Reasoning Q1 2 Q11 1 Q21 5 Q2 5 Q12 3 Q22 4 Q3 4 Q13 5 Q23 1 Q4 3 Q14 2 Q24 5 Q5 3 Q15 1 Q25 4 Q6 2 Q16 1 Q7 1 Q17 4 Q8 2 Q18 5 Q9 4 Q19 2 Q10 3 Q20 3

Numerical ability Q1 Q2 4 2 Q11 Q12 3 1 Q21 Q22 1 2 General Knowledge Q1 1 Q11 2 Q21 2

Q3 1 Q13 2 Q23 1

Q4 1 Q14 3 Q24 5

Q5 4 Q15 1 Q25 3

Q6 1 Q16 3

Q7 4 Q17 1

Q8 4 Q18 2

Q9 4 Q19 1

Q10 2 Q20 1

Q2 3 Q12 1 Q22 4

Q3 2 Q13 3 Q23 2

Q4 3 Q14 3 Q24 4

Q5 3 Q15 3 Q25 5

Q6 2 Q16 3

Q7 3 Q17 3

Q8 4 Q18 1

Q9 2 Q19 1

Q10 2 Q20 2

English Q1 3 Q11 3 Q21 2

Q2 4 Q12 1 Q22 1

Q3 3 Q13 4 Q23 1

Q4 4 Q14 1 Q24 4

Q5 2 Q15 3 Q25 1

Q6 5 Q16 4

Q7 1 Q17 1

Q8 3 Q18 3

Q9 2 Q19 3

Q10 3 Q20 1

Instructions

1. This test is of two hour duration. 2. It has got four sections in it – REASONING, NUMERICAL ABILITY, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE and ENGLISH. 3. Each Question is of 1 mark. Right answer will fetch you 1 mark. Each wrong answer would award you (-.25) marks. 4. Do not use calculators, log tables, dictionaries or any printed material or online reference material while taking the test. 5. You may use rough paper for this test. 6. Treat this as a competitive test--in a real test, any time you take off in the middle of the test is time wasted. Plan your day so that you avoid interruptions during the test. 7. Remember that only a high aggregate score is not enough, you need to do well in ALL sections of this test.

Reasoning
1. In a certain code, HUMANITY is written as BNVIZUJO. How is EQUATION written in that code?

1) BVRFUJPO 2) BVRFOPJU 3) BUVJPRFO 4) BVJURFPO 5) None of these

2. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a left turn and drives 2 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

1) 3 km towards North 2) 7 km towards East 3) 6 km towards south 4) 6 km towards West 5) 4 km towards North

3. If 'A + B' means 'A is father of B', 'A × B' means 'A is daughter of B', 'A ÷ B' means 'A is brother of B', 'A - B' means 'A is wife of B', then how is ‘S’ related to ‘P’ in P – Q + R ÷ S ?

1) Son 2) Daughter 3) Father 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

4. In a certain code, FOUND is written as OFTDN. How is CODES written in that code?

1) SECOC 2) OCESE 3) OCCSE 4) OCCES 5) None of these

5. Statements Some pens are sticks. Some sticks are scales. All scales are weights. All weights are canes. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Conclusions I. II. III. Some scales are pens. Some weights are sticks. All scales are canes.

1) None follow 2) Both I and II follow 3) Both II and III follow 4) Both I and III follow 5) None of these

6. Pointing to a boy Rama said, “He is the son of my father-in-law’s only son”. How is the boy related to Rama?

1) Nephew 2) Son 3) Brother 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of the above

7. The position of the first and the fifth digits in the number 37498150 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be fourth digit from the right after the re-arrangement?

1) 3 2) 7 3) 1 4) 8 5) None of these

8.

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

9.

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

10.

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 14) These questions are based on the following information. Eight persons L, M, N, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the center. Q is not the neighbor of P or R. M is second to the left of T and third to the right of P. R is third to the left of N who is to the immediate left of T. L is second to the right of P.

11. Who is to the immediate left of R? 1) P 2) L 3) S 4) M 5) None of these

12. In which of the following pair of persons, the second person is to the immediate left of the first person?

1) TQ 2) PR 3) ML 4) RL 5) None of these

13. Which of the following pair of persons represent the neighbor of T?

1) MN 2) QS 3) RP 4) ML 5) None of these

14. Which of the following is definitely true?

1) T is to the immediate right of Q 2) P is to the immediate right of S 3) M is between L and P 4) Q is between P and S 5) None of the above

15. Directions (Q. Nos. 15 to 18) These questions are based on the following arrangement of numerals, symbols and letters. WTDI5MR%L\$38FEB#1ZHA©@JUV24 If RL: \$8, then B1:

1) ZA 2) H© 3) ZH 4) ©J 5) None of these

16. If the first ten elements in the arrangement are reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh element from the left?

1) D 2) % 3) R 4) 1 5) None of these

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

1) D5W 2) L3R 3) E#8 4) H©Z 5) U2@

18. Which element is exactly midway between the eighth element from the left and the tenth element from the right?

1) E 2) 8 3) B 4) # 5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 19 to 22) For recruiting Management trainees in an organization, the following criteria have been laid down. The candidate must

a) Be a first class graduate in Commerce with at least 65% marks b) Have secured at least 70% marks in SSC c) Be not more than 26 years and not less than 21 years of age as on 1-8-2012 d) Have secured at least 60% marks in selection test e) Have secured at least 50% marks in selection interview However, if a candidate fulfills all the above-mentioned criteria except i) At (a) above but is an Economics graduate with at least 70% marks, the case may be referred to the GM of the organization At (e) above but has secured at least 40% in the selection interview and at least 70% in the selection test, the case may be referred to the President of the organization

ii)

In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1-8-2012.

19. Sushant is B.Com in first class with 61% marks and M.Com also in first with 69% marks. Her marks in SSC were 89%. She has completed 24 years of age on 3rd October 2011. She has scored 66% marks in selection test and 66% marks in interview. 1) If the candidate is to be selected 2) If the candidate is not to be selected 3) If the case is to be referred to the GM 4) If the case is to be referred to the President 5) If the data is inadequate to decide the course of action

20. Rohit has passed SSC with 78% marks and Graduation in Arts with specialization in Economics with 72% marks. His date of birth is 12-6-1990. He has scored 69% marks in selection test as well as in interview.

1) If the candidate is to be selected 2) If the candidate is not to be selected 3) If the case is to be referred to the GM 4) If the case is to be referred to the President

5) If the data is inadequate to decide the course of action

21. SaritaAgarwal is postgraduate in Commerce, passes in first class with 58% marks. Her score in SSC was 75%. She has completed 23 years of age on 23rd December, 2011. She has scored 64% marks in selection test and 55% marks in selection interview.

1) If the candidate is to be selected 2) If the candidate is not to be selected 3) If the case is to be referred to the GM 4) If the case is to be referred to the President 5) If the data is inadequate to decide the course of action

22. Suresh is a B.Com passed in first class with 73% marks. She had scored 81% marks in SSC. Her date of birth is 21-10-1989. She has cleared the selection test with 76% marks and the selection interview with 45% marks.

1) If the candidate is to be selected 2) If the candidate is not to be selected 3) If the case is to be referred to the GM 4) If the case is to be referred to the President 5) If the data is inadequate to decide the course of action

Directions (Q. Nos. 23 to 25) In these questions, the symbols @, #, \$, * and © are used with different meanings as follows. ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B.’ ‘A # B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’ ‘A \$ B’ means ‘A is greater than B.’ ‘A * B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B.’ ‘A Δ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.’

In each equation, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusion I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are true.

23. Statements H # Q, Q @ F, L \$ F Conclusions I. L \$ H II. H # F Give the answer 1) If only conclusion I is true 2) If only conclusion II is true 3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true 4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true 5) If both conclusions I and II are true

24. Statements U # D, D @ R, R Δ T Conclusions I. U @ R II. T \$ D Give the answer 1) If only conclusion I is true 2) If only conclusion II is true 3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true 4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true 5) If both conclusions I and II are true

25. Statements M * L, L \$ K, K @ R Conclusions I. M * R II. M @ R Give the answer 1) If only conclusion I is true 2) If only conclusion II is true

3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true 4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true 5) If both conclusions I and II are true

Numerical Ability
1. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 4:3 respectively. If 6 L of water is added to this mixture, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 8:7. What is the quantity of milk in the original mixture? 1) 96 L 2) 36 L 3) 84 L 4) 48 L 5) None of these

2. The average of 4 positive integers is 59. The highest integer is 83 and the lowest integer is 29. The difference between the remaining two integers is 28. Which of the following integers is higher of the remaining two integers? 1) 48 2) 76 3) 39 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

3. By how much are three-fourth of 52 lesser than two-third of 99? 1) 27 2) 33 3) 39 4) 66

5) None of these

4. Find the average of the following set of scores :198, 309, 256, 488, 145, 326, 427

1) 307 2) 315 3) 298 4) 326 5) None of these

5. The product of two successive numbers is 6162. Which is the larger number? 1) 78 2) 77 3) 81 4) 79 5) None of these

6. If (41)2is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 7457. What is the number? 1) 76 2) 63 3) 81 4) 82 5) None of these

7. Complete the series :380, 465, 557, 656, 762, 875, ___ 1) 955

2) 1015 3) 975 4) 995 5) 1025

8. One-fourth of a number is 17. What will 45% of that number be? 1) 51 2) 45.4 3) 37.4 4) 30.6 5) None of these

9. The difference between 38% of a number and 24% of the same number is 135.10. What is 40% of that number? 1) 394 2) 370 3) 378 4) 386 5) None of these

10. A trader sells 145m of cloth for Rs. 12325 at the profit of Rs. 10 per m of cloth. What is the cost price of 1m of cloth? 1) 65 2) 75 3) 95 4) 85 5) None of these

11. ‘A’ can complete a piece of work in 12 days. ‘A’ and ‘B’ together can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the same piece of work?

1) 15 days 2) 18 days 3) 24 days 4) 28 days 5) None of these

12. Raman drove from home to a neighboring town at the speed of 50 km/hr. and on his returning journey; he drove at a speed of 45 km/hr. and also took an hour longer to reach home. What distance did he cover each way? 1) 450 km 2) 225 km 3) 900 km 4) 500 km 5) None of these

13. Manish borrowed a sum of Rs. 1150 from Anil at simple interest rate of 6 pc. P.a for 3 years. He then added some more money and lent it to Sunil for the same time at 9 pc. P.a at simple interest. If Manish gains Rs. 274.95 by the way of interest on borrowed sum as well as on his own amount from the whole transaction, then what is the sum lent by him? 1) Rs. 1290 2) Rs. 1785 3) Rs. 1285 4) Rs. 1200 5) None of these

14. What will be the area of circle with circumference equal to 22 cm? 1) 41.2 sq. cm.

2) 26.4 sq. cm 3) 38.5 sq. cm 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of the above 15. Directions (Q. Nos. 15 to 19): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

× × × ? = 790

1) 8848 2) 8246 3) 8484 4) 8868 5) None of these

16. 968 × 445 ÷? = 17230.4 1) 60 2) 40 3) 25 4) 35 5) None of these

17. 45% of 224 × ?% of 120 = 8104.32 1) 67 2) 62 3) 59 4) 71 5) None of these

18. 74156 - ? – 321 – 20 + 520= 69894 1) 3451 2) 4441 3) 5401 4) 4531 5) None of these

19. 555.05 + 55.50 +5.55 +5 + 0.55 =? 1) 621.65 2) 655.75 3) 634.85 4) 647.35 5) None of these

20. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 500% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is1 . What was the original fraction? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) None of these

Directions (Q. No. 21-25): Please refer to the following chart and answer the below questions:-

Total No. of passengers in six trains = 4800 21. What was the average number of passengers travelling in Train A, Train C and Train F together? 1) 816 2) 826 3) 824 4) 812 5) None of these 22. If the cost of one ticket is Rs. 124, what is the total amount paid by passengers of Train B? (Assuming all the passengers purchased tickets and cost of each ticket is equal) 1) Rs. 53,658 2) Rs. 53,568 3) Rs. 53,558 4) Rs. 53,468 5) None of these 23. The number of passengers in Train E is approximately what percentage of the total number of passengers in Train B and Train D together?

1) 63 2) 69 3) 75 4) 54 5) 79 24. What is the difference between the number of passengers in Train C and the number of passengers in Train A? 1) 280 2) 250 3) 230 4) 260 5) None of these 25. What is the total number of passengers in Train D, Train E and Train F together? 1) 2796 2) 3225 3) 2976 4) 3125 5) None of these

General Knowledge
1. At present how many life insurance and general insurance companies are operating in India? 1) life Insurance – 24 , General Insurance – 27 2) life Insurance – 27 , General Insurance – 24 3) life Insurance – 20 , General Insurance – 30 4) life Insurance – 30 , General Insurance – 20 5) None of these

2. The RBI issues currency notes under the 1) Fixed Fiduciary System 2) Maximum Fiduciary System

3) Fixed Minimum Reserve System 4) Proportional Reserve System 5) None of these

3. The author of the book “India Wins Freedom” is 1) KuldeepNayyar 2) MaulanaAbul Kalam Azad 3) JawaharLal Nehru 4) Mahatma Gandhi 5) B. R. Ambedkar

4. Who among the following won the Kyoto Prize in the Arts and Philosophy Category on November 10, 2012? 1) Ivan Sutherland 2) Yoshinori Ohsumi 3) GayatriChakravortySpivak 4) Abbas AdilRaza 5) Dr. Karan Singh

5. The fact which is material to the risk is decided by the 1) Proposer 2) Agent 3) Underwriters 4) Adviser 5) None of these

6. If a policyholder is reported missing for more than seven years then 1) Maturity claim is payable 2) Death Claim is payable assuming non-accidental death

3) Ex-gratia benefit is payable 4) Either (1) or (2) 5) None of these

7. Which of the following is not true about JeevanAkhshay Policy? 1) No medical examination is necessary to get the policy 2) Post dated monthly cheques are sent in advance for the whole year 3) No person is paid 4) The minimum amount to be invested is Rs 10000 5) None of these

8. The number of females per 1000 males in India’s population (Census 2011) is 1) 900 2) 929 3) 933 4) 940 5) None of these

9. International Monetary Fund helps India with 1) Short term capital to hide over any temporary difficulty in Balance of Payments 2) Long term capital for purposes of reconstruction and development 3) Medium term capital to build up infrastructure 4) Grants at subsidized rates to stimulate private investment 5) All of these

10. Who among the following won the Tata Literature Live! First Book Award at the Mumbai Litfest on November 4, 2012? 1) Nilanjana Roy 2) Ruchir Sharma

3) AmanSethi 4) Sudha Shah 5) ReemaBhoghle

11. Who is the proponent and propagandist of the “Art of Living”? 1) Maharshi Mahesh Yogi 2) Shri Ravi Shankar 3) Swami Chinmayananda 4) Bhagwan Rajneesh 5) DheerendraBrahmachari

12. Who among the following on September 6, 2012 became the first Union Minister to be commissioned as a regular officer in the Territorial Army? 1) Sachin Pilot 2) Naveen Jindal 3) Ajay Maken 4) Jitendra Singh 5) None of these

13. Which of the following International Tennis Tournaments is held on grass court? 1) US Open 2) French Open 3) Wimbledon 4) Australian Open 5) None of these

14. Which of the following is not correct? 1) If loan is accumulated guaranteed surrender value is not payable 2) Whole life Insurance Plan is a type of Term Insurance Plan

3) A bank cannot ensure the lives of its credit card holders 4) Money Back plan is a type of endowment plan 5) None of these

15. The Vice President of India is elected by 1) The members of the Parliament 2) The members of the RajyaSabha 3) The elected members of the Parliament 4) The members of Parliament and State Legislatures 5) None of these

16. A person resident in India may take a general insurance policy issued by a n insurer outside India, provide that before taking that policy he has obtained a no objection certificate from the 1) IRDA 2) FEMR 3) Central Government of India 4) Finance Ministry 5) Reserve Bank of India

17. Who among the following won the Women’s singles title at the US Open tennis on September 9, 2012? 1) Victoria Azarenka 2) Maria Sharapova 3) Serena Williams 4) Sara Errani 5) Venus Williams

18. The summit of the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum was held is Vladivostok on September 8, 2012. The city of Vladivostok is located in

1) Russia 2) Brazil 3) Ukraine 4) Albania 5) Kazakhstan

19. Which of the following statements is not correct? 1) An insurance policy is contract in itself as per Insurance Act 1938 2) Any dispute regarding insurance is referred to the Ombudsman 3) Annuity plan provides guaranteed pension to the annuitant 4) Financial Underwriting is done to evaluate capacity of paying premium 5) None of these

20. Which of the following items is not included in the current account of India’s Balance of Payment? 1) Short-term commercial borrowings 2) Non-monetary gold movement 3) Investment Income 4) Transfer Payment 5) None of these

21. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is 1) Deflation 2) Inflation 3) Recession 4) Stagflation 5) None of these

22. Which of the following policies is not under the LIC mutual fund?

1) JeevanChhaya 2) JeevanAkshay 3) JeevanDhara 4) JeevanNavkishore 5) None of these

23. Which among the following is not a work of RabindraNath Tagore? 1) Chitra 2) KapalaKundala 3) The Court Dancer 4) Chithrangada 5) None of these

24. What is referred to as “Depository Services”? 1) A scheme of fixed deposits 2) A method of regulating stock exchanges 3) An agency for safe keeping of securities 4) An advisory service to investors 5) None of these

25. Which of the following is the only public sector company in the field of life insurance? 1) General Insurance Company 2) New India Assurance company 3) Oriental Insurance Company 4) Sahara Life Insurance 5) Life Insurance Corporation of India

English
Directions (1-3): Read the below sentences to check whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence only. If there is no error, then select ‘No Error’ option.

1. I usually took (1) | part in the skating (2) | championship organize (3) | at the school level. (4) | Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) No error

2. He plays guitar (1) | very well but (2) | he is not as good (3) | drummer as Ashok is. (4) | Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) No error

3. The customer was upset (1) | with the representative because (2) | the representative were not ready (3) | to help him in the way he expected. (4) |

Error is in:

1) 2) 3) 4) 5) No error Directions (4 -8):

In each of the questions below, a sentence with four bold words is given. One of these four bold letters, numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Your job is to find out that wrong word and mark the appropriate number corresponding to it. If there is no error, then select ‘All Correct’ option. 4. Roshanwent (1) to South Korea for further (2) studies. He experienced (3) that the people in South Korea are generally calm and living (4) a peaceful life. Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) All Correct

5. Education (1) | is necessary for developing intellectual (2) | ability. Also, without formal (3) | education it is difficult (4) | to get a good job. Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) All Correct

6. China and India are most populous (1) | nations in the world. They both are Asian nations and are developing. (2) | They are separated (3) | by Himalayan range in northern (4) | India.

Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) All Correct

7. Whenever a person want (1) | to shop online, he goes to a few (2) | online retailers. These days, some retailers are selling products specific to niche categories. Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) All Correct

8. The project needs serious (1) | and urgent consideration. (2) | All teammates (3) | are need to resolve (4) | the issue. Error is in: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) All Correct

Directions (9 -13): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been marked with a number. These numbers represent the question number against which five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

She looked at the man. He was walking on the sidewalk. She did not know this man. He was a ___ (9) ___. She did not trust this man. He did not (10) in this neighborhood. She was driving her car slowly. She was almost home. She drove past the man. She watched him in her (11) ___ -view mirror. He stopped walking on the sidewalk. He walked up her neighbor’s driveway. A car was in the driveway. He walked up to the driver's door. He stopped. Then he walked ___ (12) ____to the sidewalk. What he was doing, she wondered. Then she realized what he was doing. He was testing the driver's door. He was testing it to see if it was ___ (13) ____. She called the police.

9. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

Lean man Stranger friend hulk player

10. 1) Read 2) Play 3) Live 4) Study 5) Work 11. 1) Front 2) Back 3) Rear 4) Top 5) Window

12. 1) Back 2) Straight 3) Towards 4) Front 5) Backwards

13. 1) Locked

2) 3) 4) 5)

Hinged Lock Open Opened

Directions (14 -19): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

How many things can you see in the night sky? A lot! On a clear night you might see the Moon, some planets, and thousands of sparkling stars. You can see even more with a telescope. You might see stars where before you only saw dark space. You might see that many stars look larger than others. You might see that some stars that look white are really red or blue. With bigger and bigger telescopes you can see more and more objects in the sky. And you can see those objects in more and more detail. But scientists believe there are some things in the sky that we will never see. We won't see them with the biggest telescope in the world, on the clearest night of the year. That's because they're invisible. They're the mysterious dead stars called black holes. You might find it hard to imagine that stars die. After all, our Sun is a star. Year after year we see it up in the sky, burning brightly, giving us heat and light. The Sun certainly doesn't seem to be getting old or weak. But stars do burn out and die after billions of years. As a star's gases burn, they give off light and heat. But when the gas runs out, the star stops burning and begins to die. As the star cools, the outer layers of the star pull in toward the center. The star squashes into a smaller and smaller ball. If the star was very small, the star ends up as a cold, dark ball called a black dwarf. If the star was very big, it keeps squashing inward until it's packed together tighter than anything in the universe. Imagine if the Earth were crushed until it was the size of a tiny marble. That's how tightly this dead star, a black hole, is packed. What pulls the star in toward its center with such power? It's the same force that pulls you down when you jump — the force called gravity. A black hole is so tightly packed that its gravity sucks in everything — even light. The light from a black hole can never come back to your eyes. That's why you see nothing but blackness.

So the next time you stare up at the night sky, remember: there's more in the sky than meets the eye! Scattered in the silent darkness are black holes — the great mystery of space.

14. According to the article, what causes a star to die? 1) As its gases run out, it cools down. 2) It collides with other stars. 3) It can only live for about a million years. 4) As it gets hotter and hotter, it explodes. 5) Star is not able to withstand the gravity pull of bigger stars.

15. Read this sentence from the story. They're the mysterious dead stars called black holes. What is a synonym for the word mysterious? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) ordinary bright strange common simple

16. Which of the following statements is NOT a fact? 1) Black holes are dead stars. 2) Black holes have gravity. 3) Black holes are invisible. 4) There is nothing as mysterious as a black hole. 5) Black holes are very tightly packed

17. What happens AFTER a star dies? 1) It becomes invisible. 2) It falls to Earth. 3) It burns up all of its gases. 4) It becomes brighter and easier to see. 5) It definitely turns into a white dwarf.

18. Why can't you see light when you look at a black hole? 1) because most black holes are so far away

2) 3) 4) 5)

because black holes are having low gravity because the gravity of a black hole is so strong that it sucks the light inward because as the star's gases burn, it stops giving off heat and light Because as a star cools, its outer layers pull in toward its center.

19. Read this sentence from the story. The Sun certainly doesn't seem to be getting old or weak. What is an antonym for the word weak? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Thin Tired Robust Big Small

Directions (20 -22): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) into a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A) "It is not for the US to determine what the terms of this peace will be, but what we have also been very clear about is that from our perspective, it is not possible to reconcile without the Taliban renouncing terrorism," Obama said at a joint news conference with Karzai. (B) He, however, asserted that the Taliban must put its views through a constitutional process and not by restoring to violence. (C) The decision was agreed on during the meeting between visiting Afghan President Hamid Karzai and his US counterpart Barack Obama yesterday. (D) "We recommitted our nations to a reconciliation process between the Afghan government and the Taliban. President Karzai updated me on Afghan government's road map to peace, and we have agreed that this process should be advanced by the opening of a Taliban office to facilitate talks," Obama added. (E) The US and Afghanistan have agreed upon holding talks with the Taliban, noting that restoration of lasting peace in the trouble-torn region is not possible without the terrorist group departing from terrorism. (F) To facilitate a dialogue process involving the outfit, the two countries have decided on opening a Taliban representative office in Qatar as part of the reconciliation process of the terrorist group.

20. Which of the following should be the ‘THIRD’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) F

21. Which of the following should be the ‘FIRST’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) F 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) A 22. Which of the following should be the ‘FOURTH’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) F 4) C 5) D

Directions (23 -25): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) into a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A) South Korea's subsequent history is marked by alternating periods of democratic and autocratic rule. Civilian governments are conventionally numbered from the First Republic of Syngman Rhee to the contemporary Sixth Republic. (B) This led in 1948 to the establishment of two separate governments, each claiming to be the legitimate government of all of Korea. (C) The Soviets and Americans were unable to agree on the implementation of Joint Trusteeship over Korea. (D) Eventually, following the Korean War, the two separate governments stabilized into the existing political entities of North and South Korea. (E) In the aftermath of the Japanese occupation of Korea which ended with Japan's defeat in World War II in 1945, Korea was divided at the 38th parallel north in accordance with a United Nations arrangement, to be administered by the Soviet Union in the north and the United States in the south. 23. Which of the following should be the ‘FIRST’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) E 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) B 24. Which of the following should be the ‘SECOND’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) A

2) 3) 4) 5)

B D C E

25. Which of the following should be the ‘FIFTH’ sentence in the rearrangement? 1) A 2) D 3) E 4) B 5) C