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revision questions By Heba Mostafa in FUTURE PHARMACIST (Files) Edit Doc 1.

.Adenosine is used for : a-ventricular arrythmias b-atrial bradycardia c-supraventricular tachycardia d-supraventricular bradycardia e-non of the above A d 2.Erythroped A : a-is effective against G +ve Cocci b-is a macrolide antibiotic c-can increase g.i.t. motility d-could be used in pregnant women if need e-all of the above A e 3.What two proteins are most commonly involved inplasma protein binding? A.Globulin and plasmin B.Globulin and albumin C.Fibrin and plasminogen D.Fibrin and plasmin A b 4.Which of the folowing dose not require prescription: a-Tylenol1 b-Tylenol 2 c-Tylenol 3 dTylenol 4 e-Tylenol 2, 3 , 4 a a 5.The functional group which contributes to the instability of aspirin is A alcohol B ketone C ester D heterocycle E ether A c 6.A pateint is using ASA 81 mg enteric coated tablet? What is incorrect about enteric coated tablet ASA? a-enteric coated decrease GI bleeding b-enteric coated decrease GI irritation centeric coated absorbed in small intestine d-enteric coated is used for chronic therapy euncoated is used to prepare liquid formulations a a 7."Coated aspirin, also called enteric-coated aspirin, is the pharmaceutical industrys attempt to limit the drugs effect on the stomach. Its a great idea: Cover aspirin with a coating designed to withstand stomach acids so it sails through the stomach untouched and dissolves in the more neutral small intestine. Keeping aspirin intact for as long as possible might mean it wont damage the lining of the stomach. Yet studies show that coated aspirin has virtually the same effect on the stomach as plain, uncoated aspirin. The Harvard Heart Letter notes that aspirin doesnt have to be in contact with stomach cells to harm them. Even when the pill dissolves in the intestines, the medicine gets into the bloodstream and is carried to all parts of the bodyincluding the cells lining the stomach. Once there, it blocks the COX-1 enzyme. Stomach cells need COX-1 in order to churn out compounds that protect them from the powerful acids that digest food." Who determine the prescription drug prices in Canada. A-Pharmacist B-Pharmacy Manager C-Manufacturers D-Distributors E-Health Canada A e For OTC a=b 8.Which of the following statements regarding the stimulation of peripheral alpha1-drenoceptors is true? A increases heart rate B elevates systolic blood pressure C is the major action of phentolamine D causes flushing E constricts bronchioles A b 9.Which of the following anaglgesc is least likely cause addiction? a-Morphine b-Heroin cCodiene d-Tramadol e-Methadone a d

10.Loop diuretics may induce: A.metabolic acidosis. B.metabolic alkalosis. C.respiratory acidosis. D.respiratory alkalosis A b trick to remember - anything that increases potassium causes acidosis, anything to decreases potassium causes alkalosis. except carbonic anhydrase inhibitors which decrease potassium but cause acidosis if something causes metabolic acidosis then it may cause intracellular alkalosis, because all of the potassium goes from the cell to the systemic circulation 11.Anti-inflammatory action of ASA is due to? a-irreversible inhibition of platelet aggregation bprevention of prostaglandin synthesis c-inhibition of COX-I receptors d-irreversible inhibition of COX-I and COX-II receptors e-inhibition of COX-II receptors a d 12.In which drug is the pharmacological activity associated with a specific optical isomer? A adrenaline B aspirin C phenobarbitone D acetylcholine E caffeine A a 13.Which of the following antibiotics is NOT readily destroyed by penicillinase enzymes? A phenoxymethylpenicillin B ticarcillin C flucloxacillin D ampicillin E amoxicillin A c

14.Streptokinase may be indicated for the treatment of A impaired fat absorption B pulmonary emboli C tuberculosis D neoplastic disorders E psoriasis A b 15.The long term administration of a thiazide diuretic may also require the administration of A potassium B sodium C calcium D bicarbonate E acetate A a 16.The ultraviolet region of the spectrum used in drug analysis A 50 - 200 nm B 200 - 400 nm C 200 - 750 nm D 400 - 600 nm E 600 - 800 nm A b 17.Which of the following drugs has an anti-inflammatory action? A codeine B pethidine C meloxicam D paracetamol E propoxyphene A c 18.Canadian health act include all except a,children health care b,water and food safety check c,Eye problem d,Endemic disease control e,emergency care A b 19.An amine base that is not metabolized and hasa pKa of 7 will be reabsorbed from the renal tu-bules most quickly if the pH of the urine is ad- justed to: .A.4 .B.6 .C.7 .D.8. A D ie ph 8,bc it will be less ionizied in a basic medium and reabsorbed ,but in an acidic medium it will be ionisied and exccreated 20.Which of the following sulfonylurea oralhypoglycemics has the longest duration of action? A.Glyburide B.Tolbutamide C.Chlorpropamide D.Glipizide A c

21.A circular area on the skin that is red, but notrough or raised, is most likely a: A.vesicle. B.pustule. C.macule. D.papule. A c Vescicle is raised and contains liquid, pustule contains purulent material, papule is raised and can give infection (e.g. acne) Macule A macule is a change in surface color, without elevation or depression and, therefore, nonpalpable, well or ill-defined,[28] variously sized, but generally considered less than either 5[28] or 10 mm in diameter at the widest point.[27] Papule A papule is a circumscribed, solid elevation of skin with no visible fluid, varying in size from a pinhead to less than either 5[28] or 10 mm in diameter at the widest point.[27] Vesicle A vesicle is a circumscribed, fluidcontaining, epidermal elevation generally considered less than either 5[28] or 10 mm in diameter at the widest point.[27] Pustule A pustule is a small elevation of the skin containing cloudy[26] or purulent material usually consisting of necrotic inflammatory cells.[27] These can be either white or red. 22.NSAIDs that are not used for chronic pain: I-ketorolac II-Celecoxib III-indomethacin A_Ionly b-III only c-I and II d-II and III e- all of the above A e 23.The incubation period for chickenpox is ap-proximately: A.1 to 2 days.B.14 to 16 days.C.20 to 30 days.D.1 to 2 months A b 24.Which of the following sources does NOT include documentation from the primary literature? A. APhA Handbook of Non-prescrip-tion Drugs B. APhA Evaluation of Drug Interac-tions C. AHFS Drug Information D. Drugdex Information System A c 25.In testing independence in a 3 x 2 contingencytable, chi-square has how many degrees of freedom? A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 A b rows - 1 * columns 1 (3-1)*(2-1) = 2 (x-1)*(y-1) =degree of freedon in chi-square while x is row and y is colum 26.Which of the following is a non-parametric test? A.Chi-square B.t-test C.F-test D.Analysis of variance A a 27.An item is reduced in price from $2 to $1 and thenumber of units sold is increased from 10 to 20.What is the coefficient of elasticity? A.0.5 B.1.0 C.2.0 D.5.0 A c DIFFERANCE IN QUANTITY = THE DIFFERANCE OF QUANTITY/ THE ORIGINAL QUATITY =20-10/10=1 DIFFERANCE IN PRICE = THE DIFFERANCE IN PRICE / THE ORIGINAL PRICE =2-1/2=0.5 SO THE ELASTICITY = 1/0.5=2 so its actually % difference in quantity/ % difference in price

28.Drug product selection is best described as: A.choosing a bioequivalent productfrom the same chemical class. B.choosing a bioequivalent drugwithin the same therapeutic class. C.identifying products for inclusion inthe hospital formulary. D.prescribing therapy based on thephysicians diagnosis. A a 29.According to the Health Belief Model, a patientwould be LESS likely to be compliant withdrug therapy if the patient: A.believes that the disease is serious. B.believes that a prescribed drug isappropriate for the disease. C.receives a reminder that it is timefor a drug refill. D.believes that a drugs side effectsexceed its benefits. A d 30.Adherence of elderly patients to their medica-tion therapy may be affected by their: I.confusion about the purpose of the medication. II.failure to understand the desiredeffects of the medication. III.forgetting to take the medication. A.I onlyB.I and II onlyC.II and III onlyD.I, II, and III A d 31.Azathioprine-induced immunosuppression re-sults from: A.suppression of immunoglobulinproduction. B.cytotoxic activity against prolifera-tive cells. C.suppression of the humoral immunesystem. D.enhanced production of interleukin-2. A b 32.The inventory turnover rate is a measure of apharmacys: A.efficiency.B.profitability.C.solvency.D.liquidity A a ratios Indicating profitability always have the word profit in them i.e. profit/net sales rati solvency = bankruptcy, liquidity - able to pay liability with very little change in assetts 33.Immunosuppression occurs when HIV de-stroys significant numbers of: A.plasma cells.B.erythrocytes.C.lymphocytes.D.thrombocytes. A c 34.Patients with emphysema have difficultybreathing because: A.their diaphragms are fully andpermanently expanded. B.air leaking into the pleural spacecauses lung collapse. C.recurrent episodes of pneumoniaand fibrosis restrict lung expansion. D.blebs and air cysts in the lungsrestrict the space into which normallung tissue can expand. A d 35.A random sample of the diastolic blood pres-sures of 100 patients revealed a mean of 85.6 mm Hg and a mode of 80.0 mm Hg. Thefrequency distribution of the sample was: A.positively skewed. B.negatively skewed. C.normally distributed. D.indeterminable from the data given A a when mean>median > mode it is possitive skew! 36.An investigational new drug application mustbe submitted to the FDA prior to: A.preclinical laboratory studies inanimals. B.Phase 1 of clinical studies. C.Phase 2 of clinical studies, but afterPhase 1. D.Phase 3 of clinical studies, but afterPhase 2. A b 37.A sputum sample is taken from a patient whois compromised with leukopenia and has a pulmonary infection. A Grams stain would mostlikely show: A.many organisms and few whiteblood cells. B.many organisms and many whiteblood cells. C.few organisms and few whiteblood cells. D.few organisms and many whiteblood cells. A a

38.Which of the following drugs produces thehighest incidence of anaphylactic reactions? A.Phenytoin B.Penicillin C.Chlorpromazine D.Digoxin A b 39.A medication order for a patient weighing 154 lb calls for 0.25 mg of amphotericin B per kg of body weight to be added to 500 mL of 5% dextrose injection. If the amphotericin B is to be obtained from a reconstituted injection that contains 50 mg per 10 mL, how many milliliters should be added to the dextrose injection? A-7.0 mL B-3.5 mL C-17.5 mL D-12.5 mL E-20.5 mL A b 40.Which of the ff is controlled drug II? a-methaone b-phenobarbital c-tylenol 3 d-amphetamine e-tylenol 4 a b %2FOCPHome.nsf%2Fobject%2FJP%2BSeminar%2F%24file%2FJP %2BSeminar.pdf&h=jAQG8U_DAAQHjuIq2LfbARAqkZtSrQilrqn91ZylgQPPrYw 41.Sulfonamides are metabolised by humans principally by A acetylation B deamination C oxidation D conjugation E methylation A a acetylation occur with primary amine hydrazide,sulfonaamide and occasionly leads to formation of N-ACETYLAED PRODUCTS. 42.Cyproheptadine can best be classified pharmacologically as an A antihypertensive agent B antipsychotic C antidepressant D anti-inflammatory agent E antihistamine A e 43.All of the followings cause Hyperglycemia, Except? A- Hydrochlorothiazide B-Cyclosporin CIsotretinoin D-Glucagon E-Niacin A b %2Fdiabetes-news %2F9625&h=nAQF1XH_XAQELUMIHWvhfd24YQQzxvqn1ChnVbf1rBQvVwQ 44.Which amino acid is responsible for binding the heme moiety in a cytochrome P450? A. Asparagine B. Aspartic acid C. Homocysteine D. Cysteine A d 45.Which of the following drugs would NOT be expected to show appreciable absorbance in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum? A glucose B tetracycline C folic acid D amitriptyline E prochlorperazine A a 46.Which of the following is an oleaginous base? I Petrolatum II Cold cream III Polyethylene glycol a.i B.iii C.i,ii D.ii,iii E. All A c 47.Which of the following statements are true regarding thixotropy? I Thixotropic gels become fluidic when agitated II The viscosity of thixotropic gels increases under pressure III the viscosity of thixotropic gels increases by increasing shear rate A I only b.iii c.i,ii d.ii, iii e. all A a 48.Identify the normal level of glycosylated hemoglobin for most diabetics: a Lower or equal to 4% b lower or equal to 5% c l. or e. to 7% d l. or e. to 8% e l. or e. to 9% A c

49.New pt came to your pharmcay with a Rx of Narcotic from a walk in clinic, Rx: Morphine 60 mg tablet Mit : 20 tablet Sig : AS DIRECTED dated & signed What to do ? a dispence as it is b call to know the direction of use c call to vertify the rx d send pt to another pharmacy e dont dispence a c 50.Permethrin (Nix) 1% has been shown to be of clinical use in the management of A. venereal warts B. scabies C. acne D. head lice E-psoriasis A b While 5% is for scabies. 51.Which of the following is NOT a cloning vector? I mammalian cells II Bacterial artificial chromosomes BACs IIIPlasmid a I b III c I and II D II, III E I, II, III a a 52.Long term use of hydrocortisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT: a sodium retention b hypoglicemia c hypercalcemia d increased susceptibility to infections e peptic ulceration f osteoporosis a b 53.Vitamin A deficiency is primarily characterized by: a bone thinning b sore tongue c night blindness d bleeding gums e tendency to bleed a c 54.Drug commonly used with local anesthetic to decrease the absorption and increase the time of action of anesthetic include: anorepinephrine b-adrenaline Sc c-isoproterenol d-aminophiline e-salmeterol a b 55.Which vitamin needs to be given in supplemental doses in order to prevent deficiency when a patient is given prolonged administration of isoniazid (INH)? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin C d. Thiamine e. Pyridoxine The answer is e. The toxicity of INH is mainly on the peripheral and central nervous systems (PNS, CNS). This is attributable to competition of INH with pyridoxal phosphate for apotryptophanase. This results in a relative deficiency of pyridoxine, which causes peripheral neuritis, insomnia, and muscle twitching among other effects. with isoniazid take vit b6 and with levodopa avoid vit b6 56.Conservation of K ions in the body occurs with which of the following diuretics? a. Furosemide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Triamterene d. Metolazone e. Bumetanide A c Triamterene produces retention of the K ion by inhibiting in the collecting duct the reabsorption of Na, which is accompanied by the excretion of K ions. The loop diuretics furosemide and bumetanide cause as a possible adverse action the development of hypokalemia. In addition, thiazides (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide) and the thiazide-related agents (e.g., metolazone) can cause the loss of K ions with the consequences of hypokalemia. Triamterene can be given with a loop diuretic or thiazide to prevent or correct the condition of hypokalemia. 57.The clearance of theophylline is increased by all, EXCEPT: a Smoking b carbamazepine c ketoconazole d rifampin e age 1 to 9 years a d

58.Which of the following drug categories is CONTRAINDICATED in women who are or may become pregnant? A Category D b cat B c cat C d Cat X a d 59.Which of the following drugs is considered to be most effective in relieving and preventing ischemic episodes in patients with variant angina? a. Propranolol b. Nitroglycerin c. Sodium nitroprusside d. Nifedipine e. Isosorbide dinitrate A d Ca channel blockers, of which nifedipine is a prime example, are now considered to be more effective than nitrates in relieving variant angina. This is because this type of angina is believed to be caused by vasospasm, which is best antagonized by slow-channel Ca blockers. Such blockers appear to have a relative selectivity for coronary arteries 60.All of the following CANNOT be administered safely to pregnant women EXCEPT: a) Propylthiouracil b) Simvastatin c) Lisinopril d) Isotretoin e) Methotrexate A a 61.Patients receiving metformin (Glucophage) for the treatment of diabetes mellitus should be monitored for the development of A. agranulocytosis B. hearing loss C. ankylosing spondylitis D. respiratory alkalosis E-lactic acidosis A e 62.Which of the following alzehimer drug don't inhibit cholinesterase 1-memantine 2rivastigmine 3-galantamine A-1 only B-3 only C-1 and 2 D-2 and 3 E-1,2and3 a a MEMANTIN IS N METHYL D ASPATATE INHIBITOR 63.If a prescription is written generically and is marked may not substitute: a) a generic product can usually be dispensed b) the specific brand name drug must be dispensed. c) send the patient back to the physician for clarification d) charge a higher copay. A a 64.The antiparkinson effect of levodopa may be inhibited by: A. cobolamine B. alpha tocopherol C. pyridoxine D. retinol E. riboflavin A c 65.A positive Coombs test and hemolytic anemia may follow the administration of which antihypertensive drug? a. Methyldopa b. Clonidine c. Guanabenz d. Prazosin e. Captopril A a Many drugs can cause an immunohemolytic anemia. Methyldopa may cause a positive Coombs test in as many as 20% of patients, along with hemolytic anemia. Other drugs with similar actions on red blood cells are penicillins, quinidine, procainamide, and sulfonamides.

These form a stable or unstable hapten on the red cell surface, which induces an immune reaction [immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies] and leads to dissolution of the membrane. 66.Of the following, which drug does not increase the need for insulin? a. Epinephrine b. Hydrocortisone c. Chlorthalidone d. Dexamethasone e. Ethanol (acute ingestion) A e 67.Which one of the following agents is NOT keratolytic? a salicylic acid b Urea c Lactic acid d Allantoin e Sulfur f ascorbic acid a e 68.A pharmacist who refuse to counsel a patient on Warfarin for its side effects. What ethics he breaks? a. Beneficence b. Non-Maleficiency c. Autonomy d. Veracity e. Confidentiality A A? 69.Benzodiazepines as antianxiety agent action: I-enhance GABA transmission II-act on GABA -A III-bind with BZ1 and BZ2 receptors a- only I b- only III c- I and II d-II and III e- all of them A C benzodiazepine faciitate the action by chloride channel opening while non benzodiazepine acts on benzodiazepine receptors directly eg. zolpidem, zeliplone 70.What is the approximate lag time for equilibration between maternal blood and fetal tissues? a 20 minutes b 40 minutes c 1 hour d 2 hours e 3 hours A b 71.Which of the following ppi is preferred for risk reduction of NSAID-associated gastric ulcer? a omeprazole b lansoprazole c esomeprazole d pantoprazole e rabeprazole a c 72.A non-competitive enzyme inhibitor produces the following changes in enzyme kinetic parameters: A. Km is unchanged and Vmax decreases Enzyme Inhibition B. Km is increased and Vmax is unchanged C. Km increases and Vmax decreases D. Km is unchanged and Vmax is unchanged A a 73.CYP3A4 refers to: A. the gene for a Cytochrome P450 belonging to family 3, subfamily A B. the gene product for a Cytochrome P450 belonging to family 3, subfamily A C. the gene for a Cytochrome P450 belonging to superfamily 3, family A, subfamily 4 D. the gene product for a Cytochrome P450 belonging to superfamily 3, family A, subfamily 4 A a 74.Which of the following can be used in open angle glaucoma but not in closed angle glaucoma? a pilocarpine b latanoprost c timolol d acetazolamide e epinephrine a e 75.Poorly controlled diabetes can lead to several complications including foot ulceration. What percentage of diabetic patients will develop a foot ulcer during the course of their illness? a 5% b 10% c 15% d 20% e 25% A c 76.A piperidine ring is found in which of the following opioid analgesic? a Hydrocodone b Levorphanol c Morphine d Fentanyl e Methadone a d piperidine is also found in paroxetine, risperidone, methylphenidate, raloxifene, minoxidil, thioridazine, haloperidol, meperidine

77.Pharmacologic options in the treatment of the restless leg syndrome (RLS) include: I iron replacement II opioids III Benzodiazepines A I only B III only C I and II D II and III E I, II, III A e 78.In esophagitis, elevation of the head, decreased alcoholic intake, stop smoking, and consumption of small frequent meals are useful strategies. Therapeutic options include all the following, EXCEPT: a omeprazole b metoclopramide c bethanechol d amitriptyline e cimetidine A c 79.All of the following population groups have increased risk for diabetes, EXCEPT: A aboriginals B Asians C Caucasians D Africans a d 80.What is the metabolite of alcohol? ALCOHOL BY ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE CONVERT TO ALDEHYDE which drug reduce the production of urate? Allopurinol, pebencid, and sulfinpyrazone ALLOPRENOL WILL BE THE FIRST ONE AS IT INHIBIT URIC ACID SYNTHISIS ALSO PEOBANCID AND SULPHOIN PYRASON ARE URICOSURIC DRUG THAT DEC THE LEVEL what is the English meaning of collyrum eye wash An ophthalmic solution contains zinc sulfate 0.25%, phenylephrine HCl 0.12% and boric acid 1.1% (NaC1 equivalents: zinc sulfate 0.15, phenylephrine HCl 0.32, boric acid 0.5). Relative to lacrimal fluid, the solution is a. isotonic b.hypotonic c.hypertonic d.hyperosmotic e. isoosmotic. A a a calcium channel blocker that is used parenterally for cardiac arrythmias is : a- Verapamil hcl bNefedipine c- Captopril d- Minoxidil a a collyrium is: a Stable emulsion b nasal wash c mouth wash d non-aqueous suspension e eye wash a e at which of the following ionization rates PH equals PKa? a 40% ionization b 50% c 60% d 70% e 80% ionization a b Which medication CAN NOT BE used for prinzmetal angina (vasospastic angina)? A. Amlodipine B. Metoprolol C. Acetyl salicylic acid D. Verapamil E. Diltiazem A b B block means B2 also gets blocked therefore vasoconstriction and increase in peripheral resistance. this is not good in printzmental and Raynaud's (which has to do with claudification and possibility of clotting) the reason why Bblock are good in hypertension is because the block on the B1 receptor reduces cardiac output and therefore reduces the pressure on the arteries coming out of the heart avoid beta blockers in prinzmetal angina, beta blockers cause vasoconstriction (vasospasm) while beta blockers are used in stable angina Which ofthe followings is Not used to treat Acute Gout Attack? A-Naproxen B-Colchicine CPrednisone D-Indomethacin E-Probenecid A e

Pyridoxine requirements may increase during administration of all the following except: aIsoniazid b- Cycloserine c- Oral contraceptives d- Levodopa A d All are correct about Irritable Bowel Syndrome, Except? A-It is associated with a greater risk of stomach cancer. B-Stress may aggravate IBS C-Avoiding candies, gums and caffeine helps to improve the condition D-It may be constipation or diarrhea predominant E-Abdominal pain or discomfort is the most common characteristic A a What is incorrect about microcytic anemia A- It is due to deficiency of iron B- Liver, red meat and seafood are good sources of heme iron C- Oral or parenteral iron preparations are recommended for the treatment D- Erythropoietin may be an alternative treatment option EConstipation is a major side effect of iron preparations A d use of loading dose: I to achieve therapeutic concentration immediately II-loading dose =desired concentration x Vd III-steady state will be acheived immediately and maintained a-I only b-III only c-I and II d-II and III e- all are correct a c Class II MHC proteins are 1. Recognized by the T4 (or CD4) protein 2. used to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells 3. used to participate in helper function 4. not able to carry an antigen fragment A 1,3 Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a cell surface molecule encoded by a large gene family in all vertebrates . there are 2 types: MHC I, and MHC II. MHC (major histocompatibility complex) Class II molecules are found only on antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. All of the following are low molecular weight heparins (LMWH), except? A-Enoxaparin BDalteparin C-Tinzaparin D- Nadroparin E-Heparin A e Dimenhydranate was prescribed to a patient using diaphram for contraception to prevent A,ITCHING B,NAUSEA AND VOMITING C,INFECTION MULTIPLE ANSWER A a Which of the following are MOST closely related to each other 1. Antigen 2. Allergen 3. Epitope 4. Antibody multi answers A 1,2,3 An epitope, also known as antigenic determinant, is the part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells. The part of an antibody that recognizes the epitope is called a paratope. IgE 1. is produced by mast cells 2. is produced by B-cells 3. is produced by T-cells 4. binds to mast cells multi answers A 2,4 The class of an immunoglobulin A. is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex proteins B. is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is C. determined by the antigen D. is determined by the heavy chain type E. Is determined by the Jchain A d A J chain is a protein component of the antibodies IgM and IgA. The J Chain is required for IgM or IgA to be secreted into mucosa Antibodies are 1. Immunoglobulins 2. composed of variable and constant region domains 3. made of heavy and light chains 4. glycoproteins multiple answers A 1,3,4

Drugs that cause dry eyes : Anticholinergics,first generation antihistamines,beta blockers (propranolol and timolol),Diuretics,Isotrentenoin, Niacin , phenathiazine antipsychotics, TCA's (amitryptiline Anticholinergics - because cholinergic is wet, antichol is dry First generation antihistamines because i.e. chlorpromazine, promethazine structures looks similar to the structures of TCAs and phentothiazines antipsychotics, which have anticholinergic effects diuretics - because you are emptying the water in the body isotretinoin - I HAVE NO IDEA niacin - because it also has an antihistaminic effect (thats phenothiazines and TCAs - see above. Which one of the following conditions is not associated with verapamil? A. Inhibition of calcium ion influx B. Negative inotropic effect C. Coronary vasodilatation effect D. Peripheral vasodilatation effect E. None of the above A e Calcium channels are also present in the smooth muscle that lines blood vessels. By relaxing the tone of this smooth muscle, calcium-channel blockers dilate the blood vessels. This has led to their use in treating hypertension and angina pectoris. The pain of angina is caused by a deficit in oxygen supply to the heart. Calcium channel blockers like Verapamil will dilate blood vessels, which increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. This controls chest pain, but only when used regularly. It does not stop chest pain once it starts. A more powerful vasodilator such as glyceryl trinitrate may be needed to control pain once it starts. Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is: a. 4.0 h. b. 5.0 h. c. 5.4 h. d. 5.8 h. e. 6.0 h. A c Which of the following immunoglobulins is has pentamric structure: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE A b IGg cross the placenta IGM first produced igA important in mucosal immunity Which of the following is NOT true of T4 and T8 cell markers? A. These are both surface glycoproteins expressed on T-cells. B. These serve to distinguish different types of T-cells, e.g., helper, suppressor and cytotoxic, from each other. C. These are not found associated with immunoglobulins. D. The T4 proteins serve both to mediate T-cell helper function as well as the receptor for the AIDS virus. E. Both of the markers are present on ALL T-cells A e The normal threshold for fasting blood glucose for a nondiabetic patient is A,6MMOL/L B,11MMOL/L C 14MMOL/L D,9MMOL/L A a A physician write prescribed for own use or family member for emergency? A) Unethical B) Illegal C) physician can prescribe in emergency D) physician to refer to emergency

A c A physician phones a pharmacist asking him not to tell the patient about the side effects of a drug because if he does, the patient will not take it. The pharmacist complies. Both the physician and pharmacist are seeking which ethic for the patient? a) Non-maleficence b) Beneficence c) Autonomy d) Veracity e) Justice A b if the question said which statement we violating - it would be veracity, because we aren't telling the truth, so we are going against veracity but the physician and the pharmacist are SEEKING beneficience - because they are seeking for the patient's good we need to be careful abou what the question is asking Drug products have many types of names. Of the following types of names that are applied to drugs, the one that is the official name and refers only to that drug and not to a particular product is the a. Generic name b. Trade name c. Brand name d. Chemical name e. Proprietary name A a pateint on phenytoin therapy. therapeutic leve is 10-20 mg/L . blood level of phenytoin is within therapeutic range. but still pateint shows some side effects of phenytoin following is blood phenytoin analysis ? 13.6mg/L morning 14.2mg/L evening what is reason increase level of phenytoin a-phenytoin toxicity b-phenytoin has very strong protein binding c-liberation of drug from protein binding d-none of te above a c Glucogenesis: a. maintains blood glucose druing overnight fast b. occurs in both liver and muscles c. is stimulated by elevated levels of acetyl CoA d. is inhibited by fructose 2,6-biphosphate e. uses carbon skeletons of amino acid multiple answers A ac de B IS WRONG BEACUSE GLUCOGENESIS OCCURES IN LIVER ONLY True statements include: a. activation of a membrane receptor casues an exchange of GTP for GDP b. protein kinase is inactivated by cAMP c. G-proteins that are bound to GTP are inactive d. the a-subunite of G protein activates adenylate cyclase e. G-proteins are made up of three subunits MULTIPLE ANSWERS A a d e Ampicillin and amoxicillin are in the same group of penicillins. Which of the following statements best characterizes amoxicillin? a. It has better oral absorption than does ampicillin b. It can be

used in penicillinase-producing organisms c. It is classified as a broad-spectrum penicillin d. It does not cause hypersensitivity reactions e. It is effective against Pseudomonas A a Amoxicillin is classified as an aminopenicillin along with ampicillin. Because it is less affected than ampicillin by the presence of food, it has a superior absorption in the GI tract. It is sensitive to penicillinase and has a narrow spectrum of activity toward certain Gram-positive and Gramnegative organisms, but not Pseudomonas. Because it is in the penicillin family, hypersensitivity reactions are a possibility. The following are true about calcium: a. the extracellular calcium concentration is over 10,000 times that of intracellular calcium concentration b. over 90% of intracellular calcium is proteinbound c. cytosolic calcium is increased by the action of phospholipase C d. the effects of calcium are mainly mediated by calmodulin e. protein kinase C, an enzyme that phosphorylates proteins requires calcium for maximum activity. multiple answers A ALL CORRECT Which of the following analgesics contains a pyrrolidine? a Ketorolac b Naproxen c Ibuprofen d Piroxicam e Dcolofenac A a A patient with AIDS is treated with a combination of agents, which includes indinavir. What is the mechanism of action of indinavir? a. Inhibition of RNA synthesis b. Inhibition of DNA synthesis c. Inhibition of viral particle assembly d. Inhibition of viral proteases e. Inhibition of nucleoside reverse transcriptase f. Inhibition of nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase A d Indinavir is a specific inhibitor of HIV-1 proteases. Cross-resistance can occur with other protease inhibitors A 3-year-old female ingests a bottle of aspirin by accident. Among the therapeutic interventions, which of the following should be included? a. Dimercaprol b. Deferoxamine c. Penicillamine d. Na2EDTA e. Activated charcoal A e

Activated charcoal, a fine, black powder with a high adsorptive capacity, is considered to be a highly valuable agent in the treatment of many kinds of drug poisoning. Drugs that are well adsorbed by activated charcoal include primaquine, propoxyphene, dextroamphetamine, chlorpheniramine, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, digoxin, and aspirin. Mineral acids, alkalines, tolbutamide, and other drugs that are insoluble in acidic aqueous solution are not well adsorbed. Charcoal also does not bind Ca, lithium (Li), or Fe N-acetylbenzoquinoneimine is the hepatotoxic metabolite of which drug? a. Sulindac b. Acetaminophen c. Isoniazid d. Indomethacin e. Procainamide A b . Hepatic necrosis can occur with overdosage of acetaminophen. The hepatic toxicity is the result of the biotransformation of acetaminophen to N-acetylbenzoquinoneimine, which reacts with hepatic proteins and glutathione. This metabolite depletes glutathione, stores and produces necrosis. The administration of N-acetyl-L-cysteine restores hepatic concentrations of glutathione and reduces the potential hepatotoxicity. Sulindac is biotransformed to sulindac sulfide, the active form of the drug. Both sulindac and its metabolites are excreted in the urine

and in the feces. Indomethacin undergoes a demethylation reaction and an N-deacylation reaction Which of the following drug does increase cardiac out (CO) with little change in heart rate (HR). I-Dobutamine II-Clonidine III-methyl dopa A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above A a Fat-soluble vitamins generally have a greater potential toxicity compared with water-soluble vitamins because they are a. More essential to vital metabolic processes b. Metabolically faster c. Avidly stored by the body d. Administered in larger doses e. Involved in more essential metabolic pathways A c Fat-soluble vitamins, especially vitamins A and D, can be stored in massive amounts and, hence, have a potential for serious toxicities. Water-soluble vitamins are easily excreted by the kidney and toxic accumulation rarely occurs Which of the following is an agent useful in the treatment of severe poisoning by organophosphorus insecticides, such as parathion? a. Ethylenediaminotetraacetic acid (EDTA) b. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) c. N-acetyl-L-cysteine d. Carbachol e. Diethyldithiocarbamic acid A b. The organophosphorus insecticides inactivate cholinesterases, which results in accumulation of endogenous acetylcholine (ACh) in nerve tissue and effector organs. Very severe cases of acute poisoning should be treated first with atropine followed immediately by intravenous 2-PAM. Atropine inhibits the actions of ACh at muscarinic cholinergic receptors, whereas 2-PAM reactivates the inactivated cholinesterases. The effectiveness of 2-PAM in reversing cholinesterase inhibition depends on early treatment inasmuch as the aged inhibited enzyme cannot be reactivated Cholesterol gallstones may be dissolved by oral treatment with a. Lovastatin b. Dehydrocholic acid c. Methyl tertiary butyl ether d. Chenodeoxycholic acid e. Monoctanoin A d Chenodeoxycholic acid (chenodiol) and ursodiol have proved to be effective in some patients with cholesterol gallstones. Lovastatin lowers blood cholesterol levels but has no effect on gallstones. Methyl tertiary butyl ether and a new agent, monoctanoin, are infused directly into the common duct and will dissolve gallstones. all of the following beta blockers decrease HDL and increase LDL, EXCEPT: a nadolol b acebutolol c pindolol d atenolol e metoprolol a c ISa is the drug of choice to patient ith HNT and hyperlipidemia beta-blocking drugs possessing ISA, such as acebutolol and pindolol, might be desirable choices as antihypertensive agents, since they do not appear to produce adverse effects on the lipid profile. pindolol has the most favorable lipid profile of all B-blockers...its a fact from a study..we should know it like that... An important drug in the therapy of portal systemic encephalopathy is a. Lactulose b. Lactate c. Loperamide d. Lorazepam e. Loxapine A a Lactulose and lactitol are disaccharides that are not absorbed from the digestive tract. They are thought to improve the generation of ammonia by bacteria, render the ammonia inabsorbable by converting it to ammonium (NH4), and increase transit of bowel content through the gut. Doses of 15-30 ml are administered three times a day; the result is aimed to be 35 soft stools a day, or (in some settings) a stool pH of <6.0.[1][2][4][10] Lactulose may also be given by enema, especially if encephalopathy is severe.[10] More commonly, phosphate enemas are used. This may relieve constipation, one of the causes of encephalopathy, and increase bowel transit.[1] A 2004 review by the Cochrane Collaboration concluded that there was insufficient evidence to determine whether lactulose and lactitol are of benefit for hepatic encephalopathy,[14] but it

remains the first-line treatment for type C hepatic encephalopathy.[1] In acute liver failure, it is unclear whether lactulose is beneficial. Furthermore, it may lead to bloating and as such interfere with a liver transplant procedure if required.[3] Lactulose is a synthetic disaccharide (galactose-fructose) that is not absorbed. In moderate doses, it acts as a laxative. In higher doses, it is capable of binding ammonia and other toxins that form in the intestine in severe liver deficiency and that are believed to cause the encephalopathy. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal opioid; lorazepam is a CNS depressant; loxapine is a heterocyclic antipsychotic Which of the following parenteral iron dose form: A.Ferrous Sulfate B.Ferrous Gluconate C.Ferrous Fumarate D.Iron Dextran E.Elemental Iron A d Necrosis is: a. Gradual degradation in depth of tissues. b. Inflammation of tissues. c. Killing/Death of tissues or bone surrounded by healthy parts (Death in mass). i. (a) Only. ii. (c) Only. iii. (a) & (b) Only. iv. (b) & (c) Only. v. (a), (b), & (c). A c Mr. Brown, 55 year old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination, wakes ups several times in night. His blood pressure indicate 160/95 mm Hg. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to treat Mr. Brown conditions. A-Acebutolol BLabetolol C-Hydralzine D-Doxazosine E-Yohimbine A d alpha blockers used in BPH and will not increase asthma too.. The HLB system is used to classify 1.I. Drug solubility 2.II. Droplet size of aerosols 3.III. Surfactants a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above A b among the following second generation antihistamines which one has the highest degree of sedation? a azelastine b cetirizine c desloratadine d fexofenadine e loratadine a b Diastolic pressure is increased by the following drug: A-Clonidine B-Epinephrine CNorepinephrine D-isoproterenol E-Methyl dopa A c norepinephrine produces increases systolic and diastolic pressure. Epinephrine increases cardiac output and constricts arterioles in skin Isoproterenol Increases systolic pressure and decreases diastolic pressure Which of the following conditions is NOT treated with propranolol? a Pheocromocytoma b Migraine prophylaxis c Essential tremors d Stable congestive heart failure e Myocardial infarction A d the opioid analgesic with the highest incidence of dependence is: a Meperidine b Oxymorphone c Hydrocodone d Levorphanol e Morphine a b Which of the following is the action of parathyroid hormone on the renal tubule? .a) Inhibition of the adenylate cyclase b) Inhibition f distal tubule potassium ion secretion

c) Stimulation of the distal tubule calcium ion reabsorption d) Stimulation of proximal tubular phosphate reabsorption e) Inhibition of production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol A c Which of the following agents may be used as thiopental antagonist? a) Flumazenil b) Naloxone c) Naltrexone d) Atropine e) Aminophilin A e The prevalence rate of a disease has the following features: a. it is dependent on the incidence of the disease b. it is dependent on the duration of illness c. it measures all the current cases in the community d. it can be estimated from a cross-sectional study e. it can be used to determine the health needs of a community A all Prevalence is distinct from incidence. Prevalence is a measurement of all individuals affected by the disease within a particular period of time, whereas incidence is a measurement of the number of new individuals who contract a disease during a particular period of time. To illustrate, a long term disease that was spread widely in a community in 2002 will have a high prevalence at a given point of 2003 (assuming it has a long duration) but it might have a low incidence rate during 2003 (i.e. lots of existing cases, but not many new ones in that year). Conversely, a disease that is easily transmitted but has a short duration might spread widely during 2002 but is likely to have a low prevalence at any given point in 2003 (due to its short duration) but a high incidence during 2003 (as many people develop the disease). As such, prevalence is a useful parameter when talking about long lasting diseases, such as HIV, but incidence is more useful when talking about diseases of short duration, such as chickenpox. All of the following are true of haemolytic jaundice except : a- There is increased production of Bilirubin b- Urobilinogin concentration is increased in urine c- Production of Urobilinogin is increased d- Bilirubin is found in the urine of the patient e- None of the above because all are true A d Alternative Antibiotics for Otitis media for the child allergic to Penicillin include all of the following except : a- Clindamycin b- Erythromycin c- Erythromycin Sulfisoxazole d- Ciprofloxacin eTrimethoprin Sulfamethoxazole A d Which of the following statements about propylthiouracil is false ?i a- It is used for treatment of hyperthyroidism b- It inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones c- It diminishes peripheral deiodination of T4 and T3 d- It inhibits iodide oxidation e- It interferes with the effectiveness of exogenously administered thyroid hormones A e 6-Bacitarcin is not usually given parenterally because of its :i a- Insolubility b- Lack of stability cPain at the injection site d- Lack of potency e- Nephrotoxicity A e What is true about Nasal mucosa? a. Greater surface area than intestine. b. Good blood supply. c. Increase mucocillary clearance. i. (a) only. ii. (c) only. iii. (a), (b) only. iv. (b), (c) only. v. (a), (b), and (c). A ii What are the effects of Schistosoma Mansoni? a. Meningitis. b. Liver cirrhosis. c. Chancer sores. d. Lymphoma. e. Adenopathy. A b

Weakened and bulging portion of or dilatation of the artery due to the pressure forming a sac containing blood may represent: a. Tissue necrosis. b. Aneurism. c. Narrowing of vein. d. Blocking of vein. e. Embolism. A b

Necrobiosis is: a. Gradual degradation in depth of tissues. b. Death of tissues. c. Inflammation of tissues. i. (a) Only. ii. (c) Only. iii. (a) & (b) Only. iv. (b) & (c) Only. v. (a), (b), & (c). A i What is incorrect antiarrhythmic drugs classification A-Class 1a drugs are Na+ channel blocker Slows phase 1 depolarization B-Class 1b drugs are Na+ channel blocker Shortens phase 3 repolarization C-Class 1c Na+ channel blocker Significantly slow phase 0 depolarization DClass II Beta blockers Decrease phase 4 depolarization E-Class III K+ channel blockers prolong phase 3 repolarization F-Class IV Ca2+ channel Shortens action potential A a

A 42-year-old businessman presents with severe crushing central chest pain associated with nausea and sweating. The pain radiates down his left arm He admits to have snorted cocaine whilst at a nightclub. His pain would be the result of cocaine causing: a) Vasospasm in the coronary arteries b) Accelerated atherosclerosis c) Atheromatous plaque rupture d) Coronary artery dissection e) Myocarditis A a antiacids that contain alluminium, calcium or magnesium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following? a Chloramphenicol b cephalexin c erythromycin d tetracycline e Phenoxymethilpenicillin (penicillin V ) a d Which is not considered as 4ps for consumer marketing . a,product b,price c,promotion d,personnel e,place A d

Vertebrae involved in sciatica are: a L1-L2 b L2-L3 c L3-L4 d L4-L5 e none of the above A d

All of the ff is included in a capsule except a,polyethylene glycol b,sorbitol c,glycerine d,water e,surfactant A E which of the following patients would NOT be at increased risck of developing gastrointestinal problems while taking NSAIDS? a a patient taking Pariet b an elderly patient c a patient suffering from H. pylori infection d a patient with asthma e a patient with gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD) a d Pariet = rabeprazole, so that protects against ulcers, decreased risk i will take a stab at it: patients are usually given pariet if they are considered to be 'at risk of developing a GI ulcer how many days after initial treatment should a second application of insecticide be used to eradicate head lice? a 3 b 5 c 7 d10 e 14 a c .to eradicate the eggs after they hatch What is the usual age at which children present with atopic dermatitis? a in the first month of life b before 6 months c before 1 year d before 2 years e before 5 years A b

Which of the following substances has the lowest renal clearance? a) Creatinine b) Glucose c) Potassium ions d) Sodium ions e) PAH (para-amino hippuric acid) A b glucose has low renal clearance because it is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule a lot The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the a) Rate of blood flow to tissue b) Glomerular filtration rate c) Stomach emptying time d) Affinity of the drug for tissue e) Plasma protein binding of the drug A a symptoms of blurred vision and eye pain that is associated with onset in the evening suggests: a. Episcleritis b Keratitis c Uveitis d Glaucoma e Viral conjunctivitis a D no inflammation here Protein kinase is: a. Activated by cyclic AMP. b. Has a regulatory sub unit. c. Its function is limited by some enzymes. i. (a) Only. ii. (c) Only iii. (a), (b) only iv. (b), (c) only v. (a), (b), and (c). A v all What viral pathogen is responsible for the majority of viral conjunctivitis cases? a rhinovirus b Epstein-barr virus c adenovirus d Norwalk-like virus e Rotavirus A c with which form of tinea infection are imidazoles ineffective? a athlete's foot b jock itch c infection involving the body d infection involving the nail e infection on the hand a d nail infections are tinea...lamisil (terbinafine) is good for that . itraconazole is triazole...imidazole like clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole which medicine has NOT been proven to be efficacious in treating dandruff? a coal tar b cetrimide c ketoconazole d zinc pyrithione Selenium sulphide a b ketoconazole (Nizoral shampoo), zn pyrithione (head & shoulders), selenium (selsun blue) cetrimide is antiseptic Cetrimide is a quaternary ammonium compound used as a detergent and, having powerful antiseptic properties, for sterilizing surgical instruments, & cleaning wounds Macrophages are originated from: a. Mast cells. b. Plasma cells. c. Cytotoxic cells. d. Stem cells. e. Monocytes A e there are two types of cells Granulocytes and Monocytes. Granulocytes have a granular cytoplasm, while Monocytes do not have a granular cytoplasm. The granulocytes include Basophils, Eosinophils and Neutrophils (BEN). The basophils have similar characteristics to mast cells, becaue the granules include histamine, which are released in allergy. Also note: differentiation of stem cells: Myeloblasts --> granulocytes --> basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils (BEN) (granules)

Monoblasts --> monocytes --> Macrophages (no granules) Lymphoblast --> lymphocyte --> B and T lymphocyte (no granules) Erythroblast --> Erythrocyte --> Red Blood Cells (no granules) MegaKaryoblasts --> Megakaryocytes --> Platelets (no nucleus and no granules) when supplying acyclovir, patients should be told: a to use product 4 times a day b apply once the rash appears c wash their hands after application Multiple answers are possible a c

we apply aciclovir when we get a 'tingling' sensation - before the actual blistering/rash occurs aciclovir is used 5x dail Which of the following is a selective b-blocker with ISA? A- Atenolol B-Propranolol C-Pindolol DAcebutolol E)Timolol A d Also referred to as intrinsic sympathomimetic effect, this term is used particularly with beta blockers that can show both agonism and antagonism at a given beta receptor, depending on the concentration of the agent (beta blocker) and the concentration of the antagonized agent (usually an endogenous compound, such as norepinephrine). See partial agonist for a more general description. Some beta blockers (e.g. oxprenolol, pindolol, penbutolol and acebutolol) exhibit intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA). These agents are capable of exerting low level agonist activity at the -adrenergic receptor while simultaneously acting as a receptor site antagonist. These agents, therefore, may be useful in individuals exhibiting excessive bradycardia with sustained beta blocker therapy. Agents with ISA are not used after myocardial infarctions, as they have not been demonstrated to be beneficial. They may also be less effective than other beta blockers in the management of angina and tachyarrhythmia. What is true for ACE inhibitors? A-Contraindicated in CHFB-Decrease bradykinin level C- ARBs can be alternatives D-Used safely in pregnancy E) Cause hypokalemia A c in which condition is itching the least prominent? a allergic dermatitis b scabies c fungal infection d psoriasis e lichen planus a d physician asks the pharmacist to compound codeine sulfate tablet triturates containing 10mg of codeine . the pateint needs a 5 day supply and may take 1-2 q4-6h much codeine is needed to fill this prescription? a-300mg b-400mg c-600mg d-1200mg e- just dispense one dose because it is prn a c misbah said 1-2q4-6 take high dose and less time so the dose will be 2 tablet every 4 hours means 6 times aday 12 daily means for 5 days means 60 and each tablet contain 10 mg total will be 600 mg Which of the following medicines can cause dry eyes? 1 Pseudoephedrine 2 atenolol 3 Codeine 4 Isotretinoin 5 Pantoprazole A 4

Medications that cause dry eyes: diuretics, drugs with anticholinergic effects 9e.g. TCAs), Isotrenitoin, HRT (particularly oestrogen alone),androgen antagonists, Cardiac arrhytmic drugs , beta blockers Isotretinoin, is a medication used mostly for cystic acne. It was first developed for brain, pancreatic and other cancers. It is used to treat harlequin-type ichthyosis, a usually lethal skin disease, and lamellar ichthyosis. . It is a retinoid, meaning it is related to vitamin A, and is found in small quantities naturally in the body. side effects : Dry Eyes And Vision, Dry Lips And Skin, Photosensitivity. strictly contraindicated durin pregnancy. what skin condition is caractherized by silvery-white scaly lesions of salmon-pink appearance with well-defined boundaries? a contact dermatitis b rosacea c plaque psoriasis d seborrhoeic dermatitis e pityriasis versicolor a c which respiratory condition is caractherized by shortness of breath and bronchoconstriction? a acute bronchitis b hearth failure c asthma d chronic bronchitis e pneumonia a c what symptom is least associated with athlete's foot? a itch b redness c involvement between toes d scaling e odour a e what is the sensitivity of abalance that can weight 120 of substnce and hs accuracy of 98% error=100-98=2% sensitivity of balance=weight*error=120*.2=24 120*.02=2.4 their is 2 problems in misbah book page 22-20 (calculating active drug moiety) zinc sulfate anhydrous=161 g we have zinc sulfate heptahydrate=znso4{7h2o}=287g so we need .22g of zinc sulfate anhydrous 161g but we have zinc sulfate hepta hydrate =287g so we will use from zinc sulfate heptahydrate=287*.22/161=.392g or 392 mg Drug Z is given by constant IV infusion to a patient with ventricular arrhythmias. The elimination half life for drug Z is 3.5 hours. When would you expect to acheive 90% of the predicted stead state conc in plasma? A - 7.5 hours B - 11.5 hours C- 14.5 hours D - 17.5 hours E - 20.5 hours A c 90% reached in 3.3 half lives which of the following diuretics is linked to ototoxicity at high doses? A Hydrochlorotiazide B Furosemide C Metolazone D Spironlactone E Eplerone a b dont forget OHDANG :))) SIDE EFFECT OF LOOP DIURETICs Which of the following electrophoresis bands visualization techniques have high specificity? (i) coomassie staining (ii) silver staining (iii) immunoblotting /western blott multiple answers A iii Protein separation by SDS page is based on i - molecular weight of protein ii shape of protein iii charge of protein multiple answers possible A i A chromophore is characterized by all the following except i - functional group ii - found in UVVis light absorbing molecules iii - contains electrons of high excitation energy multiple answers possible


ACUTE MIGRAINE TREATMENTS: ergotamine, sumatriptan, (SE) PROPHYLACTIC MIGRAINE TREATMENTS: methysergide, propranolol, amitryptyline (MAP) Keep in mind: bacterial artificial chromosomes, plasmids, and yeast artificial chromosomes can be used as cloning vectors. Which one of the following HIV drugs induces the formation of kidney stones? (a) indenavir (b) lopinavir (c) nelfinavir (d) ritonavir (e) saquinavir A a way to remember: Indians get problems with their kidneys All of the following are nondepolarizing NMJ blockers except: (a) decamethonium (b) pancuronium (c) rocuronium (d) vercuronium (e) atracuronium A a SUCCINYLCHOLINE and DECAMETHONIUM are depolarizing. way to remember SUCCEEDS at DEPOLARIZING - s for succinyl d for decameth All of the following are lipid metabolism disorders except i - gaucher's disease ii - neiman pick disease iii - forbes disease multiple answers possible A iii forbes is carbohydrate, other ones are lipids All are selective B blockers except (a) acebutolol (b) esmolol (C) metoprolol (d) nadolol (e) atenolol A d B Blockers that have ISA include AcePinOx - Acebutolol, Pindolol, Oxyprenolol. Review of Diuretics beautiful diagram here: q=diuretic+tubule&um=1&hl=en&sa=N&biw=1280&bih=825&tbm=isch&tbnid=nZZgLHVJrPIlAM %3A& %2Fg010327.gif%2F50160543%2Fg010327.gif&w=729&h=561&ei=X3S9TeZK8r66QGv1eBH&zoom=1&iact=hc&vpx=407&vpy=153&dur=632&hovh=197&hovw=256&tx= 147&ty=117&sig=103494129124862690835&page=1&tbnh=145&tbnw=188&start=0&ndsp=23& ved=1t%3A429%2Cr%3A1%2Cs%3A0%2Ci%3A73 identify the structural differences between linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid i - number of double bonds ii - position of first double bond iii - cis/trans confirmation multiple answers a II and III %3Domega%2B3%26um%3D1%26hl%3Den%26biw%3D1280%26bih%3D825%26tbm %3Disch%26tbnid%3Dg-7yEN7GR-zp1M%253A%26imgrefurl%3Dhttp%253A%252F %3DvJjeWqJ7YD-hhM%26imgurl%3Dhttp%253A%252F %3D702%26h%3D308%26ei%3DtnK9T8-hHMjM6QHsrYg-%26zoom%3D1%26iact%3Dhc %26vpx%3D450%26vpy%3D563%26dur%3D689%26hovh%3D149%26hovw%3D339%26tx %3D192%26ty%3D123%26sig%3D103494129124862690835%26page%3D2%26tbnh %3D99%26tbnw%3D225%26start%3D24%26ndsp%3D30%26ved%3D1t%253A429%252Cr

%253A8%252Cs%253A24%252Ci %253A206&h=NAQEYHrfCAQH0V8VyDYZJiohWpsKRv_98vPxSXaZhzk12Zw Which of the following vitamin deficiencies lead to stomatitis? A - vitamin b2 B - vitamin A Cvitamin B1 D vitamin E E vitamin K A a Which of the following drugs in patient therapeutic regimen can cause secondary Raynaud's phenomenon: (i) cisplatin (ii) interferon alpha (iii) ondansetron multiple answers possible A cisplatin and interferon. . Secondary Raynaud's can be caused by the following drugs: anti-cancer and cyclosporin, beta blockers, ergotamine, and interferons. Way to remember: RAYBEICC: Raynauds= B blocker + ergot + interf + Cyc + cancerous PKU is characterized by ineffective metabolism of which of the following amino acids a tyrosine b phenyalanine c alanine d isoleucine e proline A b

Urine glucose assay can be performed by: i - clin test ii - glucose oxidase test iii - bromophenol blue test multiple answers A I and ii bromphenol blue detects proteins only Bromophenol blue is also used as a color marker to monitor the process of agarose gel electrophoresis and polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. Since bromophenol blue carries a slight negative charge at moderate pH, it will migrate in the same direction as DNA or protein in a gel Clinitest, a trademark for reagent tablets used to test for the presence of reducing sugars, such as glucose, in the urine. The tablets contain copper sulfate, and the procedure is a modified version of Benedict's qualitative test. It is rarely used in current practice. All of the following are breast cancer biomarkers except a - creatine kinase bb b - esterase c aryl sulfatase b d sialytransferase e hexokinase A e breast cancer markers = CASE - creatine kinase, aryl sulfatase, sialytransferase, esterase =)

please keep in mind: Z = same side = cis in geometrical isomerism E = opposite sides = trans in geometrical isomerism Which one of the following reactions are phase II metabolic reactions? (multiple ans possible) i - sulfoxidation ii - deamination iii acetylation keep in mind that sulfoxidation is not the same thing as sulfate conjugation, and n-deamination can occur in phase I Which of the following antivirals is not used in the treatment of CMV infection i - fomivirsen ii foscarnet, iii -rimantadine. multiple answers possible A I and ii

epipen is it SC epinephrine or IM epinephrine?????? Both...but IM is faster bec. Muscles have more blood vessels.. its mentioned in misbah book that (Tylenol 1 , nitroglycerine SL , insulin , epipen ) are examples of schedule II according to NAPRA it is schedule II Which of the following are biomarkers for the assessment of cardiac muscle: multiple answers possible 1. glycogen protein phosphorylase 2 creatine kinase 3 lactate dehydrogenase A all GPP: The enzyme is one of the "new cardiac markers" which are discussed to improve early diagnosis in acute coronary syndrome. A rapid rise in blood levels can be seen in myocardial infarction and unstable angina Inamrinone is used in the treatment of heart failure because it A blocks stimulating effect of angiotensin ii B induces blood vessel dilation to enhance blood circulation C acts as an inotropic effect increasing force of cardiac muscle contraction d helps kidneys eliminate salt reducing blood volume e slows heart and blocks excessive cardiac stimulation A c Inamrinone, milrinone and Enoximone (phosphodiesterase inhibitors) are used clinically for short-term treatment of cardiac failure. These drugs mimic sympathetic stimulation and increase cardiac output (by causing heart contractions/inotropic) - c is right Which of the following are used for abortive treatments for migraine i - methysergide ii ergotamine iii - sumatriptan multiple answers possible A ii and iii methysergide is prophylaxis only, not abortive. abortive means acute treatment of migraine Which of the following drugs used for treatment of diarrhea are classified as intestinal muscle relaxants multiple answers possible i - codeine ii - loperamide iii paregoric A all Paregoric, or camphorated tincture of opium, also known as tinctura opii camphorata, is a medication known for its antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic properties. Which of the following bacteria are found on the skin (multiple answers possible) i - staph epidermis ii - proponibaccterium acnes iii cornybacterium A all Quelling test uses India Ink to detect (i) Bacteria spores (ii) bacteria flagella (iii) bacteria capsules multiple answers possible A iii Perleche is: candidiasis inside the mouth resulting in creamy white patches mitral valve - left atrium and left ventricle; tricuspid - right atrium and right ventricle In an HIV infected person, the blood tests will indicate: a. High level of CD4 cells. b. Severe depletion of CD4 cells. c. Low level of T-cells. d. High level of T-cells. e. High level of B-cells A b Mutagenesis is due to: a. Genotype. b. Mostly present in rapidly dividing cells. c. Genetic change in DNA. i. (a) Only. ii. (c) only iii. (a), (b) only. iv. (b), (c) only. v. (a), (b), and (c). A i

Mutagenesis ( /mjutdnss/) is a process by which the genetic information of an organism is changed in a stable manner, resulting in a mutation. It may occur spontaneously in nature, or as a result of exposure to mutagens. It can also be achieved experimentally using laboratory procedures. In nature mutagenesis can lead to cancer and various heritable diseases, but it is also the driving force of evolution. Mutagenesis as a science was developed based on work done by Hermann Muller, Charlotte Auerbach and J. M. Robson in the first half of the 20th century

An immunoglobulin that is almost exclusively found inserted into the membrane of B cells, where it somehow regulates the cells activation is: a. IgM. b. IgA. c. IgG. d. IgD. e. IgE A d Which of the following is the most common metabolic reaction in stomach: A-Oxidation BReduction C-Hydrolysis D-Conjugation E-Glucoronidation A c Sulfonamide are indicated in: I-mainly gram +ve and certain gram ve II-mainly gram ve and certain gram + ve III-mainly a typical bacteria. A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above A a An immunoglobulin that combines in star-shaped clusters, and tends to remain in the blood stream, where it is very effective in killing bacteria could be: a. IgM. b. IgA. c. IgG. d. IgD. e. IgE A a A patient is treated by gentamicin through IV infusion every 12 hours. It was found that gentamicin is always below the desired level before the infusion ends by half an hour. This situation is best managed by a) Maintain the dose and decrease the interval b) Change the antibiotic regimen c) Increase the dose and decrease the interval d) Increase the dose and maintain the interval e) Decrease the dose and decrease the interval A a

In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drugs efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows: Drug Cost/Day Dosing frequency Treatment Duration (days) A $2.50 QID 14 B $2.25 Once daily 14 C $5.00 BID 7 D $2.25 BID 7 E $2.25 QID 7 The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. Drug A. b. Drug B. c. Drug C. d. Drug D. e. Drug E. A d

IN THIS QUESTION FIRST LOOK AT THE TIME TO STAY IN HOSPITAL SO THE LEAST IS C,D,AND E THEN LOOK AT THE PRICE AND DOSE (BID,QID) SELECT THE CHEAPEST FOR THE HOSPITAL SO THE RIGHT ANSWR IS D A number of studies have been done on patient counseling methods. The following have been suggested, which one is most appropriate? a. Only verbal directions to the patient b. Only written directions to the patient. c. Both verbal and written directions. d. Magazines and folders information. e. Video information. A c Regulation rules of Canadian Pharmacies are mainly created by: a. Provincial authorities. b. Pharmacy college authorities. c. Governmental authorities. d. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities (NAPRA). e. None of the above. A d In general, when a patient over 50 years old comes to your pharmacy complaining of constipation, what do you suggest to give him? a. Stool softener. b. High fiber diet. c. Cathartic laxative. d. Saline laxative. e. All of the above. A b The manager of the pharmacy made a list of work that should be done by his employers in order of priority, this is called: a. Delegation. b. Job analysis. c. Job description. d. Negligence. e. None of the above. A c The patient should be advised to apply the patch to: a. Dry site of skin. b. A hairless site of skin. c. The same application site each time it is applied. d. In the hand palm. e. Greasy skin A b

Financial statement provides i.e. total income minus expenses is: a. Income statement. b. Profit statement. c. Retained statement. d. Net income statement. e. Income sheet. A d TAKE CARE TO THE DIFFERANCE BETWEEN INCOME STATMENT AND NET INCOME STATEMENT A person comes to the pharmacist complaining hard stool after every 2 or 3 days, what would be the advice for him? a. Stool softener. b. Warm water. c. Dulcolax. d. Cathartics. e. Bulk cathartics A a The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100mg tablets for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used. b. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated. c. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. d. The maximum dosage in any 24 hours period is six tablets. e. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours. A c sumatribtan should be not more thn 2 tablet per day Digoxin toxicity is treated by: a. Digoxin immune tablets. b. Potassium Chloride. c. Amiodarone. d. Digibind. e. Digitoxin. A d

Two products are bioequivalent if they

a.contain the same amount of the same active ingredient. b.have equal areas under the curve after the administration of the same dose. c.have the same value for Cmax after administration of the same dose. d.have equivalent rates and extents of absorption of the drug after administration of equaldoses. e.are pharmaceutically equivalent. A d -Which of the following parameters are used measure bioavailability: A-Cmax B-tmax C-AUC DVd E-Clearance A c bioavailability is a measurement of the rate and extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation.It is denoted by the letter f (or, if expressed in percent. In both pharmacology and nutrition sciences, bioavailability is measured by calculating the area under curve (AUC) of the drug concentration time profile. The bioavailability of various drug products can be evaluated by comparing their plasma concentration-time curves. The three most important parameters of comparison that can beobtained directly from the curves are a.biologic half-life (1/2), absorption rate constant, area under the curve (AUC). b.time of peak concentration (tmax), absorption rate constant, elimination rate constant. c.maximum drug concentration (Cmax), time of peak concentration (tmax), duration of action. d.area under the curve (AUC), time of peak concentration (tmax), maximum drug concentration(Cmax). e.rate of elimination, area under the curve (AUC), rate of absorption. A d PD, a patient in the doctors office with normal renal function is being monitorized to follow up the activity of a new drug. PD was found to have a drug renal clearance LESS than 120mls/min, we can assume that PD is been treated with a drug that has: a) Glomerular filtration only b) Glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption c) Tubular reabsorption only d) Active tubular secretion only e) Glomerular filtration and active tubular secretion A b the renal clearance is less than 120 this means that part has been reabsorbed back to the blood 120mls/min is the normal renal clearance in a normal health adult. When a drug is administrated and the renal clearance is found to have a clearance less than 120mls/mim we may assume that the drug suffers glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption, if the drug is found to have clearance more than 120mls/mim we may assume that the drug suffer glomerular filtration and active tubular secretion Drug + Receptor --> K1 -->DrugReceptor Complex--> K3--> Effect <-- K2 True statements regarding the above reaction is/are: I- If K1 > K2 and K3 = Zero DRcomplex is competitive antagonist II- If K1 > K2 and K3 Zero DRcomplex is agonist III- If K1 < K2 and K3 Zero DRcomplex is agonist

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only K1 and K2 are under each other , they are opposite A c I means that the reaction is towards the formation of drug receptor complex (k1>k2) but the effect is zero then antagonist....(receptor is blocked but no effect) Which is the most lipophilic barrier of the eye: a.Cornea. c. Conjunctiva b.Eye lids d. Aqueous humor A a The best time to give an anti-hyperlipidemic drug like Atrovastatin is at: a.night c. morning b.Afternoon A a synthesis of lipid Inc between 10pm and 2am.. Which compound is used as a preservative & antibacterial: Benzalconium chloride b. Propylene glycol. c. Benzoyl alcohol A a Prolonged use of diuretics causes all of the following except: a.Hypoglycemia d. Hyperuricemia b. hypokalemia e. Alkalosis of urine c. Sexual dysfunction A a what the different between alpha error and b error? A type I error :(False +ve) Type II error: False ve What is the side effect of minoxidil, except a.Hirsutism c. Weight gain b.Fluid retention d. Tachycardia A c The Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialties (CPS) is a useful resource for locating which of the following? a. Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis b. Detailed monographs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in Canada c. Approved indications for all prescription and nonprescription pharmaceuticals in Canada d. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat hypertension e. Bioequivalence data comparing interchangeable pharmaceutical products A a Which of the following is not a G-protein coupled receptor? a) The muscarinic receptor. b) The glycine receptor. c) The adrenergic receptor. d) The glutamate receptor A b Which of the following statements is not true about neurotransmitters? a) Neurotransmitters are released by nerves. b) Neurotransmitters are required to carry a 'message' from a nerve to a target cell. c) Neurotransmitters have significant distances to cover to reach their target cells. d) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on target cells. A c

The synaptic gap between a nerve and its target cell is very small and so neurotransmitters do not have a huge distance to travel to reach their target receptor Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? a) acetylcholine b) cyclic AMP c) noradrenaline d) dopamine A b Cyclic AMP is a secondary messenger that is formed 'downstream' of a receptor activated process What are the two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy? a) Reverse transcriptase and protease. b) Reverse transcriptase and integrase. c) Protease and integrase. d) The viral glycoproteins gp120 and gp41. A a The two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy are reverse transcriptase and protease. However, integrase and the viral glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 are newer, alternative targets for anti-HIV therapy Which of the following protease inhibitors was developed by a hybridisation strategy? a) Ritonavir b) Indinavir c) Saquinavir d) Amprenavir A b Indinavir was developed by linking one half of a structure containing a hydroxyethylene transition-tate isostere with one half of saquinavir. Which of the following statements best describes pharmacodynamics? a) The study of how drugs reach their target in the body and how the levels of a drug in the blood are affected by absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. b) The study of how drugs can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug's pharmacophore. c) The study of how a drug interacts with its target binding site at the molecular level. d) The study of which functional groups are important in binding a drug to its target binding site and the identification of a pharmacophore

Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs reach their target in the body and how the levels of a drug in the blood are affected by absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion. The study of how drugs can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug's pharmacophore is part of a process known as structure-based drug design. Pharmacodynamics is the study of how a drug interacts with its target binding site at the molecular level. Structure activity relationships are studies which are carried out to find which functional groups are important in binding a drug to its target binding site, and hence lead to the identification of a pharmacophore. pharmacokinetics: body's affect on drugs (ADME) pharmacodynamics: drugs affect on body (from binding to receptor site) Which type of infection could be orally treated with a highly polar antibacterial agent? a) brain infection b) kidney infection c) gut infection d) lung infection A c bec meningitis has to b treated with a lipophilic drug to pas BBB polar antibacterial drug will not be able to cross the gut wall, since it will not be able to pass through hydrophobic cell membranes. It will, therefore, remain in the gut and can be used to treat gut infections UTI treated with hydrophilic drugs to stay the longest time possible in GI to treat infection dobutamine is a direct acting inotropic agent parenteraly used in cardiac emergences and characterized by : I- increase mtocardial contractility , very useful in myocrdial infction IIincrease cardiac out put III- increase glomerular filtration rate, renal blood flw and sodium excretion a-I only b- III- only c- I and II d- II and III e- all of the above a e Which of the following groups is least susceptible to cytochrome P450 enzymes? a) terminal methyl groups b) allylic carbons c) benzylic carbon atoms d) quaternary carbon atoms A d Exposed groups such as terminal methyl groups are susceptible to oxidation by cytochrome P450 enzymes, as are activated carbons such as allylic and benzylic carbons. Quaternary carbon atoms are 'buried' and unlikely to be susceptible to cytochrome P450 enzymes Which of the following characteristics is detrimental to oral activity? a) Stability to digestive enzymes. b) Susceptibility to metabolic enzymes. c) Stability to stomach acids.

d) Solubility in both aqueous and fatty environments. A b If an orally administered drug is rapidly metabolised, its lifetime will be short and this will be detrimental to activity. The exceptions to the rule are prodrugs. These are inactive compounds which are converted to active compounds by metabolic reactions. Which of the following statements is not true about cytochrome P450 enzymes? a) They contain haem and magnesium. b) They belong to a general class of enzymes called monooxygenases. c) There are over 30 different cytochrome P450 enzymes. d) Variation in cytochrome P450 enzyme profile between individuals can explain individual variation in drug susceptibility. A a he cytochrome P450 enzymes contain haem and iron. Statements b, c and d are accurate. Alkenes and aromatic groups can be metabolised to diols. Which enzymes are involved? a) cytochrome P450 enzymes b) epoxide hydrolase c) Both of the above. d) Neither of the above. A c Cytochrome P450 enzymes catalyse the formation of an epoxide from an aromatic ring or alkene. Epoxide hydrolase then catalyses the hydrolysis of the epoxide to form a diol Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase I metabolism? a) Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites. b) Reactions which occur in the blood supply. c) Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug. d) Reactions which occur in the gut wall. A c Option c) is the closest description. Options b) and d) are incorrect. Some phase I metabolic reactions can occur in the blood supply or the gut wall, but they do not take place exclusively at either of these sites. Most Phase I reactions take place in the liver. Option a) describes Phase II metabolism where a polar molecule is attached to a polar functional group already present on the drug, or placed there by Phase I metabolism. Which of the following reactions is not a Phase I metabolic transformation? a) reduction of ketones b) conjugation to alcohols c) oxidation of alkyl groups

d) ester hydrolysis A b Reactions which introduce, modify or reveal functional groups are Phase I metabolic reactions. Conjugation reactions involve the attachment of a polar molecule to a polar functional group and are Phase II metabolic reactions. The reduction of a ketone is a functional group modification (ketone to alcohol). The oxidation of an alkyl group introduces a functional group (alcohol, ketone or carboxylic acid). Ester hydrolysis reveals functional groups (the carboxylic acid and the alcohol). Conjugation to an alcohol is a Phase II metabolic reaction. Which of the following enzymes is not involved in catalysing a Phase I metabolic reaction? a) flavin-containing monooxygenases b) monoamine oxidases c) glucuronyltransferase d) esterases A c Flavin-containing monooxygenases catalyse a variety of Phase I oxidation reactions. Monoamine oxidase catalyses the formation of aldehydes from primary amines. Esterases catalyse the hydrolysis of esters. All of these are Phase I metabolic reactions. Glucuronyltransferase catalyses the transfer or attachment of a sugar moiety onto a polar functional group. This is a conjugation reaction which represents a Phase II metabolic reaction. alpha_blockers are mainly used in CV complications. one of the biggest cautions in using alpha blockers is the development of a-tachycardia b-bradycardia c-orthostatic hypotension dhypotension e-increase in cardia out put a c Which of the following terms is used to describe the dose of a drug required to produce a measurable effect in 50% of the animals tested? a) LD50 b) LD1 c) ED50 d) ED9 A c The ED50 is the dose of drug required to produce an effect in 50% of the animals tested. The ED99 is the dose of drug required to produce an effect in 99% of the animals tested. The LD1 and LD50 values represent the dose of drug which kills 1% and 50 % respectively of the animals tested. protein separation by SDS-PAGE is based on: I protein in molecular weight II Protein shape III Protein charge a I b III c I, II d II, III e I, II, III a a What sort of factors might affect the stability of a compound in a pharmaceutical preparation? a) Temperature and humidity

b) UV and visible light c) Container and labels d) All of the above A d correct statements concerning INR: I measures primarily the intrinsic pathway of coagulation II Measures primarily the extrinsic pathway of coagulation III Reference value is 0.8-1.2 a I b III c I, II d II, III d all a d narmal cagulation value 0.8-1.2 with using of anticoagulats like warfarin 2-3 The reference range for prothrombin time is usually around 10-13 seconds; the normal range for the INR is 0.81.2. Clinicians desiring therapeutic anticoagulation may aim for a higher INR - in many cases ranging from 2-3 - using anticoagulants such as warfarin Dna contains all except a,ribose b,dioxyribose c,pentose d,phosphate e,bases A a DNA has - deoxyribose (which is a pentose sugar) linked to A,C,T or G base, linked to phosphate. RNA has -ribose (which is a pentose sugar) linked to A,C,U, or G, linked to phosphate a pateint is using ASA 81 mg enteric coated tablet? What is incorrect about enteric coated tablet ASA? a-enteric coated decrease GI bleeding b-enteric coated decrease GI irritation c- enteric coated absorbed in small intestine d-enteric coated is used for chronic therapy e-uncoated is used to prepare liquid formulations a a Once activated, the proton pump inhibitors bind to exposed amino acids in the proton pump. Which amino acid is involved? a) serine b) cysteine c) lysine d) histidine A b The thiol group of cysteine acts as a nucleophile and reacts with the active drug to produce a disulfide covalent bond between the amino acid and the drug. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. Following administration of a400 mg dose what will be the amount of drug remaining in the body after 12 hours? a 8mg b 10 mg c 25 mg d 40 mg e 50 mg A e 1- Who approves and authorizes the sale of medication in Canada? 2- Who sets the prices of prescription drugs in Canada? 3- Who sets the prices of over the counter drugs in Canada? 4What is Notice of Compliance? 5- What is Trail Review and Approval 6- What is a Common Drug review? Answers: 1-NAPRA 2-Health Canada

3-Pharmacy manager 4- NOTICE OF COMPLIANCE GIVEN TO THEMANFUCTURERE FROM HEALTH CANADA AFTER PHASE 3 LIKE PROVE OF ACCEPTANCE TO SELL THE DRUG IN THE MARKET 5- TRIAL REVIEW AND APPROVAL OTHER NAME FOR PHASE 3 IT WILL TAKE 1-2 YEARS 6- COMMON DRUG REVIEW THIS IS AFTER APPROVAL AND PHYSICIAN START WRITING DRUG EXPLORE ADDITIONAL SIDE EFFECT AND COMPARE THE DRUG WITH COMPATITORS Who determine the prescription drug prices in Canada. A-Pharmacist B-Pharmacy Manager C-Manufacturers D-Distributors E-Health Canada A e heparin is classified as: a. heteropolysaccharide b.oligosaccharide c. homopolysaccharide d.monosaccharide a a Erythroped A : a-is effective against G +ve Cocci b-is a macrolide antibiotic c-can increase g.i.t. motility d-could be used in pregnant women if need e-all of the above A e erythroped A = erythromycin the alpha error is consider significant at: a)1% b)3% c)5% d)10% a c The binding of a drug to plasma proteins may result in: I increased incidence of drug-drug interactions II increased renal clearance III increased drug distribution to tissues A I only B III C I, II D II, III E all A a distrubution to tissue means lipid souluble and not bind to plasma protein and non effective binding to plasma protein meand the drug is stuck in blood, so it neither goes to tissues or kidneys.. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the a) Rate of blood flow to tissue b) Glomerular filtration rate c) Stomach emptying time d) Affinity of the drug for tissue e) Plasma protein binding of the drug A a What onset time of a drug means? a) Time for the drug to be completely absorbed from the intestine b) Time for the drug to reach the steady state c) Time for the drug to reach the maximum effective concentration d) Time for the drug to begin the elimination from the body e) Time for the drug to reach the minimum effective concentration A e Plasma protein that exclusively bind basic drugs include: I- 1-acid glycoprotein II- Lipoproteins III- Albumin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct A c HCl + NH3 NH4Cl, at equilibrium. When added double amount of NH3 it will lead to: I- Increase the K of reaction II- Decrease the K of reaction III- K will be constant a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct A b ALWAYS K IS A CONSTANT FOR THE DRUG CAUSE HALF LIFE FOR THE DRUG CONSTANT EVEN IF U INCREASE THE CONCENTRATION Rate and extent of drug distribution are very important in determining the velocity and quantity of drug that would reach the systemic circulation. An important factor that affects the RATE of drug distribution is:

a) Protein binding b) Blood flow c) Lipid solubility d) pKa of the drug e) pH of the drug A b The RATE of distribution of a drug may be affected by blood flow and membrane permeability while the EXTENT of drug distribution is mainly altered by lipid solubility, protein binding, pKa and pH A patient has creatinin clearance 40 ml/min, which of the following statement is correct: I-GFR only functioning II-GFR and reabsorption are functioning III-GFR and active secretions are functioning A III Adding 150mMol of NaCl to water pH 7.4, compared to water with no NaCl added. Will result in: a) Decrease of ionization for both weak acids and bases b) Decrease of ionization for weak acids and increase for weak bases c) Increase of ionization for weak acids and decrease for weak bases d) Increase of ionization for both weak acids and bases e) No measurable effect on ionization for both weak acids and bases A a In PD, a 9 months old female, bilirrubin is 99.9% bound to plasma protein. When attending total plasma bilirrubine concentration is 9mol/L (0.5mg/L). This means that: a) 99.9% of the bilirrubin in her body is bound to the albumin found in plasma b) 99.9% of the bilirrubin is found in plasma c) Commonly used drugs cannot displace bilirrubin because it is so highly bound d) 0.1% of total plasma bilirrubin is not protein bound e) Virtually all of the plasma protein binding sites are occupied by bilirrubin A d Which doesnt decrease in elderly: a- water content b- lean body mass c-kidney function dglomerular filtration e- serum creatinine A e Measuring serum creatinine is a useful and inexpensive method of evaluating renal dysfunction. Creatinine is a non-protein waste product of creatine phosphate metabolism by skeletal muscle tissue. Creatinine production is continuous and is proportional to muscle mass. Creatinine is freely filtered and therefore the serum creatinine level depends on the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). Renal dysfunction diminishes the ability to filter creatinine and the serum creatinine rises. If the serum creatinine level doubles, the GFR is considered to have been halved. A threefold increase is considered to reflect a 75% loss of kidney function. Reference values for serum creatinine: Adult males: 0.8 - 1.4 mg/dl: values are slightly higher in males due to larger muscle mass Adult females: 0.6 - 1.1 mg/dl: creatinine clearance is increased in pregnancy, resulting in lower serum levels Children: 0.2 - 1.0 mg/dl: slight increases with age because values are proportional to body mass A panic value for creatinine is 10 mg/dl in nondialysis patients. Increased serum creatinine levels are seen in: Impaired renal function Chronic nephritis Urinary tract obstruction Muscle diseases such as gigantism, acromegaly, and myasthenia gravis Congestive heart failure Shock Decreased creatinine levels may be seen in: the elderly, persons with small stature, decreased muscle mass, or inadequate dietary protein. Muscle atrophy can also result in decreased serum creatinine level. If muscle atrophy is suspected, assessment of serum creatine, an important enzyme necessary for normal muscle function, is done. The only important pathological condition that causes a significant increase in the serum creatinine level is damage to a large number of nephrons. Unlike the BUN, the serum creatinine

level is not affected by hepatic protein metabolism. Tests to measure serum creatinine, urine creatinine, and creatinine clearance are all used only to evaluate renal function. Only renal dysfunction changes the results. The serum creatinine level does not rise until at least half of the kidney's nephrons are destroyed or damaged. Because creatinine levels rise and fall more slowly than BUN levels, creatinine levels are often preferred to monitor renal function on a longterm basis. the following factors may result in drug pharmacokinetic variability, I drug-drug interactions II patient compliance III Diet a I b III c I, II d II, III e all a e which of the following statements concerning therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) are correct? I Tdm guides the design of effective and safe in individualized drug regimens II TDM helps mantain consistent level of drug in the bloodstream III TDM is required for all therapeutic agents a I b III c I, II d II, III e all a c TDM of digoxin is 0.8-2 mg/ml TDM of lithium is 0.8 to 1.2 Which of the following vitamins is produced by bacteria on the colon? a vit K1 b vit D3 c vit D2 d Vit K2 e vit C A d Adenosine is used for : a-ventricular arrythmias b-atrial bradycardia c-supraventricular tachycardia d-supraventricular bradycardia e-non of the above A c adenosine - responsible for inhibition of the CNS, also causes AV node block, vasodilation. it has a similar structure to caffeine, so binds to the same receptors but more of an inhibitory which one of the following electrophoresis bands visualization techniques have high specificity? I Coomassie staining II Silver staining III Immunoblotting (western blot) a I b III c I, II d II, III e all a b Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE A a ig M is the pentameric one that is released quickly, IgE is for asthma, ig G is most commo Which of the following statements regarding the stimulation of peripheral alpha1-adrenoceptors is true? A increases heart rate B elevates systolic blood pressure C is the major action of phentolamine D causes flushing E constricts bronchioles A b