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Time : 1 Hr. Max.

Marks : 100
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions from
mathamtics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
7. Before

answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
ALL INDIA NTSE (STAGE-II) TEST SERIES
MOCK TEST # 2
CLASS -X
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
PCCP Head Office :
Address : Lakshya, C-8, Nursery Plots, Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Tel. No. : +0744-2434727,8824078330, Fax : 0744-2427146 | Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in
E-mail : pccp@resonance.ac.in
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 1
SCIENCE
1. A balloon of mass 1000 kg is floating at some height. If 100 kg mass is released from the balloon. Then
the acceleration of the balloon is [g = 10 ms
2
] :
(A) 1.1 ms
2
upward (B) 1.1 ms
2
downward
(C) 10 ms
2
upward (D) 10 ms
2
downward
2. A pebble is dropped into a well of depth h. The splash is heard after time t. If c be the velocity of sound,
then:
(A) t =
h
gc
2
(B) t = c + gh
(C) t = c v (D) t =
g
h 2
+
c
h
3. If a graph is plotted between 1/v and 1/u, for a convex lens, which one of the following graph is approximately
correct ?
(A)
I/u
1/v
B)
I/u
1/v
(C)
1/u
1/v
(D)
1/u
1/v
4. The refractive index of a medium A with respect to that of a medium B is represented as
AB
. The refractive
indices of three media A, B and C with respect to vacuum are :

AV
= 3/2,
BV
= 4/3,
CV
= 5/4
Which of the following is correct ?
(A)
AB
<
AC
<
BC
(B)
AB
<
AC
>
BC
(C)
AB
>
AC
>
BC
(D)
AB
>
AC
<
BC
SAT PAPER
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 2
5. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V and other 60 W at 220 V are connected in parallel to a 220 V
supply. What is current drawn from the supply line ?
(A) 0.777A (B) 0.727A (C) 0.788A (D) None of these
6. Calculate the value of resistance between A and B in the circuit :
(A)
7
8
O (B)
8
7
O (C)
7
3
O (D)
3
4
O
7. Two unequal masses of 1kg & 2kg are attached at the two ends of a light inextensible string passing over
a smooth pulley. If the system is released from rest, then the work done by tension on 1kg block in 1 sec
is : [g = 10m/s
2
]
(A)
100
J
9
(B)
200
J
9
(C) 100 J (D) 200 J
8. A body dropped from a height of 20m rebounds to a height 5m. The loss of energy is :
(A) 10% (B) 45% (C) 50% (D) 75%
9. Block A is moving with a certain acceleration along a frictionless horizontal surface. When a second
block B i s pl aced on top of block A, the accel eration of the combi ned bl ock drops to
1/5 the original value. What is the ratio of the mass of A to the mass of B :
(A) 5 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
10. Alloys are usually used in electrical heating devices because :
(A) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of constituent elements
(B) Alloys do not oxidize readily at high temperature
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 3
11. A solid of density 'D' has weight 'W'. It is completely immersed in a liquid of density 'd', then apparent
weight of the solid is :
(A)
|
.
|

\
|

D
d
W 1
(B)
|
.
|

\
|

d
D
W 1
(C)
|
.
|

\
|
+
D
d
W 1
(D)
|
.
|

\
|
+
d
D
W 1
12. Two children are at the opposite end of an iron pipe. One strikes the end of the pipe with a stone.
Calculate the ratio of the time taken by sound waves in air and in iron to reach the other child. Use speed
of sound in : (i) air = 344 m/s and (ii) iron = 5130 m/s.
(A) 15.9 (B) 14.9 (C) 16.9 (D) 14.2
13. A wire of length is placed in a magnetic field B, If the current in the wire is I, then maximum magnetic
force on the wire is :
(A) BI (B)
I
B
(C)
B
I
(D)
B
I
14. Biogas is a mixture of :
(A) CO + H
2
+ CH
4
(B) CO + H
2
(C) CO
2
+ CH
4
+ H
2
+ H
2
S (D) CO
2
+ N
2
15. A hunter of 45 kg is standing on ice fires a bullet of 100 gram with a velocity of 500 ms
1
by a gun of 5 kg.
Find the recoil velocity of the hunter.
(A) 1m/s (B) 1.5m/s (C) 2m/s (D) 2.5m/s
16. Which of the following gas is formed when Na
2
CO
3
is heated ?
(A) CO
2
gas (B) CO gas (C) O
2
gas (D) No gas is formed
17. Potash alum, which is used to separate the suspended particles from water, is a double salt of-
(A) potassium and sodium (B) aluminium and calcium
(C) potassium and aluminium (D) aluminium and barium
18. Methyl orange is -
(A) an acidic indicator (B) a basic indicator (C) a neutral indicator (D) none of these
19. X and Y are two elements which form X
2
Y
3
and X
3
Y
4
. If 0.20 mol of X
2
Y
3
weighs 32.0 g and 0.4 mol of X
3
Y
4
weighs 92.8 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively.
(A) 16.0 and 56.0 (B) 8.0 and 28.0 (C) 56.0 and 16.0 (D) 28.0 and 8.0
20. Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy ?
(A) S(g) + e

(g) (B) S

+ e

S
2
(g)
(C) Cl(g) + e

Cl

(g) (D) None of these


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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 4
21. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
(A) 4 - (2 - Methylpropyl)-3-ethyl-4, 7-dimethyldecane
(B) 4 - (1,1 - Dimethylethyl)-3-ethyl-4, 7-dimethyldecane
(C) 7 - (2 - Methylpropyl) - 8- ethyl - 4, 7 - dimethyldecane
(D) None of these
22. Substitution reactions are those reactions in which
(A) saturated hydrocarbons replace the cations of an inorganic compound.
(B) one type of atoms or a group of atoms takes the place of another.
(C) alkyl group replaces the anion of an inorganic compound.
(D) are shown by unsaturated hydrocarbons.
23. Ethanol gets oxidized to -
(A) Ethanal with alkaline KMnO
4
.
(B) Ethanoic acid by alkaline KMnO
4
(C) Propanal in presence of cupric oxide.
(D) Ethanoic acid in presence of platinum catalyst.
24. Most carbon allotropes and carbon compounds on complete combustion -
(A) give a foul smell..
(B) produce a dark mass.
(C) release heat and light in addition to liberating CO
2
.
(D) release heat and light in addition to liberating O
2
.
25. Homologous series is a series of compounds in which
(A) Compounds have different and same both types of functional groups.
(B) Formulae of successive compounds differ by a CH
2
unit.
(C) Representation is possible by any formula.
(D) Compounds have different functional groups.
26. The cellular structure concerned with intra cellular digestion is
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) ribosome (D) lysosome
27. For whichenzyme is acidic medium necessary ?
(A) Trypsin (B) Pepsin (C) Lipase (D) Amylase
28. The essential organs in a flower are
(A) the sepal and stamen (B) the petal and pistil
(C) the stamen and pistil (D) the sepal and petal
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 5
29. An organism that shows sexual reproduction but lacks a proper nucleus in its cells. It can obtain nutrition
in autotrophic as well as heterotrophic mode and posses a distinct cell wall is
(A) mycoplasma (B) blue green algae (C) bacteria (D) protozoa
30. A method in which roots are induced on the stem / branch, while it is still attached to the parent plant is called
(A) cutting (B) grafting (C) layering (D) vivipary
31. Asexual reproduction in plants is important for the following reasons.
(A) Flowers are produced. (B) Plants can rapidly colonize new areas.
(C) Reproduction takes less energy. (D) Self-pollination can occur.
32. The wall of cork cells are thickened by the deposition of
(A) cutin (B) suberin (C) lignin (D) pectin
33. The tissue that attaches muscles to the bones is
(A) cartilage (B) tendon (C) ligament (D) blood
34. Which part of the brain is affected first in a drunk person ?
(A) Cerebrum (B) Medulla oblongata (C) Cerebellum (D) Olfactory lobe
35. The correct order of the parts of a nerve cell through which a nerve impulse is transmitted is.
(A) Nerve endings-dendrites-axon-cell body (B) Cell body-axon-dendrites -nerve endings
(C) Dendrites-nerve endings-cell body axon (D) Dendrites - cell body-axon-nerve endings
36. EMP is _______.
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) ETS (D) Fermentation
37. In synapdragon, when red flowers are crossed with white flowers. The ratio of progeny obtained after the
test cross -
(A) 10% Red (B) Red & white in 3 : 1 ratio
(C) Pink and white in 1:1 ratio (D) Pink red & white in 1:2:1 ratio
38. Which blood vessel contains the least amount of urea.
(A) Hepatic vein (B) Renal vein (C) thoracic duct (D) Renal artery
39. Peripatus is a connecting link between :
(A) Protozoa and porifera (B) Annelida and mollusca
(C) Annelida and arthropoda (D) Mollusca and echinodermat
40. The forelimbs of man, cat, bat and whale are
(A) Analogous organs (B) Homologous organs
(C) Missing link (D) Fossil
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 6
MATHEMATICS
41. If a cos A b sin A = c, then a sin A + b cos A is equal to :
(A)
2 2 2
c b a +
(B)
2 2 2
a c b +
(C)
2 2 2
b a c +
(D)
2 2 2
c b a + +
42. A ladder rests against a wall at angle o to the horizontal. Its foot is pulled away from the previous point
through a distance 'a', so that it slides down a distance 'b' on the wall making an angle | with the
horizontal, then
b
a
is :
(A)
o |
| o
sin sin
cos cos
(B)
o |
| o
cos cos
sin sin
(C)
o |
| o
sin cos
sin cos
(D) .None of these
43. In the figure, if ABCD is a rectangle and BF = x + 2, DH = x + 1, DG = BC = 10 and CG = x, then what is
the area of the triangle HFG in terms of x.
(A) x 40 (B) 49 x (C) 33 2x (D) x 7
44. If the roots of the equation px
2
+ qx + r = 0 are in the ratio : m then :
(A) ( + m)
2
pq = mr
2
(B) ( + m)
2
pr = mq
(C) ( + m)
2
pr = mq
2
(D) None of these
45. In a rectangle ABCD the lengths of sides AB, BC, CD and DA are (5x + 2y + 2) cm, (x + y + 4) cm,
(2x + 5y 7) cm and (3x + 2y 11) cm respectively. Which of the following statements is /are true ?
(A) One of the sides of the rectangle is 16 cm long.
(B) Each diagonal of the rectangle is 40 cm long.
(C) Perimeter of the rectangle is 102 cm.
(D) Area of the rectangle is 560 cm
2
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 7
46. In the figure given, AABC, is a right isosceles triangle with right angle at C. CD is a parallel to AB and
BD = BA. The degree measure of ZDBC equals :
A
B
C
D
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25
47. A triangle EFG is inscribed in a unit square ABCD with E on AB, F on DA, G on CD such that
AE = DF = CG = 1/3. The area of the triangle EFG is :
(A)
18
5
(B)
3
1
(C)
9
5
(D)
9
4
48. Let
q
p
be a fraction expressed in the lowest form. If the numerator is increased by 2 and the denominator
is increased by 1, the resulting fraction equals
2
1
. If, however, the numerator is increased by 1 and the
denominator is decreased by 2, the resulting fraction equals
5
3
. The value of (p + q) equals (p, q are
natural number)
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 13
49. AABC is an isosceles right triangle with area P. The radius of the circle that passes through the point A,
B and C is :
(A)
P
(B)
2
P
(C)
2
P
(D)
P 2
50. A round pencil has length 8 units when unstreched and diameter 1/4. It is sharpened perfectly so that it
remains 8 units long with 7 units section still cylindrical and remaining 1 unit giving a conical tip. Volume
of the pencil now is :
(A)
96
11t
(B)
192
37t
(C)
64
7t
(D) None
51. Let x = r cos o cos | ; y = r cos o sin | and z = r sin o, then (x
2
+ y
2
+ z
2
) is :
(A) independent of both o and |
(B) independent of o but dependent on |
(C) independent of | but dependent on o
(D) dependent on both o and |
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 8
52. If one root of a quadratic equation with rational coefficient is
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ + 80 5 40 20 10
5 3
, then quadratic
equation is :
(A) x
2
+ 2x 1 = 0 (B) x
2
2x 1 = 0 (C) x
2
2 2 x + 1 = 0 (D) x
2
+ 2x 3 = 0
53. A rhombus is inscribed in triangle ABC in such a way that one of its vertices is A and two its sides lie
along AB and AC, where AC = 6, AB = 12 and BC = 8, the side of the rhombus, is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
54. If the centroid and circumcentre of a triangle are (3, 3) and (6, 2) respectively, then the orthocentre is :
(A) (3, 5) (B) (3, 1) (C) (3, 1) (D) (9, 5)
55. Value of
+

120 cos 135 sin
120 cos 135 sin
is :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 3 + 2 2 (D)
2
56. In triangle ABC, with ZA = 90, the bisectors of the angles B and C meet at P. The distance from P to the
hypotenuse is 4 2 . The distance AP is :
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 8
2
(D) 4 2
57. JKLM is a square with sides of lengths 6 units. Points A and B are the midpoints of the sides KL and LM
respectively. If a point is selected at random from the interior of the square. What is the probability that
the point is chosen from the interior of AJAB?
(A)
8
1
(B)
36
1
(C)
16
3
(D)
8
3
58. In the figure, assume that the circle are mutually tangent and that the circle with centre at A has radius 1.
The lines AB and AC are tangent to the circle at O in the points B and C respectively. If the area of the
shaded region is t/4, the radius of the circle centered at O, is :
B
C
A O
r
(A) r = 2 1 (B) r = 2
2
(C) r = 1 + 2 (D) 2 +
2
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 9
59. If
a
a c b +
,
b
b a c +
and
c
c b a +
are in A. P. and a + b + c
=
0, then which of the following statementss
is true :
(A) b =
c a
ac 2
+
(B) b =
2
c a +
(C) b = ac (D) None of these
60. In the figure given below, AB is a diameter of the semicircle APQB with centre O, ZPOQ = 48 cuts BP
at X, calculate ZAXP.
O
A B
Q
P
X
48
(A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 66 (D) 40
SOCIAL SCIENCE
61. Which of the following incidents took place before starting the famous civil disobedience movement ?
1. Swaraj Party
2. Simon Commission
3. Formation of Muslim League
4. Gandhi Irvin Pact
5. Economic Depression
(A) 1, 3, 5, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 3, 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
62. In which year Dr. Ambedkar established Depressed Classes Association ?
(A) 1930 (B) 1932 (C) 1934 (D) 1936
63. The Khilafat Committee was formed by Ali Brothers in March 1919 in
(A) Delhi (B) Calcutta (C) Bombay (D) Pune
64. The movie, Raja Harishchandra was made in the year
(A) 1911 (B) 1912 (C) 1913 (D) 1914
65. The word Livres was related with
(A) Currency of France (B) Tax levied by the Church
(C) Tax to be paid directly to the state (D) Name of French Noble
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 10
66. The group known as 'green' in Russia in 1918 and 1919 was of
(A) Bolsheviks (B) Farmers
(C) Socialist Revolutionaries (D) Pro-Tsarists
67. The famous Enabling Act was passed on
(A) 3 March, 1931 (B) 3 March, 1932 (C) 3 March, 1933 (D) 3 March, 1934
68. Match the following
A B
1. Samuel Richardson (a) Hard Times
2. Henry Fielding (b) Germinal
3. Charles Dickens (c) Pamela
4. Emile Zola (d) Tom Jones
(A) 1 b, 2 a, 3 c, 4 d (B) 1 a, 2 c, 3 b, 4 d
(C) 1 c, 2 d, 3 a, 4 b (D) 1 d, 2 b, 3 c, 4 a
69. The impact of print culture on French Revolution was
(a) It Changed the idea of Revolution
(b) Print culture created a new culture of dialogue and debate
(c) Print culture popularised the idea of Enlightenment thinkers
(d) it led to the Growth of hostile sentiments against the monarch
(A) a & c (B) c & d (C) b, c & d (D) a, b, c & d
70. Nationalism emerged as a sweeping changes in the political and mental world of Europe. This results
with
(a) Emergence of Nation State in place of multi dynastic empires of Europe
(b) Emergence of modern State in which a centralised power exercised sovereign control over a clearly
defined territory.
Which of the above statement are correct
(A) Only A is correct (B) Both of them are true
(C) Only B is correct (D) None of them are correct
71. Which of the following statements is/are not true about Sri Lanka -
(A) Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948
(B) Sinhala community holds supremacy and constitution protects & fosters Buddhism
(C) Constitution provide special privilege to Sri Lankan Tamil
(D) Sinhala considered as an official language
72. Which of the following can be considered as Horizontal Distribution of Power ?
(A) Power shared among governments at different levels
(B) Power shared among different organs of government
(C) Power shared among different social groups
(D) Power shared among different political parties
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 11
73. In which of the following countries the representation of women in National parliament are high ?
(A) U.S.A (B) SubSaharan Africa (C) Arab States (D) Nordic countries
74. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement
(A) Civil rights movement was started in U.S.A.
(B) The black community shown their power in Mexico Olympics was held in year 1968
(C) The step taken by Tomme Smith and John Carlos were condemned by world leaders & Olympic
Association
(D) The Movement against Apartheid started all over in the world
(A) A, B, C, D (B) Only B (C) Only C (D) only D
75. Read the following Statements carefully-
(i) It is mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets about one-third to women
candidates.
(ii) According to Constitution if MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature.
(iii) It is mandatory for every candidate who contest elections to file an Affidavit giving details of his
property and criminal cases pending against him.
(iv) The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their
organisational elections and file their income-tax returns.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding reformation of political parties-
(A) i & ii (B) ii & iii (C) Only i (D) Only iii
76. Pick up the correct statement
(a) The world Bank pressurised the Bolivian government to give up its control of Municipal water supply
(b) In Jan. 2000 a new alliance of labour, human rights and community leaders organised a successful
four day strike in the city
(c) The contract with the MNC was cancelled and water supply was restored to Municipality at old rate
(d) Democratic Conflicts is only resolved through mass mobilisation
(A) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (B) (b), (c) & (d) (C) Both (c) & (d) (D) Both (b) & (c)
77. Which of the following is not a part of the features of political parties ?
(A) Contest Election (B) Restrain the policies
(C) Role of opposition (D) Shape public opinion
78. Which of the following gives best reason that democracy is better than any other alternative
(1) Improve the quality of decision making
(2) It allows to correct its own mistake
(3) It provides a method to solve conflicts
(4) Enhance the dignity of the individual
(A) 1, 3 (B) 2, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
79. Which of the following conditions is/are to be fulfilled by democracy to accommodate social diversity ?
(A) The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent the
general view
(B) When every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time
(C) Rule of majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic
group etc
(D) All of the above
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 12
80. If the President of India wants to resign from his ofice, he may resign by writing to
(A) Prime Minister of India (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(C) Vice President of India (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
81. In which of the following states Wular lake is located ?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab (D) J & K
82. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boudnary with Myanmar are collectively known
as
(A) Himachal (B) Uttranchal
(C) Purvanchal (D) Vindhyan
83. Which wind causes rainfall in winter in Northern India
(A) North West Monsoon (B) Sourth West Monsoon
(C) East West Monsoon (D) Western Disturbances
84. Black soil covers which of the following areas of India ?
(A) Plateaus of Maharashtra and Saurashtra
(B) Malwa plateau
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(D) All of the above
85. Read the following statements
(a) This type of soil is derived from metamorphic rocks
(b) Have the ability to retain moisture and become sticky when wet
(c) Found in parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Mharashtra
(d) Known for the cultivation of cotton
About which soil the above statement indicates
(A) Red (B) Laterite
(C) Black (D) Loamy
86. The first Indian state which has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala (D) Karnataka
87. Match the following :
A B
1. Conuco a. Indonesia
2. Roca b. Mexico
3. Masole c. Brazil
4. Ladang d. Venzuela
5. Ray e. Vietnam
f. Central Africa
(A) 1d, 2c, 3f, 4a, 5e (B) 1b, 2c, 3e, 4f, 5a
(C) 1d, 2c, 3b, 4f, 5a (D) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4e, 5f
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SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 13
88. Read the following statements
(a) 90% of the weaving, cutting and processing is in decentralised sector
(b) India exports yarn to Japan, USA, UK, Russia, France and East European countries
(A) Both (a) & (b) are true (B) (a) is false and (b) is true
(C) (a) is true and (b) is false (D) Both (a) & (b) are false
89. Agglomeration economies are the result of
(A) Advantages offered by urban centres
(B) Government support
(C) Relationship between national and international trades
(D) Change in technologies
90. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways.
(A) It links Delhi-KolkataChennaiMumbai and Delhi
(B) It will combine all the cities by 8 lane Super Highway
(C) The NorthSouth Corridors will link Srinagar (J & K) and Kanyakumari (T.N.)
(D) The EastWest corrider connects Silcher (Assam) and Porbander (Gujarat)
91. Match the following
A B
1. Manufacturing is (a) Education
included in the
2. Economic activities are performed for (b) Human resource
3. 'Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan' is related to (c) Earning Money
4. Unemployment leads to wastage of (d) Secondary sector
(A) 1 d, 2 a, 3 c, 4 b (B) 1 a, 2 b, 3 c, 4 d
(C) 1 c, 2 b, 3 d, 4 a (D) 1 d, 2 c, 3 a, 4 b
92. By poverty we mean a situation where a person is
(A) Deprived proper clothes (B) Deprived basic necessities of life
(C) Deprived to live in houses (D) Deprived education
93. Price that helps to solve the problem of shortage of food during adverse conditions in called
(A) Maximum Suport Price (B) Issue Price
(C) Fair Price (D) Minimum Support Price
94. Read the following statements
1. Agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry are included in primary sector
2. The primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are highly interdependent
3. The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in
making the final goods
4. GDP is the value of all final good and services produced during a particular year with in a country
Choose the correct answer (True or False)
(A) TFTF (B) FTFT (C) TTFT (D) TTTT
Space For Rough Work
SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-2_PAGE # 14
95. Read the following
(a) 177 countries taken into consideration for HDI
(b) Indias rank is 126th (HDI 2006)
Which is / are true or false
(A) Only (a) is true (B) Both (a) & (b) are false
(C) Both (a) & (b) are true (D) (b) is true & (a) is false
96. In India the industrial output or the production went up by 8 times but the employment in the industry went
up by only
(A) 4.5 times (B) 3.5 times (C) 2.5 times (D) 1.5 times
97. What do you mean by Credit ?
(A) Agreement in which the borrower lends money, goods and services in return for the promise of future
payment.
(B) Agreement in which the lender lends money without the promise of future payment
(C) Agreement in which the moneylenders lends money to poor borrowers
(D) Agrement in which only banks lends money to borrowers
98. On which basis the sectors are classfied into public and private sector ?
(A) Members of workers employed in the firm (B) Employment conditions
(C) The nature of Economic activity (D) Ownership of enterprises
99. Match the following
A B
1. Consumer Protection Act passed in India (a) 24 December
2. UN adopt the guidelines for (b) 2005
consumer protection
3. Right to information Act (c) 1986
4. National Consumer's Day observe in India (d) 1985
(A) 1 a, 2 c, 3 b, 4 d (B) 1 c, 2 d, 3 b, 4 a
(C) 1 d, 2 b, 3 a, 4 c (D) 1 b, 2 a, 3 c, 4 d
100. Match the following
A B
1. SEZ (a) Ranbaxy
2. Members countries of WTO according (b) To regulate foreign trade
2006 data
3. MNC dealing in Medicines (c) Special Economic Zones
4. Government has set trade barriers (d) 149
(A) 1 a, 2 c, 3 b, 4 d (B) 1 c, 2 d, 3 a, 4 b
(C) 1 b, 2 a, 3 c, 4 d (D) 1 a, 2 b, 3 c, 4 d

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