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TALAKAYALA Address: 26-4-20/A, Near stall girl high school, Nagarampalem ,Guntur-522004 Email id: Phone:9703418270

Intend to build a carrier in the pharmacy field with committed and dedicated people, which help me to explore myself fully and realize my potential. Willing to work as a key player in the challenging and creative environment.

Academic Records:

Year of College/ School University/ Board p Project Name Course & Duration a s ANTI-INFLAMMATORY ACTIVITY s OF BERGENIA B.Pharmacy-final i LIGULATA BY HRBC MEMBRANE STABILIZATION year n METHOD. g M. Pharmacy CHARACTERIZATION 69.3% 2012 AND Hindu College of SYNTHESIS, BIOLOGICAL (Pharm Pharmacy, EVALUATION OF 1,3,4-THIADIAZOLE DERIVATIVES. aceutic Guntur al Chemis try) B. Pharmacy D. Pharmacy 65.33% 2010 2007 Hindu College of Pharmacy, Guntur Hindu College of Pharmacy, Guntur. Venus junior college,Guntur Rosette English Medium School, Guntur. Acharya Nagarjuna M. Pharmacy University, Guntur



Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur Board of Intermediate Education
Board of Secondary Education









ACHIEVEMENTS Qualified in Ecet exam and PGcet exam INDUSTRIAL TRAINING
As a part of my D. pharm study, undergone a pprenticeship for three months at Drug Dispensing Section of Guntur Government Hospital (GGH), Guntur

 A brief experience in handling of internet, & collection of scientific literature  I successfully completed computer training course in MS-OFFICE in TICT  Operating systems: Skilled in operating Windows  Office suite: Worked intensively with Ms Office 2003, 2007and 2010  Soft wares: chem draw ultra, Chem draw 8.

 Research and development  Quality assurance  Quality control  Industrial Pharmacy  Therapeutic Drug Monitoring.  Drug Regulatory Affairs  Teaching  Formulation research and development  Hospital Pharmacy

Rotary vaccum evaporator (Heidolph 2), U.V- Vis Spectrophotometer (Elico), Microwave.

 Good Communication Skills and Dedicated to the work assigned to me.  Team work  Problem solving and decision making  Strategic thinking, creativity and innovation, Skillful in the art of writing Research Papers and Articles  Capable of handling projects independently

ISSN: 2229-3701. IJPWR VOL 2 ISSUE 4 (Oct-Dec) –2012.    Attended “National seminar in CHIPS college of pharmacy” and presented a poster on “Multiple Emulsions” Participated extensively for 5 days in “PHARMA EXPO” conducted by Hindu college of pharmacy &counseled people on the importance of chemistry.  Has attended and presented a paper on “SYNTHESIS AND BIOLOGICAL EVALUATION OF SUBSTITUTED PHENYL QUINOLINE DERIVATIVES” in the scientific poster session of 63rd IPC held at Bangalore international exhibition centre during 16th – 18th December 2011. Vijayawada Participated in national seminar held in March 2009 at Hindu college of .Guntur. Interested to learn new things which will help to buld up my carrier  Hard workining with Dedication and Sincerity  Sharp. presented a poster on “QSAR”. in September 2011 held at KVSR Siddhartha College of Pharmaceutical Sciences.  Novel Approach for Improvement of Solubility and Bioavailability of Poorly Soluble Drugs: Liquisolid Compact Technique. PERSONAL INFORMATION: . Review Article.  Attended national workshop on “Opportunities in Clinical Research for Pharmacy and Biotechnology in vignan college.  Anti-Inflammatory Activity Of Bergenia Ligulata By HRBC Membrane Stabilization Method. driven with a positive attitude and dedication towards work CONFERENCES AND SEMINARS ATTENDAD  Participated in national seminar of “pharmaceutical sciences in new century: emerging trends and challenges with emphasis on environmental aspects” .

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that the particulars furnished above are true to the best of my knowledge.RAJEEV KUMAR . : 10-10-1987 : Male. Date: Place: Guntur T. : CHITTEMMA. Playing cricket. Browsing Internet. : Indian. : Single : Listening music.Telugu and Hindi. : English .FULL NAME FATHER’S NAME MOTHER’S NAME DATE OF BIRTH GENDER NATIONALITY MARITAL STATUS HOBBIES LANGUAGES KNOWN : RAJEEV KUMAR .TALAKAYALA : ADAIAH.

” b. “The sex of the baby is determined by the egg. “Nature determines whether the baby will be a girl or a boy. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is? a. “The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm. Cremasteric arrive at the clinic for their first pre natal visit. “Some women are just more fertile with females. Mr. Crema tells the nurse that the women in his family usually have girl babies first and wonders why some women always have girls. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life? a. The nurse correct response is: a. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI) b. and Mrs. b. Estrogen Progesterone Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteneizing hormone (LH) 3. Dyhydrotestosterone . c.” d. d.Select the best answer 1. Mr.” c.” 2.

storage for spermatozoa Site of spermatozoa production Conduit of spermatozoa Passageway of sperm 9. Consistent desirable standards 7. c. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate d. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the? a. Preventing further complications from developing d. b. Limitation of available options b. Mons veneris c. Fossa Navicularis b. d. 100. Labia majora d. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today. A normal sperm count ranges from: a. The vas deferens is a: a. Testosterone 4. which of the following has contributed to their complexity? a. 100 to 200/ml d. Cervical mucus changes Secretion of the Skene’s gland The action of the doderlein bacillus Secretion of the bartholins gland 5. Advancement in technology d. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic? a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health b. Support for one viable action c. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly c. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur? . c. 20 to 100 million/ml 10. 000 to 200. 000/ml c. Labia minora 8. d.c. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following? a. 20 to 100/ml b. b. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills 6.

The nurse’s first action should be to: a. d. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper d. Ischemic phase b. the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation c. The nurse established an IV line. Calamares to the delivery area 13. Call the physician c. and then connects Calamares to an electronic fetal monitor.Check the FHR b. Position the patient on her left side . Calamares states that it is “browntinged”. This type of deceleration is caused by: a.Admit Mrs. the FHR returns to baseline after the contraction is over. Ischemic phase d. b. the nurse’s first action should be to: a. Mrs. The fetus had infection b. Fetal head compression Umbilical cord compression Utero-placental insufficiency Cardiac anomalies 15. This indicates that: a. this is a normal occurrence b. Secretory phase Situation: Mrs. comes out of the labor and delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic membranes and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid. The fetal monitoring strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 sec after each contraction begins. Calamares G2P1 1001. At some point. With this type of deceleration. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress 14.a. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase? a. Luteal phase c. Secretory phase 11. Proliferative phase b. Proliferative phase d.Call the physician c. Menstrual phase c. c. Do nothing. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately d. The fetus is in LOA position 12.

IUD (Intra-uterine device) 17. 1 hour b. Primary Infertility b. 6 hours c. Secondary Infertility c. Oral contraceptives b. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse? a. Semen volume 19. Sperm maturity d. 12 hours d. has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per day? a. 28 hours 18. Irreversible infertility d. Which of the following should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians prior to administration of the drug? a. Cervical cap c. without success for several years to have another child. Continue monitoring the FHR 16. Diaphragm d. sperm motility c. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV. c. d. which of the following is the most helpful criterion? a. The nurse knows that Melanie is knowledgeable about the occurrence of PIH when she remarks: .d. Sterility Situation: Melanie a 33y/o G1P0 at 32 weeks AOG is admitted to the Hospital with the diagnosis of PIH. 20. b. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur. A couple with one child had been trying. BP= 180/100 Urine output is 40 ml/hr RR=12 bpm (+) 2 deep tendon reflex 21. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman who is 38 years old. sperm count b. Which of the following terms would describe the situation? a.

“Its similar to cardio-vascular disease” c. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec b. Central insertion Battledore insertion Velamentous insertion Lateral insertion . Urine output of 15ml/hr b. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia? a. d. (-) deep tendon reflex c. c. Nutritional Environmental Mechanical Medical 26. sudden increase in BP d. c. Increased restlessness 25. b. Epigastric pain Situation: The following questions pertain to intrapartum complications: 24. b. she should be observed for clinical manifestations of: a. “PIH occurs during the 1st trimester” d. Hyperkalemia Hypoglycemia Hypermagnesemia Hypercalcemia 23. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is termed: a. The nurse instructs Melanie to report prodromal symptoms of seizures associated with PIH. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec c. b. After several hours of MgSO4 administration to Melanie. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding d.a. d. Which of the following will she likely identify? a. c. “It usually appears anytime during the pregnancy” b. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor? a. “PIH occurs after the 20th wks AOG” 22. d.

amniotic fluid b. 55 cm c. langhan’s layer c. brain d. 65 cm d. placenta Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby. Placenta Circumvallata 28. 45 cm 30. Placenta succenturiata b.27. fetus d. syncitiothrophoblast d. Fenestrated placenta d. Placenta marginata c. . the condition is known as: a. 35 cm b. The average length of the umbilical cord in human is: a. amniotic fluid c. membranes 32. deciduas b. lining of the GI tract b. She went to the clinic for check up. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of gestation? 50-60 40-50 60-70 30-40 31. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring. skeletal system 29. liver c. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus? a. Which of the following is derived form mesoderm? a. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st trimester is attributed to: a.

2003 b. February 22. Premarital serological screening Prophylactic treatment of exposed person On going sex education about preventive behaviors Laboratory screening of pregnant woman 38. Urinary retention d. July 22. Heart and CNS damage b. c. August 18. According to Diane. the nurse tells Diane to: a. you should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. Jaundice c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection . You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis concerning follow up care. She complained of leg cramps. August 22. 2002. Urethral discharge 37. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs c. Maculopapular rash b. b. third d. To provide relief. 2003 35. first b. last c. 2003 d. 2003 c.33. Women who have developed the disease are at risk of developing: a. d. To determine the clients EDC. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramp occur Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question 36-45) 36. second 34. which day of the menstrual period will you ask? a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur b. using the Naegle’s rule what is her EDC? a. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur d. her LMP is November 15. In providing education to your clients. which usually occurs at night. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is: a. Cervical cancer c.

You suspect that Kris may have: a. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection d. It’s a screening for cervical cancer b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts c. It’s a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive tract c. which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take? a. Dysuria 40. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes b. Your appropriate response is: a. Ovarian cysts c. white cheeslike vaginal discharge with pruritus. Moniliasis b. Ulceration of the cervix d. Trichomoniasis c. Lesion on the palms and soles b. Presence of malignant cells b. She asked you what the test is for. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to have Papsmear by her physician. 44. Kris complains of fishy smelling. The nurse should explain to Rhone. Urinary dribbling d. This means that: a. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test 42. Before the client leaves the clinic. 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. Syphilis d. Normal finding . a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Sterility 39. In performing assessment. 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to: a. Cremasteric. Endometrial polyps 41. A pinpoint rash on the penis c. Diane. the nurse should expect to identify which of the following symptoms? a. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening d. The result of the pap-test is class II. Presence of benign or possible malignancy c. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not. Gonorrhea 43. Treatment is initiated. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months b.d.

cardiac monitor d. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to which of the following substance increases the risk of the offspring during reproductive years to cervical and uterine cancer steroids thalidomides diethylstilbestrol tetracyclines 49. multiparous women .d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact Situation: Mrs. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease: a. venous cutdown set 47. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men d. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine fundus. Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is having contractions. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and then move hand several times to different parts of the abdomen 48. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction b. Which of the following approaches should the nurse use to fully assess the presence of uterine co tractions? a. Have milder form of the disease than most men c. and curve them somewhat around the uterine fundus. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent? a. Place the hand on opposite side of the upper part of the abdomen. which of the following should the nurse have available at the client’s bed side? a. One morning. Is un aware that they have it b. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures. b. Possible inflammation or infections 45. leather restraints c. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the umbilicus firmly c. with the fingers apart and press lightly d. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital with signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia 46.

nulliparous waman 50. rectocele and urinary stress incontinence is the? a. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the: a. Ischiocavernous muscle Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the clinical instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary to their assignment to Labor and delivery room 51. Which is a primary power of labor? a. pushing of the mother c. isthmus 55. body of the uterus d. maternal adrenal medulla 52. Relaxin 53. Prostaglandin b. Pubococcygeus muscle b. fetal adrenal medulla d. before menopause c. Endothelin-1 c. intrathoracic pressure d. uterine contractions b.b. first stage . Oxytocin d. Which is not considered an uteroronin? a. abdominal contraction 54. isthmus and cervix c. cervix b. maternal adrenal cortex b. Which plays an important role in the initiation of labor? a. vagina and rectum that when damaged can result to cystocele. The deepest part o the perineal body surrounding the urethra. Bulbocavernous muscle d. fetal adrenal cortex c. The lower uterine segment is formed from the: a. after menopause d. Spinchter of urethra and anus c.

Bi-spinous diameter c. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet? a. intensity b. Bi-ischial diameter b. b. In the second stage of labor. conjugate Vera d. The true conjugate can be measured by subtracting ______ to the diagonal . sub pubic angel measurement 59. sacrum b. uterine contraction last: a. Ischium 60. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence c. third stage d. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by: a. d. The time between uterine contractions is: a. True conjugate c. imaging studies b. Diagonal conjugate b. Pubis d. frequency 58. c. 20 seconds 30 seconds 60 seconds 120 seconds 57. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence d. duration d. The Antero-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet where the fetus will likely most difficulty during labor is the: a. obstetric conjugate 62. Bi-tuberous diameter d. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the: a. second stage c. fourth stage 56. ilium c. Intertuberous diameter 61. interval c.b.

sinciput brow vertex face Situation: a 26 y/o primigravida admitted to the hospital. platypelloid anthropoid android gynecoid 65.conjugate? a. Adequate pelvic size 67. d. coccyx c. The two pubic bones meet anteriorly at the: a. 2. The most important muscle of the pelvic floor is the: a. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion? a. Which pelvic shape has the poorest prognosis fro vaginal delivery? a. she can expect to have more back discomfort than most woman in labor . Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 5cm dilated. Due to fetal position. In the second stage of labor. expulsion of the fetus from birth canal depends on which important factor? a. Uterine contractions d. symphysis pubis b. Maternal bearing down b. sacro-illiac joint 66. d. bulbocavernous d. she will not have the urge to bear down when she becomes fully dilated b. pubococcygeous 64. Cervical dilatation c.5 – 2 cm 63. 3 – 4 cm d.5 – 4 cm c. ischiocavernous c. levator ani muscle b. occiput is in posterior position 68. b. 1. 80% effaced and the presenting part in zero station. 3. membranes still intact. c.5 – 3 cm b. sacrococcygeal d. the nurse caring for her would be correct in telling her that: a. c. b.

75% c. heals more faster than laceration 71. a caesarian section may be necessary to deliver the baby in thin position 69. it is more painful than laceration c.c. this is referred as: a. This mean that effacement is: a. Supporting the perenium at the time of crowning will facilitate: a. Duncan mechanism . an episiotomy has to be performed to enlarge the birth canal. c. Upon IE. placenta acrreta b. flexion of the fetal head external rotation extension of the fetal head expulsion 72. you noted that the cervix ix ¼ its original length. Because of the position of the fetus. c. descent flexion engagement extension 73. 25% b. When the bi-parietal diameter of the fetal head passes through the pelvic inlet. 50% 70. Sudden gush of blood or lengthening of the cord after the delivery of infant should warn the nurse of: a. Which of the following is an advantage of episiotomy over lacerations? a. d. it is more difficult to repair than laceration b. it involve a more blood loss than laceration d. placental separation c. b. abruption placenta Situation: Nurse Tsunade is a staff nurse in the OB ward of Konoha Medical Hospital 74. b. placental retention d. the position of baby’s head is optimum for passing through the pelvis d. When separation begins at the center of the placenta and slides down the birth canal like a folded umbrella this is referred as: a. d. 100% d.

within 24 hours 80. causes intermittent uterine contractions c. Marisse. Demi. Does not last more than 24 hours c. Shultz mechanism c. within 16 weeks d. The nurse assesses the patient with: a. Needs to be treated with antibiotic 79. The nurse should apply the fetal transducer over the fetus: a. head d. within weeks after delivery b.b. buttocks 78. Brandt Andrews mechanism d. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of labor? a. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the delivery of the placenta d. chest b. leg pain c. The nurse tells Gina that it is normal breast engorgement as the fever is characterized by a. a 38 y/o multipara is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of femoral thrombophlebitis. More than 38 degrees b. a newly delivered multipara complains of heavy and painful breast accompanied by fever. back c. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus of oxytocin because it can cause hypertension b. Caused by infection d. abdominal pain . within 12 weeks c. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord. sudden gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the uterus c. In the immediate postpartum period the action of methylegonovine is to: a. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an exhausting labor 77. Postpartum depression occurs during which time frame? a. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after delivery of the baby 76. The doctor decided to perform NST. burning on urination b. cause sustained uterine contractions b. Ritgen’s maneuver 75. relaxes the uterus d.

referring the mother to others for emotional support c. postpartum hemorrhage d. promoting mother-newborn contact 83. it tends to be highest in sitting b. It is normal for blood pressure to increase as much as 33 in systolic in the 3rd tri when a woman is near delivery . none of these 86. absence of engagement d. In a primigravida. prolonged labor d. cord prolapse c. puerperal sepsis c. puerperal psychosis b. discussing complications and treatment d. hypertensive disorder 82. increased lochial flow 81. ascertain correct gestational age determine fetal lung maturity determine fetal well being determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly 85. Rachel. It should be taken at every visit at the clinic d. b. foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are signs of: a. BP may increase a little in the 2nd tri c. Which of the following changes in Diane’s BP would nurse Tsunade not expect? a. inversion of the uterus b. absence of quickening b. the following demotes contracted pelvis except: a. discussing hygiene and nutrition b. c. d. Which is most important when caring for a high risk postpartum clients? a. Fever. all of these 84. a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for biophysical profile in order to: a. A direct cause of mis-management of the third stage of labor is: a.d. absence of lightening c.

a L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life c. you obtain the pregnant woman’s fundic height.87. when L/S ratio is 2:1 below. The baby is placed on phototherapy. majority of infants develop respiratory distress 91. down syndrome in siblings c. c. Which is not an indication of amniocentesis? a. four times d. thrice c. The treatment is effective when blood test shows: a. Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is correct? a. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal. She is RH (-) with blood type B 93. 10-12 times 90. 20-24 wks 18-24 wks 18-32 wks 12-38 wks 92. at 8 wks gestation for chromosomal study Situation: Erica is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She is pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. Erica gave birth to a term baby with yellowish skin and sclera. At what age of gestion does the fundic height in cm strongly correlates with gestational age in wks? a. Nurse Tsunade referred to Diane to an Obstetrician. twice b. Diane asked when she should be back for her next check up? a. Low serum bilirubin . b. c. pregnancies in women over 35 y/o d. d. a L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible with fetal survival d. Monthly Within 24-hours Within a week Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly 89. b. previous pregnancy with chromosomal abnormal fetus b. Every visit. d. a slight variation in technique does not significantly affect the accuracy of result b. At 8 months she was orderd for a contraction stress test and the result is negative.. The correct response of Nurse tsunade is: a.

Rh +. RH – c. Coombs – c. the nurse should remember to: a. cut immediately after birth of the baby c.b. Because of rapidly rising bilirubin level. Type B. decidua capsularis b. coombs + b. The doctor ordered Kleihauer-Betke. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst a. c. It is used to determine fetal blood type and RH factor 97. decidua basalis d. decidua parietalis 99. The cardinal function of deciduas is a. decidua vera c. Rh +. exchange transfusion was performed on Erica’s NB. Coombs + 98. place the NB in an isolette for phototherapy 96. ABO compatible. b. Low platelet count 94. Coombs – d. Rh -. Immune resonse Production of hormones Maintenance of pregnancy None of the above . it is used to identify the amount of antibodies in the maternal serum b. delay clamping of the cord to previde the newborn with more blood b. RH + b. The nurse know which of the following to be wrong about the test: a. RH – 95. it is used to determine presence of fetal blood c. d. Immediately after delivery of Erica’s Baby. O2 level of 99% c. it is used to asses whether the mother is RH – or RH + d. RH – d. Normal RBC and WBC count d. administer RHoGam to the NB immediately on the 3rd stage of labor d. Type B. Which of the following findings in Erica’s history would identify a need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin? a. Rh -. The nurse understands that the blood to be transfused to the baby should be: a. Type O.

and I enjoy the difference I can make in my patient's hospital experience. diffusion c. and your interests.100. you'll be asked about your skills and experience. . and makes a difference in people's lives on a daily basis. Review sample answers for the job interview question "How has your training prepared you for the challenges you will face in this position?" • I had an internship position at an Oncology Center after graduating last May. pinocytosis b. interesting. When you're interviewing for a nurse position. and seeing the satisfaction she feels every day by helping people in her job inspired my own interest in the field. and I am anxious to pursue my career specializing in cancer treatment. which gave me hands on experience with patients. O2 and Co2 are exchanged in the placenta through the process of: a. active transport Interview What made you choose nursing as a career? • • • I wanted to do something in my career that is challenging. I believe that nursing is one of the most interesting and growing careers available today. your training. My mother is a nurse. facilitated diffusion d.

the doctors. I feel I owe it to my patients to stay calm and focused on them. • I believe that I offer my patients comfort and confidence that they are being well cared for. I'm a member of the American Nurses Association. • I am generally an easy going person.• • My clinical training in the ER of City Hospital prepared me for the fast paced care required of an ER Nurse. • I have worked in very large hospitals. "How do you handle stress on the job?" • By focusing on the most important thing. and I don't allow on the job stress to interfere with my work. and the New York State Nurses Association. • I really enjoy working in Geriatrics. and your facility has a vibrant and innovative reputation for its programs and population. where I gained valuable experience. • I feel that my patients know that I am there to provide comfort and understanding. "What interests you about working at this facility?" • Your facility has one of the top rated Cardiac units in the country. there are often stressful situations that arise. "How would you deal with a doctor who was rude and demeaning to you?" • I would bring the question to my supervisor. I would want to find out so I could take action to rectify the situation. • In the ER setting. "What do you feel you contribute to your patients?" • I offer my patients the very best care and advocacy I can. and I am interested in utilizing my experience with Cardiac patients in a hospital engaging in the latest research and techniques. that I will listen to their concerns. but I enjoy working in a small hospital. who was writing about new findings in the treatment of heart disease when I was working at City Hospital. I feel it's important to stay informed about the nursing profession. I had the opportunity to work as a research assistant for Dr. • I would ask the doctor if there was something in my care of the patient that she felt needed discussion. where you can get to know your patients. . "Do you have any professional affiliations?" • Absolutely. The knowledge I gained during that time prepared me for assisting with cardiac patients in a more effective way. the care of the patient. Zane. If the doctor was displeased with me in some way. I just make sure that the stresses of the job don't interfere with the care of the patient. and that I will act as their advocate if necessary. and your colleagues on a more personal level.

and then just be patient and reassure them that we were doing our very best for them. "How would you handle a patient who complains constantly of pain?" • I would confer with the attending doctor to make sure that the patient's pain was being managed in the most effective way. reassure them that their concerns were being heard. If it happened repeatedly. • Sometimes family members are looking for someone or something to blame for what their loved one is going through. and reassure them that I was doing my very best for their loved one. • I understand that some patients will complain about everything. and I can't comfort them to the degree I'd like. • I would tell them to stop being so mean. I just reassure them that everything possible is being done to make them comfortable. and make sure that if any were well founded they were addressed immediately.• If it were a one time occurrence. and that I will act as their advocate if necessary. and that we were doing everything possible to help them. • I feel that my patients know that I am there to provide comfort and understanding. as I tend to become very involved with my patients. • I think the most difficult part of being a nurse is when I have a patient that is very unhappy. and leave me alone! (But don't tell your interviewer "How would you handle the family of a patient in your care who is displeased with your care of the patient?" • I would listen to their concerns. or in a lot of pain. • I believe that I offer my patients comfort and confidence that they are being well cared for. I would try to reassure them that the patient was getting the best quality of care available. that I will listen to their concerns. "How would you handle a patient who complains about everything?" • I would first be sure that the patient had no valid complaints. just because they are unhappy about what brought them to our care. I would notify my supervisor. . "What do you feel you contribute to your patients?" • I offer my patients the very best care and advocacy I can. I would figure that she was just having a bad day. • I would listen sympathetically to their complaint. • I would reassure the patient that everything possible was being done to alleviate their discomfort. • I would listen to their concerns. "What do you find difficult about being a nurse?" • Sometimes I find it difficult to leave work at work.

"Do you prefer to work alone. and offer to stay until my replacement arrived. • I would notify the supervisor. • I believe that nursing in a hospital is a team effort. I enjoy the personal contact with my patients. and plan to continue my education throughout my career. • Yes. I enjoy the one-on-one with my patients. sometimes a little too much so. I enjoy the medical field tremendously. • I'm very motivated to do a good job at what I take on.• I prefer to look at difficulties as challenges. . I plan on advancing my career as a nurse. I like to have a check list. or as part of a team?" • That depends on the circumstances. which I think contributes to my success as a nurse. and I really enjoy making my contribution to the team. but I also like the autonomy of working alone. "What do you find most rewarding about being a nurse?" • The most rewarding thing for me as a nurse is seeing the joy when a family first holds their baby. "If you had the opportunity to become a doctor. I enjoy being part of a treatment and support team. As an in home nurse. • Yes. • I find helping patients through recovery after surgery. not a doctor. would you take it?" • No. • • • You need a certain amount of independence to work without the daily support of a team. • Try calling her to see if she were on the way. or until someone else was called in. to be most rewarding. which is often one of their greatest challenges. • I am a self motivator. and I like to stay busy. "Would you describe yourself as an organized person?" • Absolutely. • I chose to become a nurse because I find the field fascinating. and I take great pride in my job as a nurse. and make sure that each item gets the attention it needs. "Are you a self motivator?" • Absolutely. and the comradeship with my colleagues unique to nursing. "What would you do if your replacement didn't arrive on time?" • I would wait until she arrived. I can always find something productive that needs doing. • I am a very organized and thorough person. and I enjoy conquering challenges. I make sure that everything is neat and in order. or if she needed help making arrangements for someone to take her shift. • Interacting with the patients and their families is what I find most rewarding.

Hematopoiesis c. Hypercapnia 5. Hemopexis 3. Deficiency . Tendinitis 2. Synovitis b. resulting from a neurologic deficit? a. Hemoptysis d. Which term refers to the expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract? a. Hypocalcemia c. Hypoxemia d. An elevation in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2) indicates that the patient has: a. Bursitis d. purposeful movements. Rupture b. Arthritis c. The combining form penia means: a. The latest laboratory values indicate that the patient has thrombocytopenia. A hemorrhage b. Ataxia c. Apraxia b. Myokymia 4. Which of the following disorders is characterized by joint inflammation that is usually accompanied by pain and frequently accompanied by changes in structure? • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • a. Fasciculation d. Hypernatremia b. Which term describes lack of coordination in performing planned.1.

Call the head nurse immediately before the co-worker pours and administers the medications b. b. Add sterile distilled water to the humidification container. What should the nurse do? a. the nurse writes which of the following nursing diagnoses? a. Pour the medications for the co-worker while she goes for a cup of coffee • • . an appropriate nursing order would be: a. and flushed. a temperature of 102°F (38.030. Formation d. Use statements that assist in planning independent nursing interventions d. The guidelines for writing an appropriate nursing diagnosis include all of the following except: a. Use nursing terminology to describe the patient’s response c.9° C). Stupor 6. All of the above 9. Based on a physician’s order for oxygen by nasal catheter at 3 liters/ minute. Potential for fluid volume deficit caused by fever d. as needed d. State the diagnosis in terms of a problem. Potential for impaired skin integrity b. A nurse observes a dazed and apparently confused co-worker taking two diazepam (Valium) tablets by mouth as the co-worker is about to pour medications. Fluid volume deficit related to fever c.• • • • c. dry skin. Based on these data. Measure the length of the catheter from the tip of the patient’s nose to the tip of the earlobe before insertion c. Altered cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion related to fluid excess • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • 7. Use medical terminology to describe the probable cause of the patient’s response 8. Cover the tip of the catheter with a water-soluble lubricant before insertion. not a need b. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a urine specific gravity of 1.

See if a neighbor can take the child to school c. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position. This information is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor • • • . A nurse has just moved to a new state. Report the co-worker to hospital security because she may be addicted to drugs d. Ask one of the night nurses to cover for her b. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping c. When the nurse manager discusses the problem with her. the nurse says that she has been late because her son’s nursery school does not open until 7 am. b. Which of the following is an example of nursing malpractice? a. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and has cerebral damage resulting from anoxia. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient vomits.• • c. She needs information about her specific duties in caring for hemodialysis patients. Watch the co-worker closely and report the incident to the head nurse at the end of the day. Medicare and Medicaid regulations d. Find some way to solve the problem and be on time 11. The hospital’s procedure manual • • • • • • • 12. Find out if other schools open earlier d. The state’s nurse practice act c. • • • • • • • 10. where she has accepted employment in a hospital-based hemodialysis unit. the patient slips and fractures his right humerus d. Policy statements set by the National Kidney Foundation b. The nurse manager should respond by telling her to: a. A nurse manager notices that one of the staff nurses is always 15 to 20 minutes late. She will find this information in: a.

Creamed corn 6. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention? a. Which statement regarding heart sounds is correct? a. Lethal arrhythmias b. and rubella immunization to an infant c. the tip of a central venous catheter should lie in the: a. Planning d. Which nursing diagnosis should receive highest priority at this time? a. Fresh.• 1. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion 8. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the base d. Which examination technique should the nurse use first? a. A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Evaluation 5. and S2 is loudest at the base 4. Administering a measles. S1 and S2 sound equally loud over the entire cardiac area. Impaired gas exchanges related to increased blood flow b. Auscultation b. b. Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical cancer d. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the apex c. Percussion d. S1 is loudest at the apex. A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix). the nurse should emphasize teaching the patient about the importance of consuming: a. mumps. Risk for injury related to edema d. Malignant hypertension c. Lean red meat d.O. Superior vena cava • • • • • • • . Inspection c. Status epilepticus d. The nurse in charge identifies a patient’s responses to actual or potential health problems during which step of the nursing process? a.i. Assessment b. Nursing diagnosis c. b. Bone marrow suppression 7.d. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis 2. in the plan of care. Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart failure b. Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease c. The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for adverse drug reaction. When positioned properly. green vegetables b. 40 mg P. What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol? a. The nurse in charge is assessing a patient’s abdomen. Palpation 3. Bananas and oranges c.

sterile saline gauze d. Nurse Margareth is revising a client’s care plan. which type of dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply? a. Implementation d. c. Sterile petroleum gauze c. b. medication. Assessment b. Teach the client relaxation techniques. Recent pelvic surgery c.” 11. Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits signs of sleep disturbance? a.” b. the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is: Developing a content outline Documenting drugs given Establishing outcome criteria Setting realistic client goals • • • 12. Until a wound specialist can be contacted. Provide the client with normal sleep aids. d. “Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should fade. A 65-year-old female who has diabetes mellitus and has sustained a large laceration on her left wrist asks the nurse.” d. Moist. Dry sterile dressing b.b. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze • • . “The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years. “How long will it take for my scars to disappear?” which statement would be the nurse’s best response? a. While examining a client’s leg. back rubs. and progressive muscle relaxation d. Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize as most important? a. A history of diabetes 13. Administer sleeping medication before bedtime b. it’s hard to say. Planning c. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the previous night c. reddened area on her right calf. “If you don’t develop an infection. A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm. During which step of the nursing process does such revision take place? a. Evaluation 10. Jugular vein d. Basilica vein c. a. the wound should heal any time between 1 and 3 years from now. and snacks 14. such as guided imagery. tender. such as pillows. An active daily walking program d. “With your history and the type of location of the injury. A history of increased aspirin use b.” c. Subclavian vein • 9.

Safety d. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia 20. Under the False Claims Act. Postoperatively. Inadequate vitamin D intake b. A male client is on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. Inadequate massaging of the affected area d. the client reports that he’s impotent and says that he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage.• 15. Provide time for privacy c. Misrepresentation 16. and provider uses a current procedure terminology (CPT) code that bills for a 50-minute session. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional 17. Petechiae d. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality b. A male client in a behavioral-health facility receives a 30-minute psychotherapy session. Elimination c. Acute pain related to surgery b. Upcoding d. Extravasation b. Security b. Osteomalacia c. Low calcium level 19. Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal? a. During the assessment interview. such illegal behavior is known as: a. informed consent. Overbilling c. Unbundling b. the most appropriate intervention would be to: a. Standard of Nursing Practice • • • • • • . The wound shows no signs of healing even though the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours. Provide support for the spouse or significant other d. In planning this client’s care. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery c. and treatment refusal? a. Inadequate protein intake c. Impaired physical mobility related to surgery d. Which document addresses the client’s right to information. The nurse documents that the client has: a. Uremia 21. Using Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs. A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. a nurse assigns highest priority to which client need? a. A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery. Belonging 18. which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client? a. Nurse Cay inspects a client’s back and notices small hemorrhagic spots.

Cause sciatic nerve damage d. and soda d. 14 g/dl.b. Which goal would be most important for this client? a. Following a tonsillectomy. Nurse Practice Act d. The first nursing priority for this client would be to: a. Which position would be most therapeutic for this client? a. Assess the client’s airway b. 100ul. High-Fowler’s d. a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. broccoli. A male client blood test results are as follows: white blood cell (WBC) count. Chicken cutlet. Prevent injury 27. Promote rest d. hamburger. and tea c. Failure to incorporate staff in decision making 26. Unhappiness about the charge in leadership b. If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client. spinach. In addressing her concern. spinach. blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff may do which of the following? a. Spaghetti with cream sauce. Code for Nurses • 22. hemoglobin (Hb) level. and soda 24. A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident. Prevent infection c. The teaching is successful if the client identifies which meal as high in protein? a. Produce a false-high measurement c. Supine c. Fail to show changes in blood pressure b. Provide pain relief c. A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but ineffective and nonproductive as a team. Nurse Danny has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. hematocrit (HCT). Patient’s Bill of Rights c. Produce a false-low measurement 23. Splint the chest wall with a pillow 25. Unexpected feeling and emotions among the staff c. Side-lying • • • • • . Encourage deep breathing and coughing d. and milk b. 40%. Bouillon. Promote fluid balance b. the charge nurse should understand that the usual reason for such a situation is: a. The client is lethargic and reports having a sore throat. Fatigue from overwork and understaffing d. Semi-Fowler’s b. Baked beans.

An electrolyte imbalance c. which aims to help a patient deal with the residual consequences of a problem or to prevent the problem from recurring. Immunizing an infant is an example of primary prevention. He’s complaining of pain. the nurse develops strategies to resolve or decrease the patient’s problem. Fluid overload  Answer B. Administering digoxin to treat heart failure and obtaining a smear for a screening test are examples for secondary prevention. A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain shortness of breath. The pain went away 30. Chloramphenicol is not known to cause lethal arrhythmias. and louder there than the S2 sounds. Fresh. the nurse should plan to teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods. He was faking pain c. During the evaluation step. and louder there than S1. The nurse knows that when a client has jugular vein distension.  Answer B.• 28. it’s typically due to: a. Anisocoria b. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis is an example of tertiary prevention. Someone else gave him medication d. During the assessment step. A neck tumor b. Ataxia c. the nurse systematically collects data about the patient or family. Nurse Berri inspects a client’s pupil size and determines that it’s 2 mm in the left eye and 3 mm in the right eye. which promotes early detection and treatment of disease. green vegetables.  Answer D. sharper. Percussion and palpation of the abdomen may affect bowel motility and therefore should follow auscultation. The most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol is bone marrow suppression. such as bananas and oranges. The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. He may have a low threshold for pain b. and creamed corn are not good sources of potassium. Inspection always comes first when performing a physical examination. or status epilepticus. The nurse identifies human responses to actual or potential health problems during the nursing diagnosis step of the nursing process. Diplopia 29. lean red meat. It sounds shorter. which aims to prevent health problems. The S1 sound—the “lub” sound—is loudest at the apex of the heart. During the planning step.  Answer B. Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The S2— the “dub” sound—is loudest at the base. Cataract d. The nurse’s assessment reveals jugular vein distention. It sounds longer. • • • • • • • . but he falls asleep right after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. lower. Dehydration d.  Answer D. higher.  Answer B. The nurse concludes that: a. the nurse determines the effectiveness of the plan of care. Unequal pupils are known as: a. malignant hypertension.

diabetes is a contributing factor associated with peripheral vascular disease. including the time of administration. Option A is incorrect because impaired gas exchange is related to decreased. allowing the rapid infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation. . Option B is inappropriate because no evidence suggest that this patient has a fluid volume excess. The pelvic area is rich in blood supply. especially if common sense interventions fail. the nurse is legally required to document activities related to drug therapy. The basilica.• • • • • • • • • •  Answer D. Although documentation isn’t a step in the nursing process. and an active walking program help decrease the client’s risk of DVT. and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is associated with pelvic surgery. Providing the client with a time frame could give the client false information. providing time for privacy and providing support for the spouse or significant other are important. The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions. Unbundling. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip. Assessment involves data collection. The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).  Answer D. Upcoding is the practice of using a CPT code that’s reimbursed at a higher rate than the code for the service actually provided. and evaluates the success of the plan. Aspirin.  Answer B.  Answer C. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion” takes highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis.  Answer D. establishing goals. Therefore. or the right atrium—that is. Developing a content outline. an antiplatelet agent. not increased. its tip lies in the superior vena cava.  Answer C. Moist. and the client’s reaction. Povidone-iodine can irritate epithelial cells. sterile saline dressings support would heal and are costeffective. the quantity. before interventions that require greater skill such as relaxation techniques. establishing outcome criteria. At some point. and selecting appropriate interventions.  Answer C. If a goal is unmet or partially met the nurse reexamines the data and revises the plan. blood flow. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client’s care. and setting realistic client goals are part of planning rather than implementation. and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for central venous catheters. Sleep medication should be avoided whenever possible. in central venous circulation. Petroleum supports healing but is expensive. Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed. overbilling. Option C may be warranted but is secondary to altered tissue perfusion. Dry sterile dressings adhere to the wound and debride the tissue when removed.  Answer A. such as pillows or snacks.  Answer D. inferior vena cava. the nurse should do a thorough sleep assessment. but not as important as referring the client to a sex counselor. The nurse doesn’t normally provide sex counseling. so it shouldn’t be left on an open wound.  Answer B. jugular. During the evaluation step of the nursing process the nurse determines whether the goals established in the care plan have been achieved. When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly. and misrepresentation aren’t the terms used for this illegal practice. In general. Planning involves setting priorities.

 Answer D. therefore.  Answer A. stridor. the post tonsillectomy client is at risk for aspirating blood from the surgical wound. and prevention of injury are inappropriate. supine. and therefore takes priority over all other needs. hamburger. Airway management is always the nurse’s first priority. or wheezing. timely responses to requests for services. sternal retraction.  Answer B. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogen products in the blood. Chicken provides protein but the chickenspinach-soda combination provides less protein than the baked beanshamburger-milk selection. it serves as a guideline for the nurse’s decision making. The semi-Fowler’s.  Answer B. and carbohydrates. elimination is a first-level or physiological need. Using an undersized blood pressure cuff produces a falsely elevated blood pressure because the cuff can’t record brachial artery measurements unless it’s excessively inflated. Standards of Nursing Practice. The bouillon-spinach-soda choice provides liquid and sodium as well as some iron. belonging is a third-level need. The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is dangerously low.  Answer B.  Answer A. and the Code for Nurses contain nursing practice parameters and primarily describe the use of the nursing process in providing care. possibly leading to aspiration. Inadequate vitamin D intake and low calcium levels aren’t factors in poor healing for this client.and third-level needs can be met only after a client’s first-level needs have been satisfied. Baked beans. A client on bed rest suffers from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance. Pain management and splinting are important for the client’s comfort. A pressure ulcer should never be massaged. Extravasation is the leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. The usual or most prevalent reason for lack of productivity in a group of competent nurses is inadequate communication or a situation in which the nurses have unexpected feeling and emotions. Because of lethargy. and milk are all excellent sources of protein. Second.  Answer B. The other options. Hb level and HCT are within normal limits. According to Maslow. The first priority is to evaluate airway patency before assessing for signs of obstruction. the Nurse Practice Act. Security and safety are second-level needs. The spaghetti-broccoli-tea choice is high in carbohydrates. Although the other options could be contributing to the problematic situation. Therefore. Osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue.• • • • • • • • • • •  Answer B. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia takes priority for thins client because general anesthesia may impair the gag and swallowing reflexes. although important. but would come after airway assessment.  Answer D. rest. vitamins. they’re less likely to be the cause. and . Coughing and deep breathing may be contraindicated if the client has internal bleeding and other injuries. are secondary. A legal document. inadequate protein intake impairs wound healing. informed consent. The Patient’s Bill of Rights addresses the client’s right to information.  Answer B. Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots.  Answer C. The sciatic nerve wouldn’t be damaged by hyperinflation of the blood pressure cuff because the sciatic nerve is located in the lower extremity. fluid balance. placing the client in the side-lying position until he awake is best. and treatment refusal. Therefore.

People of Italian heritage tend to verbalize discomfort and pain. Diplopia is double vision. which can be seen most obviously in the neck veins. Ataxia is uncoordinated actions of involuntary muscle use.  Answer A. Unequal pupils are called anisocoria. A cataract is an opacity of the eye’s lens. A neck tumor doesn’t typically cause jugular vein distention.• • • high-Fowler’s position don’t allow for adequate oral drainage in a lethargic post tonsillectomy client. but it doesn’t directly contribute to jugular vein distention. and he may need medication when he wakes up. The pain was real to the client. and increase the risk of blood aspiration.  Answer A. . This increase causes the vein to distend.  Answer D. Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular system to increase. An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid overload.