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Fully developed, laminar flow of a viscous fluid (µ = 2.17 N·s/m2) flows between horizontal parallel plates 1-m long that are spaced 3.0-mm apart. The pressure drop is 1.25 kPa. Determine the volumetric flow rate (per unit width) through the channel (in m3/s m).

Approach:

Pressure drop can be calculated for this non-circular duct with the combination of Eq. 9-31 and Eq. 9-32 and using the hydraulic diameter. The velocity is unknown; once it is determined the volume flow rate can be calculated. We need to evaluate the friction factor. We combine all the expressions and solve for velocity.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady.

Solution:

A HW or per unit width V W = V . Pressure drop can be calculated using the H Volume flow rate is V = V x = V hydraulic diameter: ∆P L V2 = hL = f ρg Dh 2 g

For fully develop laminar flow between infinite parallel plates, f = 96 Re = 96 µ ρ V h . Substituting this into D the pressure drop equation, simplifying, solving for the average velocity V: 2 2 Dh ∆P V = 96µ L The hydraulic diameter with W → ∞ , Dh = 4 Ax pwetted = 4 HW ⎡ 2 ( H + W ) ⎤ = 2 H = 2 ( 0.003m ) =0.006m ⎣ ⎦

V = 2 ( 0.006m ) (1.25 kN m 2 ) (1000 N kN )

2

96 ( 2.17 Ns m

2

) (1m )

=0.000432

m s

V = V = VHW A V m⎞ m2 m3 ⎛ = V = ⎜ 0.000432 ⎟ ( 0.006m ) =2.59×10-6 =2.59×10-6 H W s ⎠ s ms ⎝

Answer

9- 1

9-2

Journal bearings are constructed with concentric cylinders with a very small gap between the two cylinders; the gap is filled with oil. Because of the very small gap, the flow in the gap is laminar. Consider a sealed journal bearing with inner and outer diameters of 50- and 51-mm, respectively, and a length of 75 mm. The shaft (inner cylinder) rotates at 3000 RPM. At start-up the torque needed to turn the shaft is 0.25 N-m. Determine the viscosity of the oil (in N·s/m2). After an hour of operation will the torque have increased or decreased? Explain.

Approach:

Because the gap is small compared to the diameter, we can analyze the flow as if it were between infinite parallel plates. Viscosity is defined with Newton’s law of viscosity, Eq. 9-2.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: dV τ =µ dy Because we can analyze this flow as between infinite parallel plates, we know that with the inner shaft rotating and the outer shaft stationary, the velocity profile is linear, so the velocity gradient is; τ ( r2 − r1 ) V τ =µ µ= → r2 − r1 V Velocity is V = r1ω . Torque is ℑ = Fr1 = τ Ar1 . Substituting these expressions into the shear stress equation and solving for visocity: ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) µ= = = 2 2 Ar1 ω ( 2π r1 L ) r1 ω 2π Lr13ω

=

( 0.25 N m )( 0.0255m-0.025m )( 60s 1min ) Ns =0.054 2 3 m 2π ( 0.025m ) ( 0.075m )( 3000 rev min )( 2π rad rev )

Answer

Comments:

After an hour of operation, torque will decrease. Assuming that the bearing has little heat loss, the viscous friction will raise the oil temperature. Because viscosity for a liquid decreases with increasing temperature, torque will decrease with time.

9- 2

9-3

Consider laminar water flow at 20 °C between two very large horizontal plates. The lower plate is stationary and the upper plate moves to the right at a velocity of 0.25 m/s. For a plate spacing of 2 mm, determine the pressure gradient and its direction required to produce zero net flow at a cross section.

Approach:

Because the plates are very large, we assume the flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. For this flow, we can perform an analysis similar to what was done in Section 9.3 for flow in a circular tube to find the relationship between flow and pressure gradient.

Assumptions:

1. 2. 3. The system is steady. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. Properties are constant.

Solution:

For steady, fully developed flow, conservation of momentum in the x-direction reduces to: ∑ Fx = 0 Evaluating the forces on the differential element shown above: P A1 − P2 A2 + τ T AT − τ B AB = 0 1

With length, dx, along the channel and a width W: P (Wdx ) − P2 (Wdy ) + τ T (Wdx ) − τ B (Wdx ) = 0 1 The width cancels. Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: Therefore,

τ =µ

dV dy

τT = µ

d VT dy

and

τB = µ

d VB dy

Substituting into the force balance and simplifying:

( P1 − P2 ) dy − µ

dP d2 V =µ dx dy 2

d VT d VB dx + µ dx = 0 dy dy

( d VT dy − d VB dy ) P − P2 1 =µ dx dy

V =

→

**Recognizing that for fully developed flow, dP dx = constant , we separate variables and integrate twice:
**

1 dP 2 y + C1 y + C2 2µ dx The boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0, V = 0; 2) at y = b, V = Vw Applying the boundary conditions: 1 dP 2 2) VW = b + C1b 1) 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 so C2 = 0 2µ x

so C1 =

VW b dP − b 2µ x

Substituting into the general velocity equation and simplifying:

V =

1 dP 2 y ( y − by ) + VW b 2µ dx

Flow rate is obtained by integration: b ⎛ 1 dP bW y b3W V =∫V =∫V dA Wdy = ∫ ⎜ ( y 2 − by ) + VW b ⎞Wdy = −12µ dP + VW2 ⎟ 0 2 µ dx dx ⎝ ⎠ Solving this equation for zero flow ( V = 0 ) and from Appendix A-6 for water at 20 ºC, µ = 9.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2

-4 2 dP 6 µ VW 6 ( 9.85×10 Ns m ) ( 0.25 m s ) N = = =369 2 2 dx mm b2 0.002m ) (

Answer

Pressure must increase in the x-direction to obtain zero flow. 9- 3

87 ) ( 62. The flow is fully developed.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜178. so V1 = V2 .26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.4 . oil flows downward at 6 gal/min. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = − ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = + ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = − ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = − ρ o ghAB + ρ m ghCD − ρ o ghEF = − ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) + ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = − ρ o g ( L + hCD ) + ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 178. The oil has a specific gravity of 0.36ft s )( 0. There is no pump or turbine. Solution: The steady. The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady. incompressible flow energy equation. pipe shown below.87 ) ( 62.4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.4 lbm/ft·s. Determine the manometer defection. Therefore.1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0. ⎠ in. The specific gravity of the manometer fluid is 2.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32. h (in ft).4 lbm ft )( 32.87 ) ⎜ 62.0625ft ) ρV = = 37 0.0625ft ) 2 =4.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 = =50. so hP = hT = 0 . and minor losses are neglected.9.9-4 In the ¾-in.2 ft s2 )( 62. The system is steady. Properties are constant. ⎝ For the manometer.9-0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. 3.5 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32.73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0.2 2 ⎟ ( -15ft ) + (1.73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4.1ft g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32.87 ) ⎜ 62.4 ft lbm ) ( 4. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0.4 lbm fts µ For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1. 2.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 D ( 0.87 ) Answer 9.87 and a dynamic viscosity of 0.300 lbm fts + ( 0. Assumptions: 1.300 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =38.4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 2.

26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. ⎝ For the manometer.4 ft lbm ) ( 4.1ft = g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 0.36ft s )( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. There is no pump or turbine.87-2.0625ft ) = = 37 µ 0. Solution: The steady.87 ) ⎜ 62.4 lbm fts For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0. 9. and minor losses are neglected.2 2 ⎟ (15ft ) + (1.4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.4 lbm ft )( 32.700 lbm fts .2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in. 3. ⎠ in. 2. The system is steady.( 0. so V1 = V2 .1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = + ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = − ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = + ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = ρ o ghAB − ρ m ghCD + ρ o ghEF = ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) − ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = ρ o g ( L + hCD ) − ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 230.0625ft ) 2 =4. The flow is fully developed.9-5 In Problem P 9-4 if the flow is upward instead of downward. h (in ft).87 ) ( 62. Properties are constant. The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined. determine the manometer deflection.9 ) Answer Comments: The minus sign indicates the manometer deflection is in the opposite direction than what is shown in the figure.8 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 =-50.5 . incompressible flow energy equation.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜ 230. Assumptions: 1.87 ) ( 62. so hP = hT = 0 .700 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =49.73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0.87 ) ⎜ 62. Therefore. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady.73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4.2 ft s2 )( 62.

2.01m ) rad ⎤ ⎛ 1Ws ⎞ 2 ⎡ 3600 ⎞ W =µ r ω = ⎜1. which can be determined with Newton’s law of viscosity.01m )( 0.57W Answer Comments: This is only part of the power required to spin the disk.055m ) ⎢⎛ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ b m ⎠ 5×10-7 m s ⎥ ⎝ Nm ⎠ ⎝ ⎣⎝ 60 ⎠ ⎦ =1.83×10-5 2 ⎟ 2π ( 0.9-6 Data are read from and written to spinning computer disks (3600 rpm) by small read-write heads that float above the disk on a thin (0. 9. The system is steady. Power is torque times rotational speed. 3. 9-2. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 Re = ( 0.5µm) film of air. the power required to overcome the viscous shear (in W). Consider a 10-mm by 10-mm head located 55 mm from the disk centerline. The force is caused by the shear stress. Properties are constant. and torque is forces times distance.4×10-6 m 2 s = 0. determine: a. and air viscosity from Appendix A-7 at 25 ºC is υ = 15.4 × 10−6 m 2 s . Approach: Reynolds number can be obtained from its definition.6 . Assumptions: 1. Eq. and assuming the flow is similar to that between infinite parallel plates.055m )( 3600 rev min )(1min 60s )( 2π rad rev ) ( 5×10-7 m ) 15. For air at 25 °C. µ = 1. Shear forces on other parts of the rotating disk would increase the power required to spin the disk. Solution: a) The Reynolds number is defined as: ρV V b b = Re = µ υ Velocity is V = rω . the Reynolds number based on the gap dimension b.67 b) Power is defined as: W = ℑω Torque is ℑ = Fr = τ Ar = τ LDr . Assuming Newtonian flow between parallel walls with one wall moving and using Newton’s law of viscosity: dV V rω τ =µ =µ =µ dy b b Substituting all the expressions into the power expression and simplifying: 2 LD 2 2 ⎛ Ns ⎞ ( 0.

Assume the flow is fully developed. and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible. and then we integrate it to find volume flow rate. which causes the oil to flow upward.9-7 Skimmers are used to remove viscous fluids. with zero pressure gradient. Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. Use a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe.7 . assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. and zero shear stress at the outer film surface where air contacts it. Gravity tends to drain the liquid. Clearly state the velocity boundary conditions at the belt surface and at the free surface. We apply a force balance in the x-direction to obtain the velocity profile. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. V = VB Applying the boundary conditions: VB = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = VB 0= τ =µ → 2) at y = h there is no shear. Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx − ρ Ddxdyg = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = ρg dτ = ρg dy dV dy dτ d ⎛ dV ⎞ d2 V = ⎜µ = ρg ⎟=µ dy dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 d V ρg ρ g y2 V = y + C1 → = + C1 y + C2 dy µ µ 2 Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0. which causes the oil to flow downward. Determine an expression for the velocity profile and flow rate. and shear stress. 3. A film with thickness h forms on the belt. 2. from the surface of water. The system is steady. Note there is no net pressure force. Properties are constant. but the upward belt velocity is such that net liquid is transported upward. such as oil. As shown on the diagram below. Assumptions: 1. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB − dW where the weight is W = ρVg . Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. a continuous belt moves upward at velocity Vo through the fluid and the more viscous liquid (with density ρ and viscosity µ) adheres to the belt. Approach: The amount of oil that is picked up by the moving belt is a result of a force balance between gravity. so d V dy = 0 ρg h + C1 µ V = → C1 = − ρg h µ Therefore: ⎞ ρ g y2 ρ g ρ g ⎛ y2 − hy + VB = ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB µ 2 µ µ ⎝ 2 ⎠ Volume flow rat is 2 ⎤ h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y ⎞ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB ⎥ Ddy 0 0 ⎠ A ⎣ µ ⎝ 2 ⎦ 3 V ρ gh =− + VB h Answer 3µ D 9. laminar.

so d V dy = 0 ρg sin θ h + C1 µ V =− → C1 = ρg sin θ h µ Therefore: ⎛ ρg y2 ρ g ρg y2 ⎞ + sin θ sin θ hy = sin θ ⎜ hy − ⎟ 2 2 ⎠ µ µ µ ⎝ Volume flow rate is h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y 2 ⎞⎤ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ ty − ⎟ ⎥Ddy 0 0 2 ⎠⎦ A ⎣ µ ⎝ V ρ g sin θ h3 = D 3µ For water at 20 ºC from Appendix A-6. Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx + ρ Ddxdyg sin θ = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = − ρ g sin θ dτ = − ρ g sin θ dy Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity d ⎛ dV ⎞ d V = − ρ g sin θ ⎜µ ⎟=µ dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 2 τ = µ d V dy Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0. 2. ρ = 998.8 .9-8 Consider a fully developed laminar flow of 20 °C water down an inclined plane that is 20° to the horizontal. Assumptions: 1.2 kg m )( 9. The flow is fully developed.2 kg m3 3 2 o 2 V ( 998. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB + dW sin θ where the weight is W = ρVg .001m ) ( Ns kgm ) m3 = =0. µ = 9. 3. Approach: The water flows down the inclined plane due to the influence of gravity. and the air exerts zero shear on the water.81m s ) sin ( 20 ) ( 0.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible. and then integrated to find the volume flow rate. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties.00113 D sm 3 ( 9. V = 0 Applying the boundary conditions: 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = 0 0=− ρg dV =− sin θ + C1 µ dy 2) → V =− ρg y2 sin θ + C1 y + C2 2 µ at y = h there is no shear. The water thickness is 1-mm. A force balance between gravity and shear forces is solved to find the velocity profile. Properties are constant. Using a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe. determine the volume flow rate per unit width (in m3/s m).85×10-4 Ns m 2 ) 3 Answer 9. Note there is no net pressure force. The system is steady. The water is exposed to atmosphere everywhere.

ρ = 999. 9-13 for a horizontal flow: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = = R2 D2 32 (12.8 ρD s 999.00025m ) ( 2 m ⎞ π ( 0. the maximum flow possible (in cm3/s) b. If the flow must remain laminar in the hypodermic needle. The flow is fully developed laminar flow.30×10-7 s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer b) From Eq.9-9 A biomedical device start-up company is developing a liquid drug injection device. µ = 12.9 . Solution: a) Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D2 4 A Reynolds number is defined as: ρV D Re = µ Using Re = 2100 for the transition between laminar and turbulent flow. The device uses compressed air to drive the plunger in a piston-cylinder assembly that will push the drug (viscosity and density similar to water at 10 °C) through the hypodermic needle (inside diameter 0.) Approach: Using a transition Reynolds number of 2100 and the Reynolds number definition.8 ⎟ =5.00025m ) m3 ⎛ V = ⎜ 10. The system is steady.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .9 × 10 Ns m ) ( 2100 ) ( kgm Ns ) m = =10. 2. flow rate. and water properties from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. the required air pressure for the maximum flow if the pressure at the end of the needle must be 105 kPa (in kPa). 3. 9-13. determine: a. Properties are constant. (Assume fully developed flow.6 kg m3 : V = −4 2 2 µ Re (12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 ) ( 0.8 m s )(1kN 1000N ) 32 µ L V P2 = P + = 105kPa+ 1 2 D2 ( 0. Assumptions: 1.6 kg m3 ) ( 0. We can use Eq. to calculate the required air pressure.00025m ) = 105kPa+357kPa=462kPa Answer 9.05m )(10. hence.25 mm and length 50 mm). which relates pressure drop and velocity. we can calculate the maximum allowable velocity and.

9-13 is used to calculate the viscosity. 9-13 can be used to calculate the liquid viscosity.122×10-3 Ns m2 Answer b) If entrance effects are taken into account (assuming ∆Pent = 2∆Pwithout ) and from Eq.53 × 10 −4 error= × 100 = 17.122 × 10 −3 − 9.92 ) (1000 kg m 3 )(1cm3 s ) (1m 100cm ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) π (1. entrance effects often are present.00075m ) =0.75-mm in diameter. 3.080m Answer Therefore. Properties are constant. and then calculate viscosity and compare to the guessed value. the viscosity if the pressure drop in the entrance length is twice that for the same length of fully developed flow (in N·s/m2).75×10-4 Ns m2 This does not match the guessed value. However. The system is steady. A flow of 1 cm3/s is obtained when the pressure drop is 65 kPa. in which a laminar flow is maintained in a small diameter tube. 9-13: ∆P = 8µ L V R 2 = 32µ L V D 2 Noting that A = π D 2 4 . Consider the flow of a liquid (SG = 0.45m+0.953 × 10−4 Ns m 2 Re = 1640 Lent = 0. the error caused if entrance effects are not taken into account is: 1. The flow is laminar.065 ReD ent ∆Ptot = ∆Pent + ∆Pfully developed π D 4 ∆Ptot 32 µV ⎛ 32µ Lent V ⎞ 32 µ ( L − Lent ) V 32µV 2 Lent + L − Lent ) = L + L) µ = ∆Ptot = 2 ⎜ = ⎟+ 2 2 2 ( 2 ( ent D D D D 128 ( Lent + L ) V ⎝ ⎠ Because the entrance length is a function of Reynolds number.00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 128 ( 0.0679m ) (1cm s ) 3 =9. so continuing the iteration until it converges: µ = 0. and solving for viscosity: µ= π D 4 ∆P 128LV = π ( 0. Laminar entrance length can be estimated with Eq.065 (1392 )( 0. Determine: a. 9-13. 9-39.00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 4 3 128 ( 0.7% Answer 9.45m ) (1cm s ) 3 =1. the viscosity if the flow is fully developed (in Ns/m2) b.10 . an iterative solution is required. Assumptions: 1. calculate the Reynolds number. Approach: With the given information. Guess µ = 1. and that corrected length used in Eq. The procedure is: guess the viscosity. Solution: V = V x = V π D2 4 A a) Volume flow rate is defined as: Pressure drop for laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq. If the flow is fully developed. 9-39 Lent = 0.0679m µ= π ( 0. If entrance effects are present. then Eq.53 × 10−4 9.00075m ) 4 3 Lent = 0. and the pressure drop and flow rate are measured.122×10-3 Ns m 2 ) ( 0. which depends on viscosity. 2. combining these three equations. a correction to the effective length of the tube must be made.122 × 10−3 Ns m 2 Reynolds number is defined as: Re = Re = ρV D 4 ρV and V = µ π D2 3 → =1392 Re = 4 ρV πµ D 4 ( 0. Eq.9-10 The viscosity of liquids is measured with a capillary viscometer.92) through a tube 450-mm long and 0. calculate the entrance length.

Assumptions: 1.87 ) (1000 kg m ) sin ( 90 ) ( 0.227 V = 2 2 32µ s 32 ( 0. The flow is fully developed and laminar. the volume flow rate is: 2 m ⎞ π ( 0. in addition.005m ) m = =0. 9-13: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = + ρ gL sin θ = + ρ gL sin θ 2 R D2 For the present problem θ = 90o . Equation 9-13 was developed for this situation. ∆P = 0 .003 Ns m 2 This is laminar flow.003 N·s/m2) to the tool and workpiece. so the negative sign indicates a downward flow.227 ⎟ s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer 9. The pressure is atmospheric at the exit of the tube and at the surface of the reservoir.11 . Using the given information: 3 o − ρ g sin θ D 2 .005m ) m3 ⎛ =4. 3. and shear stress/viscosity forces.46×10-6 V = ⎜ 0. Using this information and solving for velocity: − ρ g sin θ D 2 V = 32 µ Note that in the development of Eq. The vertical 5-mm diameter tube connecting the oil reservoir to the workpiece is very long so the flow can be assumed fully developed. µ = 0. the depth of oil in the reservoir is negligible compared to the tube length. Therefore. The system is steady. Because that equation uses the average velocity. 2.003 Ns m )( kgm Ns ) 2 Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ρV D 4 ρV and V = Re = µ π D2 Re = → Re = 4 ρV πµ D =329 ( 0.005m ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) 0.87. Solution: A Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D 2 4 Pressure drop for fully developed laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq.9-11 A machine tool manufacturer is considering using gravity flow to supply cutting oil (SG = 0. the x-direction was in opposition to the gravity force. Properties are constant. so we will apply it directly. Determine the volumetric flow rate of the oil (in cm3/s). 9-13. so our assumption checks out. pressure.87 ) (1000 kg m 3 ) ( 0. Approach: Flow is caused by a balance between gravity.227 m s )( 0. With atmospheric pressure at the surface of the reservoir and at the exit of the tube.( 0. volume flow rate is obtained easily from its definition.

0305lbm fts Answer 64 64 Re Check the Reynolds number: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0.9-12 A manometer.43ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ Assuming the flow is fully developed laminar flow: 3 ρV Df ( 0.33ft+ 0. Therefore. whether the flow is laminar or turbulent d. calculating the viscosity. determine: a. Solution: a) Hydrostatic pressure increases farther down in a fluid.0305lbm fts µ which is laminar. 9. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = f ρo g D 2g V = Answer The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.82 ) ( 62.0562 ) 64 f = → µ= = = 0. There is no pump or turbine.33ft ) +2ft+2ft ⎥ =0. c.125ft )( 0. 2.6 ⎤ f = −h1 A + m hBC + hC 2 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ = ⎢ 2 ⎢ -4.82) flowing in a 1.43 2 s A π D2 π ( 0. the oil viscosity (in lbm/ft s).82 ) ( 62.5-in. so our assumption is valid.125ft ) ( 32. The manometer equation is used to calculate the pressure drop. b. using a correlation for the friction factor. The system is steady. the friction factor c.6). The flow is fully developed.4 ft lbm ) ( 5. so hP = hT = 0 .12 . pipe with a volumetric flow rate of 4 ft2/min. and the distance from the upper pressure tap to the same height in the mercury is 4 ft. d) The steady. and the friction factor can be calculated using the steady. and minor losses are neglected. so V1 = V2 .125ft ) = = 1140 0. using the manometer equation and stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ o gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = ρ o ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ o gh1 A + ρ m ghBC + ρ o ghC 2 1 Substituting this into the friction factor expression: 2 ⎤ 2 ( 0. Approach: Flow direction can be determined by inspection. The manometer fluid is mercury (SG = 13. → f = From the definition of volume flow rate..0562 ρo LV 2 ⎣ ⎦ ( 25ft )( 5. Whether the flow is laminar or turbulent must be determined by assuming one or the other. 3. and then checking the Reynolds number.43ft s )( 0.43ft s )( 0. Properties are constant. the velocity is 4 ( 4 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =5.125ft ) ⎤ 2 Dg ⎡ P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎢ L V ⎣ ρo g ⎦ For pressure drop. incompressible flow energy equation.4 ft lbm ) ( 5. From the lower pressure tap to the surface of the mercury highest in the manometer is 2 ft. Assumptions: 1. The only way 1 this could occur would be if flow was from point 1 to point 2 with friction losses. is used to measure the pressure drop of oil (SG = 0. For a manometer deflection of 4 in. with pressure taps 25 ft apart. the flow direction b.2 ft s ) ⎡ ρ 2 Dg ⎡ 13.82 ( 0. The manometer indicates that P2 < P .

Substituting these expressions into the force balance. and m = ρ D 2 yL : dV DL − ρ L 2 yDg sin θ = 0 dy Canceling 2D. Properties are constant. pressure. Applying the boundary condition: 2 1 ⎡P − P ⎤H C1 = ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ µ⎣ L ⎦ 2 Therefore: 2 1 ⎡ P − P2 H 2 ⎡ P − P2 ⎤ ⎤⎡ ⎛ y ⎞ ⎤ 1 1 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ( H 2 − y 2 ) = − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ V =− 2µ ⎢ L 2µ ⎢ L ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎢ ⎝ H ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ ( P1 − P2 ) 2 Dy + 2µ Answer Comments: Note the parabolic velocity profile. 2. and gravity forces. V = 0 .9-13 Develop an expression for the velocity profile for fully developed laminar flow between stationary infinite parallel plates. The flow is fully developed. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties.13 . and letting A1 = A2 = 2 Dy. Approach: Flow through this infinite parallel plate channel results from a balance among viscous. and simplifying: P − P2 µ dV 1 − ρ g sin θ = − L y dy Separating variables and integrating: 2 1 ⎡P − P 1 ⎡P − P ⎤ ⎤y V = − ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ + C1 − ∫ ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ydy = ∫ d V → µ ⎣ L µ⎣ L ⎦ ⎦ 2 The boundary condition is: at y = H. which is similar to that in a circular tube. A force balance on a differential element is used to determine the velocity profile. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. 9. y = H − n → τ = µ d V dn where n is the direction from the wall.3 for a circular tube. As = DL. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = P1 A1 − P2 A2 − 2τ As − mg sin θ Let D be the depth of the plane into the page: Using Newton’s law of viscosity To put this in terms of y (from the channel centerline). 3. similar to what was done for the circular tube. dy = d ( H − n ) = − dn . The system is steady. Use an approach similar to that applied in Section 9. Assumptions: 1.

incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. Therefore. ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83.88) flows with a volumetric flow rate of 0. Solution: The steady.003 m3/s.88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9. The gage pressure at the pipe inlet is 720 kPa. 9-41 directly to find head loss. Approach: We can use Eq. 2. The system is steady. so V1 = V2 .81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ( 720-0 ) Answer 9. so hP = hT = 0 . a fluid (SG = 0. 4. The pipe outlet is at atmospheric pressure and is 15 m above the inlet.4m hL = ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. Determine the head loss between the inlet and outlet (in m). Properties are constant. 3. Neglect minor losses.4-15=68. There is no pump or turbine.14 . and minor losses are neglected.9-14 In an inclined 50-mm diameter pipe. The flow is fully developed. Assumptions: 1.

z1 = z2 . for when the outlet is 15 m above the inlet ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83. Properties are constant. 3. 2.81m s 2 )( kN s 2 1000kg m ) =591kPa Answer 1 ( 720-0 ) 9. Approach: We can use the steady flow energy equation to find the head loss in the inclined pipe.15 . There is no pump or turbine.88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9. 4. but this time we will determine the new inlet pressure. The system is steady. The frictional head loss is the same in a horizontal pipe.88 ) (1000 kg m3 )( 9. and minor losses are neglected. Neglect minor losses. Assumptions: 1. and assuming the same total head loss.4m )( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. The flow is fully developed.81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ If the pipe is in a horizontal orientation. so we can again use the steady flow energy equation. solving the energy equation for P1: P = P2 + ∑ hL ρ g = 0 + ( 68.4-15=68. so hP = hT = 0 . Therefore.9-15 The pipe exit in Problem P 9-14 is lowered to the same elevation as the inlet. Determine the inlet pressure for this new condition (in kPa).4m hL = Answer ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. so V1 = V2 . with the same flow rate. Solution: The steady.

169 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =0. 25 °C.25m ) 4 Ax =0. Velocity is : 3 V ( 25 m min ) (1min 60s ) m V = = =6.25 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Using the manometer equation ∆P = ρ w gh 2 Answer 2 2 ∆P ( 0. 2.9 ⎤ = −1.67 m s )( 0.25m )( 0. Solution: The steady. incompressible flow energy equation Assumptions: 1.25m Dh = = 4 ( 0.66mm of water ρw g (1000 kg m3 )( 9.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.169 kg m3 .0457 kN m )(1000kgm 1kNs ) hP = = =0. so hP = hT = 0 .00466m of water = 4.11 1 6.81m s2 ) Answer 9. Determine the pressure drop for 25-m of horizontal duct run (in kPa and mm of water). Properties are constant.25m )( 0. 3.500 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. ρ = 1.25m ) Because this is a non-circular duct. The system is steady.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 .0176 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 106.83×10-5 Ns m 2 3 This is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.0457kPa 1 ⎟⎜ 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0. The flow is fully developed.500 = µ 1. The duct is made of sheet metal that has a roughness of approximately 0.67 A s ( 0. µ = 1.0176 ) ⎜ 1. and there are no minor losses: P − P2 L V2 L V2 1 = f → P − P2 = f ρ 1 D 2g D 2g ρg The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0. 4.25m ) D =106.25m ) Pwetted Re = ρ V h (1. 25 ºC.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. For air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine.11 6.67 m s ) ⎛ 1kN s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 25 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.169 kg m ) ( 6.05 mm.16 . The duct is smooth.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kg ⎞ ( 6. Approach: Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady.9-16 An air conditioning duct is 25-cm square and must convey 25 m3/min of air at 100 kPa.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.

stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ w gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = + ρ w ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ w ghAB + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = − ρ w g ( hBC + hC 2 ) + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 1 Substituting this expression into the loss coefficient equation: 2 ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 2 ( SGm − 1) ghBC KL = = ρw V 2 V2 KL = 2 (1. 2. Assumptions: 1. its loss coefficient must be determined.9-17 A manufacturer develops a new type of flow control valve. Properties are constant. Before it can be advertised and sold. The flow is fully developed.2 ft s 2 ) ( 7.3-1) ( 32. The pressure drop (head loss) can be determined from the manometer equation.5ft ) For the manometer. The pressure drop is measured with a manometer whose fluid has a specific gravity of 1. Approach: We can use the definition of head loss for minor losses to calculate the loss coefficient. pipe and 2 ft3/s of water flows through it. The manometer deflection is 7. Solution: The head loss due to minor losses is given by: V2 P −P hL = 1 2 hL = K L and 2g ρg Combining the expressions and solving for the loss coefficient: 2 ( P − P2 ) 1 KL = ρw V 2 4 ( 2 ft 3 s ) 4V ft V V = = The velocity in the upstream pipe is =10.5 12 ft ) (10.3.2 = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. Determine the loss coefficient for the valve. 3.2 ft s ) 2 = 0. The valve is installed in a 6-in.17 .116 Answer 9. The system is steady.5 in.

Hence. ⎝ D ⎠ 2g ∑h L 2 P − P2 ⎛ L ⎞V 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend + 1⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor depends on flow. Kbend = 1. We assume the area at 1 large. 2. and line loss: There is no pump or turbine.11 6. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. ρ = 999. incompressible flow energy equation.5 + 173. so V1 ≈ 0 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 The volume flow will be large enough so that the flow will be turbulent. two bends. At point 2. 3. The pump manufacturer would specify the minimum required pressure. The system is steady.5. The flow is fully developed. cavitation (the forming of vapor bubbles) occurs which can damage the pump impeller.23kPa .18 .33m s f = 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. so P1 = 101.11 6. Approach: Cavitation will occur if the pressure at point 2 falls below the saturation pressure of 10 ºC water. determine the maximum possible flow rate without cavitation occurring (in m3/s).075m ) Re = = = 1.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Properties are constant. Therefore. We can solve for the flow rate using the steady. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Velocity is: 4 (V m3 s ) 4V m V =226.316 × 106 V (2) µ 12.6 kg m3 )( 9. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. from the saturated water table at 10 ºC. for a regular 90º threaded bend. for an zero area ratio at the entrance Kent = 0. Psat (10 o C ) = 1. 9.3-1.2V m s ) ( 0. For water at 10 °C. the pressure at the entrance to the pump must never drop below the saturation pressure of the fluid.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.6 kg m3 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (101.045 75 ⎞1. 3 ρV D ( 999. From Table 9-3. so an iterative solution is required. 200 Iterating on the four equations given above. and the pressure at 1 is 2 ⎛ L ⎞V = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend ⎟ .075 ⎦ 2 ( 9. so hT = hp = 0 . The losses include one entrance.81m s 2 ) ( 999. the actual minimum pressure at 2 would need to be greater than 1. it accelerates more. Solution: The steady.4V = (1) V = = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. Assumptions: 1. The pressure at 2 is the saturation pressure. we obtain: V = 0.23) kN m 2 (1000 kg m kN s 2 ) V2 13 ⎡ ⎤ + ( -5m ) = ⎢ f +0.23 kPa.5. If the pressure does drop below the saturation pressure. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g atmospheric.075m ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0.3 f ) V 2 (4) Re = 19.9-18 When pumping a fluid. µ = 12.0147 m3 s V = 3.9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1.045mm .0271 Answer Comments: When the water enters the pump.6 kg m )( 226. From Figure 9-15.81m s 2 ) 102 = ( 4. Consider the system shown below constructed of commercial steel pipe and threaded connections.5+2 (1.5 ) +1⎥ ⎣ 0.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.3 kPa.

8log ⎢⎜ (3) ⎥ ⎟ + 3. calculate the velocity V. V = 5.4 lbm ft 3 : Velocity is : V = Re = 3 2 ρV D ( 62. so ⎡⎛ 0. Reynolds number Re.4 lbm ft )(1. Properties are constant.000 f =0.513ft = 6.419 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The steady. There is no pump or turbine. 600 = = µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts D (2) For any reasonable size diameter.2 ft lbm lbf s2 )(144in. Therefore. and minor losses are neglected. 2. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. ε =0.4 lbm ft 3 2 D ⎝ D ⎠ An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations.7 Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (1lbf in. Performing the iteration: D = 0.00015ft . The pipe is horizontal. the flow will be turbulent.9-19 Fire codes mandate that the pressure drop in horizontal runs of commercial steel pipe must not exceed 1. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D.419 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 100. Neglect minor losses. 4. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g 4 ( 500 gal min ) ( 0. The system is steady. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts . determine the minimum pipe diameter required (in in.9 ⎤ 1 = −1.19 .0 lbf/in. so z1 = z2 . so hP = hT = 0 . Is the number you calculated feasible? Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity.11 6.2 )( 32. which depends on pipe diameter. For a water temperature of 50 °F.991 = f V 2 (4) ⎜ ⎟ 62. 3.2 per 150-ft of pipe for flows up to 500 gal/min.0175 Answer Comments: The next large standard pipe size would be used. iterate until converged. Assumptions: 1. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. Hence. From Table 9-2 for commercial steel pipe. and friction factor f.).39 ft s Re=196. an iterative solution is required.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 1. Solution: The steady. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter. Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one.2 in. and then use equation 4 to calculate the diameter. The friction factor is a function of velocity. so V1 = V2 .00015 D ⎞1. 9. The flow is fully developed.2 ft 2 ) = f ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V ft s )2 → 0. ρ = 62.

the flow rate without the pump is: ⎡ 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 16 + f L D ⎦ 0. 1 z1 − z2 = −hP + f 2 L V pipe Vnozzle + D 2g 2g 2 The pump head can be evaluated from WP = mghP = ρVghP . 3.81m s 2 ) The velocity at the nozzle exit is: Vnozzle = V pipe = Likewise.20 . so hT = 0 . The artist’s initial design uses 75-m of 7.3m s ) = −81.81m s 2 ) (127.6m + 4 ( 0. Note that Vnozzle = 4 V pipe .4m Now using the energy equation without the pump: 2 2 2 L V pipe Vnozzle ⎛ L ⎞ V pipe z1 − z2 = f + = ⎜ 16 + f ⎟ D 2g D ⎠ 2g 2g ⎝ Solving for the velocity in the pipe: ⎡ 2 ( 9.6 kg m3 )( 0.9-20 The owners of a luxurious mountain resort want to install a fancy water fountain. The system is steady.016 for both cases and neglecting minor losses.05 m3 s ) V 4V m = = =11.075m )2 s 2 4 ( 0.81m s 2 ) 2 ( 45.016 )( 75 0.3 = = A π Dnozzle 2 π ( 0.075 ⎠ 2 ( 9. for the velocity in the pipe.81m s ) ⎝ 0. For water from Appendix A-10 at 10 ºC. Assuming the friction factor is 0. Solution: a) The steady. the height of the water jet with and without the pump if the nozzle is pointed vertically up (in m).4m ) ⎤ ⎥ V pipe =⎢ ⎢16+ ( 0.6 kg m3 hP = ( 40. Assumptions: 1.05 m3/s.83 m s V = V = ( 8.6 + 104 + 104 = 127. so V1 = 0 and P = P2 .0375m )2 s ⎛ 75 ⎞ (11. We will assume no minor losses.6m = ρVg ( 999.3m s ) + ( 0.000W ) ( N s 2 kg m ) WP =81. The flow is fully developed. the owners want to remove the pump and rely only on gravity head to power the fountain.075 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.05 m3 s )( 9. Therefore. To save operating costs. Therefore.016 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 2 ( 9. z1 − z2 = −81.039 m3 s A 2 Answer 9.5-cm diameter commercial steel pipe ending in a nozzle with a diameter of 3.83m s )( π 4 )( 0. At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric and the area at 1 is very large. The steady. determine: a.075m ) =0. 2. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. ρ = 999.75-cm with a 40-kW pump to pull water from a lake above the resort at a flow rate of 0.3 A π D 2 pipe π ( 0. Properties are constant and evaluated at 10 ºC.05 m3 s ) V 4V m =45. the flow rate if the pump is removed from the system (in m3/s) b. Approach: The elevation difference between the lake surface and the nozzle exit is not given and must be determined.5 =8. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to calculate the elevation difference and the height of the fountain.5 0.

81m s 2 ) ( 45.3 Vnozzle = 2 s π ( 0.21 . the velocity at the nozzle exit is 4 ( 0. The pressure is the same and the velocity at 3 is zero. 9. the fountain still reaches an impressive height.3m s ) 2 =63.0375m ) z3 − z 2 = 2 ( 9.3m s ) =104. so V3 = 0 and P2 = P3 : V2 V22 + z 2 = 3 + z3 2g 2g → z3 − z 2 = z3 − z 2 = V22 2g 2 With the pump: 2 ( 9.6m Answer Without the pump.b) To determine the height of the fountain. apply the energy equation between points 2 and 3.81m s 2 ) ( 35.039 m3 s ) m =35.6m Answer Comments: Even without the pump.

85 and a kinematic viscosity of 6. and minor losses are neglected. Therefore. so P = P2 . determine the initial flow rate from the tank (in m3/s). An iterative solution may be required because the friction factor is a function of the flow (velocity). There 1 is no pump or turbine. a vandal opens a valve at the end of a 5-cm diameter. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow. Approach: The flow rate depends on a balance between the head supplied by the oil depth and the head loss in the drain pipe.8×10-4 m 2 s For any reasonable velocity. The oil tank is open to the atmosphere.22 .8×10-4 m2/s.5 m. the flow will be laminar (check this).9-21 At an oil tank farm. L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Neglecting minor losses. for fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: f = 64 Re = 64ν V D Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) D 2 64ν L V 2 z1 − z2 = V = → 64ν L D V D 2g z1 − z2 = f V = 2 ( 9. Properties are constant. assuming that the transient start-up of the flow is brief and the flow is quasi-steady.8×10-4 m 2 s Laminar flow.81m s 2 ) ( 6.5m )( 0.05m ) = = = 73. and the oil depth is 6. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are large. Assumptions: 1. Comments: Note that the velocity calculated above is the initial velocity. As the oil level drops.5 V Re = µ ν 6.147 m s Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ( 0. The flow is fully developed.147m s )( 0. 9. The system is steady. Assuming a smooth pipe: ρV D V D ( V m s )( 0. Solution: The steady. so hP = hT = 0 . 3. so V1 = V2 ≈ 0 . The oil has a SG = 0.05m ) Re = = 10. 50-m long horizontal pipe from the bottom of a large diameter oil tank. Neglect minor losses. then the velocity will decrease. Therefore. The pressures at 1 and 2 are both atmospheric. 4. so our assumption is correct. The steady. 2.8 6.05m ) 64 ( 6.8×10-4 m 2 s ) ( 50m ) 2 =0.

an iterative solution is required. calculate the velocity V.2 ft s 2 ) 1 (3) (4) An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 f V2 ⎛ 500 ⎞ ( V ft s ) D= → 178. 3. The pipe is horizontal. ft ) =0. The flow is fully developed with constant properties.0728ft lbm )(159. pumping power required (in hp).0728lbm ft 3 ⎝ 4 ( 7500 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) 159. Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity.4 lbm ft 3 1ft ⎞ = ( 2. determine: a. µ = 1. The system is steady.0728 3 ρa = = 1545ft lbf lbmR )( 85+460 ) R RT ft ( ∆P 62.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.11 6. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. and minor losses are neglected. and friction factor f. 4. and for air from Appendix B-7 at 85 ºF. Therefore. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g The pressure drop can be obtained from the manometer equation: ρ ∆P ∆P = ρ a g ∆ha = ρ w g ∆hw → = ∆ha = w ∆hw ρa g ρa Assuming air is an ideal gas at one atmosphere: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14.) b.9 ⎤ = −1. and then use equation 4 to calculate the 9.259 × 10−5 lbm fts : Velocity is : V = 3 2 D ( 0. which depends on pipe diameter.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.7 lbf in.) ⎛ ⎜ ⎟ =178. so z1 = z2 . There is no pump or turbine.9-22 In a large convention center. Neglect minor losses. Reynolds number Re. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D.6 ft = f ⎜ ⎟ 23. The steady. so with ε = 0 (2) ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. ⎠ ρ a g 0. Air is an ideal gas.2 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. the flow will be turbulent. If the pressure loss must not exceed 2. Hence. The required flow rate is 7500 ft3/min.2 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 920.23 . ) ( 28. Assumptions: 1.6ft 12in. so V1 = V2 . heated air at 85 °F must be conveyed from the furnace room to the display rooms through a 500-ft smooth duct. 600 ρV Re = = = 1. the minimum diameter required (in in.5in.5 in. 2. Solution: The steady.259 × 10−5 lbm fts D µ For any reasonable size diameter. of water. Assuming a smooth pipe. The friction factor is a function of velocity. so hP = hT .0 ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 32.

Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one.0728 ⎟ ⎜ 7500 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎜ 32.diameter.70ft V = 55.2 2 ⎟ (178.6ft ) ⎜ lbm ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ 32. iterate until converged. b) The pumping power is W = mgha = ρ aVha ⎛ ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp ⎞ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ W = ⎜ 0.500 f =0.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ftlbf s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ =2.0129 Answer The next large standard duct size would be used. Performing the iteration: D = 1.24 .96hp Answer 9.1ft s Re=541.

11 + ⎡⎛ 0.023) (12.5-cm diameter smooth tubes in parallel.41m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. 000 → f = 0. all tubes have the same pressure drop.025m-2 ( 0. ρ = 999.7 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =35.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.11 6.500 12. Properties are constant. the pressure drop (in kPa) b.04 m s )( 0.023 ⎠⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 35.04 ( 25 23) = 2.9 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =10.001m ) =0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.025m ) This is turbulent. The system is steady.6 kg m ) ( 2. 2.7 ⎠ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 kg ⎞ ( 2. however.500 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.7kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0.0174 V = 2. so the flow rate would decrease.4 mm.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 39.04 = = 2 2 A Nπ D s (1000 ) π ( 0.9 ⎤ 6. so hT = hP = 0 .25 . The steady.7kW m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ Answer Comments: Fouling can have a significant effect on flow rate. 9.11 6.0219 kg ⎞ ( 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 43. each 6-m long.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . The flow is fully developed.9-23 Consider a heat exchanger that has 1000 2. P − P2 = f 1 The velocity is in one tube is: 3 V = Re = D ( 999.41m s 2 → Re = ( 999.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. Solution: a) The steady. Therefore.025 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ Answer ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ b) Pumping power for the total flow rate is: WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 10.0472 ) ⎜ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ 999. so Therefore. 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ ⎢⎝ 3.4 23 = 0. µ = 12.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.9 ⎤ ⎥ = −1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Note.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 1 4 (1.0 m3 s ) 4V m V =2.11 6. For smooth pipe ε =0 . so V1 = V2 .04 m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3.6 )( 2. L V2 ρ D 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.6 kg m3 . incompressible flow energy equation is used. determine: a. The total water flow of 1 m3/s at 10 °C flows through the tubes. Approach: Because the tubes operate in parallel. the pumping power for the same flow rate if solid deposits from the water build up on the inner surface of the pipe with a thickness of 1-mm and an equivalent roughness of 0. Assumptions: 1.0174 ⎞1.6 3 ⎟ ⎟ =35. At points 1 and 2 the pipe areas are the same.9kW s ⎠⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ c) The new pipe diameter is D = 0.9 × 10 −4 ) = 43.9kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0. the pumping power required (in kW) c. Neglecting entrance and exit losses.9 ⎤ = −1. the motor power is fixed. ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.41)( 0. ε D = 0.023m . Therefore.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =10.0219 ) ⎜ 999.7 ⎠ ⎣ 1.0472 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞ = −1. that with centrifugal pumps. so we only need to calculate the pressure drop in one tube. 3.025m ) ρV = = 39.

9-24

The piping system that connects one reservoir to a second reservoir consists of 150-ft of 3-in. cast iron pipe that has four flanged elbows, a well-rounded entrance, and sharp-edged exit, and a fully open gate valve. For 75 gal/min of water at 50 °F, determine the elevation difference between the two reservoirs (in ft).

Approach:

The flow rate is set by the balance between the head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations and the frictional losses in the pipe. The steady, incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2 is used to determine the elevation difference.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

The steady, incompressible flow energy equation is:

P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

There is no pump or turbine, so hT = hp = 0 . We assume the surface of the reservoirs are large, so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 , and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric, so P1 = P2. Therefore, taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 4 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-3, Figure 9-13 and Figure 9-14, Kent = 0.04, Kbend = 0.3, and Kvalve = 0.15. For cast iron pipe ε =0.00085ft , and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF, µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s , ρ = 62.4 lbm ft 3 . The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 75gal ft 3 )( 0.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 4V ft V =3.40 = V = = 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.25ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 3 ρV D ( 62.4 lbm ft ) ( 3.40 ft s )( 0.25ft ) Re = = = 60, 400 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.11 6.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.00085 0.25 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.0289 ⎟ ⎟ + 3.7 60, 400 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦

150 ⎡ ⎤ ( 3.40 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢( 0.0289 ) + 0.04 + 0.15 + 1.0 + 4 ( 0.3 ) ⎥ = 3.54ft 0.25 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2 ft s 2 )

2

Answer

9- 26

9-25

Vandals open the drain valve on a water tower that is 10-m in diameter with a water depth of 8 m. The water flows out a sharp-edged opening into a horizontal 30-m long pipe, both of which are 10-cm in diameter; the gate valve in the pipe is half opened. Assume the friction factor is 0.016. Determine: a. the time required for the tank to drain (in min) b. the time required for the tank to drain if only the sharp-edged opening and the valve are present (in min) c. the appropriateness of the friction factor value used.

Approach:

Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool. The driving pressure head decreases with time, so the head as a function of time is needed. The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady, incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout . Water only leaves, and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation:

⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady, incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

2

At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric, so P = P2 . There is no pump or turbine, so hP = hT = 0 . Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1, the depth of water in the tank. The losses include an entrance, a valve, and line loss, so

V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + K valve + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The tank velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. Any mass flow rate from the tank must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2

→

ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2

→

V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2

2 0.5

**Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity:
**

⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables:

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 0.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0.5

dt

9- 27

zo

∫

0

2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 o

0.5

dt

−2 z

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 0.5 o

0.5

2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-14, Knit = 1.0, and from Table 9-3, Kvalve = 2.1. 0.5

**⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1+ ( 0.016 )( 30 0.10 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ b) If the 30 m long pipe is not taken into account: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠
**

2 0.5

0.5

=38,100 s=635 min=10.6hr

Answer

⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1 ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ =25,900 s=432 min=7.2 hr t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ c) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity, Reynolds number, and friction factor. The velocity is: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠

2

0.5

V≈

4 ( 0.0165 m3 s ) 4V m V V2 ≈ = = = 2.1 2 2 s A π D2 π ( 0.10m )

**Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 8m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0.0165 38,100s s t t
**

2

The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For a commercial steel pipe ε =0.045mm , and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC, µ = 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 , ρ = 999.6 kg m3 . The Reynolds numbers are:

Re =

3 ρV D ( 999.6 kg m ) ( 2.1m s )( 0.10m ) = = 162, 700 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ

The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ 0.045 100 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.0187 ⎟ + 3.7 162, 700 ⎥ fA ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor, we obtain t = 39,800 s = 11.1 hr.

Answer

Comments:

Because an “average” flow rate was used, there is some uncertainty in this answer.

9- 28

5.0167 m s ) =5. so using ε =0. Once that is known.89 V = = 2 s A π ( 0.5 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 0. from Table 9-3 and Figure 9-13: K exit = 1.5+2 (1. Assumptions: 1.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. A one-third closed ball valve and two bends that are equivalent to 90° threaded elbows are in the hose. Power is WP = ⎡ ⎤ ( 5. and a pump mechanical efficiency of 75%. The volume flow rate is: V 15m3 m3 V= = =0. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent + K valve + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where.06m ) Re = = = 5740 5. Kent = 1.0+1.3 × 10-2 N·s/m2) from a reservoir that is 4 m below the truck top.0 . At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.29 .0167 ⎟ ⎜ 9. the power can be calculated.0387 ) ⎜ ⎟ +1.06 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. 2. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .89 m s ) ⎛ 10 ⎞ = 34.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → 2 f = 0. µ = 5. Therefore.06m ) 3 The velocity is: ρV D ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 5740 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Approach: The steady. 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.3 × 10−2 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the required pump head.75 =6. Properties are constant.9-26 An oil transporter truck is filled from the top with 15 m3 of fuel oil (SG = 0. The system is steady. The flow is fully developed. so hT = 0 . A 10-m long flexible hose 6-cm in diameter whose surface roughness is equivalent to that of galvanized iron connects the truck to the reservoir. Solution: The steady.37kW Answer 9. determine the required pump power (in kW).81m s ) mghP ηP = ρVghP = ηP ( 0.9 ⎤ = −1.0m hP = 4m+ ⎢( 0. For a filling time of 15 min.89 m s )( 0.5 . K valve = 5.0.0+5.86 ) (1000 kg m ) ( 5.11 6.0m ) ⎜ ⎟ 3 ⎟⎜ s ⎠⎝ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ 0. K bend = 1.15 60 ⎞1.0387 Therefore.0167 t (15min )( 60s min ) s 3 m V 4 ( 0.15 mm for galvanized iron.86.86 ) ⎛1000 ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ 0. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 3.11 6.81 2 ⎟ ( 34.

0245 ) +2 ( 0.11 6. the power can be calculated. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. It has 15 90° regular threaded elbows. For water at 50 °C and a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 75%.30 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 93. the same calculations are made as in part (a): Re = 46. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0260 hP = 12.81m s 2 ) 2 f = 0.025m ) ( 9.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. the power required if the water velocity is 1 m/s (in kW).045 25 ⎞1.4m 0.5-cm commercial steel pipe.9 ⎤ = −1. Kbend = 1. Re = ρV D ( 988 kg m ) ( 2 m s )( 0. 2. 700 f = 0. so hT = 0 . and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºC. 400 5. Consider a system that consists of 200-m of 2.5 ) +3 ( 2. Solution: a) Because this is a closed loop.0245 Answer Answer 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 200 ⎡ ⎤ (2 m s) hP = ⎢( 0.025 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.5. Kvalve quarter open = 17. µ = 5.9m W = 82. incompressible flow energy equation from point 1 to point P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + + hT + ∑ hL 1: ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.15.1) +1(17 ) ⎥ =49. 3.025m ) = = 93. incompressible flow energy equation must be used.4m )( Ns kgm ) 2 =626W Answer Answer 9.11 1 6. the power required if the water velocity is 2 m/s (in kW) b.045m .1.15 ) +15 (1. From Table 9-3. Assumptions: 1. so that: ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ⎜ f + 2 K valve + 15K bend + 3K valve half + 1K valve quarter ⎟ open open open ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-2 for the pipe ε =0.75 b) If the velocity is 1 m/s. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. Approach: The required pump head can be determined with the steady. and the types of losses are given in the problem statement. Once the head is known. we can use the steady. The flow is fully developed. The system is steady. Kvalve half open = 2. two fully open gate valves.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. determine: a.29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 .1W W= mghP ηP = ( 988 kg m3 ) ( 2 m s )(π 4 )( 0.29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.81m s 2 ) ( 49. three half open gate valves and one three-quarter closed gate valve. ρ = 988 kg m3 . Kvalve open = 0.9-27 Large office buildings use circulating hot water systems to ensure that hot water is available instantly in all restrooms.

5mi )( 5280 ft mi ) ⎤ ( V ft s ) 25ft = f ⎢ ⎥ 2 Dft ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32. 0.2033 = (3) (4) 9.9-28 To ensure adequate water supplies to a town. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.9 ⎤ 1 = −1.5 miles apart with a difference in surface elevations of 25 ft. Assumptions: 1.4 lbm ft )(12.64ft Answer V = 4. The reservoirs are 1. 2.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known quantities into the pressure drop equation: 2 ⎡ (1.73 ft V 4V = 2 = = 2 A πD 2 D s π ( Dft ) (1) (2) For any reasonable size pipe. we can determine the pipe diameter with an iterative solution. Determine the minimum pipe diameter needed to carry 10 ft3/s of water at 50 °F? Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . so hP = hT = 0 . 000 D µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 4 (10 ft 3 s ) 12.73 D ft s ) ( Dft ) = = 903.005 ft (estimated).0232 The next large standard size of concrete pipe would be used. 3. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. For concrete pipe ε =0. Applying the steady. The velocity is: Re = V = 3 2 ρV D ( 62. and the pressure are atmospheric. Taking into account line losses only: 1 z1 − z2 = f L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. ρ = 62.81ft s f = 0. Solution: The steady.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. the flow is turbulent. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. a municipal water department developed a second reservoir and wants to connect the new reservoir to the old one using a concrete pipe.4 lbm ft 3 .31 . Properties are constant. The flow is fully developed. Doing so: D = 2.11 6. which depends on the velocity and diameter. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. The system is steady.2 ft s ) f V2 D The above four equations are solved iteratively. The areas of the reservoirs are large.

2. K exit = 1. 9. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m.6 kg m ) (1. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.⎢( 0. The turbine has a mechanical efficiency of 78% and the electric generator has an efficiency of 94%. The system is steady.2 ⎡ ⎤ (1.7m ⎟ +1. Assumptions: 1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.0 ⎥ 2 1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.78 )( 0.26 1000 ⎞1.6 3 ⎟ ⎜1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =488kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Taking into account the turbine and electric generator efficiencies: Welec = ηT η genWT = ( 0.94 )( 488kW ) =358kW Answer b) Adding a gate valve. the power can be calculated. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 999. For a 1 m3/s flow of 10 °C water. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump. Solution: a) The steady. ⎡ ⎤ (1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. and the penstock is constructed of 150-m of 1-m diameter cast iron pipe. the power output from the plant (in kW) b. determine: a.7 987.81 2 ⎟ ( 49. the power output if a fully open gate valve and two long radius 45° flanged elbows also are in the pipe (in kW). incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the turbine head. K bend = 0.11 1 6. and 2 long radius 45º bends. and from Table 9-2 ε =0.32 .7m ⎟ +1.26 mm .9-29 The reservoir behind a dam is connected to a hydroelectric power plant with a penstock (a large pipe to convey the water). so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . K gate = 0.0152 Power extracted from the water is ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ 9. 3.0152 ) ⎜ = 49.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 (1m3 s ) V 4V m =1. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.0+0.0152 ) ⎜ = 49. Including the exit loss where.⎢( 0. Once that is known. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.27 = = 2 A π D2 s π (1m ) The flow is turbulent. 000 12.11 6.27 m s )(1m ) = = 987. ρ = 999.15+2 ( 0. Properties are constant.: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Approach: The steady.81m s ) 2 → f = 0. At a particular plant. The flow is fully developed.81m s ) 2 Welec = 358kW Answer Comments: Other losses dominate the process so adding a gate valve has essentially no effect.15 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .0 .2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. so hP = 0 .27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m.7m ) ⎜ WT = mghT = ρVghT = ⎜ 999.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3.9 ⎤ = −1. the elevation difference between the reservoir surface and the hydroturbine is 50 m. µ = 12.6 kg m3 .

Any mass flow rate from the pool must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2 → ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2 → 0.5 dt 9. the time required to drain the pool (in min) b.021.5 V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2 2 Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables: 2 ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ 0. Approach: Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool. determine: a. so V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The pool velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. Solution: a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout . The system is steady. The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady. The water is at 20 °C. There is no pump or turbine.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0. so hP = hT = 0 . The flow is fully developed. The driving pressure head decreases with time. so P = P2 . For a friction factor of 0. Assumptions: 1. 2.9-30 The drain at the bottom of a swimming pool (10-m in diameter and 2-m deep) is well rounded and is connected to a 5-cm diameter. Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1. so the head as a function of time is needed. incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time. and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation: ⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady. the depth of water in the tank. 3. 20-m long plastic pipe. Water only leaves. Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g 2 At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric.33 . if this value of friction factor is appropriate. The losses include an exit and line loss.

9.85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. so ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.255 m s )( 0.2hr Answer b) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity.00050 t t 314.5 0.00050 m3 s ) V 4V m = = = 0.5 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-13.zo ∫ 0 2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.5 o 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.6 hr.11 1 6.2 kg m3 . For smooth pipe ε =0 .05m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.2 kg m ) ( 0. The velocity is: V≈ Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 2m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0.5 dt −2 z 2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.( 0. and friction factor.5 o 0.255 2 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.900 9.900 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 998.04+ ( 0.04 t = 2 ( 2m ) 0.021)( 20 0.05 10 )4 +0. we obtain t = 362.5 =314.9 ⎤ = −1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor. Reynolds number.05m ) Re = = = 12.000 s and 100. ρ = 998. µ = 9. Kent = 0. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC.05 ⎠ 2 ⎡1.34 .5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. 000s s 2 V2 ≈ 4 ( 0.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.0288 ⎟ + 12. Answer Comments: The answer for part (b) is significantly different than that in (a).85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . so the new estimate is probably better.000s=87.05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ 2 ( 9.

81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ =415.35 .9-31 If the pool in Problem P 9-30 has a sharp-edged entrance and two 90° regular threaded elbows. 9. Kbend = 1.( 0. determine the time required to drain the pool (in min). Additional minor losses are included.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.05 ⎠ 2 0. so there is uncertainty in this answer. including the additional minor losses is: 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + 2 K bend + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3.5 ) + ( 0. The system is steady.4hr Answer 0.05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 2m ) 2 ( 9. Solution: The equation for the draining time. 2. Using the friction factor from part (b) in Problem 931: 0. however.300 s=6922 min=115.5 and from Figure 9-13.05 20 )4 +1+2 (1.5 o 0.5 Comments: As can be seen the addition of a small amount of minor loss increased the draining time from about 100 hr to 115 hr. Assumptions: 1. we used “average” values of velocity and friction factor.0288 )( 20 0.0. The flow is fully developed. Approach: We use the same equations as derived in Problem P 9-30. Note. Properties are constant.5 ⎡1. 3. Kent = 1.

K bend = 0.9 ⎤ = −1. we can determine the required elevation difference.7 903. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.3) + ( 0. The gate valve is one-fourth closed.11 1 6. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. K exit = 1.4 lbm ft ) (12.7 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢0. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62. Applying the steady. Solution: The steady.9-32 A pipe connects two reservoirs at different elevations. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =12. K ent = 0.0141 From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14. Properties are constant.36 .6.0 + 2 ( 0.00015 1 ⎞1.26.00015 ft .2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Answer 9. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. For commercial steel pipe ε =0. The system is steady.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. ρ = 62.4 lbm ft 3 .26 + 1. The pipe is constructed of 12-in. Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss.5 + 0. so hP = hT = 0 . 2 ⎡ ⎛ 310 ⎞ ⎤ (12. and the pressure are atmospheric.7 = = 2 A πD 2 s π (1ft ) The flow is turbulent.7 ft s )(1ft ) = = 903. Assumptions: 1. The flow is fully developed. The water temperature is 50 °F. 3. The areas of the reservoirs are large.11 6. Determine the required elevation difference between the two reservoirs to produce a water flow rate of 10 ft3/s (in ft).0141) ⎜ = 16. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3.3 Therefore. 2. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . diameter commercial steel with flanged fittings.9ft ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. K valve = 0. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . Taking into account all losses: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.

solve equation (3) for velocity.020m ) Re = = = 27.93) (1000 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0. 2. incompressible flow energy equation.37 . Approach: If the fluid is moving.9 ⎤ 1 (2) = −1. Solution: a) Assuming the flow is from point 1 to point 2. The sign on the frictional head loss will tell us the flow direction.81m s 2 ) The frictional head loss is negative. the pipe diameter is constant.15 2. calculate the Reynolds number and the friction factor.0928 ⎞ m ⎛ 10m ⎞ ( V m s ) (3) 3.15m = f ⎜ → V =⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0. Determine: a.0201 0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. At one elevation the fluid pressure is 230 kPa.11 2. the steady.81m s 2 ) ⎝ f ⎠ s b) The head loss is hL = f The iterative procedure is to: guess a velocity. We assume the flow is turbulent and that the pipe is smooth. Answer The flow is upward. 3. µ = 0. so 3 ρV D ( 0. so hP = hT = 0 .16 Answer 9.5 1. L V2 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the head loss equation: 0.800 58. the flow velocity if it is flowing (in m/s). 400 V (1) µ 0. The frictional head loss can be determined with the steady. Assumptions: 1. at an elevation 10-m higher.600 57.93) (1000 kg m3 )( 9.0208 0.015m ⎠ 2 ( 9.00068 Nm s 2 For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent.900 f 0.700 49.81 2.5 2 ⎛ 0. if the flow is moving and in what direction b.9-33 A liquid (SG = 0.81 2. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.11 2. Continue until converged.15 Re 13. Properties are constant. We do not know the velocity or the friction factor. The system is steady.00068 N·s/m2) is contained in a vertical 2-cm diameter pipe. there will be frictional losses.0284 0. the assumed flow direction is incorrect. The flow is fully developed.11 6. and then compare to the guessed value. The friction factor depend on Reynolds number. so we will need to iterate D 2g to find a solution. V1 = V2 . ε =0 . the pressure is 110 kPa.15m + ( z1 − z2 ) = hL = ρg ( 0. V (m/s) 0.93. and there are no minor losses: (110-230 ) kN m 2 (1000kg m kN s 2 ) P − P2 1 + (10m ) =-3.0200 V (m/s) 1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.

0184 200 ⎤ ( 5.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. 3. so P = P2 .0184 ) = 1.0. L⎞V2 ⎛ z1 − z2 = ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. determine the required elevation change per 100 ft of pipe (in ft). Approach: Because we can solve for elevation change directly. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts This is turbulent flow.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.985 100ft of pipe Answer Comments: Note that the angle is θ = sin −1 ( −0.9-34 The designers of a large shopping mall install 18-in. and both are at atmospheric pressure.11 6. The system is steady. There is no turbine or pump. ε D = 0.5ft ) = = 602. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.56o . incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the required slope.9 ⎤ = −1.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.11 6.4 lbm ft ) ( 5.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 602.66 = = A π D 2 π (1. Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 62.00985 ) = −0.5 and Kexit = 1. so hT = hP = 0 . µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. 2. The pressures at the entrance and exit of the sewer are atmospheric. Kent = 0. diameter smooth concrete storm sewers to channel away runoff after heavy rainstorms. Properties are constant.38 .97ft 1. For the minor losses at the entrance and exit. Each storm sewer will need to carry a flow of 10 ft3/s. The flow is fully developed. so V1 = V2 . assume the area ratios are zero. ρ = 62.66 ft s ) ⎡ z1 − z2 = ⎢0.001ft. From Table 9-2 for smooth concrete ε = 0.4 lbm ft 3 . Solution: The steady. so from Figure 9-15.5 ⎥ 2 ( 32. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let locations 1 and 2 be just outside the pipe ends. the required negative slope is −1.00067 ⎞1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.97 200 = -0. 9.66 ft s )(1. the steady. Assumptions: 1. The duct is 1 constant area.5+1.5ft )2 s 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.0+ ( 0.00067 : 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =5. If the sewers are 200 ft long before they join with larger pipes.

Air is an ideal gas. 2500-ft long duct constructed of commercial steel pipe that carries air at 45 °F.0139 ) ⎜ = 100 ft of air ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2 ( 32. For air from Appendix B-7 at 45 ºF. so hP = hT = 0 . ⎞ ha = ⎜ ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ ⎟ =1.28hp ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ 32.9-35 In mountainous regions. trucks.39 . Answer P2. The flow is fully developed. 4.6 = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 3ft ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. g − P g 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: ⎛ 2500 ⎞ ( 23. There are no minor losses. of water ρw ⎝ 62.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.2 ft s 2 ) 2 Answer For pressure in inches of water: ∆P = ρ w ghw = ρ a gha → hw = ρa ⎛ 0.1lbf in. Properties are constant. Approach: The pressure drop is determined with the steady. ft ) lbm =0.00005 .00015ft. The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied just across the pump. There is no pump or turbine.0754 ⎞ ⎛ 12in. ventilation air must be supplied to dilute and purge vehicle exhaust gases from the tunnel.188×10-5 lbm fts 3 4 (10000 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =23.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.0754 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32. µ = 1. Solution: a) The steady. 14. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 .00015 3 = 0. ) ( 28. 3.0139 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 4. Consider a 3-ft diameter. the power required (in hp). ε = 0.2 2 ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ = ⎜ 10000 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =2.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. of water) b.00005 ⎞1.2ftlbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf s ⎠ ⎝ Answer 9. Assumptions: 1.000 ft3/min.0754 3 = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 45+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 2.9 ⎤ = −1. If the tunnel is too long.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.11 1 6.6 ft s ) ha = ( 0.1 psia with a flow rate of 10.0754 lbm ft ) ( 23.45in. ε D = 0. The system is steady.6 ft s )( 3ft ) = = 4.49 × 105 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. the pressure drop (in in. tunnels often are used for cars. incompressible flow energy equation.188 × 10−5 lbm fts . For commercial steel pipe. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 = ha = f ρg D 2g The pipe diameter and elevation are constant.49 × 105 µ 1. g b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2: The pumping power is 3 ρg = ρg W = ρVg ( ∆P ρ g ) = V ∆P = V ρ a gha 2 ⎛ ⎞⎛ ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ 1hp ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ lbfs 0.4 ⎠ ⎝ 1ft ⎠ hP = P2.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in. Therefore. Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 0. Assuming air is an ideal gas: ρ= 2 2 2 PM (14. Determine: a.11 6. and trains.

0201 Answer Because this is positive.020W=14. If it is negative.40 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0. We will assume the device inside the building is a pump. The system is steady. if the power calculated is positive.15m ) Re = = = 657. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. so hT = 0 .0kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ Answer 9.6 kg m3 . then our assumption is correct.81 2 ⎟ (14. Applying the energy equation.5+1⎥ 2 0. 4.5. and entrance losses. b) Power is ⎛ N s2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 999.66 m s ) ⎛ 100 ⎞ hP = −10m+ ⎢( 0.15 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. Properties are constant. 2. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .6 3 ⎟ ⎜ 0.9-36 Water at 10 °C flows from a lake at a flow rate of 0. and the device actually is a turbine. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Solution: a) The steady. if the device in the building is a pump or a turbine b. Assumptions: 1. 700 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. exit. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 and Kent = 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. ρ = 999.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.9 ⎤ = −1. 100-m long galvanized iron pipe connects the lake to a building in which either a pump or a turbine is located.66 V = = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. The device is a pump.11 1 6. 3.1 m3/s. The elevation difference between the lake surface and the building is 10 m.3m ) ⎜ ⎟ =14. the device is a pump. Therefore.81m s ) 2 → f = 0. The flow is fully developed.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.0201) ⎜ = 14. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. then our assumption was wrong.15 mm .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .66 m s )( 0.11 6. The losses are line. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g We assume the device is a pump.15 150 ⎞1.1m3 s ) V 4V m =5. ⎡ ⎤ ( 5. The velocity is: ρV D ( 999. µ = 12.6 kg m ) ( 5.3m ⎟ +0. A 15-cm diameter. 700 12. Approach: The steady. Determine: a.15m ) The flow is turbulent. For galvanize iron pipe ε =0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 657. incompressible flow energy equation has terms for pump and turbine power. the power of the device (in W).1 ⎟ ⎜ 9. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.

00015 ft .2 2 ⎟ (1318ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 32.2.5=1318ft ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ lbm ⎞⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 62.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ =346+950+21.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ =33.61 = = 2 A πD 2 s π ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 35 ºF. 1 hP = 2 P2 ⎛ L ⎞V + ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 .33 ⎞1.33ft ) The flow is turbulent.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. Power is hP → f = 0. For commercial steel pipe ε =0.0223) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0. so V1 = 0 and P = 0 . 3000-ft steel pipe to the top of the mountain.9 ⎤ = −1.9-37 Ski resorts pump water to make snow when the weather does not cooperate.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. Therefore. Determine the required pumping power (in hp). µ = 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s . The elevation difference is 950 ft.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 ⎡ ⎛ 3000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.2 ) (12in.4 3 ⎟⎜ 100 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 0. At point 1 the area of the pond is large. The flow is fully developed. so hT = 0 . we can determine the required pump power. ft ) ( 32.11 1 6.41 . the losses are line and exit. Solution: The steady.4 lbm ft 3 .1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =2.7 47. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.61ft s )( 0. diameter.00015 0.2 ft s ) 3 2 in.0223 2 (150 lbf = ( 62. Ignoring entrance loss. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62. The gage pressure required at the nozzle at the end of the pipe is 150 lbf/in.3 hp Answer 9. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Approach: By applying the steady.33ft ) = = 47.11 6.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. It is pumped from the water holding pond through a 4-in.4 lbm ft ) ( 2. 060 µ 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (100 gal min ) ( 0.61ft s ) +950ft+ ⎢( 0. and the gage pressure is atmospheric. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Properties are constant. 2.33 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.1337 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32.4 lbm ft )( 32. 3. Assumptions: 1. 060 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Consider a resort that uses 100 gal/min of 35 °F water. ρ = 62. The system is steady.

The flow is fully developed. 2 → f = 0. 4. Approach: The steady.80 )(1000W kW ) 9. The velocity is: V = hP = z2 − z1 + f L V2 D 2g 4 ( 2.81× 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.890kW = W= ηP ( 0. Once that is known.9-38 In the western United States.18 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 2.11 1 6. The Reynolds numbers are: Re = D ( 999 kg m ) ( 3. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . which connects a river to an irrigation canal.0113) ⎜ = 61. Assumptions: 1. The canal’s elevation is 50 m higher than that of the river. Neglect minor losses. Solution: The steady. taking into account pump efficiency. and water must be pumped long distances. and minor losses are neglected.81m s 2 ) Answer Pumping power. 2-km long steel pipe.7m ⎟ ⎝ 1 ⎠ 2 ( 9. the required pumping power can be calculated. µ = 11.18 m s ) hP = 50m + ( 0. For the pipe ε =0.0113 ⎛ 2000 ⎞ ( 3.7m ) ( 9.045mm .2 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.5 m3 s ) V 4V m =3.7 2.5 m s ) ( 61.5 m3/s of water (in kW). 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3.9 ⎤ = −1. ρ = 999 kg m3 . Properties are constant. determine the power required to pump 2. so ⎡⎛ 0.81m s )( Ns kgm ) =1.045 1000 ⎞1. Consider a system that consists of a 1-m diameter.18 = = 2 s A πD 2 π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.2 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 . 1 There is no turbine. Therefore. so hT = 0 . and for water from Appendix A-6 at 15 ºC. is: 3 3 2 2 mghP ( 999 kg m )( 2. The system is steady. a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 80%. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head.81× 106 11. For water at 15 °C. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. and neglecting minor losses. 3. many crops are irrigated.42 .

228 kg m3 )( 0. we can determine the flow rate through the expansion. Properties are constant.5 ) = 0. the mass flow rate (in kg/s).0944 m3 s A 2 0.5-cm circular duct.0944 m3 s ) = 0.5-mm of water higher than the upstream pressure. so z1 = z2 . The downstream pressure is 6. 3. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. Approach: Applying the steady.228 3 RT m (8. Determine: a. the average air velocity approaching the expansion (in m/s) b.5 22. so hT = hp = 0 . the volumetric flow rate (in m3/s) c.43 . Solution: a) The steady.5 22.0638 kN m 2 1 ⎧ 2 0. the air density is: 2 PM (105 kN m ) ( 28.5-cm circular duct into a 22.( 7.76 ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ b) The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 21.4 m ⎪ ( V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 3 s ⎪ (1.5 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: ⎧ ⎫ 2 ( P2 − P ) ⎪ ⎪ 1 V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 ⎪ ρ ⎡1 − ( D1 D2 ) − K exp ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ Assuming an ideal gas.5 ) -0.075m ) =0.116 kg s 9.76 The pressure rise is obtained from the given information and water density: P2 − P = ρ gh = (1000 kg m3 )( 9.314 kJ kgK )( 25+273) K Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion.228 kg m ) ⎡1. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass.9-39 Air at 105 kPa and 25 °C flows from a 7. The pipe is horizontal. The loss coefficient across the expansion must be evaluated. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.0638 kN m 2 1000kg m kN s ⎫ )( ) ⎪ =21.5 Answer Answer Answer c) Mass flow rate is: m=ρ V= (1. The system is steady. 2.97 kg kmol ) kg ρ= = =1. with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = ( 7. m1 = m2 0.111 → 2 2 K exp ≈ 0. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion.4 m s )( π 4 )( 0. Assumptions: 1. The flow is fully developed.81m s 2 ) ( 0.0065m ) ( kN s 2 1000 kg m ) =0.

045mm .7 198.6 3 ⎟ ( 9.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.11 1 6.10 ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ = 101. Solution: The steady.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3. and all minor losses except the exit are neglected.3 + 1960 + 120 = 2181kPa ( absolute ) =2080kPa (gage) Answer 2 9. water is stored in an elevated tank on the roof to minimize pressure fluctuations in the system.9-40 In some high rise buildings.3kPa . and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. The Reynolds number is: The velocity is: V = Re = D ( 999. so ⎡⎛ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is used directly to calculate the pressure at point 1. 4.9 ⎤ = −1. µ = 12. There is no pump or turbine. 000 12. Properties are constant. the pump is on the ground floor. so hT = hP = 0 .10m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.55 2 s A πD 2 π ( 0. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. → f = 0.0184 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 1 ⎟ m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0. P = P2 − ρ 1 V1 2 L⎞ V2 ⎛ + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K exit + f ⎟ ρ 1 D⎠ 2 2 ⎝ = 1 . ρ = 999. For the pipe ε =0. 3. Therefore.6 kg m3 . The flow is fully developed. what is the pressure at the pump discharge (in kPa)? Approach: The steady. Neglect minor losses.81m s 2 ) ( 200m ) ⎜ + ( 0.02 m3/s. so L V1 2 ρ D 2 Note that K exit P = P2 + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 4 ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The area at point 2 is large and the pressure is atmospheric. 2.44 . Consider water that is pumped through a 10-cm steel pipe to the roof of a 200-m tall building.02 m3 s ) 4V m V = = =2.3kPa + ⎜ 999.6 kg m ) ( 2. The system is steady.55 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 198.045 100 ⎞1. For a water temperature of 10 °C and a flow of 0.0184 2 ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ( 2.55 m s ) ⎛ kN s ⎞ P = 101.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Assumptions: 1. so V2 = 0 and P2 = 101.

00188 (2) -2. respectively. 000 V 10−6 m 2 s µ ν ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. V1 = V2 . so D V D ( V m s )( 0.11f ( V m s ) 2 (3) The above three equations can be solved iteratively to determine velocity and. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and the pipe has a slope of 1m rise per 10 m of run (horizontal distance).985m+19. hence. 3. so hP = hT = 0 . determine the flow rate (in m3/s). For a fluid with a kinematic viscosity of 10-6 m2/s and a density of 900 kg/m3. incompressible flow energy equation is: and with hL = ( f L D ) V 2 2 g : P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Performing the iteration: V (m/s) = 1. Assumptions: 1.24 ⎟ ( 0. From the problem geometry: θ = tan −1 (1 10 ) = 5.265m=-2. The steady.81m s2 ) 1 (1) For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent. The horizontal distance between the two locations is 30 m.985m The friction factor depend on Reynolds number. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g Note that ( z2 − z1 ) ≠ −3m .24 m/s Re=98. the pipe diameter is constant.15 80 = 0.08m ) ρV Re = = = = 80. so with ε =0. flow rate.9-41 A fluid flows by gravity down an 8-cm galvanized iron pipe. ε D = 0. The pressures at the higher and lower locations are 120 kPa and 140 kPa. there are no minor losses. pressure difference. The flow is fully developed.15 mm. Solution: The steady.08m ⎠ 2 ( 9.9 ⎤ = −1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kN ⎛ 1000kgm ⎞ (120-140 ) 2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ m ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ ⎛ 30m ⎞ ( V m s ) =-2.81m s 2 ) ( 900 kg m3 )( 9. Approach: Flow is set by a balance among elevation difference.900 f = 0.985m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0. The system is steady.11 6. and line losses. Properties are constant. Line losses depend on velocity.71o → z2 − z1 = −30sin ( 5.00623 A Answer s ⎠4 s ⎝ 9.45 . 2. so this maybe an iterative solution depending on whether this is a laminar or a turbulent flow.08m ) =0.71o ) = −2.0247 For volume flow rate m ⎞π m3 2 ⎛ V = V = ⎜1.

Assuming that galvanized steel pipe will be used. The flow is fully developed. Approach: Friction pressure loss depends on the friction factor and velocity. The steady. 600 ρV = = 12. so hP = hT = 0 .15mm .0382 D m s ) ( Dm ) 29.6 kg m3 )( 9.104 m V = 3. so V1 = V2 .6 kg m )( 0.000 f = 0.03 m3/s of water. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. with ε =0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to find the required diameter.694 The above four equations are solved iteratively: D = 0.54 m/s Re = 285. The Reynolds numbers are: The velocity is: V = Re = 3 2 D ( 999. The system is steady. Assumptions: 1. The water main from which the water will be obtained is 150-m from the factory. Only line losses are present Therefore.9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1. The pipe diameter is constant. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and the factor needs 100 kPa (gage) water at a location 10-m above the water main. determine the minimum pipe diameter needed (in m).104 would be used.694 = (4) Answer 9. the steady.46 . The water main pressure is 400 kPa (gage). the flow will be turbulent.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ( 400-100 ) kN m 2 (1000kgm kNs 2 ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V m s ) =10m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 9. 2.0382 m 4V V = = = (1) 2 A πD 2 D2 s π ( Dm ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g 4 ( 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .9-42 A new factory is to be built that requires 0.6 kg m3 . and from Table 9-2.81m s ) ( 999.11 6. ρ = 999. both of which depend on the pipe diameter. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.3m3 s ) 0. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed). µ = 12. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. 3.0223 The next standard pipe size greater than 0.81m s2 ) f V2 f V2 → D= D 2.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 D µ (2) For any reasonable size pipe. 2. An iterative solution is required.

7 Re ⎥ 2. K ent = 0. The losses include inlet. 1 L⎞V2 ⎛ hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ 4 ( 3m3 s ) 4V m V =3. µ = 12.5 and K exit = 1.82 m s )(1m ) = = 2. so P = P2 .6 kg m ) ( 3.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 Assuming a sharp edged entrance and exit.0m+3. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.213kW Answer 9. ε =0.9 ⎤ f = 0. determine the power required (in kW). a water flow rate of 3 m3/s is to be pumped from the lower to the upper reservoir through a 1-m diameter commercial steel pipe. Assumptions: 1.9-43 For the system shown below. ρ = 999. The areas at 1 and 2 are large.6 kg m3 )( 3m3 s )( 9.96 × 106 Re = 12.6 kg m3 .81m s ) ⎣ = 57. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.11 6.0113 = −1. The flow is turbulent and from Table 9-2. and line losses.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .47 .8log ⎢⎜ → ⎥ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + 3.2m=60. the pumping power can be calculated. 2. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed). The system is steady. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999.2m W= mghP ηP = ( 999. V1 = V2 = 0 . Properties are constant.82m s ) hP = ( 730-673) m+ ⎢0. Solution: From point 1 to point 2.81m s2 ) ( 60.0113) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.0 . Neglecting minor losses. Once the head is determined. 3. Approach: The required pump head can be obtained directly from the steady.80 Answer =2.2m ) (1kNs 2 1000kgm ) 0. incompressible flow energy equation.96 × 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.11 1 6. so hT = 0 . Therefore.5 + 1 + ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ⎡ ⎛ 245 ⎞ ⎤ ( 3.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. The flow is fully developed. the steady. The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. from Figures 9-13 and 9-14.82 The velocity is: V = = = 2 2 s A πD π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.045mm .045 1000 ⎞1. and pressure is atmospheric. exit.

1 with only an exit minor loss and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 . Approach: The required fan head can be obtained directly from the steady.0737 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5000 ⎟⎜ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32. For a flow rate of 5000 ft3/min of 60 °F air at 14. ft ) =0. µ = 1. which is 36-in. The system is steady.0186 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ 0.6 ft s ) hP = ⎢( 0.2 lbf/in. For the duct (from Table 9-2). the fan power can be calculated. and for air from Appendix B-7 at 60 ºF. incompressible flow energy equation.0005 ft .6 = s A ( 0. 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Assumptions: 1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. The flow is fully developed.9-44 Fresh air is distributed in a factory through a 250-ft long rectangular galvanized duct.9 ⎤ = −1. Solution: The steady.6 ft s )( 0. The duct has constant area and is horizontal V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 .5+3) ft Re = 3 ρ V h ( 0.2 lbf in.0005 0. Properties are constant.65 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 ⎝ lbf s ⎠ = 5.2 2 ⎟ ( 308ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ mghP ρVghP ⎝ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ WP = = = ηP ηP ⎛ 32. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.0737 3 ρ= = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 60+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. by 6in.0737 lbm ft ) ( 55.5ft )( 3ft ) 4 Ax 4 HW =0. ε =0.2ft lbm ⎞ ( 0. ) ( 28.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 3.5ft )( 3ft ) Because this is a non-circular duct.7 289. 000 1. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.48 . Assuming air is an ideal gas: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14.857ft ) D = = 289.3hp Answer 9.214 × 10 −5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent.2.11 1 6.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Power is → f = 0. 2. so both are at atmospheric pressure and P = P2 . Once we determine the required head.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.11 6. 3.857 ⎞1.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.857ft = = Dh = pwetted 2 ( H + W ) 2 ( 0. Therefore.857 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. we need the hydraulic diameter: 4 ( 0. 2 ⎡ ⎛ 250 ⎞ ⎤ ( 55. determine the fan pumping power required if the fan has a mechanical efficiency of 65% (in hp). so hT = 0 .97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.0186 ) ⎜ =308ft ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0. Point 1 is just upstream of the fan and point 2 is outside of the duct. The velocity is: V = 3 ft V ( 5000 ft min ) (1min 60s ) =55.214 × 10−5 lbm ft s .

0207 )( 0. include one entrance.5+0 ⎦ 0. a) Ignoring line loss.11 6.11 6. We assume the area at 1 large. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0.8log ⎢ + ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ ⎥⎟ Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎣ Re ⎦ ⎠ ⎝ ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ + → f = ⎜1. Determine: a.5m ) ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 1+0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.1π /2 ) 0.700 → f = 0. Approach: The flow can be determined by applying the steady.2 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0.49 . Solution: The steady. f = 0 0.9 ⎤ ⎛ 1 ⎡ 6.025 ⎥ s ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ For a second iteration: V = 2.0207 → ⎡ ⎤ 2 ( 9.5+ ( 0. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC.99 m s )( π 4 )( 0. so the procedure we will follow is: assume a velocity. one bend.00122 m3 s A 2 Answer 9. µ = 9.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. 3.00147 m3 s A b) The line loss will decrease the flow.5.5-cm diameter smooth tube and has a reentrant inlet. evaluate friction factor.025m ) ρV Re = = = 25. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. as shown below. the volume flow rate if only the minor losses are taken into account (in m3/s) b.0197 → V = 2. so hT = hp = 0 .1+1. calculate Reynolds number. Kbend = 1. The system is steady.8. The flow is fully developed. so P1 = P2.49 m s )( π 4 )( 0.8+1. and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V ∑ hL = ⎜ f D + K ent + Kbend ⎟ 2 g ⎝ ⎠ Combining and solving for the velocity: 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) ⎡ ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣1 + K ent + K bend + f L D ⎦ From Figure 9-13a. and then calculate velocity from the complete velocity equation. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.5 =2. 2.5+0. The siphon is a 2.025m ) =0. 3 D ( 998.8+1. From Table 9-3.5 ⎡ 2 ( 9.47 m/s → Re = 62.85 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 µ For a velocity even one-fourth the velocity obtained without line loss.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.5 V = V = ( 2.1+0. the flow still would be turbulent. for a 180º bend.500 → f = 0. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric.49 m/s This is close enough so 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Guess V = 2 m/s → Re = 50.340 V 9.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .99 m s 2 V = V = ( 2.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Assumptions: 1.9-45 Water at 20 °C is to be siphoned from a large tank.025m ) =0.2 kg m3 . in general.5m ) m V =⎢ ⎥ =2.9 ⎤ ⎞ = −1. Properties are constant. ρ = 998.81m s )(1. The losses. so −2 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. so V1 ≈ 0 .47 1+0. the volume flow rate if both the minor and line losses are taken into account (in m3/s). For part (b) an iterative solution is required. For smooth tubing ε =0 .81m s )(1.

4 0. Kbend = 0.17 9.04 in. and then calculate h2 from the energy equation and compare to the limit.0214 -15.10 85. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 40 ºF. From Figure 9-13a.9-46 A pump draws 40 °F water from a lake through 20 ft of commercial steel pipe. Approach: The pressure drop in the inlet piping must be calculated.0215 -19.000 0.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. for a 90º bend.300 0.11 6. Determine the minimum pipe diameter (in in. so hp = 0 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. µ = 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s .). incompressible flow energy equation must be used. an iterative solution is required. the flow will be turbulent. Reynolds number. Let z1 = 0 . hence.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 0.1 106. The steady. The procedure is: guess diameter. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. in general.2 Based on these calculations. so using gage pressure P1 = 0.4 lbm ft )( 0. in diameter or larger would be chosen for the suction pipe. Solution: The steady.0 0. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. and friction factor. Answer 9.4 lbm ft 3 . one bend. ρ = 62. The system is steady. and the pressure at 1 is atmospheric. Because friction factor depends on velocity and. calculate velocity. 2.284 ft V 4V V2 = = = = 2 A π D2 D2 s π ( Dft ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0. 000 = = Re = µ 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s D For any pipe with a diameter of less than about 8 ft. the line has a reentrant inlet and a 90° regular flanged elbow. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump. 3.284 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 17.2 7. so V1 ≈ 0 .83 100. the head at the suction side of the pump must not be less than –20 ft of water. The losses.8. D (ft) Re f h2 (ft) V (ft/s) 0. and the pressure at point 2 expressed in terms of head. From Table 9-3.50 . The pump elevation is 12 ft above the lake surface.3. Properties are constant. We assume the area at 1 large.000 0. The flow is fully developed. For a design flow rate of 100 gal/min. the standard pipe size about 0.0216 -21.00015ft . diameter. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0. Assumptions: 1. and line loss: 0= 2 P2 V2 ⎛ L ⎞V + 2 + z2 + ⎜ f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρ g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for P2 ρ g : 2 P2 L ⎛ ⎞V = h2 = − z2 − ⎜1 + f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρg D ⎝ ⎠ 2g The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (100gal min ) ( 0.17 ft = 2. include one entrance. 3 2 ρV D ( 62.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ We know that h2 ≤ −20ft .16 11.

If the hydraulic fluid flows through 25 m of smooth. and other tools.51 .033 N·s/m2). cutting blades.033 N s m 2 ) ( 0. Approach: The steady. High-pressure pumps are used to circulate the hydraulic fluid (ρ = 880 kg/m3 and µ = 0. determine the minimum tubing diameter required (in cm). Properties are constant. Consider a hydraulic system that has a pump outlet pressure of 20 MPa and which requires a minimum pressure at the hydraulic cylinder of 18 MPa at a flow rate of 0. an iterative solution may be required.00957m=9. friction factor is a function of velocity.033 Ns m 2 ) ( 25m ) ( 0.57mm π ( 0.57 mm. The diameter would be the next standard diameter greater Answer than 9.0005 m3 s ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ π ( 2000 kN m 2 ) (1000N 1kN ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Checking Reynolds number ρV D m 4 ρV 4 ρV Re = → V = = → Re = 2 µ ρA πD πµ D Re = =0. Ignoring minor losses: P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. We would have assumed a friction factor. However. The system is steady. 9. and solving for diameter: 14 ⎡128 ( 0. The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. calculated a diameter. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. calculated Reynolds number. 2. For this situation. and then iterated to find a solution. we will assume (initially) that the flow is fully developed laminar flow. Solution: The steady.00957m ) 4 ( 880 kg m3 )( 0. drawn steel tubing. so hp = hT = 0 . Assumptions: 1.0005 3 s ) =1770 This is laminar. Comments: If the flow had been turbulent.9-47 Large farm implements and road construction equipment use hydraulically actuated cylinders to position scoops. which depends on pipe diameter. incompressible flow energy equation must be used. For line friction losses. Depending on the flow. Therefore. we would have needed to solve the pressure drop equation for diameter. so our assumption was valid.0005 m3/s. using ⎡128µ LV ⎤ D=⎢ ⎥ ⎣ π∆P ⎦ 14 V = V A = 4V π D 2 . because of the low flow rate and large viscosity. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . 3. and then checked the friction factor for convergence. f = 64 Re Substituting into the pressure drop relation. The flow is fully developed. we can speculate that the flow might be laminar.

Approach: Applying the steady.2 2 2 A π D1 s π (1 12 ft ) 2 2 Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion. Determine the pressure rise across the expansion (in lbf/in. diameter tube through a sudden expansion. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass.2). incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. The flow is fully developed. diameter tube into a 2-in.2 ft s ) 3 2 2 = 0. m1 = m2 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and simplifying: 4 ⎤ V1 2 ⎡ ⎛ D1 ⎞ ⎢1 − ⎜ P2 − P = ρ ⎟ − K exp ⎥ 1 2 ⎢ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The velocity is: 4 ( 30 gal min ) ( 0. with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = (1 2 ) = 0. ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Answer 9. we can determine the pressure rise across the expansion. so z1 = z2 .2 lbm ft ) (12.56 ⎥ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎢ ⎝2⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 32. Assumptions: 1. so hT = hp = 0 .9-48 Water at 70 °F with a flow rate of 30 gal/min flows from a 1-in.56 ( 62. Solution: The steady.25 Therefore. 2. The system is steady. P2 − P = 1 → K exp ≈ 0. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion.1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft V1 = = = =12. Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.52 . 3.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in.380 lbf in. The pipe is horizontal.2 ⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞4 ⎤ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1ft ⎞ 2 ⎢1+ ⎜ ⎟ -0.

plus one expansion and one contraction.5+1⎥ ⎜1.832 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . The pressure loss is due to line loss. 25 °C. Solution: a) The steady. and taking into account the two identical lengths of pipe: ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ 1000W s ⎞ W = −V ∆Ptot = −2V ∆P23 = -2 ⎜ 15 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 0.832 × 10 −5 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent. Properties are constant. Assumptions: 1. Approach: The pressure in the clean room can be determined by applying the steady. The system is steady.169 kg m ) ( 5. µ = 1.169 kg m3 . we recognize that the pressure drop from just after the fan to the clean room is the same as from the clean room to the outside (calculated above).53 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. Solving the energy equation for P2 (note that P3 = P ): 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 = P3 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (15m3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V m V = = = =5. The flow is fully developed.25 m ⎠ 2 ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ =100+0. Using the energy equation.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. and for air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa.0397=100. 200 1. The pipe is horizontal.0186 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 81. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. 2.0397 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =-19. so z1 = z2 = z3 .0186 ) +0.09 m s ) ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎡ ⎤⎛ P2 = 100kPa+ ⎢( 0.25m ) ρV Re = = = 81. Determine: a. For smooth pipe ε =0 .9-49 A Class 100 clean room is to be supplied with 15 m3/min of air. 200 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. All entrances and exits are all sharp edged. so L V2 V2 V2 hL = f + K ent + K exit D 2g 2g 2g Assuming the room at 2 and the outside at 3 are large.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.11 1 6. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.25m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Using Figure 9-15a for the entrance and Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion. the fan power required (in W).5 and K exit = 1.11 6. 25 ºC. again assuming incompressible flow.09 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3. ρ = 1.9 ⎤ = −1.169 ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ 0. which enters the duct (shown below) at 100 kPa.09 m s )( 0. 3 D (1. so hT = hp = 0 . the pressure in the clean room (in kPa) b. V2 ≈ V3 ≈ 0 .9W ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ 9. with A1 A2 = 0 → K ent ≈ 0.0 Therefore: 2 15 kg ⎞ ( 5. The fan power can be obtained by applying the energy equation between points 1 and 3. 3.04kPa Answer b) For fan power.

determine the new volumetric flow rate (in m3/min). Approach: We will use the information from the solution to Problem P 9-49. Combining the two equations and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ −4W V =⎢ ⎥ 2 ⎢ π D ρ ( fL D + K ent + K exit ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 13 For well-rounded entrances and exits.7% 15.0 − 15. Solution: We have two equations to combine: W = −2V ∆P23 = −2 V ( P2 − P3 ) A 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 − P3 = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The friction factor is a function of velocity.169 kg m3 ⎛ 0. The system is steady. 3. which would not change our answer very much. K ent ≈ 0.0 . 2.0184. from Figure 9-13d and Figure 9-14d. Therefore.9W )(1J Ws )(1Nm 1J ) ( kgm Ns 2 ) ⎥ m ⎥ =5. Assumptions: 1.25m ) ( 60s 1min ) =16. but the new flow probably will not cause a significant change in the friction factor. we will assume it is approximately constant.0 Answer Comments: Note that the new Reynolds number is 86. 9.04 and K exit = 1. ⎡ ⎤ ⎢ -4 ( -19.54 . The flow is fully developed.43 =⎢ s ⎢ π 0.600 and the friction factor is 0.0 m3 s A 2 13 % increase = 16.0 × 100 = 6.0186 15 +0.04+1⎞ ⎥ ) ( )⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎢ ( 0.25 ⎝ ⎠⎦ ⎣ The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 5.25m 2 1. For the same fan power as in the original installation.43m s )( π 4 )( 0. Properties are constant.9-50 In Problem P 9-49. the sharp-edged entrances and exits are replaced with well-rounded entrances and exits. The main difference is that Kent and Kexit will change because of the well-rounded entrances and exits.

4. 9-28.2 ft s2 ) (1Btu 778ft lbf ) =0.93ft s ) = − ( 0.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 9. using Eq.2 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-0. q = − hL g → Q = mq = − mhL g = − ρ V L g Ah Answer b) For the heat transfer . so that ⎣ ⎦ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ 1Btu ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ Btu 2 ⎛ ⎛ Q = − ⎜ 62. 9-29 hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g .7 ⎠ ⎣ 1.2ft lbm ⎠ s ⎝ ⎝ c) For an insulated pipe.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . be determined. For isothermal flow. the same equation can be used to calculate temperature rise if the pipe is insulated. so V1 = V2 . 1 Velocity is : V = −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 4 (15gal min ) ( 0.9-51 Frictional pressure loss in fluid flow is converted to unwanted thermal energy. diameter smooth tube.0135 ⎟⎜ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ ⎝ 778ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ 32. For constant pressure flow P = P2 .9 ⎤ ⎥ 38. ρ = 62.06 100 ) = −2. Eq.06 ft/100 ft or θ = sin −1 ( −5.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3.25-in.2 lbm ft 3 : D ( 62. b) the heat transfer per 100 ft of tube if the temperature remains constant (Btu/hr). u2 − u1 = 0 .104ft ) ρV Re = = = 38. Solution: a) The slope (in ft/100 ft of pipe) requires that the elevation difference. incompressible flow energy equation is used. 9-29 can be used to calculate the heat transfer. 700 65. so again using Eq.022 L V2 ⎛ 100 ⎞ ( 3.55 .93 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. Using the steady.00 Btu lbmR ) ( 32.022 ) ⎜ = −5. Therefore. 700 ⎥ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =3. so hP = hT = 0 . so −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 1 ⎡⎛ 0 D ⎞ = −1. 3.2 2 ⎟ ⎜ 3.0065o F (1.2 ft s 2 ) So the slope is -5. z2 − z1 . Properties are constant. The flow is fully developed.9o . With constant temperature.8 × 10 −5 lbm fts µ 3 The flow is turbulent.104ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.93ft s )( 0. The system is steady. 2. Frictional losses can be calculated because the flow is given. Assuming a smooth pipe ε = 0 . Consider an 18 gal/min flow of 70 °F water through a 1. incompressible flow energy equation: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g L V2 D 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. The tube is sloped so that the pressure remains constant throughout the tube.104 ⎠ 2 ( 32. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF. Neglect minor losses. the steady.06ft ⎟ D 2g ⎝ 0. There is no pump or turbine. Approach: For constant pressure flow. Determine: a) the slope (in ft/100 ft).11 + 6. µ = 65.2 lbm ft ) ( 3. and c) the temperature rise if the tube is perfectly insulated (in °F). and assuming an ideal liquid with constant specific heat: hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g → u2 − u1 = hL g → c (T2 − T1 ) = hL g ⎣ ⎦ T2 − T1 = hL g c = ( 5.06ft ) ⎜ 32. and minor losses are neglected. Assumptions: 1.93 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ( 0.06ft ) ( 32.104ft ) ( 5. q = 0.

During charging of the reservoir with air. We assume the surface of the reservoir is large.3) ⎥ ⎜ 999.5.6 kg m ) ( 2. The flow is fully developed.3. Assuming the bends are regular.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. 3. leaving only 20-60% to drive the electric generator.15 m3/s (in kPa).9 ⎤ = −1.9-52 A gas turbine power plant consists of a compressor.6 kg m3 .0196 ) +0. ⎟⎜ ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ 0. 000 12.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493. which fills with 10 °C water when the air has been used.30m ) ρV = = 493.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.6 ⎬⎜ ⎟ 1. Determine the gage pressure P required to produce a water flow rate of 0. ρ = 999. flanged. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.12 m s )( 0. gage = 0 Therefore: V22 + ρ g ∑ hL 2 The losses include line loss. one entrance. so V1 ≈ 0 . The system is steady. so hT = hp = 0 .30m ) P gage = ρ g ( z1 − z2 ) + ρ 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0.0196 2 ⎧⎛ kg ⎞⎛ m⎞ 850 kg ⎞ ( 2.26 300 ⎞1.26mm . The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 0. Approach: The required pressure can be determined by applying the steady. a combustor in which the fuel and air are mixed and combusted. Solution: The steady. so from Figure 9-15a. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. is connected to the outside by a 30-cm cast iron pipe. increases.30 m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎪ ⎪ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎩ ⎭ =620kPa (gage) Answer 9.12 m s ) ⎫ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎪ ⎪ ⎡ ⎤⎛ 9. The air reservoir. and the pressure at 2 is atmospheric. the air pressure.12 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. and a turbine that drives an electrical generator.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. from Table 9-3. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.11 6. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Properties are constant. µ = 12. Expressing P1 and P2 in terms of gage pressures.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . the compressed air to be supplied to the power plant is taken from the stored air instead of just using the air compressor. P2. and two bends: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hL = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The entrance has an area ratio of zero.11 1 6.81 2 ⎟ ( 50m ) + ⎢( 0. Re = D ( 999. The air compression process takes from 40 to 80% of the turbine output power. Kbend = 0.15m3 s ) V 4V m V2 = = = =2.5+1+2 ( 0. Assumptions: 1. Kent = 0. Consider the system shown in the figure below.56 . P.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. 90º. The frictional losses must be calculated. Some gas turbine plants store compressed air in salt domes or caverns for use during times when additional electric power is needed. 2.6 P gage = ⎨⎜ 999. For cast iron pipe ε =0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.

8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.11 6. Solution: a) The steady. so hP = hT = 0 . Approach: We can determine the pressure at 2 by using the steady.000225 .9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0. the pumping power required (in W).85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎢⎜ 9. Solving for P2. The system is steady.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Determine: a. 3. so V3 ≈ 0 . Velocity is : D ( 998. For water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. g ⎞ 3 2 W = mghP = ρVg ⎜ Answer ⎟ = VP2. g = ⎜ 998. The flow is fully developed. The losses include line loss and exit loss ( K exit = 1 ). The flow rate is 0. g ⎡ ⎡ V2 V2 L V22 ⎤ L V22 ⎤ P2.000225 ⎞1. g − P g P2.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. For commercial steel pipe. g 1.20m ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. ρ = 998. 000 9. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. ε D = 0.9-53 Water at 20 °C is pumped from a reservoir through a 20-cm commercial steel pipe for 5 km from the pump outlet to a reservoir whose surface is 150-m above the pump.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.18 m s )( 0. Assume pressure 1 is atmospheric.10 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3.2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2.0152 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 645. g = ρ g ⎢( z3 − z2 ) − 2 + K exit 2 + f = ρ ⎢ g ( z3 − z 2 ) + f ⎥ ⎥ D 2g ⎦ D 2 ⎦ 2g 2g ⎣ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.10 m s )( 3390 kN m ) (1kWs 1kNm ) =339kW ⎝ ρg ⎠ 9.20m ) ρV Re = = = 645.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 kg ⎞ ⎡⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ( 3. g = 0 .045 200 = 0. µ = 9. g = ( 0. hP = = ρg ρg The pumping power is ⎛ P2. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3.81 2 ⎟ (150m ) + ( 0. Properties are constant.0152 ) ⎜ ⎥⎜ P2. Expressing P2 and P3 in terms of gage pressure.045 mm. so P3.2 kg m3 . ε = 0. and the pipe diameters at 1 and 2 are the same.11 1 6.57 . The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied between points 1 and 2.10 m3/s. the pressure at the pump outlet (in kPa) b. There is no pump or turbine.2 3 ⎟ Answer ⎟ ⎟ =3390kPa (gage) m ⎠ ⎢⎝ s ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.2 kg m ) ( 3. Assumptions: 1. 2. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3 is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The reservoir is large. Therefore: P2.

20-cm diameter. Therefore. 000 µ 12. µ = 12.81m s 2 ) =65.77 m s )( 0.4m+10.12 m s 2 2 2 2 VC = VA ( DA DC ) = ( 4.0176 and f C = 0.77 m s )( 0.77 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0. Solution: The steady.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 739. 2. so hP = hT = 0 . Assumptions: 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ → f A = 0.40 ) =1. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.15 200 ⎞1.20m ) VB = VA ( DA DB ) = ( 4.58 . Neglect minor losses. For galvanized iron pipe ε =0. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow.0170 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.8m=79. the second pipe is 800-m long. The Reynolds numbers are: ReA = ρV D ( 999.77 m s ) ⎛ 800 ⎞ ( 2.0188 Similarly.20 0. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line.0176 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0.7m+3. determine the elevation difference between the reservoirs (in m). The first pipe is 600-m long.0176 ) ⎜ + ( 0. For a flow of 0.20 0. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.15mm .9-54 Two reservoirs are connected by three galvanized iron pipes in series.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0.6 kg m ) ( 4. f B = 0. 3.30 ⎠ 2 ( 9. so ⎡⎛ 0. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . Therefore. 000 ReC = ReA ( DA DC ) = 369.11 1 6.15 m3 s ) V 4V m VA = = = =4. ρ = 999. if more flow were desired through this system. 000 T the flow is turbulent.15 m3/s of water at 10 °C. and minor losses are neglected.20m ) = = 739. For a given elevation difference. 2 2 2 ⎛ 600 ⎞ ( 4. 9.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .12 m s ) ⎛ 1200 ⎞ (1. Properties are constant. and the third pipe is 1200-m long.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0. increasing the diameter of pipe A would be the first option to try.6 kg m3 .0188 ) ⎜ + ( 0.9m Answer Comments: Note that pipe A losses dominate the total pressure loss.19 m s ) z1 − z = ( 0. 40-cm in diameter.9 ⎤ = −1. The system is steady. z1 − z2 = f A L V2 LA VA2 L V2 + f B B B + fC C C DA 2 g DB 2 g DC 2 g The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: 4 ( 0.40 ⎠ 2 ( 9.20 ⎠ 2 ( 9. 4. The steady.19 m s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. There is no 1 pump or turbine. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation difference.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 493.30 ) =2.77 m s )( 0. 30-cm diameter. The flow is fully developed.

Solution: The steady.0214 ⎢ ⎥ (8. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric.0. With an elevation difference of 55 ft between the reservoir surface and the pipe outlet. The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 3ft 3 s ) V 4V ft V = = = =8.59 .2 ft s ) ( -55ft ) ⎢.9 ⎤ = −1.1+1+3 [1. 3.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s .300 Re = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent. and the exit from the reservoir is sharp edged. Approach: The length can be determined by applying the steady.4 lbm ft ) ( 8.59 ft s )( 0.11 6.59 ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0.7 406. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V 0 = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K valve + K exit + 3K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for the length: ⎤ D ⎡ 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) − ( K valve + K exit + 3K bend ) ⎥ L = ⎢− 2 f ⎣ V ⎦ From Figure 9-15b. The frictional losses must be calculated.59 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.00085ft .667ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Properties are constant.( 2.300 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ L= 2 ⎤ 0.667ft ) = = 406. We assume the surface of the reservoir and canal are large. ρ = 62.667ft ⎡ 2 ( 32. Kbend = 1. 2.5 and Kvalve = 2. The flow is fully developed. a half closed gate valve. 3 ρV D ( 62.4 lbm ft 3 . For cast iron pipe ε =0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.00085 0. Determine the total length of straight pipe in the system (in ft).11 1 6.9-55 In a water system. so P1 = P2. The system is steady. so hT = hp = 0 .1. Kexit = 1. Therefore. cast iron pipe. so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 . The system has three regular 90° threaded elbows.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. 3 ft3/s of water at 50 °F flows through the pipe. From Table 9-3. a reservoir is connected to a canal with an 8-in.0214 Answer 9.5]) ⎥ =1260ft 2 0.667 ⎞1. Assumptions: 1.

Increase the volume flow and recalculate until a maximum power is obtained. the flow is turbulent.. 2. The surface of the small lake from where you will get the 50 °F water is 500 ft above where you will locate the turbine. Reynolds number.09V A π D 2 π ( 0. turbine head. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. an iterative solution is required. You connect the lake and turbine with 1000 ft of 6-in.830 2.6 13. For cast iron pipe ε =0. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.26 76. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s .09V ft s ) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. so to find the maximum possible power.2 2 ⎟ ( hT ft ) ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 746 ⎟ 4 ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ hp ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ ⎝ 32. Pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line.760 At maximum power.1 ft/s.24 76. so ⎡ hT = 500ft − ⎢ f ⎣ ⎛ 1000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 5. cast iron pipe. 3. you decide to produce your own electric power for your vacation home using a hydroturbine.11 6. ( hP = 0 ). There is no 1 pump.590 2. The turbine discharge is the same diameter as the inlet and is open to the atmosphere.9 ⎤ = −1.09V ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ( 0.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ WT = 84.75 76. The flow is fully developed. Answer Comments: For zero power output from the turbine. Solution: The steady.0274 and Re = 487. ⎛ L V2 V2 ⎞ (1) hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ 2g ⎠ ⎝ D 2g where K exit = 1 and WT = mghT .60 . 600V 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V 4V ft = = =5.5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.500.73 ft3/s and V = 24.5 ft ) ⎜ 32. and turbine power.4 lbm ft 3 . Determine the maximum power that can be produced (in W).5ft )2 s (2) (3) For any reasonable flowrate. ρ = 62.8 14. calculate velocity.5ft ) = = 180. The system is steady with constant properties.6hT V W (5) The procedure to follow is to use the above five equations to calculate the maximum power: guess a volume flow rate.00085 ft . 9.09V ft s ) ( 0. f = 0. Therefore.4 lbm ft )( 5. friction factor.7 13. the volume flow rate would be 4.9-56 On your land high in the Rocky Mountains. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . and the losses are line and exit losses. Proceeding with the calculations: V ( ft 3 s ) V ( ft s ) WT ( W ) 2.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5. Neglect minor losses. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. Turbine power can be calculated with the steady. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. incompressible flow energy equation.2 ft s 2 ) 2 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Assumptions: 1. WT = ρ V (4) π ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ W⎞ 2⎛ ⎛ D 2 ghT = ⎜ 62.

2.9 361. this is turbulent flow.462 0.9-57 Fire trucks have pumps to boost the pressure of the water supplied by a fire hydrant.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. µ = 65.500 This is satisfactory convergence. The system is steady. so hP = hT = 0 .0139 0. Water from the hydrant reaches the pump inlet at 60 lbf/in. so the volume flow rate is: 9. Water must reach the nozzle at the hose exit at 100 lbf/in.000 0. ρ = 62.2 ) ( 2 12 ft ) ( 32.2 333.2 lbm ft 3 .5 s V (ft/s) Re f 0. apply the steady.84V 2 A π ( 2 12 ft ) s For any reasonable flow rate.9 ⎤ 1 = −1.11 6.5 → Velocity is : ρV D ( 62.2 lbm ft 3 ) f ( 250ft )(1ft 12in. Approach: Flow rate.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ ft 3 s Now perform the iteration: V ( ft 3 s ) V = V 45.492 ft f 0.2 P2 − P3 = ⎢ ⎢ 100ft ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. nozzle exit velocity. Consider a fire truck that has a 250-ft long. the design flow rate (in gal/min) b. 2-in.2 ) ⎤ ⎥ ( 250ft ) =62.458 . so V2 = V3 and z2 = z3 There is no pump or turbine.2 21. the equation must be applied across three different segments of the system.0141 V (ft/s) 21. the pump power required if the pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% (in hp).2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ ⎢ ( 62.2 (gage).61 0.84V ft s ) ( 2 12 ft ) = = 722. If the design pressure drop specification for the hose is 25 psi/100 ft of length.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . For water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF.5 = 2. and pump power are calculated with the steady.)2 ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.8 × 10−5 lbm fts µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V ft V = = =45.2 lbm ft )( 45. so assuming a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. determine: a.5lbf in.5lbf in. 200V Re = 65. diameter smooth fire hose. incompressible flow energy equation. P2 − P3 L V22 = f D 2g ρg 0. Solution: a) To find the design flow rate. and there are no minor losses: ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ From the design pressure drop specification: ⎡ ( 25lbf in. the nozzle exit velocity (in ft/s) c.462 21. Assumptions: 1. The flow is fully developed.0 V ( ft 3 s ) 0.84 0. Properties are constant.5 ⎡ 2 ( 62. However.5 22. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal. 3.2 (gage). so an iterative solution is required.

V = ( 0.5 = 124 ft s Answer c) To find the pumping power.62 .4 hp Answer 9.5 ) ⎤ lbf in.)2 ⎣ ⎦ 0.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ft ⎞ ⎤ ⎛ =⎢ + ⎜ 21.2 lbm ft 3 ) (1ft 12in.75 = -16. and incorporating other losses in terms of pump efficiency: P −P P −P hp = 1 2 and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid. Assuming no losses: V2 P3 V2 P + 3 = 4 + 4 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g ⎡ 2 ( P3 − P4 ) ⎤ + V32 ⎥ V4 = ⎢ ρ ⎣ ⎦ 0.(100+62. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal. (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in.458ft s ) ⎡60. ft ) ⎣ ⎦ 1 WP = = ηP 0.0 ⎟ ⎥ s⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ ( 62.458ft 2 s ) ( 60s min ) (1gal 0. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine ( hT = 0 ) and no minor losses.1337ft 3 ) =206 gal min Answer b) To find the nozzle exit velocity. So taking into account pump efficiency: 3 2 2 2 V ( P − P2 ) ( 0.2 )( 32. we apply the energy equation between points 3 and 4.5 2 ⎡ 2 (100 lbf in.

9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .0257 ] ⎟⎜ ⎟ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎢ 0. A suction pipe runs from the lake to a pump. and a connecting pipe runs from the pump to the pond.18 m s )( 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2 is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The lake and pond surface areas are large. and from Figure 9-15.0026 ⎞1. The pump can be located in one of three places: 1) level with the lake surface. The system is steady.11 6.0 ⎟⎜ 9.18 m s )( π 4 )( 0. Kbend = 0. incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2. The connecting pipe also is 10-cm diameter cast iron and has five long radius 90° threaded elbows.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. The preferred pump location can be determined by comparing losses for each system.6 kg m3 ) ( 3. Kent = 0. Solution: The steady.5+1. 2.26mm.025 m3/s. Properties are constant.6 kg m ) ( 3. Approach: The pumping power is calculated with the steady.10 ⎝ ⎝ ⎠ 2 ( 9. and the suction pipe would be 6-m long and the connecting pipe would total 150-m long. determine which installation requires the smallest required pumping power (in W).9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ This is turbulent flow so for cast iron pipe.025 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3. Assumptions: 1.26 100 = 0.0257 The mass flow rate is: The power is: m = ρ V = ( 999.10m ) 3 ρV D ( 999.10m ) =25.63 . The only difference in these locations is the length of straight pipe.0 1 f = 0.81m s 2 ) ⎥ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ N m ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ = 17.5 and Kexit = 1. 3. ρ = 999.0026 : ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.7 ] ⎟ WP = ⎜ 25. ε = 0. the preferred location is either level or above the lake. ε D = 0. and 3) 5-m above the lake surface. Velocity is : 4 ( 0.81 2 ⎟ ⎢50m+ ⎜ [ 0.0 kg s A 2 2 2 kg ⎞⎛ m ⎞⎡ 156 ⎛ ⎛ ⎞ ( 3. Pumping power is: 2 ⎡ ⎛ L ⎞V ⎤ WP = mghp = mg ⎢ z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 5 K bend ⎟ ⎥ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g ⎦ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.11 6.0+5 [ 0. 1 Therefore: hP = z2 − z1 + ∑ hL All piping is the same diameter. For a flow of 0. 2) 10-m below the lake surface.9 ⎤ = −1.18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ N s ⎞ ⎛ W s ⎞ ⎥⎜ +0.7. so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 and P = P2 There is no turbine.6 kg m3 . So based solely on the pumping power. Minor losses in all pump locations include an entrance loss. The suction pipe is constructed of 10-cm diameter cast-iron pipe (assume no minor losses).9-58 Water is pumped from a lake to a pond that is 50 m above the lake. and the suction pipe would be 8-m long and the connecting pipe would total 145-m long. the location 10 m below the surface has a length of 163 m. and the suction pipe would be 11-m long and the connecting pipe would total 160-m long.960 W Answer 9. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. µ = 12.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 246.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. an exit loss. 400 Re = 12. The location level at the lake and 5 m above the lake have total pipe lengths of 156 m.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. so hT = 0 . and 5 elbow losses. For water from Appendix B-6 at 10 ºC.10m ) = = 246. The flow is fully developed.

⎛ L V2⎞ L V2 P2 − P = ρ g ∑ hL = ρ g ⎜ f ⎟= f ρ 1 D 2 ⎝ D 2g ⎠ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.045mm. Ignoring minor losses.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Properties are constant.30m ) = = 493.6 kg m3 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 This is turbulent flow so for commercial steel pipe. so V1 = V2 and horizontal z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine.2kW m ⎠ ⎝ 1kN m ⎠ ⎝ The minus sign indicates power is input to the pump. the pumping power required (in kW) c.30 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ b) To find the pumping power.9 ⎤ = −1. Velocity is: 4 ( 0.15 m3 s ) ⎜ -555 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-83.2kW )( 7500 hr yr ) = $90.0148 ) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 999.11 6.500 hr/yr. ε = 0.00015 ⎞1. 3.12 V = = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 0. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.11 6. The equation must be applied across different sections of the system. incompressible flow energy equation.15 m3/s.9-59 Many universities have a central facility that produces chilled water for use in cooling all the buildings on campus. The system is steady. Consider a system that consists of 5 km of 30-cm commercial steel pipe with a flow rate of 0. the pressure drop (in kPa) b. Assumptions: 1. Solution: a) The steady.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. µ = 12. The flow is fully developed.64 .6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =555kPa 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0. the annual cost if electricity costs $0.045 300 = 0. Determine: a.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg kN ⎞ ⎛ 1kW s ⎞ ⎛ WP = ( 0.15 m3 s ) 4V m V =2.75)( 0. ε D = 0.0148 kg ⎞ ( 2.00015 : 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.10 kWhr )( 83.12 m s ) ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ⎛ P2 − P = ( 0.12 m s )( 0. ρ = 999.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.30m ) 3 ρV D ( 999.300 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.92 ) Answer Answer 9. c) For the cost of running the pump: CWt ( $0. The water at 10 °C is continuously circulated through a closed flow loop and used as needed. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1 is: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe diameter is constant. The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% and is driven by a motor that has an efficiency of 92%. so hP = hT = 0 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 f = 0. 2.6 kg m ) ( 2. Approach: Pressure drop and pumping power both can be calculated with the steady.10/kWhr and the system runs 7.300 Re = µ 12.500 yr Cost = = ηPηm ( 0.

However. apply the steady.800hp Answer 0.28ft s )( 4 ft ) = = 170.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. 2. 3.28ft s ) (1ft 12in.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 =638.6 × 106 barrels per day (1 barrel = 42 gal).11 6.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ This is turbulent flow so with ε = 0. incompressible flow energy equation.2 ( 4 ft ) ( 32. 9. To limit the required pipe wall thickness.65 . so hP = hT = 0 .2 ft 2 ) =-31.0005 4 = 0.) 3 2 2 (1200-50 ) lbf in. 000 Re = µ 0.9-60 The Alaskan oil pipeline is 48-in.85 Comments: The minus sign indicates that power must be supplied to the pump. with a wall roughness of approximately 0.0113 lbm/ft·s. So taking into account pump efficiency: 2 WP = ( 8. the equation must be applied across different segments of the system.9 ⎤ = −1. The flow is fully developed. the pumping power at each station if the pump mechanical efficiency is 85% (in kW).0168 L= ( 58lbm ft ) ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 170.0168)(8. applying the energy equation from point 1 to 2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid.600ft =121mi Answer b) To find the pumping power. so -31. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe is constant area and horizontal.300hp WP = = -36.300hp This does not take into account pump efficiency. Determine: a. To keep dissolved gases in solution in the crude oil. Approach: The maximum length and pumping power are calculated with the steady.000125 ⎞1. The oil has ρ = 58 lbm/ft3 and µ = 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.0005 ft. in diameter. Assumptions: 1. With the given properties 3 ρV D ( 58lbm ft ) ( 8.28 = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 4ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.11 6. ε D = 0.1337ft 3 gal ) (1day 24hr )(1hr 3600s ) 4V ft V =8. Solution: a) To find the maximum length. Properties are constant. the maximum spacing between pumping stations (in km) b. the minimum oil pressure is 50 psig.0005ft. and there are no minor losses: Solving for length Velocity is : V = L= P2 − P3 L V22 = f ρg D 2g 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ρf V2 4 (1.28ft s ) ( -1150 lbf in. so V2 = V1 and z2 = z1 There is no pump or turbine. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0113lbm fts 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The design flow rate is 1.6×106 barrel day ) ( 42gal barrel ) ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. the maximum allowable oil pressure is 1200 psig. The system is steady.000125 → f = 0.2 ) (π 4 )( 4ft ) (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in.

3cm of water Answer 9.2667m pwetted 2 ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.20m )( 0. The system is steady. Properties are constant.0116 h fan = 387m of air = 45. calculate velocity V.66 . The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For air from Appendix A-7at 100 kPa. When these two quantities are equal. a fan performance curve can be approximated with h = 70 − 3 × 10−4 V 2 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady.11 6. incompressible flow energy equation. The duct is constant 1 area and horizontal. ρ = 1.20m )( 0. so P = P2 .40m ) 4 Ax Dh = = =0. this is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.3m s f = 0.40m ) (2) Because this is a non-circular duct.1m s f = 0. 3. the flow rate if the duct is 30-m long (in m3/min) b. Reynolds number Re. hP = f Velocity is : V = 3 V (V m min ) (1min 60s ) m = =0.5cm of water Answer For L = 75 m V = 198 m3 min V = 41.9 ⎤ 1 (4) = −1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ The solution procedure is to solve the above four equations simultaneously using an iterative procedure: guess a volume flow rate V .1774 kg m3 . Because the friction factor depends on flow rate. so hT = 0 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. The flow is fully developed. the flow rate if the duct is 75-m long (in m3/min).11 6. Then calculate the pressure drop across the duct and the pressure rise across the fan. then the flow has been determined. The fan discharges into a smooth rectangular duct 20-cm by 40-cm.846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . 300 K. Approach: We must balance the pressure loss in the duct against the pressure head produced by the fan. 2.1774 kg m )( 0. 4.846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 3 (3) For any volume flow greater than 1 m3/min.208V A s ( 0. µ = 1. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let location 1 be just upstream from the fan and station 2 at the end of the duct.20m+0. Determine: a.40m ) Re = D ρ V h (1. The duct is smooth.0123 h fan = 495m of air = 58. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0.267m ) = = 3540V µ 1. and there are no minor losses: L V2 (1) D 2g where hP is produced by the fan (expressed in consistent units). Performing the iterations.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. where h is the pressure rise across the fan in cm of water and V is the air flow rate in m3/min. an iterative solution is required. and friction factor f. we obtain For L = 30 m V = 285 m3 min V = 59.208V m s ) ( 0.9-61 For air at 300 K and one atmosphere. Assumptions: 1. Solution: The steady.

88m+6.04 m3 s ) 4V m V =1.26 200 ⎞1. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . and Kcontract ≈ 0.20 0.81m s 2 ) ⎣ 2 2 =175m+1. so ⎡⎛ 0. 3.27 m s )( 0. 2 2 The flow is turbulent. Kent = 0.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 263.27 = = 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0. For cast iron pipe ε =0. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow. The steady.15 ) =2. Figures 9-13. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.0221 ⎟ + 197.26mm .32m=183. f B = 0. µ = 12.15 0. ρ = 999.20 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .15 + 0.0233) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 0.20m ) ReA = = = 197. 000 µ 12. Kexit = 1. Assumptions: 1. The flow is fully developed.15 (assumed fully open).04 m3/s as shown below. ⎡ L ⎤ V2 ⎡ L ⎤ V2 z1 = z2 + ⎢ K ent + K valve + K contract + f A A ⎥ A + ⎢ K exit + f B B ⎥ B DA ⎦ 2 g ⎣ DB ⎦ 2 g ⎣ The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: VA = 4 ( 0. Therefore.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f A = 0.56 .11 1 6. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation of the upper reservoir. Determine the height to which the upper reservoir dam (reservoir surface elevation) must be built (in m).15 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.2m Answer 9. There is no 1 pump or turbine.0 Therefore. 2.67 .27 m s )( 0. Available cast iron pipe is to be used and the gate valve is fully open. The water is at 20 °C.15.0221) ⎜ + ⎢1 + ( 0. so hP = hT = 0 . Properties are constant.6 kg m ) (1.5 + 0. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line.9 ⎤ = −1. 000 For AB AA = ( DB DA ) = ( 0. The system is steady.6 kg m3 .20 ) = 0.9-62 A town water system is constructed to supply water at a flow rate of 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. Solution: The steady.26 m s ) z1 = 175m + ⎢ 0. 9-14.81m s ) ⎣ ⎝ 0.0233 From Table 9-3. ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ⎤ (1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Similarly.26 m s 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.20m ) 2 VB = VA ( DA DB ) = (1. Kvalve = 0. and 9-15. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999.5.15 + ( 0.

so a manufacturer proposes a pump with a pump curve: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0. The given pump head curve is equated to the head loss calculation to determine the operating point. valve.15+1+ ( 0.882VA2 The above three equations are solved simultaneously to find the operating point of the pump.018 can be used for both pipes. the steady.68 .93ft s hP = 83. so V1 = V2 = 0 .0038V + 86 . Determine the flow rate in the system (in gal/min).667 ⎠ ⎝ 0.0. The flow is fully developed. The system is steady. and line losses. 1 ⎛ L ⎞V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + f A A ⎟ A + ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B B ⎟ B DA ⎠ 2 g ⎝ DB ⎠ 2 g ⎝ From conservation of mass: mA = mB → VB = VA ( DA DB ) 2 Substituting this into the above pump head equation: 4 ⎡ LA ⎛ D A ⎞ ⎛ LB ⎞ ⎤ VA2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎢ K ent + f A +⎜ ⎟ ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B ⎟⎥ DA ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎥ 2 g ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ 3 4 (V gal min )( 0.018 ) ⎟⎥ 0. The losses include entrance.00409V The velocity is: VA = = = 2 2 AA π DA s π (10 12 ft ) The head loss must be balance against the head added by the pump: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0.833 ⎞ ⎛ 800 ⎞ ⎤ +⎜ hP = (1204-1152 ) ft+ ⎢ 0.9-63 The pump in an existing water system (shown below) fails and must be replaced. Assumptions: 1. Approach: The pump must supply enough head to overcome frictional losses in the suction and discharge pipes. so P = P2 . K exit = 1. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head.667 ⎠ ⎥ 2 ( 32. where V is in gal/min and hp is in ft.833 ⎝ 0. so hT = 0 . and pressure is atmospheric. 2. 3.5+ ( 0.1337 ft gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =0. Substituting the known information into the head loss equation: 4 ⎡ VA2 40 ⎛ 0. Therefore. Solving them. A duplicate is not available. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14.0038V + 86 (1) (2) where hp is in ft and V is in gal/min. Properties are constant. K ent = 0. exit.5.0ft+0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. The areas at 1 and 2 are large. and K valve = 0.15 . The gate valve is fully open and a friction factor of 0. as well as the elevation head.2 ft s 2 ) ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ (3) Simplifying: hP = 52.1ft Answers 9.018 ) ⎟ ⎜ 0. we obtain: V = 1450 gal min VA = 5. assuming the valve is fully open. The steady.

determine the flow rate through the sprinkler (in m3/s). Solution: The frictional losses between each nozzle can be calculated with the steady. we generalize the above equations for each pipe segment and nozzle: V1 = V j1 + V j 2 + V j 3 + V j 4 (1) P2 = P − f12 1 2 L V12 ρ D 2 (2) 9. The steady. P V2 P V2 1 For flow between location 1 and 2: + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 .69 . The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. and expressing the pressures in gage pressure.5-cm diameter galvanized iron.9-64 In drier regions. Ignoring minor losses: 2 L V12 ρ D 2 Note that velocity and friction factor are different for each segment of pipe.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ where Re = ⎟ + 3. Ignoring friction in each nozzle but not in the connecting lengths of pipe. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Pj = 0 . we use the Bernoulli equation to calculate the flow through the nozzle: 2 V j1 Pj V2 P 1 + 1 + z1 = + + z j1 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Neglecting the inlet velocity and the elevation difference. 2.15mm so that ε D = 0. ρ = 999.5 and the volume flow rate through a jet is V j1 = V j1 Aj .006 . Consider the simplified schematic of a portion of such a sprinkler (shown below). incompressible flow energy equation.9 ⎤ 1 ρV D = −1. Approach: The total flow is such that all the pressure head at location 1 is used to balance line losses in the galvanized pipe and the creation of kinetic energy at the nozzle exits. The flow is fully developed. The flow is turbulent. The flow area of each nozzle is 1. Assuming turbulent flow in each pipe segment. Properties are constant. Assumptions: 1. The pressure at the first nozzle is 250 kPa (gage).7 ⎠ Re ⎥ µ f ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ To solve for the total flow. incompressible flow energy equation must be used. an iterative solution is required.11 6.5 cm2. The flow through each nozzle is different and can be estimated using the Bernoulli equation.15 25 = 0. The system is steady. large central pivot sprinkler systems are used to irrigate large areas. Because the line losses are a function of flow rate and friction factor. Water at 10 °C is pumped through the spray arm that is constructed of 2. V1 ≈ 0 and z1 = z j . ε = 0. we obtain: V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. so hp = hT = 0 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . with µ = 12.6 kg m3 from Appendix A-6 and from Table 9-2 for galvanized pipe. The velocity is: V12 = V12 A = 4V12 π D 2 The flow between points 1 and 2 is the difference between what enters the system and what is leaving through the nozzle: V12 = V1 − V j1 P2 = P − f12 1 Assuming no losses in the nozzle. 3.

9kPa (gage) P3 = 23. since a farmer would want uniform coverage on a field.70 .00363m3 s V23 = 0.00699 m3 s V j1 = 0.00179 m s 3 P = 250kPa (gage) 1 P2 = 70. V12 .L ρ D L P4 = P3 − f 34 ρ D V12 = V1 − V j1 P3 = P2 − f 23 V23 = V12 − V j 2 V34 = V23 − V j 3 V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. V23 .00081m s 3 Answers V12 = 0.00185 m3 s V34 = 0. P3 . P2 . V j 3 .9kPa (gage) P4 = 14.00336 m3 s V j 2 = 0.6kPa (gage) V j 3 = 0.5 2 V23 2 2 V34 2 (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) V j 2 = ( 2 P2 ρ ) V j 3 = ( 2 P3 ρ ) V j 4 = ( 2 P4 ρ ) 0. Solving the system of equations with appropriate software: V1 = 0. V j 2 .5 0. This would not be a good design.5 0. different size nozzles or some other modification would be used to ensure equal flow through all nozzles. V1 .00104 m 3 s V j 4 = 0. Hence. V j 4 . V34 .00081m3 s Comments: Note that with this design different flows exit at each nozzle.5 The eleven unknowns in this system of equations are: V j1 . 9. P4 .

010 )( 50 )( 0.05 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Because V = V = V D 2 4 .05 ⎠ 2 2 Answer Comments: This answer is reasonable using the given friction factors.012. 9. The second pipe is 5-cm in diameter 50-m long with a friction factor of 0. so z1 = z2 . and the pipe is horizontal. Properties are constant. Therefore. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g Applying this equation to pipe A and pipe B.012 )(100 )( 0. the steady.065 VB VB ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ 0. The pipe is constant area.5 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ A DA 2 g VA ⎛ f B LB DA ⎞ ⎣ 1 ⎦ =1= → =⎜ ⎟ VB ⎝ f A LA DB ⎠ L V2 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ B ⎣ 1 ⎦ fB B B DB 2 g Substituting in known information: VA ⎡ ( 0.02 ⎞ = ⎜ ⎟ = ( 0.02 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ = 0. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. A ratio of the steady. and taking the ratio L V2 fA A A 0.010. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. so hP = hT = 0 . The flow is fully developed. the friction factors would need to be evaluated. incompressible flow energy equations written for both pipes will give the ratio of the velocities. Approach: We assume the same pressure drop across these two pipes and ignore minor losses. with a known total flow.71 .408 ) ⎜ ⎟ = 0. 3.9-65 Two pipes are connected in parallel.5 VA VA ⎛ DA ⎞ ⎛ 0. and the solution would be iterative.408 VB ⎢ ( 0. which can be used to obtain a ratio of the flow rates. so V1 = V2 . 2. Determine the ratio of the flow rates in the two pipes. from conservation of mass: A π 0. In actual practice. The system is steady. Assumptions: 1. The first pipe is 2-cm in diameter and 100-m long with a friction factor of 0.

The system is steady. P2 − P3 L V2 = f ρg D 2g Let hbr = ( P2 − P3 ) ρ g . The pipe is horizontal. C. and P = P4 . 2. so hP = hT = 0 . determine the flow rate in each of the three connecting pipes (in ft3/s) and the elevation difference from the entrance to the exit. Vtot = VB + VC + VD (1) From point 2 to point 3. since we calculated that above: 9. the steady. Solution: Conservation of mass with constant density water for the whole system is: mtot = mB + mC + mD where m = ρV . The branches are horizontal For a total flow rate of 20 ft3/s of 60 °F water.57 ft 3 s hbr = 26. hbr . and noting that there are line losses in 1 pipe 1-2 and 3-4 and we know the line loss between 2-3. VC . There are four unknowns in the problem: the head loss from 2 to 3.23ft 3 s VC = 4. so the velocity is constant.20 ft 3 s VD = 6. With the given information. and the volume flows through the three branches.72 . incompressible flow energy equations to obtain the required four equations. pipe and a 30-in. pipe both open at their ends to the atmosphere are to be joined using three existing (but under-utilized pipes) as shown on the figure. and we ignore minor losses. a 24-in. no minor losses. All the pipes are concrete. we obtain: VB = 9. Therefore. so hP = hT = 0 . 3. so z2 = z3 . Assumptions: 1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Applying the pressure drop equation to each branch: hbr = f B hbr = fC hbr = f D LB VB2 DB 2 g LC VC2 DC 2 g LD VD2 DD 2 g V = (2) (3) (4) V 4V = A π D2 We have four equations and four unknowns: VB . We use conservation of mass and the steady. The flow is fully developed.9-66 For a storm sewer modification project.7ft Answers Now we need to evaluate the elevation difference between points 1and 4. VD . and D) is the same. the equations can be solved simultaneously (iteratively) for the unknowns. Each of the pipes is constant area. and the friction factors are shown on the figure. Doing so. Approach: We know the total flow through the system and that the head loss across the middle three branches (B. Properties are constant. which is the same for all three branches. Therefore. Using the energy equation P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 4 + 4 + z4 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g For each of the velocities: With no pump or turbine.

97ft+8.83ft s ) ⎛ 4000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 4.022 ) ⎜ + ⎢1+ ( 0.48ft+26.7ft ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ = 1.07 ft s ) z1 − z4 = ⎢-1+ ( 0.2ft Answer 9.020 ) ⎜ +26.5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.83 = = 2 2 A π D12 s π ( 3ft ) 2 V34 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) π ( 2.7ft=37.5ft ) 2 =4.z1 − z4 = − 2 2 L V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 V12 V34 L V2 L ⎞V2 ⎛ + + hbr + f12 12 12 + f 34 34 34 = ⎜ −1 + f12 12 ⎟ 12 + ⎜ 1 + f34 34 ⎟ 34 + hbr D12 2 g D34 2 g ⎝ D12 ⎠ 2 g ⎝ D34 ⎠ 2 g 2g 2g For the velocities V12 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =2.73 .2 ft s ) ⎣ ⎝ 2.07 ft s 2 ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 2300 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.

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