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You are on page 1of 34

Time : 3 Hours

CODE : 7

Maximum Marks : 198

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this page and on the back page (page No. 36) of this booklet. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall. Answers to the questions and personal details are to be filled on a two-part carbon-less paper, which is provided separately. You should not separate these parts. The invigilator will separate them at the end of examination. The upper sheet is a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) which will be taken back by the invigilator. You will be allowed to take away the bottom sheet at the end of the examination. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet. Apply sufficient pressure so that the impression is created on the bottom sheet. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains 36 pages and all the 60 questions and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of each section.

7. 8.

9. The ORS has CODES printed on its Left and Right parts. 10. Check that the same CODE is printed on the ORS on this booklet. IF IT IS NOT THEM ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. Sign at the place provided on the ORS affirming that you have verified that all the codes are same. 11. Write your name, Registration number and the name of the Examination centre and sign with pen in the boxes provided on the right part of the ORS. Do not write any of this information anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration Number in such a way that the impression is created on the bottom sheet. Also darken the paper CODE given on the right side of ORS (R4).

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three sections. 12. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 13. Section II contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data, etc. There are 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with 2 questions on each paragraph. Each question of a particular paragraph has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 14. Section III contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE are correct.

D. Marking scheme

15. For each question in section I and Section II you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded in these sections. 16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer(s) in this section.

Write your Name, registration number and sign in the space provided on the back page of this booklet

6.

PART I : PHYSICS

SECTION I : Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A student is performing the experiment of Resonance Column. The diameter of the column tube is 4 cm. The frequency of the tuning fork is 512 Hz. The air temperature is 38C in which the speed of sound is 336 m/s. The zero of the meter scale coincides with the top end of the Resonance Column tube. When the first resonance occurs, the reading of the water level in the column is (A) 14.0 cm (B) 15.2 cm (C) 16.4 cm (D) 17.6 cm 1. (B) 512 ( =

e) =

336 4( e)

84 100 = 16.4 cm 512

1.2 = 15.2 cm

2. Two identical discs of same radius R are rotating about their axes in opposite directions with the same constant angular speed . The discs are in the same horizontal plane. At time t = 0, the points P and Q are facing each other as shown in the figure. The relative speed between the two points P and Q is vr. In one time period (T) of rotation of the discs, vr as a function of time is best represented by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (3) 2. (A)

v sin

v sin

vp

v cos

v cos

vQ

VPQ

= VP

VQ

VPQ between 0 to 2

3. A loop carrying current I lies in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. The unit vector k is coming out of the plane of the paper. The magnetic moment of the current loop is

(A) a 2Ik

3. (B) M =IA

(B)

1 a 2 Ik

(C)

1 a 2 Ik

(D) (2

1)a 2Ik

A =4 =2 = M =

a 2 a2 2 a2 + a2 4

a2 2

a a a a

+ a2 =

1 a2

1 a2 I k

4. An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with inner radius R/2 and outer radius R carries a uniform current density along its length. The magnitude of the magnetic field, | B | as a function of the radial distance r from the axis is best represented by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

R2 I R2 4

I 3R 2 4

4I 3 R2

R/2 r R

Amperian loop

Field for r

R 2

B=0

B.2 r

= B =

4I

0

3 R

0I 2

. 2 r

r2 R2 4r

R2 4

3R

0I 2

r2

R2 4

3 R

R R , B=0 at r = field is continuous. 2 2 From the above expression as r increases B increases. For r R B . 2 r = 0I I 1 B= 0 B r 2 r I At r = R, B= 0 2 R

At r =

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (5) From inside expression at r = R 2 0I R2 0I . R B = 2 4R 2 R 3 R This proves the continuity in the graph at r = R. From the above only correct option is (D) 5. A thin uniform cylinder shell, closed at both ends is partially filled with water. It is floating vertically in water in half-submerged state. If c is the relative density of the material of the shell with respect to water, then the correct statement is that the shell is (A) more than half-filled if c is less than 0.5 (B) more than half-filled if c is less than 1.0 (C) half-filled if c is more than 0.5 (D) less than half-filled if c is less than 0.5 5. (A) If water is half filled Mshell g = ( V)displaced g Vshell ( V) = 2 liquid Vshell Mshell = 2 M shell liquid Vshell 2

liquid shell

1 1 . If R.d < 2 2 Then, the cylinder should be more than half filled so that it is half submerged and floating.

R.d =

6. In the given circuit, a charge of +80 C is given to the upper plate of the 4 F capacitor. Then in the steady state, the charge on the upper plate of the 3 F capacitor is (A) +32 C (B) +40 C (C) +48 C (D) +80 C 6. (C) Charge on capacitor of 3 F 3 48 C Q = 80 2 3 7. Two moles of ideal helium gas are in a rubber balloon at 30C. The balloon is fully expandable and can be assumed to require no energy in its expansion. The temperature of the gas in the balloon is slowly changed to 35C. The amount of heat required in raising the temperature is nearly (take R = 8.31 J/mol.K) (A) 62 J (B) 104 J (C) 124 J (D) 208 J

3R 5 2 R T = 2R 5 = 10R

W= P V =

8.31 100 831 = = 208 J 4 4 8. Consider a disc rotating in the horizontal plane with a constant angular speed about its centre O. The disc has a shaded region on one side of the diameter and an unshaded region on the other side a shown in the figure. When the disc is in the orientation as shown, two pebbles P and Q are simultaneously projected at an angle towards R. The velocity of projection is in the y-z plane and is same for both pebbles with respect to the disc.

1 rotation, (ii) 8 their range is less than half the disc radius, and (iii) remains constant throughout. Then (A) P lands in the shaded region and Q in the unshaded region. (B) P lands in the unshaded region and Q in the shaded region. (C) Both P and Q land in the unshaded region. (D) Both P and Q land in the shaded region. 8. (C) According to problem particle is to land on disc If we consider a time t then x component of displacement is R t Rsin t < R t Thus particle P lands in unshaded region

Assume that (i) they land back on the disc before the disc has completed

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10 The -decay process, discovered around 1900, is basically the decay of a neutron (n). In the laboratory, a proton (p) and an electron (e ) are observed as the decay products of the neutron. Therefore, considering the decay of a neutron as a two-body decay process, it was predicted theoretically that the kinetic energy of the electron should be a constant. But experimentally, it was observed that the electron kinetic energy has a continuous spectrum. Considering a three-body decay process, i.e. n p + e + ve , around 1930, Pauli explained the observed electron energy spectrum. Assuming the anti-neutrino (ve ) to be massless and possessing negligible energy, and the neutron to be at rest, momentum and energy conservation principles are applied. From this calculation, the maximum kinetic energy of the electron is 0.8 106 eV. The kinetic energy carried by the proton is only the recoil energy. 9. If the anti-neutrino had a mass of 3 eV/c2 (where c is the speed of light) instead of zero mass, what should be the range of the kinetic energy, K, of the electron? (A) 0 K 0.8 106 eV (B) 3.0 eV K 0.8 106 eV 6 (C) 3.0 eV K < 0.8 10 eV (D) 0 K < 0.8 106 eV 9. (D) Q = ( m)c2 6

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (7) Assuming antineutrino to be massless: Q1 mn (mp me ) c2 recoil energy of P+ + kinetic energy of e + energy carried by neutrino. Now suppose antineutrino had a mass as well KE of e + KE of recoiled P+ of i.e. K K e K p 0.8 106 ev 3eV Thus Ke is definitely less than 0.8 K p 0 since proton is massive 106 eV

Minimum energy is possible if momentum are carried away by P and antineutrino 10. What is the maximum energy of the anti-neutrino? (A) Zero (B) Much less than 0.8 106 eV (C) Nearly 0.8 106 eV (D) Much larger than 0.8 106 eV 10. (C) As per the situation in Q.9. If (K.Ee) = 0 All energy carried by antineutrino only (as proton share very less amount of energy because of its large inertia) Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12 The general motion of a rigid body can be considered to be a combination of (i) a motion of its centre of mass about an axis, and (ii) its motion about an instantaneous axis passing through the centre of mass. These axes need not be stationary. Consider, for example, a thin uniform disc welded (rigidly fixed) horizontally at its rim to a massless stick, as shown in the figure. When the disc-stick system is rotated about the origin on a horizontal frictionless plane with angular speed , the motion at any instant can be taken as a combination of (i) a rotation of the centre of mass of the disc about the z-axis, and (ii) a rotating of the disc through an instantaneous vertical axis passing through its centre of mass (as is seen from the changed orientation of points P and Q). Both these motions have the same angular speed in this case.

Now consider two similar systems as shown in the figure: Case (a) the disc with its face vertical and parallel to x-z plane; Case (b) the disc with its face making an angle of 45 with x-y plane and its horizontal diameter parallel to x-axis. In both the cases, the dis is welded at point P, and the systems are rotated with constant angular speed about the z-axis.

Case (a)

Case (b)

11. Which of the following statements regarding the angular speed about the instantaneous axis (passing through the centre of mass) is correct ? (A) It is 2 for both the cases (B) It is for case (a); and

2 2

(C) It is for case (a); and for case (b) (D) It is for both the cases 11. (D) It is for both case. as angular velocity of a rigid body about any point should be same. v vPC vCO vPO rPC vCO L = i

d 2 2 j) (k L d .45 i 2

rP

rc

rPC

j

d cos 45 2 j d sin 45 k 2

k

+ d cos 45) i

i

P d cos 45

12. Which of the following statements about the instantaneous axis (passing through the centre of mass) is correct ? (A) It is vertical for both the cases (a) and (b) (B) It is vertical for case (a); and is at 45 to the x z plane and lies in the plane of the disc for case (b) (C) It is horizontal for case (a); and is at 45 to the x z plane and is normal to the plane of the disc for case (b) (D) It is vertical for case (a); and is at 45 to the x z plane and is normal to the plane of the disc for case (b) 12. (A) Top View 2 V r2 p1 2 2Vsin r W 2r

2

r2 r r

2

0

r = Here there is a vrel of P and Q (not for P, Q) (Vrel)P Q will be in horizontal plane must be along vertical Same situation will be there for P as mentioned should be same for both cases

8

r2

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (9) Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14 Most materials have the refractive index, n > 1. So, when a light ray from air enters a sin 1 n 2 naturally occurring material, then by Snells law, , it is understood that the sin 2 n1 refracted ray bends towards the normal. But it never emerges on the same side of the normal as the incident ray. According to electromagnetism, the refractive index of the medium is c given by the relation, n r r , where c is the speed of electromagnetic waves in v vacuum, v its speeds in the medium, r and r are the relative permittivity and permeability of the medium respectively. In normal materials, both r and r are positive, implying positive n for the medium. When both r and r are negative, one must choose the negative root of n. Such negative refractive index materials can now be artificially prepared and are called meta materials. They exhibit significantly different optical behavior, without violating any physical laws. Since n is negative, it results in a change in the direction of propagation of the refracted light. However, similar to normal materials, the frequency of light remains unchanged upon refraction even in meta materials. 13. Choose the correct statement. (A) The speed of light in the meta material is v = c|n| c (B) The speed of light in the meta material is v = |n| (C) The speed of light in the meta material is v = c. (D) The wavelength of the light in the meta material ( m) is given by m where air is the wavelength of the light in air 13. (B) C C = v = v will be ( )ve for metal materials but | | is (+)ve C v = | | 14. For light incident from air on a meta-material, the appropriate ray diagram is

air

| n |,

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14. (C)

sin

2

1 2

1 2

2

= = =

2 1

sin

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct. 15. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side L and centre O, as 1 q shown in the figure. Given that : K = , which of the following statement(s) 4 0 L2 is(are) correct? (A) The electric field at O is 6K along OD. (B) The potential at O is zero. (C) The potential at all points on the line PR is same. (D) The potential at all points on the line ST is same.

q 2q q q 2g q 0 4 0 L L L L L L Any point on line PR is equidistant from the charges F & E; A & D; B & C. Each mentioned pair of charges are of equal magnitudes and opposite signs. Thus I by superposition principle; all points of PR have O potential.

Potential at O = Considering the electric field at O;

2K

60 O 60 4K

2K

2K cos60

2K cos60 6K

10

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (11) 16. Two spherical planets P and Q have the same uniform density , masses MP and MQ, and surface areas A and 4A, respectively. A spherical planet R also has uniform density and its mass is (MP + MQ). The escape velocities from the planets P, Q and R, are VP, VQ and VR, respectively. Then (A) VQ > VR > VP (B) VR > VQ > VP 1 (C) VR/VP = 3 (D) VP/VQ = 2 16. (B), (D) Escape velocity from a planet of mass M and radius R 2GM 2 4 ve R [If is same for all planets) ve .G . R 3 R R 3 From given information :

4 4 R2 p

2 4 RQ

RQ

2R P

VP 1 VR 2 MQ = 8MP

MR = 8MP + MP = 9 MP RR = 9

1/3

4 3 RR . 3

4 3

3 P

.R P Clearly VR

VQ

VP

17. The figure shows a system consisting of (i) a ring of outer radius 3R rolling clockwise without slipping on a horizontal surface with angular speed and (ii) an inner disc of radius 2R rotating anti-clockwise with angular speed . The ring and disc are separated 2 by frictionless ball bearings. The system is in the x-z plane. The point P on the inner disc is at a distance R from the origin, where OP makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. Then with respect to the horizontal surface,

(A) the point O has a linear velocity 3R i 11 (B) the point P has a linear velocity R i+ 4 13 (C) the point P has a linear velocity R i 4 (D) the point P has a linear velocity 3

3 R k 4 3 R k 4 1 3 R i + R k 4 4

11

3R

VO

= (3R)

(A)

60 30

R 2

R (cos 60)i 2 R (sin 60)k = 2

(VP )O

= =

R i 4

3 R k 4

VP

VPO VO =

11 Ri 4 3 R k 4

R 3 R q 4

VP

(B)

18. Two solid cylinders P and Q of same mass and same radius start rolling down a fixed inclined plane from the same height at the same time. Cylinder P has most of its mass concentrated near its surface, while Q has most of its mass concentrated near the axis. Which statement(s) is(are) correct? (A) Both cylinders P and Q reach the ground at the same time (B) Cylinder P has larger linear acceleration than cylinder Q (C) Both cylinder reach the ground with same translational kinetic energy (D) Cylinder Q reaches the ground with larger angular speed 18. (D) mg sin f = ma a fr = I r Ia fr = r2 I mg sin = m a r2 g sin a = k2 1 r2 2 t = a 12

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (13) KP KQ aP aQ

tP

tQ

(A) wrong

KP > KQ aP < aQ

1 K2 mv2 1 2 = mgh 2 r

mgh K2 1 2 r

v=

1

2gh K2 r2 2gh 1 K2 r2

1 v = r r

KP > KQ Q>

(D) Correct

19. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without touching it. The correct statement(s) is(are) (A) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant (B) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant (C) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate (D) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate 19. (A) (C)

The Magnetic flux above and below the circular loop are equal and opposite due to symmetry net = 0 emf induced will be zero

20. In the given circuit, the AC source has

i x

(A) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 A (B) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2 A (C) The voltage across 100 resistor = 10 2 V (D) The voltage across 50 resistor = 10 V

13

= I1 + I2 L

XL =

= (100) (0.5) = 50 XC =

1 C

502 502

= 20

2 A 5

= 50 2

I1 =

2 A 10

2 I1 2 I2

2 2 25 100

1 10

= 0.3 A = I2 100 =

2 10

100

I2

= 10 2 V Voltage across 50 = I1 50 =

2 5

I1 50

= 10 2 V 14

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (15) PART - II : CHEMISTRY

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 21. Using the data provided, calculate the multiple bond energy (kJ mol 1) of a C C2H2. That energy is (take the bond energy of a C H bond as 350 kJ mol 1) 2C(s) H 2(g) C2 H 2(g) H = 225 kJ mol 1

2C(s)

H 2(g)

C bond in

2C(g)

2H (g)

1

(D) 815

2C(s) H2 (g)

B E(H2 )

C2H2 (g)(H C C H)

B E(C H) 2 B E(C C) Hrxn

HSub (C)

CH3 CH2

(A)

CO CH3

CN

(B)

(C)

(D)

22. (A)

O

CH 3 CH 2 C CH 3

CN

O

CH 3 CH 2 C CH 3

(G)

23. NiCl2 {P(C2H5)2(C6H5)}2 exhibits temperature dependent magnetic behavior (paramagnetic / diamagnetic). The coordination geometries of Ni2+ in the paramagnetic and diamagnetic states are respectively (A) tetrahedral and tetrahedral (B) square planar and square planar (C) tetrahedral and square planar (D) square planar and tetrahedral 15

23. (C)

Ni(28) : [Ar]4so 3d8

In strong ligand

2

2 2

8

In weak ligand

24. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing agents used are (A) O2 and CO respectively (B) O2 and Zn dust respectively (C) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively (D) HNO3 and CO respectively 24. (B) Ag2S 4NaCN 2NaAg(CN)2 Na 2S

0

4Na 2 S 5O2 2H 2O

1

2Na 2SO 4

ox

4NaOH 2S

0

2Na Ag(CN)2 Zn

NaZn(CN)4 2Ag

25. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous NaOH gives phosphine along with another phosphorus containing compound. The reaction type ; the oxidation states of phosphorus in phosphine and the other product are respectively (A) redox reaction ; 3 and 5 (B) redox reaction; +3 and +5 (C) disproportionation reaction ; 3 and + 5 (D) disproportionation reaction ; 3 and + 3 25. None of these

P4 (white) NaOH 3H2O PH3 3NaH2PO2 PH3 has 3 and NaH2PO3 has + 1 O.N.

26. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is (A) trigonal bipyramidal (C) tetrahedral 26. (D) Shape of XeO2F2 is 1 V M C A Hybridisation H 2 1 8 2 0 0 5(sp3d) 2 (B) square planar (D) see saw

16

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (17) 27. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non volatile non electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2 C. Assuming concentration of solute is much lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take Kb = 0.76 K kg mol 1) (A) 724 (B) 740 (C) 736 (D) 718 27. (A) T L = kb m Ws = kb Ms Wsolution 2.5 2 = 0.76 Ms 100 0.76 2.5 Ms = = 9.5 100 2 ns 760 x = Xs = 760 n solution Ws Ms 2.5 18 = = = 36.0 Wsolv 9.5 M solv x = 760 36 = 724 28. The compound that undergoes decarboxylation most readily under mild condition is COOH COOH (A) (B) CH2COOH O

(C)

COOH COOH

(D)

CH2COOH O

28. (B)

O C OH O

Is a keto acid which undergo decarboxylation on slight heating.

O C OH O O

Slight heating CO 2

17

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question 29 and 30 The electrochemical cell shown below is a concentration cell. M | M2+ (saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt, MX2) || M2+ (0.001 mol dm 3) | M The emf of the cell depends on the difference in concentrations of M 2+ ions at the two electrodes. The emf of the cell at 298 K is 0.059 V. 29. The value of G (kJ mol 1) for the given cell is (take 1F = 96500 C mol 1) (A) 5.7 (B) 5.7 (C) 11.4 (D) 11.4 29. (D) G = nFEcell = 2 96500 0.059 = 11.387 kJ mol 1 = 11.4 kJ 30. The solubility product (Ksp ; mol3 dm 9) of MX2 at 298 K based on the information available for the given concentration cell is (take 2.303 R 298 / F = 0.059 V) (A) 1 10 15 (B) 4 10 15 (C) 1 10 12 (D) 4 10 12 30. (B) 0.0591 C log10 E = 2 10 3 0.0591 C 0.059 = log10 2 10 3 C 10 2 = 10 3 C = [M2+] = 10 5 M. Ksp = [M+2] [X ]2 = 4s3 = 4(10 5)3 = 4 10 15

In the following reaction sequence, the compound J is an intermediate. I J(C9H8O2) gives effervescence on treatment with NaHCO3 and a positive Bayers test. 31. The compound K is (A) (B) (C) (D)

18

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (19) 31. (C)

O C H

(CH 3CO) 2 O CH3COONa

C OH

(J)

H2 |Pd | C

AlCl3

SOCl2

C (K) O Cl

C OH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Bleaching powder and bleach solution are produced on a large scale and used in several household products. The effectiveness of bleach solution is often measured by iodometry. 33. 25 mL of household bleach solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4 N acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N Na2S2O3 was used to reach the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is (A) 0.48 M (B) 0.96 M (C) 0.24 M (D) 0.024 M 33. (C) 1 No. of moles of bleach solution = No. of moles of Na2S2O3 2 1 = (0.25 48 10 3) 2 = 6 10 3 3 Molarity 25 10 = 6 10 3 6 Molarity of bleach solution = = 0.24 M 25 34. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The anhydride of that oxoacid is (A) Cl2O (B) Cl2O7 (C) ClO2 (D) Cl2O6 19

34. (A) Bleaching powder contains salt of HCl. It is obtained by adding H2O to Cl2O. Thus option (A) is correct.

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct. 35. For the given aqueous reactions, which of the statement(s) is (are) true?

(A) The first reaction is a redox reaction (B) White precipitate is Zn3 [Fe(ON)6]2. (C) Addition of filtrate to starch solution gives blue colour. (D) White precipitate is soluble in NaOH solution. 35. (A), (C), (D) KI (Excess) + [K3 Fe(CN)6] + H2SO4 K4 [Fe(CN)6] + I2 + KOH (Brownish-Yellow solution) KOH + I2 + K4 [Fe(CN)6] + ZnSO4 I2 + Starch Blue color Na2ZnO2 (soluble in alkaline medium) Zn(OH)2 + I2 (Brown-Yellow Filterate)

36. With reference to the scheme given, which of the given statement(s) about T, U, V and W is (are) correct?

(A) T is soluble in hot aqueous NaOH (B) U is optically active (C) Molecular formula of W is C10H18O4 (D) V gives effervescence on treatment with aqueous NaHCO3 20

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (21) 36. (A), (C)

O O O

LiAlH 4

CH2 OH H2C C OH H CH2 CH2 (U) Cr2O3 CHO H2 C H3C CH CH2 (V) CHO H

+

CH2 O

(CH3CO)O excess

C O

CH3

H3 C (T) H3C

H3C

CH3

37. Which of the given statement(s) about N, O, P and Q with respect to M is (are) correct?

(A) M and N are non mirror image stereoisomers (B) M and O are identical (C) M and P are enantiomers (D) M and Q are identical 37. (A) , (B) , (C) Factual. 38. With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the statement(s) given below is (are) correct? (A) Graphite is harder than diamond. (B) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond. (C) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond. (D) Graphite has higher C C bond order than diamond. 38. (B), (C), (D) Graphite is sp2 hybridized and contains Vander Wall Force. While diamond is sp3 hybridized.

21

39. The given graphs/data I, II, III and IV represent general trends observed for different physisorption and chemisorption processes under mild conditions of temperature and pressure. Which of the following choice(s) about I, II, III and IV is (are) correct?

(A) I is physisorption and II is chemisorption (B) I is physisorption and III is chemisorption (C) IV is chemisorption and II is chemisorption (D) IV is chemisorption and III is chemisorption 39. (A), (C) I: In physisorption, as the temperature increases the amount of gas adsorbed decreases. II : In chemisorption, as the temperature increases the amount of gas adsorbed increases (to a certain range of temperature) x kp1/n (at constant T) III : Fruendlich adsorption isotherms for physisorption m IV : Hads = 150 KJ is in the range for chemisorption. 40. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in the figure. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (23) 40. (A), (C), (D) Process is isothermal implies T1 = T2 A is correct

T1V1

T3 T1

T3V2

1

V1 V2

V2

V1 V2

V1 V2

1

1

T3 < T1 Option B is incorrect Work done is area under the curve, Clearly the area under the curve for isothermal process is greater. Option C is correct For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of Temperature. Final temperature for adiabatic process is less than its initial temperature, while initial and final temperature for isothermal process is same. Hence, internal energy change for isothermal process is greater than internal energy change for adiabatic process ( Uiso = 0 and Uadia < 0) option D is correct.

SECTION I : Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 41. The value of the integral /2 x x 2 1n cos x dx is x /2

2 2 2

2

(B)

(C)

(D)

x 2 cos x dx

n

2

x cos x dx x

2

2

2

0

x 2 cos x dx 0

2 x 2 sin x

/2 0

2 x sin x dx = 2

0

2

x cos x 0

2

/2

cos x dx

0

2 0 sin x 0

/2

=2

2( 1) =

23

42. Let a1, a2, a3, be in harmonic progression with a1 = 5 and a20 = 25. The least positive integer n for which an < 0 is (A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 25 42. (D) a1, a2, a20 H.P. 1 1 1 A.P. , ,...... a1 a 2 a 20 1 1 4 19d d 25 5 475 1 4 T25 24 5 475 1 96 T25 5 475 1 T25 475 43. The equation of a plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes x+2y+3z = 2 2 and x y + z = 3 and at a distance from the point (3, 1, 1) is 3 (A) 5x 11y + z = 17 (B) 2x y 3 2 1 (C) x + y + z = 3 (D) x 43. (A) Equation of family of planes passing through x + 2y + 3z 2 = 0 and x y + z 3 = 0 is (x + 2y + 3z 2) + (x y + z 3) = 0 (1 + ) x + (2 ) y + (3 + ) z (2 + 3 ) = 0 Distance of (3, 1, 1) from required plane is

2y 1

(1

)3 (2 (1

)1 (3 )2 (2

)( 1) (2 3 ) )2 (3

2 3

)2

7 2

2 3

7 5 and c = , where a, b and c are the 2 2 lengths of the sides of the triangle opposite to the angles at P, Q and R respectively. Then 2 sin P sin 2P equals. 2 sin P sin 2P

with a = 2, b =

3 (A) 4

45 (B) 4

3 (C) 4

45 (D) 4

24

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (25) 44. (C)

2sin P 2sin P cos P 2sin P 2sin P cos P 1 cos P 3 1 cos P 32 29 cos P = 35 1 5 7 8 6 = 2 2 2 35 = 6

P

5/2

7/2

3 4

(D) 8

a a

a

2i 3j 4k 2i 3j 4k

2i 3j 4k

2i 3j 4k 2i 3j 4k

b

b b 0

0

2i 3j 4k

a b

2i 3j 4k

0

0

a b 2i 3j 4k sin n

sin = 0

It means a b and 2i 3j 4k are parallel. The angle a b & 2i 3j 4k will form same angle will be form by 2i 3j 4k & Let is the angle between this pair then

2i 3j 4k . 7i 2 j 3k cos 2i 3j 4k 7i 2 j 3k

7i 2j 3k .

a b . 7i 2j 3k

= =4

29 61.

a b

4 29 61

7i 2j 3k cos

25

46. If P is a 3 3 matrix such that PT = 2P + I, where PT is he transpose of P and I is the 3 x 0 0 such that identity matrix, then there exists a column matrix X = y z 0

0

(A) PX

0 0

(B) PX X

(C) PX = 2X

(D) PX = X

l

m n

l m n

P = b c PT = 2P + I a l b m c n

a b c l m n

2a

2b 2

2c 2

1 0 0

= 2 2l =

2 2l

+ 0 1 0 0 0 1 2m 2n

2b 2c 2 1 2 2m 2n 1

2a 1

a = 2a + 1 =2 +1 n = 2n + 1

a= 1 = 1 n= 1 =0

2b = , b = 2 . It is possible when b = Similarly, c = l = 0 and m= =0 1 0 0 1 0 The matrix P is 0 0 0 1 So, PX = X Correct answer is (D)

47. Let (a) and (a) be the roots of the equation 3 1 a 1 x2 1 a 1 x 6 1 a 1 = 0 where a > 1. Then lima (A)

0

(B)

(a) are

(C) 26

7 and 2 2

5 and 1 2

1 and 1 2

(D)

9 and 3 2

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (27) 47. (B)

3

1 a

x2

6

1 a 1 x

1 a 1

0, where a > 1

(a) a

(a) =

3

1 1

11/6 1 11/3 1

(a) + (a) =

a

a 0

1 a 1

3

1 a 1

(a) =

11/ 2 1 11/3 1

(a)

a 0

(a) (a) = 1/2 (a) + (a) = 3/2 1/ 2 and (a) By solving (a)

a 0 a 0

Correct answer is (B). 48. Four fair dice D1, D2, D3 and D4, each having six faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, are rolled simultaneously. The probability that D4 shows a number appearing on one of D1, D2 and D3 is 91 108 125 127 (A) (B) (C) (D) 216 216 216 216 48. (A) n(S) = 6 6 6 6 = (6)4 n E = 6 5 5 5 P(E ) =

125 216 125 P(E) = 1 P(E ) = 1 216 6 5 5 5 6 6 6 6

91 216

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Questions 49 and 50

x

1

27

49. Consider the statements : P : There exists some x IR such that f(x) + 2x = 2(1+x2) Q : There exists some x IR such that 2f(x) +1 = 2x(1+x) Then (A) both P and Q are true (B) P is true and Q is false (C) P is false and Q is true (D) both P and Q are false. 49. (C) P : f(x) + 2x = 2 (1 + x2) (1 x)2 sin2 x + x2 + 2x = 2 + 2x2 (1 x)2 sin2 x + 2x = x2 + 2 (x2 2x + 1) sin2 x + 2x = x2 + 2 2x cos2 x = x2 cos2 x + cos2 x + 1 cos2 x (x2 2x + 1) + 1 = 0 (1 x)2 cos2 x + 1 = 0 Hence no solution Also Q : 2f(x) + 1 = 2x + 2x2 1 2 1 x sin 2 x x 2 x x2 2 1 2 x Let g(x) = 1 x sin 2 x 2 1 0 g(0) = 2 1 0 g( ) = 2 There exists a solution of g(x) in [0, ]. Hence statement Q is true. 50. Which of the following is true ? (A) g is increasing on (1, ) (B) g is decreasing on (1, ) (C) g is increasing on (1, 2) and decreasing on (2, ) (D) g is decreasing on (1, 2) and increasing on (2, ) 50. (B)

x

g(x) =

1

2(t 1) t 1

n t f (t) dt

x (1, )

2(x 1) n x f (x) x 1 we know, f(x) > 0 x . 2(x 1) nx Let h(x) = x 1 4 nx h(x) = 2 x 1 4 1 4x (x 1) 2 h (x) = = (x 1)2 x x(x 1) 2

g (x) =

28

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (29)

(x 1) 2 (x 1) 2 h (x) < 0 h is decreasing x > 1 h(x) < h(1) 2(x 1) nx 0 x 1 x (1, ) 2(x 1) nx 0 x 1 g (x) < 0 x (1, ) g is decreasing in (1, )

= Paragraph for Questions 51 and 52 A tangent PT is drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 4 at the point P perpendicular to PT is a tangent to the circle (x 51. A common tangent of the two circles is (A) x = 4 (B) y = 2 51. (D) Tangent in slope to x2 + y2 = 4 is y Similarly tangent to (x (1) & (2) identical

1 2 1 m2 3m 1 m2

2 1 m2

3)2 + y2 = 1

(C) x

3y 4

(D) x 2 2y 6

mx 2 1 m 2

3)2 + y2 = 1 is y m x 3

y mx 3m

1 m2

1 m2

(1) (2)

3m

1 m2

2 1 m2

P

y mn 2 1 m 2

(3, 0)

29

y

y

2 2 1 x 2 2

2 1

2 3 2 2

1 8

2 2y

x 6

2y x 6

Taking (+)

52. A possible equation of L is (A) x (B) x (C) x 3y 1 3y 1 52. (A) Equation of tangent at P 3,1 to x2 + y2 = 4 is

3y

(D) x

3y 5

x 3 y 4

Slope of tangent is = So, Slope of L is =

1 3

1 ) 3

x 3y 1 Taking ( ) sign, 3y x 3 2 x 3y 5

Paragraph for Questions 53 and 54 Let an denote the number of all n digit positive integers formed by the digits 0, 1 or both such that no consecutive digits in them are 0. Let bn = the number of such n digit integers ending with digit 1 and cn = the number of such n digit integers ending with digit 0. 53. Which of the following is correct? (A) a17 = a16 + a15 (B) c17 c16 + c15 (C) b17 b16 + c16 53. (A) a1 = 1 a2 = 2 a3 = 3 a4 = 5 an is following fibonacci series. Hence a17 = a16 + a15 .

30

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (31) 54. The value of b6 is (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 54. (B) 1 1 Total no of ways exactly two consecutive two is = 5 ways Total no of ways exactly three consecutive two is = 2 ways Total no of ways exactly four consecutive two is = 1 ways So, b6 = 5 + 2 + 1 =8

(D) 11

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

x 1 y 1 z x 1 y 1 z and are coplanar, then the plane (s) 2 k 2 5 2 k containing these two lines is (are) (A) y + 2z = 1 (B) y + z = 1 (C) y z = 1 (D) y 2z = 1 55. (B), (C) Points (1, 1, 0) & ( 1, 1, 0) lies on the required plane. The normal to the plane required is i j k i j(2k 10) k (4 5k) = 2 k 2 k2 4

5 2 k

The equation of required plane containing both the lines is (k 4) x + (10 2k) y + (4 5k) z = d . (1) Point (1, 1, 0) lies on the plane (1) (k2 4) + (2k 10) = d Equation of plane is 2 (k 4) x + (10 2k) y + (4 5k) z = k2 + 2k 14 (2) k2 4 = 0 k = 2 from (2) we get, for k = 2, 6y 6z = 6 y z= 1 for k = 2 14 y + 14 z = 14 y+z= 1 1 4 4 56. If the adjoint of a 3 3 matrix P is 2 1 7 , then the possible value(s) of the 1 1 3

2

(C) 1

(D) 2

We know, adj P

adj P

4 P

2

n 1

2

IR be such that f(cos 4 ) =

1 is (are) 3 2 for 2 sec2 0, , , Then the 4 2

f cos

3 2

2 2 sec2 2cos2 cos 2

1 3

(B) 1

3 2

(C) 1

2 3

(D) 1

2 3

f cos

cos 4

1 cos 2 cos 2

2cos 2 2

1 3

cos2

2 3

1 3

1 2 3 1 f 3

2 3

3 2 2 3 2 3

1 3

3 2 3 2

and

3 2

1 3

58. Let X and Y be two events such that P(X | Y) = Which o the following is (are) correct? 2 (A) P(X Y) 3 (C) X and Y are not independent 58. (A) and (B) X P(X Y) P Y P(Y)

1 2

Y) =

1 . 6

Y) 1 3

P(Y) 2P(X

P(Y) 2 1 6

Y)

32

IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (33) P(Y) =

P Y X P(X Y) P(X) 1 3

1 3

(1) Y)

P(X) = 3P(X

1 1 = 6 2 1 = P(X) = 2

=3

(2)

P(X Y)

= P(X) + P(Y) 1 1 1 = 2 3 6 5 1 2 = 6 6 3

P(X Y)

(A : correct)

1 1 1 = P(X) P(Y) 6 2 3 X & Y are in dependent (B : correct) = Xc & Y are in dependent. P(Xc Y) = P Xc P X

P(X

Y) =

= 1 P X = 1

P Y

1 3

x

2

0

(0, ), then

(A) f has a local maximum at x = 2 (B) f is decreasing on (2, 3) (C) there exists some c (0, ) such that f (c) = 0 (D) f has a local minimum at x = 3 59. (A), (B), (C), (D)

x 0

f(x) = e t (t 2) (t 3) dt

2

(0, )

f (x) = e x (x 2) (x 3) f is increasing in ( , 2) (3, ) f is decreasing in (2, 3) f (2) = f (3) = 0 & f (x) is differentiable on (2, 3) and also continuous on [2, 3] By Rolle's theorem, at least one c such that c (2, 3) f (x) = 0

33

60. For every integer n, let an and bn be real numbers. Let function f : IR a sin x, for x [2n, 2n 1] f(x) = n , for all integers n. bn cos x, for x (2n 1, 2n) If f is continuous, then which of the following hold(s) for all n? (A) a n 1 bn 1 0 (B) a n bn 1 (C) a n bn 1 1 (D) a n 1 bn 1 60. (B), (D) f is continuous on f(2n) = an + sin ( . 2n) = an At x = 2n Lt f (x) = Lt b n cos x

x 2n x 2n

IR be given by

2n x 2n

= an + sin (2 n) = an a n bn 1 an = bn + 1 At x = 2n + 1 f(2n + 1) = an + sin ( (2n + 1)) = an + sin (2n + ) = an f(x) = Lt Lt a n sin x a n sin (2n

x

x

) = an

2n 1

2n 1

Lt

(2n 1)

f (x) =

x

Lt

2n 1

bn

cos x

= bn = bn an = bn+1 1

1

1

cos

1

bn

1

(2n 1)

1

an

34

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