Pharmcology Quiz - I 1.
An inflammatory response characterised by chills, tachycardia, syncope and flushing of the face and trunk following rapid bolus administration of vancomycin is termed as: A. Red neck syndrome B. Anaphylactic reaction C. Rabit syndrome D. Idiosyncrasy Answer Key 2. Cyclobenzaprine is a: A. Anticancer drug B. Skeletal muscle relaxant C. Antithyroid drug D. Antiepileptic drug Answer Key 3. Therapeutic serum drug level of theophylline is: A. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL B. 0.8 to 1.2 meq/dL C. 5 to 20 µg/mL D. 50 to 100 µg/mL Answer Key 4. Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral diseases specially in varicella and influenza because of its association with : A. Reye’s syndrome B. Rett’s Syndrme C. Anphylactic reaction D. Hepatotoxicity Answer Key 5. Which one of the following listed drugs has the highest potential for postural hypotension: A. Haloperidol B. Loxapine C. Trifluoperazine D. Chlorpromazine Answer Key 6. What is the usual antidepressant dose of fluoxetine: A. 50-300 mg B. 75 to 200 mg C. 20-80 mg D. 150-600 mg Answer Key 7. The basic pharmacologic action of nitrates is to: A. Decrease venous tone B. Reducing blood return C. Dilation of normal and stenotic epicardial coronary arteries D. All of the above
Lidocaine is given either intravenously or intramuscularly because: A. The drug causes severe nausea and vomiting Answer Key 11. Amiadorone 800-1200 mg/day B. Anticholinergic drug B. Dopamine’s ability to stimulate β-receptors D. Which one of the following listed drugs is not a calcium channel blocking drug: A. Antihistaminic drug C. Diltiazem B. Class III antiarrythmic drug B. Adenosine 3-13 mg C. Verapramil Answer Key 9. Betablockers Answer Key 13. Propranolol D. Nifidipine C. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an: A. The drug causes severe gastric irritation C.Answer Key 8. The major difference between cardiovascular effects dopamine and those of dobutamine are related to: A. 1-2 days B. Antiplatelet aggregator C. Class IC Antiarrythmic drug D. 1-6 seconds C. Flecainide is a A. Hemodynamically stable patients with supraventricular tachycardia. 4-6 hours D. who are not responding to vagal manoeuvres can be treated with: A. Dobutamine’s ineffective for stimulation of β-receptors C. None of the above Answer Key 10. The drug is inactivated by gastric acid D. Short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor D. The drug undergoes 90% first-pass hepatic metabolism B. Dopamine’s ability to elicit systemic vasoconstriction owing to more potent activation of α-receptors B. Adenosine has a elimination half life of A. 8-12 hours Answer Key
. Lidocaine D. Antihypertensive drug Answer Key 12. Antiparkinsonism drug Answer Key 14.
A 9. and acetaminophen can act by: A. Ethamsylate D. 1 ½ -2 times the control C. NSAIDs. The drug of choice in torsades de pointes is:’ A. C 18. Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative: A.D 6. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. D. impaired renal function. D 17. Answer Key 19. Over dosage of heparin is treated with: A. 2 to 3 times the control B. D 10. C 13. A 11. The goal of the heparin therapy in a patient with pulmonary embolism is to prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) to. C 16. To keep same as control D. D. activating the cyclooxygenase enzymes. Magnesium Sulphate Answer Key 16. Contraindications to aspirin include: A. B 7.15.B 3. B 8. A 20. peptic ulcer disease and GI bleeding B. indomethacin Answer Key Answer Key 1. A. A 14. B. C 2. C. diclofenac C. A
. Aspirin. Procainamide C.D 15. ibuprofen B. Protamine sulphate 50 mg given IV over 10 minutes C. B 12. Bretlium D. Lignocaine B. releasing histaine from the mast cells and basophils. To keep 1 ½ times below the control Answer Key 17. C 4.A 19. All of the above Answer Key 20. Vitamin K1 Answer Key 18. mephanamic acid D. increasing the production of prostaglandins. history of hypersensitivity reactions C. B 5. Warfarin B.
B. Anaphylactic shock or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions are: A. Type III reactions. digitalis glycosides C. Dobutamine C. aminoglycoside antibiotics. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity is important to the integrity of the: A. beta-adrenoceptor blockers. Lorazepam C. white blood cells C. which has the shortest biological half-life. Drugs that carry a possible risk of haemolysis in some G6PD deficient individuals inclulde: A. Type II reactions. Adenosine B. Diazepam B. Midazolam D. quinidine D. menadione C. Benzylpenicillin D. aspirin B. 1 plasma half-life B. C. Type IV reactions. sympathomimetics. Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by: A. Amoxycillin Answer Key 3. B. A. When a drug is given at a constant rate. Answer Key 2. D. red blood cells B. A. all of the above Answer Key 7. platelets D. D. Clonazepam Answer Key 4. Among the listed drugs. 2 plasma half-life C. mast cells Answer Key 6. Which of the following listed drug has the longest biological half-life. 5 plasma half-life Answer Key 5.Pharmcology Quiz -II 1. Answer Key
. Type I reactions. 3 plasma half-life D. the generally accepted time to reach steady state (plateau) is: A.
B. Answer Key 9. Which is an anerobic bacteria: A. A type A adverse reaction is also called: A. Answer Key 13. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to diagnose:
. None of the above . Haemophilus influenzae B. miosis and muscle fasciculation are charecteristics of: A. Augmented reactions B. The rates at which absorption. C. sweating. Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer Key 15. Answer Key 12. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. urinary and faecal incontinence. there is dehydration D. a thiazide diuretic is co-administered. lymphocyte-mediated type. Sympathomimetic syndromes D. Lithium toxicity may result when: A. vomiting. Which is a gram negative bacteria: A. Cholinergic (muscarinic) syndromes C. C. D. abdominal cramps. lachrymation. there is sodium depletion. Type II allergic/hypersensitivity reactions are also called: A. Salivation. Delayed effects Answer Key 10. B. immune complex-mediated type. distribution. D. Processes by which a constant amount of drug is transported/ metabolised in unit time irrespective of its concentration in the body. immediate or anaphylactic type. antibody-dependent cytotoxic type. B. Presystemic elimination of the drug. Chronic reactions D. Zero-order kinetics refers to: A. metabolism and excretion of a drug occur are directly proportional to its concentration in the body. Answer Key 11. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer Key 14. Antimuscarinic syndromes B. Bizarre reactions C. in all of the above situations. C. The time in which the biological effect of a drug declines by one half.8. Neisseria meningitidis C. Clostridium perfringens D.
C 12. C. Clostridium perfringens infection. Answer Key ANSWER KEY 1. C 5. D 4. B 2.A. A 7. Neisseria meningitidis infection. A 8. B 3. A 6. B 15. methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. D 13. B. B
. D 11.D 9. A 10. A 14. acid-fast tubercle bacilli infection. D.
Pyridoxine D. Heparin C.1). Acetyl salicylic acid D. Physostigmine B. Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of: A. The drug used as an antodote of anticholinergic poisoning is: A. Deferoxamine Answer Key 3). N-Acetylcysteine C. Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of: A. Warfarin C. Atropine Answer Key 5). Physostigmine D. IV 50–150 mcg/kg C. Severe lead poisoning is treated with: A. Physostigmine D. Digoxin
. Acetylcysteine Answer Key 2). Protamine Answer Key 8). Anticholinergica D. Iron B. Pyridoxine C. The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is: A. IM 1 g q8h PRN B. IV 0. Succimer B. Heparin B. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 6). Flumazenil C. Flumazenil B. Warfarin B. PO 140 mg/kg D. Adult dose of naloxone in opioid posoning is: A. Insulin Answer Key 4). Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with: A. Naloxone C. Atropine B.4–2 mg PRN Answer Key 7. Diphenoxalate D. Calcium gluconate C. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih: A.
>0. Digoxin Answer Key 10). atropine D. B.8 mEq/L B. calcium gluconate C. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 11). an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it is given. gold. a fever associated with administration of a medication. lead and mercury Answer Key
. benzatropine B. Atropine C. 0. Cholinergics B. Physostigmine Answer Key 13). Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning with: A. antimuscarinic drugs C. the ability of a substance to cause cancer. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when taken by pregnant women. Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to: A. Idiosyncrasy refers to: A. Beta blockers Answer Key 9). carbon monoxide D.6 mEq/L D. A therapeutic agent which is some times called the universal antidote: A. Benzodiazepines D. acetylcysteine Answer Key 15). copper.1 mEq/L Answer Key 12). Pyridoxine B. Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with: A. Answer Key 14). >2 mEq/L C.D. Activated charcoal D. Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with: A. opioids B. Protamine sulphate B. C. Lithum toxicity happens at serum lithium level of: A. D. Diphenhydramine D. Atropine C. Glucose C. 0.
penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations B. A 9. B. B 8. Which statement about penicillins is FALSE: Answer Key A. Penicillins on high doses cause convulsions. Benzylpenicillin is not effective for infections due to normal strains of Neisseria meningitidis C. interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis. 8). phenoxymethylpenicillin C. D 6. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is not resistant to gastric acid. A 5. 2). D. B. C. B. Which statement abot penicillins is TRUE: Answer Key A. Penicillins cross CSF if the meninges are inflamed.ANSWER KEY 1. The penicillins act by : Answer Key A. ototoxicity. A 12. C. Benzathine Penicillin B. D. penicillin active against gram negative bacteria. carbapenem group of antibiotic. given i. gastrointestinal disturbances. Procaine benzylpenicillin D. D. A 13. Phenoxymethylpenicillin 4). 6). ampicillin 5). 3). Procaine penicillin.m. The most important side-effect of the penicillins is: Answer Key A. B 10. cloxacillin D. benzylpenicillin B. phagocytic action. only. 7). C. D 11. inhibition of protien synthesis B. Benzylpenicillin C. hepatotoxicity. D 4. A 15. B 2. Identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients indicates:
. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include: Answer Key A. Co-amoxiclav is a: Answer Key A. C 7. narrow spectrum penicillin. C. D 14. A penicillin preparation which is suitable for oral administration is: Answer Key A. Benzylpenicillin is highly active against Streptococcus pneumoniae . D
Pharmcology Quiz: Penicillins -1). penicillins do not cause neutropenia in high does given for longer than 10 days. inhibition of neuclic acid synthesis D. C 3. Penicillins are not effective against normal strains of gram positive bacteria. hypersensitivity reactions D.
Ampicillin may cause maculopapular rashes C. carboxypenicillins . beta-lactamase resistant penicillins. D. Which statement about ampicillin is FALSE: Answer Key A. monobactam antibiotics. B 6. B. C. C 4. 10). 2. the organisms are sensitive to flucloxacillin and cloxacillin B. C. Ampicillin cause diarrhoea on oral administration. D 8. the organisns are resistant to flucloxacillin. Amoxycillin is better absorbed from gut than ampicillin. A. C. C. A. D. A. 2. adapted from the ampicillin molecule. A. C. B.Answer Key A. Ampicillin is a cephalosporin group of antibiotic. and effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. A. 10. usual infection-control measures are satisfactory to manage the infections. D. D 1. 3. D. Ureidopenicillins are: Answer Key A. cloxacillin. D. C 9. D 5. D. A
Mechanism of action of Methenamine: Inhibits the replication of bacterial DNA Decomposes in to amonia and fomaldehyde and denatures bacterial protein Decreases bladder muscle spasms Relaxes smooth muscles of the urinary tract Normal Adult dose of Nalidxi acid is: 1 to 4 gms 4 times a day for 1 week 500 mg at bedtime for 5 days 250 mg bid for 7 days 100 mg tid for 2 weeks Normal adult dose of Bethanechol ranges from: 10 to 50 mg 3-4 times per day 50 to 100 mg 2 times a day 100 mg 6 times a day 1 gm single dose dail Injectable form of Bethanechol is administered through: Intravenously Intradermaly Intramuscularly Subcutaneosly The most significant adverse effect of epoitin alfa is: Hypotension
. 5. B. C 7. A. A 3. and other beta-lactam antibiotics D. B. B. 9). 4. ANSWER KEY 1. the organisms are sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics C.
4D. Most common side effect of aluminium hydroxide is: A. Diarrhoea D. Phenytoin ANSWERS: 1B. With meals B.
.2A. Common side effect of ferrus sulphate: A. headache 6. With in 3 days C. Tacrolimus ia an alternative drug to: A. After 1 month 7. At bedtime 8.5B.8B. Aluminium hydroxide is admistered: A. Fatigue 10. Fluconazole D. Immediatly B.7A. Constipation D.10A.3A. After Meals C. Erythromycin C. Constipation C. 30 minutes before meals D. Cyclosporine B.B.9C. Weakness B. Muscle weakness 9. With in 2 weeks D. Therapeutic effect of epoitin alfa can be expected in: A. Headache C. Hypertension C. Diarrea B. Headache D.6C.