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PGIMER ENTRANCE EXAM

MAY 2012

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1. A. B. C. D. E.

Most commonly used cylinder in anaesthesia machine is: A B D E F

Ans: D(E) [Ref:Ajay Yadav 1st/ 20-21 ; Miller 7th/ 675 ; Lee 13th/ 84-85 ] Most commonly used cylinder in anaesthesia machine is E “Cylinder: Smallest size available is AA and biggest is H. Commonly used cylinders on anaesthesia machine are of type E”- Ajay Yadav 1st/ 20 “Anesthesia workstations have E-cylinders for use when a pipeline supply source is not available or the pipeline system fails”- Miller 7th/ 675

2. A. B. C. D. E.

Feature of malignant hyperthermia includes: Tachycardia Hypotension Excessive sweating ↓ed ETCO2 ↓ed O2 saturation

Ans: ACE [Ref:Ajay Yadav 1st/101-02 ; Miller 7th/ 1187-89 ; Lee 13th/ 353 ; Morgan's clinical aneasthesia 4th/945-950; Wylie's Anaesthesia 7th/365, 367] “Clinical feature: Hypoxia, cyanosis,tachycardia, hypertension & cardiac arrhythmia”Ajay Yadav 1st/102 “Falling SpO2 despite increase in FiO2; cyanosis”-C.Y.Lee 2006/840
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“Cardiovascular instability with labile B.P”- C.Y.Lee 2006/840 “Unexpected change in B.P”- Lee 13th/ 353

Signs of malignant hyperthermia Lee, Wylie's Hyperthermia : fever, sweating

3. A. B. C. D. E.

Common Eye lid tumors are: Squamous cell carcinoma Sebaceous gland carcinoma Malignant melanoma Basal cell carcinoma Malignant germ cell tumor

Ans:ABCD [Ref: Khurana 4th/359; Parson 20th/439-40 ]

Malignant tumours of eyelid: Commonly observed tumours include squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma and sebaceous gland adenocarcinoma.

4. A. B. C. D.

True about Sympathetic ophthalmitis : Occur after trauma and surgery Injured eye is exciting eye Occur in opposite eye any time B/l non-suppurative uveitis occur

Ans:ABD [Ref: Khurana 4th/413 ; Parson 20th/374-76 ]
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It is usually involved after 4-8 weeks of injury in the other eye. C. A. delayed and very late cases are also reported”Khurana 4th/413 . although it may remain quiescent or pass unnoticed until the fifth or sixth year of life or sometime even later”. 6. D.Parson 20th/357 It is the most common intraocular tumour of childhood occurring 1 in 20.Ghai 7th/594 “The tumor is confined to infants & very young children & is frequently congenital. B. D.P. True about Retinoblastoma: It is most common primary intraocular tumor of childhood It is most common secondary intraocular tumor of childhood Seen in young & middle-age adult Most commonly seen in children Ans:AD [Ref: Khurana 4th/ 280-83 . However. Spirometry measures :Tidal volume TLC ERV FRC IRV 4 .000 live births. Earliest reported case is after 9 days of injury. Most of the cases occur within the first year. Parson 20th/375 5. C. Parson 20th/357-58 ] “Retinoblastoma is the most common primary ocular tumor of childhood. rarely earlier. About 90% cases are diagnosed by age 3-4 yrs & 98% by 5 yrs”-O. B.“Sympathizing (sound) eye. E. A.

Which of the following score is/are not included in mild mental retardation: A.Temperature Ans:C 5 .C(ERV) &E(IRV) [Ref: Harrison 18th/ .e Functional residual capacity(FRC) & Total lung volume(TLV)”. 20-35) 8. 50 to 70) represents approximately 85 percent of persons with mental retardation.. Moderate mental retardation (IQ range. 2.Acidosis E. 35-50) Severe mental retardation (IQ range. B. so any lung volume requiring RV can not be measured i.3-DPG B.concentration D. inspiratory capacity. C. All have effects on oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve except: A. inspiratory reserve volume. E.Ajay Yadav 1st/7-8 7. CO2 pressure C. expiratory reserve volume & vital capacity. Guyton 11th/ 476. D. 85 50 45 75 65 Ans: ACD [Ref:Park 21st/536. Cl. Ajay Yadav 1st/7-8 Lee 13th/ 762 ] “Spirometry measures: tidal volume.).Kaplan 10th/1139] Degrees of Severity of Mental Retardation Kaplan 10th/1139-40 • • • Mild mental retardation (IQ range.Ans: A(Tidal. It can not measure residual volume(RV). Niraj Ahuja 6th/169-72.

Serine Tryptophan Tyrosine 6 .428-29] “Fexofenadine does not prolong QTc interval”.Drug that increases QT interval : A. Positive benzidine test is/are seen in : Hemoglobin Myoglobin Porphobilinogen Glucose Bilirubin Ans: A & B [Ref : Harrison 16th / 608. B. B. D.[Ganong 22th/667-669.Mehta 15th/404. Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/149. E. Lehninger 4th/173 Kumar & Clark 4th/357 6th/430] 9. C. B. Harrison 17th/636. C. A.J. Haloperidol Fexofenadine Amiodarone Ebastine Sotatol Ans:CDE [Ref: KDT 6th/510. Polar amino acids are : A.495. E.P. Reddy 27th/394] 11. C. D.KDT 6th/158 Haloperidol also not mentioned as cause of QT prolongation 10. Guyton 11th/507.

Parson 20th/506] 13. E. E.25 D3 formation 7 . Valine Lysine Ans:A(Serine). Flame shaped haemorrahges Arteriovenous nipping Neovascularisation Hard exudates Exudative macular edema Ans: B [Ref: Khurana 4th/260-62.False statement regarding diabetic retinopathy : A. C. D.3rd / 210. Parson 20th/294-98] “Arterio venous nipping is found in hypertensive retinopathy”. Marfan syndrome Homocystinuria DM Hypertension Sulfite oxidase deficiency Ans:ABE [Ref: Khurana 4th/ 202-03.C(Tyrosine) & E(Lysine) 12. E. Ectopia lentis is/are seen in : A. True about Parathyroid hormone : A. B. It is steroid Stimulate 1. D. B. C. B.Khurana 4th/258 14.D.

C.9& 6.1 8 . carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen sulphide Hydrophobic molecules: water-insoluble molecules. Guyton 11th/986-988 ] • • Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the peptide hormone (10 amino acids) PTH also increases renal synthesis of 1. cGMP. 10. B. Central cyanosis not occurs when total Hb and reduced Hb level is respectively (in gm%) : A. Inhibits Ca+2 absorption from the intestines Increases the resorption of bone Ans:BD [Ref: Ganong 23nd/367-70 . Guyton 11th/912-15. D. D.1 10. IP3. C. Mg+2 P04-3 cAMP Ca+2 Cl.9 & 4.ion Ans:CD [Ref: Ganong 23nd/446-48. B.9 & 5. like cAMP.25(OH)2D3 15. C. and phosphatidylinositols Hydrophilic molecules: water-soluble molecules. Second messengers is/are :A.1 10. E. and 16. Harper27/445. KDT6th/231-32] Types of secondary messenger molecules • • Ca2+ • (H2S) Gases: nitric oxide (NO). like diacylglycerol.

Guyton 11th/531.K. A. Nelson 18th/2033.J.1 Ans:AD [Ref: Ganong 23nd/ CMDT 06/222. it will be less than the critical level of 5 gm% & cyanosis does not occur”P. Harrison 17th/230-31.J.9 & 6. P.Jain 5th/482.K. definite cyanosis appears whenever the arterial blood contain more than 5 gms of deoxygenated Hb in each 100 ml of blood”. ↑ Urine Na+ ↑ S.D.Harrison 17th/230 17. E.cyanosis not occur) “Cyanosis is due to increased amount of reduced Hb (>5mg%)Q in capillary blood”P.Jain 5th/482 & CMDT 06/222 “In general. E. In findings of SIADH includes: A.J. 8.Guyton 11th/531 “Cyanosis is due to increased amount of reduced Hb (>5mg%)Q in capillary blood”-P A.Mehta 15th/15] B B Majority of textbooks favour cutoff limit of 5gm% reduced Hb(not 4gm%) So answer would be A & D (i. D. cyanosis becomes apparent when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in capillary blood exceeds 40 g/L (4 g/dL)Q”.1 8. B. Na+ ↑ Urine osmolality ↑Serum osmolality Postural hypotention Ans:AC 9 .Mehta 15th/15 “In severe anaemia where Hb is less than 5 gm%.e option involving <5gm% reduced Hb. even if all the Hb is reduced in the capillaries.Mehta 15th/18 “In general.9 & 4. C.

Not associated with smoking Surgery is treatment of choice Associated with paraneoplastic syndrome Most patients have distant metastases on diagnosis Contain neurosecretory granules Ans: AB [Ref: Harrison 18th/737-745 . Robbins 8th/758-63 .Jain 5th/698 • • ↑ urinary excretion of Na+. Incorrect statement about Small cell Ca of lung: A. D. 11th ed.Jain 5th/698.K.] Postural hypotention does not occur in SIADH as it is euvolemic hypoosmolality Feature of SIADH A. E. CMDT 06/ 267 ] Small cell Ca of lung(SCLC) • • • • Eighty-five percent of patients with lung cancer of all histologic types are current or former cigarette smokers(Squamous> Small cell ca> adenocarcinoma) Most common variety associated with paraneoplastic syndrome Highly malignant tumor with least 5-yr survival rate Electron microscopy shows dense-core neurosecretory granules 100 nm in diameter in two thirds of cases. C.K. Hypernatriuria & hyponatremia ↑ Urine osmolality( become higher than plasma osmolality 18. Features seen in Menke’s disease: A.Williams Textbook of Endocrinology. Increased serum Cu Decreased circulating ceruloplasmin 10 . 19. B.Harrison 18th/2908-10. B.[Ref: A.

It is observed less often in small cell cancer than in other histological types”.C. and developmental delay. Mesothelioma Bronchial asthma Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis TB Sarcoidosis Ans: ACDE [Ref: Harrison 18th/ 279. commitant lung cancer should be suspected. mental retardation. E. Onset of Menkes syndrome typically begins during infancy. B. hypocupremia.289-90. D. Robbins 8th/ . 20. Signs and symptoms of this disorder include weak muscle tone (hypotonia). C. The patients have brittle hair and metaphysealwidening. and deterioration of the nervous system. D. It does not normally accompany asthma or COPD. Clubbing is /are seen in : A. P. Nelson 18th/2730] “Menkes kinky hair syndrome is an X-linked metabolic disturbance of copper metabolism characterized by mental retardation. seizures. sagging facial features.when seen in later. E.CMDT 06/ 221-22 ] “Clubbing is seen in chronic interstitial lung diseases(Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis).CMDT 06/ 222 11 .J.M 15th/14.Harrison 18th/ 604 • It is characterized by sparse and coarse hair. growth failure. Hypopigmented & brittle hair Mental retardation Failure of thrive Ans: BCDE [Ref: Harrison 18th/ 604. and decreased circulating ceruloplasmin”.

lung abscess.”. (AHI values are typically categorized as<5= Normal. 5–15/hr = mild. bronchiectasis. cystic fibrosis.tuberculosis and mesothelioma). • • The apnea–hypopnea index (AHI) is an index of sleep apnea severity thacombines apneas and hypopneas. CMDT 06/1080. as with the separate apnea index and hypopnea index.Harrison 18th/ 290 21. The AHI. is calculated by dividing the number of events by the number of hours of sleep. E. and > 30/h = severe. Snoring occur from obstruction of lower airway Apnoea index.Guyton 11th/522 hypopneas as ≥10 s events in which there is continued breathing but the ventilation is reduced by at least 50% from the previous baseline during sleep. 15–30/hr = moderate. asymptomatic individuals with abnormal breathing during sleep should not be labeled as having OSAHS. sarcoidosis.no of apnoeic episode/hr Apnoea-Hypocapnia index > 10 indicates mild obstruction Ans: ABDE [Ref: Harrison 18th/ 2186. s sec B. Guyton 11th/522-23. as well as with some gastrointestinal diseases (including inflammatory bowel disease and hepatic cirrhosis). OSAHS is the association of a clinical picture with specific abnormalities on testing.asbestosis. As a syndrome. Hypopneas = ≥10 s events in which there is continued breathing but the Apnoea = Airway blockage or no air entry through nasal aperture for ≥10 ventilation is reduced by at least 50% from the previous baseline during sleep C. D. infective endocarditis. or acquired and associated with a variety of disorders. including cyanotic congenital heart disease.) 12 . Correct combinations are : A.•“Clubbing may be hereditary. and a variety of pulmonary conditions (among them primary and metastatic lung cancer. idiopathic.305-06 ] • • Obstructive sleep apnoea & Snoring are caused by blockage of the upper Apneas are defined in adults as breathing pauses lasting ≥10 s and airway.

E.Harrison 17th/1761-1770 . cholera Laxatives Excess Phenolphthalein intake Ulcerative colitis Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency Ans: ABC [Ref: Harrison 18th/313 . Harrison 17th/249. D. CMDT 09 / 797-807] “Anaemia . Causes of secretory diarrhea is/are: A. B. 814. hyperphosphatemia. CRF can differentiated from ARF by presence of : A. Anemia in CRF Small size kidney Hyperphosphatemia Hyperkalemia Peripheral neuropathy Ans: Ans: B(Small Kidneys) E( Peripheral neuropathy) [Ref: Harrison 18th/ . hypocalcemia & hyperkalemia can occur with both acute & chronic renal failure”. E. D.CMDT 06 / 908 13 .22. B. CMDT 09/496-97] Ulcerative colitis causes inflammatory diarrhoea whereas Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency Steatorrheal diarrhoea 23. Robbins 8th/832. C. V. metabolic acidosis. C. Manual of Gastroenterology 4th/184.

Group A Streptococcal infection Ans:ABDE [Ref: Robbins 7th/593-94. E.”. 100 gram of dates contains: A.6th / 382] “There is no residual damage to the joint”.3 gram Vit C: 100 mg Calorie: 317 Carotene:44 µg Calcium 10 mg Ans: ACD TABLE 20(Park 21st): Nutritive value of some common fruits (per 100g of edible portion) 14 . D.CRF : CMDT 09 / 797-807 : states • • Bilateral small kidneys in ultrasound are diagnosticQ. Iron 7.Ghai 7th/381 “During acute RF. myocardium. Harrison 18th/2752-55. or endocardium—hence the lesion is called a pancarditis. Feature of acute rheumatic fever includes: A.Robbins 7th/593 25.Ghai 7th/381-82. Always cause residual jt disease D. Pancarditis C. 24. Carey coombs murmur B. B. diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of the heart—pericardium. Chorea E. C. Harrison’s 17th/2093-94. Peripheral neuropathiesQ manifest themselves as sensorimotor polyneuropathies (stocking and glove distribution) and isolated or multiple isolated mononeuropathies.

Katzung 10th/887-88.D. Diphtheria Measles Typhoid TB Cholera Ans: A (Diphtheria). Alkylating agents Nitrogen mustard : Chlorambucil Alkyl sulfonate BusulfanQ 27.B. C (Typhoid). Carotene (44 µg). B. D (T. 6th/819-20. Isolation is beneficial in : A.Date : 317 Calories. B. B (Measles).3mg). C. Vit. isolation is recommended in all diseases given in option although its benefits is controversial in someQ 28. E. Alkylating agents is/are: A. Iron(7. E. C.). Inhibits human DNA polymerase Used in CMV Used in HSV 15 . Calcium(120 mg). Methotrexate Busulfan Doxorubicin Daunorubicin Chlorambucil Ans:BE [Ref : K. Ganciclovir true is : A. C 3 mg 26. Goodman & Gilman 11th/1335-36] 1.& E (Cholera) [Ref:Park 21th / 111] According to table ( Park 21th / 111). B. C. D.T. D.

Tyramine inhibit release of NA D. also known as hemicholine. acts on the adrenergic neurons to release NA. “Ganciclovir has in vitro activity against CMV. and KSHV (Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus). VZV. is a drug which blocks the reuptake of choline by the high-affinitycholine transporter (ChT.D.K. True statement(s) is/are: A. Katzung 10th/ 78.80. 6th/93 “Tyramine is a indirectly acting sympathomimetics. It is therefore classified as an indirect acetylcholine antagonist . Imipramine is NA & 5-HT reuptake inhibitor E.Acetylcholine is synthesized from choline and a donated acetyl group from acetyl-CoA. 6th/120 “Hemicholinium-3 (HC3).T.K.D.Katzung 10th/ 78 16 .T. Its activity against CMV is up to 100 times greater than that of acyclovir”-Katzung 10th/ 796 29.T. encoded in humans by the gene SLC5A7) at the presynapse. 6th/93 . HHV-6. The reuptake of choline is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of acetylcholine. while black widow spider toxin induces massive release & depletion”.D. Black widow spider toxin induces massive release of Ach Ans:BDE [Ref : K. hemicholinium-3 decreases the synthesis of acetylcholine. hence. EBV.D. by the action of choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)”. Hemicholinium leads to increased storage of Ach B. which then acts on the adrenoreceptors”. HSV.Katzung 10th/ 795-96] Action Inhibits cytomegalovirus (CMV) and other virus replication by competitive inhibition of viral DNA polymerases and direct incorporation into viral DNA.90 ] Two toxins interfere with cholinergic transmission by affecting release: botulinus toxin inhibits release. Botulinum blocks Ach release C. Active against Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus Ans:All [Ref: KDT 6th/770-71 .

T.K. C.T.D.D. B.T. B. 6th/441 17 .D. Buspirone : 5HT-1 agonist Granisetrine 5HT-2 antagonists Cisapride 5 HT-3 agonist Methysergide-5 HT-4 antagonist Imipramine :TNF-α inhibitor Ans: A [Ref : K.D. D. but is non-selec tive –act on 5HT-1 receptor also”.K. 6th/167 . Katzung 10th/272] “Methysergide is a potent 5HT-2A/2C antagonist with tissue specific agonistic actions as well.K. Verapamil Propranolol Carvedilol Nicardipine Nebivolol Ans:BCE [Ref : K. 6th/142 “Carvedilol is a β1 + β2+ α blocker”. 5-HT2 &occasionally dopamine D2”K. 6th/143 31. Which of the following Drug-receptor pair correctly matched: A. 6th/167 “Methysergide have partial agonist effects at 5-HT2 vascular receptors”. muscarinic. histamine H1.T.Katzung 10th/272 “Imipramine inhibit monoamine reuptake & interact with a variety of receptors viz. α adrenergic. Katzung 10th/ 175] “Nebivolol : It is a selective β1 blocker & also acts as a NO donor”.D. 6th/ 137 .D.30. 5-HT1.Which of the following is/are not calcium-channel blocking agent(s): A. C.T. E. D.T. E.

D.Ananthanarayan 8th/543 33. D. B.T. D.T. C.T. anti-HBc appears in serum a week or two after the appearance of HBsAg”. 6th/647 “TNF-α inhibitors are: infliximab adalimumab. Vaccines NOT contraindicated in pregnancy : A.It is not demonstrable in circulation because it is enclosed within the HBsAg coat. E.)& C (HBeAg) [Ref : Park 21th/193-194. has received wide attention for its usefulness as an effective nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic”. a 5-HT1A agonist. certolizumab and golimumab 32.K. HBsAg IgM anti-HBc Ab HBeAg IgG anti-HBc Ab Core antigen Ans: A (HBsAg).K.D.. B.“Buspirone.Ananthanarayan 8th/543] HBcAg is called as core antigen. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by : A. but its antibody. E.Harrison 17th / 1933-34.. 6th/163 “Cisapride is a 5-HT4 agonist as well as weak 5-HT3 antagonist”.HBeAg appears in blood concurrently with HBsAg or soon afterwards”. Measles Varicella Mumps Rabies Hepatitis 18 .Ananthanarayan 8th/543 “HBsAg is the first biomarker to appear in blood after infection. C. 6th/645 “Granisetron is a 5-HT3-receptor antagonists”-K.D. B (IgM.

E (Hepatitis) [Ref: Park 21th/98] Live vaccineS are C/I in pregnancy 34.)& E (Carcinoma Cervix) [Ref: Harrison 18th/660-63. E. D.. chickenpox. Hepatitis B Measles Mumps Cholera Ans: A (Hepatitis B).Ans: D (Rabies). B (Measles). B. C. but there are exceptions. D. breast cancer & oral cancerQ”. Hence decreases mortality 35. as for example. measles.Park 19 . infectious diseases are not communicable during the incubation period.) &D(Carcinoma b. C.17th/490-91. Park 21st/356-572] Screening is not helpful in Ca lung. Ca ovaries and Ca endometrium “Effective screening have been developed for cervical cancer. B.Park 21st/356 •Prostate Ca: DRE and PSA estimationQ detects carcinoma in early resectable stage. Screening is effective in : A. Carcinoma lung Carcinoma prostate Carcinoma ovary Carcinoma breast Carcinoma cervix Ans : B (Carcinoma pros. Disease infectious before onset of symptoms: A. whooping cough or hepatitis A Q are communicable during the later part of the incubation period”. & C (Mumps) [Ref: Park21th/91] “As a rule.

polio..CMDT 09/1173 “ACIP of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has recommended that HPV vaccination be routinely offered to girls and young women 9–26 years of age”Harrison 18th/1484-85 “The quadrivalent vaccine has also been licenced in US for use in male(9-26 yr of age) for prevention of anogenital warts”.Fusarium toxin E. True about HPV vaccination : A. B. Argimone mexicana seeds B. influenza.) & E (Protect. D (Two types.Junjhunia seeds C.Harrison 18th/1485 20 .Park 21th/608 37. Given in woman of age group 25-40 years Primary immunization consists of 2 dose Efficacy >70% for cervical cancer Two types of vaccine are available in the market Protect against HPV 16 & 18 Ans: C (Efficacy..21th/94 Park21th/91: Writes: INCUBATORY CARRIERS: Measles. the second & third dose should be given 2 & 6 months after the first”. D.) [Ref:Harrison 18th/148485.Argot poisoning D. E.Internet] “The ACIP recommends routine vaccination of females 11-12 years of age with 3 intramuscular dose. Aflatoxin Ans: B (Jhunjhunia seeds) [Ref: Park 21th/607-8] Endemic ascites: On chemical analysis Jhunjhunia seeds were found to contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids which are causative agent for Endemic ascites.Harrison 17th/1119. Endemic ascites is caused by : A. pertussis. mumps. diphtheria and hepatitis B 36.. C.).

428-29] “Fexofenadine does not prolong QTc interval”.KDT 6th/158 Drugs that prolong Q-T interval Antiarrhythmics QuinidineQ. C. propafenone. Drug in Pregnancy & Lactation by G. Teratogenic drug(s) is/are: A.495.KDT 6th/84-85. B. E. Phenytoin Methotrexate Folic acid Ampicillin Enalapril Ans:ABE [Ref:.38. 909-910. disopyramide. D. D.g Enalapril) in first trimester.Briggs 6th/339] “A recent report indicates 2. procainamideQ.7 fold higher malformation rate in fetuses exposed to ACE inhibitors(e. 21 . Drug that increases QT interval : A. Haloperidol Fexofenadine Amiodarone Ebastine Sotatol Ans:CDE [Ref: KDT 6th/510. B. E.KDT 6th/592 39. C. ACE inhibitors must be stopped when women conceives”.KDT 6th/484 “Prophylactic folic acid administration is given during pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defect”.

Sotalol Antimicrobial Quinine. B.Katzung 10th/741 “Cefepime (fourth-generation cephalosporin): It has good activity against P aeruginosa. DalfopristinQ/Quinupristin. C.ucsf. VISA. gatifloxacin Antihistaminic Antidepressants Antipsychotics Prokinetics TerfenadineQ. Mupirocin.734.Katzung 10th/741 “The drug of choice for these organism is vancomycinQ/linezolidQ. G & G 11th/1132. Jawetz.edu/idmp/whatsnew/dapto_monograph.708. risperidone.htm “Daptomycin : Its spectrum of activity is similar to that of vancomycin except that it is 22 . mefloquine. Linezolid Vancomycin Daptinomycin Cefepime Piperacillin-tazobactam Ans: ABC [Ref: clinicalpharmacy.733. sparfloxacin.732. VRE”clinicalpharmacy. Ziprasidone(Katzung 10th/463) CisaprideQ 40. but ciprofloxacin can also be used. Enterobacteriaceae.edu/idmp/whatsnew/dapto_monograph. E. VRSA. astemizole.”.ucsf. highly resistant species (MRSA. D. & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology.732.KDT 6th/708. 24th Edition] Piperacillin-tazobactam: spectrum include b-lactamase-producing strains of S aureus as well as some b-lactamase-producing gram-negative bacteria”. S aureus. artemisinin. halofantrine. Anti MRSA drugs are : A. ImipenemQ.AmiodaroneQ.KDT6th/700. and S pneumoniae. Melnick. Teicoplanin are also effective against MRSA”. ebastine Amitryptyline & other tricyclics Thioidazine.htm .734 “Daptomycin is a newly-approved antibacterial agent.Harrison 18th/2134 .

They shorten the plateau of the action potential and reduce the force of contraction. 4. the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. Class IV agents act by blocking voltage-sensitive calcium channels. Class IV drugs slow conduction in the SA and AV nodes where action potential propagation depends on slow inward Ca2+ current. IKr. eg.MOA of verapamial is: A. Phenytoin causes: A. This action slows conduction in regions where the action potential upstroke is calcium dependent. 42. Katzung 10th/ 221-23 ] Classification of antiarrhythmic drugs: four classes 1. 3.more rapidly bactericidal in vitro and it is active against vancomycin-resistant strains of enterococci and vancomycin-intermediate and -resistant strains of S aureus”Katzung 10th/741 41. Inhibition of Ca+2 channel Inhibition of Na+ channel Inhibition of K+ channel Block membrane repolarisation Membrane stabilisation Ans:A [Ref: KDT 6th/ 511.517-18 . C. D. Reduced Ca2+ entry reduces after-depolarisation and thus suppresses premature ectopic beats. B. Class 4 action is blockade of the cardiac calcium current. slowing the heart and terminating SVT by causing partial AV block. Pure red cell aplasia 23 . Class 1 action is sodium channel blockade(Membrane stabilizing drugs): 2. Class 3 action is manifest by prolongation of the APD. Class 2 action is sympatholytic. Most drugs with this action block the rapid component of the delayed rectifier potassium current. Drugs with this action reduce b-adrenergic activity in the heart. E.

megaloblastic anemia.Goodman & Gilman 11th/335 43.B. aplastic anemia. individuals with rosacea initially demonstrate a pronounced flushing reaction. and superficial pustules . Harrison 18th/404. As the disease progresses. eosinophilia. D. red-cell aplasia. E. and thrombocytopenia. the flush persists longer and longer and may eventually become permanent. simple anemia.D.Roxburg 17th/162-63 ] Vescicles not mentioned as feature in any above textbooks “Acne rosacea or rosacea: It is characterized by the presence of erythema. but is not associated with the presence of comedones. hemolytic anemia. monocytosis. leukocytosis. Tatro HEMATOLOGICAL: Thrombocytopenia. pancytopenia. C. Morphological feature of rosacea includes: A. “Phenytoin: Hematological reactions include neutropenia and leucopenia. macrocytosis. or more rarely. and telangiectases can 24 . B.Goodman & Gilman 11th/335 ] Adverse Reactions of of Phenytoin A to Z Drug Facts 2003 by David S. Tatro . Papules. Papules Pustules Vesicles Telangiectasia Comedones Ans: ABDE [Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/ 104 . vitamin K is effective treatment or prophylaxis”. C. A to Z Drug Facts 2003 by David S. E. D. granulocytopenia. Often. 6th/ 404-05 .Hypoprothrombinemia and hemorrhage have occurred in the newborns of mothers who received phenytoin during pregnancy.T. agranulocytosis. pustules. Megaloblastic anaemia Aplastic anaemia Hemolytic anaemia Thrombocytopenia Ans:All [Ref : K. Lymphadenopathy is associated with reduced immunoglobulin A (IgA) production. agranulocytosis. telangiectases. leukopenia.

Roxburg 17th/255 Bullous ImpetigoQ is subcorneal disorder while Dermatitis herpeteformis. Wood’s lamp examination is used in diagnosis of: A.67.1th/52. Rooks Textbook of 25 . Bullous SLE & Bullous pemphigoid are Dermo-epidermal (Subepidermal) lesionsQ “Pemphigus group of diseases are intra-epidermal bullous disorderQ”. Harrison 18th/ 394 . Usually worse in summertime”. crusted erosion & circinate plaques onerythematous base.Roxburg 17th/255.82] “Hailey Hailey disease(Benign familial pemphigus): It is a Intra epidermal bullous disorder & present as flaccid vesicle..) [Ref: Pathology of Skin by Farmer & Hood 2nd/235.655 Neena Khanna 3rd/6265.become superimposed on the persistent flush”. B. E.capitis Ans: ADE Wood’s lamp examination is not done in diagnosis of Psoriasis & Lichen planus [Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/13. E.) D (Hailey. D.237. C.. B.Harrison 18th/404 44. Erythrasma Lichen planus Psoriasis P.209 . Bullous pemphigoid Pemphigus folliaceous Dermatitis herpeteformis Hailey Hailey disease Bullous impetigo Ans:B (Pemphigus.Neena Khanna 1th/52 45.Neena Khanna 3rd/67. D. veriscolor T. Intra epidermal blisters are seen in : A. C.

14. Gamma benzene hexachloride(GBHC1%). vitiligo & rosacea”. B. Lupus vulgaris Scrofuloderma Lichen planus Lupus erythematosus Lupus pernio Ans: AB [Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/ 217 .30] “Lupus erythematosus includes SLE(systemic lupus erythematosus. C. Harrison 18th/ 1349 . Benzyl benzoate (25%) & Ivermectin (single oral dose 200 µg/kg)”. C. D. it resembles lupus vulgaris. DLE & SCLE”Neena Khanna 3rd/ 186 “Lupus pernio is found in sarcoidosis.11-5. 26 . Microscopically.Neena Khanna 3rd/345 “Scabicides used are: Permethrin creamQ (5%).10-28. Cutaneous T.Neena Khanna 3rd/297 47.B includes: A. Harrison 18th/3577.Dermatology 7th/ 5. D. B. E. Drugs used in scabies are all except : A. Behl 7th/202.Roxburg 17th/38.Rook’s Dermatology 7th/28.KDT 6th/863-64] Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor(immunomodulator) used in atopic dermatitis. E. Crotamiton Permethrin Gamma-benzene hexachloride(BHC) Tacrolimus Benzyl benzoate Ans:D [Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/297. Crotamiton (10%).41] 46.

plaques.Harrison 18th/ 2808 “Cutaneous manifestations of tuberculosis include primary infection due to direct inoculation. Ananthnarayan 8th/420. Pregnancy Distension of intestine Severe cardio-pulmonary disease Peritonitis Inguinal hernia Ans:ABCD 27 . E.Ananthnarayan 8th/396 49. Chancroid Lymphogranuloma Venereum Primary syphilis Herpes G ranuloma inguinale Ans: AD [Ref :Neena Khanna 3rd/ 259-270. which leads to a slowly progressive. B. D. and fissures). C.Biopsy shows granulomatous infiltration”. D. abscesses and chronic ulcers. B. Laparoscopy is /are C/I in : A. autoinoculable ulcer”. scrofuloderma. E.Harrison 18th/ 1349 48.Neena Khanna 3rd/259 “Lymphogranuloma Venereum:Primary lesion is a small painless papulovesicualar lesion appearing on external genitalia”.17th/831-32] “Primary syphilis cause Hunterian chancre(painless)”. Painful genital ulcer is/are seen in : A. C. lupus vulgaris (a smoldering disease with nodules. miliary lesions. Harrison 18th/1108.Ananthnarayan 8th/420 “Granuloma inguinale begins as a painless papule on the genitalia. and erythema nodosum”.

suspected acute & diffuse peritonitis & presence of distended bowel”. Incompetent valve b/w superficial and deep vein Deep vein thrombosis Buerger’s disease Female sex Hormone Family history Ans:ABDE [Ref : L & B 25th/ 927. Biopsy in Hirschsprung’s disease can be taken from : A. B. 4 cm above the dentate line 4 cm below dentate line 28 .Sabiston 18th/2006 . The valves can also be absent where the superficial vein join the deep vein”. D.CSDT 11th/873. respiratory insufficiency.medscape. but it is not mentioned as a cause of varicose vein in any above textbooks 51. C. Mastery of Surgery 5th/ 1116 “Massive abdominal distention may result in an increased risk of iatrogenic bowel injury”.Washington Manual of Surgery 5th/642-43 . severe congestive heart failure.Manipal Surgery 3rd/103 Buerger’s disease(thromboangitis obliterans) is occlusive diseases of small & medium sized arteries”.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/205-06.com/ article 50. B. the valve at saphenofemoral junction is incompetent/absent. E.Washington Manual of Surgery 5th/643 Pregnancy is a relative C/I “C/I for Laparoscopy are relative & includes uncorrectable coagulation defects.923-24 .L & B 25th/ 923 Although Buerger’s disease can cause migratory thrombophlebitis of superficial & deep vein. Maingot's Abdominal Operations. Predisposing factors for Varicose vein includes : A.Manipal Surgery 3rd/103 ] “Very often. S.emedicine.[Ref : L & B 25th/247-49 .

C. CSDT11th/ 1243 .Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/1035-36] “Biopsy should be taken atleast 2 cm above the dentate line”.598-99. E. Negroes are commonly affected”. CSDT11th/1321 . True about Keloid: A. Seen in caucasians Treatment is excision and grafting Grows beyond margin Precancerous lesion leading to cancer Everted margin Ans:BC [Ref : L & B 25th/ 30.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/123 “Shaving away the excess scar tissue & then resurfacing the area by a thin skin 29 .site not important Ans:A(Single best option) [Ref : Sabiston 18th/2065 .S. Scwartz 8th/ ] “Coloured races are particularly liable to keloid formation.C.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/1036 “Rectal biopsy:It is important to obtain the sample at least 2 cm above the dentate line”-Sabiston 18th/2065 “Rectal suction biopsies are the procedure of choiceQ & should be performed no closer than 2cm to the dentate line to avoid the normal area of hypoganglionosis at the anal verge”-Nelson 18th/1566 “The definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease is made by rectal biopsy. 24th/93 . S.S. Samples of mucosa and submucosa are obtained at 1 cm. B. E. 2 cm. Sabiston 18th/206-07 . Nelson 18th/1565-67. and 3 cm from the dentate line”-Schwartz 8th 52. D. D. 6 cm below dentate line At the level of dentate line Anywhere feasible.

CSDT 11th/330 Contraindications for BCS: 1.”. L & B 25th/843. 24th / 841.Das 5th/727.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/123 “Everted edge(rolled out) is a characteristic feature of squamous cell Ca or ulcerated adenocarcinoma”. Collagen vascular disease.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/125 53.S. 2. CSDT 11th/330.graft. Breast conservative surgery is not done in : A. Enolase Phosphofructokinase Pyruvate kinase Glyceradehyde -3-phosphate dehydrogenase 30 . D. 5th Edition] “Clinically detectable multifocality is a relative contraindication to breast-conserving surgery. Early pregnancy. 6. S. B. Mastery of Surgery. yet such treatment has never produced good result by large”. C. D. Multicentric breast cancer. as is fixation to the chest wall or skin or involvement of the nipple or overlying skin. C. E. Diffuse malignant looking micro calcifications on mammogram 5.Irreversible step(s) in glycolysis is/are: A. B. though advocated by a few surgeon to give encouraging results.S. Devita 7th/1437. Scleroderma Multicentric lesion 1st & 2nd trimester Pregnancy Diffuse microscopic calcification Fixity of tumor to chest wall Ans: All [Ref: Sabiston 18th/877. 54.

E.6-bi-P (Irreversible) Q. Acyl phosphates e. 2. phosphocreatine 56. ATP. High energy phosphate compound is/are : A. E. Thioesters e.phosphate Glycerol -3-phosphate ADP Ans:AB [Ref. 4.g. phosphoenolpyruvate.3-biphosphoglycerate-(Reversible) Q. 1. Vasudevan 5th/228. Pyrophosphates e. Which of the following enzyme is not involved in Urea cycle : 31 . 3-bisphosphoglycerate. D.g. Satyanarayan 3rd/222-23 ] Classification of high-energy compounds There are at least 5 groups of high-energy compounds 1. acetyl CoA. Hexokinase Ans:BCE [Ref: Vasudevan 5th/85-88.Vasudevan 5th/87 Pyruvate kinase catalyse conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate(Irreversible) -Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/310 Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate-dehydrogenase catalyse conversion of Glyceraldehyde-3-p to 1.1.Harper 28th/158.Harper 28th/94. Phosphagens e.Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/306 55. ATP Creatine phosphate Glucose.Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/308 Enolase catalyse conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol pyruvate(Reversible). 3. Enol phosphates e.g.g. Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/306-09 ] Phosphofructokinase catalyse conversion of Fructose – 6-P to F-1. 5.g. C. B.

Shinde 7th/90. Protein separation based on mass / molecular weight (size) is/are done in all EXCEPT : A.NMS Biochemistry 4th/19-23. Harper 28th/243.Shinde 7th/450-51] “α. Harrison 18th/3216.Harper27th/21-25. 32 . Vasudevan 5th/481-90] Centrifugation: masses or densities Ultrafiltration: concentrates a protein solution using selective permeable membranes. B.nih. C. D.ncbi. C. E. fumarase & Isocitrate dehydrogenase are enzymes of TCA(citric acid cycle”.Shinde 7th/317 Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyses the formation of glutamate & ammonia in mitochondria.KG dehydorogenase Isocitrate dehydrogenase Fumarase Ans: ACDE [Ref .so Glutamate dehydrogenase is not part of urea cycle 57. Ultrafiltration Electrophoresis 2D gel electrophoresis Gel Filtration chromatography Centrifugation Ans:B [Ref : Harper 28th/24.gov › NCBI › LiteratureQ 25 June 2009. E.3219.37-38.A.nlm.17th/2472-74.KG dehydorogenase.Protein purification Handbook: laboratory Manual Chapter II. The function of the membrane is to let the water and small molecules pass through while retaining the protein. www.Satyanarayan 3rd/59. Lippincott 4th/21. B. D. It provide ammonia for Carbamoyl phosphate synthase(1st step of urea cycle. Glutamate dehydrogenase Argininosucinate synthetase α.

cartilage & teeth”. the transporter of oxygen is a tetrameric protein”. E.Vasudevan 5th/241 ] “Hemoglobin is largely responsible for the transport of oxygen from the lungs to tissue. Selenium deficiency causes: A. Two-Dimensional Gel Electrophoresis: Electrophoresis of all cellular proteins through an SDS gel can separate proteins having relatively large differences in molecular weight 58. B. tendon. Transferrin Collagen Ceruloplasmin Hb Albumin Ans:B [Ref: Harper 28th/569.Electrophoresis Separates Molecules according to Their Charge:Mass Ratio SDS-PAGE: The proteins in SDS-PAGE are separated on the sole basis of their size. C.Harper 28th/197 “Transport protein: Hb. D. E. C. B. Which is/are not transport proteins : A.Vasudevan 5th/28 “Structural protein: Collagen is the most abundant protein in mammals & the main fibrous component of skin. Dermatitis Cardiomyopathy Diarrhoea Alopecia Gonadal atrophy 33 .271 . It also helps to transport CO2 from the tissues to the lungs”. D.Satyanarayan 3rd/184.Vasudevan 5th/28 59. bone.

E.Satyanarayan 3rd/422 60.Satyanarayan 3rd/422:Vasudevan 5th/329 ] Gonadal atrophy. D. Superoxide dismutase Cytochrome oxidase Myeloperoxidase Tyrosinase Amine oxidase Ans:ABDE [Ref: Harper 28th/ 573 ] Myeloperoxidase (MPO) is a peroxidase enzyme. B. alopecia.Copper containing enzymes is/are : A. D.595. E. Morbid obesity Previous h/o GDM Family history of GDM Advanced age H/o pregnancy losses Ans: All [Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/284-286 . 61. MPO has a heme pigment.Ans:B [Ref: Harrison 18th/604. Shinde 7th/ 594. dermatitis & diarrhoea are the feature of zinc deficiency”Harrison 18th/595(table) Alopecia. Gestational diabetes mellitus more likely occurs in: A. CDTOG 10th/ch-18 ] 34 . B. C. It is a lysosomal protein stored in azurophilic granules of the neutrophil.William’s Obstetrics 23rd/1109. dermatitis & diarrhea are feature of selenium toxicity”. C.

Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/138 Mc Roberts maneuver & Wood’s maneuver Q are used in Shoulder dystociaDutta Obstetrics 6th / 407-408 35 . Lovset maneuver Woods corkscrew maneuver Ritzen maneuver Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit technique McRoberts maneuver Ans: B (Woods.).William’s Obstetrics 23rd/ ] “Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used in delivery of after-coming head in assisted breech delivery”. C.Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/387 “Ritzen maneuver: It is assisted delivery of head in normal labour”. E. Family history should include uncles.Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/382 Lovset maneuver is used in bringing down arm in breech deliver”. E (Mc Roberts. aunts and grand parents b) c) d) e) Having a previous birth of and overweight baby of 4kg or more Previous stillbirth with pancreatic islet hyperplasia revealed on autopsy Unexplained perinatal lossQ Presence of polyhydramnios or recurrent vaginal candidiasis in present pregnancy f) g) h) i) Persistent glycosuria Age over 30 Q ObesityQ Ethnic group (East Asian.The potential candidates for GDM are Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6th/284 a) Positive family history of diabetes (parents or sibling). Maneuver used in shoulder dystocia is/are: A. 384 .. Pacific island ancestry) 62. D.) [Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/407-408.. B.

Risk factor for ectopic pregnancy is/are: A. C. C (IUCD) [Ref: Q 202 Nov 2009. D.. C. D.63.Shaw's 14th/208. E (↑ed risk .).). ↓ed chance of hip fracture ↓ed Breast cancer ↓ed Colon Ca ↓ed Endometrial Ca ↑ed risk of DVT Ans: A(↓ed . Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/179-80. Tubal sterilization Infertility IUCD use OCP Multiparity Ans: A (Tubal.Novak’s 14th/1334-35 ] Benefits of Hormonal replacement therapy Dutta Gynaecology 5th/59 • • Decreased risk in vertebral & hip fracture(25-50%) Reduction in colorectal cancer(20%) Risk of Hormonal replacement therapy Dutta Gynaecology 5th/60 • • • ↑Endometrial Ca ↑Breast Ca ↑Venous thromboembolism(DVT) 64.William’s 36 . B. CDTOG 10th/ch-59 .. E.. B (Infertility). E. .).Dutta Gynaecology 5th/59-60. B. True statement related to Hormonal replacement therapy : A.) [Ref : Shaw’s Gynae 14th/57-59 . C (↓ed Colon.

of. Criteria for severe pre. Risk factor for Acute PID includes: A. D (Previous.).) [Ref : Shaw’s Gynae 14th/399-404.Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/228 66. asphyxia & prematurity’.Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125 37 . William’s Gynae 1st/73 ] “PID is a disease of young women. B.Obstetrics 23th/239] 65. CDTOG 10th/ch-19 ] “Fetal hazard in severe pre. who are sexually & reproductively active. C.Two thirds are restricted to young women of less than 25 years & remaining one-third limited among 30 years or older”. E (↑ no. Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125 . B. E.eclampsia :Intrauterine death. E.. IUGR.William’s Obstetrics 23rd/ 708 . C. Fetal growth restriction Prematurity Proteinuria Oliguria Pulmonary edema Ans: None (all are correct) [Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/226-228 .. Advanced age OCP use IUCD users Previous h/o PID ↑ no of sexual partner Ans: C (IUCD). D.eclampsia includes all except: A. D.

Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 220 68. B. The right gastroepiploic veins joins the superior mesenteric vein”. IVC Portal vein Directly into splenic vein Splenic vein through short gastric vein Left gastro-epiploic vein Ans:B [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. A person met with Knife injury to face & resultant damage to facial nerve. D. Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 220] “The Lt & Rt gastric veins drains directly into the portal vein.Barrier method & Oral steroidal contraceptives(produce thick mucus plug & decrease in duration of menstruation) Women with monogamous partner who had vasectomy Pregnancy Menopause Husband who is azoospermic 67. The short gastric veins & the left gastroepiploic veins join the splenic. E.II 270 .>>. Left gastric vein drain into: A. C. Risk factor for Acute PID Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125 • • • • • Multiple sexual partner Absence of contraceptive pill use Previous history of acute PID IUD users Menstruating teenagers Protection for Acute PID Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125 • • • • • Contraceptive methods. It lead to impaired/decreased secretion from: 38 .

E. B. common bile duct. D. D. sublingual gland & submandibular gland Submandibular gland Ans: BCE [Ref: BDC4th/Vol.Snells' Anatomy 8th/765 69. Auriculotemporal nerve) via the otic ganglion.II 240-41 .III 137(But not supply) “Greater petrosal nerve: The post-ganglinic fibres are secretomotor to the lacrimal gland & the glands of the nose & the palate”. portocaval lymph node & lymphatics & the hepatic plexus of nerves 39 . while the submandibular and sublingual glands receive their parasympathetic input from the facial nerve (CN VII) via the submandibular ganglion”. Parotid gland Sublingual gland Lacrimal gland Parotid gland. Snells' Anatomy 8th/765 ] “The parotid gland receives its parasympathetic input from the glossopharyngeal nerve(CN IX. Gray’s 40th/1102 ] “Right free margin of the lesser omentum contains portal vein. C. hepatic artery.A. C.III 137 “Five terminal branch emerge along the anterior border of the parotid gland”BDC4th/Vol. Snells' Anatomy 8th/249 . Structures injured while resecting the free edge of lesser omentum : A.161-61 .BDC4th/Vol. E. Portal vein Hepatic artery proper Hepatic vein Cystic duct Common bile duct Ans:ABE [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. 140. B.III 133.

III 250-253. Facial N. In the people with obstructive sleep apnea. Gray’s 40th/ 503.answers.ensheathed in a perivascular fibrous capsule”. If it relaxes during sleep. Fliform papillae occurs on anterior part of tongue Gray’s 40th/ 503 Chorda tympani is nerve of taste for A2/3 of the tongue except cirumvallate papillaeBDC4th/Vol.com › Biology › Human Physiology › Muscular System.Gray’s 40th/1102 70. supplies filiform papillae Glossophanygeal nerve supplies cirumvallate papillae The posterior most part of tongue develops from Ist pharyngeal arch Genioglossus is the safety muscle Blood supply is derived from lingual artery Ans:A(Most probably? could not got direct reference) BDE [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint 40 . C. as it keeps the airway open thus saves life. Tibial nerve injury/palsy causes : A. It pulls the tongue forward. the airway narrows and collapses. D. it's called a life saving muscle.III 253 Why genioglossus is called safety muscle of tongue? wiki. E. Snells' Anatomy 8th/781 . B. the genioglossus is more active in holding the airway open at rest.507 ] “Glossophanygeal nerve supplies cirumvallate papillae”. it's attached the base of the tongue to the inside front of the jaw bone.III 250-253 71. Gray’s 40th/ 503 The genioglossus muscle is the muscle of the tongue. Correct statement about tongue is/are: A.Snells' Anatomy 8th/781 “The posterior most part of tongue develops from 4th pharyngeal arch”BDC4th/Vol.

B. E. D.II 173. As a result the foot is plantar flexed.II 100 Sensory supply of leg & foot Snells' Anatomy 8th/660 • • • • Common peroneal nerve: anterior & lateral side of leg & dorsum of foot & toes. an attitude referred to as calcaneovalgus Sensory: Sensation is lost on the sole of foot. D.Gray’s 40th/1427 ] “The muscles of anterior compartment of leg are supplied by deep peroneal nerve. Breast is/are supplied by : A.85-86 . Planter flexion of the foot at ankle joint Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg Loss of sensation over the medial border of foot Ans:A [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. Snells' Anatomy 8th/660 .BDC4th/Vol. later trophic ulcers develop 72. Lateral thoracic artery Internal mammary artery Musculophrenic artery Superior thoracic artery 41 . C.B. The condition is called foot drop”. Paralysis of the muscles of anterior compartment of leg results in loss of the power of dorsiflexion of the foot. C. including the medial side of the big toe Tibial nerve(through sural nerve): lower half of back of leg & lower 1/3 of lateral area of calf & whole of lateral border of the foot till the tip of little toe Saphenous nerve(Branch of femoral nerve): medial area of leg & medial border of the foot as far as the ball of the big toe Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh: upper half of the central area of calf Tibial Nerve Injury Snells' Anatomy 8th/660 Motor: All muscle in the back of leg & the soles of the foot are paralyzed. The opposing muscles dorsiflex the foot at ankle joint & evert the foot at the subtalar & transverse tarsal joints.

D. the anterior abdominal wall & the seventh.C. Supination of forearm Pronation of forearm Inability to initiate abduction of shoulder Decreased sensation of medial hand Paralysis of deltoid muscle Ans: BCE [Ref : B. B. cutaneous. E. eighth & ninth intercostals spaces as the anterior intercostals arteries”“Superior epigastric artery (branch of Internal mammary artery) gives muscular. E. Superior epigastric artery Ans: ABD [Ref: BDC Vol. I 4th / 41-42. 4th/Vol I 51-54. C.B.212 . B. D. C.E. II 4th / 204 “Musculophrenic (branch of Internal mammary artery) artery gives branch to the diaphragm. D.C. Snell's Anatomy 8th/ 536-37 ] Decreased sensation of medial hand occurs in lower trunk injury(Klumpke’s paralysis). In injury to upper trunk of the brachial plexus following seen: A.D. anastomatic & hepatic branch” 73. Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh supplies skin overlying: A. 4th/Vol I 53 74. Medial aspect of thigh Posteroinferior aspect of buttocks Scrotum Back of thigh Popliteal fossa 42 . Snells' Anatomy 8th/427] Deep Arteries of anterior abdominal wall BDC Vol.

II 53 .D.D.D. Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 579 It is the baseor upper end of the femoral canal. Snell's Anatomy 8th/ 565-66 .C. posteriorly by the pectineal ligament.25 cm.C.Ans: All [Ref : B. 43 . the popliteal fossa & the proximal part of the back of the leg”. Boundaries The femoral ring is bounded as follows: anteriorly by the inguinal ligament.S2. 4th/Vol II 110 . D.Gray’s 40th/1384 Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh (S1. A perineal branch which supplies the skin of the posterior two-third of the scrotum or labium majus 2. Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 579] Femoral ring BDC4th/Vol.Gray’s 40th/1384 ] “Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh supplies skin of back & medial side of thigh. 4th/Vol II 110 • Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh: upper half of the central area of calf 75. It is directed upward and is oval in form.II 53 . 4th/Vol II 76 1. Femoral aretry Femoral vein Femoral nerve Lacunar ligament Inguinal ligament Ans:AC [Ref: BDC4th/Vol.S3) B. C. its long diameter being directed transversely and measuring about 1. Gluteal branch which supply the skin of the posteroinferior quadrant of the gluteal region Sensory supply of legB. B. Which of the following does not form boundary of femoral ring: A. E.C.

5 cm).wide middle segment Isthmic segment (2.funnel shaped segment behind the fimbria Ampullary segment(5 cm) . II 357 The fallopian tubes stretch from the uterus to the ovaries and measure about 8 to 10 cm (4 to 6 inches) in length. E. laterally by the fibrous septum on the medial side of the femoral vein 76. Dutta Obs 6th/ 7] “Uterine artery supplies medial 2/3 & ovarian artery supplies the lateral 1/3 of the tube”. B.25 cm) . Interstitial part.narrow muscular segment near the uterus Interstitial segment (1.passes through the uterine muscle into the uterine cavity 77. Ovary is attached to uterus by Ovarian ligament Uterine artery supplies medial 2/3 of tube Ampulla is largest part Ans:CDE [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. Segments of the fallopian The fallopian tube is not just a passive pipe or a conduit.BDC4th/Vol.medially by the crescentic base of the lacunar ligament. Length is 20 cm Medial to lateral structures are isthmus. but an active organ with its separate locations performing separate functions. Starting from the ovarian end (fimbria) and proceeding toward the uterus. these are the: • • • • • Fimbrial segment . Ampulla & Fimbriae C. D. Blood brain barrier is/are formed by : 44 . II 355-57.25cm). True about anatomy of Fallopian tubes: A.faces the ovary Infundibular segment(1.

Ilioinguinal nerve 45 . and electrical insulators. 2. B. Ganong 23rd/572-73. suppliers of nutrients.III386-87 . D.Guyton 11th/766] Blood–brain barrier (BBB): made up of BDC4th/Vol. Others surround capillaries or extend to the subpial and subependymal zones. where they contribute to barrier functions controlling the flow of macromolecules between the blood. 4. where they are believed to act as metabolic buffers or detoxifiers. C. During incision & drainage of ischiorectal abscess.Robbins 7th/1349-50. Vessel wall Arachnoid layer of the perivascular sheath The perivascular space Neuroglia & the ground substance of the brain “ Some astrocytic processes are directed toward neurons and their processes and synapses. and the brain”Robbins 7th/1349-50: 78.Inferior gluteal nerve E. Oligodendrocytes Microglial cell Astrocytes Schwann cell Neuroglial cell Ans:CE [Ref: BDC4th/Vol.Superior gluteal nerve D. 3. Superior rectal nerve B. E.A. the CSF. which nerve is/are affected/injured : A.‘Gray’s 40th/48-49. Inferior rectal nerve C.III386-87 1.

6. S3 nerve . Ischiorectal pad of fat.II 328-29 .II 196 79. 2. Palindromic sequences observed Protects bacteria from infection by virus Present only in eukaryotes Restrict replication of DNA Ans:ABD [Ref:Lippincott 4th/465-66. 3.Harper 28th/388-90.BDC4th/Vol. C.Lippincott 4th/466 “RE restrict DNA replication”. 4. Such enzymes. The recognition sequences are palindromicQ (i.27th / 403. B.196 . Ilioinguinal nerve: supply the skin of external genitalia & upper part of the medial side of the thigh”. D. Perineal branch of fourth sacral nerve. are thought to have evolved to provide a defense mechanism against invading viruses” “RE can specifically recognize DNA with particular sequence of 4-6 mucleotides and cleave.Ans: B [Ref: BDC4th/Vol. twofold rotational symmetry”.Satyanarayana 3rd / 579 46 . Posterior scrotal / posterior labial nerve and vessels.e. True statement about Restriction endonuclease : A. Snells' Anatomy 8th/394 ] Contents of the Ischiorectal fossa 1. Inferior rectal nerve and vessels. found in bacteria and archaea. Perforating cutaneous branch of S2 . Satyanarayana 3rd / 580] “A restriction enzyme (or restriction endonuclease) is an enzyme that cuts DNA at specific recognition nucleotidesequences (with Type II restriction enzymes cutting double-stranded DNA) known as restriction sites..76 . Pudendal canal and its contents(pudendal nerve & internal pudendal vessel) 5.

siRNA miRNA tRNA mRNA E.PCR Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis DNA sequencing Restriction fragment polymorphism (RFLP) Single-strand conformational polymorphism Ans:All [Ref: Harrison Table 18th/ 508. C. B (miRNA). B. C.org/wiki/Non-coding_RNA] 81. Macrophage Dendritic cells Lymphocyte Epithelial cell Platelets Ans: A(Macrophage).) & C(Lymphocyte) [Ref: Robbins 7th/203-04.80. D. MHC II is/are presented by: A. en. Lippincott 4th/ 417. rRna . B. Non coding RNAs are : A. RT. the tissue distribution of MHC class II molecules is 47 . D.wikipedia. C (tRNA) E (rRna) [Ref: Harper 28th/310. E. B.. D. 17th/406 . E.Technique(s) used detecting for Gene Mutation is/are: A. Vasudevan 5th/454-56] 82. B(Dendr.Ananthanarayan 8/132-35.. Harrison17/2045-53 ] “In contrast to class I molecules. Ans: A (siRNA). . C.

Dyeing declaration can be recorded by: A. dendritic cells. E. 31 kuby Immunology 6th/259] LCK (Internet) • • Lymphocyte specific tyrosine kinase. Expression of class II molecules can be induced on several other cell types.Robbins 7th/204 83. D. C. Which of the following are activators of lymphocyte: A. lck is critical for lymphocyte development & activation LCK. including endothelial cells and fibroblasts. and B cells). E. is activated after T cell stimulation & is required for T-cell proliferation & IL-2 production. Doctor Sister incharge Village headman Executive magistrate Judicial magistrate 48 .largely restricted to antigen-presenting cells (macrophages. B. CD 79b CD 3 CD 28 CD 14 LCK Ans : All (A. C. • Inhibition of lck has been a target to prevent lymphocyte activation & acute rejection 84. B. 192-193. however. is one of the eight members of the src family of tyrosine kinase. by the action of IFN-γ”. D. B. C. D & E) [Ref : Immunology by David male 7th/107-108.

“Dying declaration should be recorded by the executive magistrate and police officer to record the dying declaration only if condition of the deceased was so precarious that no other alternative was left” “Under the old CrPC.. e. Magistrate inquest 49 .” 85.TOI Jul 4. there was no distinction between the Executive and Judicial Magistrates. “In a landmark judgment. some states still follow the old CrPC. • If the condidtion of the vicitim is serious. Inquest not present in Indian court : A.com/.15-1. under IPC. and there is no time to call a Magistrate. police or any other person. The bench said that dying declaration recorded by the doctor or anybody with credibility in the society can be accepted as evidence after analysing its evidentiary value as per law”. there. including capital punishment. the doctor should certify that the person is conscious and his mental faculties are normal (compos mentis)./short-notes-on-the-value-of-dying-decl. the doctor should take the declaraton in the presence of two witnesses. 2012 Dying declaration recorded by police is valid: SC New Delhi. Nagaland.16 ] DYING DECLARATION • If there is time a Magistrate should be called to record the declaration before recording the statement. the division bench comprising Justice M Sasidharan Nambiar and Justice P Bhavadasan(Kerala High court) ruled that there is no law or statute that dying declaration should be recorded only by a magistrate.Ans: All [Ref: Reddy 27th/ 9. The statement can also be recorded by the village headman.preservearticles.g. Thu May 17 2012 Indian Express www.. but its evidential value will be less. Parikh 6th/ 1. the Collector is also the head of the judicial branch of the district and can pass sentences..

some States in U.3-1.7 ] Two types of inquests are held in India: the police inquest & the magistrate’s inquest.B.K. MEDICAL EXAMINER’S SYSTEM : This is a type of inquest conducted in most of the states in the United States of America. 4. and some other countries. Stretch laceration Avulsion(Shearing laceration) Tears 50 . C. but not in India.S. D. Medical examiner’s system Coroner inquest Police inquest Trial by jury Ans: BCE [Ref: Reddy 27th/ 5. E. True about Incised looking wound: A. C. CORONER’S INQUEST : This is type of inquest done in U.. Parikh 6th/1. E. D.. Split laceration: with excessive crushing & without excessive crushing (Incised like or Incised-looking Wounds) 2. JURY : Trial by jury has been abolished in India. 3. 86. Type of split laceration wound Avulsion laceration wound with blunt object Produced by blunt object Incised wound Commonly seen on Scalp Ans: ACE [Ref: Reddy 27th/ 165-66 ] Type of Lacerations Reddy 27th/ 165-66 1.A. B.

18-3. Seen in voluntary muscle Some particular group of muscles are involved Disappear with Rigor mortis Occur 2-3 hour after death Occur immediately after birth Ans: ABCE [Ref: Reddy 27th/143 ..Modi’s Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429 88. E. Ans: A (Immedi. True about Cadaveric spasm : A. C. D. D.) [Ref: Reddy 27th/136-39.. Not found in internal organ .19 ] “Cadaveric spasm: This is usually limited to a single group of voluntary muscles & frequently involves the hand. No other condition simulates cadaveric spasm & it cannot be produced by any method after death. Occasionally. It passes without interruption into normal rigor 51 . B.. C ( Disappear.). Modi’s Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 22nd/226] “PM staining persists until putrefaction sets in”. Occur immediately after death Common in dependent part Disappear with rigor mortis Surface elevated E. the whole body is affected as seen in soldiers. Cut laceration 87.). False statement(s) about postmortem staining is/are: A.Reddy 27th/137 ““PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface. shot in battle.) & E (Not.. Parikh 6th/3. but has sharply defined edges”.5. C. B.D(Surf.

Parikh 6th/ 1. E.Reddy 27th/143 89. In India law and punishment is in accordance with: A.K. but not in India” .. D.Parikh 6th/ 1. B. Indian panel code Consumer Protection Act Criminal Procedure Code Indian Evidence Act Coroner’s Act Ans: ABCD [Ref: Reddy 27th/5 . C.5 ] “Coroner’s Act 1871: in Maharshtra is likely to be repealed soon & the cononer’s court in Mumbai will then be abolished(It was practice in High Courts of Calcutta and Bombay).P. B.5 “CORONER’S INQUEST: This is type of inquest done in U. and some other countries. ATT drug C/I in pregnancy : A.P.A) 1872 Consumer Protection Act(CPA/COPRA)1986 (amended in 2002) 90. Rifampicin Pyrazinamide Ethambutol Streptomycin INH 52 .S.49 • • • • Indian Penal Code(I.C) 1973 Indian Evidence Act(I.mortis & disappears when rigor disappears”.E. As per who protocol. D.C) 1860 Criminal Procedure Code(Cr.A..Reddy 27th/5 Legal Procedure Reddy 27th/5. some States in U. C. E.

A female of 45 years has taken treatment of category I (DOTS) for 6 months. D. C.6.5(HRE)3 53 . B.ethionamide & protionamide are tertogenic are tertogenic & should not be used” T. E can be added during late but not early pregnancy.B. streptomycin can cause permanent deafness in the baby. continuation phase of new treatment regimen should continue for: A. 4 months 5 months 6 months 7 months 8 months Ans: B(5 month) [Ref: KDT 6th/ 747-48. rifampicin. E.Park 21st/ 173 Category II treatment: 2(HRZES)3 + 1(HRZE)3 Continuation .Ans: D [Ref: KDT 6th/ 748-49. R & Z to be safe to the foetus & recommended the standard 6 month (2HRZ+4HR) regimen for pregnant women with T. afresh”. yet she is AFB positive.B Treament during pregnancy Park 21st/ 175 “During pregnancy. According to DOTS. Park 21st/ 173 ] “Any patient treated with category I or category III who has a positive smear at 5.B Treament during pregnancy KDT 6th/ 748-49 “The WHO & British Thoracic Society consider H. S is contraindicated” 91. Isoniazid. Second-line drugs such as fluoroquinolones. so ethambutol should be used instead of streptomycin.7 months of treatment should be considered a failure & started on Category II treatment. pyrazinamide & ethambutol are safe to use.Park 21st/ 175 ] T.

E.Katzung 10th/774 “Ethionamide is also hepatotoxic. INH and Rifampicin (in decreasing order of frequency). and contact lenses (soft lenses may be permanently stained). B.Katzung 10th/776 “Streptomycin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic”.Katzung 10th/773-76] Three drugs can induce hepatitis: Pyrazinamide. thrombocytopenia. D. Strongyloides stercoralis Ascaris lumbricoides Necator Americanus 54 . tears.”. B. Larvae which travel through lung during its life cycle : A.92.KDT 6th/ 742 “Rifampin imparts a harmless orange color to urine. sweat. “Pyrazinamide is C/I in patients with liver disease”.Park 21st/ 171. C. Neurologic symptoms may be alleviated by pyridoxine”. and nephritis. INH Rifampicin Pyrazinamide Ethambutol Streptomycin Ans: DE [Ref: KDT 6th/ 740-45. Which ATT is/are safe in chronic liver disease patients : A. It may cause cholestatic jaundice and occasionally hepatitis. C. Occasional adverse effects include rashes.Katzung 10th/775 93.

It has been suggested that in these cases. there is failure in the suppression of immune response to microfilarae antigens. The clinical symptoms result from allergic and inflammatory reactions elicited by the cleared parasites”-Harrison “Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia(occult filariasis): Microfilariae are not usually detectable in blood. Brucellosis 55 .Panikar 6th/167 Confusion about option E Wuchereria bancrofti microfilarae?? “In Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia(occult filariasis).Panikar 6th/204 Larvae that pass through lung during its life cycle • • • • • • • Ascaris lumbricoides Panikar 6th/190 A. microfilariae and parasite antigens are rapidly cleared from the bloodstream by the lungs. so that microfilarae are filtered out & destroyed in the lungs.duodenale Panikar 6th/179 Necator Americanus Panikar 6th/180 Echinococcus (Lung acts as 2nd filter) Panikar 6th/151 Schistosoma hematobium(Lung acts as 2nd filter) Panikar 6th/119 Paragonimus westermani(Lung flukes) Panikar 6th/135 Strongyloides Stercoralis Panikar 6th/171 94. E.D. but lung biopsies have shown microfilarae in some cases. Trichuris trichiura Wuchereria bancrofti microfilarae Ans:ABC [Ref :Panikar 6th/ 159 ] Trichuris trichiura larva pass trough caecum(not lung). Arthropod borne disease is/are: A. with allergic inflammatory reactions”.

B. E. C.Ananthanarayan 8th/343 Lyme disease(Borrelia burgdorferi) is transmitted by bite of Ixodid ticks”Ananthanarayan 8th/381 95.Ananthanarayan 8th/514 96. C. B. Bartonella hansellae Bartonella bacilliformis Pasteurella multocida Bartonella vinsoni 56 . Park 21st/720-21] Crimean congo fever is transmitted by tick”. Lyme disease Borrelia recurrentis Malaria Plague Ans:BCDE [Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/343 . D. D. D. E. Tick is a vector for : A.B. C. Crimean Congo fever Rocky Mountain spotted fever Epidemic typhus Endemic typhus Scrub typhus Ans:AB [Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/406. inhalation or accidental inoculation”. Diseases caused by cat reading is/are: A. Park 21st/708] “Brucellosis is transmitted through ingestion. contact.

and (2) an eruptive phase manifested by cutaneous lesions. E. C. coyotes.E. Single gene disorder(s) is/are: A. henselae & B. Colon cancer 57 .411-12. known as verruga peruana”. bacilliformis. quintana”. Bacillary Angiomatosis occur due to: A.Harrison 18th/ 1314 ] B. bacilliformis is transmitted by Sandfly bite. known as Oroya fever.Harrison 18th/ 1318 “Bartonellosis.Harrison 18th/ 1319 98. gray foxes Harrison 18th/ 1314 97. or Carrión's disease.Harrison 18th/ 1314 Bartonella vinsoni sub-species arupensis reservoir :Mice Harrison 18th/ 1314 Bartonella vinsoni sub-species berkhoffii reservoir :Domestic dogs.Harrison 18th/ 1314 -19 ] “Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by B. Yersinia pestis Ans:ACE [Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/ 324. The disease is characterized by two distinct phases: (1) an acute febrile hematic phase. B.326. D. is caused by B. Mycoplasma Gardenella Bartonella bacilliformis Hemophilus influenza No relation with any above organism Ans:E [Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/ 411-1.

factor VII.170. C. E.B. prothrombin or fibrinogen 58 . Increased Prothrombin time is/are seen in: A. autosomal recessive. Huntingtions disease DMD β. The general rules that govern the transmission of single-gene disorders are well known and are not repeated here. K deficiency Ans: All Prothrombin Time (PT) Robbins 7th/649 • This assay tests the extrinsicQ & common coagulation pathways A prolonged PT can results from deficiency or dysfunction of factor V. Pt on oral anticoagulant Pt with liver disease Factor X deficiency Factor VII deficiency Vit. B.287 . 99. and X-linked.181 . Harrison 18th/499-505 ] Diabetes mellitus II is Multifactorial Disorders • • Single Gene Disorders are of two types: (i) that follow classical mendelian principles of inheritance &(ii) that follow Nonclassic Inheritance Classical Type: Mutations involving single genes typically follow one of three patterns of inheritance: autosomal dominant.thalassemia Type II DM Ans: ABCD [Ref: Robbins 7th/ 150-160. D. C. D. E. factor X.

with the remainder likely representing spontaneous mutations. SCID Common Variable immunodeficiency Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome X-linked Agammaglobulinemia Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis Ans: AC [Ref: Ananthanarayan 8th/156] Combined immunodeficiency(& T cell defect): Nezelof Syndrome.Robbins 7th/962-964] “At least two genes account for this disorder: AD PKD-1 gene on short arm of chromosome 16 (85-90%) & ADPKD-2 gene on chromosome 4 (10-15%). C. Both B and T cell defect presents in : A. D. Other sporadic cases without these mutations have also been recognized”-CMDT 06/928 Genetic Considerations Harrison 18th/2355 “Over 90% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. whereas mutations in the 59 . E. Autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance Most common pattern is One gene mutation Most common pattern is two gene mutation Somatic mutation can also occurs Loss of heterozygosity may occur Ans:ACDE [Ref : Harrison 18th/2355-57. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome & Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) Ananthanarayan 8th/156 101. B. C. E. Ataxia Telangiectasia. CMDT 06/928.100. D. B. Mutations in the PKD-1 gene on chromosome 16 (ADPKD-1) account for 85% of cases. True about Adult polycystic kidney disease : A.

Small cell lung carcinoma Squamous cell lung carcinoma Lymphoma Multiple myeloma 60 . Cystic renal dysplasia Simple renal cyst Adult polycystic kidney disease Medullary cystic kidney disease Acquired renal cyst Ans: CD [Ref : Harrison 18th/ 2356. whereby a somatic mutation in the normal "wild-type" allele of a small number of tubular epithelial cells leads to unregulated clonal proliferation of the cells that ultimately form the cyst lining” 102. 103. D.PKD-2 gene on chromosome 4 (ADPKD-2) represent the remainder. E. Robbins 7th/962-964] “The medullary cystic kidney diseases (MCKD) generally present in young adults. usually cortical. A few families appear to have a defect at a site that is different from either of these loci. They are commonly 1 to 5 cm but may reach 10 cm or more in size. Two genetic loci have been defined. Superior vena cava syndrome is/are commonly seen in : A. B. Autosomal Dominant pattern of renal cyst is/are seen in: A. Direct mutation analysis of isolated cysts suggests there is loss of heterozygosity. B. D. C. cystic spaces that vary widely in diameter. C. both with autosomal dominant transmission ”Harrison 18th/ 2359 CYSTIC RENAL DYSPLASIA Robbins 7th/962 This sporadic disorder is due to an abnormality in metanephric differentiation ACQUIRED (DIALYSIS-ASSOCIATED) CYSTIC DISEASE Robbins 7th/966 SIMPLE CYSTS Robbins 7th/966 These occur as multiple or single. 17th/1797-1799.

.g. In young adults.coloboma of the eye. synovial cell sarcoma or andiosarcoma accounts for over 80% of cases of SVC syndrome”.e choanal atresia). are responsible for the majority of SVCS cases. R-Retardation of growth E. thymoma.302. the prevalence of benign causes of SVCS is increasing. C-Choanal atresia B. A-atresia of the nasal choanae(i.Robbins 7th/ 544. With the expanding use of intravascular devices (e.E. 61 . accounts for approximately 85% of all cases of malignant origin.heart defects. CHARGE in CHARGE syndrome stands for : A. such as lung cancer. lymphoma. H-Heart defects C. teratom.762 . permanent central venous access catheters. A-Atrial septal defect D.CMDT06/267. G.gonadal anomalies Ans:BD [Ref :O.CMDT06/475 “Malignant tumors. Lung cancer. malignant lymphoma is a leading cause of SVCS.Harrison 18th/ 2266 104.615.475 ] “Superior mediastinal tumors such as adenocarcinoma of lung.Ghai 337] CHARGE : The letters stand forC.P. pacemaker/defibrillator leads). thyroid carcinoma.226667. lymphoma.2762. H. Scleroderma Ans: ABC [Ref: Swartz 8th/562. Harrison 18th/ 742. particularly of small cell and squamous cell histologies. and metastatic tumors. Hodgkin's lymphoma involves the mediastinum more commonly than other lymphomas but rarely causes SVCS”.

R. Menorrhagia B. tracheal. and E.Limb defects/limb buds “VATER/VACTERL (vertebral. V-Vestibular anomalies B. VACTERAL stands for : A.wikipedia.Rectal anomalies Ans:BCD [Ref : L & B 25th/ 579 . 105. In Hypothyroidism following are seen: A. Constipation C.Renal (Kidney) and/or radial anomalies  L .retardation of growth and/or development. R.Cardiovascular anomalies  TE . G. A-Anal anomalies C. radial.ear abnormalities and deafness. TE-tracheaoesophageal anomalies E.genital and/or urinary abnormalities(genitourinary defect).Nelson 18th/1543 ] VACTERAL stands for L & B 25th/ 579 en.Vertebral anomalies  A .Tracheoesophageal fistula/trachea  R . anorectal. C-cardiac anomalies D.Anal atresia/anus  C . [cardiac].org/wiki/  V . [limb]) syndrome”-Nelson 18th/1543 106. Silky hair 62 . renal. esophageal. Warm & moist skin D.

• cold intolerance. • periorbital puffiness. Harrison 18th/2919-25. Endocrine disorder D. Hirsutism Ans:ABDE [Ref : L & B 25th/ 775 . • constipation. DLE 63 . slow movements. • weight gain. • bradykinesis. • menstrual disturbance(menorrhagia) • carpal tunnel syndrome. Skin tags is/are seen in : A. Lichen planus E.E. • hoarse voice. • mental lethargy. • delayed relaxation phase of ankle jerks. Pregnancy B. 107. Obesity C. The symptoms are: • tiredness. • cold extremities.Sabiston 18th/ 926 ] Warm & moist skin occurs in hyperthyroidism Adult Hypothyroidism L & B 25th/ 775 The signs of thyroid deficiency are: • bradycardia. • dry skin and hair.

causing the collagen fibers in the skin to bond. they can be associated with the Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome.www. obesity significantly raises the risk of developing diabetes type 2.emedicinehealth. • Risk factors .Neena Khanna 3rd/302 People with diabetes and pregnant women tend to be more prone to skin tags. but skin tags may be: Familial . Therefore. Neena Khanna 3rd/302-03.Individuals with diabetes. Skin tags are more common in:People who are overweight and obese.php Skin Tags • Studies have shown existence of low-risk HPV 6 and 11 in skin tags hinting at a possible role in its pathogenesis. A causal genetic component is thought to exist. For example. Acrochorda have been reported to have an incidence of 46% in the general population. Cystic hygroma E. D/D of this condition does NOT includes: A.a risk factor is something which increases the likelihood of developing a condition or disease. Thyroglossal cyst C.248788.com/skin_tags/article] “Etiology of skin tags is unknown.People with the human papilloma virus (low-risk HPV 6 and 11). www. & Illegal steroid use . A 6 yr old child has midline neck cystic swelling. obesity is a risk factor for diabetes type 2.412. Carotid body tumor 64 . Lymphnode enlargement D.com/articles/67317. 108. Rarely. Branchial cyst B.they interfere with the body and muscles.Ans:ABC [Ref : Roxburg 17th/ 283.[6] They also are more common in women than men.most likely because of the hormones secreted. allowing skin tags to be formed.Harrison 18th/391.medicalnewstoday. Acromegaly and polycystic ovary syndrome.Associated with obesity”.Pregnant women .

Ans:ADC

[Ref : S.Das 5th/619;L & B 25th/ 726-29]

Midline cystic swelling: Thyroglossal cyst, enlarged submental LN, Goitre of thyroid isthmus, Ludwig angina

Lateral Swelling Carotid triangle: Carotid body tumor, branchial cyst, thyroid swelling Posterior triangle:Cystic hygroma

109. Catgut is generally prepared from submucosa of : A. Cat B. Sheep C. Human D. Rabbit E. Wild boar

Ans:B [Ref : L & B 25th/ 238 ; Sabiston 18th/271 ; CSDT11th/94 ]

Sheep or cattle: L & B 25th/ 238 Sheep & beef- Sabiston 18th/271 Bovine: CSDT11th/94

110. True bout Typhlitis : A. Perforation common
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B. Most common site is ileum C. CT scan is screening test of choice D. Bacteria can be isolated from intestine E. Neutrophil count decreases

Ans: ACDE [Ref : L & B 25th/ 1211 ;Harrison 18th/1335,2276-77,716 Sabiston 18th/ ; CSDT11th/ 750 ; Swartz 8th ]

“Early diagnosis is provided by a high index of suspicion and the use of CT scanning” “Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scanning with oral and intravenous contrast is the preferred examination. The maximum normal colonic wall thickness on CT scan is 3 mm. When the colon is distended with stool, fluid, or oral contrast, the normal colonic wall is nearly imperceptible. Pericolonic fat should demonstrate homogeneous fat attenuation”-

The cecum is almost always affected, and the process often extends into the ascending colon and terminal ileum Various bacterial and/or fungal organisms, including gram-negative rods, grampositive cocci, anaerobes (eg, Clostridium septicum), and Candida spp, are often seen infiltrating the bowel wall. Polymicrobial infection is frequent. Only rarely are inflammatory or leukemic infiltrates identified . Bacteremia or fungemia is also common, usually with enteric organisms such as Pseudomonas or yeasts such as Candida The mortality rate for caecitis can be as high as 40 to 50%, mostly because it is frequently associated with bowel perforation. Caecitis is diagnosed with a radiograph CT scan showing thickening of the caecum and "fat stranding"

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111. True about apocrine gland : A. Secrete odourless hypotonic fluid B. Provide odour to body C. Present in axilla & groin D. Present all over body E. Suppurative infection of gland cause Hidradenitis suppurativa

Ans: A(?)BCE [Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/109,1st/97-98; L & B 25th/1266;Gray’s 40th/153;Nelson 18th/2652] Not confirmed about hypotonicity!!! “Bacterial decomposition of apocrine sweat gland accounts for the unpleasant odour associated with perspiration”- Nelson 18th/2652 “The secretion is initially sterile & odourless, but it undergoes bacterial decomposition to generate potent odourous, musky compound”- Gray’s 40th/153

In humans, apocrine sweat glands are found only in certain locations of the body: the axillae (armpits), the areola of the pages , and the genitoanal region. Specialized types of apocrine sweat glands present on the eyelids are called Moll's glands. Most of the human body contains eccrine sweat glands. Apocrine sweat glands secrete a milky, viscous, odourless fluid which only develops a strong odour when it comes into contact with bacteria on the skin surface.

An important distinction between an eccrine sweat gland and an apocrine sweat gland structure is that an apocrine sweat gland has a larger lumen. Another distinction is that apocrine sweat glands secrete a more viscous fluid.

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Pulmonary contusion Ans:ABD [Ref : L & B 25th/ . intravascular volume depletion should also be avoided to decrease the risk for global ischemia and multiple organ failure. Tube thoracostomy is indicated in : A. chyle).112. “Pulmonary contusion :Management is directed toward maintaining good oxygenation and adequate pulmonary toilette. Surgical emphysema D. and pain control should be intubated and mechanically ventilated”. or sometimes of the pneumothorax itself.1669 . Hemothorax C.Sabiston 18th/495 A chest tube (chest drain or tube thoracostomy in British medicine or intercostal drain) is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the side of the chest into the pleural space. Judicious crystalloid infusion is important to avoid fluid overload and pulmonary edema.495. Surgical emphysema can form because of poor technique during drain insertion or because of displacement of the drain such that a side hole near the end of the drain lies within the subcutaneous tissues. pulmonary toilette. Pneumothorax B.blood. or pus (empyema) from the intrathoracic space. CSDT11th/ ] Surgical emphysema (subcutaneous trapped air) is a complication of chest drain insertion. It is used to remove air (pneumothorax) or fluid (pleural effusion. Surgical emphysema has the clinical characteristic of feeling like 'rice crispies' or 'bubble wrap' on palpation. Patients with persistently low PaO2 who do not respond to supplemental oxygen. Sabiston 18th/ 1666-67. Pneumo-hemothorax E.1672. It is also known as a Bülau drain or an intercostal catheter Indications 68 . however.

e three or more ribs fractured in two or more places”. it can also occur after costochondral separation ( Fig. 2 Ribs on same side B. 2 Ribs on 2 side C. However. cardiac surgery 113. Paradoxical movement of this free-floating segment of chest wall may occasionally be sufficient to compromise ventilation. Schwartz 8th . Cervical or first rib on one side E. 4 Ribs on 2 sides D. a flail chest occurs in the presence of two or more fractures in three or more consecutive ribs and causes instability of the chest wall. Sabiston 18th/ 496 . Multiple ribs on both side Ans:CE [Ref : L & B 25th/ 343 . thoracotomy. oesophagectomy.L & B 25th/ 343 “Flail chest occurs when four or more ribs are fractured in at least two locations. Flail chest is characterized by 69 . it is of greater physiologic importance that patients with flail chest frequently have an underlying pulmonary contusion”-Schwartz 8th Flail Chest “By definition. Pneumothorax: accumulation of air in the pleural space  Pleural effusion: accumulation of fluid in the pleural space  Chylothorax: a collection of lymphatic fluid in the pleural space  Empyema: a pyogenic infection of the pleural space  Hemothorax: accumulation of blood in the pleural space  Hydrothorax: accumulation of serous fluid in the pleural space  Postoperative: for example. Flail chest means fracture of : A. 20-12 ). CSDT11th/ ] “It is usually results from blunt trauma associated with multiple rib fracture i. however.

Pulmonary embolism C. MR D. Pulsus paradoxus is/are present in all except: A.Sabiston 18th/ 496 114. Severe COPD Ans: C [Ref: Harrison 18th/1972] “Paradoxical pulse occurs not only in cardiac tamponade but also in approximately one-third of patients with constrictive pericarditis . and the chance of having an intrathoracic injury in this situation increases severalfold. MS with calcified valve C. lateral. Isolated flail chest carries a low mortality rate in younger patients”. Flail chest occurs in 10% to 15% of patients sustaining major chest trauma. Cardiac tamponade E. Closed head injury is the most frequently associated extrathoracic injury. TR 70 . and it contributes to higher morbidity and mortality rates. MS with pliable valve B. Haemorrhagic shock B. Right ventricular myocardial infarction D. Fractures can be located in the anterior. Loud S1 is /are present in: A. AS E.Harrison 18th/1972 115. or posterior chest wall. acute and chronic obstructive airways disease. and pulmonary embolus”. This physical finding is not pathognomonic of pericardial disease because it may be observed in some cases of hypovolemic shock.paradoxical motion of the chest wall (inward with inspiration and outward with expiration).

II. INCOMPLETE QUESTIONS 1.Ghai 7th/418 A loud.Ans: A [Ref: Harrison 18th/1826.Hurst 12th/261 .PJM 15th/137] MS with calcified valve. When calcific fixation of the stenotic mitral valve occurs. (4) status of ventricular contraction. there is an S4 gallop sound. III C. Congenital ear disease classification: A. (5) transmission characteristics of the thoracic cavity and chest wall. (2) mobility of the valve. Corp I. and (6) physical characteristics of the vibrating structures. late M1 is the hallmark of hemodynamically significant mitral stenosis. Morquis/Marqueate I.Hurst 12th/261 Intensity of S1 The primary factors determining intensity of S1 are (1) integrity of valve closure. and a single second heart sound (S2) because A2 and P2 are superimposed or A2 is absent or soft”. and the opening snap is absent “AS: The cardiac impulse is heaving and sustained in character.P. Morquis I. In 80 to 90 percent of adult patients with severe AS. II B. a midsystolic ejection murmur that peaks late in systole. (3) velocity of valve closure. Corp I. None of above 71 . M1 is soft. II D. and there may be a palpable fourth heart sound (S4). An aortic systolic thrill is often present at the base of the heart. II E. MR & TR cause soft S1 S1 is normal in AS-O.

Work reports the following 2 types[1] : • A type I branchial anomaly is ectodermally derived and is a duplication of the external auditory canal (EAC). Host gene affect disease progression in: A. Type II branchial anomalies often manifest with a fistula emanating from the concha.Thyroglossal fistula c. with a tract extending medially and inferiorly to the EAC. Type I branchial anomalies may manifest posteriorly. HCV 72 .thyroglossal cyst b. adjacent to the pinna and concha. Defect in 1st pharyngeal cleft results in : a.branchial cyst d. First branchial anomalies may be associated with hemifacial microsomia. EAC. They may terminate near a bony plate at the level of the mesotympanum. Loss of sensation from posterior part of tongue e. Choanal atresia Ans: First branchial anomalies First branchial anomalies represent 1% of all branchial anomalies.2. Hepatitis B B. They may pass medial or lateral to the facial nerve and terminate at the level of the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. 3. or nasopharynx. Hepatitis B C. middle ear cleft. They are more common and can originate along the EAC. Often an opening is found in the EAC as well as below the jaw. • Type II branchial anomalies contain both ectoderm and mesoderm. First branchial anomalies do not usually involve the middle ear or tympanic membrane. Patients with first branchial anomalies may present with unilateral facial paralysis. or neck.

6. G Provide options?? Ref: Harper 5. HIV E. S D. I E. Significance of Biomarker: A. Vincosentrin E.D. Galantinum D. C C. Donazapril B. P B. Revastigmine C. Memantine 73 . Lacosamide Lacosamide (INN. Phemytoin B. Tacrine F. Which antiepilepties promotes growth hormone secretion : A. Phenobarbitone E. formerly known as erlosamide) is a medication developed by UCB for the adjunctive treatment of partial-onset seizures and diabetic neuropathic pain marketed under the trade name Vimpat. P 4. Valproate C. Drug used for dementia in both disease parkinsonism & Alzeimer’s disease: A. Carbamazepine D.

Polysplenia:Left shift 74 . Subdural hemorrhage B. Hyperdense biconvex feature in CT seen in all except : A. True about Imaging in gallbladder: A. Prophylactic cranial irradiation given in : A. ALL C.7. Glioblastoma multiforme E. Gadolinium B. Technitium E. Myodinium D. NHL 10. Foreign body D.Bhadury 2nd/177] The contrast dye used in these MRI Scans is generally gadolinium as complications are rarer in comparison to the Iodine origin dye used for x-rays and CT scans 8. Intracerebral hemorrhage E. Cirrhosis:anteriorly shift B. Small cell Ca of lung D. AML B. Hypertensive hemorrhage 9. Extradural hemorrahage C. Indium Ans:A. I odine C. Contrast used in MRI : A. other? [Ref .

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C.and sex-matched controls. There was no correlation between T2 and patient age. duration of the disease. On the T2-weighted images the patients' ratings did not differ from that of controls. Wilson disease E. T2 was determined quantitatively. Vascular Infarction Ans: B? Cortical motor neurone loss and corticospinal tract (CST) degeneration are typical of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Increased density of corticospinal tract in T2 MRI seen in: A. The only correlation between MRI findings and disease was on the proton-density images: all cases in which the CST was poorly seen were controls. It is also an open question whether quantitative determination of the T2 relaxation times can improve its value. High conspicuity of the CST was thus specific but not sensitive for the diagnosis of ALS. Signal intensity along the CST on 14 consecutive slices was assessed using arbitrary visual rating on double-echo T2-weighted and proton-density spin-echo images of 21 patients with ALS and 21 age. Astrocytoma B. The T2 of patients and controls showed no statistical difference in any slice. 75 . T2-weighted images and measurement of T2 were not useful for diagnosis. Never beyond superior surface D. Wandering of gallbladder 11. Hemochondromatosis D. lower or upper motor neurone signs.C. or predominant bulbar. It is a matter of debate whether qualitative assessment of the CST by MRI is useful in the diagnosis. a clearly highsignal CST was seen only in the patients.

P63 76 . which was originally thought to be characteristic of pheochromocytoma [56. 69]. P16inkga D. P53 C. that description is not considered accurate. Light bulb appearance in CT scan seen in: a. M Ans: [Ref : www. pheochromocytoma b. however.adrenal adenoma c.org/content/194/6/1450. with at least 30% of pheochromocytomas showing moderate or low T2-weighted signal intensity and appearing similar to other adrenal diseases 13.ajronline. C e. Complete mole can be differentiated from partial mole by : A.adrenal cortical tumor d.full] MRI: Pheochromocytomas and other paragangliomas classically have a "light bulb" (very intense) MRI:Typically hemangiomas are homogeneously hypointense relative to the liver on T1-weighted and markedly hyperintense (lightbulb sign) on T2-weighted images relative to the liver Up to 70% of pheochromocytomas show relatively high signal intensity on T2weighted images—a feature classically known as the light bulb sign. Currently. P57kip2 B.12.

70 yr female undergoing vaginal hysterectomy. X-linked agammaglobinemia : A. Because Complete Mole lacks a maternal genome. 19 D. whereas hydropic abortuses and partial mole show positive staining 14. p57(KIP2) immunostaining is correspondingly absent. Obesity E. DM C. A E. The risk factor for post-op infection : A.ascpjournals. PED Ans: A ajcp. Bacterial vaginosis 15. T What was exact question?? 16. Oncogene tyrosine kinase involves : 77 . 3 B. Old age B.full The p57(KIP2) gene ( CDKN1C ) is strongly paternally imprinted and expressed from the maternal allele. 3 C. HTN D.org/content/133/2/196.E.

D Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO). older age of marriage e. BCR-ABL C. Biopsy E. fatiguability of proximal muscle myopathy. high growth rate d.JNP [Ref: Robbins 7th/ 98-100. ptosis. what is true about Kerala in relation to India : a. NJKKR. high doctor/ population ratio c. such as Kearns-Sayre syndrome.What is most useful test diagnosis: A. Endrophonium test D. Diagnosis It is important to differentiate CPEO from other pathologies that may cause an 78 . A 14 yr child restricted eye movements in all directions. HAAJ D. E MG C.296-97] 17. Occasionally CPEO may be caused by conditions other than mitochondrial diseases. also known as progressive external ophthalmoplegia (PEO). JUN E. CPEO occurs as part of a syndrome involving more than one part of the body. 18. in which case the term CPEO may be given as the diagnosis. C PK B. In other people suffering from mitochondrial disease. high literacy rate b. is a type of eye movement disorder. It is often the only feature of mitochondrial disease. PML-BRCA 1 B.A.

amounts in excess of normal aging give a diagnosis of a mitochondrial myopathy. There are specific therapies used for these pathologies. CPEO is diagnosed via muscle biopsy. While ragged red fibers are seen in normal aging. This produces a dark red staining of the muscle fibers given the name “ragged red fibers”. On examination of muscle fibers stained with Gömöri trichrome stain.ophthalmoplegia. one can see an accumulation of enlarged mitochondria. 79 .