pea plants green wrinkled seeds. Round dominant on wrinkles while yellow dominant to green. Crossbreeding is to generate a second derivative. 3. Write a chart that crosses complete with symbols genotipnya. 4. Different nature of what appears on the first derivative? How many different properties on the second derivative? Please list each character differently in the second derivative and how it compares to each other? 5. Leave this task has been done to the teacher. Chart
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Mendel Practice Quiz Mr. Boisselle http://school.discoveryeducation.com/quizzes25/wayner1/Mendelspeas.html 1. If the pistil were removed from a flower, what effect might it have on the flower? A. The pollen could not be spred B. The pollen could not be made C. The eggs would not be pollinated D. The petals would fall off
D. 100% of the offspring will be homozygous dominant 8. In your P generation, if you cross an organism which has a heterozygous genotype with an organism which has a homozygous recessive genotype, and then you cross the homozygous offspring of the F1 generation, all of the resulting offspring of the F2 generation will be of what genotype? A. Homozygous dominant B. Homozygous recessive C. None of the choices D. Heterozygous
2. A heterozygous plant has: A. different traits B. purebred traits C. a recessive allele D. two of the same allele
3. If the stamens were removed from a pea flower, what might the result be? A. The pollen would not react B. The flower's eggs would not get the male chromosomes C. The pistil would not grow D. The petals would fall off 4. The genotype of a homozygous plant might look like this: A. Hh B. WT C. Tt D. XX
9. The crossing of a hybrid and a purebred will always result in offspring which are what? (Hint: purebreds come in two different forms) A. None of the answers given B. All hybrid C. All of the same phenotype D. All purebred
5. The offspring of two heterozygous parents will always be: (Hint: do the cross first) A. 25% homozygous recessive B. 50% heterozygous C. 50% homozygous D. all answers
6. Cross the two parents in this Punnett Square. What do the results of the Punnett Square mean? A. Most of the offspring could be heterozygous B. 1/2 of the offspring could be homozygous C. 100% of the offspring are tall D. 50% of the offspring are homozygous dominant 7. Cross the two parents in this Punnett Square. What do the results of the Punnett Square mean? A. 100% of the offspring will be homozygous B. 100% of the offspring will be tall C. 100% of the offspring will be heterozygous
10. How can an organism have two differentlooking parents, yet be purebred for a particular trait? (Hint: make a Punnett Square which crosses parents who are different looking) A. Both parents have a common allele for the same trait B. Both parents are of the same species C. It is all by chance D. Both parents are homozygous for different traits Mendel Practice Quiz 1) If the pistil were removed from a flower, what effect might it have on the flower? Correct Answer: The eggs would not be pollinated 2) A heterozygous plant has: Correct Answer: two of the same allele. 3) If the stamens were removed from a pea flower, what might the result be? Correct Answer: The flower's eggs would not get the male chromosomes. 4) The genotype of a homozygous plant might look like this: Correct Answer: XX
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5) The offspring of two heterozygous parents will always be: (Hint: do the cross first) Correct Answer: all answers 6) Cross the two parents in this Punnett Square. What do the results of the Punnett Square mean? Correct Answer: 1/2 of the offspring could be homozygous. 7) Cross the two parents in this Punnett Square. What do the results of the Punnett Square mean? Correct Answer: 100% of the offspring will be tall. 8) In your P generation, if you cross an organism which has a heterozygous genotype with an organism which has a homozygous recessive genotype, and then you cross the homozygous offspring of the F1 generation, all of the resulting offspring of the F2 generation will be of what genotype? Correct Answer: Homozygous recessive 9) The crossing of a hybrid and a purebred will always result in offspring which are what? (Hint: purebreds come in two different forms) Correct Answer: None of the answers given 10) How can an organism have two differentlooking parents, yet be purebred for a particular trait? (Hint: make a Punnett Square which crosses parents who are different looking) Correct Answer: Both parents have a common allele for the same trait. 1. Mendel's idea that pairs of characters separate during gamete formation is called the law of a. particulate inheritance b. dominance c. segregation d. independent assortment 2. The allele that masks the effects of the other is ____ and the masked allele is ____. a. homozygous, heterozygous b. homozygous, recessive c. dominant, recessive d. dominant, incomplete 3. A phenotype is ____ if it is the most common expression of a particular gene in a population. a. dominant c. wildtype b. recessive d. homozygous
b. 3 tall : 1 dwarf c. 1 tall : 2 medium : 1 dwarf d. all tall 5. Two carries of albinism have four children. One of their children is albino and the remaining three are normally pigmented. What is the probability that their next child will be albino. a. 0 % c. 75 % b. 25 % d. 100 % 6. Kathy's brother has cystic fibrosis. Her husband has no family history of cf. What is the chance that Kathy's child has inherited the sickle-cell allele? a. 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4 c. 2/3 x 1/4 = 1/6 b. 1/3 x 1/2 = 1/6 d. 2/3 x 1/2 = 1/3 7. The occurrence of affected individuals in every generation in a family suggests an ____ trait. a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. either dominant or recessive d. cannot be determined 8. Which of the following is an example of a dihybrid cross? a. AaBb x aabb c. aabb x AABB b. AaBb x AaBb d. aabb x aabb 9. Which of the following phenotypic results are expected from a dihybrid cross? a. 1:1:1:1 ratio b. 9:3:3:1 ratio c. all dominant for both traits d. all recessive for both traits 10. Mendel's law of ____ states that a random assortment of maternally and paternally derived chromosomes in meiosis results in gametes that have different combinations of these genes. a. particulate inheritance b. dominance c. segregation d. independent assortment 1. Mendel's idea that pairs of characters separate during gamete formation is called the law of c. segregation 2. The allele that masks the effects of the other is ____ and the masked allele is ____. c. dominant, recessive 3. A phenotype is ____ if it is the most common expression of a particular gene in a population. c. wildtype
4. What is the most common outcome in the F2 generation of a cross between a tall plant and a dwarf plant? a. 1 tall : 1 dwarf Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 9 of 24
4. What is the most common outcome in the F2 generation of a cross between a tall plant and a dwarf plant? b. 3 tall : 1 dwarf 5. Two carries of albinism have four children. One of their children is albino and the remaining three are normally pigmented. What is the probability that their next child will be albino. b. 25 % 6. Kathy's brother has cystic fibrosis. Her husband has no family history of cf. What is the chance that Kathy's child has inherited the sickle-cell allele? d. 2/3 x 1/2 = 1/3
7. The occurrence of affected individuals in every generation in a family suggests an ____ trait. a. autosomal dominant 8. Which of the following is an example of a dihybrid cross? b. AaBb x AaBb 9. Which of the following phenotypic results are expected from a dihybrid cross? b. 9:3:3:1 ratio 10. Mendel's law of ____ states that a random assortment of maternally and paternally derived chromosomes in meiosis results in gametes that have different combinations of these genes. d. independent assortment
Dr. Chihara's USF - Department of Biology, Genetics Class Online Study Quiz, page 1 http://www.usfca.edu/usf/study/study1.html 1. What is meant by a "reading frame" ? A. a substitution mutation B. deletions of three of more bases C. the place where the three bases begin the coding sequence D. the order in which the bases are read by the ribosome E. the order and polarity in which the bases are read by the ribosome 2. Vestigial wings in the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, are caused by a recessive gene, vg. In a cross between a female fly with vestigial wings and a heterozygous male fly with normal wings, the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios (respectively) of the offspring are: A. all Vgvg and all normal wings B. 3 Vgvg: 1 vgvg and 3 normal: 1 vestigial C. 1 Vgvg: 1 vgvg and 1 normal: 1 vestigial D. 3 vgvg: 1 Vgvg and 3 vestigial: 1 normal E. The ratios cannot be determined from the data given 3. In crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, the chance of getting a recessive phenotype in the next generation is: A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 100 percent E. 0 percent 4. A couple has three children, all of whom have blond hair and brown eyes. Both parents have brown eyes (BB), but one is a blond (Rr) and the other is a redhead (rr). What is the probability that the next child will be a brown-eyed redhead? A. 1/16 B. C. D. E. 1/8 ¼ ½ 1
5. Pea flowers may be purple (W) or white (w). Pea seeds may be round (R) or wrinkled (r). What proportion of the progeny from the cross WwRr x WwRr will have white flowers and wrinkled seeds? A. 1/16 B. 3/16 C. 8/16 D. 9/16 E. All of them 6. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What proportion of the progeny of the cross BbTt x Bbtt will have black fur and long tails? A. 1/16 B. 3/16 C. 6/16 D. 8/16 E. 9/16 7. Self-pollination in a plant that is heterozygous for two independently assorting genes will produce ________ phenotypes among the progeny. A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Eight 8. How many different kinds of gametes may be produced by an organism with the genotype rRYY? A. One
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B. C. D. E.
Two Three Four five
D. segregation. E. environmental influences. 15. Mutations were first understood and the term mutation was coined by: A. Jan Baptista van Helmont B. Charles Darwin C. Hugo de Vries. D. Gregor Mendel E. Louis Pasteur. 16. Consider a cross between two organisms both of which are heterozygous for both of two independently assorting allele pairs. What is the probable phenotypic ratio of their offspring? A. 1:1 D. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 B. 3:1 E. 9:3:3:1 C. 1:4:6:4:1 17. For a cross between a male and female that are both heterozygous for two pairs of alleles, a Punnett square will indicate that the offspring could be any one of.................. different genotypes. A. 16 D. 4 B. 9 E. 3 C. 7 18. An organism that consistently produces offspring that resemble itself with respect to a particular trait or traits is: A. true breeding B. heterozygous for the trait(s). C. self fertilizing D. not engaging in independent assortment. E. genetically impossible. F. pollinating itself 19. Parents heterozygous for two genes can produce progeny that are different in phenotype and genotype from themselves. This illustrates: A. a testcross for two traits B. the effects of crossbreeding. C. that dominance produces increased variability. D. the principle of independent assortment. E. that recessive alleles can be expressed in the heterozygous state. 20. Which of these exemplifies a testcross? A. AA x Aa B. Aa x Aa C. aa x aa D. Aa x aa E. Both a and d are testcrosses.
9. How many different kinds of gametes may be produced by an organism with the genotype RrYy? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. five 10. In peas, round seed shape (R) is dominant to wrinkled shape (r) and yellow seed color (Y) is dominant to green (y). If two plants of genotype RrYy are crossed, what proportion of the offspring would have round, yellow seeds? A. ¾ B. 9/16 C. 3/16 D. ¼ E. 1/16 11. In peas, round seed shape (R) is dominant to wrinkled shape (r) and yellow seed color (Y) is dominant to green (y). If two plants of genotype RrYy are crossed, what proportion of the offspring would have round, green seeds? A. ¾ B. 9/16 C. 3/16 D. ¼ E. 1/16 12. If two parents are doubly heterozygous (e.g., AaBb x AaBb) for genes governing different traits, what proportion of the offspring would exhibit both dominant traits? A. ¾ D. ¼ B. 9/16 E. 1/16 C. 3/16 13. In pea flowers, purple color (W) is dominant to white (w). When a heterozygous purple-flowered pea plant is crossed with a white-flowered pea plant the offspring are: A. all white B. all purple. C. half white and half purple. D. three purple and one white E. fourth purple
14. The ultimate source of variation within a population upon which natural selection can operate is: A. mutation. 21. Which genotype characterizes an organism B. recombination. that is heterozygous for two genes? C. independent assortment. A. RRYy D. RRyy Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 11 of 24
B. RrYY C. RRYY
22. The cross between a homozygous recessive individual and one of dominant phenotype, but whose genotype is unknown, is called a: A. cross-pollination. B. testcross. C. heterozygous cross. D. backcross. E. determination cross. 23. The genetic composition of an organism is known as its: A. gene pool. D. genotype. B. trait or characteristic. E. phenotype. C. allele. 24. An organism with two identical alleles for a given trait is: A. homozygous. D. unusually rare. B. segregating. E. a hermaphrodite. C. dominant. 25. A recessive allele is one that: A. is not present as often as a dominant allele. B. is expressed only in a homozygote. C. cannot be inherited from a heterozygote. D. depends upon a dominant partner for expression. E. can only be inherited from a homozygous parent. 26. Why did Mendel select only seven characters for study from the 32 types of plants he had available? A. Mendel did not want to make fine distinctions between differing phenotypes. B. Mendel's garden was too small to grow all 32 varieties. C. These seven varieties had the highest yields of seeds per plant. D. The others had patterns of inheritance that did not fit Mendel's theories. E. Only these seven varieties of plants would breed true for their characteristics. 27. When a true-breeding pea plant that has yellow seeds is pollinated by a plant that has green seeds, all of the F1 plants have yellow seeds. This means that the allele for yellow is: A. homozygous. B. dominant. C. true breeding D. present in both parents E. assorting independently.
28. Mendel's important genetic discoveries remained in obscurity for 35 years because: A. Mendel himself did not consider them important. B. he failed to get the results of his experiments published. C. other biologists failed to see the significance of his results. D. he never presented his results at a scientific meeting. E. a fire at the monastery destroyed all his original notes. 29. During the 35 years that Mendel's work remained in obscurity, great advances in __________ were being made that facilitated the ultimate interpretation of his work. A. evolutionary theory B. translating German papers into English C. plant physiology D. microscopy E. biochemistry 30. There were many reasons for Mendel's successful experiments. Which of the following was the MOST critical to the development of his principles of segregation and independent assortment? A. He studied the offspring of many species. B. He performed his experiments in an orderly and logical fashion. C. He recorded his procedures so that others could repeat and verify his findings. D. He chose an experimental organism that had many contrasting characters. E. He counted the offspring from his crosses and analyzed his results mathematically. 31. Mendel's principle of segregation was based on the separation of alleles during in the garden pea. A. pollination B. embryonic development C. seed formation D. flower development E. gamete formation 32. The garden pea was particularly well suited as Mendel's experimental organism because : A. it attracts a wide variety of beneficial insect pollinators. B. the structure of its flower prevents accidental crosspollination. C. male and female sexual structures are located in separate flowers. D. it had been widely studied by numerous other investigators. E. the peas from unsuccessful experiments can be eaten.
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33. Mendel's great contribution to the study of heredity was to show: A. that genes are carried on chromosomes. B. how the egg and sperm combine at fertilzation. C. that inherited characteristics behave as discrete factors. D. how pea plants can be artificially pollinated. E. that eggs and sperm carry different hereditary information. 34. To Charles Darwin, the concept of blending inheritance: A. explained the results of artificial selection. B. supported his ideas about evolution. C. provided a mechanism for natural selection. D. seemed to support the earlier ideas of the ovists. E. was unable to account for variation in populations. 35. What data from the nineteenth century began to cast doubt on the theories of the seventeenth century ovists and spermists? A. The mating of black and white animals produced gray animals. B. Natural selection worked equally on eggs and sperm. C. A cross between a donkey and a horse produced a sterile mule. D. Date palms were artificially fertilized for the first time. E. Egg-bearing and pollen-bearing plants contributed equally to the next generation. 36. Spermists and ovists of the seventeenth century argued over the: A. relative contribution of male and female gametes to the offspring. B. relative importance of semen and menstrual fluids in heredity. C. genetic differences of male and female gametes. D. mechanism by which sperm and egg unite at fertilization. importance of the influence of the female's womb to the characteristics of the offspring. 37. According to many Russian and Scandinavian folk legends: A. the giraffe was a sacred beast derived from mating a camel and a leopard. B. the strength of certain folk heroes came from a father who was a bear. C. mules could not breed because man had sinned in crossing two different kinds of animals.
D. minotaurs were once common in Europe and Asia. E. all parts of the body produce seeds that are passed on to the next generation. 38. Walter Sutton's observations of meiosis in grasshopper testes led him to propose that: A. meiosis takes place by a different mechanism in males than in females. B. Mendel's Elemente are located on chromosomes. C. genes have a number of different forms called alleles. D. meiosis II is identical to mitosis. E. Mendel's laws do not have a physical basis in the movement of chromosomes during meiosis. 39. Walter Sutton realized the significance of Mendel's principle of segregation when he observed that: A. chromosomes are paired in meiotic cells. B. crossing over takes place during the early stages of meiosis. C. each of two homologues has a slightly different shape. D. nonhomologous chromosomes differ with respect to size and shape. E. chromosomes appear in the form of a tetrad before separating. 40. The cellular mechanism underlying Mendel's principle of segregation was revealed by: A. the abbot of Mendel's monastery. B. the Natural History Society of Brunn. C. a German biochemist. D. an American graduate student. E. a Dutch botanist. 41. The pairing of maternal and paternal homologous chromosomes takes place during: A. metaphase I. D. DNA synthesis. B. anaphase II. E. G2 phase. C. synapsis. 42. The phenomenon of crossing over is indicated by the presence of _________ during _________ of meiosis. A. chromatin; prophase I B. chiasmata; prophase I C. chromatids; prophase II D. chromomeres; prophase II E. tetrads; metaphase I 43. Prior to meiosis, chromosomes are replicated during: A. prophase I. D. G2 phase B. interphase. E. M phase. C. G1 phase. 44. In an organism, if the normal diploid number of chromosomes is 8, how many
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CHROMATIDS are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I ? A. 2 D. 16 B. 4 E. 32 C. 8 45. Which event does NOT occur during or immediately following telophase II ? A. A nuclear envelope forms around each nucleus. B. In plants, cell walls form to separate haploid nuclei. C. The chromosomes condense again and become visible under the light microscope as discrete units. D. Spindle microtubules disappear. E. Cytokinesis occurs as it does following mitosis. 46. Depending on the species, which event does NOT occur between meiosis I and meiosis II? A. centriole replication B. chromosome replication C. nuclear envelope formation D. cytokinesis E. interphase II 47. Which of the following phases is NOT present in some species undergoing meiosis? A. anaphase II D. metaphase II B. prophase I E. interphase II C. interphase I 48. In metaphase I of meiosis, chromosomes are: A. engaged in crossing over. B. distributed randomly within the nucleus. C. dispersed in the form of chromatin. D. beginning to migrate to opposite poles of the cell. E. grouped by homologous pairs along the equator. 49. Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes at their: A. telomeres. D. centrioles. B. chromomeres. E. centromeres. C. kinetochores. 50. A tetrad consists of: A. four nonhomologous chromatids. B. four nonhomologous chromosomes. C. two homologous chromosomes, each with two chromatids. D. four homologous pairs of chromosomes. E. two homologous pairs of chromosomes. 51. Genetic recombination takes place during meiosis by a mechanism called: A. crossing over. D. chiasmata.
B. synapsis. formation. C. replication.
52. Which statement does NOT represent an important difference between mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis can occur in haploid cells whereas meiosis cannot. B. Nuclei produced by meiosis contain new combinations of chromosomes; those produced by mitosis are identical. C. In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate twice, whereas they only replicate once in mitosis D. Meiosis produces four cells; mitosis produces only two E. Nuclei produced by meiosis contain the haploid number of chromosomes; those produced by mitosis contain the diploid number. 53. A single meiotic sequence yields _________ cells as does a single mitotic sequence. A. the same number of B. four times as many C. twice as many D. half the number of E. Meiosis and mitosis cannot be compared in this way. 54. For every 100,000 sperm produced by a human male, how many primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis? A. 25.000 D. 200.000 B. 50.000 E. 400.000 C. 100.000 55. During the second meiotic division in human females, a secondary oocyte divides to produce: A. two ova. B. two polar bodies. C. four ova. D. one ovum and one polar body. E. one ovum and three polar bodies. 56. The process in which a haploid life phase is followed by a diploid life phase is known as: A. the cell cycle. B. mitosis. C. alternation of generations. D. meiosis. E. sexual reproduction. 57. When two chromosomes resemble each other in size, shape, and the kinds of hereditary information carried, they are said to be: A. homozygous. B. diploid. C. homologous. D. somatic. E. a tetrad.
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58. Each sperm cell of a horse contains 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of the horse's somatic cells? A. 8 D. 64 B. 16 E. 128 C. 32 59. An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction: A. produces identical offspring. B. allows for less crossing over. C. requires only one nuclear division. D. requires a great expenditure of energy. E. provides genetic variation in the offspring. 60. The giant salivary gland chromosomes of Drosophila result from: A. numerous DNA replications without the expected meiotic division. B. a single DNA replication followed by several mitotic divisions. C. a number of translocations involving the same homologous pair of chromosomes. D. an unlimited amount of crossing over during meiosis. E. repeated DNA replications without separation of daughter chromosomes. 61. The process by which a chromosome segment becomes attached to a nonhomologous chromosome is known as: A. deletion. D. inversion. B. translocation. E. duplication. C. segment transfer. 62. During early prophase I of meiosis in a human spermatocyte, a scientist discovers 1 pair of sex chromosomes, 21 homologous chromosome pairs, 1 unmatched normal chromosome, and 2 chromosomal fragments. The scientist should suspect that a(n) _________ has occurred. A. crossover D. translocation B. duplication E. inversion C. deletion 63. In humans, Drosophila, and grasshoppers, the male is the _________ sex. A. homozygous D. heterogametic B. homogametic E. autosomal C. heterozygous 64. In birds, butterflies, moths, and a few other species, the female is the _________ sex. A. heterogametic D. homologous B. heterozygous E. homogametic C. autosomal
65. When Morgan crossed a heterozygous redeyed female Drosophila with a white-eyed male, what (approximate) phenotypic ratio occurred in the offspring? A. 3:1; red to one white B. 3:1; white to red C. 1:1:1:1; red males, white males, red females, white females D. 1:1 red eyed males to white eye females 1:1 white eyed males to red eyed females 66. When Morgan crossed a homozygous redeyed female Drosophila with a white-eyed male, what (approximate) phenotypic ratio occurred in the offspring? A. 3:1; red to white B. 3:1; white to red C. 1:1:1:1; red males, white males, red females, white females D. 1:1 red to white males and females E. all red eyed males and females 67. When Morgan crossed a heterozygous redeyed female Drosophila with a white-eyed male, what (approximate) phenotypic ratio occurred in the offspring ? A. 1:2:1; re D. eyed males to white B. 3:1; re E. eyed males C. 1:1:1:1; re 68. Morgan crossed a white-eyed male Drosophila with a red-eyed female and obtained red-eyed males and females in the F1 generation. When these were crossed, the F2 generation contained white-eyed males, but no white-eyed females. Why? A. The expression of white eye color is limited to males. B. The gene for white eyes is lethal in females. C. The gene for white eyes is autosomal. D. The gene for white eyes is on the Y chromosome. E. The gene for white eyes is on the X chromosome. 69. In an organism, all but two chromosomes exist as homologous pairs whose members are similar in structure and appearance. The two dissimilar chromosomes are referred to as: A. dischromatin. B. autosomes. C. sex chromosomes. D. heterosomes. E. nonhomologous chromosomes. 70. When referring to alleles on sex chromosomes, members of the _________ sex are said to be _________ . A. heterogametic; hemizygous B. homogametic; hemizygous
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C. heterogametic; homozygous D. homogametic; heterozygous E. heterogametic; heterozygous 71. The phenomenon in which a red-flowered snapdragon and a white-flowered snapdragon produce only pink-flowered offspring is called: A. dominance. B. epistasis. C. recessiveness. D. blending inheritance. E. incomplete dominance. 72. A man with type A blood marries a woman with type B blood. If both parents are homozygous, their offspring will have type _____ blood, which is an example of _____. A. AB; codominance B. A; dominance of A over B C. B; dominance of B over A D. AB; incomplete dominance E. O; recessiveness 73. In a population expressing five different alleles for a particular gene, how many alleles may be present in each diploid organism in the population? A. one D. four B. two E. five C. three 74. When heterozygous pink snapdragons are allowed to selfpollinate, the red and white characteristics sort themselves out: A. so that the F2 plants are all white. B. so that the F2 plants are all red. C. proving that alleles remain discrete and unaltered in the heterozygous state. D. proving that these genes were not on the same pair of homologous chromosomes. E. demonstrating that blending inheritance is fundamentally true. 75. Complementation testing allows one to determine which of the following? A. If two mutations affect the same trait. B. If two mutations affect the same protein. C. If two mutations affect the same cistron. D. If two mutations occur in the same gene. E. both c and d are true.
B. C. D. E.
chinchilla and Himalayan; 1:1 Himalayan and albino; 1:1 agouti and chinchilla; 3:1 agouti and chinchilla; 1:1
77. In chickens, comb shape is determined by the interaction of two genes, R and P. Phenotypes and corresponding genotypes are single (rrpp), rose (R-pp), pea (rrP-), and walnut (R-P-). (A blank indicates either the dominant or the recessive allele.) If a hen and a rooster, both of which are heterozygous for both genes, are mated, the offspring will have _________ combs in a ratio of _________ . A. only rose and pea; 1:1 B. walnut, rose, and pea; 1:1:1 C. walnut, rose, pea, and single; 1:1:1:1 D. walnut, rose, pea, and single; 9:3:3:1 E. walnut and single; 9:7 78. The 9:7 phenotypic ratio is a modification of the basic _________ ratio. A. 3:1 D. 9:3:3:1 B. 1:1 E.1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 C. 1:2:1 79. Flower color in sweet peas is determined by the epistatic interaction of two genes, C and P. The genotypes CCpp and ccPP both produce white flowers. Purple flowers occur when one dominant allele of each gene is present. If two white flowering plants (one of each genotype) are crossed, what phenotype(s) and genotype(s) would occur in the offspring. A. all white; ccpp B. all purple; CCPP C. purple and white; CcPp and ccpp in a 1:1 ratio D. purple and white; CcPp and ccpp in a 3:1 ratio E. all purple; CcPp 80. It is possible to prevent a plant from turning green by growing it in the dark. This case illustrates: A. variable expressivity. B. variable penetrance. C. variable epistasis. D. the appearance of novel phenotypes. E. the effect of environment on phenotypic expression.
81. In the water buttercup, the difference in 76. In rabbits, agouti coat color (C) is dominant the form and physiology of the leaves above to chinchilla (cch), which is dominant to the water and those below the water is an Himalayan (ch), which is dominant to albino example of: (c). If two rabbits, each heterozygous for A. epistasis. agouti and chinchilla, are mated, the B. the appearance of a novel phenotype. progeny will be _________ in a ratio of C. the effect of the environment on the _________ . expression of phenotype. A. agouti and albino; 3:1 D. interacting homologous alleles. Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 16 of 24
E. the interaction between two different genes. 82. Polydactyly is a condition caused by a dominant gene in which people have extra fingers and/or toes. Some people with this gene may only have an extra digit on one foot or one hand. This is an example of: A. variable expressivity. B. variable penetrance. C. variable epistasis. D. the appearance of novel phenotypes. E. the effect of environment on phenotypic expression. 83. In a group of 100 women with the genotype for widow's peak in the hairline, only 87 actually exhibited the trait. This is an example of: A. variable expressivity. B. variable penetrance. C. variable epistasis. D. the appearance of novel phenotypes. E. the effect of environment on phenotypic expression. 84. Which of these traits is LEAST likely to be controlled by polygenic inheritance? A. skin color in humans B. weight in pumpkins C. the number of leaves on a tree D. body size in collie dogs E. red, white, and pink flower color in snapdragons 85. The fact that white-eyed fruit flies have a higher mortality rate than do red-eyed flies is attributable to what feature of the whiteeyed allele? A. epistasis B. pleiotropy C. recombination D. polygenic inheritance E. environmental interactions 86. Genes that do NOT obey Mendel's law of independent assortment are probably: A. closely linked on a single chromosome. B. widely spaced on a single chromosome. C. on different members of a homologous pair. D. limited to the sex chromosomes. E. not to be found in eukaryotes. 87. The diploid number of chromosomes in Drosophila is eight. The number of linkage groups is therefore: A. Two D. Twelve B. Four E. Sixteen C. Eight
A. B. C. D. E.
pleiotropy. penetrance. crossing over. epistasis. continuous variation.
89. The exact locations of genes on chromosomes are known as: A. loci. D. chromomeres. B. chiasmata. E. centromeres. C. alleles. 90. Chemical analysis of eukaryotic chromosomes indicated that they consist of: A. ribonucleic acid. B. protein. C. carbohydrate. D. deoxyribonucleic acid and protein. E. carbohydrate and protein. 91. DNA was first isolated in 1869 by: A. Robert Feulgen. B. James Watson. C. Erwin Chargaff. D. Linus Pauling. E. Friedrich Miescher. 92. The phenomenon of transformation was discovered in 1928 by: A. James Watson. D. Erwin Chargaff. B. Francis Crick. E. Frederick Griffith. C. O. T. Avery. 93. During Griffith's experiments with pneumococci, _________ bacteria were "transformed" into _________ bacteria. A. living nonvirulent; living virulent B. living nonvirulent; heat-killed virulent C. heat-killed virulent; living nonvirulent D. heat-killed nonvirulent; living nonvirulent E. living virulent; heat-killed nonvirulent 94. In 1943 _________ demonstrated that the transforming factor in Griffith's experiments was _________ . A. O. T. Avery; protein B. Francis Crick; RNA C. Frederick Griffith; DNA D. Francis Crick; protein E. O. T. Avery; DNA 95. The purpose of Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae was to: A. discover the identity of the transforming factor. B. prove that DNA is the genetic material. C. show that virulence in bacteria is an inherited trait. D. find out whether heat-killed virulent pneumococci could be used to immunize patients.
88. Alleles of different genes that are on the same chromosome may occasionally be separated by a phenomenon known as: Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 17 of 24
E. completely characterize the differences between virulent and nonvirulent strains. 96. Experiments performed by O. T. Avery and coworkers in 1943 indicated that __________ was the transforming factor of Griffith's experiments and therefore was likely to be the genetic material. A. DNA B. Protein C. RNA D. a combination of DNA and protein E. a combination of DNA and RNA 97. All of these are characteristics of T-even bacteriophages that make them well-suited for genetic studies EXCEPT one. Identify the exception. A. They consist only of DNA and protein. B. They can infect a wide variety of bacteria. C. Their life cycle is 25 minutes long. D. One hundred or more virus particles may be formed in a single bacterium. E. They have a definitive structure as seen with the electron microscope. 98. In the experiments of Hershey and Chase, bacteriophage DNA was labeled with __________ and bacteriophage protein was labeled with _________ . A. 35S; 32P D. 14C; 35S B. 14C; 32P E. 32P; 35S C. 32P; 14C 99. Hershey and Chase concluded from their experiments that DNA rather than protein carries the hereditary message in T-even bacteriophages, because: A. once inside the cell, the protein was inactivated. B. progeny virus particles inside the cell contained Sulfur. C. the protein has too few amino acids to carry the amount of information. D. only DNA, and not protein, was injected into the bacterial cells. E. the new generation of virus particles contained only DNA and no protein. 100. In order for DNA to be established as the genetic material, it had to possess the capacity for four activities. Which of the following is NOT one of these four activities? A. transformation B. replication C. mutation D. chemical stability E. transmission of information from parent cell to daughter cell
The subunits that constitute the backbones of a DNA molecule (rails in the ladder analogy) are held together by: A. hydrogen bonds between base pairs. B. covalent bonds between sugar molecules and nitrogenous bases. C. covalent bonds between phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases. D. hydrogen bonds between adjacent nucleotides. E. covalent bonds between sugar molecules and phosphate groups. In the ladder analogy of DNA structure, the rungs of the ladder are: A. phosphate groups. B. paired nitrogenous bases. C. deoxyribose sugar molecules. D. hydrogen bonds E. alternating sugar molecules and phosphate groups. While assembling their model of DNA, Watson and Crick noticed that the structure of DNA allows a great deal of _________, making it suitable as the carrier of genetic information. A. wobble D. flexibility B. variability E. uniformity C. ambiguity The fact that a phosphate group attaches to the _________ carbon of one sugar and to the _________ carbon of the next sugar gives the DNA strand a linear directionality. A. 3'; 1' D. 4'; 5' B. 1'; 5' E. 3'; 4' C. 3'; 5' The nitrogenous bases _________ contain two nitrogenous rings and are known as . A. adenine and thymine; purines B. guanine and thymine; pyrimidines C. cytosine and adenine; pyrimidines D. adenine and guanine; purines E. thymine and cytosine; pyrimidines Given the following nucleotide sequence, find the correct complementary strand. 5'-CATTAGATCG-3' A. 5'-CGATCTAATG-3' B. 3'-TGCCGAGCTA-5' C. 3'-GTAATCTAGC-5' D. 5'-ACGGCTCGAT-3' E. 3'-CATTAGATCG-5' A purine and a pyrimidine that are capable of hydrogen bonding to form the "rung structure" of DNA are said to be: A. antiparallel. D. conjugating. B. complementary. E. heterozygous.
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C. semiconservative. 108. Since the 5' to 3' direction of one strand of the DNA molecule is opposite to that of the other, the strands are said to be: A. complementary. D. semiconservative. B. homologous. E. nonparallel. C. antiparallel. Which factor was NOT accounted for in the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure? A. semiconservative replication B. the base ratios found by Chargaff C. Levene's repeating units of four bases D. the long, thin nature of the DNA strand E. the helical arrangement suggested by Pauling DNA replication occurs during _________ of the cell cycle. A. G1 phase D. prophase B. S phase E. meiosis I C. G2 phase The specific nucleotide sequence at which DNA replication is initiated is known as the: A. primer D. leading strand. B. replication fork E. Okazaki fragment C. origin of replication. The function of single-strand binding proteins in DNA replication is to: A. break the hydrogen bonds linking complementary bases. B. prevent the replication fork from unwinding too fast. C. hold the unwound single strands apart so they do not kink. D. attach to the lagging strand so that it does not get too far behind. E. break and reconnect one or both strands of the helix so that the strain on the molecule can be relieved. The site on a replicating DNA molecule at which the old strands are being separated is known as the: A. Y piece D. lagging strand. B. Okazaki fragment. E. replication fork. C. leading strand.
D. blueprint; double helix E. template; complementary strand 115. The elegant series of experiments using N (heavy nitrogen) to confirm the semiconservative replication of DNA was carried out by: A. Watson and Crick. B. Wilkins and Franklin. C. Meselson and Stahl. D. Mirsky and Chargaff. E. Hershey and Chase.
Why was cesium chloride (CsCl) used to generate the density gradient in the experiments of Meselson and Stahl? A. It is dense enough for DNA to float on its surface. B. Its density range includes that of DNA. C. It forms a natural gradient without centrifugation. D. It is less expensive that sodium chloride (NaCl). E. It has no particular significance, other than its ready availability. The enzymes that break the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs during DNA replication are: A. helicases. B. DNA polymerases C. RNA polymerases. D. topoisomerases. E. exonucleases. In the experiments to identify the mechanism by which DNA replicates, the DNA of E. coli was labeled with 15N (heavy nitrogen). The cells were then allowed to undergo one replication in a medium containing 14N (light nitrogen, the most common isotope). When the progeny DNA was isolated and centrifuged in a density gradient, the experimenters found: A. a single band of heavy DNA. B. a single band of light DNA. C. a single band of DNA intermediate between heavy and light DNA. D. two bands of DNA, one heavy and one light. E. three bands of DNA, one heavy, one intermediate, and one light. The enzymes that actually catalyze the synthesis of a new DNA strand are called: A. helicases. B. DNA polymerases. C. RNA polymerases. D. topoisomerases. E. exonucleases.
During DNA replication, each strand acts as a _________ since it serves as a pattern for the generation of a new _________ . A. replicate; complementary strand 120. Which of these events is NOT an B. template; identical strand activity of DNA polymerase during DNA C. master; double helix replication? Lesson Plan - heredity in living things – By : Agus Joko Sungkono – SMPN 1 Mejayan - Page 19 of 24
A. continuous 5' to 3' DNA synthesis of the leading strand B. discontinuous 5' to 3' DNA synthesis of the lagging strands 121. In DNA synthesis, the beginning of a new strand of DNA requires the activity of the enzyme: A. DNA polymerase. D. RNA primase B. DNA replicase E. topoisomerase. C. RNA polymerase. During DNA replication, synthesis of the lagging strand is discontinuous and forms short segments of DNA known as: A. primer fragments. B. Okazaki fragments C. replication forks. D. theta structures E. replication bubbles. What happens to the RNA primers that are essential for initiation of DNA replication? A. The RNA nucleotides are replaced by DNA nucleotides. B. The pieces of primer become a permanent part of the DNA molecule. C. RNA primase removes each primer, which is then replaced with a DNA primer. D. When the RNA primers are removed, they become known as Okazaki fragments. E. The RNA primers remain in the DNA and serve the same function generation after generation of DNA replication. The energy that is needed during the synthesis of DNA is provided by: A. the unwinding of the parental DNA molecule. B. hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate from the incoming nucleotide triphosphate. C. DNA polymerase. D. hydrolysis of the energy-rich bond of the P~P removed from the incoming nucleotide triphosphate. E. ATP molecules that are cleaved each time a nucleotide is added to DNA. In 1953, Watson and Crick speculated that the hereditary information is contained in what feature of DNA? A. the sequence of nitrogenous bases B. the hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases C. the alpha helical structure D. the antiparallel nature of the strands E. sugar backbone of the strands
C. 3' to 5' proofreading and 5' to 3' correction of errors D. 5' to 3' synthesis of RNA primer E. 3' to 5' exonuclease activity 126. Beadle and Tatum proposed the one gene-one enzyme concept. In its original form, this hypothesis stated that: A. one DNA molecule contains the information to make one enzyme. B. a given sequence of DNA nucleotides contains the information to make one enzyme. C. each gene contains the information to make not only one enzyme, but also one lipid and one carbohydrate as well D. each gene is actually an enzyme that catalyzes the production of one protein. E. each polypeptide is the result of the activity of one enzyme. Neurospora crassa is a good experimental organism for genetic studies because it can be grown on a minimal medium consisting of: A. biotin, sugar, and minerals. B. glucose, and minerals. C. arginine and glucose. D. nucleic acids and minerals. E. a few B vitamins Ribosomes are composed of: proteins and RNA RNA and DNA. DNA and carbohydrates. carbohydrates and lipids. phospholipids and proteins.
128. A. B. C. D. E. 129.
The sugar in RNA molecules is _________, whereas the sugar in DNA molecules is _________ . A. deoxyribose; ribose B. fructose; sucrose C. lactose; deoxylactose D. ribose; deoxyribose E. sucrose; fructose RNA molecules usually exist as _________ strands, whereas DNA molecules usually exist as _________ strands. A. triple; single D. single; triple B. double; triple E. single; double C. double; single The nucleotide _________ is found only in DNA, whereas _________ is found only in RNA. A. adenosine; uracil D. guanine; cytosine B. cytosine; guanine E. thymine; uracil C. thymine; adenosine
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One difference between DNA and RNA is that RNA contains: A. uracil instead of thymine. B. thymine instead of uracil. C. uracil instead of adenine. D. deoxyribose instead of ribose. E. uracil and ribose instead of thymine and deoxyribose. Francis Crick proposed the "central dogma" of molecular genetics and stated that the normal flow of information is DNA to RNA to protein. We now know that in some viruses, information may flow from: A. DNA directly to protein B. protein to DNA to RNA. C. RNA to protein to DNA. D. protein to RNA. E. RNA to DNA. RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in the process of _________, which utilizes the enzyme _________ A. transcription; DNA polymerase B. translation; RNA polymerase C. reverse transcription; reverse transcriptase D. transcription; RNA polymerase E. translation; DNA polymerase The RNA molecules that are transcribed from DNA and carry the information to code for polypeptides are known as: A. hRNA. D. sRNA. B. mRNA. E. tRNA. C. rRNA. The RNA molecule produced during transcription is ________ to the DNA template and is synthesized in the _________ direction. A. parallel; 5' to 3' B. parallel; 3' to 5' C. antiparallel; 5' to 3' D. antiparallel; 3' to 5' E. complementary; 3' to 5' Given the template DNA sequence, (3')TACATGTTCCAGCCTACT-(5'), which of the following is its complementary mRNA strand? A. (5')-ATGTACAAGGTCGGATGA-(3') B. (3')-AGTAGGCTGGAACATAGT-(5') C. (5')-TACATGTTCCAGCCTACT-(3') D. (3')-AGUAGGCUGGAACAUGUA-(5') E. (5')-AUGUACAAGGUCGGAUGA-(3') The sequence of three nucleotides in an mRNA molecule that codes for a specific amino acid is the _________ , and the complementary sequence on the tRNA molecule is the ______ . A. codon; anticodon B. promoter; terminator
C. terminator; codon D. anticodon; promoter E. anticodon; codon 139. Proteins contain _________ different amino acids whereas DNA and RNA are each composed of __________ different nucleotides. A. 64; 20 D. 20; 4 B. 20; 64 E. 4; 20 C. 4; 64 Since there is more than one codon for many of the amino acids, the genetic code is said to be: A. degenerate. D. multifaceted B. regenerate. E. transgenerate. C. trigenerate. Of the 64 possible triplet nucleotide combinations, _______ code for amino acids and _________ are translation stop signals. A. 20; 44 D. 44; 20 B. 3; 61 E. 32; 32 C. 61; 3 The substitution of one nucleotide for another is known as a(n) __________ mutation. A. insertion D. frame shift B. deletion E. somatic C. point
143. Which statement is true of mutations? A. Mutations involve only changes in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. B. Mutations in somatic cells are transmitted to future generations C. Frameshifts do no damage to proteins D. Some point mutations do not alter a protein's primary structure. E. Point mutations involve the deletion or addition of nucleotides within a gene. 144. How many amino acids are incorporated into a polypeptide when the artificial mRNA poly-AG is used? A. One D. Four B. Two E. Five C. Three There are specific nucleotide sequences in DNA that represent the start site and the stop site for transcription. These are known, respectively, as: A. elongators and initiators. B. terminators and elongators C. promoters and initiators. D. initiators and terminators. E. promoters and terminators.
RPP IPA BIOLOGI – SMPN 1 MEJAYAN – Oleh : Agus Joko Sungkono, S.Pd
Once transcription has been completed, which component is NOT necessary for protein synthesis to proceed? A. mRNA D. tRNA B. DNA E. amino acids C. ribosomes How many different strands of RNA are found in prokaryotic ribosomes? A. One D. Four B. Two E. Five C. Three At least _____ different types of transfer RNA are found in a given prokaryotic cell. A. 5 D. 20 B. 10 E. 25 C. 15 Amino acids are carried to the site of protein synthesis by: A. hnRNA. D. tRNA B. mRNA. E. rRNA C. snRNA. Which site of a tRNA molecule hydrogen bonds to the mRNA molecule? A. codon B. anticodon C. 5' end of the tRNA molecule D. 3' end of the tRNA molecule E. any of the three loops of the "cloverleaf" The process by which proteins are synthesized is known as: A. replication. D. translation. B. transcription. E. conversion. C. transformation. The stage of translation during which the small subunit of the ribosome attaches to the mRNA near its 5' end is known as: A. promotion. D. frameshifting. B. initiation. E. termination C. elongation. Which of the following is NOT part of the initiation complex? A. small ribosomal subunit B. mRNA C. Met tRNA D. initiator codon, (5')-AUG-(3') E. All of these are components of the initiation complex. Which structure is composed of a single mRNA molecule that is being translated simultaneously by many ribosomes? A. termination complex D. glycosome B. polysome E. multisome C. peptidyl transferase
Which of the following does NOT occur in the termination phase of translation? A. A termination codon moves into the A site. B. The "new" polypeptide is freed. C. A tRNA with the next amino acid enters the P site. D. The two ribosomal subunits separate. E. Translation stops. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chromosome replication in E. coli? A. The type of replication is known as theta replication. B. There are multiple origins of replication. C. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' ends of the leading strand and the Okazaki fragments. D. There are two replication forks. E. All of these are characteristics of DNA replication in E. coli. An E. coli cell is capable of making at least __________ enzymes and other proteins. A. 425 D. 2550 B. 850 E. 3400 C. 1700 How much of the mRNA strand remains hydrogen-bonded to the DNA template at any one time during transcription? A. 3 to 4 nucleotides B. 6 to 8 nucleotides C. 10 to 12 nucleotides D. 14 to 16 nucleotides E. 20 to 25 nucleotides According to current evidence, what is the function of the leader portion of an E. coli mRNA molecule? A. It assists in binding the mRNA to the ribosome. B. It contains the start codon that initiates translation. C. It assists in binding the mRNA to the endoplasmic reticulum. D. It binds to the trailer sequence of another mRNA, forming a multigene mRNA molecule. E. Scientists have no clue at this time about the function of the leader. Beta-galactosidase is classified as an inducible enzyme because: A. beta galactosidase is produced only when the cell is induced to divide. B. in the presence of lactose, more beta galactose is produced. C. when the enzyme is present, the quantity of lactose in the cell increases. 22
RPP IPA BIOLOGI – SMPN 1 MEJAYAN – Oleh : Agus Joko Sungkono, S.Pd
D. it is always present in an inactive form and only becomes operational in the presence of lactose. E. it induces glucose to undergo a conformational change to become lactose. 161. When the production of an enzyme is inhibited by a product of the reaction it catalyzes, that enzyme is said to be: A. repressible. D. inducible. B. inactivated. E. responsive C. activated. The regulatory region or sequence that lies between, and may overlap either or both, the promoter and the structural genes of an operon is the: A. regulator. D. repressor. B. operator. E. inducer. C. activator. In bacteria, genes coding for proteins with related functions are grouped into units called: A. regulators. D. operons. B. operators. E. inducers. C. activators. The molecule that is produced by a regulatory gene and binds to the operator of an operon is the: A. regulator. D. repressor. B. inducer. E. inhibitor. C. activator. Jacob and Monod won the 1965 Nobel Prize for proposing the __________ model of gene regulation and organization in prokaryotes. A. operon D. operator B. repressible E. regulator C. inducible The molecule that can, depending upon the operon, either activate or inactivate the repressor is the: A. inducer D. activator. B. effector. E. coenzyme C. operator. The allosteric effectors allolactose and tryptophan exert their effects on target operons by: A. binding to cyclic AMP. B. binding to the catabolite activator protein (CAP). C. interacting with the promoter region of the operon. D. causing a change in the configuration of the repressor molecule.
E. causing a change in the configuration of the operator. 168. One protein that exerts a positive control on the lac operon (and many other operons as well) is _______ . This protein forms a complex with __________ , which then binds to the promoter. A. CAP; glucose D. COS; glucose B. COS; cAMP E. CAP; cAMP C. CAT; ATP of A. B. C. 170. Which of the following is the mediator the positive control of the lac operon? glucose D. ATP allolactose E. CAP-cAMP lactose
In a bacterial cell, a relatively small, self-replicating, circular DNA molecule that is separate from the chromosome is a(n): A. episome. D. prophage. B. plasmid. E. capsid. C. pilus. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids? A. They can move into and out of the bacterial chromosome. B. They are circular and self replicating. C. They are equal in size to the bacterial chromosome. D. They can replicate both synchronously as well as asynchronously with the bacterial chromosome. E. They are passed from the parent bacterial cell to daughter cells. Theoretically a copy of the entire E. coli Hfr donor chromosome can pass into an F_ recipient cell in about _____ minutes. A. 25 D. 90 B. 45 E. 120 C. 75 The process by which extrachromosomal DNA is transferred between bacterial cells via direct cell-tocell contact is known as: A. transduction. D. conjugation. B. transformation. E. conversion. C. conformation. A bacterial cell that contains an F plasmid is called an ________ cell, and a cell that has incorporated the F plasmid into its chromosome is called an ________ cell. A. F+; Hfr D. F-; Hfr B. Hfr; F E. F+; FC. F ; F+ 23
RPP IPA BIOLOGI – SMPN 1 MEJAYAN – Oleh : Agus Joko Sungkono, S.Pd
In a Punnett square, the information at the head of each column is: A. parental phenotype. D. type of gamete. B. sex of parent. E. progeny genotype C. parental genotype. In anaphase I of meiosis, _________ are separated: in anaphase II of meiosis, _________ are separated. A. homologous chromosomes; nonhomologous chromosomes B. nonhomologous chromosomes; homologous chromosomes C. sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes D. homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids E. sister chromosomes; homologous chromatids
RPP IPA BIOLOGI – SMPN 1 MEJAYAN – Oleh : Agus Joko Sungkono, S.Pd
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