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# 9-1

Fully developed, laminar flow of a viscous fluid (µ = 2.17 N·s/m2) flows between horizontal parallel plates 1-m long that are spaced 3.0-mm apart. The pressure drop is 1.25 kPa. Determine the volumetric flow rate (per unit width) through the channel (in m3/s m).

Approach:

Pressure drop can be calculated for this non-circular duct with the combination of Eq. 9-31 and Eq. 9-32 and using the hydraulic diameter. The velocity is unknown; once it is determined the volume flow rate can be calculated. We need to evaluate the friction factor. We combine all the expressions and solve for velocity.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady.

Solution:

A HW or per unit width V W = V . Pressure drop can be calculated using the H Volume flow rate is V = V x = V hydraulic diameter: ∆P L V2 = hL = f ρg Dh 2 g

For fully develop laminar flow between infinite parallel plates, f = 96 Re = 96 µ ρ V h . Substituting this into D the pressure drop equation, simplifying, solving for the average velocity V: 2 2 Dh ∆P V = 96µ L The hydraulic diameter with W → ∞ , Dh = 4 Ax pwetted = 4 HW ⎡ 2 ( H + W ) ⎤ = 2 H = 2 ( 0.003m ) =0.006m ⎣ ⎦

V = 2 ( 0.006m ) (1.25 kN m 2 ) (1000 N kN )

2

96 ( 2.17 Ns m

2

) (1m )

=0.000432

m s

V = V = VHW A V m⎞ m2 m3 ⎛ = V = ⎜ 0.000432 ⎟ ( 0.006m ) =2.59×10-6 =2.59×10-6 H W s ⎠ s ms ⎝

Answer

9- 1

9-2

Journal bearings are constructed with concentric cylinders with a very small gap between the two cylinders; the gap is filled with oil. Because of the very small gap, the flow in the gap is laminar. Consider a sealed journal bearing with inner and outer diameters of 50- and 51-mm, respectively, and a length of 75 mm. The shaft (inner cylinder) rotates at 3000 RPM. At start-up the torque needed to turn the shaft is 0.25 N-m. Determine the viscosity of the oil (in N·s/m2). After an hour of operation will the torque have increased or decreased? Explain.

Approach:

Because the gap is small compared to the diameter, we can analyze the flow as if it were between infinite parallel plates. Viscosity is defined with Newton’s law of viscosity, Eq. 9-2.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: dV τ =µ dy Because we can analyze this flow as between infinite parallel plates, we know that with the inner shaft rotating and the outer shaft stationary, the velocity profile is linear, so the velocity gradient is; τ ( r2 − r1 ) V τ =µ µ= → r2 − r1 V Velocity is V = r1ω . Torque is ℑ = Fr1 = τ Ar1 . Substituting these expressions into the shear stress equation and solving for visocity: ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) µ= = = 2 2 Ar1 ω ( 2π r1 L ) r1 ω 2π Lr13ω

=

( 0.25 N m )( 0.0255m-0.025m )( 60s 1min ) Ns =0.054 2 3 m 2π ( 0.025m ) ( 0.075m )( 3000 rev min )( 2π rad rev )

Answer

Comments:

After an hour of operation, torque will decrease. Assuming that the bearing has little heat loss, the viscous friction will raise the oil temperature. Because viscosity for a liquid decreases with increasing temperature, torque will decrease with time.

9- 2

9-3

Consider laminar water flow at 20 °C between two very large horizontal plates. The lower plate is stationary and the upper plate moves to the right at a velocity of 0.25 m/s. For a plate spacing of 2 mm, determine the pressure gradient and its direction required to produce zero net flow at a cross section.

Approach:

Because the plates are very large, we assume the flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. For this flow, we can perform an analysis similar to what was done in Section 9.3 for flow in a circular tube to find the relationship between flow and pressure gradient.

Assumptions:

1. 2. 3. The system is steady. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. Properties are constant.

Solution:

For steady, fully developed flow, conservation of momentum in the x-direction reduces to: ∑ Fx = 0 Evaluating the forces on the differential element shown above: P A1 − P2 A2 + τ T AT − τ B AB = 0 1

With length, dx, along the channel and a width W: P (Wdx ) − P2 (Wdy ) + τ T (Wdx ) − τ B (Wdx ) = 0 1 The width cancels. Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: Therefore,

τ =µ

dV dy

τT = µ

d VT dy

and

τB = µ

d VB dy

Substituting into the force balance and simplifying:

( P1 − P2 ) dy − µ

dP d2 V =µ dx dy 2

d VT d VB dx + µ dx = 0 dy dy

( d VT dy − d VB dy ) P − P2 1 =µ dx dy

V =

→

**Recognizing that for fully developed flow, dP dx = constant , we separate variables and integrate twice:
**

1 dP 2 y + C1 y + C2 2µ dx The boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0, V = 0; 2) at y = b, V = Vw Applying the boundary conditions: 1 dP 2 2) VW = b + C1b 1) 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 so C2 = 0 2µ x

so C1 =

VW b dP − b 2µ x

Substituting into the general velocity equation and simplifying:

V =

1 dP 2 y ( y − by ) + VW b 2µ dx

Flow rate is obtained by integration: b ⎛ 1 dP bW y b3W V =∫V =∫V dA Wdy = ∫ ⎜ ( y 2 − by ) + VW b ⎞Wdy = −12µ dP + VW2 ⎟ 0 2 µ dx dx ⎝ ⎠ Solving this equation for zero flow ( V = 0 ) and from Appendix A-6 for water at 20 ºC, µ = 9.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2

-4 2 dP 6 µ VW 6 ( 9.85×10 Ns m ) ( 0.25 m s ) N = = =369 2 2 dx mm b2 0.002m ) (

Answer

Pressure must increase in the x-direction to obtain zero flow. 9- 3

2 2 ⎟ ( -15ft ) + (1.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in.73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4.73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0. so V1 = V2 . The oil has a specific gravity of 0. The system is steady.4 lbm fts µ For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1.4 lbm ft )( 32.1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0. Properties are constant.87 ) Answer 9.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜178.87 ) ( 62. The specific gravity of the manometer fluid is 2.9.87 ) ⎜ 62. so hP = hT = 0 . Assumptions: 1.9-4 In the ¾-in.4 lbm/ft·s.87 ) ⎜ 62.300 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =38.87 ) ( 62.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.300 lbm fts + ( 0.9-0.4 . h (in ft).0625ft ) ρV = = 37 0. There is no pump or turbine. The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined.87 and a dynamic viscosity of 0. Solution: The steady.4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 2.4 ft lbm ) ( 4.2 ft s2 )( 62.26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. ⎝ For the manometer. Determine the manometer defection.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 D ( 0. oil flows downward at 6 gal/min. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0.5 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32. incompressible flow energy equation. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. Therefore.36ft s )( 0. pipe shown below.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 = =50. 2.0625ft ) 2 =4. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = − ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = + ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = − ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = − ρ o ghAB + ρ m ghCD − ρ o ghEF = − ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) + ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = − ρ o g ( L + hCD ) + ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 178.4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0. ⎠ in. 3. and minor losses are neglected. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady. The flow is fully developed.1ft g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32.

4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0. so hP = hT = 0 .700 lbm fts . 3.0625ft ) = = 37 µ 0.4 lbm fts For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1. Solution: The steady.1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0.87 ) ( 62. Properties are constant.87 ) ⎜ 62.9 ) Answer Comments: The minus sign indicates the manometer deflection is in the opposite direction than what is shown in the figure. incompressible flow energy equation. 9.1ft = g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 =-50.9-5 In Problem P 9-4 if the flow is upward instead of downward.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in.5 .36ft s )( 0.4 lbm ft )( 32.4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 0.( 0. The flow is fully developed. and minor losses are neglected.87 ) ⎜ 62.73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0.8 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32.0625ft ) 2 =4. ⎝ For the manometer. Therefore.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32. There is no pump or turbine. ⎠ in. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4. Assumptions: 1.26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = + ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = − ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = + ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = ρ o ghAB − ρ m ghCD + ρ o ghEF = ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) − ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = ρ o g ( L + hCD ) − ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 230.87 ) ( 62.700 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =49.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0.4 ft lbm ) ( 4. determine the manometer deflection.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜ 230.2 ft s2 )( 62.87-2. h (in ft). The system is steady. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady. 2. so V1 = V2 . The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined.2 2 ⎟ (15ft ) + (1.

and assuming the flow is similar to that between infinite parallel plates.67 b) Power is defined as: W = ℑω Torque is ℑ = Fr = τ Ar = τ LDr .055m ) ⎢⎛ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ b m ⎠ 5×10-7 m s ⎥ ⎝ Nm ⎠ ⎝ ⎣⎝ 60 ⎠ ⎦ =1. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates.4×10-6 m 2 s = 0.5µm) film of air. Consider a 10-mm by 10-mm head located 55 mm from the disk centerline. Eq.57W Answer Comments: This is only part of the power required to spin the disk. Assumptions: 1. and torque is forces times distance. The force is caused by the shear stress. Approach: Reynolds number can be obtained from its definition. 9. Power is torque times rotational speed. determine: a. For air at 25 °C. 9-2. Shear forces on other parts of the rotating disk would increase the power required to spin the disk.83×10-5 2 ⎟ 2π ( 0. which can be determined with Newton’s law of viscosity. µ = 1. 2. Properties are constant. Solution: a) The Reynolds number is defined as: ρV V b b = Re = µ υ Velocity is V = rω .01m )( 0. The system is steady. and air viscosity from Appendix A-7 at 25 ºC is υ = 15.01m ) rad ⎤ ⎛ 1Ws ⎞ 2 ⎡ 3600 ⎞ W =µ r ω = ⎜1. the power required to overcome the viscous shear (in W). Assuming Newtonian flow between parallel walls with one wall moving and using Newton’s law of viscosity: dV V rω τ =µ =µ =µ dy b b Substituting all the expressions into the power expression and simplifying: 2 LD 2 2 ⎛ Ns ⎞ ( 0. 3.9-6 Data are read from and written to spinning computer disks (3600 rpm) by small read-write heads that float above the disk on a thin (0. the Reynolds number based on the gap dimension b.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 Re = ( 0.055m )( 3600 rev min )(1min 60s )( 2π rad rev ) ( 5×10-7 m ) 15.4 × 10−6 m 2 s .6 .

is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB − dW where the weight is W = ρVg . a continuous belt moves upward at velocity Vo through the fluid and the more viscous liquid (with density ρ and viscosity µ) adheres to the belt. and shear stress. Properties are constant. and then we integrate it to find volume flow rate.9-7 Skimmers are used to remove viscous fluids. Note there is no net pressure force. and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible. from the surface of water. which causes the oil to flow downward. Assumptions: 1. We apply a force balance in the x-direction to obtain the velocity profile.7 . Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx − ρ Ddxdyg = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = ρg dτ = ρg dy dV dy dτ d ⎛ dV ⎞ d2 V = ⎜µ = ρg ⎟=µ dy dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 d V ρg ρ g y2 V = y + C1 → = + C1 y + C2 dy µ µ 2 Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0. A film with thickness h forms on the belt. which causes the oil to flow upward. The system is steady. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. 2. Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. Determine an expression for the velocity profile and flow rate. 3. Gravity tends to drain the liquid. and zero shear stress at the outer film surface where air contacts it. As shown on the diagram below. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. Use a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe. Clearly state the velocity boundary conditions at the belt surface and at the free surface. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. Approach: The amount of oil that is picked up by the moving belt is a result of a force balance between gravity. Assume the flow is fully developed. with zero pressure gradient. laminar. V = VB Applying the boundary conditions: VB = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = VB 0= τ =µ → 2) at y = h there is no shear. but the upward belt velocity is such that net liquid is transported upward. so d V dy = 0 ρg h + C1 µ V = → C1 = − ρg h µ Therefore: ⎞ ρ g y2 ρ g ρ g ⎛ y2 − hy + VB = ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB µ 2 µ µ ⎝ 2 ⎠ Volume flow rat is 2 ⎤ h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y ⎞ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB ⎥ Ddy 0 0 ⎠ A ⎣ µ ⎝ 2 ⎦ 3 V ρ gh =− + VB h Answer 3µ D 9. such as oil.

9-8 Consider a fully developed laminar flow of 20 °C water down an inclined plane that is 20° to the horizontal. and the air exerts zero shear on the water.81m s ) sin ( 20 ) ( 0. Properties are constant. V = 0 Applying the boundary conditions: 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = 0 0=− ρg dV =− sin θ + C1 µ dy 2) → V =− ρg y2 sin θ + C1 y + C2 2 µ at y = h there is no shear. and then integrated to find the volume flow rate. Approach: The water flows down the inclined plane due to the influence of gravity. 2. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB + dW sin θ where the weight is W = ρVg . Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. so d V dy = 0 ρg sin θ h + C1 µ V =− → C1 = ρg sin θ h µ Therefore: ⎛ ρg y2 ρ g ρg y2 ⎞ + sin θ sin θ hy = sin θ ⎜ hy − ⎟ 2 2 ⎠ µ µ µ ⎝ Volume flow rate is h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y 2 ⎞⎤ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ ty − ⎟ ⎥Ddy 0 0 2 ⎠⎦ A ⎣ µ ⎝ V ρ g sin θ h3 = D 3µ For water at 20 ºC from Appendix A-6. The system is steady.85×10-4 Ns m 2 ) 3 Answer 9. The water is exposed to atmosphere everywhere. determine the volume flow rate per unit width (in m3/s m). assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. ρ = 998.8 .2 kg m3 3 2 o 2 V ( 998. The flow is fully developed. A force balance between gravity and shear forces is solved to find the velocity profile. Using a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe.00113 D sm 3 ( 9. The water thickness is 1-mm. µ = 9. 3.001m ) ( Ns kgm ) m3 = =0.2 kg m )( 9. Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx + ρ Ddxdyg sin θ = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = − ρ g sin θ dτ = − ρ g sin θ dy Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity d ⎛ dV ⎞ d V = − ρ g sin θ ⎜µ ⎟=µ dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 2 τ = µ d V dy Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0. Assumptions: 1.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Note there is no net pressure force.

Assumptions: 1.8 m s )(1kN 1000N ) 32 µ L V P2 = P + = 105kPa+ 1 2 D2 ( 0.05m )(10. We can use Eq. The flow is fully developed laminar flow. 3. which relates pressure drop and velocity. and water properties from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. the maximum flow possible (in cm3/s) b.30×10-7 s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer b) From Eq. hence. to calculate the required air pressure.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . 2. µ = 12. Properties are constant.9 .9-9 A biomedical device start-up company is developing a liquid drug injection device.9 × 10 Ns m ) ( 2100 ) ( kgm Ns ) m = =10.6 kg m3 ) ( 0.00025m ) ( 2 m ⎞ π ( 0.00025m ) m3 ⎛ V = ⎜ 10.00025m ) = 105kPa+357kPa=462kPa Answer 9. Solution: a) Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D2 4 A Reynolds number is defined as: ρV D Re = µ Using Re = 2100 for the transition between laminar and turbulent flow.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 ) ( 0. ρ = 999.8 ⎟ =5. the required air pressure for the maximum flow if the pressure at the end of the needle must be 105 kPa (in kPa).25 mm and length 50 mm). 9-13. flow rate. we can calculate the maximum allowable velocity and. The device uses compressed air to drive the plunger in a piston-cylinder assembly that will push the drug (viscosity and density similar to water at 10 °C) through the hypodermic needle (inside diameter 0. 9-13 for a horizontal flow: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = = R2 D2 32 (12. (Assume fully developed flow. The system is steady. determine: a.8 ρD s 999.6 kg m3 : V = −4 2 2 µ Re (12.) Approach: Using a transition Reynolds number of 2100 and the Reynolds number definition. If the flow must remain laminar in the hypodermic needle.

75×10-4 Ns m2 This does not match the guessed value.00075m ) =0. The flow is laminar.080m Answer Therefore. 9-13 is used to calculate the viscosity. The system is steady.00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 4 3 128 ( 0. A flow of 1 cm3/s is obtained when the pressure drop is 65 kPa.92) through a tube 450-mm long and 0.7% Answer 9. 3.065 ReD ent ∆Ptot = ∆Pent + ∆Pfully developed π D 4 ∆Ptot 32 µV ⎛ 32µ Lent V ⎞ 32 µ ( L − Lent ) V 32µV 2 Lent + L − Lent ) = L + L) µ = ∆Ptot = 2 ⎜ = ⎟+ 2 2 2 ( 2 ( ent D D D D 128 ( Lent + L ) V ⎝ ⎠ Because the entrance length is a function of Reynolds number.00075m ) 4 3 Lent = 0. 9-13.45m ) (1cm s ) 3 =1. The procedure is: guess the viscosity. Properties are constant.0679m µ= π ( 0. Approach: With the given information.122 × 10−3 Ns m 2 Reynolds number is defined as: Re = Re = ρV D 4 ρV and V = µ π D2 3 → =1392 Re = 4 ρV πµ D 4 ( 0. calculate the Reynolds number. Guess µ = 1. If the flow is fully developed.122×10-3 Ns m 2 ) ( 0. a correction to the effective length of the tube must be made. calculate the entrance length. However. and solving for viscosity: µ= π D 4 ∆P 128LV = π ( 0. and then calculate viscosity and compare to the guessed value.53 × 10 −4 error= × 100 = 17. 9-13: ∆P = 8µ L V R 2 = 32µ L V D 2 Noting that A = π D 2 4 .00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 128 ( 0. Laminar entrance length can be estimated with Eq. 2.0679m ) (1cm s ) 3 =9.065 (1392 )( 0. the error caused if entrance effects are not taken into account is: 1. Eq. Solution: V = V x = V π D2 4 A a) Volume flow rate is defined as: Pressure drop for laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq.92 ) (1000 kg m 3 )(1cm3 s ) (1m 100cm ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) π (1. so continuing the iteration until it converges: µ = 0. Consider the flow of a liquid (SG = 0.53 × 10−4 9. 9-39 Lent = 0. which depends on viscosity.9-10 The viscosity of liquids is measured with a capillary viscometer. then Eq.10 . combining these three equations. entrance effects often are present. and the pressure drop and flow rate are measured.953 × 10−4 Ns m 2 Re = 1640 Lent = 0. in which a laminar flow is maintained in a small diameter tube.75-mm in diameter.122 × 10 −3 − 9. If entrance effects are present. the viscosity if the flow is fully developed (in Ns/m2) b. Assumptions: 1. the viscosity if the pressure drop in the entrance length is twice that for the same length of fully developed flow (in N·s/m2). 9-39. 9-13 can be used to calculate the liquid viscosity.45m+0. and that corrected length used in Eq. Determine: a.122×10-3 Ns m2 Answer b) If entrance effects are taken into account (assuming ∆Pent = 2∆Pwithout ) and from Eq. an iterative solution is required.

005m ) m = =0. 9-13: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = + ρ gL sin θ = + ρ gL sin θ 2 R D2 For the present problem θ = 90o . and shear stress/viscosity forces.227 V = 2 2 32µ s 32 ( 0. the volume flow rate is: 2 m ⎞ π ( 0. 9-13. ∆P = 0 . With atmospheric pressure at the surface of the reservoir and at the exit of the tube. pressure.003 Ns m 2 This is laminar flow. Therefore. The vertical 5-mm diameter tube connecting the oil reservoir to the workpiece is very long so the flow can be assumed fully developed. so the negative sign indicates a downward flow.87. volume flow rate is obtained easily from its definition. Because that equation uses the average velocity.87 ) (1000 kg m 3 ) ( 0. the depth of oil in the reservoir is negligible compared to the tube length. 2. Using the given information: 3 o − ρ g sin θ D 2 .9-11 A machine tool manufacturer is considering using gravity flow to supply cutting oil (SG = 0. in addition.003 Ns m )( kgm Ns ) 2 Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ρV D 4 ρV and V = Re = µ π D2 Re = → Re = 4 ρV πµ D =329 ( 0.005m ) m3 ⎛ =4. 3. The system is steady. Properties are constant. Using this information and solving for velocity: − ρ g sin θ D 2 V = 32 µ Note that in the development of Eq.227 m s )( 0.46×10-6 V = ⎜ 0. so our assumption checks out. Equation 9-13 was developed for this situation. Assumptions: 1.87 ) (1000 kg m ) sin ( 90 ) ( 0. µ = 0. The pressure is atmospheric at the exit of the tube and at the surface of the reservoir.11 .003 N·s/m2) to the tool and workpiece. the x-direction was in opposition to the gravity force.( 0.005m ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) 0. Approach: Flow is caused by a balance between gravity. Solution: A Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D 2 4 Pressure drop for fully developed laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq. Determine the volumetric flow rate of the oil (in cm3/s). The flow is fully developed and laminar. so we will apply it directly.227 ⎟ s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer 9.

For a manometer deflection of 4 in. so V1 = V2 . using the manometer equation and stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ o gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = ρ o ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ o gh1 A + ρ m ghBC + ρ o ghC 2 1 Substituting this into the friction factor expression: 2 ⎤ 2 ( 0. so hP = hT = 0 .0562 ) 64 f = → µ= = = 0. and minor losses are neglected. and the distance from the upper pressure tap to the same height in the mercury is 4 ft. Assumptions: 1. From the lower pressure tap to the surface of the mercury highest in the manometer is 2 ft.6 ⎤ f = −h1 A + m hBC + hC 2 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ = ⎢ 2 ⎢ -4.9-12 A manometer.. the friction factor c. and then checking the Reynolds number.5-in.4 ft lbm ) ( 5. d) The steady. Properties are constant.6). There is no pump or turbine.82 ) ( 62. Approach: Flow direction can be determined by inspection. with pressure taps 25 ft apart. The flow is fully developed.125ft ) ⎤ 2 Dg ⎡ P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎢ L V ⎣ ρo g ⎦ For pressure drop.82 ) ( 62. Whether the flow is laminar or turbulent must be determined by assuming one or the other. Solution: a) Hydrostatic pressure increases farther down in a fluid. b. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = f ρo g D 2g V = Answer The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.82 ( 0. The only way 1 this could occur would be if flow was from point 1 to point 2 with friction losses. the velocity is 4 ( 4 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =5.43ft s )( 0. is used to measure the pressure drop of oil (SG = 0. The manometer indicates that P2 < P . so our assumption is valid. c.0305lbm fts Answer 64 64 Re Check the Reynolds number: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0.43 2 s A π D2 π ( 0.125ft )( 0. 3.43ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ Assuming the flow is fully developed laminar flow: 3 ρV Df ( 0.33ft+ 0. The system is steady. using a correlation for the friction factor. whether the flow is laminar or turbulent d. the flow direction b. and the friction factor can be calculated using the steady. pipe with a volumetric flow rate of 4 ft2/min. The manometer equation is used to calculate the pressure drop. Therefore. 9.12 .4 ft lbm ) ( 5. calculating the viscosity.82) flowing in a 1. incompressible flow energy equation.2 ft s ) ⎡ ρ 2 Dg ⎡ 13.125ft ) ( 32.43ft s )( 0. 2.33ft ) +2ft+2ft ⎥ =0.0562 ρo LV 2 ⎣ ⎦ ( 25ft )( 5.125ft ) = = 1140 0. → f = From the definition of volume flow rate. The manometer fluid is mercury (SG = 13. determine: a. the oil viscosity (in lbm/ft s).0305lbm fts µ which is laminar.

As = DL. and m = ρ D 2 yL : dV DL − ρ L 2 yDg sin θ = 0 dy Canceling 2D. and simplifying: P − P2 µ dV 1 − ρ g sin θ = − L y dy Separating variables and integrating: 2 1 ⎡P − P 1 ⎡P − P ⎤ ⎤y V = − ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ + C1 − ∫ ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ydy = ∫ d V → µ ⎣ L µ⎣ L ⎦ ⎦ 2 The boundary condition is: at y = H. 9. y = H − n → τ = µ d V dn where n is the direction from the wall. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above.13 . V = 0 . The system is steady. Assumptions: 1. similar to what was done for the circular tube. and letting A1 = A2 = 2 Dy. Applying the boundary condition: 2 1 ⎡P − P ⎤H C1 = ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ µ⎣ L ⎦ 2 Therefore: 2 1 ⎡ P − P2 H 2 ⎡ P − P2 ⎤ ⎤⎡ ⎛ y ⎞ ⎤ 1 1 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ( H 2 − y 2 ) = − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ V =− 2µ ⎢ L 2µ ⎢ L ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎢ ⎝ H ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ ( P1 − P2 ) 2 Dy + 2µ Answer Comments: Note the parabolic velocity profile. and gravity forces.3 for a circular tube. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = P1 A1 − P2 A2 − 2τ As − mg sin θ Let D be the depth of the plane into the page: Using Newton’s law of viscosity To put this in terms of y (from the channel centerline). Properties are constant. The flow is fully developed. Use an approach similar to that applied in Section 9. which is similar to that in a circular tube. pressure. Approach: Flow through this infinite parallel plate channel results from a balance among viscous.9-13 Develop an expression for the velocity profile for fully developed laminar flow between stationary infinite parallel plates. dy = d ( H − n ) = − dn . Substituting these expressions into the force balance. 3. 2. A force balance on a differential element is used to determine the velocity profile.

2. so hP = hT = 0 . Approach: We can use Eq. The flow is fully developed. Determine the head loss between the inlet and outlet (in m). 9-41 directly to find head loss. and minor losses are neglected. Neglect minor losses.9-14 In an inclined 50-mm diameter pipe. The gage pressure at the pipe inlet is 720 kPa. There is no pump or turbine. 4. Properties are constant.14 . Solution: The steady.88) flows with a volumetric flow rate of 0.4-15=68. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.4m hL = ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. 3. Therefore. a fluid (SG = 0. ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83. The system is steady. Assumptions: 1.81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ( 720-0 ) Answer 9. so V1 = V2 .88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9.003 m3/s. The pipe outlet is at atmospheric pressure and is 15 m above the inlet.

88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9. for when the outlet is 15 m above the inlet ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83. 3.4m hL = Answer ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. The system is steady. Properties are constant. There is no pump or turbine. so we can again use the steady flow energy equation. solving the energy equation for P1: P = P2 + ∑ hL ρ g = 0 + ( 68. Assumptions: 1.81m s 2 )( kN s 2 1000kg m ) =591kPa Answer 1 ( 720-0 ) 9. but this time we will determine the new inlet pressure. Neglect minor losses.15 .4m )( 0. Determine the inlet pressure for this new condition (in kPa). and assuming the same total head loss. Therefore. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. z1 = z2 . 4.4-15=68.9-15 The pipe exit in Problem P 9-14 is lowered to the same elevation as the inlet. 2. with the same flow rate.88 ) (1000 kg m3 )( 9. Solution: The steady. so V1 = V2 .81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ If the pipe is in a horizontal orientation. The flow is fully developed. and minor losses are neglected. Approach: We can use the steady flow energy equation to find the head loss in the inclined pipe. so hP = hT = 0 . The frictional head loss is the same in a horizontal pipe.

8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.0457kPa 1 ⎟⎜ 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0.25m )( 0.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . 4.9 ⎤ = −1.0176 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 106.05 mm.9-16 An air conditioning duct is 25-cm square and must convey 25 m3/min of air at 100 kPa.169 kg m3 .25 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Using the manometer equation ∆P = ρ w gh 2 Answer 2 2 ∆P ( 0.66mm of water ρw g (1000 kg m3 )( 9. The system is steady.16 . 3. The flow is fully developed.25m )( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. 25 ºC.11 6. 25 °C. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal.25m Dh = = 4 ( 0.0457 kN m )(1000kgm 1kNs ) hP = = =0. so hP = hT = 0 .11 1 6. Velocity is : 3 V ( 25 m min ) (1min 60s ) m V = = =6.25m ) Because this is a non-circular duct.25m ) D =106.00466m of water = 4.169 kg m ) ( 6.67 m s )( 0. ρ = 1.81m s2 ) Answer 9.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.67 m s ) ⎛ 1kN s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 25 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. 2. incompressible flow energy equation Assumptions: 1. For air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa. The duct is made of sheet metal that has a roughness of approximately 0. Determine the pressure drop for 25-m of horizontal duct run (in kPa and mm of water).169 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =0.500 = µ 1.25m ) 4 Ax =0.500 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and there are no minor losses: P − P2 L V2 L V2 1 = f → P − P2 = f ρ 1 D 2g D 2g ρg The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine. Solution: The steady. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0. Properties are constant.25m ) Pwetted Re = ρ V h (1. Approach: Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady.83×10-5 Ns m 2 3 This is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.67 A s ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.0176 ) ⎜ 1. µ = 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kg ⎞ ( 6. The duct is smooth.

Solution: The head loss due to minor losses is given by: V2 P −P hL = 1 2 hL = K L and 2g ρg Combining the expressions and solving for the loss coefficient: 2 ( P − P2 ) 1 KL = ρw V 2 4 ( 2 ft 3 s ) 4V ft V V = = The velocity in the upstream pipe is =10. The pressure drop (head loss) can be determined from the manometer equation. The pressure drop is measured with a manometer whose fluid has a specific gravity of 1. The system is steady. its loss coefficient must be determined.5 12 ft ) (10.3-1) ( 32.3.2 ft s 2 ) ( 7.2 ft s ) 2 = 0.5ft ) For the manometer.116 Answer 9. The manometer deflection is 7. Assumptions: 1. 3. The flow is fully developed.2 = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. pipe and 2 ft3/s of water flows through it. 2.17 .9-17 A manufacturer develops a new type of flow control valve. Determine the loss coefficient for the valve. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ w gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = + ρ w ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ w ghAB + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = − ρ w g ( hBC + hC 2 ) + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 1 Substituting this expression into the loss coefficient equation: 2 ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 2 ( SGm − 1) ghBC KL = = ρw V 2 V2 KL = 2 (1. Approach: We can use the definition of head loss for minor losses to calculate the loss coefficient. Properties are constant. The valve is installed in a 6-in.5 in. Before it can be advertised and sold.

From Table 9-3. so V1 ≈ 0 .9-18 When pumping a fluid.6 kg m3 . The flow is fully developed.075m ) Re = = = 1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Approach: Cavitation will occur if the pressure at point 2 falls below the saturation pressure of 10 ºC water.5. Consider the system shown below constructed of commercial steel pipe and threaded connections.6 kg m3 )( 9.5 ) +1⎥ ⎣ 0. Hence. µ = 12.4V = (1) V = = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. from the saturated water table at 10 ºC. and the pressure at 1 is 2 ⎛ L ⎞V = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend ⎟ . The pump manufacturer would specify the minimum required pressure.81m s 2 ) 102 = ( 4.3 f ) V 2 (4) Re = 19. Psat (10 o C ) = 1.0147 m3 s V = 3.2V m s ) ( 0.0271 Answer Comments: When the water enters the pump. for an zero area ratio at the entrance Kent = 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g atmospheric. so hT = hp = 0 . For water at 10 °C.6 kg m )( 226. so P1 = 101. incompressible flow energy equation. Assumptions: 1. Velocity is: 4 (V m3 s ) 4V m V =226. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. We can solve for the flow rate using the steady. At point 2. so an iterative solution is required.18 .23 kPa.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 The volume flow will be large enough so that the flow will be turbulent. determine the maximum possible flow rate without cavitation occurring (in m3/s). If the pressure does drop below the saturation pressure.045 75 ⎞1. two bends. 2.5.11 6.9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. cavitation (the forming of vapor bubbles) occurs which can damage the pump impeller. the actual minimum pressure at 2 would need to be greater than 1.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . From Figure 9-15. Therefore. Properties are constant.3 kPa. for a regular 90º threaded bend. Solution: The steady. The losses include one entrance.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.23) kN m 2 (1000 kg m kN s 2 ) V2 13 ⎡ ⎤ + ( -5m ) = ⎢ f +0.045mm .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (101. we obtain: V = 0. The pressure at 2 is the saturation pressure. ρ = 999. 3.23kPa . 9. it accelerates more. Kbend = 1.81m s 2 ) ( 999.5+2 (1.075 ⎦ 2 ( 9. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.075m ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. 3 ρV D ( 999. We assume the area at 1 large. the pressure at the entrance to the pump must never drop below the saturation pressure of the fluid.5 + 173. and line loss: There is no pump or turbine.11 6.3-1.33m s f = 0. The system is steady. 200 Iterating on the four equations given above. ⎝ D ⎠ 2g ∑h L 2 P − P2 ⎛ L ⎞V 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend + 1⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor depends on flow.316 × 106 V (2) µ 12.

419 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The pipe is horizontal.7 Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (1lbf in. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.4 lbm ft 3 2 D ⎝ D ⎠ An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations.419 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 100. Reynolds number Re. The system is steady.2 per 150-ft of pipe for flows up to 500 gal/min.2 ft 2 ) = f ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V ft s )2 → 0.4 lbm ft 3 : Velocity is : V = Re = 3 2 ρV D ( 62. Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one. 9.8log ⎢⎜ (3) ⎥ ⎟ + 3. Therefore. so hP = hT = 0 .0175 Answer Comments: The next large standard pipe size would be used.9-19 Fire codes mandate that the pressure drop in horizontal runs of commercial steel pipe must not exceed 1. so ⎡⎛ 0. so V1 = V2 . determine the minimum pipe diameter required (in in.2 in. and friction factor f.000 f =0. Hence. The friction factor is a function of velocity. Is the number you calculated feasible? Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity. For a water temperature of 50 °F. Solution: The steady. ε =0.19 .). incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.39 ft s Re=196. The steady. The flow is fully developed. iterate until converged. From Table 9-2 for commercial steel pipe.11 6.9 ⎤ 1 = −1.991 = f V 2 (4) ⎜ ⎟ 62. V = 5. Assumptions: 1. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts . There is no pump or turbine. 3. so z1 = z2 . calculate the velocity V. and then use equation 4 to calculate the diameter. an iterative solution is required. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g 4 ( 500 gal min ) ( 0.2 )( 32.00015ft . Neglect minor losses. ρ = 62. 4. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter. 2.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 1. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D. Properties are constant.00015 D ⎞1.0 lbf/in. Performing the iteration: D = 0. 600 = = µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts D (2) For any reasonable size diameter. and minor losses are neglected.513ft = 6.4 lbm ft )(1. which depends on pipe diameter.2 ft lbm lbf s2 )(144in. the flow will be turbulent.

the owners want to remove the pump and rely only on gravity head to power the fountain. The artist’s initial design uses 75-m of 7.016 for both cases and neglecting minor losses.3 A π D 2 pipe π ( 0.000W ) ( N s 2 kg m ) WP =81.05 m3 s )( 9.075 ⎠ 2 ( 9.81m s ) ⎝ 0. for the velocity in the pipe. Note that Vnozzle = 4 V pipe . the flow rate if the pump is removed from the system (in m3/s) b. We will assume no minor losses.075m )2 s 2 4 ( 0. 2. 1 z1 − z2 = −hP + f 2 L V pipe Vnozzle + D 2g 2g 2 The pump head can be evaluated from WP = mghP = ρVghP . determine: a.81m s 2 ) (127. Therefore. the flow rate without the pump is: ⎡ 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 16 + f L D ⎦ 0.016 )( 75 0.0375m )2 s ⎛ 75 ⎞ (11.05 m3 s ) V 4V m = = =11.4m Now using the energy equation without the pump: 2 2 2 L V pipe Vnozzle ⎛ L ⎞ V pipe z1 − z2 = f + = ⎜ 16 + f ⎟ D 2g D ⎠ 2g 2g ⎝ Solving for the velocity in the pipe: ⎡ 2 ( 9. Approach: The elevation difference between the lake surface and the nozzle exit is not given and must be determined.075 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. 3. The system is steady.6 kg m3 hP = ( 40.83m s )( π 4 )( 0. so V1 = 0 and P = P2 . Therefore.75-cm with a 40-kW pump to pull water from a lake above the resort at a flow rate of 0. z1 − z2 = −81. To save operating costs. At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric and the area at 1 is very large. so hT = 0 .05 m3 s ) V 4V m =45.016 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 2 ( 9. For water from Appendix A-10 at 10 ºC. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to calculate the elevation difference and the height of the fountain.05 m3/s.5-cm diameter commercial steel pipe ending in a nozzle with a diameter of 3. Solution: a) The steady.81m s 2 ) 2 ( 45.20 .039 m3 s A 2 Answer 9.9-20 The owners of a luxurious mountain resort want to install a fancy water fountain. ρ = 999.4m ) ⎤ ⎥ V pipe =⎢ ⎢16+ ( 0.3m s ) = −81.6m + 4 ( 0.6 + 104 + 104 = 127. the height of the water jet with and without the pump if the nozzle is pointed vertically up (in m).6 kg m3 )( 0. The steady. The flow is fully developed.83 m s V = V = ( 8. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.6m = ρVg ( 999.81m s 2 ) The velocity at the nozzle exit is: Vnozzle = V pipe = Likewise.3 = = A π Dnozzle 2 π ( 0. Properties are constant and evaluated at 10 ºC.5 0.5 =8.075m ) =0. Assuming the friction factor is 0. Assumptions: 1.3m s ) + ( 0.

21 .81m s 2 ) ( 35.039 m3 s ) m =35. the fountain still reaches an impressive height. apply the energy equation between points 2 and 3.3m s ) =104. the velocity at the nozzle exit is 4 ( 0. The pressure is the same and the velocity at 3 is zero.6m Answer Comments: Even without the pump.3 Vnozzle = 2 s π ( 0.b) To determine the height of the fountain.0375m ) z3 − z 2 = 2 ( 9. 9.3m s ) 2 =63. so V3 = 0 and P2 = P3 : V2 V22 + z 2 = 3 + z3 2g 2g → z3 − z 2 = z3 − z 2 = V22 2g 2 With the pump: 2 ( 9.6m Answer Without the pump.81m s 2 ) ( 45.

5m )( 0. so hP = hT = 0 . Therefore. 50-m long horizontal pipe from the bottom of a large diameter oil tank. Comments: Note that the velocity calculated above is the initial velocity. There 1 is no pump or turbine.85 and a kinematic viscosity of 6. Assuming a smooth pipe: ρV D V D ( V m s )( 0.05m ) = = = 73. 2.8 6. The pressures at 1 and 2 are both atmospheric. The oil has a SG = 0. The oil tank is open to the atmosphere. determine the initial flow rate from the tank (in m3/s). 3.5 m. a vandal opens a valve at the end of a 5-cm diameter. and the oil depth is 6.05m ) Re = = 10.8×10-4 m 2 s Laminar flow. The system is steady. for fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: f = 64 Re = 64ν V D Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) D 2 64ν L V 2 z1 − z2 = V = → 64ν L D V D 2g z1 − z2 = f V = 2 ( 9. so P = P2 . Approach: The flow rate depends on a balance between the head supplied by the oil depth and the head loss in the drain pipe.147m s )( 0. so V1 = V2 ≈ 0 . 4. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are large.8×10-4 m 2 s For any reasonable velocity.81m s 2 ) ( 6.22 . Assumptions: 1. and minor losses are neglected. An iterative solution may be required because the friction factor is a function of the flow (velocity). 9. The flow is fully developed. Solution: The steady. L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The steady.8×10-4 m 2 s ) ( 50m ) 2 =0. then the velocity will decrease. As the oil level drops.8×10-4 m2/s.5 V Re = µ ν 6. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow.147 m s Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ( 0. Properties are constant. assuming that the transient start-up of the flow is brief and the flow is quasi-steady. Neglect minor losses. so our assumption is correct.05m ) 64 ( 6.9-21 At an oil tank farm. Neglecting minor losses. Therefore. the flow will be laminar (check this).

Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity.9 ⎤ = −1. 2. Solution: The steady.2 ft s 2 ) 1 (3) (4) An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations. Therefore.11 6. which depends on pipe diameter. 3.0728 3 ρa = = 1545ft lbf lbmR )( 85+460 ) R RT ft ( ∆P 62. Air is an ideal gas.) ⎛ ⎜ ⎟ =178. The flow is fully developed with constant properties.259 × 10−5 lbm fts D µ For any reasonable size diameter.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 f V2 ⎛ 500 ⎞ ( V ft s ) D= → 178. calculate the velocity V. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g The pressure drop can be obtained from the manometer equation: ρ ∆P ∆P = ρ a g ∆ha = ρ w g ∆hw → = ∆ha = w ∆hw ρa g ρa Assuming air is an ideal gas at one atmosphere: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14.4 lbm ft 3 1ft ⎞ = ( 2. ) ( 28. The friction factor is a function of velocity. The required flow rate is 7500 ft3/min.2 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 920. ft ) =0. 600 ρV Re = = = 1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.7 lbf in.0728ft lbm )(159.23 . The steady.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in. determine: a. Assuming a smooth pipe. ⎠ ρ a g 0.0728lbm ft 3 ⎝ 4 ( 7500 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) 159. pumping power required (in hp). µ = 1. heated air at 85 °F must be conveyed from the furnace room to the display rooms through a 500-ft smooth duct. Reynolds number Re. so hP = hT . Neglect minor losses. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter. an iterative solution is required. so z1 = z2 . and minor losses are neglected.2 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. If the pressure loss must not exceed 2.0 ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 32. the flow will be turbulent.5in. Assumptions: 1. The pipe is horizontal.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.259 × 10−5 lbm fts : Velocity is : V = 3 2 D ( 0.9-22 In a large convention center. Hence.5 in. and friction factor f. and then use equation 4 to calculate the 9.6 ft = f ⎜ ⎟ 23. The system is steady.6ft 12in. the minimum diameter required (in in. There is no pump or turbine. of water. so V1 = V2 . and for air from Appendix B-7 at 85 ºF. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D.) b. 4. so with ε = 0 (2) ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.

2 2 ⎟ (178.0728 ⎟ ⎜ 7500 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎜ 32.diameter.70ft V = 55.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ftlbf s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ =2. Performing the iteration: D = 1. b) The pumping power is W = mgha = ρ aVha ⎛ ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp ⎞ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ W = ⎜ 0.500 f =0.24 .96hp Answer 9.6ft ) ⎜ lbm ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ 32.1ft s Re=541. iterate until converged. Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one.0129 Answer The next large standard duct size would be used.

9-23 Consider a heat exchanger that has 1000 2.025m ) This is turbulent. so the flow rate would decrease.25 .9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.7 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =35. ε D = 0. each 6-m long.11 + ⎡⎛ 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .9kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0.9 ⎤ 6. µ = 12. however.11 6.0219 kg ⎞ ( 2. Assumptions: 1.9 × 10 −4 ) = 43. so Therefore.0 m3 s ) 4V m V =2.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =10. Properties are constant.6 )( 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 39. The total water flow of 1 m3/s at 10 °C flows through the tubes. The system is steady.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 1 4 (1. Approach: Because the tubes operate in parallel.7kW m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ Answer Comments: Fouling can have a significant effect on flow rate. Neglecting entrance and exit losses. L V2 ρ D 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.11 6.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3. so we only need to calculate the pressure drop in one tube. the pumping power for the same flow rate if solid deposits from the water build up on the inner surface of the pipe with a thickness of 1-mm and an equivalent roughness of 0.0174 V = 2. all tubes have the same pressure drop. ρ = 999.5-cm diameter smooth tubes in parallel. so V1 = V2 . 3. Therefore.04 m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.41m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.6 kg m3 . the pumping power required (in kW) c.025m ) ρV = = 39.04 = = 2 2 A Nπ D s (1000 ) π ( 0.0472 ) ⎜ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ 999.6 3 ⎟ ⎟ =35. For smooth pipe ε =0 . P − P2 = f 1 The velocity is in one tube is: 3 V = Re = D ( 999.0219 ) ⎜ 999. incompressible flow energy equation is used.023 ⎠⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 35.4 23 = 0.500 12.025 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ Answer ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ b) Pumping power for the total flow rate is: WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 10.4 mm.9 ⎤ ⎥ = −1. 9.001m ) =0. Therefore.04 ( 25 23) = 2.023m . 000 → f = 0. The flow is fully developed.9 ⎤ = −1. Note. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. the motor power is fixed.500 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.9 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =10.0174 ⎞1.9kW s ⎠⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ c) The new pipe diameter is D = 0. 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ ⎢⎝ 3. the pressure drop (in kPa) b.025m-2 ( 0. The steady.6 kg m ) ( 2.7kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ 1. so hT = hP = 0 .41)( 0.023) (12. determine: a. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 43. ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.7 ⎠ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 kg ⎞ ( 2.11 6.0472 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞ = −1. At points 1 and 2 the pipe areas are the same. 2.41m s 2 → Re = ( 999. Solution: a) The steady.04 m s )( 0. that with centrifugal pumps.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.

9-24

The piping system that connects one reservoir to a second reservoir consists of 150-ft of 3-in. cast iron pipe that has four flanged elbows, a well-rounded entrance, and sharp-edged exit, and a fully open gate valve. For 75 gal/min of water at 50 °F, determine the elevation difference between the two reservoirs (in ft).

Approach:

The flow rate is set by the balance between the head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations and the frictional losses in the pipe. The steady, incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2 is used to determine the elevation difference.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

The steady, incompressible flow energy equation is:

P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

There is no pump or turbine, so hT = hp = 0 . We assume the surface of the reservoirs are large, so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 , and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric, so P1 = P2. Therefore, taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 4 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-3, Figure 9-13 and Figure 9-14, Kent = 0.04, Kbend = 0.3, and Kvalve = 0.15. For cast iron pipe ε =0.00085ft , and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF, µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s , ρ = 62.4 lbm ft 3 . The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 75gal ft 3 )( 0.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 4V ft V =3.40 = V = = 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.25ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 3 ρV D ( 62.4 lbm ft ) ( 3.40 ft s )( 0.25ft ) Re = = = 60, 400 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.11 6.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.00085 0.25 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.0289 ⎟ ⎟ + 3.7 60, 400 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦

150 ⎡ ⎤ ( 3.40 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢( 0.0289 ) + 0.04 + 0.15 + 1.0 + 4 ( 0.3 ) ⎥ = 3.54ft 0.25 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2 ft s 2 )

2

Answer

9- 26

9-25

Vandals open the drain valve on a water tower that is 10-m in diameter with a water depth of 8 m. The water flows out a sharp-edged opening into a horizontal 30-m long pipe, both of which are 10-cm in diameter; the gate valve in the pipe is half opened. Assume the friction factor is 0.016. Determine: a. the time required for the tank to drain (in min) b. the time required for the tank to drain if only the sharp-edged opening and the valve are present (in min) c. the appropriateness of the friction factor value used.

Approach:

Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool. The driving pressure head decreases with time, so the head as a function of time is needed. The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady, incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout . Water only leaves, and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation:

⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady, incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

2

At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric, so P = P2 . There is no pump or turbine, so hP = hT = 0 . Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1, the depth of water in the tank. The losses include an entrance, a valve, and line loss, so

V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + K valve + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The tank velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. Any mass flow rate from the tank must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2

→

ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2

→

V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2

2 0.5

**Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity:
**

⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables:

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 0.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0.5

dt

9- 27

zo

∫

0

2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 o

0.5

dt

−2 z

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 0.5 o

0.5

2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-14, Knit = 1.0, and from Table 9-3, Kvalve = 2.1. 0.5

**⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1+ ( 0.016 )( 30 0.10 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ b) If the 30 m long pipe is not taken into account: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠
**

2 0.5

0.5

=38,100 s=635 min=10.6hr

Answer

⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1 ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ =25,900 s=432 min=7.2 hr t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ c) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity, Reynolds number, and friction factor. The velocity is: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠

2

0.5

V≈

4 ( 0.0165 m3 s ) 4V m V V2 ≈ = = = 2.1 2 2 s A π D2 π ( 0.10m )

**Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 8m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0.0165 38,100s s t t
**

2

The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For a commercial steel pipe ε =0.045mm , and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC, µ = 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 , ρ = 999.6 kg m3 . The Reynolds numbers are:

Re =

3 ρV D ( 999.6 kg m ) ( 2.1m s )( 0.10m ) = = 162, 700 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ

The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ 0.045 100 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.0187 ⎟ + 3.7 162, 700 ⎥ fA ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor, we obtain t = 39,800 s = 11.1 hr.

Answer

Comments:

Because an “average” flow rate was used, there is some uncertainty in this answer.

9- 28

from Table 9-3 and Figure 9-13: K exit = 1. and a pump mechanical efficiency of 75%.0m hP = 4m+ ⎢( 0.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.86 ) ⎛1000 ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ 0.86. Power is WP = ⎡ ⎤ ( 5. Assumptions: 1. Approach: The steady.5 .0 .75 =6.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 5740 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0387 ) ⎜ ⎟ +1.0+5. 3. For a filling time of 15 min.5 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 0. K valve = 5.86 ) (1000 kg m ) ( 5.06 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. so hT = 0 . the power can be calculated. Solution: The steady.9-26 An oil transporter truck is filled from the top with 15 m3 of fuel oil (SG = 0. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.9 ⎤ = −1. A one-third closed ball valve and two bends that are equivalent to 90° threaded elbows are in the hose. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The flow is fully developed. K bend = 1. so using ε =0.0167 ⎟ ⎜ 9. A 10-m long flexible hose 6-cm in diameter whose surface roughness is equivalent to that of galvanized iron connects the truck to the reservoir. 2. Properties are constant.06m ) Re = = = 5740 5.15 60 ⎞1.5.89 V = = 2 s A π ( 0. determine the required pump power (in kW). The volume flow rate is: V 15m3 m3 V= = =0.0167 t (15min )( 60s min ) s 3 m V 4 ( 0.0167 m s ) =5.06m ) 3 The velocity is: ρV D ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the required pump head.11 6.29 . Kent = 1.3 × 10-2 N·s/m2) from a reservoir that is 4 m below the truck top.11 6.81 2 ⎟ ( 34.37kW Answer 9.0387 Therefore. Once that is known. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.5+2 (1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. The system is steady.3 × 10−2 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent.0m ) ⎜ ⎟ 3 ⎟⎜ s ⎠⎝ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.0.81m s ) mghP ηP = ρVghP = ηP ( 0.89 m s ) ⎛ 10 ⎞ = 34. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent + K valve + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where.0+1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → 2 f = 0.15 mm for galvanized iron. µ = 5.89 m s )( 0. Therefore. 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.

the same calculations are made as in part (a): Re = 46. Kvalve open = 0. Approach: The required pump head can be determined with the steady.1W W= mghP ηP = ( 988 kg m3 ) ( 2 m s )(π 4 )( 0.025m ) = = 93. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.15 ) +15 (1. Solution: a) Because this is a closed loop.9 ⎤ = −1.4m )( Ns kgm ) 2 =626W Answer Answer 9. the power required if the water velocity is 1 m/s (in kW). From Table 9-3.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.1) +1(17 ) ⎥ =49. The system is steady.1.025 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.30 . determine: a. and the types of losses are given in the problem statement. three half open gate valves and one three-quarter closed gate valve.11 1 6.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.4m 0. The flow is fully developed. Consider a system that consists of 200-m of 2.29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 . the power can be calculated. Re = ρV D ( 988 kg m ) ( 2 m s )( 0.81m s 2 ) ( 49. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºC. Kvalve half open = 2. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.025m ) ( 9. It has 15 90° regular threaded elbows. two fully open gate valves. 700 f = 0. Kbend = 1.81m s 2 ) 2 f = 0. µ = 5. Assumptions: 1.0260 hP = 12. we can use the steady.5-cm commercial steel pipe.15. so that: ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ⎜ f + 2 K valve + 15K bend + 3K valve half + 1K valve quarter ⎟ open open open ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-2 for the pipe ε =0.0245 Answer Answer 0. incompressible flow energy equation must be used.045 25 ⎞1. 2. the power required if the water velocity is 2 m/s (in kW) b. For water at 50 °C and a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 75%.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 200 ⎡ ⎤ (2 m s) hP = ⎢( 0. 400 5.0245 ) +2 ( 0. Kvalve quarter open = 17.9-27 Large office buildings use circulating hot water systems to ensure that hot water is available instantly in all restrooms.5 ) +3 ( 2.75 b) If the velocity is 1 m/s. ρ = 988 kg m3 .29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. Properties are constant.5.9m W = 82.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. so hT = 0 . incompressible flow energy equation from point 1 to point P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + + hT + ∑ hL 1: ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.045m .11 6.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 93. 3. Once the head is known.

9 ⎤ 1 = −1. a municipal water department developed a second reservoir and wants to connect the new reservoir to the old one using a concrete pipe.11 6.73 D ft s ) ( Dft ) = = 903. ρ = 62. The flow is fully developed.2033 = (3) (4) 9.5mi )( 5280 ft mi ) ⎤ ( V ft s ) 25ft = f ⎢ ⎥ 2 Dft ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32. we can determine the pipe diameter with an iterative solution. Properties are constant. The reservoirs are 1. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . The velocity is: Re = V = 3 2 ρV D ( 62. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Taking into account line losses only: 1 z1 − z2 = f L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.73 ft V 4V = 2 = = 2 A πD 2 D s π ( Dft ) (1) (2) For any reasonable size pipe.0232 The next large standard size of concrete pipe would be used. 2. Determine the minimum pipe diameter needed to carry 10 ft3/s of water at 50 °F? Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.81ft s f = 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.5 miles apart with a difference in surface elevations of 25 ft.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known quantities into the pressure drop equation: 2 ⎡ (1. and the pressure are atmospheric. Solution: The steady. For concrete pipe ε =0.31 . the flow is turbulent. Applying the steady. The areas of the reservoirs are large. The system is steady. Assumptions: 1. 0. Doing so: D = 2.005 ft (estimated).64ft Answer V = 4.4 lbm ft 3 . and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. 000 D µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 4 (10 ft 3 s ) 12. 3. which depends on the velocity and diameter.9-28 To ensure adequate water supplies to a town. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. so hP = hT = 0 .4 lbm ft )(12. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .2 ft s ) f V2 D The above four equations are solved iteratively.

Assumptions: 1.81m s ) 2 Welec = 358kW Answer Comments: Other losses dominate the process so adding a gate valve has essentially no effect.7m ⎟ +1. Once that is known. Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump.11 6. µ = 12.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.26 1000 ⎞1. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .0 . K bend = 0.⎢( 0. 3. the power output if a fully open gate valve and two long radius 45° flanged elbows also are in the pipe (in kW). The flow is fully developed.81m s ) 2 → f = 0. 2.2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.6 kg m ) (1.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 (1m3 s ) V 4V m =1. The turbine has a mechanical efficiency of 78% and the electric generator has an efficiency of 94%. Solution: a) The steady.0 ⎥ 2 1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.15+2 ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the turbine head. At a particular plant.0152 Power extracted from the water is ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ 9. determine: a. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . and from Table 9-2 ε =0. ρ = 999. the power output from the plant (in kW) b.2 ⎡ ⎤ (1.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. the elevation difference between the reservoir surface and the hydroturbine is 50 m.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3.11 1 6.7m ⎟ +1. and 2 long radius 45º bends.27 = = 2 A π D2 s π (1m ) The flow is turbulent.7m ) ⎜ WT = mghT = ρVghT = ⎜ 999. so hP = 0 .9-29 The reservoir behind a dam is connected to a hydroelectric power plant with a penstock (a large pipe to convey the water).: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.6 3 ⎟ ⎜1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =488kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Taking into account the turbine and electric generator efficiencies: Welec = ηT η genWT = ( 0. ⎡ ⎤ (1.94 )( 488kW ) =358kW Answer b) Adding a gate valve. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 999.6 kg m3 .0+0.0152 ) ⎜ = 49. K exit = 1.15 . and the penstock is constructed of 150-m of 1-m diameter cast iron pipe.81 2 ⎟ ( 49. the power can be calculated. K gate = 0.0152 ) ⎜ = 49.⎢( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.78 )( 0.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m.27 m s )(1m ) = = 987.26 mm .9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Approach: The steady.9 ⎤ = −1. For a 1 m3/s flow of 10 °C water.32 . 000 12. Including the exit loss where. The system is steady. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.7 987. 9.

33 . 20-m long plastic pipe. so V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The pool velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. The driving pressure head decreases with time. 3. The losses include an exit and line loss. so the head as a function of time is needed. The system is steady. so hP = hT = 0 . Properties are constant. if this value of friction factor is appropriate. Solution: a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout .5 dt 9. Any mass flow rate from the pool must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2 → ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2 → 0. For a friction factor of 0.9-30 The drain at the bottom of a swimming pool (10-m in diameter and 2-m deep) is well rounded and is connected to a 5-cm diameter. 2. The water is at 20 °C. There is no pump or turbine. Approach: Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool. incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g 2 At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric. Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1. The flow is fully developed.021. Water only leaves. The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady. Assumptions: 1. and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation: ⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady. so P = P2 . the time required to drain the pool (in min) b.5 V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2 2 Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables: 2 ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ 0. determine: a. incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time. the depth of water in the tank.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0.

34 .05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ 2 ( 9. so the new estimate is probably better.5 =314.85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.00050 t t 314.04 t = 2 ( 2m ) 0.05m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.( 0. µ = 9.6 hr.2hr Answer b) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity.00050 m3 s ) V 4V m = = = 0.900 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.5 o 0.000s=87. 000s s 2 V2 ≈ 4 ( 0.5 dt −2 z 2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. we obtain t = 362.05m ) Re = = = 12. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC.11 1 6. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 998. Kent = 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor. Reynolds number.000 s and 100.021)( 20 0. and friction factor.900 9.5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-13.2 kg m3 .85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . The velocity is: V≈ Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 2m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0.9 ⎤ = −1.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.5 o 0.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. ρ = 998.05 10 )4 +0.5 0. so ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. 9. For smooth pipe ε =0 .05 ⎠ 2 ⎡1.0288 ⎟ + 12.255 m s )( 0.2 kg m ) ( 0.255 2 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.zo ∫ 0 2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.04+ ( 0. Answer Comments: The answer for part (b) is significantly different than that in (a).

3. Kent = 1. Properties are constant. 2. Solution: The equation for the draining time. Using the friction factor from part (b) in Problem 931: 0. The system is steady. Additional minor losses are included.( 0.5 ) + ( 0. Note. including the additional minor losses is: 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + 2 K bend + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3.9-31 If the pool in Problem P 9-30 has a sharp-edged entrance and two 90° regular threaded elbows. The flow is fully developed. so there is uncertainty in this answer. Approach: We use the same equations as derived in Problem P 9-30.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ =415.4hr Answer 0. 9. we used “average” values of velocity and friction factor.05 20 )4 +1+2 (1.300 s=6922 min=115. determine the time required to drain the pool (in min).05 ⎠ 2 0. Kbend = 1.35 .0288 )( 20 0.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.5 and from Figure 9-13.0.5 Comments: As can be seen the addition of a small amount of minor loss increased the draining time from about 100 hr to 115 hr. however.05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 2m ) 2 ( 9.5 o 0.5 ⎡1. Assumptions: 1.

6. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.0141) ⎜ = 16. Applying the steady.0141 From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14.9 ⎤ = −1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. The gate valve is one-fourth closed.00015 ft .3 Therefore.7 ft s )(1ft ) = = 903.26.00015 1 ⎞1.7 903. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Assumptions: 1. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =12. Properties are constant. diameter commercial steel with flanged fittings. The areas of the reservoirs are large.11 1 6.3) + ( 0. K valve = 0. For commercial steel pipe ε =0.7 = = 2 A πD 2 s π (1ft ) The flow is turbulent. The water temperature is 50 °F. 2 ⎡ ⎛ 310 ⎞ ⎤ (12.0 + 2 ( 0. K bend = 0. The flow is fully developed. and the pressure are atmospheric.26 + 1. so hP = hT = 0 .36 .7 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢0. K ent = 0.9-32 A pipe connects two reservoirs at different elevations. 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. Determine the required elevation difference between the two reservoirs to produce a water flow rate of 10 ft3/s (in ft). we can determine the required elevation difference. 3.5 + 0.4 lbm ft 3 .2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Answer 9. The pipe is constructed of 12-in. Taking into account all losses: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. K exit = 1.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . The system is steady.0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .9ft ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.4 lbm ft ) (12. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.11 6. Solution: The steady. Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss. ρ = 62.

0201 0. so hP = hT = 0 .020m ) Re = = = 27.93) (1000 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Assumptions: 1. so we will need to iterate D 2g to find a solution.800 58.81m s 2 ) The frictional head loss is negative. ε =0 . so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. incompressible flow energy equation.81 2. solve equation (3) for velocity.37 .0200 V (m/s) 1.81m s 2 ) ⎝ f ⎠ s b) The head loss is hL = f The iterative procedure is to: guess a velocity.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the head loss equation: 0. We assume the flow is turbulent and that the pipe is smooth. 3.00068 Nm s 2 For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent.15m = f ⎜ → V =⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0.0208 0. the steady.700 49. the pipe diameter is constant. the flow velocity if it is flowing (in m/s). and there are no minor losses: (110-230 ) kN m 2 (1000kg m kN s 2 ) P − P2 1 + (10m ) =-3. and then compare to the guessed value. at an elevation 10-m higher.16 Answer 9. The sign on the frictional head loss will tell us the flow direction.93. We do not know the velocity or the friction factor.9-33 A liquid (SG = 0.93) (1000 kg m3 )( 9. The system is steady.11 2. At one elevation the fluid pressure is 230 kPa. The friction factor depend on Reynolds number. Determine: a.15m + ( z1 − z2 ) = hL = ρg ( 0. L V2 . µ = 0.81 2.600 57. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.15 Re 13. Continue until converged.900 f 0.11 6. Properties are constant. V1 = V2 .9 ⎤ 1 (2) = −1.5 2 ⎛ 0. The flow is fully developed. there will be frictional losses. if the flow is moving and in what direction b.15 2. the assumed flow direction is incorrect. calculate the Reynolds number and the friction factor. Solution: a) Assuming the flow is from point 1 to point 2.5 1.0284 0. V (m/s) 0. 400 V (1) µ 0.11 2. Approach: If the fluid is moving. 2. The frictional head loss can be determined with the steady.0928 ⎞ m ⎛ 10m ⎞ ( V m s ) (3) 3. the pressure is 110 kPa.00068 N·s/m2) is contained in a vertical 2-cm diameter pipe. Answer The flow is upward.015m ⎠ 2 ( 9. so 3 ρV D ( 0.

so hT = hP = 0 .4 lbm ft ) ( 5. 9. ρ = 62.38 .00985 ) = −0. Solution: The steady.66 ft s )(1. the steady. Approach: Because we can solve for elevation change directly.985 100ft of pipe Answer Comments: Note that the angle is θ = sin −1 ( −0.0.4 lbm ft 3 . The flow is fully developed.5ft )2 s 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.5 ⎥ 2 ( 32.0+ ( 0. diameter smooth concrete storm sewers to channel away runoff after heavy rainstorms.0184 200 ⎤ ( 5. Assumptions: 1.5ft ) = = 602.9 ⎤ = −1. L⎞V2 ⎛ z1 − z2 = ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.97 200 = -0. 3.66 = = A π D 2 π (1.00067 : 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =5.97ft 1. the required negative slope is −1. 2. Each storm sewer will need to carry a flow of 10 ft3/s.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0. For water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.9-34 The designers of a large shopping mall install 18-in. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts This is turbulent flow. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the required slope. ε D = 0. determine the required elevation change per 100 ft of pipe (in ft).11 6. Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 62. so V1 = V2 . Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let locations 1 and 2 be just outside the pipe ends.00067 ⎞1. The pressures at the entrance and exit of the sewer are atmospheric.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. and both are at atmospheric pressure. so from Figure 9-15. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts . so P = P2 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Kent = 0.5 and Kexit = 1. There is no turbine or pump.56o . assume the area ratios are zero. The duct is 1 constant area.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 602. If the sewers are 200 ft long before they join with larger pipes.001ft.5+1. The system is steady.0184 ) = 1. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.66 ft s ) ⎡ z1 − z2 = ⎢0.11 6. For the minor losses at the entrance and exit.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. From Table 9-2 for smooth concrete ε = 0.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.

Therefore. Answer P2.6 ft s )( 3ft ) = = 4.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. so hP = hT = 0 . ft ) lbm =0. the pressure drop (in in. 2500-ft long duct constructed of commercial steel pipe that carries air at 45 °F. ε = 0. 2.0754 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.0754 ⎞ ⎛ 12in. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 = ha = f ρg D 2g The pipe diameter and elevation are constant.0754 lbm ft ) ( 23.00005 ⎞1.2 2 ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ = ⎜ 10000 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =2. 3.49 × 105 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.11 1 6.188 × 10−5 lbm fts . of water ρw ⎝ 62. Assumptions: 1.39 . 4. g − P g 1.0139 ) ⎜ = 100 ft of air ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2 ( 32. If the tunnel is too long. ε D = 0.1 psia with a flow rate of 10.45in.11 6. incompressible flow energy equation. Determine: a.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: ⎛ 2500 ⎞ ( 23.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. ⎞ ha = ⎜ ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ ⎟ =1. Properties are constant.49 × 105 µ 1.0139 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 4.00005 . the power required (in hp). ventilation air must be supplied to dilute and purge vehicle exhaust gases from the tunnel.4 ⎠ ⎝ 1ft ⎠ hP = P2. Air is an ideal gas. of water) b.2 ft s 2 ) 2 Answer For pressure in inches of water: ∆P = ρ w ghw = ρ a gha → hw = ρa ⎛ 0. g b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2: The pumping power is 3 ρg = ρg W = ρVg ( ∆P ρ g ) = V ∆P = V ρ a gha 2 ⎛ ⎞⎛ ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ 1hp ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ lbfs 0.28hp ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ 32. trucks. Solution: a) The steady. and trains.6 ft s ) ha = ( 0.188×10-5 lbm fts 3 4 (10000 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =23.0754 3 = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 45+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. There is no pump or turbine.000 ft3/min.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. ) ( 28. The system is steady.00015ft.1lbf in.6 = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 3ft ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 14. µ = 1. The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied just across the pump. tunnels often are used for cars. There are no minor losses. Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 0. The flow is fully developed.2ftlbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf s ⎠ ⎝ Answer 9. For air from Appendix B-7 at 45 ºF.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . For commercial steel pipe. Consider a 3-ft diameter.9-35 In mountainous regions. Assuming air is an ideal gas: ρ= 2 2 2 PM (14. Approach: The pressure drop is determined with the steady.00015 3 = 0.9 ⎤ = −1.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.

if the device in the building is a pump or a turbine b.1m3 s ) V 4V m =5. µ = 12.0kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ Answer 9.81 2 ⎟ (14. and the device actually is a turbine. 4. If it is negative.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 657.1 ⎟ ⎜ 9. ρ = 999. 700 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. 700 12. The system is steady. Properties are constant.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Assumptions: 1. Approach: The steady. then our assumption was wrong.11 6.15 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.66 V = = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. The flow is fully developed.15 mm .66 m s ) ⎛ 100 ⎞ hP = −10m+ ⎢( 0. The device is a pump. then our assumption is correct.81m s ) 2 → f = 0. exit. if the power calculated is positive. the device is a pump.9 ⎤ = −1.6 kg m3 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.66 m s )( 0. 100-m long galvanized iron pipe connects the lake to a building in which either a pump or a turbine is located.0201) ⎜ = 14. b) Power is ⎛ N s2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 999. Applying the energy equation. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .6 kg m ) ( 5. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 and Kent = 0. Determine: a.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.40 . incompressible flow energy equation has terms for pump and turbine power. and entrance losses. 3.3m ⎟ +0. Solution: a) The steady. A 15-cm diameter. Therefore.15m ) Re = = = 657.0201 Answer Because this is positive. ⎡ ⎤ ( 5.3m ) ⎜ ⎟ =14. For galvanize iron pipe ε =0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g We assume the device is a pump.5. 2.5+1⎥ 2 0. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. We will assume the device inside the building is a pump.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0. The losses are line.9-36 Water at 10 °C flows from a lake at a flow rate of 0.15 150 ⎞1.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ 0. The elevation difference between the lake surface and the building is 10 m.15m ) The flow is turbulent.1 m3/s.020W=14.11 1 6. so hT = 0 . The velocity is: ρV D ( 999.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. the power of the device (in W).

Ignoring entrance loss. 2. The elevation difference is 950 ft.61 = = 2 A πD 2 s π ( 0.9 ⎤ = −1. diameter.00015 ft .5=1318ft ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ lbm ⎞⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 62. ft ) ( 32.11 6.4 lbm ft ) ( 2. Consider a resort that uses 100 gal/min of 35 °F water.33ft ) = = 47. we can determine the required pump power.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. Determine the required pumping power (in hp). and for water from Appendix B-6 at 35 ºF. Power is hP → f = 0. 3.3 hp Answer 9. the losses are line and exit. At point 1 the area of the pond is large. and the gage pressure is atmospheric.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 ⎡ ⎛ 3000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =2.1337 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32. 1 hP = 2 P2 ⎛ L ⎞V + ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 . Solution: The steady. The gage pressure required at the nozzle at the end of the pipe is 150 lbf/in. so hT = 0 .33 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.61ft s ) +950ft+ ⎢( 0.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ =33.00015 0. Properties are constant.41 .11 1 6. 060 µ 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (100 gal min ) ( 0.33ft ) The flow is turbulent.0223 2 (150 lbf = ( 62. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.7 47. Assumptions: 1. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 3000-ft steel pipe to the top of the mountain. For commercial steel pipe ε =0. 060 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. ρ = 62.61ft s )( 0.2 ) (12in.4 lbm ft 3 .33 ⎞1.0223) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0. µ = 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s . Therefore.4 3 ⎟⎜ 100 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 0.2 ft s ) 3 2 in. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. It is pumped from the water holding pond through a 4-in. so V1 = 0 and P = 0 . The system is steady.9-37 Ski resorts pump water to make snow when the weather does not cooperate.2. The flow is fully developed.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ =346+950+21. Approach: By applying the steady.2 2 ⎟ (1318ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 32.4 lbm ft )( 32. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.

Approach: The steady. so ⎡⎛ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head. which connects a river to an irrigation canal.5 m3 s ) V 4V m =3.5 m s ) ( 61. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .11 1 6. a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 80%. 4. and neglecting minor losses. For water at 15 °C. The Reynolds numbers are: Re = D ( 999 kg m ) ( 3.045mm . 2 → f = 0.5 m3/s of water (in kW).2 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. is: 3 3 2 2 mghP ( 999 kg m )( 2.81× 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. The system is steady. taking into account pump efficiency. Therefore. The canal’s elevation is 50 m higher than that of the river. the required pumping power can be calculated.9-38 In the western United States. Assumptions: 1. Properties are constant. Consider a system that consists of a 1-m diameter. and water must be pumped long distances.80 )(1000W kW ) 9. For the pipe ε =0.7m ⎟ ⎝ 1 ⎠ 2 ( 9. 2. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 15 ºC.18 m s ) hP = 50m + ( 0.7 2. many crops are irrigated. determine the power required to pump 2. ρ = 999 kg m3 .7m ) ( 9. 2-km long steel pipe.0113 ⎛ 2000 ⎞ ( 3.2 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. 3. The flow is fully developed. so hT = 0 .81m s )( Ns kgm ) =1.42 .18 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3. Once that is known.045 1000 ⎞1. The velocity is: V = hP = z2 − z1 + f L V2 D 2g 4 ( 2. 1 There is no turbine.890kW = W= ηP ( 0.0113) ⎜ = 61.18 = = 2 s A πD 2 π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.81m s 2 ) Answer Pumping power. and minor losses are neglected.81× 106 11. Solution: The steady. Neglect minor losses.9 ⎤ = −1. µ = 11.

incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. so hT = hp = 0 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.97 kg kmol ) kg ρ= = =1.228 kg m3 )( 0.5 22. Solution: a) The steady.5-cm circular duct.43 .76 The pressure rise is obtained from the given information and water density: P2 − P = ρ gh = (1000 kg m3 )( 9. The downstream pressure is 6. we can determine the flow rate through the expansion.0944 m3 s ) = 0.5-mm of water higher than the upstream pressure.0944 m3 s A 2 0. so z1 = z2 . the mass flow rate (in kg/s).0638 kN m 2 1000kg m kN s ⎫ )( ) ⎪ =21.4 m ⎪ ( V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 3 s ⎪ (1. Assumptions: 1.5 ) = 0.0065m ) ( kN s 2 1000 kg m ) =0. with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = ( 7.5-cm circular duct into a 22.314 kJ kgK )( 25+273) K Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion.76 ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ b) The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 21.5 22.( 7.5 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: ⎧ ⎫ 2 ( P2 − P ) ⎪ ⎪ 1 V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 ⎪ ρ ⎡1 − ( D1 D2 ) − K exp ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ Assuming an ideal gas. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass. the average air velocity approaching the expansion (in m/s) b. The pipe is horizontal.4 m s )( π 4 )( 0. m1 = m2 0.111 → 2 2 K exp ≈ 0.116 kg s 9. Approach: Applying the steady. The loss coefficient across the expansion must be evaluated.228 3 RT m (8.5 Answer Answer Answer c) Mass flow rate is: m=ρ V= (1. the volumetric flow rate (in m3/s) c. The flow is fully developed. the air density is: 2 PM (105 kN m ) ( 28. The system is steady.9-39 Air at 105 kPa and 25 °C flows from a 7. 2.0638 kN m 2 1 ⎧ 2 0.81m s 2 ) ( 0. Properties are constant. Determine: a.228 kg m ) ⎡1.075m ) =0. 3.5 ) -0. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion.

ρ = 999. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The area at point 2 is large and the pressure is atmospheric. so V2 = 0 and P2 = 101. For the pipe ε =0. so hT = hP = 0 . µ = 12. → f = 0. P = P2 − ρ 1 V1 2 L⎞ V2 ⎛ + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K exit + f ⎟ ρ 1 D⎠ 2 2 ⎝ = 1 . There is no pump or turbine. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. Consider water that is pumped through a 10-cm steel pipe to the roof of a 200-m tall building.55 2 s A πD 2 π ( 0. The Reynolds number is: The velocity is: V = Re = D ( 999.55 m s ) ⎛ kN s ⎞ P = 101. what is the pressure at the pump discharge (in kPa)? Approach: The steady.9 ⎤ = −1. 2.81m s 2 ) ( 200m ) ⎜ + ( 0.0184 2 ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ( 2.7 198. incompressible flow energy equation is used directly to calculate the pressure at point 1. Therefore.02 m3/s.44 .6 kg m3 .045mm .6 3 ⎟ ( 9.6 kg m ) ( 2. 000 12. 4.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. For a water temperature of 10 °C and a flow of 0. The flow is fully developed.11 1 6.045 100 ⎞1.3kPa .9-40 In some high rise buildings. Neglect minor losses. Solution: The steady. and all minor losses except the exit are neglected.0184 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 1 ⎟ m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0. The system is steady. the pump is on the ground floor. water is stored in an elevated tank on the roof to minimize pressure fluctuations in the system. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3.10 ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ = 101.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . so ⎡⎛ 0. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.02 m3 s ) 4V m V = = =2.10m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. so L V1 2 ρ D 2 Note that K exit P = P2 + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 4 ( 0. Assumptions: 1.3 + 1960 + 120 = 2181kPa ( absolute ) =2080kPa (gage) Answer 2 9. 3.55 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 198.3kPa + ⎜ 999.

ε D = 0. hence. Approach: Flow is set by a balance among elevation difference. Properties are constant. determine the flow rate (in m3/s).11 6.0247 For volume flow rate m ⎞π m3 2 ⎛ V = V = ⎜1.24 m/s Re=98.00188 (2) -2. 2.15 80 = 0. so this maybe an iterative solution depending on whether this is a laminar or a turbulent flow.08m ) =0. so with ε =0.45 .71o → z2 − z1 = −30sin ( 5.985m The friction factor depend on Reynolds number.15 mm. Performing the iteration: V (m/s) = 1. The steady. Line losses depend on velocity. incompressible flow energy equation is: and with hL = ( f L D ) V 2 2 g : P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.71o ) = −2. For a fluid with a kinematic viscosity of 10-6 m2/s and a density of 900 kg/m3. The flow is fully developed. The system is steady.985m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0. and line losses. Assumptions: 1.11f ( V m s ) 2 (3) The above three equations can be solved iteratively to determine velocity and.985m+19. Solution: The steady. 3. there are no minor losses. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow.00623 A Answer s ⎠4 s ⎝ 9.9-41 A fluid flows by gravity down an 8-cm galvanized iron pipe. V1 = V2 .9 ⎤ = −1. the pipe diameter is constant. flow rate. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g Note that ( z2 − z1 ) ≠ −3m . From the problem geometry: θ = tan −1 (1 10 ) = 5.81m s 2 ) ( 900 kg m3 )( 9. and the pipe has a slope of 1m rise per 10 m of run (horizontal distance).24 ⎟ ( 0.265m=-2. so D V D ( V m s )( 0.08m ) ρV Re = = = = 80. respectively. pressure difference. so hP = hT = 0 .08m ⎠ 2 ( 9.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kN ⎛ 1000kgm ⎞ (120-140 ) 2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ m ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ ⎛ 30m ⎞ ( V m s ) =-2.900 f = 0. The horizontal distance between the two locations is 30 m. 000 V 10−6 m 2 s µ ν ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.81m s2 ) 1 (1) For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. The pressures at the higher and lower locations are 120 kPa and 140 kPa.

the steady. The system is steady. both of which depend on the pipe diameter. 3. The steady.694 = (4) Answer 9.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ( 400-100 ) kN m 2 (1000kgm kNs 2 ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V m s ) =10m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 9.104 m V = 3. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed). determine the minimum pipe diameter needed (in m).9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1.81m s ) ( 999. Assumptions: 1. The pipe diameter is constant. Assuming that galvanized steel pipe will be used.6 kg m3 )( 9. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g 4 ( 0. An iterative solution is required.0382 m 4V V = = = (1) 2 A πD 2 D2 s π ( Dm ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.6 kg m3 . so hP = hT = 0 .3m3 s ) 0. with ε =0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . The water main pressure is 400 kPa (gage). Approach: Friction pressure loss depends on the friction factor and velocity. and the factor needs 100 kPa (gage) water at a location 10-m above the water main.104 would be used.000 f = 0. The flow is fully developed. 2. the flow will be turbulent. 600 ρV = = 12. ρ = 999.11 6. so V1 = V2 . and from Table 9-2.694 The above four equations are solved iteratively: D = 0. 2.6 kg m )( 0.15mm .0382 D m s ) ( Dm ) 29.54 m/s Re = 285.0223 The next standard pipe size greater than 0. The water main from which the water will be obtained is 150-m from the factory. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Only line losses are present Therefore.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 D µ (2) For any reasonable size pipe.9-42 A new factory is to be built that requires 0. The Reynolds numbers are: The velocity is: V = Re = 3 2 D ( 999. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. incompressible flow energy equation is used to find the required diameter. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.03 m3/s of water. µ = 12.46 .81m s2 ) f V2 f V2 → D= D 2.

from Figures 9-13 and 9-14.0m+3.0113) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.2m W= mghP ηP = ( 999. The flow is turbulent and from Table 9-2. µ = 12. Once the head is determined. Neglecting minor losses.9 ⎤ f = 0. incompressible flow energy equation. the pumping power can be calculated.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + 3. The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. and pressure is atmospheric.82m s ) hP = ( 730-673) m+ ⎢0. The flow is fully developed.2m=60.11 6. the steady. The losses include inlet. ρ = 999.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 Assuming a sharp edged entrance and exit. The areas at 1 and 2 are large.045 1000 ⎞1. 2. The system is steady. and line losses. a water flow rate of 3 m3/s is to be pumped from the lower to the upper reservoir through a 1-m diameter commercial steel pipe.6 kg m ) ( 3.96 × 106 Re = 12.045mm .47 . Approach: The required pump head can be obtained directly from the steady.6 kg m3 )( 3m3 s )( 9.82 m s )(1m ) = = 2.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.96 × 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.5 and K exit = 1.0113 = −1. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.6 kg m3 . Therefore.5 + 1 + ( 0. Properties are constant. ε =0.213kW Answer 9.8log ⎢⎜ → ⎥ = −1. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999.0 . 1 L⎞V2 ⎛ hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ 4 ( 3m3 s ) 4V m V =3. V1 = V2 = 0 . K ent = 0.82 The velocity is: V = = = 2 2 s A πD π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed).81m s ) ⎣ = 57.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .2m ) (1kNs 2 1000kgm ) 0.9-43 For the system shown below.11 1 6. Assumptions: 1. so hT = 0 .7 Re ⎥ 2. exit. determine the power required (in kW).7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ⎡ ⎛ 245 ⎞ ⎤ ( 3.81m s2 ) ( 60. 3.80 Answer =2. so P = P2 .

the fan power can be calculated. Therefore.6 = s A ( 0. 2 ⎡ ⎛ 250 ⎞ ⎤ ( 55.6 ft s )( 0.857ft ) D = = 289. so both are at atmospheric pressure and P = P2 .0737 lbm ft ) ( 55.0186 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. 000 1.5ft )( 3ft ) 4 Ax 4 HW =0. incompressible flow energy equation.0005 0.2 2 ⎟ ( 308ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ mghP ρVghP ⎝ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ WP = = = ηP ηP ⎛ 32. Assumptions: 1. Approach: The required fan head can be obtained directly from the steady.7 289. Properties are constant. which is 36-in. by 6in.214 × 10−5 lbm ft s .48 .0737 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5000 ⎟⎜ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32. Once we determine the required head.2.3hp Answer 9. determine the fan pumping power required if the fan has a mechanical efficiency of 65% (in hp). The flow is fully developed.11 1 6. 1 with only an exit minor loss and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 . we need the hydraulic diameter: 4 ( 0.857 ⎞1.2ft lbm ⎞ ( 0.214 × 10 −5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent. The duct has constant area and is horizontal V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . ) ( 28. Solution: The steady. 3. and for air from Appendix B-7 at 60 ºF. Assuming air is an ideal gas: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14. 2. For the duct (from Table 9-2).2 lbf/in.857 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. The system is steady.65 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 ⎝ lbf s ⎠ = 5. µ = 1.0737 3 ρ= = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 60+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The velocity is: V = 3 ft V ( 5000 ft min ) (1min 60s ) =55.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.5+3) ft Re = 3 ρ V h ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.0005 ft . so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.6 ft s ) hP = ⎢( 0. Point 1 is just upstream of the fan and point 2 is outside of the duct. so hT = 0 . 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.0186 ) ⎜ =308ft ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0.9 ⎤ = −1.11 6.5ft )( 3ft ) Because this is a non-circular duct. For a flow rate of 5000 ft3/min of 60 °F air at 14.2 lbf in.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 3. ε =0.857ft = = Dh = pwetted 2 ( H + W ) 2 ( 0. ft ) =0.9-44 Fresh air is distributed in a factory through a 250-ft long rectangular galvanized duct.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Power is → f = 0.

in general.025m ) =0. include one entrance.5 =2.81m s )(1. 3. 2. a) Ignoring line loss.49 m/s This is close enough so 0. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric. one bend.700 → f = 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.11 6. The system is steady. Solution: The steady. so the procedure we will follow is: assume a velocity. so hT = hp = 0 .00147 m3 s A b) The line loss will decrease the flow.2 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0.5m ) ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 1+0. µ = 9.0207 )( 0. for a 180º bend. so V1 ≈ 0 . evaluate friction factor. so P1 = P2. f = 0 0.1+1. the volume flow rate if both the minor and line losses are taken into account (in m3/s).5+ ( 0.1π /2 ) 0. The siphon is a 2.9-45 Water at 20 °C is to be siphoned from a large tank.0207 → ⎡ ⎤ 2 ( 9.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .8log ⎢ + ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ ⎥⎟ Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎣ Re ⎦ ⎠ ⎝ ⎢⎝ 3. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0. and then calculate velocity from the complete velocity equation.49 m s )( π 4 )( 0. Properties are constant. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. the volume flow rate if only the minor losses are taken into account (in m3/s) b.9 ⎤ ⎞ = −1. The losses.5+0. Kbend = 1.2 kg m3 .8log ⎢⎜ + → f = ⎜1. and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V ∑ hL = ⎜ f D + K ent + Kbend ⎟ 2 g ⎝ ⎠ Combining and solving for the velocity: 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) ⎡ ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣1 + K ent + K bend + f L D ⎦ From Figure 9-13a.8+1. Determine: a.49 .025 ⎥ s ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ For a second iteration: V = 2. ρ = 998.99 m s 2 V = V = ( 2. Approach: The flow can be determined by applying the steady. We assume the area at 1 large.025m ) =0.00122 m3 s A 2 Answer 9. 3 D ( 998.5m ) m V =⎢ ⎥ =2.5 ⎡ 2 ( 9.8.1+0. so −2 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.47 m/s → Re = 62. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.99 m s )( π 4 )( 0.11 6.0197 → V = 2. For smooth tubing ε =0 . calculate Reynolds number.5-cm diameter smooth tube and has a reentrant inlet.85 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 µ For a velocity even one-fourth the velocity obtained without line loss.025m ) ρV Re = = = 25.5.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Guess V = 2 m/s → Re = 50. as shown below.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.8+1. From Table 9-3. For part (b) an iterative solution is required.81m s )(1.500 → f = 0. The flow is fully developed.47 1+0.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. the flow still would be turbulent.5+0 ⎦ 0.5 V = V = ( 2.9 ⎤ ⎛ 1 ⎡ 6. Assumptions: 1.340 V 9.

and friction factor. 3.16 11.0214 -15. The steady. D (ft) Re f h2 (ft) V (ft/s) 0. incompressible flow energy equation must be used. and line loss: 0= 2 P2 V2 ⎛ L ⎞V + 2 + z2 + ⎜ f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρ g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for P2 ρ g : 2 P2 L ⎛ ⎞V = h2 = − z2 − ⎜1 + f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρg D ⎝ ⎠ 2g The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (100gal min ) ( 0. so hp = 0 .04 in.000 0.4 lbm ft )( 0. hence.284 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 17. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump. the standard pipe size about 0. so V1 ≈ 0 .11 6.300 0.).1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 0. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0.000 0. in general.0 0. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 40 ºF.4 0. The losses.2 7.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. for a 90º bend. the head at the suction side of the pump must not be less than –20 ft of water. the flow will be turbulent. From Figure 9-13a.17 ft = 2. an iterative solution is required.00015ft . The system is steady.0216 -21.9-46 A pump draws 40 °F water from a lake through 20 ft of commercial steel pipe. Kbend = 0.50 . diameter. 3 2 ρV D ( 62. and the pressure at 1 is atmospheric. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0215 -19. include one entrance.1 106.3. in diameter or larger would be chosen for the suction pipe. Because friction factor depends on velocity and.83 100.17 9. calculate velocity. the line has a reentrant inlet and a 90° regular flanged elbow. Reynolds number. 2.4 lbm ft 3 . The procedure is: guess diameter. Determine the minimum pipe diameter (in in. Let z1 = 0 . and the pressure at point 2 expressed in terms of head. The pump elevation is 12 ft above the lake surface. The flow is fully developed. We assume the area at 1 large. 000 = = Re = µ 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s D For any pipe with a diameter of less than about 8 ft. ρ = 62. µ = 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s . For a design flow rate of 100 gal/min. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.284 ft V 4V V2 = = = = 2 A π D2 D2 s π ( Dft ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0. From Table 9-3. one bend.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ We know that h2 ≤ −20ft . Solution: The steady.2 Based on these calculations. Answer 9. Approach: The pressure drop in the inlet piping must be calculated. Assumptions: 1.8. and then calculate h2 from the energy equation and compare to the limit. so using gage pressure P1 = 0.10 85.

00957m ) 4 ( 880 kg m3 )( 0. and then iterated to find a solution.0005 m3 s ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ π ( 2000 kN m 2 ) (1000N 1kN ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Checking Reynolds number ρV D m 4 ρV 4 ρV Re = → V = = → Re = 2 µ ρA πD πµ D Re = =0. because of the low flow rate and large viscosity. we can speculate that the flow might be laminar. using ⎡128µ LV ⎤ D=⎢ ⎥ ⎣ π∆P ⎦ 14 V = V A = 4V π D 2 . so hp = hT = 0 . Consider a hydraulic system that has a pump outlet pressure of 20 MPa and which requires a minimum pressure at the hydraulic cylinder of 18 MPa at a flow rate of 0. Comments: If the flow had been turbulent. f = 64 Re Substituting into the pressure drop relation.0005 m3/s.00957m=9. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . 2. For this situation. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Solution: The steady. Depending on the flow. drawn steel tubing.033 Ns m 2 ) ( 25m ) ( 0. We would have assumed a friction factor. For line friction losses. The system is steady. which depends on pipe diameter. and solving for diameter: 14 ⎡128 ( 0. The diameter would be the next standard diameter greater Answer than 9. incompressible flow energy equation must be used.51 . High-pressure pumps are used to circulate the hydraulic fluid (ρ = 880 kg/m3 and µ = 0. calculated Reynolds number. we will assume (initially) that the flow is fully developed laminar flow. so our assumption was valid. friction factor is a function of velocity. Approach: The steady. 9. If the hydraulic fluid flows through 25 m of smooth. calculated a diameter. and other tools. The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. The flow is fully developed. cutting blades. an iterative solution may be required.033 N·s/m2).57mm π ( 0.9-47 Large farm implements and road construction equipment use hydraulically actuated cylinders to position scoops. and then checked the friction factor for convergence. Properties are constant. 3.0005 3 s ) =1770 This is laminar.033 N s m 2 ) ( 0. Therefore. determine the minimum tubing diameter required (in cm). we would have needed to solve the pressure drop equation for diameter.57 mm. However. Assumptions: 1. Ignoring minor losses: P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.

Properties are constant.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in.380 lbf in. m1 = m2 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and simplifying: 4 ⎤ V1 2 ⎡ ⎛ D1 ⎞ ⎢1 − ⎜ P2 − P = ρ ⎟ − K exp ⎥ 1 2 ⎢ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The velocity is: 4 ( 30 gal min ) ( 0. with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = (1 2 ) = 0.56 ⎥ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎢ ⎝2⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 32. diameter tube through a sudden expansion.2 ⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞4 ⎤ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1ft ⎞ 2 ⎢1+ ⎜ ⎟ -0. The system is steady. so z1 = z2 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Assumptions: 1.56 ( 62. ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Answer 9.52 . 3.2 lbm ft ) (12.2 ft s ) 3 2 2 = 0. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion. P2 − P = 1 → K exp ≈ 0. Approach: Applying the steady.9-48 Water at 70 °F with a flow rate of 30 gal/min flows from a 1-in. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. we can determine the pressure rise across the expansion. The flow is fully developed.2 2 2 A π D1 s π (1 12 ft ) 2 2 Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion.2). Determine the pressure rise across the expansion (in lbf/in.25 Therefore. 2. The pipe is horizontal. Solution: The steady. so hT = hp = 0 . diameter tube into a 2-in. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass.1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft V1 = = = =12.

5 and K exit = 1. For smooth pipe ε =0 . 25 °C. 3 D (1. so z1 = z2 = z3 . ρ = 1. µ = 1.832 × 10 −5 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent.9 ⎤ = −1. Using the energy equation.9W ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ 9. 200 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. All entrances and exits are all sharp edged. The system is steady.0397=100. so hT = hp = 0 . V2 ≈ V3 ≈ 0 . incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3. plus one expansion and one contraction. we recognize that the pressure drop from just after the fan to the clean room is the same as from the clean room to the outside (calculated above).09 m s )( 0. The pipe is horizontal.5+1⎥ ⎜1.0186 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 81. which enters the duct (shown below) at 100 kPa. again assuming incompressible flow.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.832 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . 2. Solution: a) The steady.25 m ⎠ 2 ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ =100+0.04kPa Answer b) For fan power. Approach: The pressure in the clean room can be determined by applying the steady. The pressure loss is due to line loss. Assumptions: 1.169 kg m ) ( 5.11 1 6. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 25 ºC.53 .9-49 A Class 100 clean room is to be supplied with 15 m3/min of air.09 m s ) ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎡ ⎤⎛ P2 = 100kPa+ ⎢( 0. Determine: a. The fan power can be obtained by applying the energy equation between points 1 and 3. and for air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa. Solving the energy equation for P2 (note that P3 = P ): 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 = P3 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (15m3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V m V = = = =5.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. Properties are constant.169 ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ 0. the fan power required (in W).0397 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =-19. the pressure in the clean room (in kPa) b.11 6.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. with A1 A2 = 0 → K ent ≈ 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.25m ) ρV Re = = = 81.169 kg m3 . and taking into account the two identical lengths of pipe: ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ 1000W s ⎞ W = −V ∆Ptot = −2V ∆P23 = -2 ⎜ 15 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 0. The flow is fully developed.25m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.09 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.0186 ) +0. 3. so L V2 V2 V2 hL = f + K ent + K exit D 2g 2g 2g Assuming the room at 2 and the outside at 3 are large. 200 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Using Figure 9-15a for the entrance and Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion.0 Therefore: 2 15 kg ⎞ ( 5.

43m s )( π 4 )( 0. For the same fan power as in the original installation.25m 2 1. which would not change our answer very much.25m ) ( 60s 1min ) =16. but the new flow probably will not cause a significant change in the friction factor.0 − 15.0 . Solution: We have two equations to combine: W = −2V ∆P23 = −2 V ( P2 − P3 ) A 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 − P3 = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The friction factor is a function of velocity. 9.0 × 100 = 6.0186 15 +0.600 and the friction factor is 0. determine the new volumetric flow rate (in m3/min). Therefore. The system is steady. from Figure 9-13d and Figure 9-14d.0184.0 Answer Comments: Note that the new Reynolds number is 86. Assumptions: 1.54 .7% 15. the sharp-edged entrances and exits are replaced with well-rounded entrances and exits.25 ⎝ ⎠⎦ ⎣ The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 5. The main difference is that Kent and Kexit will change because of the well-rounded entrances and exits. The flow is fully developed. 3.43 =⎢ s ⎢ π 0. K ent ≈ 0. Combining the two equations and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ −4W V =⎢ ⎥ 2 ⎢ π D ρ ( fL D + K ent + K exit ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 13 For well-rounded entrances and exits. Properties are constant. Approach: We will use the information from the solution to Problem P 9-49. we will assume it is approximately constant.04+1⎞ ⎥ ) ( )⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎢ ( 0.04 and K exit = 1.9W )(1J Ws )(1Nm 1J ) ( kgm Ns 2 ) ⎥ m ⎥ =5.169 kg m3 ⎛ 0. 2.9-50 In Problem P 9-49. ⎡ ⎤ ⎢ -4 ( -19.0 m3 s A 2 13 % increase = 16.

9-28. 4. and minor losses are neglected. For constant pressure flow P = P2 . the steady. be determined.104 ⎠ 2 ( 32.9 ⎤ ⎥ 38.104ft ) ρV Re = = = 38.9-51 Frictional pressure loss in fluid flow is converted to unwanted thermal energy. µ = 65. q = 0. and assuming an ideal liquid with constant specific heat: hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g → u2 − u1 = hL g → c (T2 − T1 ) = hL g ⎣ ⎦ T2 − T1 = hL g c = ( 5. Neglect minor losses. 700 ⎥ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . Eq.2 2 ⎟ ⎜ 3. Using the steady. Assumptions: 1. Frictional losses can be calculated because the flow is given. Determine: a) the slope (in ft/100 ft).06 100 ) = −2.06ft ⎟ D 2g ⎝ 0. and c) the temperature rise if the tube is perfectly insulated (in °F).7 ⎠ ⎣ 1. The system is steady.06ft ) ( 32. 1 Velocity is : V = −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 4 (15gal min ) ( 0. 9-29 hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g .2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 9.2 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-0.0065o F (1. using Eq. 700 65.93 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ( 0. Assuming a smooth pipe ε = 0 . diameter smooth tube.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3. The tube is sloped so that the pressure remains constant throughout the tube.93 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.93ft s ) = − ( 0.2 ft s2 ) (1Btu 778ft lbf ) =0.0135 ⎟⎜ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ ⎝ 778ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ 32. incompressible flow energy equation is used. incompressible flow energy equation: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g L V2 D 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. so that ⎣ ⎦ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ 1Btu ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ Btu 2 ⎛ ⎛ Q = − ⎜ 62.2ft lbm ⎠ s ⎝ ⎝ c) For an insulated pipe. Consider an 18 gal/min flow of 70 °F water through a 1. so V1 = V2 . so −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 1 ⎡⎛ 0 D ⎞ = −1. so hP = hT = 0 . and for water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF.2 lbm ft 3 : D ( 62.06ft ) ⎜ 32. ρ = 62. 2. u2 − u1 = 0 . There is no pump or turbine.2 ft s 2 ) So the slope is -5. b) the heat transfer per 100 ft of tube if the temperature remains constant (Btu/hr). The flow is fully developed. 9-29 can be used to calculate the heat transfer.104ft ) ( 5. the same equation can be used to calculate temperature rise if the pipe is insulated.93ft s )( 0. Therefore.55 .2 lbm ft ) ( 3.9o .06 ft/100 ft or θ = sin −1 ( −5. Solution: a) The slope (in ft/100 ft of pipe) requires that the elevation difference. Approach: For constant pressure flow. For isothermal flow.022 L V2 ⎛ 100 ⎞ ( 3. 3. With constant temperature. q = − hL g → Q = mq = − mhL g = − ρ V L g Ah Answer b) For the heat transfer .00 Btu lbmR ) ( 32.8 × 10 −5 lbm fts µ 3 The flow is turbulent.022 ) ⎜ = −5.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =3.25-in. so again using Eq. Properties are constant. z2 − z1 .11 + 6.104ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.

3. 90º. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.6 kg m ) ( 2.0196 ) +0.6 P gage = ⎨⎜ 999. Kent = 0. Solution: The steady. so from Figure 9-15a. Some gas turbine plants store compressed air in salt domes or caverns for use during times when additional electric power is needed. is connected to the outside by a 30-cm cast iron pipe. P. µ = 12. The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.26mm .12 m s ) ⎫ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎪ ⎪ ⎡ ⎤⎛ 9.12 m s )( 0.3) ⎥ ⎜ 999. Properties are constant. We assume the surface of the reservoir is large. which fills with 10 °C water when the air has been used.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1. 000 12.5. so hT = hp = 0 . so V1 ≈ 0 . The frictional losses must be calculated.11 1 6. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. ρ = 999. During charging of the reservoir with air.11 6. The air compression process takes from 40 to 80% of the turbine output power. gage = 0 Therefore: V22 + ρ g ∑ hL 2 The losses include line loss. The air reservoir.81 2 ⎟ ( 50m ) + ⎢( 0.6 kg m3 . The system is steady. and a turbine that drives an electrical generator.30m ) ρV = = 493. 3. leaving only 20-60% to drive the electric generator.15m3 s ) V 4V m V2 = = = =2.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. Approach: The required pressure can be determined by applying the steady. P2.9-52 A gas turbine power plant consists of a compressor. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. and two bends: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hL = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The entrance has an area ratio of zero.6 ⎬⎜ ⎟ 1. Consider the system shown in the figure below. 2. from Table 9-3.30m ) P gage = ρ g ( z1 − z2 ) + ρ 1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.12 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. Determine the gage pressure P required to produce a water flow rate of 0. one entrance. For cast iron pipe ε =0. a combustor in which the fuel and air are mixed and combusted.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . the air pressure. and the pressure at 2 is atmospheric.9 ⎤ = −1.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.5+1+2 ( 0. ⎟⎜ ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ 0. Expressing P1 and P2 in terms of gage pressures. the compressed air to be supplied to the power plant is taken from the stored air instead of just using the air compressor. Assumptions: 1.26 300 ⎞1. Re = D ( 999.0196 2 ⎧⎛ kg ⎞⎛ m⎞ 850 kg ⎞ ( 2. flanged. The flow is fully developed. Kbend = 0. Assuming the bends are regular. increases.30 m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎪ ⎪ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎩ ⎭ =620kPa (gage) Answer 9.56 . incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.15 m3/s (in kPa).

so hP = hT = 0 . hP = = ρg ρg The pumping power is ⎛ P2. 000 9.20m ) ρV Re = = = 645.11 6.2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2. Assume pressure 1 is atmospheric.9 ⎤ = −1.045 200 = 0.000225 . Therefore: P2. Expressing P2 and P3 in terms of gage pressure.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 kg ⎞ ⎡⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ( 3. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3 is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The reservoir is large. and the pipe diameters at 1 and 2 are the same.85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0. The flow rate is 0.10 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3. Approach: We can determine the pressure at 2 by using the steady. µ = 9.045 mm. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3. the pumping power required (in W).18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎢⎜ 9.10 m s )( 3390 kN m ) (1kWs 1kNm ) =339kW ⎝ ρg ⎠ 9. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.2 kg m ) ( 3. ε D = 0. Assumptions: 1. The losses include line loss and exit loss ( K exit = 1 ). 2.2 3 ⎟ Answer ⎟ ⎟ =3390kPa (gage) m ⎠ ⎢⎝ s ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0. For commercial steel pipe.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Properties are constant. For water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. Solution: a) The steady. g ⎡ ⎡ V2 V2 L V22 ⎤ L V22 ⎤ P2. Solving for P2.81 2 ⎟ (150m ) + ( 0.10 m3/s.18 m s )( 0. ρ = 998.11 1 6. ε = 0. g = ⎜ 998.2 kg m3 .85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . g ⎞ 3 2 W = mghP = ρVg ⎜ Answer ⎟ = VP2. Determine: a. g 1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. g − P g P2.57 . The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied between points 1 and 2.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. There is no pump or turbine.20m ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. g = ( 0.9-53 Water at 20 °C is pumped from a reservoir through a 20-cm commercial steel pipe for 5 km from the pump outlet to a reservoir whose surface is 150-m above the pump. The system is steady. 3. The flow is fully developed.0152 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 645.000225 ⎞1.0152 ) ⎜ ⎥⎜ P2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. g = 0 . so P3. Velocity is : D ( 998. the pressure at the pump outlet (in kPa) b. so V3 ≈ 0 . g = ρ g ⎢( z3 − z2 ) − 2 + K exit 2 + f = ρ ⎢ g ( z3 − z 2 ) + f ⎥ ⎥ D 2g ⎦ D 2 ⎦ 2g 2g ⎣ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.

15 200 ⎞1.77 m s )( 0. 3. For galvanized iron pipe ε =0.12 m s 2 2 2 2 VC = VA ( DA DC ) = ( 4. µ = 12.7m+3.9m Answer Comments: Note that pipe A losses dominate the total pressure loss. Therefore. There is no 1 pump or turbine.58 .20 0. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . the second pipe is 800-m long. 30-cm diameter. Assumptions: 1. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3. 4.15mm .9-54 Two reservoirs are connected by three galvanized iron pipes in series. The flow is fully developed.6 kg m3 .81m s 2 ) =65.12 m s ) ⎛ 1200 ⎞ (1. Therefore.20m ) VB = VA ( DA DB ) = ( 4.0176 ) ⎜ + ( 0. 20-cm diameter. The Reynolds numbers are: ReA = ρV D ( 999. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line.15 m3 s ) V 4V m VA = = = =4. Solution: The steady. if more flow were desired through this system.77 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0. Neglect minor losses.0176 and f C = 0.40 ⎠ 2 ( 9.6 kg m ) ( 4. Properties are constant.77 m s )( 0. The first pipe is 600-m long. z1 − z2 = f A L V2 LA VA2 L V2 + f B B B + fC C C DA 2 g DB 2 g DC 2 g The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: 4 ( 0.9 ⎤ = −1.77 m s ) ⎛ 800 ⎞ ( 2.40 ) =1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ → f A = 0. 000 T the flow is turbulent. so ⎡⎛ 0.0188 ) ⎜ + ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation difference. 2.8m=79.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 493. f B = 0. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.0188 Similarly.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0. 40-cm in diameter.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0. and minor losses are neglected. 2 2 2 ⎛ 600 ⎞ ( 4. The system is steady.0170 . 9.30 ⎠ 2 ( 9.20 0.20 ⎠ 2 ( 9.15 m3/s of water at 10 °C. The steady. so hP = hT = 0 .0176 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0. and the third pipe is 1200-m long.77 m s )( 0. determine the elevation difference between the reservoirs (in m).19 m s ) z1 − z = ( 0.30 ) =2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 739.4m+10.19 m s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For a flow of 0. increasing the diameter of pipe A would be the first option to try. 000 ReC = ReA ( DA DC ) = 369. ρ = 999. For a given elevation difference. 000 µ 12. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.11 1 6.20m ) = = 739.

Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. Therefore.667ft ) = = 406. ρ = 62. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. 2. cast iron pipe.00085ft .9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Kexit = 1.00085 0. a reservoir is connected to a canal with an 8-in. Solution: The steady.4 lbm ft ) ( 8. so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 .4 lbm ft 3 . The frictional losses must be calculated. Assumptions: 1. so P1 = P2.59 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.7 406.59 . For cast iron pipe ε =0.0. With an elevation difference of 55 ft between the reservoir surface and the pipe outlet.( 2. 3 ρV D ( 62. 3 ft3/s of water at 50 °F flows through the pipe.300 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.59 ft s )( 0. a half closed gate valve.667ft ⎡ 2 ( 32.0214 ⎢ ⎥ (8. The system is steady. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric. The system has three regular 90° threaded elbows. and the exit from the reservoir is sharp edged.667ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Approach: The length can be determined by applying the steady. The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 3ft 3 s ) V 4V ft V = = = =8.2 ft s ) ( -55ft ) ⎢.300 Re = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent.59 ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0.0214 Answer 9.5]) ⎥ =1260ft 2 0. 3.9-55 In a water system.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ L= 2 ⎤ 0.11 1 6. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.1+1+3 [1. From Table 9-3.5 and Kvalve = 2. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s .1. Kbend = 1.667 ⎞1.11 6.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. Determine the total length of straight pipe in the system (in ft). taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V 0 = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K valve + K exit + 3K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for the length: ⎤ D ⎡ 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) − ( K valve + K exit + 3K bend ) ⎥ L = ⎢− 2 f ⎣ V ⎦ From Figure 9-15b.9 ⎤ = −1. so hT = hp = 0 . The flow is fully developed. We assume the surface of the reservoir and canal are large.

There is no 1 pump. you decide to produce your own electric power for your vacation home using a hydroturbine.7 13. Solution: The steady. The turbine discharge is the same diameter as the inlet and is open to the atmosphere.26 76. calculate velocity. Reynolds number.830 2.0274 and Re = 487.1 ft/s.60 . The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.9 ⎤ = −1. 2. friction factor. For cast iron pipe ε =0. Turbine power can be calculated with the steady. and turbine power.6 13. The system is steady with constant properties. The surface of the small lake from where you will get the 50 °F water is 500 ft above where you will locate the turbine. The flow is fully developed. Assumptions: 1.73 ft3/s and V = 24. f = 0.5ft )2 s (2) (3) For any reasonable flowrate.2 ft s 2 ) 2 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. 3.9-56 On your land high in the Rocky Mountains.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. so to find the maximum possible power. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow. and the losses are line and exit losses. You connect the lake and turbine with 1000 ft of 6-in.09V A π D 2 π ( 0. ( hP = 0 ).590 2. Answer Comments: For zero power output from the turbine. 9. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. an iterative solution is required.75 76. Increase the volume flow and recalculate until a maximum power is obtained. Determine the maximum power that can be produced (in W).760 At maximum power. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . so ⎡ hT = 500ft − ⎢ f ⎣ ⎛ 1000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 5.4 lbm ft 3 .09V ft s ) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0. WT = ρ V (4) π ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ W⎞ 2⎛ ⎛ D 2 ghT = ⎜ 62.8 14. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Proceeding with the calculations: V ( ft 3 s ) V ( ft s ) WT ( W ) 2. the volume flow rate would be 4.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5. ⎛ L V2 V2 ⎞ (1) hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ 2g ⎠ ⎝ D 2g where K exit = 1 and WT = mghT .09V ft s ) ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation. cast iron pipe.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ WT = 84. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.11 6.24 76.2 2 ⎟ ( hT ft ) ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 746 ⎟ 4 ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ hp ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ ⎝ 32.5ft ) = = 180.09V ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ( 0.. ρ = 62.4 lbm ft )( 5.00085 ft . 600V 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V 4V ft = = =5.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. turbine head. Pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line.5 ft ) ⎜ 32. the flow is turbulent. Therefore. Neglect minor losses.500.6hT V W (5) The procedure to follow is to use the above five equations to calculate the maximum power: guess a volume flow rate.

8 × 10−5 lbm fts µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V ft V = = =45. Solution: a) To find the design flow rate. Approach: Flow rate. and there are no minor losses: ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ From the design pressure drop specification: ⎡ ( 25lbf in. For water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF. µ = 65. Water must reach the nozzle at the hose exit at 100 lbf/in. the equation must be applied across three different segments of the system. so hP = hT = 0 . the nozzle exit velocity (in ft/s) c. the design flow rate (in gal/min) b.84 0.2 lbm ft 3 ) f ( 250ft )(1ft 12in.5 s V (ft/s) Re f 0.2 P2 − P3 = ⎢ ⎢ 100ft ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Assumptions: 1. incompressible flow energy equation.5lbf in. The system is steady.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ ft 3 s Now perform the iteration: V ( ft 3 s ) V = V 45. so assuming a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 2-in. P2 − P3 L V22 = f D 2g ρg 0. apply the steady.61 0.5 → Velocity is : ρV D ( 62.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ ⎢ ( 62. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal.9-57 Fire trucks have pumps to boost the pressure of the water supplied by a fire hydrant.2 lbm ft )( 45. nozzle exit velocity. determine: a. 3.9 361.2 (gage).2 ) ( 2 12 ft ) ( 32.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . 2.500 This is satisfactory convergence.11 6. and pump power are calculated with the steady.2 ) ⎤ ⎥ ( 250ft ) =62. However. diameter smooth fire hose.458 . this is turbulent flow.2 21.462 0. Consider a fire truck that has a 250-ft long.5lbf in.84V ft s ) ( 2 12 ft ) = = 722.84V 2 A π ( 2 12 ft ) s For any reasonable flow rate.0139 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. If the design pressure drop specification for the hose is 25 psi/100 ft of length. Water from the hydrant reaches the pump inlet at 60 lbf/in.000 0.2 lbm ft 3 .0141 V (ft/s) 21. so the volume flow rate is: 9.5 = 2. ρ = 62.5 ⎡ 2 ( 62.462 21.2 (gage). Properties are constant. so V2 = V3 and z2 = z3 There is no pump or turbine. so an iterative solution is required.)2 ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. 200V Re = 65.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. the pump power required if the pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% (in hp).5 22.0 V ( ft 3 s ) 0. The flow is fully developed.2 333.492 ft f 0.

458ft s ) ⎡60.2 )( 32. and incorporating other losses in terms of pump efficiency: P −P P −P hp = 1 2 and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid.V = ( 0. So taking into account pump efficiency: 3 2 2 2 V ( P − P2 ) ( 0.75 = -16.0 ⎟ ⎥ s⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ ( 62.62 . so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine ( hT = 0 ) and no minor losses.(100+62. we apply the energy equation between points 3 and 4. Assuming no losses: V2 P3 V2 P + 3 = 4 + 4 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g ⎡ 2 ( P3 − P4 ) ⎤ + V32 ⎥ V4 = ⎢ ρ ⎣ ⎦ 0. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal.2 lbm ft 3 ) (1ft 12in.4 hp Answer 9. ft ) ⎣ ⎦ 1 WP = = ηP 0.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ft ⎞ ⎤ ⎛ =⎢ + ⎜ 21. (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in.5 2 ⎡ 2 (100 lbf in.5 = 124 ft s Answer c) To find the pumping power.5 ) ⎤ lbf in.458ft 2 s ) ( 60s min ) (1gal 0.)2 ⎣ ⎦ 0.1337ft 3 ) =206 gal min Answer b) To find the nozzle exit velocity.

the preferred location is either level or above the lake.025 m3/s.11 6.11 6. The connecting pipe also is 10-cm diameter cast iron and has five long radius 90° threaded elbows. determine which installation requires the smallest required pumping power (in W).18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ N s ⎞ ⎛ W s ⎞ ⎥⎜ +0. A suction pipe runs from the lake to a pump. so hT = 0 . Approach: The pumping power is calculated with the steady. 2. Velocity is : 4 ( 0. The pump can be located in one of three places: 1) level with the lake surface.7 ] ⎟ WP = ⎜ 25.18 m s )( π 4 )( 0.5 and Kexit = 1.025 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3. The preferred pump location can be determined by comparing losses for each system. The only difference in these locations is the length of straight pipe.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 246. µ = 12. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2 is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The lake and pond surface areas are large. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and a connecting pipe runs from the pump to the pond.81m s 2 ) ⎥ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ N m ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ = 17. Assumptions: 1. Kent = 0.6 kg m3 .7. Kbend = 0.0026 : ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.9-58 Water is pumped from a lake to a pond that is 50 m above the lake. and 3) 5-m above the lake surface.63 .0+5 [ 0. ρ = 999.0257 The mass flow rate is: The power is: m = ρ V = ( 999.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. and the suction pipe would be 8-m long and the connecting pipe would total 145-m long.81 2 ⎟ ⎢50m+ ⎜ [ 0. ε D = 0.18 m s )( 0. ε = 0. For water from Appendix B-6 at 10 ºC.10m ) =25.6 kg m ) ( 3. 1 Therefore: hP = z2 − z1 + ∑ hL All piping is the same diameter.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Solution: The steady.10m ) 3 ρV D ( 999.0026 ⎞1.5+1. and 5 elbow losses. Properties are constant. an exit loss. For a flow of 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. The system is steady. 3.0257 ] ⎟⎜ ⎟ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎢ 0.10 ⎝ ⎝ ⎠ 2 ( 9. Minor losses in all pump locations include an entrance loss.10m ) = = 246. 400 Re = 12.0 kg s A 2 2 2 kg ⎞⎛ m ⎞⎡ 156 ⎛ ⎛ ⎞ ( 3.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3.26mm. and from Figure 9-15. and the suction pipe would be 11-m long and the connecting pipe would total 160-m long. so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 and P = P2 There is no turbine.0 ⎟⎜ 9.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ This is turbulent flow so for cast iron pipe.9 ⎤ = −1. and the suction pipe would be 6-m long and the connecting pipe would total 150-m long.0 1 f = 0. Pumping power is: 2 ⎡ ⎛ L ⎞V ⎤ WP = mghp = mg ⎢ z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 5 K bend ⎟ ⎥ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g ⎦ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The suction pipe is constructed of 10-cm diameter cast-iron pipe (assume no minor losses).960 W Answer 9. The flow is fully developed.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . the location 10 m below the surface has a length of 163 m.26 100 = 0. 2) 10-m below the lake surface. The location level at the lake and 5 m above the lake have total pipe lengths of 156 m. incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2.6 kg m3 ) ( 3. So based solely on the pumping power.

12 m s ) ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ⎛ P2 − P = ( 0.00015 ⎞1.11 6.0148 ) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 999.2kW m ⎠ ⎝ 1kN m ⎠ ⎝ The minus sign indicates power is input to the pump. Velocity is: 4 ( 0.2kW )( 7500 hr yr ) = $90. ρ = 999.9 ⎤ = −1. Determine: a. c) For the cost of running the pump: CWt ( $0.30m ) 3 ρV D ( 999. The equation must be applied across different sections of the system.6 kg m ) ( 2.75)( 0. 2. incompressible flow energy equation. so V1 = V2 and horizontal z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine.11 6. The water at 10 °C is continuously circulated through a closed flow loop and used as needed. 3.300 Re = µ 12. ε D = 0.045mm.0148 kg ⎞ ( 2. the pumping power required (in kW) c.500 hr/yr.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =555kPa 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0. so hP = hT = 0 . For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.6 kg m3 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.10 kWhr )( 83. Properties are constant.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .9-59 Many universities have a central facility that produces chilled water for use in cooling all the buildings on campus.12 V = = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.10/kWhr and the system runs 7. ⎛ L V2⎞ L V2 P2 − P = ρ g ∑ hL = ρ g ⎜ f ⎟= f ρ 1 D 2 ⎝ D 2g ⎠ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg kN ⎞ ⎛ 1kW s ⎞ ⎛ WP = ( 0.00015 : 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% and is driven by a motor that has an efficiency of 92%. The system is steady.92 ) Answer Answer 9. The flow is fully developed. the annual cost if electricity costs $0.15 m3 s ) 4V m V =2.64 .12 m s )( 0. Solution: a) The steady.300 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Consider a system that consists of 5 km of 30-cm commercial steel pipe with a flow rate of 0.30m ) = = 493.30 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ b) To find the pumping power.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 This is turbulent flow so for commercial steel pipe.500 yr Cost = = ηPηm ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 f = 0.15 m3/s. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1 is: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe diameter is constant.045 300 = 0. the pressure drop (in kPa) b. Assumptions: 1. ε = 0. Ignoring minor losses. µ = 12.15 m3 s ) ⎜ -555 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-83. Approach: Pressure drop and pumping power both can be calculated with the steady.

2 ) (π 4 )( 4ft ) (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in. apply the steady. the pumping power at each station if the pump mechanical efficiency is 85% (in kW).7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. The system is steady.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. 000 Re = µ 0.9-60 The Alaskan oil pipeline is 48-in. so V2 = V1 and z2 = z1 There is no pump or turbine.000125 ⎞1.0005ft. The design flow rate is 1. However.0168)(8. 2. The oil has ρ = 58 lbm/ft3 and µ = 0. applying the energy equation from point 1 to 2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid. 9.28ft s ) ( -1150 lbf in. the minimum oil pressure is 50 psig.11 6.600ft =121mi Answer b) To find the pumping power. 3. So taking into account pump efficiency: 2 WP = ( 8.0005 4 = 0.000125 → f = 0. Solution: a) To find the maximum length.28ft s ) (1ft 12in. so hP = hT = 0 . Determine: a.28ft s )( 4 ft ) = = 170.9 ⎤ = −1. To keep dissolved gases in solution in the crude oil.1337ft 3 gal ) (1day 24hr )(1hr 3600s ) 4V ft V =8.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 170.2 ft 2 ) =-31. Approach: The maximum length and pumping power are calculated with the steady.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.2 ( 4 ft ) ( 32.800hp Answer 0.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 =638.0113 lbm/ft·s. With the given properties 3 ρV D ( 58lbm ft ) ( 8. with a wall roughness of approximately 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe is constant area and horizontal.) 3 2 2 (1200-50 ) lbf in.85 Comments: The minus sign indicates that power must be supplied to the pump. the maximum spacing between pumping stations (in km) b. in diameter. To limit the required pipe wall thickness. Properties are constant.28 = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 4ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. incompressible flow energy equation. the maximum allowable oil pressure is 1200 psig.65 . the equation must be applied across different segments of the system. Assumptions: 1.300hp This does not take into account pump efficiency.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ This is turbulent flow so with ε = 0.300hp WP = = -36. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0113lbm fts 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.0005 ft. so -31.0168 L= ( 58lbm ft ) ( 0.6 × 106 barrels per day (1 barrel = 42 gal).6×106 barrel day ) ( 42gal barrel ) ( 0. ε D = 0.11 6. The flow is fully developed. and there are no minor losses: Solving for length Velocity is : V = L= P2 − P3 L V22 = f ρg D 2g 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ρf V2 4 (1.

3. 300 K. and friction factor f. Approach: We must balance the pressure loss in the duct against the pressure head produced by the fan. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0. this is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.208V m s ) ( 0. Properties are constant.267m ) = = 3540V µ 1.66 .846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 3 (3) For any volume flow greater than 1 m3/min. The system is steady.5cm of water Answer For L = 75 m V = 198 m3 min V = 41.1m s f = 0.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.40m ) (2) Because this is a non-circular duct. For air from Appendix A-7at 100 kPa. The duct is smooth. the flow rate if the duct is 30-m long (in m3/min) b. Because the friction factor depends on flow rate. Assumptions: 1. so hT = 0 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ The solution procedure is to solve the above four equations simultaneously using an iterative procedure: guess a volume flow rate V .20m+0.40m ) 4 Ax Dh = = =0. Solution: The steady. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let location 1 be just upstream from the fan and station 2 at the end of the duct.11 6. Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady. we obtain For L = 30 m V = 285 m3 min V = 59. then the flow has been determined. Then calculate the pressure drop across the duct and the pressure rise across the fan.208V A s ( 0. the flow rate if the duct is 75-m long (in m3/min). and there are no minor losses: L V2 (1) D 2g where hP is produced by the fan (expressed in consistent units). Determine: a.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. so P = P2 .20m )( 0. hP = f Velocity is : V = 3 V (V m min ) (1min 60s ) m = =0. where h is the pressure rise across the fan in cm of water and V is the air flow rate in m3/min.0116 h fan = 387m of air = 45. 2. µ = 1.3cm of water Answer 9.846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 .9 ⎤ 1 (4) = −1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. ρ = 1. 4.11 6. When these two quantities are equal.20m )( 0. a fan performance curve can be approximated with h = 70 − 3 × 10−4 V 2 .0123 h fan = 495m of air = 58.1774 kg m )( 0. incompressible flow energy equation.9-61 For air at 300 K and one atmosphere. The fan discharges into a smooth rectangular duct 20-cm by 40-cm. Performing the iterations. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine.40m ) Re = D ρ V h (1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Reynolds number Re.1774 kg m3 .3m s f = 0. The flow is fully developed. an iterative solution is required. The duct is constant 1 area and horizontal. calculate velocity V.2667m pwetted 2 ( 0.

0221) ⎜ + ⎢1 + ( 0.15 + 0. Assumptions: 1.56 . Kent = 0. f B = 0. The system is steady.0221 ⎟ + 197. so ⎡⎛ 0. For cast iron pipe ε =0.20 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.11 1 6. The flow is fully developed. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow. 000 µ 12.67 .04 m3/s as shown below. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999. 3.5.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 263.15 + ( 0.26 m s ) z1 = 175m + ⎢ 0. Therefore. Figures 9-13. µ = 12.0233 From Table 9-3. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.20 ) = 0.27 m s )( 0.88m+6.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.9 ⎤ = −1. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . ρ = 999. Properties are constant. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.27 = = 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f A = 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .15 (assumed fully open).0233) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 0. and 9-15.32m=183. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line. Available cast iron pipe is to be used and the gate valve is fully open. The steady. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation of the upper reservoir. and Kcontract ≈ 0.15 ) =2. Kvalve = 0. 2 2 The flow is turbulent.5 + 0.15 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.26mm .04 m3 s ) 4V m V =1.81m s ) ⎣ ⎝ 0.2m Answer 9.20m ) ReA = = = 197.15. The water is at 20 °C.20 0. 2.0 Therefore. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. There is no 1 pump or turbine. ⎡ L ⎤ V2 ⎡ L ⎤ V2 z1 = z2 + ⎢ K ent + K valve + K contract + f A A ⎥ A + ⎢ K exit + f B B ⎥ B DA ⎦ 2 g ⎣ DB ⎦ 2 g ⎣ The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: VA = 4 ( 0.9-62 A town water system is constructed to supply water at a flow rate of 0.6 kg m3 .81m s 2 ) ⎣ 2 2 =175m+1.27 m s )( 0.20m ) 2 VB = VA ( DA DB ) = (1. Determine the height to which the upper reservoir dam (reservoir surface elevation) must be built (in m). Solution: The steady.26 m s 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ⎤ (1.6 kg m ) (1.15 0. 9-14. 000 For AB AA = ( DB DA ) = ( 0. Kexit = 1.26 200 ⎞1. so hP = hT = 0 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Similarly.

incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head. so V1 = V2 = 0 . the steady. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.0. Approach: The pump must supply enough head to overcome frictional losses in the suction and discharge pipes.15+1+ ( 0. The areas at 1 and 2 are large. where V is in gal/min and hp is in ft. so P = P2 .15 .5. The losses include entrance. we obtain: V = 1450 gal min VA = 5.833 ⎞ ⎛ 800 ⎞ ⎤ +⎜ hP = (1204-1152 ) ft+ ⎢ 0.667 ⎠ ⎥ 2 ( 32. exit. Determine the flow rate in the system (in gal/min). K ent = 0. The system is steady.0ft+0.667 ⎠ ⎝ 0.2 ft s 2 ) ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ (3) Simplifying: hP = 52. and pressure is atmospheric. so a manufacturer proposes a pump with a pump curve: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0.1ft Answers 9.68 .93ft s hP = 83.018 ) ⎟ ⎜ 0. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. Properties are constant. so hT = 0 .018 ) ⎟⎥ 0.5+ ( 0. The steady. and K valve = 0.0038V + 86 (1) (2) where hp is in ft and V is in gal/min. The given pump head curve is equated to the head loss calculation to determine the operating point. K exit = 1. assuming the valve is fully open. A duplicate is not available. 1 ⎛ L ⎞V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + f A A ⎟ A + ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B B ⎟ B DA ⎠ 2 g ⎝ DB ⎠ 2 g ⎝ From conservation of mass: mA = mB → VB = VA ( DA DB ) 2 Substituting this into the above pump head equation: 4 ⎡ LA ⎛ D A ⎞ ⎛ LB ⎞ ⎤ VA2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎢ K ent + f A +⎜ ⎟ ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B ⎟⎥ DA ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎥ 2 g ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ 3 4 (V gal min )( 0. as well as the elevation head. From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14. Therefore. Substituting the known information into the head loss equation: 4 ⎡ VA2 40 ⎛ 0. valve.1337 ft gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =0.882VA2 The above three equations are solved simultaneously to find the operating point of the pump. 3. Solving them. and line losses.9-63 The pump in an existing water system (shown below) fails and must be replaced.00409V The velocity is: VA = = = 2 2 AA π DA s π (10 12 ft ) The head loss must be balance against the head added by the pump: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0.018 can be used for both pipes.833 ⎝ 0. The flow is fully developed. The gate valve is fully open and a friction factor of 0.0038V + 86 . 2. Assumptions: 1.

V1 ≈ 0 and z1 = z j . P V2 P V2 1 For flow between location 1 and 2: + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Approach: The total flow is such that all the pressure head at location 1 is used to balance line losses in the galvanized pipe and the creation of kinetic energy at the nozzle exits. Assumptions: 1. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.9 ⎤ 1 ρV D = −1. Properties are constant. and expressing the pressures in gage pressure.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .5-cm diameter galvanized iron.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ where Re = ⎟ + 3. The steady.006 . The flow is fully developed. The flow area of each nozzle is 1. so hp = hT = 0 . determine the flow rate through the sprinkler (in m3/s).5 cm2. Ignoring minor losses: 2 L V12 ρ D 2 Note that velocity and friction factor are different for each segment of pipe. The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. Water at 10 °C is pumped through the spray arm that is constructed of 2.6 kg m3 from Appendix A-6 and from Table 9-2 for galvanized pipe. we use the Bernoulli equation to calculate the flow through the nozzle: 2 V j1 Pj V2 P 1 + 1 + z1 = + + z j1 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Neglecting the inlet velocity and the elevation difference.11 6.9-64 In drier regions. ρ = 999. we obtain: V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. 2. The system is steady. incompressible flow energy equation must be used.7 ⎠ Re ⎥ µ f ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ To solve for the total flow. Because the line losses are a function of flow rate and friction factor. Ignoring friction in each nozzle but not in the connecting lengths of pipe. large central pivot sprinkler systems are used to irrigate large areas. Solution: The frictional losses between each nozzle can be calculated with the steady. with µ = 12.5 and the volume flow rate through a jet is V j1 = V j1 Aj . we generalize the above equations for each pipe segment and nozzle: V1 = V j1 + V j 2 + V j 3 + V j 4 (1) P2 = P − f12 1 2 L V12 ρ D 2 (2) 9. The flow is turbulent. The velocity is: V12 = V12 A = 4V12 π D 2 The flow between points 1 and 2 is the difference between what enters the system and what is leaving through the nozzle: V12 = V1 − V j1 P2 = P − f12 1 Assuming no losses in the nozzle. 3. an iterative solution is required. Pj = 0 .15mm so that ε D = 0. Assuming turbulent flow in each pipe segment.69 . incompressible flow energy equation. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 .15 25 = 0. The pressure at the first nozzle is 250 kPa (gage). ε = 0. Consider the simplified schematic of a portion of such a sprinkler (shown below). The flow through each nozzle is different and can be estimated using the Bernoulli equation.

00179 m s 3 P = 250kPa (gage) 1 P2 = 70. since a farmer would want uniform coverage on a field. Hence.5 0. Solving the system of equations with appropriate software: V1 = 0. V23 .00336 m3 s V j 2 = 0.5 2 V23 2 2 V34 2 (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) V j 2 = ( 2 P2 ρ ) V j 3 = ( 2 P3 ρ ) V j 4 = ( 2 P4 ρ ) 0.6kPa (gage) V j 3 = 0.L ρ D L P4 = P3 − f 34 ρ D V12 = V1 − V j1 P3 = P2 − f 23 V23 = V12 − V j 2 V34 = V23 − V j 3 V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. V1 . V34 . V j 3 . V j 4 .00104 m 3 s V j 4 = 0.00081m3 s Comments: Note that with this design different flows exit at each nozzle.5 0.9kPa (gage) P4 = 14. V j 2 . This would not be a good design.00081m s 3 Answers V12 = 0.00699 m3 s V j1 = 0. P3 . V12 .5 The eleven unknowns in this system of equations are: V j1 .70 . 9.00185 m3 s V34 = 0.9kPa (gage) P3 = 23. P4 . P2 . different size nozzles or some other modification would be used to ensure equal flow through all nozzles.00363m3 s V23 = 0.

065 VB VB ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ 0. the steady.02 ⎞ = ⎜ ⎟ = ( 0. The pipe is constant area.9-65 Two pipes are connected in parallel. which can be used to obtain a ratio of the flow rates.408 ) ⎜ ⎟ = 0. 3. incompressible flow energy equations written for both pipes will give the ratio of the velocities. The flow is fully developed. from conservation of mass: A π 0.05 ⎠ 2 2 Answer Comments: This answer is reasonable using the given friction factors. A ratio of the steady. The first pipe is 2-cm in diameter and 100-m long with a friction factor of 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.5 VA VA ⎛ DA ⎞ ⎛ 0.05 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Because V = V = V D 2 4 . so z1 = z2 . and the pipe is horizontal. with a known total flow.012 )(100 )( 0. and the solution would be iterative.408 VB ⎢ ( 0. Solution: From point 1 to point 2.010. 2.010 )( 50 )( 0.71 . Therefore. In actual practice. so V1 = V2 . so hP = hT = 0 . P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g Applying this equation to pipe A and pipe B. Approach: We assume the same pressure drop across these two pipes and ignore minor losses.5 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ A DA 2 g VA ⎛ f B LB DA ⎞ ⎣ 1 ⎦ =1= → =⎜ ⎟ VB ⎝ f A LA DB ⎠ L V2 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ B ⎣ 1 ⎦ fB B B DB 2 g Substituting in known information: VA ⎡ ( 0. The second pipe is 5-cm in diameter 50-m long with a friction factor of 0. Assumptions: 1. Properties are constant.02 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ = 0. the friction factors would need to be evaluated. and taking the ratio L V2 fA A A 0. Determine the ratio of the flow rates in the two pipes.012. 9. The system is steady.

so hP = hT = 0 . so hP = hT = 0 . we obtain: VB = 9. Using the energy equation P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 4 + 4 + z4 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g For each of the velocities: With no pump or turbine. which is the same for all three branches. Properties are constant. since we calculated that above: 9. The pipe is horizontal. incompressible flow energy equations to obtain the required four equations. 3.20 ft 3 s VD = 6. Solution: Conservation of mass with constant density water for the whole system is: mtot = mB + mC + mD where m = ρV . Vtot = VB + VC + VD (1) From point 2 to point 3. Therefore. no minor losses. VD . and noting that there are line losses in 1 pipe 1-2 and 3-4 and we know the line loss between 2-3. Assumptions: 1. All the pipes are concrete. and D) is the same. The flow is fully developed. Therefore. P2 − P3 L V2 = f ρg D 2g Let hbr = ( P2 − P3 ) ρ g . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Applying the pressure drop equation to each branch: hbr = f B hbr = fC hbr = f D LB VB2 DB 2 g LC VC2 DC 2 g LD VD2 DD 2 g V = (2) (3) (4) V 4V = A π D2 We have four equations and four unknowns: VB . the equations can be solved simultaneously (iteratively) for the unknowns. pipe both open at their ends to the atmosphere are to be joined using three existing (but under-utilized pipes) as shown on the figure. hbr . a 24-in. 2. determine the flow rate in each of the three connecting pipes (in ft3/s) and the elevation difference from the entrance to the exit. the steady. Approach: We know the total flow through the system and that the head loss across the middle three branches (B. so z2 = z3 .7ft Answers Now we need to evaluate the elevation difference between points 1and 4. and the friction factors are shown on the figure. VC . With the given information. We use conservation of mass and the steady.9-66 For a storm sewer modification project.57 ft 3 s hbr = 26. and we ignore minor losses. C. Doing so. There are four unknowns in the problem: the head loss from 2 to 3. so the velocity is constant. and P = P4 . and the volume flows through the three branches. pipe and a 30-in. Each of the pipes is constant area. The system is steady.23ft 3 s VC = 4. The branches are horizontal For a total flow rate of 20 ft3/s of 60 °F water.72 .

z1 − z4 = − 2 2 L V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 V12 V34 L V2 L ⎞V2 ⎛ + + hbr + f12 12 12 + f 34 34 34 = ⎜ −1 + f12 12 ⎟ 12 + ⎜ 1 + f34 34 ⎟ 34 + hbr D12 2 g D34 2 g ⎝ D12 ⎠ 2 g ⎝ D34 ⎠ 2 g 2g 2g For the velocities V12 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =2.2 ft s ) ⎣ ⎝ 2.020 ) ⎜ +26.07 ft s ) z1 − z4 = ⎢-1+ ( 0.83 = = 2 2 A π D12 s π ( 3ft ) 2 V34 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) π ( 2.48ft+26.83ft s ) ⎛ 4000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 4.2ft Answer 9.97ft+8.07 ft s 2 ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 2300 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ = 1.73 .5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.5ft ) 2 =4.7ft ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.7ft=37.022 ) ⎜ + ⎢1+ ( 0.