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Duration:1.5Hour Max Marks:180 INSTRUCTIONS 1. Candidate will be awarded three marks each for indicated correct response of each question marks for indicated a incorrect (or no response)response of each MCQ question. 2. The Question Paper Code is printed on the top right corner of this page. 3. The Question Paper contains 60 questions before starting the paper; ensure that all Questions are in order. 4.Blank Papers , clip boards, log tables , slide Rule, Calculations, mobiles or any other electronic Gadgets in any form is NOT PERMISSIBLE In test centre premises. 5. Write your NAME & Roll Number in the space provided at the bottom of this page. 6. No query related to question paper of any type is to be made to the invigilator. and zero

Name: Roll No. Invigilators Sign.

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PART -1 (Mathematics)
1. The value of the expression (a) 0 (b) 1

1 1 1 + + will be ( a b)( a c ) (b c )(b a ) (c a )(c b )

(c) 1 (d) a+b+c

2. If x = 7 4 3 , the value of x2 + (a) 146 (b) 148

1 will be x2
(c) 194 (d) 196

3. If all dimensions of a cube are increased by 100%, the volume of the cube will increase by (a) 700% (b) 500% (c) 300% (d) 100%

4. ABCD is a parallelogram. P is the mid-point of AB. BD and CF intersect at Q. CQ : QP = 3: 1. If ar ( PBQ) = 10 cm2, then ar (11gm ABCD) is (a) 130 cm 2 (c) 120 cm 2. (b) 160 cm 2. (d) 90 cm 2

5. Medians of AABC intersect at C. If ar ( ABC) = 27 cm 2, then ar ( BGC) is (a) 12 cm 2 (c) 18 cm 2. (b) 6 cm 2. (d) 9 cm 2.

6. Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to each other in the form of (a) an axiom (b) a definition (b) (c) a postulate (d) a proof (d) -

5n + 2 6.5 n +1 5 7. equals to (a) n n +1 3 13.5 2.5

Space for rough work

5 3

(c)

3 5

3 5

8. If 2 = 1.4142, then (a) 0.1718.

2 1 is equal to 2 +1
(b) 5.8282. (c) 0.4142. (b) (d) 2.4142. (c) 2 (d) 4.

9. Value of [84/3 22 ]1/2 is (a)

1 2

1 4

10. The value of

48 + 32 is equal to 27 + 18
(b)

(a)

4 3

3 4

(c) 3

(d) 4.

11. PQRS is a parallelogram. A and B are respectively the mid-points of sides PQ and SR. AS and BQ meet the diagonal PR of length 12 cm at C and D respectively. Then, the length of CD is (a) 6 cm. (b) 4 cm. (c) 3 cm. (d) 5 cm.

12. When simplified the product 1 + (a) n (b)

1 1 1 1 1 + 1 + 1 + becomes 2 3 4 n
(b)

n 1 2

n+1 2

(d)

n 2

13.

2 n + 3 2(2n ) when simplified is 2(2n + 2)

(a) 1 2(2n) (b) 2n+3

1 4

(c) 1

1 4

(d) 1

1 2

14. If x2 x 42 = (x + k) (x + 6) then the value of k is (a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 7

Space for rough work

15. The value of n for which the expressions 9x4 12x3 nx2 8x + 4 becomes a perfect square is (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24

16. The graphs of 2x + 3y 6 = 0, y = 2/3, x = 2 and 4x 3y = 6 intersect in (a) four points (c) in no point (b) one point (d) in infinite number of points

17. Angle between the hour and minute hand of a clock at 11 15 is (a) 90o (b) 112.5o (c) 120o (d) 150o

18. In figure, if AB || DE, BAC = 35o and CDE = 53o, DCE = ?

(a) 102o

(b) 92o

(c) 80o

(d) 72o

19. P and Q are the midpoints of the sies AB and BC respectively of the triangle ABC, right angled at B. Then (a) AQ2 + CP2 = AC2 (c) AQ2 + CP2 = (4/3)AC2 Space for rough work (b) AQ2 + CP2 = (4/5)AC2 (d) AQ2 + CP2 = (5/4)AC2

20. In the figure alongside, AB = AC, A = 48 and ACD = 18o. BC equal to

(a) AC (c) BD

(b) CD (d) AB

21. In a right angle triangle ABC is right angled at B. Given that AB = 9 cm, Ac = 15 cm and D, E are the midpoints of the sides AB and AC respectively, then the area of ADE = (a) 67.5 cm 2 (b)27 cm 2 (c) 13.5 cm 2 (d) Data insufficient

22. ABCD is quadrilateral. If AC and BD are its diagonals then the (a) sum of the squares of the sides of the quadrilateral is equal to the sum of the squares of its diagonals. (b) perimeter of the quadrilateral is equal to the sum of the diagonals. (c) perimeter of the quadrilateral is less than the sum of the diagonals. (d) Perimeter of the quadrilateral is greater than the sum of the diagonals. 23. In triangle ABC, D, E, F are points of trisection of BC, Ac and AB respectively. Which of the following statement is not true

(a) Area EDC = 2/9 area ABC (c) Area DEF = 2/9 area ABC Space for rough work

(b) Area FBD = 2/7 area FDC (d) Area ( EDC + DBF + AFE) = 2 area DEF

24. X and Y are respectively two points on the sides DC and AD of the parallelogram ABCD. The area of ABX is equal to (a) 1/3 area of BYC (c) 1/2 area of BYC (b) area of BYC (d) 2 area of BYC

25. A boy goes to school from his home at a speed of x km/hr and comes back at a speed of y km/hr. Then the average speed of the boy is given by (a) (c)

x+y km/pr 2

(b)

xy km/hr

2xy km/pr x+y

(d) Any of these

26. Two dice are thrown. The probability that the sum of the points on two dice will be 7 is (a)

5 36

(b)

6 36

(c)

7 36

(d)

8 36

27. If an sphere is inscribed in a cube then the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere is (a) 6: 28. If the mean of x and (a) 4M3 3M. (b) :6 (c) 4: (d) :4

1 1 is M, then the mean of x 3 and 3 is x x

(b) 4M3 + 3M. (c) 3M3 4M. (d) 3M3 + 4M.

29. When 2256 is divided by 17 the remainder would be (a) 1 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) none of these

30. A positive integer is said to be a prime if it is not divisible by any positive integer other than itself and one. Let p be a prime number strictly greater than 3. Then, when p2 + 17 is divided by 12, the remainder is (a) 6 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 8

Space for rough work

PART -2 (Physics)
31. A student at the top of a building of height h throws a ball A upward with an initial speed v and then throws a ball B downward with the same initial speed. How do the final speeds of the balls compare when they reach the ground? (a) Velocity of ball A is greater than ball B. (b) velocity of ball B is greater than ball A.

(c) velocity of ball A is equal to velocity of ball B. (d) N.O.T 32. Of the following situations, which one is impossible? (a) A body having velocity east and acceleration west (b) A body having zero velocity and non-zero acceleration (c)A body having constant acceleration and variable velocity (d)A body having constant velocity and variable acceleration 33. An object is shot vertically upward. While it is rising: (a) its velocity and acceleration are both upward (b) its velocity is upward and its acceleration is downward (c) its velocity and acceleration are both downward (d) its velocity is downward and its acceleration is upward 34. An object is thrown vertically upward with a certain initial velocity in a world where the acceleration due to gravity is 19.6 m/s2. The height to which it rises is that to which the object would rise if thrown upward with the same initial velocity on the Earth. Neglect friction. (a)half (b) 2 times (c) twice (d) four times

35. A constant force of 8.0 N is exerted for 4.0 s on a 16-kg object initially at rest. The change in speed of this object will be: (a) 0.5m/s Space for rough work (b) 2m/s (c) 4m/s (d) 8m/s

36. A block slides down a frictionless plane that makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The acceleration of the block is: (a)980 cm/s2 (b)849 cm/s2 (c) zero (d) 490 cm/s2

37. Which of the following four coordinate versus time graphs represents the motion of an object whose speed is increasing?

38. A stone is dropped from rest from a height h above the ground .A second stone B is simultaneously thrown vertically up with velocity v. the value of v which would enable the stone B to meet A midway b/w their initial position is (a)

2 gh

(b)

2 gh

(c)

gh

(d)

2gh

Space for rough work

39. A golf ball is struck by a golf club and falls on a green three meters above the tee. The potential energy of the Earth-ball system is greatest: (a) just before the ball is struck (c) just after the ball lands on the green (d) when the ball reaches the highest point in its flight 40. A 6.0-kg block is released from rest 80m above the ground. When it has fallen 60m its kinetic energy is approximately: (a)4800 J (b) 3500 J (c) 1200 J (d) 120 J (b) just after the ball is struck

41. An elevator is rising at constant speed. Consider the following statements: I. the upward cable force is constant II. the kinetic energy of the elevator is constant III. the gravitational potential energy of the Earth-elevator system is constant IV. the acceleration of the elevator is zero V. the mechanical energy of the Earth-elevator system is constant (a)all five are true (b) only IV and V are true (d) only I, II, and IV are true

(c)only I, II, and III are true

42. Three particles, two with mass m and one with mass M, might be arranged in any of the four configurations known below. Rank the configurations according to the magnitude of gravitational force on M, least to greatest. the

(a)1, 2, 3, 4 Space for rough work

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 1, 4, 3

(d) 2, 3, 4, 2

43. A planet travels in an elliptical orbit about a star X as shown. The magnitude of the acceleration of the planet is: (a) greatest at point Q (b) greatest at point S (c) greatest at point U (d) greatest at point W 44. An object completely submerged in a fluid displaces its own volume of fluid. This is: (a) Pascals paradox (c) Pascals principle (b) Archimedes principle (d) true, but none of the above

45. Which of the following properties of a sound wave determine its pitch? (a) Amplitude (c) Frequency (b) Distance from source to detector (d) Speed

Space for rough work

PART -3 (Chemistry)
46. Which of the following has the highest mass? (a)1g atom of C (b) moleofCH4 (c) 10 ml of water (d) 3.011 x 1023 atoms of oxygen 47. The weight of 350 ml of a diatomic gas at 0C and 2 atm pressure is 1 g. The wt. of one atom is (a)

16 N

(b)

32 N

(c) 16N

(d)32N (N is the Av.no.)

48. The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen is (a) 6.02 1011.5 (b) 3.01 1023 (c) 3.01 1011.5 (d) 6.02 10 23

49. 2 moles of H atoms at NTP occupy s a volume (a) 11.2 litres (b) 44.8 litres (c) 2 litres (d) 22.4 litres

50. Which of the following contained greatest no of oxygen atoms (a) 1g of O (b) 1g of O2 (c) 1g of O3 (d) all have the same

51. 1gram molecule of a gas at NTP occupies 22.4 litre this fact was derived from (a) Daltons theory (c) Berzeliuss hypothesis 52. All liquids have same (a) Density (b) viscosity (c) solubility (d) NOT (b) Avogadros hypothesis (d) law of gaseous volume

53. Which of these will not change the states of matter (a) Temperature (b) crushing a crystal (c) pressure (d) electricity

54. 25.4 of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3 calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3. (a) 1 : 1 Space for rough work (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 2

55. The formula of chloride of metal M is MCl3 , the formula of the phosphate of metal M will be (a) MPO4 (b) M2PO4 (c) M3PO4 (d) M2 (PO4)3

56. 0.001g of C is required to write a letter with a graphite pencil. The total number of C atom used in writing the letter is (a) 5.00 1012 (b) 5.001019 (c) 5.00 10 24 (d) 6.02310 23

57. Aluminium has a valency 3 and sulphate has valency of 2therefore the correct formulae of aluminium sulphate is (a) Al2 S2 O4 (b) Al2 ( SO4 )3 (c) Al3 ( SO4 )2 (d) AlSO4

58. Atom X has 27 protons, 29 neutrons and 27 electrons Atom Y has 27 protons, 30 neutrons and 27 electrons atom X and Y are (a) Isobars (b) Isotopes (c) Isomers (d) isotherms

59. What is the chemical formula of vanadium nitride (a) V5 N 3 (b) V3 N 5 (c) V5 N (d) VN

60. The total number of atoms represented Ba(H2PO4)2 is (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17

Space for rough work