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R10

Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. A three hinged parabolic arch has span 25 m and a central rise of 5 m. The arch is hinged at the crown and springing. It carries a point load of 150 kN at 8 m from the left support. Calculate the horizontal thrust, the reactions at the support and the maximum bending moment. 2. A two hinged circular arch of span 25 m and central rise 5 m. The arch is hinged at the ends. It carries uniformly distributed load of 25 kN/horizontal metre run over the 10 m from the right support toward the centre. Calculate the horizontal thrust, the reactions at the supports and the maximum bending moment. Assume that the moment of inertia at any section is I0 sec where is the inclination of the arch with horizontal and I0 is the moment of inertia of the section at the crown. 3. Analyse the frame shown in Fig.1, using Portal Method,

20 kN 3.6 m 40 kN 3.6 m 50 kN 3.6 m

4m

4m

5m

Fig.1 4. Determine the span of a steel parabolic cable suspended between two supports at the same level. The limiting value of the central dip is 1/12th of the span and the permissible stress in the cable is 125 N/mm2.

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Set No: 1

5. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.2 , if the support B sinks by 10 mm. Use moment distribution method. Adopt I = 125 106 mm4 and E = 2 105 N/mm2.

100 kN 1m 75 kN 25 kN/ m

B

2m 3m 3m 4m

150 kN 100 kN 1m 2EI 2m 3m EI 3m 50 kN/ m EI 4m

Fig.3 7. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.4, using flexibility method.

150 kN 150 kN 2m

2m

3m

3m

Fig.4 8. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.5, using stiffness method.

125 kN 20 kN/ m

2 m

3m

4m

Fig.5 *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. A three hinged circular arch has span 25 m and a central rise of 5 m. The arch is hinged at the crown and springings. It carries a point load of 150 kN at 8 m from the left support. Calculate the horizontal thrust, the reactions at the support and the maximum bending moment. 2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 24 m and central rise of 5 m. The arch is hinged at the ends. It carries uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/horizontal metre run over the 8 m from the right support toward the centre. Calculate the horizontal thrust, the reactions at the supports and the maximum bending moment. Assume that the moment of inertia at any section is I0 sec where is the inclination of the arch with horizontal and I0 is the moment of inertia of the section at the crown. 3. Analyse the frame shown in Fig.1, using Cantilever Method. Given within the paranthesis are the areas of the columns in that position.

20 kN 3m 30 kN 3 m 45 kN (2 A) 3.6 m (3 A) 4.5 m (A) 4.5 m

Fig.1 4. The horizontal span of a cable is 100 m. The left support is at higher level than the right support by 10 m. The dip of the lowest point of the cable is 4 m below the right support and the cable is subjected to a load of 6 kN/ horizontal metre. Find the maximum pull in the cable and also find the length of the cable.

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Set No: 2

25 kN 50 kN/ m

2I

5m

6m

150 kN 50 kN/ m 2m 4m

4m

Fig.3 7. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.4, using flexibility method.

100 kN 50 kN 1m 1m 3m 3m

25 kN/ m 3m 4m 150 kN 1m

Fig.5 ***** 2 of 2

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. A three hinged parabolic arch of span 30 m and rise 6m carries uniformly distributed load of 50 kN/horizontal metre run over the right half of the span. Calculate the support reactions and also find bending moment, radial shear and normal thrust at a section 10 m from the right support. 2. A two hinged parabolic arch hinged at the supports has 50 m span and rise 10 m is subjected to 25 kN at 20 m from the right hinge. Find the reactions at the supports. Assume that the moment of inertia at any section is I0 sec where is the inclination of the arch axis with horizontal and I0 is the moment of inertia of the section at the crown. 3. Analyse the frame shown in Fig.1,using portal frame method. Lateral loads are 40 kN, 60 kN and 80 kN acting from top. Each bay is 3.6 m and height of each storey is 4 m.

Fig.1 4. A suspension cable of 60 m span and 5 m dip is stiffened by a three hinged stiffening girder. It is subjected to a concentrated load of 150 KN at 10 m from the left end in addition to a dead load of 10 kN/m. Find the maximum tension in the cable and the shear force and the bending moment in the girder at 15 m from the left end. 5. Analse the beam shown in the Fig.2, by moment distribution method. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams.

50 kN 30 kN 25 kN/ m

2 m

3m

3m

2m

Fig.2 1 of 2

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Set No: 3

25 kN 50 kN/ m

2I

5m

6m

Fig.3 7. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.4, using flexibility method.

50 kN

30 kN

25 kN/ m

2 m

3m

3m

2m

Fig.4 8. Analyse the continuous beam shown in Fig.5, using stiffness method.

100 kN 20 kN/ m 3m 4m 3m

Fig.5 *****

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Set No: 4

1. A three hinged circular arch of span 20 m and rise 5 m carries uniformly distributed load of 25 kN/horizontal metre run over the left half of the span. Calculate the support reactions and also find bending moment, radial shear and normal thrust at a section 10 m from the right support. 2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 25 m and rise 6 m carries uniformly distributed load of 25 kN/horizontal metre run over the left half of the span. Calculate the support reactions and also find bending moment at a section 10 m from the left support. Assume that the moment of inertia at any section is I0 sec where is the inclination of the arch axis with horizontal and I0 is the moment of inertia of the section at the crown. 3. Analyse the frame shown in Fig.1, using Portal Method.

40 kN 4.5 m 60 kN 4.5 m 80 kN 4.5 m 6m 6m

Fig.1 4. A suspension bridge has125 m span and supported by two cables with central dip of 10 m dip. The bridge carries total uniformly distributed load of 750 kN. The cables are attached to the saddles resting on rollers on the top of the piers and the anchor cables make an angle of 450 with vertical. Determine the tension in the anchor cables and the vertical pressure on the piers.

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Set No: 4

5. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.2, by moment distribution method. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams.

100 kN 25 kN/ m

2 m

3m

4m

25 kN 50 kN/ m

4m

5m

Fig.3 7. Analyse the continuous beam shown in Fig.4, using flexibility method.

75 kN 15 kN/ m 3m 4m 3m

Fig.4 8. Analyse the continuous beam shown in Fig.5, using stiffness method.

75 kN 25 N/ m 4m 4m 2m

Fig.5 ***** 2 of 2

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES -III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

*****

1. Explain the constructional features and principle operation of a single phase induction motor. [15] 2. (a) Explain the working principle of an alternator with the help of a neat diagram. (b) A 3-phase, 16-pole synchronous generator has a resultant air-gap flux of 0.06 Wb per pole. The flux is distributed sinusoidally over the pole. The stator has 2 slots per pole per phase and 4 conductors per slot are accommodated in layers. The coil span is 1500 electrical. Calculate the phase and line induced voltages when the machine runs at 375 rpm. [7+8] 3. (a) Explain the leakage reactance and armature reactance of an alternator. (b) The phase EMF of a 3-phase alternator consists of fundamental, 20% of 3rd harmonic and 10% of fifth harmonic. The amplitude of fundamental is 1000 V. Calculate the RMS value of line and phase voltage, when the alternator is connected in (i) Star (ii) Delta [7+8] 4. (a) Explain the two reaction theory as applied to salient pole synchronous machine? (b) A 1 MVA, 11kV, 3-phase, star connected synchronous machine has the following OCC test data Filed current If (A) 40 110 140 180 EOL (kV) 7 12.5 13.75 15 where EOL is line to line voltage at no load. The short circuit test yielded full load current at a field current of 65A, the armature resistance is negligible calculate the voltage regulation at full load 0.8 power factor lagging by MMF method. [8+7] 5. (a) What is meant by synchronization? Explain the way of synchroning an alternator to the infinite bus bars. (b) Two identical 3 MVA alternators are running in parallel. The frequency drops from no load to full load for the two alternators are 50Hz to 47 Hz and 50Hz to 48Hz respectively. (i) How will they share a load of 4000 kW (ii) what is maximum load they can share at unity power factor without overloading any alternator? [7+8]

6. (a) Explain the V-curves and inverted V-curves of synchronous motor. (b) Explain the various power stages of synchronous motor. What are the various losses taking place in synchronous motor. . [8+7]

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Set No: 1

7. (a) Show that the locus of power of a synchronous machine is circle? Give the coordinates of the power circle. (b) Explain the hunting of a synchronous machine. What is the purpose of damper windings in a synchronous machine? [8+7]

8. (a) Compare AC series motor and Universal motor and mention their operational difficulties. (b) Explain the working principle of permanent magnet motors. [8+7] *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES -III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

*****

1. Show that a single phase winding when excited by a single phase supply produce two equal and opposite revolving fields. [15] 2. (a) Explain about integral slot and fractional slot windings. (b) A 4 pole alternator has an armature with 25 slots and 8 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.06 Wb and machine rotates at 1500 rpm. Calculate the EMF generated, if the winding factor is 0.96 and all the conductor in a phase are connected in series. [7+8] 3. (a) Explain the load characteristics of an alternator. (b) Find the r.m.s value of fundamental and third harmonic EMF per phase for an alternator having the following data: 50Hz, 3-phase, 20 poles, 4 slot/pole/phase, double

0

layer winding with 6 conductors/slot, coil span of 150 electrical, the fundamental flux per pole is 0.1 Wb and third harmonic is 17% of fundamental. All coils of a phase are connected in series. [7+8] 4. (a) Explain the Potier triangle method of finding the voltage regulation of an alternator. (b) A 3-phase, 200 kVA, 1.1 kV, 50 Hz star connected alternator having an effective per phase resistance of 0.62 ohms gave the following results: Filed current (A) 20 35 50 80 100 120 Open circuit Voltage (V) 692.82 1120 1450 1750 1953 2180 Short circuit current (A) 0 20 40 60 80 100 Using MMF method, find the voltage regulation at 100 A (i) 0.8 power factor lagging (ii) 0.8 power factor leading. [7+8] 5. (a) Discuss the phenomenon of sudden 3-phase short-circuit at armature terminals of an alternator. Draw the typical wave shape of the current and mark the different regions. (b) A 2 MVA, 3-phase, star connected, 4 pole, 750 rpm alternator is operating on 6000 V bus bars. The synchronous reactance is 6 ohms per phase. Find synchronizing power and torque for full load 0.8 power factor lagging. [8+7] 6. (a) Explain the construction and operating principle of synchronous motor. (b) Describe briefly the effect of varying excitation upon armature current and power factor of synchronous motor when the input power to motor is maintained constant [7+8]. 7. (a) Why synchronous motor is not self starting? Explain the various starting methods of synchronous motor. (b) Explain the characteristics of synchronous induction motor. [8+7] 8. (a) Compare reluctance stepper motor and permanent magnet motor. (b) Explain the operation of a AC series motor with a neat diagram. ***** 1 of 1

[8+7]

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R10

Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES -III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

*****

1. (a) Why single phase, single winding induction motors are not self starting? How they can be started. (b) Derive equation for forward slip and backward slip of a single phase induction motor. [7+8] 2. (a) Derive the expression for EMF induced per phase in a 3-phase alternator? Mention how different winding factors affect the induced e.m.f. (b) A 4-Pole, 3-Phase, 50 Hz, star-connected alternator with 12 slots and 24 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.3 Wb and is sinusoidally distributed. Calculate the line e.m.f generated at 50Hz. [8+7] 3. (a) Explain the effect of armature reaction on the EMF induced in the alternator. Is it possible to obtain load voltage more than EMF inducted? If yes, how? (b) A 16 pole, 3-phase star connected alternator has 144 slots. The coils are short pitched by one slot. The flux per pole is = 100 sin + 30 sin 3 + 20 sin5. Find the harmonics as percentage of phase voltage and line voltage. [8+7] 4. (a) Explain the synchronous impedance method for finding the voltage regulation of an alternator. Mention its limitations. (b) A 3-phase, star connected salient pole synchronous generator is driven at a speed near synchronous with the field circuit open and the stator is supplied from a balanced 3-phase supply. Voltmeter connected across the line gave minimum and maximum readings of 1190 V and 1220 Volts. The line current fluctuated between 125 and 240 Amp. Find the direct and quadrature axis reactances per phase. Neglect armature resistances. [9+6] 5. (a) What are the effects of change of excitation and mechanical power input on alternators operated in parallel. (b) The EMFs of two alternators are 320020 0 and 30000 0 V. Their synchronous impedances are 2.2 + j19 per phase and 2.5 + j 32 per phase. The load impedance is [7+8] 9 + j 5 per phase. Find the circulating current.

6. (a) Derive the expression for the maximum power developed by a synchronous motor. (b) A 3-phase star connected 440 V; the synchronous motor takes a power input of 5 kW at rated voltage. Its synchronous reactance is 5 ohms per phase and resistance is negligible. If its excitation voltage is adjusted equal to rated voltage of 400V, compute the load angle, power factor and armature current. [8+7]

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Set No: 3

7. (a) What is hunting. Discuss the problems with hunting. (b) What is meant by excitation circle? Explain the construction of excitation circle for a synchronous motor. [7+8] 8. Explain with neat diagrams the principle of operation of (a) AC series motor (b) Reluctance motor. *****

[8+7]

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Set No: 4

*****

1. (a) Explain the operation of split phase single phase Induction motor with vector diagram. (b) Explain the working principle of a shaded pole motor. [8+7] 2. (a) Explain the various winding factors in an alternator? Explain the effects of these factors on induced e.m.f. (b) A 3-phase, star connected, 8 pole, 750 rpm alternator has 72 slots on its periphery. Each slot has 12conductors and the winding is short pitched by 2 slots. Find the pitch factor and distribution factor. Also, calculate the induced e.m.f between lines if the flux of 0.04wb is distributed sinusoidally. All the conductors in phase are connected in series. [7+8] 3. (a) What are harmonics? Explain the sources of harmonics. What are the various effects of harmonics on generated e.m.f in an alternator? (b) Draw the phasor diagrams of alternator, assuming the stator phase currents are to lagging, leading, deduce the expression for the induced voltage? [7+8] 4. (a) Explain how Xd and Xq of a salient pole alternator can be found experimentally. (b) A 1000 kVA, 11 kV, 3-phase star connected alternator has a resistance of 2 ohms per phase. The open circuit voltage and the voltage at rated full load current at zero power factor lagging are as follows: Filed current If (A) 45 55 110 150 170 Line Voltage (V) 5900 7100 12600 13850 16000 Line Voltage (V) at ZPF 0 1500 8500 10550 12500 Calculate the voltage regulation of the alternator by synchronous impedance method for full load current at 0.8 pf lagging [7+8] 5. (a) Show that in order to obtain a constant voltage, constant frequency of a practical bus bar system, the number of alternators connected in parallel should be as large as possible. (b) A 5 MVA, 10 kV, 1500 rpm, 3-phase, and 50 Hz alternator is operating on infinite bus bar. Find synchronizing power per mechanical degree of angular displacement at (i) Noload (ii) Full-load at rated voltage and 0.8pf lagging. [8+7] 6. (a) With the help of a vector diagram explain the operation of synchronous motor as synchronous condenser. (b) A sub-station operating at full load of 1200 kVA supplies a load at 0.7 power factor lagging. Calculate the permissible additional load at this power factor and the rating of synchronous condenser to raise the substation power to 0.9 lagging. [8+7] 7. (a) With neat diagram and explanation, show how damper winding prevents oscillations. (b) Explain the various starting methods of synchronous motor. [7+8] 1 of 2

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Set No: 4

8. (a) Explain simply why a universal motor can operate from DC supply as well as AC supply. (b) Explain the principle of operation of a permanent magnet motor with neat diagram. [7+8] *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Compare the Distortion energy theory and maximum shear stress theory. (b) A 50 mm diameter non rotating shaft of steel with yield strength of 400 MPa is subjected to a steady torque of 1500 Nm. Find the permissible steady bending moment that can be superimposed on it if the factor of safety is 5. Use Von-Mises theory. Locate the loading point in the Von-Mises ellipse. 2. (a) What is stress concentration? What are the different methods to reduce stress concentration? (b) A flat plate is subjected to a tensile force of 5 kN as shown in figure 1. The plate material is grey cast iron FG 200 and the factor of safety is 2.5. Determine the thickness of the plate. All the dimensions are in mm only.

Figure 1

3. (a) Define the efficiency of the riveted joint. According to Indian Boiler Regulations, what is the highest efficiency required of a riveted joint? (b) A double riveted lap joint with chain riveting is to be made for joining two plates 10 mm thick. The allowable stresses are 60 MPa in tension, 50 MPa in shear and 80 MPa in crushing. Find the rivet diameter, pitch of rivets and distance between rows of rivets. Also find the efficiency of the joint. 4. A cast iron bracket, supporting the transmission shaft and the belt pulley, is fixed to the steel structure by means of four bolts as shown in Figure 2. There are two bolts at A and two bolts at B. The tensions in slack and tight sides of the belt are 5 kN and 10 kN respectively. The belt tensions act in a vertically downward direction. The distances are l1 = 50 mm, l2 = 150 mm and l = 200 mm. The maximum permissible tensile stress in the bolt is 60 N/mm2. Specify a suitable bolt size.

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Set No: 1

Figure 2

5. (a) Where do you use cotter joint? Give practical examples. (b) Design and draw a cotter joint to support a load varying from 30 kN in compression to 30 kN in tension. The material used is carbon steel for which the following allowable stresses may be used. The load is applied statically. Tensile stress = compressive stress = 50 MPa; shear stress = 35 MPa and crushing stress = 90 MPa. 6. A shaft is supported by two bearings 400 mm apart and carries a bevel gear of 200 mm pitch diameter at one end that is overhanging beyond the nearer bearing by 150 mm. The gear produces a radial load of 9.8 kN and a thrust load of 2.94 kN when the speed is 600 rpm. Determine the shaft diameter if the shaft is made of steel with allowable shear stress of 40 MPa. Also determine the angle of twist and deflection at the bevel gear location if the modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa and the modulus of elasticity is 210 GPa. 7. (a) What is the difference between rigid and flexible coupling? (b) Design a cast iron flange coupling for joining two mild steel shafts transmitting 100 kW at 250 rpm. The angle of twist should not exceed 10 in a length of 25 diameters. Take yield strength in shear for the shaft is 40 MPa and for bolts is 28MPa. 8. (a) What is surge in spring? What are the methods to avoid the surge in spring? (b) Design a closed coil helical spring for a boiler safety valve which is required to blow off steam at pressure of 1.5 MPa. The diameter of the valve is 50 mm. The initial compression of the spring is 40 mm and the lift is limited to 20 mm. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Derive the relationship between the yield strength in shear and the yield strength in tension using the Distortion energy theory. (b) A machine element is subjected to principal stresses of 120 MPa, 0 MPa and -90 MPa. The material used is 30C8. Calculate the factor of safety by (a) the maximum normal stress theory, (b) the maximum shear stress theory and (c) the Distortion energy theory 2. (a) What is fatigue stress concentration factor? In what way, it is different from the theoretical stress concentration factor. (b) A machine part is made of forged steel with ultimate strength of 630 MPa and endurance strength is 0.22 times ultimate strength. The life of the part is 250000 cycles. The loading for the 50% of the time is 225 MPa and for 30% of the time is 145 MPa. Calculate the loading during the remaining time. 3. (a) What are primary and secondary shear stresses in eccentrically loaded welded joints? What are the assumptions made in evaluating them? (b) A welded connection of steel plates, as shown in Figure 1, is subjected to an eccentric force of 10 kN. Determine the throat dimension of the welds, if the permissible shear stress is limited to 95 MPa

Figure 1

4. A pulley bracket, as shown in Figure 2, is supported by 4 bolts, two at A-A and two at B-B. Determine the size of bolts using an allowable shear stress of 25 MPa for the material of the bolts. List the assumptions made in the analysis.

Figure 2

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Set No: 2

5. (a) What is knuckle joint? Give practical examples. (b) Design a knuckle joint to connect two circular rods subjected to an axial tensile force of 50 kN. The material for the two rods and pin is selected as plain carbon steel of Grade 30C8 with yield strength 400 MPa. Assume factor of safety of 5. Specify the dimensions of the knuckle joint with a neat sketch. 6. (a) Which theory is commonly used for the design of the shafts? Explain why? (b) An electric motor drives a machine through a pair of spur gears. The pinion is mounted on motor shaft and over hangs by 200 mm from the nearest bearing. The pinion has 20 teeth of 10 mm module and 200 involute profile. Design the motor shaft to transmit 15 kW at 1200 rpm. Use safe shear stress value of 40 MPa. Take the shock and fatigue correction factors as 1.2 and 1 respectively. 7. (a) What is the difference between protected and unprotected rigid flange coupling? (b) A driving shaft is joined with coaxial driven shaft through a muff coupling. The shaft transmits 60 kW of power at 150 rpm. Design the shaft, key and muff. Assume a factor of safety of 5 with following ultimate strength values. Ultimate shear strength for shaft = 300 N/mm2 Ultimate shear strength for key = 200 N/mm2 Ultimate shear strength for muff = 50 N/mm2 Ultimate compressive strength for key = 500 N/mm2 8. (a) What are the different types of stresses induced in the wire of helical springs? Sketch its distribution. (b) From a toy gun, a bullet of 1 N is fired. The bullet travels a distance of 10 m. the compression of the spring when the gun is loaded is 100 mm and the bore of the barrel is 20 mm. Design a suitable spring. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Derive the Von Mises effective stress equation using the principal stresses. (b) A 100 mm diameter off-set link is transmitting an axial pull of 30 KN as shown in the figure 1. Find the stresses at points A and B.

Figure 1

2. (a) Compare the Soderberg, Goodman and Gerber diagrams for the zero variable stresses. (b) A machine component is subjected to fluctuating stress that varies from 40 to 100 N/mm2. The corrected endurance limit stress for machine component is 270 N/mm2. The ultimate and tensile strength of the material are 600 and 450 N/mm2 respectively. Find the factor of safety using (i) Soderberg line, (ii) Goodman line and (iii) Gerber theory. Also, find the factor of safety against static loading. 3. (a) How is a rivet joint of uniform strength designed? (b)Two lengths of mild steel tie rod having width 200 mm are to be connected by means of Lozenge joint with two cover plates to withstand a tensile load of 180 kN. Completely design the joint, if the permissible stresses are 80 MPa in tension; 65 MPa in shear and 160 MPa in crushing. Draw a neat sketch of the joint. 4. A bearing shown in Figure 2 is fastened to a frame by 6 bolts spaced equally on a 250 mm bolt circle, of which 2 bolts are positioned on the horizontal line. The bearing flange diameter is 300 mm and a load of 50 kN is applied at 275 mm from the frame. Determine the size of the bolts. What are conditions required for the arrangement of the bolts to have the maximum strength. Assume that the bolt is made of C20 steel having yield strength of 245 MPa and Factor of safety 3.

Figure 2

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Set No: 3

5. (a) Differentiate between a cotter and knuckle joint. (b) Design a spigot and socket joint to connect two rods of 30C8 steel to carry an axial tensile and compressive load of 10 kN. Explain the construction of the joint with a neat sketch 6. A steel shaft 800 mm long transmitting 15 kW at 400 r.p.m. is supported at two bearings at the two ends. A gear wheel having 80 teeth and 500 mm pitch circle diameter is mounted at 200 mm from the left hand side bearing and receives power from a pinion meshing with it. The axis of pinion and gear lie in the horizontal plane. A pulley of 300 mm diameter is mounted at 200 mm from right hand side bearing and is used for transmitting power by a belt. The belt drive is inclined at 30 to the vertical in the forward direction. The belt lap angle is 180 degrees. The coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.3. Design and sketch the arrangement of the shaft assuming the values of safe stresses as: = 55 MPa; t= 80 MPa. Take torsion and bending factor 1.5 and 2 respectively . 7. (a) Sketch a muff coupling and identify its advantages and disadvantages. (b) A shaft transmitting 150 kW is to be connected to a coaxial shaft through cast iron flange coupling. The shaft runs at 120 rpm. The key and shaft are to be made of same material for which permissible shearing stress is 60 N/mm2 and compressive strength is 120 N/mm2. The steel bolts may be subjected to maximum shearing stress of 26 N/mm2. Design protected type flange coupling. 8. (a) Derive the expression for the strain energy stored in helical spring in terms of wire diameter, mean coil diameter and number of turns. (b) A railway wagon of mass 250 kN moving with a velocity of 2.5 m/s is brought to rest by springs of mean each diameter 350 mm. the maximum deflection of the spring is 210 mm. Find the wire diameter and number of turns. Take modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa and allowable shear stress 600 MPa. *****

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Set No: 4

***** 1. (a) Differentiate between (i) Elastic Deformation and Plastic Deformation (ii) Ductility and Brittleness. (b)A mass of 50 kg drops through 25 mm at the center of a 250 mm long simply supported beam. The beam has square cross section. It is made of steel 30C8 and the factor of safety is 2. The modulus of elasticity is 207 000 N/mm2. Determine the dimensions of the cross-section of the beam. 2. A cast iron shaft, with an ultimate tensile strength of 175 MPa, is subjected to a torsional load which is completely reversed. The load is to be applied an indefinite number of cycles. The shaft is 50 mm diameter and is joined to a 75 mm diameter shaft with 12.5 mm radius fillet. The factor of safety is to be 2. What is the maximum torque that can be applied to the shaft? Solve by two methods: (i) using Soderberg Equation (ii) Torsion Equation. 3. An eccentrically loaded bracket is welded to the support as shown in Figure 1. The permissible shear stress for the weld material is 55 N/mm2 and the load is static. Determine the throat and leg dimensions for the welds. Explain the nature of the stresses induced in the welds.

Figure 1

4. For the circular flange shown in Figure 2, P = 20 kN and l = 100 mm. It is supported by 6 bolts of 30C8 steel at 150 mm pitch circle diameter. Find the diameter of the bolts if the outer diameter of the bracket is 200 mm. Consider Factor of safety = 6. List the assumptions made. Discuss the nature of the force developed in bolts.

Figure 2

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Set No: 4

5. (a) A heat treated steel shaft of tensile yield strength of 350 MPa has a diameter of 50 mm. The shaft rotates at 1000 rpm and transmits 100 kW through a gear. Select an appropriate rectangular key for the gear. (b) Draw a neat sketch of a cotter joint and write the equations of failure for the different sections.

6. A transmission shaft supporting a spur gear B and pulley D is shown in figure 3. The shaft is mounted on two bearings A and C. the diameter of the pulley and the pitch circle diameter of the gear are 450 and 300 mm respectively. The pulley transmits 20 kW power at 500 rpm to the gear. The belt tension ratio is 3. The material of the shaft is steel with ultimate strength 700 MPa and yield strength 460 MPa. Take the shock and fatigue correction factors are 1.5 each. The gear and pulley are keyed to the shaft. Determine the diameter of the shaft.

Figure 3

7. (a) What is the difference between a clutch and coupling? (b) Design a bush type flexible coupling to transmit 50 kW at 300 rpm to a compressor. Select your own material and factor of safety.

8. (a) What are the different styles of ends for the helical compression springs? State the relation between active and inactive coils for each type. (b) Design a helical valve spring for an operating load range of 100 N to 150 N. The deflection of the spring is 7.5 mm for this range. Take yield strength in shear is 700 MPa, factor of safety is 1.5 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Define and explain the following terms: (i) Directivity (ii) Gain (iii) Aperture Efficiency (b) An antenna has a radiation resistance of 72, a loss resistance of 8 and a power gain of 12 dB. Determine the antenna efficiency and its directivity. 2. (a) Derive the expressions for radiation fields from a vertical /2 radiator and hence prove that it has a radiation resistance of about 73. List all the assumptions involved in it. (b) Define radiation resistance of an antenna. Calculate the radiation resistance of a /10 wire dipole in free space. 3. (a) What is a broadside array? Explain in detail the structure, radiation pattern and the principle of operation of such an antenna (b) For an broadside array consisting of several half wave length long isotropic radiators is to have a directive gain of 30. Find the array length and width of the major lobe. 4. (a) With a neat sketch, explain Rhombic Antennas. (b) Calculate in dB the directivity of 20 turn helix having =120, circumference equal to one wavelength. 5. (a) A parabolic dish provides a gain of 75 dB at a frequency of 15 GHz. Calculate the capture area of the antenna, its 3dB and null beam widths. (b) Define parabola. Show that by sketches how its geometry makes it a suitable basis for antenna reflectors. Why an antenna employing a paraboloid reflector is likely to be a highly directive receiving antenna? Explain. 6. (a) Explain the principle of operation of Lens antenna with neat sketches. (b) Calculate the index of refraction of dielectric lens formed with radial distance from centre of sphere is 0.5m and radius of sphere is 0.39m.

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Set No: 1

7. (a) Write short notes on the following: (i) Maximum usable frequency (ii) Effect of earths magnetic field on ionosphere propagation (b) A radio communication link is to be established via ionosphere. Take maximum virtual height to be 100Km at the midpoint of the path. Assume critical frequency to be 2x106 Hz and distance between stations to be 600Km. Find. (i) Optimum working frequency (ii) Angle of elevation of beam 8. (a) Explain space wave propagation with its limitations. (b) A 150m antenna transmitting at 1.2MHz by ground wave has an antenna current of 8A. What voltage is received by the receiving antenna 40Km away, with a height of 2m. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Define & Give the significance of each of the following: i. Radiation Intensity ii. Effective Antenna Height iii. Beam efficiency iv. Aperture Efficiency (b) An isotropic antenna radiates equally in all the directions. The total power delivered to the radiator is 100 Kw. Calculate the power density at a distances of. (i) 100 meters. (ii) 1000 meters. 2. (a) Explain the concept of retarded scalar and vector potentials. (b) If maximum current in the antenna is 20 amps, find the field intensity at a distance of 2 Kms along the axis perpendicular and at an angle 300 from the antenna. 3. (a) Derive an expression for the array factor of two isotropic elements in. i. Broadside array ii. End fire array (b) A uniform linear array consisting of 16 isotropic point sources with a spacing of /4. If the phase difference is equal to -900. Calculate (i) HPBW , (ii)Beam solid angle (iii) Beam efficiency (iv)Directivity 4. (a) Explain the construction, operation and design consideration for a Helical antenna. (b) Design a helical antenna with a directivity of 15 dB that is operating in the axial mode and whose polarization is nearly circular. The spacing between the turns is /10. Determine the following: (i) Number of turns (ii) Axial ratio (iii) Progressive phase shifts (in degrees) between turns to achieve axial mode radiation. 5. (a) Explain the methods of feeding a paraboloid reflector in detail. (b) Calculate the beamwidth between first nulls & gain in dB for a 2.5m paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz.

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Set No: 2

6. (a) Show a microwave bench setup suitable for antenna measurements. Explain how antenna gain can be measured using this bench setup. What are the precautions necessary to minimize errors in the above measurement? (b) While measuring gain of a horn antenna the gain oscillator was set for 9.00GHz frequency and the attenuation inserted was found to be 9.8dB. Calculate the gain of the horn if the distance between two horn was 35cm. 7. (a) Derive the expression for refractive index of ionosphere and critical frequency. (b) Assume that the reflection takes place at a height of 400km and maximum density corresponds to 0.9 refractive index at 10MHz. What will be the range for which MUF is 10MHz? [For flat & for curved earth] 8. (a) Explain the mechanism by which the space wave propagates. What is meant by radio horizon? (b) A VHF communication is established with 35W transmitter at 90MHz. Find the distance upto which the LOS communication may be possible, if the heights of Tx & Rx antennas are 40m & 25m. Also find field strength at receiving end. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Differentiate scattering loss aperture, collecting aperture & physical aperture of antenna. (b) In a microwave communication link, two identical antennas operating at 10 GHz are used with power gain of 40 dB. If the transmitter power is 1W. Find the received power, if the range of the link is 30Km. 2. (a) Explain loop antennas in detail (b) A grounded vertical antenna has an effective height of 113.3m and operates at a wavelength of 18.8 Km with a r.m.s. value of base current 725A. Find E and H fields at a distance of 175 Km and its power radiated. 3. (a) Briefly explain the following: 1. Principle of pattern multiplication 2. Binomial array (b) A linear broadside array consists of four equal isotropic inphase point sources with /3 spacing & overall length of the array is . Find the directivity & beam width. 4. (a) Explain different modes of operation of helical antenna in detail. (b) Find number of turns, turn diameter and axial ratio of right circularly polarized axial mode helical antenna with 17dB gain for operation at 1600MHz with turn spacing /. 5. (a) Describe the constructional details and principles of operation of parabolic reflector. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of these antennas. (b) A paraboloid reflector antenna with diameter 20mts. It is designed to operate at 6GHz and illumination efficiency of 0.54. Calculate the antenna gain in decibels. 6. (a) With a neat sketch explain the different types of horn antennas. Mention merits and demerits of each type. (b) With the test antenna connected, the detector output meter is adjusted to read full scale or zero decibels. Now with the standard calibrated antenna connected, the output is down 7dB. If the gain of the calibrated antenna is 15dB, calculate the gain of the antenna under test.

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Set No: 3

7. (a) Write short notes on skip distance. (b) At a 150km height in the ionosphere, the electron density at night is about 2x1012 m-3 and the signal MUF is 1.5 times the critical frequency for a transmission distance of 600Km. Compute the following: (i) Critical frequency (ii) Relative dielectric constant (iii) Phase constant (iv) Wave impedance (v) Wave velocity (vi) Group velocity (vii) Incident angle 8. (a) Explain the following: 1. Duct propagation 2. Path losses (b) Two aircrafts are flying at altitudes of 3000m and 5000m respectively. What is the minimum possible distance along the surface of the earth over which they can have effective point to point microwave communication? Radius of earth is 6.37x106m. *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Antenna effective height ii. Antenna aperture iii. Current distribution on a thin wire antenna (b) The radiation resistance of an antenna is 72 and loss resistance is 8. What is the directivity in dB if the power gain is 16. 2. (a) Obtain expression for potential fields due to sinusoidally varying sources and bring out the importance of Lorentz guage condition. (b) An Antenna whose effective height of 100m at a frequency of 60KHz radiated 100KW of power. Determine the strength of the electric field at a distance of 100Km from the antenna. Neglect ground effect and atmospheric losses. 3. (a) Discuss the conditions under which an array of antenna will behave either as a broadside array or an end fire array. (b) A broadside array operating at 100cm wavelength consists of four halfwave dipoles spaced 50cm. Each element carries radio frequency current in the same phase and of magnitude 0.5 amperes. Calculate (i) Radiated power (ii) Half width of the major lobe. 4. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Long wire antennas ii. V antennas (b) Design a five turn helical antenna which at 300MHz operates in the axial mode and possesses circular polarization in the major lobe. Determine the following: (i) Near optimum circumference (in and in meters) (ii) Spacing (in and in meters) for near optimum pitch angle design (iii) Input impedance (iv) Axial ratio

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Set No: 4

5. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Yagi-uda arrays ii. Corner reflectors (b) Calculate the angular aperture for a paraboloid reflector antenna for which the aperture number is (i) 0.25 (ii) 0.50 (iii) 0.60 Given the diameter of the reflector mouth is 10m. Calculate the position of the focal point with reference to the reflector mouth in each case 6. (a) Explain the procedure for measuring the Directivity of antenna. (b) Calculate the minimum distance required to measure the field pattern of an antenna of diameter 2m at a frequency of 3GHz. Derive the necessary equations.

7. (a) Discuss the effects of earths magnetic field on ionosphere radio wave propagation. (b) Communication by ionosphere propagation is required for a distance of 200Km. Height of the layer is 220Km and critical frequency is 5MHz. Find Maximum Usuable Frequency. 8. (a) Explain the Tropospheric wave propagation. (b) Determine the height of the transmitting antenna to obtain a maximum distance of transmission upto 38km from a 24 meter high receiving antenna. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICRO PROCESSORS AND MULTICORE SYSTEMS (Computer Science and Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain the register set of 8086 processor. (b) What is addressing mode? Explain different type of addressing modes in 8086 with examples. 2. (a) List out and explain conditional jump instructions of 8086 with example. (b) Write an ALP to multiply a two 32bit number & store the 64-bit product in memory. 3. (a) Differentiate between Macros & Procedures with an examples. (b) Write an ALP to find the GCD of four, 8-bit numbers using a procedure. 4. (a) What are assembler directives? Explain the significance of the following assembler directives with suitable examples. i) LENGTH ii)TYPE iii)DB iv)EQU (b) Write an ALP to convert a 3- digit BCD number to binary number. 5. (a) What is the interrupt vector table? Draw and explain the interrupt vector table for 8086. (b) Describe the response of 8086 processor, when interrupt coming on INTR. 6. (a) List out and Explain bit level instructions of 8086 with examples. (b) Write an ALP to count number of positive & negative numbers in an array of Nnumbers. ; (ii) ; 7. (a) Explain the function of the following 80386 pins: i) (iii) ( ;iv) ( ;v) ( ;vi) ( ;vii) /( ; viii) ; (b) Write a note on the internal programming model of 80486 & depict the EFLAG register in detail. 8. (a) Write a note on Pentium Processor? (b) Compare dual core & Core due with respect to basic characteristics and architecture. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICRO PROCESSORS AND MULTICORE SYSTEMS (Computer Science and Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain the segmentation in 8086 processor. What are the advantages of segmentation in 8086? (b) Draw & Explain the internal architecture of 8086 2. (a) Determine whether the following instructions are valid or not. If valid, explain their operation & flags affected, if not, mention the reason. i) XLAT AL ii) MOV BX,[DX] iii) NOT 34h iv) AAD v) TEST OPRI, OPR2 vi) JNGE label. (b) Write a 8086 ALP to add two- 64 bit numbers and store result in suitable memory locations. 3. (a) Write an ALP that displays a carriage return & a line feed using a MACRO? (b) Differentiate between Macros & Procedures with an example. 4. (a) What is assembler directive?. Explain the following directives with example. i) ASSUME ii)EQU iii)ENDS iv)EXTRN (b) Explain the following instructions with examples. i) AAA ii) LOOPNE iii) AAM iv) TEST 5. (a) What is interrupt? How operation takes place and Explain different types of interrupts in 8086? (b) Write difference between hardware and software interrupts of 8086 processor.

6. (a) List out and explain bit level instructions of 8086 with examples. (b) Write an ALP to convert 4-digit BCD to ASCII.

7. (a) Explain the following with respect to Pentium Processor: i) Branch Prediction logic ii) Cache structure (b) Explain the structure of special 80386 registers. 8. (a) Explain the basic feature of Pentium Processor (b) Compare dual core & Core due with respect to basic characteristics and architecture *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICRO PROCESSORS AND MULTICORE SYSTEMS (Computer Science and Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) With reference to 8086 CPU, explain the role of the following : (i). Instruction queue; (ii) Segment registers; (iii) General purpose registers (b) Find out machine codes for the following 8086 instructions. (i) MOV AX, BX; ii) ADD [BX], AX (iii) ADD AX, 1234H (iv) ADC [BX] [1234], CX. 2. (a) Discuss the following 8086 instructions with example. (i) CWD ii) IDIV iii) AAS iv) SAR (b) Write an ALP to arrange N numbers in ascending order using bubble sort technique. 3. (a) Write program to check whether the entered string is palindrome or not. Accept the string through keyboard & print a suitable message, as PALINDROME or NOT PALINDROME. (b) Differentiate between Macros & procedures with an example. 4. (a) What are assembler directives? Explain the following directives with example. i) INCLUDE ii) ORG iii) END P iv) PROC (b) List out and explain bit manipulation instructions of 8086. 5. (a) Explain interrupt operation? Compare software & hardware interrupts in 8086. (b) Explain interrupt vector table of 8086. 6. (a) List and explain all ASCII related instructions in 8086 with examples. (b) Write an ALP to transfer 10 words of data using REP MOV SW instruction from source location to destination location. What is the role of SI, DI registers & DF bit. 7. (a) Draw & explain internal architecture of 80286 CPU?. Features of Pentium processor over previous processors. (b) Differentiate between 80386 & 80486 processor. 8. (a) With a neat diagram Explain the architecture of Pentium Processor (b) Compare dual core & Core due with respect to basic characteristics and architecture *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICRO PROCESSORS AND MULTICORE SYSTEMS (Computer Science and Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) List the major steps in developing an assembly language programming. (b) Explain the register set of 8086 processor. 2. (a) Write a delay loop which produces a delay of 500 sec on an 8086 with a 5MHz clock. (b) Explain standard program structures in 8086 such as SEQUENCE, IF-THEN-ELSE, WHILE-DO and REPEATE-UNTIL. 3. (a) List the string primitives. Explain with suitable examples. (b) Write a 8086 ALP to reverse a string given below. ANDHRAPRADESH 4. (a) What are assembler directives? Explain the following directives with examples. i) DB(?) ii) EQU 40h iii) GLOBAL iv) GROUP (b) Differentiate between the following instructions & explain with suitable examples. i) Shift & Rotate ii) HLT & INT-4 iii) JMP & CALL 5. (a) Explain interrupt operation? Compare software & hardware interrupts in 8086. (b) Write a scheme to generate NMI on power failure & Explain. 6. (a) List and Explain all string related instructions in 8086 with examples. (b) Write an ALP to find sum of even & odd numbers in a given array of N numbers. 7. (a) What is pipelining? How does cache memory enhance the performance of Pentium Microprocessors? (b) Discuss briefly the two modes of operation in 80386. 8. (a) Compare different Pentium Processors. (b) Compare dual core & Core due with respect to basic characteristics and architecture. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain in detail about HTTP and POP3 protocols. (b) Define forms. Briefly explain all its attributes with neat example. 2. (a) Explain the following terms related to CSS: i. Font size ii. Font weight iii. Font stretch iv. Text decoration v. Text transformation vi. Text alignment vii. Padding viii. Border style. (b) Explain the various ways you can refer a color in CSS. 3. (a) JavaScript is event driven. What are events? What events can JavaScript handle? (b) Write and test a regular expression which swaps the first two words of a string. 4. (a) Explain how a switch-case statement is used in JavaScript with an example? (b) Describe the scoping rules for the JavaScript with examples. 5. (a) With a suitable example explain the creation of namespaces in XML. (b) Explain the various types of XML schema data types. 6. Briefly explain the Creation and Running procedure of PHP script. 7. (a) Briefly explain about user defined functions in PHP. (b) Briefly explain about Math built in functions. 8. Explain in detail about AJAX with an example program. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Explain the following with examples: (a) Creation of HTML document with table. (b) Creation of HTML document with frames. 2. (a) Describe the different ways that styles can be added to a page with their merits and demerits. (b) What is stylesheet class? 3. (a) Compare and contrast HTML and DHTML. (b) Write a JavaScript to validate a form consisting of a username. Also navigate to another web page after validation. 4. (a) Explain in detail the importance of Math object. (b) What are the methods of Date object? Explain. 5. Define XML Schema. Explain in detail XML Schema and namespaces with examples. 6. (a) How to create PHP Script? Explain with example. (b) How to access HTTP data in PHP? 7. (a) Explain about type casting mechanism in PHP. (b) Explain in detail Regular Expression in PHP. 8. Explain the usage of XML and PHP with AJAX with illustrations. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Define frame. Briefly explain all its attributes with neat example. (b) Explain in detail about SMTP protocol. 2. (a) Describe the scoping rules for the JavaScript with examples. (b) Briefly explain about Page Layout. 3. (a) Describe the primitive data types that JavaScript uses. (b) Write a script that reads an integer and determines and displays whether it is an odd or even number. 4. (a) Write a CSS program that explains the concept of internal StyleSheets. (b) Write a CSS program to explain background attachments. 5. Briefly explain DOM and SAX XML Parsers with neat examples. 6. (a) Explain in detail Associate Arrays in PHP. (b) Explain in detail Array Functions in PHP. 7. (a) Briefly explain about constants and operators in PHP. (b) Explain about Cookies in PHP. 8. Explain in detail about CGI with an example Perl program. *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Define MIME. What is meant by MIME types of file? Which is the method that return the MIME type of file? (b) Briefly explain the history of Internet and WWW. 2. (a) Briefly explain about CSS properties and CSS for links. (b)Explain about controlling fonts in CSS. 3. Explain in detail about Page Layout which includes Page size, Designing pages, Structuring pages. 4. (a) Write a PHP Script to test whether given number is even or odd. (b)What are the different Operators supported by PHP. 5. Define XML DTD. Explain in detail the types of XML DTD with neat examples. 6. (a) Discuss running PHP Script. (b) Explain in detail Functions in PHP. 7. (a) Explain the steps to connect the database from PHP script. (b) Write a PHP script to retrieve data from database. Assume your own database. 8. Write a technical note on (a) AJAX (b) CGI *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1 2 Define management? What are the Fayols principles of management? Write short notes on the following. a. Virtual Organization b. Cellular Organization c. Committee Organization Define work study. Explain the process of work study. What are the objectives of an effective inventory control system? Explain the methods of inventory control system. Training and development ate two important activities of HR department. Explain. What is value chain of a business? Critically discuss the significance of value chain analysis in strategic management. XYZ Construction Company has listed various activities that are involved in constructing a building. These are summarized along with immediate predecessors in the following table. Draw a project network for the given project

3 4

5 6

S.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Activity A B C D E F G H

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Set No: 1

Write short notes on the following i. Capability Maturity Model (CMM) ii. Supply Chain Management (SCM), and iii. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1 (a) Define the leadership. Examine various styles of leadership. (b) What are the Functions of management?

Explain the concept of organization structure and examine the features of functional organization structure.

How the Statistical Quality Control is useful in controlling the quality of a product?

Write Short Notes on the following. (i) EOQ (ii) ABC Analysis (iii) BIN Card Training and development ate two important activities of HR department. Explain

What is the environment scanning? How SWOT analysis should help a firm for strategy formulation? Explain the following concepts along with the features and significance to the business. a. Re-engineering b. Bench Marketing, and c. Balanced Score Card (BSC)

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Set No: 2

The following are the activities involved in ABC Manufacturing Company. Draw the project network and estimate the protect duration using CPM. Activity A B C D E F G Description Forecast sales volume Study competitive Design item and facilities Prepare production Estimate cost of production Set sales price Prepare budget ***** Predecessor A C D B,E F Duration (days) 10 7 5 3 2 1 14

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1 Write short notes on the following a. Maslows theory of Motivation b. Hertzberg Two factor theory, and c. Theory X and Y. Explain the conflict between staff and line authority and steps to resolve the same

3 4

What are the types of plant layout? Discuss the merits and demerits of each of them. Discuss the Product life cycle and examine the marketing strategies for different stages of PLC. Write short notes on the following. a. job Analysis b. Job Description c. Job Specifications, and d. Merit Rating Define employee promotion. What are the various aspects of promotion function of HR manager?

What is strategy? Discuss the significance, goals and objectives of strategic management.

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Set No: 3

Consider the following data and compute the optimal crashed project completion time.

Activity Normal Time(weeks) 1-2 1-3 1-4 2-5 3-2 3-4 4-5 13 5 7 12 6 5 9

Normal cost (Rs.) 700 400 600 800 900 1000 1500

Crash Time

Crash Cost

9 4 4 11 4 3 6

If the indirect costs per week are Rs. 250, find the optimal crashed project completion time. *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November/December - 2012 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Define the management. Management. Explain the nature, scope and functions of

2.

What is span of management? Compare and contrast between the narrow span and wider Span of control Examine the importance of various process charts to a quality control manager. Explain the promotion Mix and discuss various components of promotion Mix Define employee promotion. What are the various aspects of promotion function of HR manager? What is environment scanning? How SWOT analysis should help a firm for strategy formulation? Write short notes on the following a. Management Information System (MIS) b. Material Requirement Planning (MRP), and c. Total Quality Management (TQM) XYZ Construction Company has listed various activities that are involved in constructing a building. These are summarized along with immediate predecessors in the following table. Draw a project network for the given project.

3. 4. 5.

6.

7.

8.

S.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Activity A B C D E F G H

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Set No. 1

III B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Consider an air standard Brayton cycle, where the air enters the compressor at 0.12Mpa, 18o C. It leaves the compressor at 0.5 Mpa. TIT is 950o C. Determine pressure and temperature at each point in the cycle. Work out the eciency of its compressor, turbine and the overall engine. 2. Making use of rst principle, develop an expression for thrust developed by a jet engine with inlet area of 0.5 sq. m .A turbojet engine is under static testing on a test bed. It develops a jet speed of 500 m /s at a pressure of 1 atm at 750 K at exit of the nozzle. Considering the location at sea level, calculate the static thrust in this case. 3. Consider a front air intake for a subsonic turbojet airplane as that for He-178 or F-86 Saber jet. Show the internal layout for the air to be swallowed by the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane takes a turn of about 5 in its yaw plane. 4. Illustrate with sketches and diagrams, various types of supersonic air inlets employed by aircraft industry. Explain salient features and aerodynamic performance of each of these. 5. For the turbojet engine combustion chamber, 45 lbm of air enters with each 1 lbm of JP-4 (kerosene) fuel. Assume that these reactants enter an adiabatic combustor at 12000 R. The heating value, hP R of JP-4 is 18400Btu/lbm of fuel at 298K. Thus the heat released H298K by the fuel per 1 lbm of the products is 400 Btu/lbm at 298K. Determine the temperature of the products leaving the combustor. Given: Cp p =0.267 Btu/(lbm. 0 R ) and CpR = 0.240 Btu/(lbm.0 R ) 6. What do you understand by propelling nozzles? Dierentiate between convergent and convergent-divergent nozzles. Which type is suitable for aircraft gas turbine engine and why? 7. A single-sided straight vaned centrifugal compressor is required to deliver 10kg/s of air with a total pressure ratio of 4:1 when operating at a speed of 16500rpm. The air inlet pressure and temperature are 1.013bar and 300K respectively. Calculate: (a) Tip speed of the impeller. (b) Actual rise in stagnation temperature. (c) Tip diameter. (d) Inlet eye annulus area.

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(e) Theoretical power required to drive the compressor. The air enters the eye axially with a velocity of 150m/s. 8. Determine the pressure ratio for a stage of an axial ow compressor with symmetric blades under the following conditions: Absolute velocity at mean radius = 220m/s Axial velocity = 150m/s Solidity for moving blades = 0.98 Coecient of lift for moving blades = 0.8 The ratio of drag to lift = 0.045 Ambient conditions = 1bar and 300K Calculate the pressure ratio for non-symmetric blading and compare with pressure ratio of symmetric blading.

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Set No. 2

III B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Air enters a compressor at a pressure of 0.14 Mpa and temperature of 258K. It leaves the compressor at a pressure of 0.65 Mpa. The maximum temperature in cycle is 900o C. Assume the compressor eciency of 80% and turbine eciency of 85%.a pressure drop of 0.15Kpa takes place in the combustion chamber. Determine the compressor work, turbine work and cycle eciency. 2. A turbo-prop driven airplane is ying at 670 Km / h at an altitude where the ambient conditions are 0.458 bar and -10o C. The compressor pressure ratio is 9.5 :1 and the turbine inlet temperature is 1250 K. The isentropic eciencies of compressor and turbine are 0.85 and 0.90 respectively. Assuming that no thrust is generated by the jet exhaust from the engine; calculate the specic power input available to the propeller. 3. Consider a front air intake for a subsonic turbojet airplane as that for He-178 or F-86 Saber jet. Show the internal layout for the air to be swallowed by the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane is derated in its ight prior to landing. 4. Explain the aerodynamics and thermodynamics of an external compression supersonic air inlet. Provide one example of such supersonic inlet. 5. What are the various types of burners used for fuel injection system in gas turbines? Which one will you prefer and why? 6. (a) What do you understand by an ejector ? Explain the functioning of an ejector with the help of a sketch. (b) Write a note on variable area nozzles. 7. (a) Explain the compressibility eects with respect to centrifugal compressor. How these eects can be taken care of? (b) Write a note on choking of centrifugal compressor. 8. Explain the three-dimensional ow in axial ow compressor and derive the free vortex condition. What does free vortex condition signify?

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Set No. 3

III B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Consider an air standard Brayton cycle, where the air enters the compressor at 0.11 Mpa,15o C .It leaves the compressor at 0.55 Mpa. TIT is 970o C. Determine pressure and temperature at each point in the cycle.Work out the eciency of its compressor,turbine and the overall engine. 2. Plot P-v and T-s plots for a turbo-jet and turbo-prop engines. Explain the functioning and thermodynamics of a turbojet engine and plot the variation of pressure, temperature and velocity in as best manner as you can. 3. Consider a ghter plane of the type of front air intake (F-86 Saber) and compare its performance with that of Ear type air intakes of Gnat / Ajit ghter plane manufactured by HAL in level ight. Compare their aerodynamics and thermodynamics in brief. 4. Consider a conical spike type supersonic air inlet with xed geometry for optimum performance at one Mach number. Describe its aerodynamics and thermodynamics at the design Mach number. What happens when the operating mach number is higher than the design Mach number at a small angle of attack = 2o ? 5. A J-57B afterburning turbojet engine had 169.4 lbm/s of air at 36psia and 10130 F enter the afterburner and products of combustion at 31.9psia and 25400 F leave the combustor. If the fuel ow in the afterburner was 25130 lbm/hr, determine the afterburner eciency, AB , assuming hP R =18400 Btu/lbm, Cpt = 0.27Btu/lbm0 R . and CP AB = 0.29Btu/lbm.0 R. 6. (a) Sketch various types of exhaust nozzles for a turbojet engine. What are their advantages and disadvantages? (b) Explain the theory of ow in isentropic nozzles. 7. (a) List the three main types of centrifugal compressor impellers. Discuss the characteristics of each with the aid of velocity diagrams and give their eld of application. (b) Explain the factors aecting the selection of number of blades used in an impeller of a centrifugal compressor. How are number of passages on the diuser related to the number of passages in the impeller? 8. Ax axial ow compressor stage blade diagram at mean radius has values of U=172m/s, V1 =745m/s, V2 =133m/s, Vr1 =270m/s, Vr2 =210m/s and V3 leaving the next xed row is equal to V1 . Find the probable maximum pressure change in the moving

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Set No. 3

and in the xed row if the medium owing has a density of 1.6kg/m3 , which can be considered essentially constant throughout the stage. What type of blading is this?

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Set No. 4

1. Consider an actual gas turbine engine. How does each of its parts function to accomplish the work of the engine? Illustrate with sketches and plots. Show the variation of various parameters across the engine. 2. What are various components of a turbo-prop engine? What are the requirement of each component towards this engine. Explain the themodynamics and advantages of a turbo-prop over other power plants available for this purpose in aviation and military usage? 3. Consider Ear type air intakes for a subsonic airplane as that for Gnat / Ajit ghter plane. Show the internal layout for the swallowed air to reach the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane takes a turn of about 10 in its yaw plane. 4. Consider a conical spike type supersonic air inlet with xed geometry for optimum performance at one Mach number. Describe its aerodynamics and thermodynamics at the design Mach number. What happens when the operating mach number is less than the design Mach number at a small angle of yaw = -2o ? 5. (a) Determine the combustor eciency of a main burner with the following data: Pt3 = 200 psia Tt3 = 10000 R m = 100 lbm/s 2 = 0.6 Aref = 1.5 f t H = 2 in (b) Dene the following terms and explain their importance with respect to combustion chamber: i. Equivalence ratio ii. Combustor loading parameter iii. Prole factor correlation parameter. 6. Describe the behaviour of the ow in a convergent-divergent nozzle when it is operated at (a) design pressure ratio, (b) pressure ratio higher than the design value and (c) pressure ratio lower than the design value. 7. A centrifugal compressor runs at 10000rpm and delivers 600m3 /min of free air at a pressure ratio of 4:1. The isentropic eciency of the compressor is 82%. The outer radius of impeller (which has radial blades) is twice the inner one and slip

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Set No. 4

coecient is 0.9. Assume that the ambient air conditions are 1kgf/cm3 and 293K. The axial velocity of ow is 60m/s and is constant throughout. Determine: (a) Theoretical horsepower. . (b) Impeller diameter at inlet and outlet and width at inlet (c) Impeller and diuser blade angles at inlet. 8. Explain the following with respect to axial ow compressor: (a) Cascade characteristics (b) Reynolds and Mach number eects.

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R07

Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS - II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. A three-hinged parabolic arch hinged at the supports and at the crown has a span of 24 m and a central rise of 4 m. It carries a concentrated load of 50 kN at 18 m from left support and a uniformly distributed load of 30 kN/m over the left half portion. Determine the moment, thrust and radial shear at a section 6 m from the left support. 2. (a) Explain about unit load method in two hinged arches (b) A semi circular two hinged arch of radius R and of uniform flexural rigidity carries a concentrated load W acting at a section making an angle with the horizontal. Find the horizontal thrust. 3. (a) State the assumptions made in the methods of analysis of building frames subjected to lateral loads by (i) Portal method (ii) Cantilever method (b) Explain the method of analysis of building frame subjected to lateral loads at joints by portal method and cantilever method. 4. A single bay single storey portal frame ABCD is fixed at A and D. AB and DC are the two columns and BC is the beam. The height of the column AB is 5.5m and that of DC is 6.5m. The span of the beam BC is 9.5m. A uniformly distributed load of 56kN/m is acting on the whole span BC. All members have the same flexural rigidity. Calculate the support reactions and also draw the bending moment diagram for the portal frame. Use slope deflection method 5. Analyse the structure as shown in Fig. 1 using moment distribution method and draw BMD

Fig. 1

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Set No: 1

6. Analyse the structure shown in Figure 2 using kanis method and draw BMD

7. Analyse the structure shown in Fig. 3, using flexibility matrix method and sketch BMD

Fig. 3 8. Analyse the structure shown in Fig. 4 using stiffness matrix method. Draw BMD

Fig. 4 *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS - II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. A parabolic arch hinged at the springing and crown has a span of 20 m. The central rise of the arch is 4 m. It is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of intensity 2kN/m on the left 3 m length. Calculate: (i) The direction and magnitude of reactions at the hinges. (ii) The bending moment, normal thrust and shears at 4m and 15m from the left end 2. (a) Explain how two-hinged arches are analyzed (b) Explain the effect of temperature, Rib shortening on two hinged arches 3. Explain the Portal method for analyzing a building frame subjected to horizontal forces. 4. A single bay single storey portal frame ABCD is fixed at A and D. AB and DC are the two columns and BC is the beam. The height of the column AB is 6m and that of DC is 7m. The span of the beam BC is 10m. A uniformly distributed load of 60 kN/m is acting on the whole span BC. All members have the same flexural rigidity. Calculate the support reactions and also draw the bending moment diagram for the portal frame. Use slope deflection method. 5. Analyse the continuous beam as shown in Fig 1using moment distribution method and draw BMD. Take Ez=constant

Fig. 1 6. (a)Explain how settlement of supports in accounted in to Kanis method of analysis of structures. (b)Explain how portal frames with side sways are analysed 7. Analyse the beam shown in Fig 2 using flexibility matrix method if the support B sinks by 50mm. E=25x103 MPa, I=140x103 cm4

Fig. 2 8. Analyse the continuous beam shown in Fig 3using stiffness method and draw BMD

Fig. 3 ***** 1 of 1

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R07

Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS - II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of 60 meters and rise of 15 meters. The arch carries two concentrated loads of 250kN and 200kN at distances of 10m and 18m from the left end. It also carries a UDL of 70kN/m on the right half of the span. Calculate the vertical and horizontal reactions at supports. Also calculate the normal thrusts and radial shear at a section 18m from left support. 2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 30 m and central rise of 6 m is carrying a uniformly distributed load of 20 KN/m over left half of the span. If c = I sec is constant, find out the values of horizontal thrust as well as maximum positive and negative bending moment over the arch

3. State the assumptions made in cantilever method of frame analysis. Analyze the frame Shown in figure 1, by cantilever method and draw the bending moment diagram. Assume that interior columns are having cross sectional area thrice than that of exterior columns

Fig. 1 4. A continuous beam is loaded as shown in figure (2). The support B sinks by an 5 2 5 4 amount of 3 cm. Take E= 210 N/mm and = 210 cm . Calculate the support moments and draw BM diagrams and shear force diagram use slope deflection method in analyzing the beam.

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Set No: 3

5. Analyze the symmetric portal frame shown in figure 3. By moment distribution method

figure 3 6. (a)Define (i) Rotation factor (ii) stiffness of joint (b) Analyse the beam shown in Fig 4, using Kanis method and draw BMD

Fig. 4 7. Analyse the beam shown in Fig 5, using flexibility matrix method and draw BMD

Fig. 5 8. Analyse the beam shown in Fig. 6 using stiffness matrix method. Draw BDM and SFD

Fig. 6 *****

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Set No: 4

***** 1. A parabolic arch rib, 20 m span and 3 m rise is hinged at the abutments and the crown and carries a point load of 10 kN at 7.5 m from the left hand hinge. Calculate the horizontal thrust and the bending moment at a section 7.5 m form right hand hinge. What is the value of the greatest bending moment in the arch, and where does it occur? 2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 30m and rise 6m carries a uniformly distributed load of 20kN/m covering a distance of 12m from left end. Find the horizontal thrust and the reactions at the two supports. Also calculate the maximum hogging moment in the arch 3. Analyse the frame shown in figure, 1 by Cantilever method. Assume that all the columns have equal area of cross-section for the purpose of analysis

Figure 1 4. Analyze the sway frame ABCD fixed at supports A and D, A load of 40 KN/m is acting on portion BC. The length of AB is 4 m, BC and CD are 6 m using slope deflection method and draw BMD diagram. 5. (a) Define (i) carry over factor (ii) Distribution factor (b) Analyse the structure shown in Fig 2, by moment distribution method and draw BMD take Ez=constant.

Fig. 2 1 of 2

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Set No: 4

6. (a) Explain Kanis method of solving a frame subjected to sway forces (b)Evaluate the bending moment and shear force diagrams of a beam in figure 3 by the Kanis method

Fig. 3 7. (a) Compare and contrast the flexibility method and stiffness method (b) Explain how settlement of support is taken in to account in the analysis of beams using flexibility matrix method. 8. Analyse the structure shown in Fig 4 using stiffness matrix method and sketch bending moment diagram

Fig. 4 *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES-III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. a) Distinguish between integral slot and fractional slot windings and their merits and demerits. b) Calculate the speed and open circuit line and phase voltages of a 4-pole,3-phase, 50 Hz, star-connected alternator with 36 slots and 30 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.0496Wb and is sinusoidally distributed. 2. a) What happens to the value of synchronous reactance if air gap is increased? b) What is a synchronous impedance? How can it be determined experimentally? c) Briefly explain the load characteristics of an alternator. 3. a) How do you calculate synchronous impedance experimentally? b)A 100kVA,3000V,50Hz 3-phase star connected alternator has effective armature resistance of 0.2 ohms. The field current of 40A produce short-circuit current of 200A and an open circuit e.m.f of 1040V(line). Calculate the full-load voltage regulation at 0.8 p.f. lagging and 0.8 p.f. leading. Draw phasor diagrams. 4. a) What conditions must be fulfilled before an alternator can be connected to an infinite bus? b) Two 750 kW alternators operate in parallel. The speed regulation of one set is 100% to 102% from full-load to no-load and that of the other is 100% to 104%. How will the two alternators share a load of 1000kW and at what load will one machine cease to supply any portion of the load? 5. a) What are the salient features of a synchronous motor? b) A 3-phase ,500V,star connected synchronous motor gives net output of 17kW on full load operating at 0.9 lagging power factor. Its armature resistance is 0.8 per phase. The mechanical losses are 1300W. Estimate the current drawn by the motor and full load efficiency. 6. a) Explain the power circle diagrams of the synchronous motor. b) Why it is necessary to increase the excitation to obtain minimum current with the application of load.

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7. a) Explain how the performance of a single phase induction motor is estimated from the equivalent circuit? b) Find the mechanical power output of a 185 watts,4 pole 110 volts,50Hz single phase induction motor whose constants are given below at a slip of 0.05. R1=1.86 X1=2.56 m=53.5 R2=3.56 X2=2.56 Core loss=40 watts; friction and windage losses= 13.0 watts. 8. a) Compare the constructional features of A.C series motor with D.C series motor. b) Write a note on universal motor. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES-III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. a) Derive an expression for an induced e.m.f in a synchronous generator. Also explain how the e.m.f. is having sinusoidal waveform. b) A 3 phase , 16 pole ,star connected alternator has 144 slots on the armature periphery. Each slot contains 10 conductors. It is driven at 375 r.p.m. The line value of e.m.f available across the terminals is observed to be 2.657kV. Find the frequency of the induced e.m.f and the flux pre pole. 2. a) Draw the phaser diagram of the loaded alternator for the following conditions: (i) lagging power factor (ii) leading power factor. b) Why harmonics are generated in the e.m.f of an alternator? Discuss its effects on total generated e.m.f 3. a) Explain the two reaction theory applicable to salient pole synchronous machine. b) A 3-phase alternator has a direct-axis synchronous reactance of 0.7 p.u and a quadrature axis synchronous reactance of 0.4 p.u. Draw the vector diagram for full load 0.8 p.f. lagging and obtain there from (i) the load angle and (ii) the no -load per unit voltage. 4. a) Define the significance of transient and sub-transient reactance in an alternator. b) A 5000kVA,10kV,1500 r.p.m.,50Hz alternator runs in parallel with other machines. Its synchronous reactance is 20%. Find the synchronizing power per unit mechanical angle of the phase displacement for (i) No load and (ii) Full load at0.8 p.f. lag. Also calculate the synchronizing torque if the mechanical displacement is 0.50. 5. a) Explain V and inverted V curves. b) A 3-phase,3300V,star connected synchronous motor has an effective resistance and synchronous reactance of 2.0 and 18.0 per phase respectively. If the open circuit generated e.m.f. is 3800V between lines, calculate. (i) The maximum total mechanical power that the motor can developed and (ii) The current and power factor at the maximum mechanical power. 6. Is the synchronous motor self-starting? If not, what are the methods adopted for starting it?

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7. a) Describe cross field theory as applied to single phase induction motor. b) The following tests results were obtained in respect of 230 volts single phase induction motor: No load tests: 230V, 6.25A, 360 watts Locked rotor tests: 126V, 15.0A, 577 watts Stator winding resistance= 1.5 ohms Draw the equivalent circuit diagram with parameters. 8. a) Explain the principle of operation of permanent magnet motors b) Write a note on hysteresis motor and its applications. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ELECTRICAL MACHINES-III (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks *****

1. a) Derive the expressions for distribution and pitch factors. b) A single phase 1500 r.p.m,4 pole alternator has 8 conductors per slot with total of 24 slots. The winding is short pitched by 1/6th of full pitch. Assume distributed winding with flux per pole as 0.05Wb.Calculate the induced e.m.f. 2. a) Explain the phenomena of armature reaction when an alternator is delivering a load current at (i) purely lagging p.f, (ii) unity p.f. and (iii) purely leading p.f. b) What do you mean by synchronous reactance. Explain the term synchronous impedance of the alternator 3. a) Explain the terms direct axis synchronous reactance and quadrature-axis synchronous reactance of a salient pole alternator. On what factors do these values depend? b) A 30 kVA,440V,50Hz,3-phase,star-connected alternator gave the following test data: Field current(A) : 2 4 6 7 8 10 12 14 Terminal voltage(V): 155 287 395 440 475 530 570 592 S.C current(A) : 11 22 34 40 46 57 69 80 Resistance between any two terminals is 0.3 ohms. Find the regulation at full load,0.8 p.f. lagging, by MMF method. 4. a) Derive the expression for load sharing between the dissimilar alternators. b) Two exactly similar turbo alternators are rated 20MW each. They are running in parallel. The speed-load characteristics of the driving turbines are such that the frequency of alternator 1 drop uniformly from 50Hz on no-load to 48Hz on full load, and that of alternator 2 from 50Hz to 48.5Hz.How will the two machines share a load of 30MW ? 5. a) Derive the torque developed in a synchronous motor. b) A 15kW,400V, 50Hz, 3-phase star connected synchronous motor with impedance of (1+j5.0)/phase is working at rated voltage and rated frequency. Find the load angle, armature current and power factor when the excitation is adjusted to 480V. 6. a) Show that the current locus of a synchronous motor developing constant power is a circle. Determine its center and radius. b) What are the various methods of making synchronous motors self starting?

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7. a) Explain what is meant by the split-phase method of motor starting. b) A 220V,50Hz,4 pole single phase induction motor has the following equivalent circuit parameters. R1=3.6 ohms X1=X2= 15.6 ohms; R2=6.8 ohms; X0=96 ohms The rotational losses of the motor are estimated to be 80 watts. Calculate the current, power factor and efficiency when the motor is running 1410 r.p.m. 8. a) Write a note on reluctance motor and its applications. b) Explain about universal motor with neat diagrams. *****

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Set No: 4

1. a) Describe the main constructional features of alternator. b) A 3-phase 4-pole synchronous generator has a double layer winding having four turns per coil placed in a total of 48 slots. If the flux per pole of the generator is 0.05 Wb and speed of the rotor is 1500 r.p.m, calculate the magnitude of generated voltage per phase. 2. a) Draw and explain the phasor diagram of alternator under loaded conditions. b) A 4-pole ac machine has a 3-phase winding wound in 60 slots. The coils are short pitched in such a way that if one coil side lies in slot number 1,the other side of the same coil lies in slot number 13.Calculate the winding factor for (a) fundamental, (b) third harmonic and (c) fifth harmonic frequency wave forms. 3. a) Explain the merits and demerits of E.M.F and M.M.F. methods. Explain what are the assumptions made in each case. b) Calculate from the observations taken on a 125kVA, 400V,3-phase alternator, the % regulation for half load condition at 0.8 leading p.f. Oc test observation: 0 2 4 6 8 10 If(A) : VOC (Vline): 0 80 140 200 250 300 While full load current is obtained on short circuit condition at a field current of 8A. Assume star connection and Ra=0.1/ph. The short circuit current variation with respect to field current is linear. 4. a) Discuss load sharing between two alternators. b) Two single phase alternators operate in parallel and supply a load impedance of (3+j4). If the impedance of the machine is (0.2+j2) and e.m.f.s are (220+j0) and (220+j0) volts respectively, determine for each machine (i) terminal voltage(ii) power factor and (iii)output. 5. a) Explain the principle of operation of a synchronous motor. b) A 750 kW,11kV,3-phase star connected synchronous motor has a synchronous reactance of 35/phase and negligible resistance. Determine the excitation e.m.f. per phase when the motor is operating on full load at 0.8 p.f. leading. Its efficiency under this condition is 93%. 6. a) Explain the effect of variable excitation on the behavior of the synchronous motor under constant load condition. b) Explain the methods of starting the synchronous motors. 1 of 2

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Set No: 4

7. a) Explain the principle of operation and constructional features of a single phase induction motor. b) A laboratory test on single phase induction motor has given the following data with rotational losses being equal to 17W. Noload tests: 110V 2.8A 60W Blocked rotor tests: 110V 14.8A 1130W Determine the parameters of the equivalent circuit. 8. a) Explain about single phase A.C. series motor with neat diagrams. b) Explain about permanent magnet D.C motor with neat diagrams and give its applications. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Compare the Distortion energy theory and maximum shear stress theory. (b) A 50 mm diameter non rotating shaft of steel with yield strength of 400 MPa is subjected to a steady torque of 1500 Nm. Find the permissible steady bending moment that can be superimposed on it if the factor of safety is 5. Use Von-Mises theory. Locate the loading point in the Von-Mises ellipse. 2. (a) What is stress concentration? What are the different methods to reduce stress concentration? (b) A flat plate is subjected to a tensile force of 5 kN as shown in figure 1. The plate material is grey cast iron FG 200 and the factor of safety is 2.5. Determine the thickness of the plate. All the dimensions are in mm only.

Figure 1

3. (a) Define the efficiency of the riveted joint. According to Indian Boiler Regulations, what is the highest efficiency required of a riveted joint? (b) A double riveted lap joint with chain riveting is to be made for joining two plates 10 mm thick. The allowable stresses are 60 MPa in tension, 50 MPa in shear and 80 MPa in crushing. Find the rivet diameter, pitch of rivets and distance between rows of rivets. Also find the efficiency of the joint. 4. A cast iron bracket, supporting the transmission shaft and the belt pulley, is fixed to the steel structure by means of four bolts as shown in Figure 2. There are two bolts at A and two bolts at B. The tensions in slack and tight sides of the belt are 5 kN and 10 kN respectively. The belt tensions act in a vertically downward direction. The distances are l1 = 50 mm, l2 = 150 mm and l = 200 mm. The maximum permissible tensile stress in the bolt is 60 N/mm2. Specify a suitable bolt size.

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Set No: 1

Figure 2

5. (a) Where do you use cotter joint? Give practical examples. (b) Design and draw a cotter joint to support a load varying from 30 kN in compression to 30 kN in tension. The material used is carbon steel for which the following allowable stresses may be used. The load is applied statically. Tensile stress = compressive stress = 50 MPa; shear stress = 35 MPa and crushing stress = 90 MPa. 6. A shaft is supported by two bearings 400 mm apart and carries a bevel gear of 200 mm pitch diameter at one end that is overhanging beyond the nearer bearing by 150 mm. The gear produces a radial load of 9.8 kN and a thrust load of 2.94 kN when the speed is 600 rpm. Determine the shaft diameter if the shaft is made of steel with allowable shear stress of 40 MPa. Also determine the angle of twist and deflection at the bevel gear location if the modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa and the modulus of elasticity is 210 GPa. 7. (a) What is the difference between rigid and flexible coupling? (b) Design a cast iron flange coupling for joining two mild steel shafts transmitting 100 kW at 250 rpm. The angle of twist should not exceed 10 in a length of 25 diameters. Take yield strength in shear for the shaft is 40 MPa and for bolts is 28MPa. 8. (a) What is surge in spring? What are the methods to avoid the surge in spring? (b) Design a closed coil helical spring for a boiler safety valve which is required to blow off steam at pressure of 1.5 MPa. The diameter of the valve is 50 mm. The initial compression of the spring is 40 mm and the lift is limited to 20 mm. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Derive the relationship between the yield strength in shear and the yield strength in tension using the Distortion energy theory. (b) A machine element is subjected to principal stresses of 120 MPa, 0 MPa and -90 MPa. The material used is 30C8. Calculate the factor of safety by (a) the maximum normal stress theory, (b) the maximum shear stress theory and (c) the Distortion energy theory 2. (a) What is fatigue stress concentration factor? In what way, it is different from the theoretical stress concentration factor. (b) A machine part is made of forged steel with ultimate strength of 630 MPa and endurance strength is 0.22 times ultimate strength. The life of the part is 250000 cycles. The loading for the 50% of the time is 225 MPa and for 30% of the time is 145 MPa. Calculate the loading during the remaining time. 3. (a) What are primary and secondary shear stresses in eccentrically loaded welded joints? What are the assumptions made in evaluating them? (b) A welded connection of steel plates, as shown in Figure 1, is subjected to an eccentric force of 10 kN. Determine the throat dimension of the welds, if the permissible shear stress is limited to 95 MPa

Figure 1

4. A pulley bracket, as shown in Figure 2, is supported by 4 bolts, two at A-A and two at B-B. Determine the size of bolts using an allowable shear stress of 25 MPa for the material of the bolts. List the assumptions made in the analysis.

Figure 2

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Set No: 2

5. (a) What is knuckle joint? Give practical examples. (b) Design a knuckle joint to connect two circular rods subjected to an axial tensile force of 50 kN. The material for the two rods and pin is selected as plain carbon steel of Grade 30C8 with yield strength 400 MPa. Assume factor of safety of 5. Specify the dimensions of the knuckle joint with a neat sketch. 6. (a) Which theory is commonly used for the design of the shafts? Explain why? (b) An electric motor drives a machine through a pair of spur gears. The pinion is mounted on motor shaft and over hangs by 200 mm from the nearest bearing. The pinion has 20 teeth of 10 mm module and 200 involute profile. Design the motor shaft to transmit 15 kW at 1200 rpm. Use safe shear stress value of 40 MPa. Take the shock and fatigue correction factors as 1.2 and 1 respectively. 7. (a) What is the difference between protected and unprotected rigid flange coupling? (b) A driving shaft is joined with coaxial driven shaft through a muff coupling. The shaft transmits 60 kW of power at 150 rpm. Design the shaft, key and muff. Assume a factor of safety of 5 with following ultimate strength values. Ultimate shear strength for shaft = 300 N/mm2 Ultimate shear strength for key = 200 N/mm2 Ultimate shear strength for muff = 50 N/mm2 Ultimate compressive strength for key = 500 N/mm2 8. (a) What are the different types of stresses induced in the wire of helical springs? Sketch its distribution. (b) From a toy gun, a bullet of 1 N is fired. The bullet travels a distance of 10 m. the compression of the spring when the gun is loaded is 100 mm and the bore of the barrel is 20 mm. Design a suitable spring. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS - I (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

***** 1. (a) Derive the Von Mises effective stress equation using the principal stresses. (b) A 100 mm diameter off-set link is transmitting an axial pull of 30 KN as shown in the figure 1. Find the stresses at points A and B.

Figure 1

2. (a) Compare the Soderberg, Goodman and Gerber diagrams for the zero variable stresses. (b) A machine component is subjected to fluctuating stress that varies from 40 to 100 N/mm2. The corrected endurance limit stress for machine component is 270 N/mm2. The ultimate and tensile strength of the material are 600 and 450 N/mm2 respectively. Find the factor of safety using (i) Soderberg line, (ii) Goodman line and (iii) Gerber theory. Also, find the factor of safety against static loading. 3. (a) How is a rivet joint of uniform strength designed? (b)Two lengths of mild steel tie rod having width 200 mm are to be connected by means of Lozenge joint with two cover plates to withstand a tensile load of 180 kN. Completely design the joint, if the permissible stresses are 80 MPa in tension; 65 MPa in shear and 160 MPa in crushing. Draw a neat sketch of the joint. 4. A bearing shown in Figure 2 is fastened to a frame by 6 bolts spaced equally on a 250 mm bolt circle, of which 2 bolts are positioned on the horizontal line. The bearing flange diameter is 300 mm and a load of 50 kN is applied at 275 mm from the frame. Determine the size of the bolts. What are conditions required for the arrangement of the bolts to have the maximum strength. Assume that the bolt is made of C20 steel having yield strength of 245 MPa and Factor of safety 3.

Figure 2

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Set No: 3

5. (a) Differentiate between a cotter and knuckle joint. (b) Design a spigot and socket joint to connect two rods of 30C8 steel to carry an axial tensile and compressive load of 10 kN. Explain the construction of the joint with a neat sketch 6. A steel shaft 800 mm long transmitting 15 kW at 400 r.p.m. is supported at two bearings at the two ends. A gear wheel having 80 teeth and 500 mm pitch circle diameter is mounted at 200 mm from the left hand side bearing and receives power from a pinion meshing with it. The axis of pinion and gear lie in the horizontal plane. A pulley of 300 mm diameter is mounted at 200 mm from right hand side bearing and is used for transmitting power by a belt. The belt drive is inclined at 30 to the vertical in the forward direction. The belt lap angle is 180 degrees. The coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.3. Design and sketch the arrangement of the shaft assuming the values of safe stresses as: = 55 MPa; t= 80 MPa. Take torsion and bending factor 1.5 and 2 respectively . 7. (a) Sketch a muff coupling and identify its advantages and disadvantages. (b) A shaft transmitting 150 kW is to be connected to a coaxial shaft through cast iron flange coupling. The shaft runs at 120 rpm. The key and shaft are to be made of same material for which permissible shearing stress is 60 N/mm2 and compressive strength is 120 N/mm2. The steel bolts may be subjected to maximum shearing stress of 26 N/mm2. Design protected type flange coupling. 8. (a) Derive the expression for the strain energy stored in helical spring in terms of wire diameter, mean coil diameter and number of turns. (b) A railway wagon of mass 250 kN moving with a velocity of 2.5 m/s is brought to rest by springs of mean each diameter 350 mm. the maximum deflection of the spring is 210 mm. Find the wire diameter and number of turns. Take modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa and allowable shear stress 600 MPa. *****

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Set No: 4

***** 1. (a) Differentiate between (i) Elastic Deformation and Plastic Deformation (ii) Ductility and Brittleness. (b)A mass of 50 kg drops through 25 mm at the center of a 250 mm long simply supported beam. The beam has square cross section. It is made of steel 30C8 and the factor of safety is 2. The modulus of elasticity is 207 000 N/mm2. Determine the dimensions of the cross-section of the beam. 2. A cast iron shaft, with an ultimate tensile strength of 175 MPa, is subjected to a torsional load which is completely reversed. The load is to be applied an indefinite number of cycles. The shaft is 50 mm diameter and is joined to a 75 mm diameter shaft with 12.5 mm radius fillet. The factor of safety is to be 2. What is the maximum torque that can be applied to the shaft? Solve by two methods: (i) using Soderberg Equation (ii) Torsion Equation. 3. An eccentrically loaded bracket is welded to the support as shown in Figure 1. The permissible shear stress for the weld material is 55 N/mm2 and the load is static. Determine the throat and leg dimensions for the welds. Explain the nature of the stresses induced in the welds.

Figure 1

4. For the circular flange shown in Figure 2, P = 20 kN and l = 100 mm. It is supported by 6 bolts of 30C8 steel at 150 mm pitch circle diameter. Find the diameter of the bolts if the outer diameter of the bracket is 200 mm. Consider Factor of safety = 6. List the assumptions made. Discuss the nature of the force developed in bolts.

Figure 2

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Set No: 4

5. (a) A heat treated steel shaft of tensile yield strength of 350 MPa has a diameter of 50 mm. The shaft rotates at 1000 rpm and transmits 100 kW through a gear. Select an appropriate rectangular key for the gear. (b) Draw a neat sketch of a cotter joint and write the equations of failure for the different sections.

6. A transmission shaft supporting a spur gear B and pulley D is shown in figure 3. The shaft is mounted on two bearings A and C. the diameter of the pulley and the pitch circle diameter of the gear are 450 and 300 mm respectively. The pulley transmits 20 kW power at 500 rpm to the gear. The belt tension ratio is 3. The material of the shaft is steel with ultimate strength 700 MPa and yield strength 460 MPa. Take the shock and fatigue correction factors are 1.5 each. The gear and pulley are keyed to the shaft. Determine the diameter of the shaft.

Figure 3

7. (a) What is the difference between a clutch and coupling? (b) Design a bush type flexible coupling to transmit 50 kW at 300 rpm to a compressor. Select your own material and factor of safety.

8. (a) What are the different styles of ends for the helical compression springs? State the relation between active and inactive coils for each type. (b) Design a helical valve spring for an operating load range of 100 N to 150 N. The deflection of the spring is 7.5 mm for this range. Take yield strength in shear is 700 MPa, factor of safety is 1.5 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Define and explain the following terms: (i) Directivity (ii) Gain (iii) Aperture Efficiency (b) An antenna has a radiation resistance of 72, a loss resistance of 8 and a power gain of 12 dB. Determine the antenna efficiency and its directivity. 2. (a) Derive the expressions for radiation fields from a vertical /2 radiator and hence prove that it has a radiation resistance of about 73. List all the assumptions involved in it. (b) Define radiation resistance of an antenna. Calculate the radiation resistance of a /10 wire dipole in free space. 3. (a) What is a broadside array? Explain in detail the structure, radiation pattern and the principle of operation of such an antenna (b) For an broadside array consisting of several half wave length long isotropic radiators is to have a directive gain of 30. Find the array length and width of the major lobe. 4. (a) With a neat sketch, explain Rhombic Antennas. (b) Calculate in dB the directivity of 20 turn helix having =120, circumference equal to one wavelength. 5. (a) A parabolic dish provides a gain of 75 dB at a frequency of 15 GHz. Calculate the capture area of the antenna, its 3dB and null beam widths. (b) Define parabola. Show that by sketches how its geometry makes it a suitable basis for antenna reflectors. Why an antenna employing a paraboloid reflector is likely to be a highly directive receiving antenna? Explain. 6. (a) Explain the principle of operation of Lens antenna with neat sketches. (b) Calculate the index of refraction of dielectric lens formed with radial distance from centre of sphere is 0.5m and radius of sphere is 0.39m.

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Set No: 1

7. (a) Write short notes on the following: (i) Maximum usable frequency (ii) Effect of earths magnetic field on ionosphere propagation (b) A radio communication link is to be established via ionosphere. Take maximum virtual height to be 100Km at the midpoint of the path. Assume critical frequency to be 2x106 Hz and distance between stations to be 600Km. Find. (i) Optimum working frequency (ii) Angle of elevation of beam 8. (a) Explain space wave propagation with its limitations. (b) A 150m antenna transmitting at 1.2MHz by ground wave has an antenna current of 8A. What voltage is received by the receiving antenna 40Km away, with a height of 2m. *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Define & Give the significance of each of the following: i. Radiation Intensity ii. Effective Antenna Height iii. Beam efficiency iv. Aperture Efficiency (b) An isotropic antenna radiates equally in all the directions. The total power delivered to the radiator is 100 Kw. Calculate the power density at a distances of. (i) 100 meters. (ii) 1000 meters. 2. (a) Explain the concept of retarded scalar and vector potentials. (b) If maximum current in the antenna is 20 amps, find the field intensity at a distance of 2 Kms along the axis perpendicular and at an angle 300 from the antenna. 3. (a) Derive an expression for the array factor of two isotropic elements in. i. Broadside array ii. End fire array (b) A uniform linear array consisting of 16 isotropic point sources with a spacing of /4. If the phase difference is equal to -900. Calculate (i) HPBW , (ii)Beam solid angle (iii) Beam efficiency (iv)Directivity 4. (a) Explain the construction, operation and design consideration for a Helical antenna. (b) Design a helical antenna with a directivity of 15 dB that is operating in the axial mode and whose polarization is nearly circular. The spacing between the turns is /10. Determine the following: (i) Number of turns (ii) Axial ratio (iii) Progressive phase shifts (in degrees) between turns to achieve axial mode radiation. 5. (a) Explain the methods of feeding a paraboloid reflector in detail. (b) Calculate the beamwidth between first nulls & gain in dB for a 2.5m paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz.

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Set No: 2

6. (a) Show a microwave bench setup suitable for antenna measurements. Explain how antenna gain can be measured using this bench setup. What are the precautions necessary to minimize errors in the above measurement? (b) While measuring gain of a horn antenna the gain oscillator was set for 9.00GHz frequency and the attenuation inserted was found to be 9.8dB. Calculate the gain of the horn if the distance between two horn was 35cm. 7. (a) Derive the expression for refractive index of ionosphere and critical frequency. (b) Assume that the reflection takes place at a height of 400km and maximum density corresponds to 0.9 refractive index at 10MHz. What will be the range for which MUF is 10MHz? [For flat & for curved earth] 8. (a) Explain the mechanism by which the space wave propagates. What is meant by radio horizon? (b) A VHF communication is established with 35W transmitter at 90MHz. Find the distance upto which the LOS communication may be possible, if the heights of Tx & Rx antennas are 40m & 25m. Also find field strength at receiving end. *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Differentiate scattering loss aperture, collecting aperture & physical aperture of antenna. (b) In a microwave communication link, two identical antennas operating at 10 GHz are used with power gain of 40 dB. If the transmitter power is 1W. Find the received power, if the range of the link is 30Km. 2. (a) Explain loop antennas in detail (b) A grounded vertical antenna has an effective height of 113.3m and operates at a wavelength of 18.8 Km with a r.m.s. value of base current 725A. Find E and H fields at a distance of 175 Km and its power radiated. 3. (a) Briefly explain the following: 1. Principle of pattern multiplication 2. Binomial array (b) A linear broadside array consists of four equal isotropic inphase point sources with /3 spacing & overall length of the array is . Find the directivity & beam width. 4. (a) Explain different modes of operation of helical antenna in detail. (b) Find number of turns, turn diameter and axial ratio of right circularly polarized axial mode helical antenna with 17dB gain for operation at 1600MHz with turn spacing /. 5. (a) Describe the constructional details and principles of operation of parabolic reflector. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of these antennas. (b) A paraboloid reflector antenna with diameter 20mts. It is designed to operate at 6GHz and illumination efficiency of 0.54. Calculate the antenna gain in decibels. 6. (a) With a neat sketch explain the different types of horn antennas. Mention merits and demerits of each type. (b) With the test antenna connected, the detector output meter is adjusted to read full scale or zero decibels. Now with the standard calibrated antenna connected, the output is down 7dB. If the gain of the calibrated antenna is 15dB, calculate the gain of the antenna under test.

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Set No: 3

7. (a) Write short notes on skip distance. (b) At a 150km height in the ionosphere, the electron density at night is about 2x1012 m-3 and the signal MUF is 1.5 times the critical frequency for a transmission distance of 600Km. Compute the following: (i) Critical frequency (ii) Relative dielectric constant (iii) Phase constant (iv) Wave impedance (v) Wave velocity (vi) Group velocity (vii) Incident angle 8. (a) Explain the following: 1. Duct propagation 2. Path losses (b) Two aircrafts are flying at altitudes of 3000m and 5000m respectively. What is the minimum possible distance along the surface of the earth over which they can have effective point to point microwave communication? Radius of earth is 6.37x106m. *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communications Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry ***** 1. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Antenna effective height ii. Antenna aperture iii. Current distribution on a thin wire antenna (b) The radiation resistance of an antenna is 72 and loss resistance is 8. What is the directivity in dB if the power gain is 16. 2. (a) Obtain expression for potential fields due to sinusoidally varying sources and bring out the importance of Lorentz guage condition. (b) An Antenna whose effective height of 100m at a frequency of 60KHz radiated 100KW of power. Determine the strength of the electric field at a distance of 100Km from the antenna. Neglect ground effect and atmospheric losses. 3. (a) Discuss the conditions under which an array of antenna will behave either as a broadside array or an end fire array. (b) A broadside array operating at 100cm wavelength consists of four halfwave dipoles spaced 50cm. Each element carries radio frequency current in the same phase and of magnitude 0.5 amperes. Calculate (i) Radiated power (ii) Half width of the major lobe. 4. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Long wire antennas ii. V antennas (b) Design a five turn helical antenna which at 300MHz operates in the axial mode and possesses circular polarization in the major lobe. Determine the following: (i) Near optimum circumference (in and in meters) (ii) Spacing (in and in meters) for near optimum pitch angle design (iii) Input impedance (iv) Axial ratio

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Set No: 4

5. (a) Explain the following terms: i. Yagi-uda arrays ii. Corner reflectors (b) Calculate the angular aperture for a paraboloid reflector antenna for which the aperture number is (i) 0.25 (ii) 0.50 (iii) 0.60 Given the diameter of the reflector mouth is 10m. Calculate the position of the focal point with reference to the reflector mouth in each case 6. (a) Explain the procedure for measuring the Directivity of antenna. (b) Calculate the minimum distance required to measure the field pattern of an antenna of diameter 2m at a frequency of 3GHz. Derive the necessary equations.

7. (a) Discuss the effects of earths magnetic field on ionosphere radio wave propagation. (b) Communication by ionosphere propagation is required for a distance of 200Km. Height of the layer is 220Km and critical frequency is 5MHz. Find Maximum Usuable Frequency. 8. (a) Explain the Tropospheric wave propagation. (b) Determine the height of the transmitting antenna to obtain a maximum distance of transmission upto 38km from a 24 meter high receiving antenna. *****

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Set No: 1

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICROPROCESSOR AND INTERFACEING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology & Electronics and Computer Engineering ) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Draw and compare the flag register of 8085 and 8086 microprocessors. (b) Explain the physical address formation in 8086 microprocessor. [10+6] 2. (a) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to add two matrices of size 3x3. (b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to find the largest in a series of 8-bit numbers. [8+8] 3. Draw the functional pin diagram of 8086 microprocessor and explain the functions of each pin. [16] 4. What are different operating modes of 8255? Explain each of them. Also discuss how to determine the control word for 8255. [16] 5. (a) What is an interrupt? What are the hardware and software interrupts of 8086? Explain the interrupt structure of 8086 microprocessor. (b) What is the purpose of IF flag in handling the interrupts. [10+6] 6. (a) Write a short note on RS232C standard. (b) With a neat block diagram, explain the architecture of 8251 USART. 7. (a) What is meant by paging? Explain its advantages and disadvantages. (b) Explain the difference between the 80286 real address mode and PVAM.

[6+10]

[8+8]

8. (a) What is a microcontroller? With a neat block diagram, explain the architecture of 8051 microcontroller. (b) Explain with suitable examples, the addressing modes used by 8051 to access internal data memory. [10+6] *****

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Set No: 2

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICROPROCESSOR AND INTERFACEING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology & Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain the concept of segmented memory. What are its advantages? (b) List and explain the different assembler directives of 8086 microprocessor. [8+8] 2. (a) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to find out the LCM of two numbers. (b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to add two numbers of 32-bits each. [8+8] 3. (a) Explain the maximum mode operation of 8086 microprocessor with corresponding read and write cycle timing diagrams. (b) What is meant by DMA? What is its need? Explain the DMA data transfer scheme. [10+6] 4. (a) Draw the architecture of 8255 and explain different modes of operation. (b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to generate a saw tooth wave with 1KHz frequency? Give the necessary circuit set up with a DAC. [8+8] 5. (a) What is an interrupt? Which steps the 8086 follows to handle any interrupt? Also mention the priorities of interrupts in 8086. (b) Draw and explain the interrupt vector table of 8086 microprocessor. [8+8] 6. (a) Draw the block diagram of 8251 and explain each block. (b) Write an 8086 instruction sequence for receiving 100 characters using 8251 USART and store them in the memory. [8+8] 7. (a) Explain the procedure of converting linear address into physical address. (b) What are RISC processors? Differentiate between RISC and CISC processors. [8+8] 8. (a) Differentiate between microprocessors and microcontrollers. (b) What is an interrupt? Explain the interrupt structure of the 8051 microcontroller. [6+10] *****

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Set No: 3

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICROPROCESSOR AND INTERFACEING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology & Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Draw the register organization of 8086 and explain the typical applications of each register. [16] 2. (a) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to find out the square root of an 8-bit number. (b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to find the factorial of the given number. [8+8] 3. (a) Explain the interfacing of static RAMs to 8086 with neat interface diagram. (b) What is DMA? Explain the need for DMA in Microprocessor based systems. [10+6] 4. (a) Write the control word register (CWR) format of 8255 for BSR mode and explain. (b) Sketch and explain the interface of PPI 8255 to the 8086 microprocessor. Interface 8 LEDs to the port B of 8255. Interface 8 keys to the port A. Write an assembly language program to read the key status and output on to the 8 LEds. [8+8] 5. What is the need for interrupt controller? Draw and explain the architecture of 8259 Programmable Interrupt Controller. [16] 6. (a) Discuss the serial data transmission standards and their specifications. (b) Draw and discuss the block diagram of 8251. 7. (a) Explain in detail the 80286 memory management features and task switching. (b) Explain the descriptor table of 80386.

[8+8]

[8+8]

8. Discuss various timer modes supported by the 8051 and write a program to initialize timer 0 in auto reload mode. [16] *****

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Set No: 4

III B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November/December - 2012 MICROPROCESSOR AND INTERFACEING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology & Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) List and explain different string manipulation instructions of 8086 microprocessor. b) What is a macro? Explain with an example. [10+6] 2. (a) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to add two ASCII numbers. (b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to display the string Good Morning! on the screen. [8+8] 3. What is the purpose of ALE, , / and pins of 8086? Show their timing in the system bus cycle of 8086. [16] 4. Interface a 12-bit DAC to 8255 with an address map of 0800H to 0803H. The DAC provides output in the range of +5V to -5V. Write the instruction sequence i. for generating a square wave with a peak to peak voltage of 2 V and the frequency will be selected from memory location FREQ. ii. for generating a triangular wave with a maximum voltage of +5V and a minimum voltage of 0V. [16] 5. (a) What is the need for interrupt controller? Explain the features of programmable interrupt controller 5259A with its block diagram. (b) Describe the action taken by 8086 where INTR pin is activated. [10+6] 6. What do you mean by I/O mapped I/O? Draw and discuss the interfacing of 8251 with 8086 in I/O mapped I/O mode. [16] 7. (a) Write a note on virtual 8086 mode of 80386. (b) Explain the salient features of Pentium processor. Also explain the memory system of the Pentium processor. [8+8] 8. Draw and discuss the formats and bit definitions of the following SFRs i. TCON ii. PCON iii. TMOD iv. SCON *****

[4+4+4+4]

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Set No. 1

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Consider an air standard Brayton cycle, where the air enters the compressor at 0.12Mpa, 18o C. It leaves the compressor at 0.5 Mpa. TIT is 950o C. Determine pressure and temperature at each point in the cycle. Work out the eciency of its compressor, turbine and the overall engine. [16] 2. Making use of rst principle, develop an expression for thrust developed by a jet engine with inlet area of 0.5 sq. m .A turbojet engine is under static testing on a test bed. It develops a jet speed of 500 m /s at a pressure of 1 atm at 750 K at exit of the nozzle. Considering the location at sea level, calculate the static thrust in this case. [16] 3. Consider a front air intake for a subsonic turbojet airplane as that for He-178 or F-86 Saber jet. Show the internal layout for the air to be swallowed by the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane takes a turn of about 5 in its yaw plane. [16] 4. Illustrate with sketches and diagrams, various types of supersonic air inlets employed by aircraft industry. Explain salient features and aerodynamic performance of each of these. [16] 5. For the turbojet engine combustion chamber, 45 lbm of air enters with each 1 lbm of JP-4 (kerosene) fuel. Assume that these reactants enter an adiabatic combustor at 12000 R. The heating value, hP R of JP-4 is 18400Btu/lbm of fuel at 298K. Thus the heat released H298K by the fuel per 1 lbm of the products is 400 Btu/lbm at 298K. Determine the temperature of the products leaving the combustor. Given: Cp p =0.267 Btu/(lbm. 0 R ) and CpR = 0.240 Btu/(lbm.0 R ) [16] 6. What do you understand by propelling nozzles? Dierentiate between convergent and convergent-divergent nozzles. Which type is suitable for aircraft gas turbine engine and why? [16] 7. A single-sided straight vaned centrifugal compressor is required to deliver 10kg/s of air with a total pressure ratio of 4:1 when operating at a speed of 16500rpm. The air inlet pressure and temperature are 1.013bar and 300K respectively. Calculate: (a) Tip speed of the impeller. (b) Actual rise in stagnation temperature. (c) Tip diameter. (d) Inlet eye annulus area.

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Set No. 1

(e) Theoretical power required to drive the compressor. The air enters the eye axially with a velocity of 150m/s. [16] 8. Determine the pressure ratio for a stage of an axial ow compressor with symmetric blades under the following conditions: Absolute velocity at mean radius = 220m/s Axial velocity = 150m/s Solidity for moving blades = 0.98 Coecient of lift for moving blades = 0.8 The ratio of drag to lift = 0.045 Ambient conditions = 1bar and 300K Calculate the pressure ratio for non-symmetric blading and compare with pressure ratio of symmetric blading. [16]

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Set No. 2

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Air enters a compressor at a pressure of 0.14 Mpa and temperature of 258K. It leaves the compressor at a pressure of 0.65 Mpa. The maximum temperature in cycle is 900o C. Assume the compressor eciency of 80% and turbine eciency of 85%.a pressure drop of 0.15Kpa takes place in the combustion chamber. Determine the compressor work, turbine work and cycle eciency. [16] 2. A turbo-prop driven airplane is ying at 670 Km / h at an altitude where the ambient conditions are 0.458 bar and -10o C. The compressor pressure ratio is 9.5 :1 and the turbine inlet temperature is 1250 K. The isentropic eciencies of compressor and turbine are 0.85 and 0.90 respectively. Assuming that no thrust is generated by the jet exhaust from the engine; calculate the specic power input available to the propeller. [16] 3. Consider a front air intake for a subsonic turbojet airplane as that for He-178 or F-86 Saber jet. Show the internal layout for the air to be swallowed by the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane is derated in its ight prior to landing. [16] 4. Explain the aerodynamics and thermodynamics of an external compression supersonic air inlet. Provide one example of such supersonic inlet. [16] 5. What are the various types of burners used for fuel injection system in gas turbines? Which one will you prefer and why? [16] 6. (a) What do you understand by an ejector ? Explain the functioning of an ejector with the help of a sketch. (b) Write a note on variable area nozzles. [16]

7. (a) Explain the compressibility eects with respect to centrifugal compressor. How these eects can be taken care of? (b) Write a note on choking of centrifugal compressor. [16]

8. Explain the three-dimensional ow in axial ow compressor and derive the free vortex condition. What does free vortex condition signify? [16]

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Set No. 3

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Consider an air standard Brayton cycle, where the air enters the compressor at 0.11 Mpa,15o C .It leaves the compressor at 0.55 Mpa. TIT is 970o C. Determine pressure and temperature at each point in the cycle.Work out the eciency of its compressor,turbine and the overall engine. [16] 2. Plot P-v and T-s plots for a turbo-jet and turbo-prop engines. Explain the functioning and thermodynamics of a turbojet engine and plot the variation of pressure, temperature and velocity in as best manner as you can. [16] 3. Consider a ghter plane of the type of front air intake (F-86 Saber) and compare its performance with that of Ear type air intakes of Gnat / Ajit ghter plane manufactured by HAL in level ight. Compare their aerodynamics and thermodynamics in brief. [16] 4. Consider a conical spike type supersonic air inlet with xed geometry for optimum performance at one Mach number. Describe its aerodynamics and thermodynamics at the design Mach number. What happens when the operating mach number is higher than the design Mach number at a small angle of attack = 2o ? [16] 5. A J-57B afterburning turbojet engine had 169.4 lbm/s of air at 36psia and 10130 F enter the afterburner and products of combustion at 31.9psia and 25400 F leave the combustor. If the fuel ow in the afterburner was 25130 lbm/hr, determine the afterburner eciency, AB , assuming hP R =18400 Btu/lbm, Cpt = 0.27Btu/lbm0 R . and CP AB = 0.29Btu/lbm.0 R. [16] 6. (a) Sketch various types of exhaust nozzles for a turbojet engine. What are their advantages and disadvantages? (b) Explain the theory of ow in isentropic nozzles. [16]

7. (a) List the three main types of centrifugal compressor impellers. Discuss the characteristics of each with the aid of velocity diagrams and give their eld of application. (b) Explain the factors aecting the selection of number of blades used in an impeller of a centrifugal compressor. How are number of passages on the diuser related to the number of passages in the impeller? [16] 8. Ax axial ow compressor stage blade diagram at mean radius has values of U=172m/s, V1 =745m/s, V2 =133m/s, Vr1 =270m/s, Vr2 =210m/s and V3 leaving the next xed row is equal to V1 . Find the probable maximum pressure change in the moving

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Set No. 3

and in the xed row if the medium owing has a density of 1.6kg/m3 , which can be considered essentially constant throughout the stage. What type of blading is this? [16]

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Set No. 4

1. Consider an actual gas turbine engine. How does each of its parts function to accomplish the work of the engine? Illustrate with sketches and plots. Show the variation of various parameters across the engine. [16] 2. What are various components of a turbo-prop engine? What are the requirement of each component towards this engine. Explain the themodynamics and advantages of a turbo-prop over other power plants available for this purpose in aviation and military usage? [16] 3. Consider Ear type air intakes for a subsonic airplane as that for Gnat / Ajit ghter plane. Show the internal layout for the swallowed air to reach the engine. Explain its aerodynamics and thermodynamics in details when the airplane takes a turn of about 10 in its yaw plane. [16] 4. Consider a conical spike type supersonic air inlet with xed geometry for optimum performance at one Mach number. Describe its aerodynamics and thermodynamics at the design Mach number. What happens when the operating mach number is less than the design Mach number at a small angle of yaw = -2o ? [16] 5. (a) Determine the combustor eciency of a main burner with the following data: Pt3 = 200 psia Tt3 = 10000 R m = 100 lbm/s 2 = 0.6 Aref = 1.5 f t H = 2 in (b) Dene the following terms and explain their importance with respect to combustion chamber: i. Equivalence ratio ii. Combustor loading parameter iii. Prole factor correlation parameter.

[16]

6. Describe the behaviour of the ow in a convergent-divergent nozzle when it is operated at (a) design pressure ratio, (b) pressure ratio higher than the design value and (c) pressure ratio lower than the design value. [16]

7. A centrifugal compressor runs at 10000rpm and delivers 600m3 /min of free air at a pressure ratio of 4:1. The isentropic eciency of the compressor is 82%. The outer radius of impeller (which has radial blades) is twice the inner one and slip

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Set No. 4

coecient is 0.9. Assume that the ambient air conditions are 1kgf/cm3 and 293K. The axial velocity of ow is 60m/s and is constant throughout. Determine: (a) Theoretical horsepower. . (b) Impeller diameter at inlet and outlet and width at inlet (c) Impeller and diuser blade angles at inlet. 8. Explain the following with respect to axial ow compressor: (a) Cascade characteristics (b) Reynolds and Mach number eects. [16] [16]

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Set No. 1

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I ( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Classify the various types Machine Design. (b) What is the procedure adopted in the design of Machine elements. [6+10]

2. (a) Explain the following terms in connection with design of machine members subjected to variable loads. i. ii. iii. iv. Endurance limit Size factor Surface nish factor Notch sensitivity.

(b) A machine component is subjected to a uctural stresses which uctuates between + 300M N/m2 and 150M N/m2 . Determine the value of minimum ultimate strength according to i. Modied Goodman relation ii. Soderberg relation. Take yield strength =0.55 times ultimate strength. Endurance strength =0.5 times ultimate strength and factor of safty=2. [8+8] 3. Design the longitudinal and circumferential joint for a boiler whose diameter is 2.4 meters and is subjected to a pressure of 1N/mm2 . The longitudinal joint in a triple riveted butt joint with an eciency of about 85% and circumferential joint in a double riveted lap joint with an eciency of about 70%. The pitch in the outer rows of the rivets is to be double than in the inner rows and the width of the cover plates is unequal. Allowable stresses are. t = 77MPa; = 56MPa; and c = 120MPa. [16] 4. (a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of screw joints. (b) A mild steel cover plate is to be designed for an inspection hole in the shell of a pressure vessel. The hole is 120 m.m in diameter and the pressure inside the vessel is 6N/mm2 . Design the cover plate along with the bolts. Assume the allowable tensile stress for mild steel on 60 MPa and for bolt material as 40 MPa. [6+10] 5. (a) What is the function of key and what types of stresses are introduced in a key? (b) Design a sleeve and cotter joint to transmit 150kN.The working stresses are 60N/mm2 in tension, 50N/mm2 in shear and 120N/mm2 in compression .The sleeve, rod and cotter are made of same material. [4+12]

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Code No: S0305/R05 6. (a) What is the eect of keyway on: i. strength of shaft, ii. Torsional rigidity of Shaft.

Set No. 1

(b) Determine the inside and outside diameters of a hollow shaft, which will replace a solid shaft of diameter 50mm. Both the shafts are made of the same material. The hollow shaft should be equally strong in torsion, yet the weight should be half of the solid shaft. [6+10] 7. Design a bushed-pin type exible coupling for connecting a motor shaft to a pump shaft, with the following service conditions: Power to be transmitted=40kW Speed of the motor shaft=1000rpm Diameter of motor and pump shafts=45mm Bearing pressure on the rubber bush=0.7N/mm2 Allowable stress in the pins=60MPa. [16] 8. A concentric spring for an air craft engine valve is to exert a maximum force of 5kN under an axial deection of 40mm. Both the springs have same free length, same solid length and are subjected to equal maximum shear stress of 500N/mm2 . If the spring index for both the springs is 6, nd (a) The load shared by each spring (b) The main dimensions of both the springs and (c) The number of active coils of each spring. Assume G=0.8105 N/mm2 and diametral clearance to be equal to the dierence between the wire diameters. [16]

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Set No. 2

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I ( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Dene the terms load, stress and strain. Discuss the various types of stresses and strains. (b) Explain the dierence between linear and lateral strain. 2. (a) Discuss the eects of the following factors on endurance limit. i. Load factor ii. Surface nish factor iii. size factor. (b) A circular bar of 500 m.m length is supported freely at it two ends. It is acted upon by a central concentrated cyclic load having a minimum value of 20 kN and a maximum value of 50 kN. Determine the diameter of the bar by taking a factor of safty of 1.5, size eect of 0.85, surface nish factor of 0.9. The material properties of bar are given by: ultimate strength of 650 Mpa, yield strength of 500 Mpa and endurance strength of 350 Mpa. [6+10] 3. A steam boiler is to be designed for a working pressure of 2.5N/mm2 with its inside diameter 1.6m. Give the design calculations for the longitudinal and circumferential joints for the following working stresses for steel plates and rivets. In tension = 75 MPa; In shear = 60 MPa In crushing = 125 Mpa. Draw the joint to a suitable scale. [16] 4. (a) Dene the following terms with necessary sketch. i. ii. iii. iv. Major diameter Minor diameter Pitch Lead. [10+6]

(b) Derive an expression for the maximum load in a bolt. When a bracket with a circular base is bolted to a wall by means of four bolts. [8+8] 5. (a) How is the slipping of the cotter avoided, discuss any two methods? (b) An eye is forged at one end of the half of the tie rod and a fork at the end of the other half. Knuckle pin is passed through the holes of the fork and the eye. The pull in the tie rod is 150kN. Allowable stresses in tension and shear are 64Mpa and 29MPa respectively. Take the allowable bearing pressure on the pin as 9MPa. Design and draw the joint. [6+10] 6. (a) What is the comparison between solid shafts, hollow shafts and spindles.

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Set No. 2

(b) Compute the diameter of a solid shaft which has to transmit 16kW power at 300rpm. Ultimate shear stress per shaft material is 350N/mm2 and factor of safety for design is 6. If a hollow shaft replaces the solid shaft, nd the inside and outside diameters if the ratio is 0.5. [6+10] 7. (a) The bolt in the ange coupling should be made weaker than the other components of coupling, Why? (b) In a ange shaft coupling having 37.5mm bore it is desired that torsional stress in the shaft will not exceed 25 N/mm2 . The outside diameter of the coupling limited by space is 200mm. There are three 15mm bolts on a bolt circle diameter of 140mm. The radial ange thickness is 18mm. Determine the following: i. The power that may be transmitted at 600 rev/min. ii. The shearing stress in the bolts. iii. The bearing pressure on the bolts. 8. (a) What is wahl eect in stresses in helical springs? (b) A Spring is subjected to a varying from 400 N to 1000N It is made of oil tempered, cold wound wire. Design factor based on Wahls line is 1.25. The spring index is to be 6.0. The free length of the spring should lie between 100 to 150 mm. The compression of spring under maximum load is 30mm. Determine the diameter of the wire and the mean coil diameter of the wire and the mean coil diameter of the spring. Take yield stress in shear 770N/mm2 and endurance stress in shear is 350N/mm2 . Take C = 0.8105 N/mm2 . [4+12]

[4+12]

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Set No. 3

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I ( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Classify the various types Machine Design. (b) What is the procedure adopted in the design of Machine elements. [6+10]

2. (a) What is meant by stress concentration? How it is taken into consideration in case of a component subjected to dynamic loading. (b) Determine the size of a piston rod subjected to a total load of having cyclic uctuation from 15 kN in compression to 25 kN in tension. The endurance limit is 360 Mpa and yield strength is 400 Mpa. Take impact factor=1.25, factor of safty=1.5, surface nish factor=0.88 and stress concentration factor=2.25. [8+8] 3. (a) Classify the rivet heads according to Indian Standard Specication. (b) A single rivetted double cover butt joint is made in 10mm thick plates with 20mm diameter rivets with a pitch of 60mm. Calculate the eciency of the joint, if t = 100 MPa; = 80 MPa; c = 160 MPa.. [6+10] 4. (a) Discuss on bolts of uniform strength giving examples of practical applications of such bolts. (b) An engine cylinder is 300 m.m in diameter and the steam pressure is 0.7N/m.m2 . If the cylinder head is held by 12 studs, nd the size. Assume safe tensile stress as 28 Mpa. [8+8] 5. (a) What is the dierence between a knuckle and a cotter joint? Where is the use of knuckle joint is best suited, give some examples of its use. (b) Two mild steel rods of 36mm diameter are to be connected by means of a cotter joint. The ends of the rod to be suitably enlarged by forging. The thickness of the cotter is 12mm. Calculate the dimensions of the joint, if the permissible stresses are 60MPa in tension, 45MPa in shear, and 90MPa in compression. [6+10] 6. (a) Dene Rigidity. What are the requirements to design a solid shaft for rigidity? (b) A shaft 150cm long is supported at the ends journal bearings and rotates at 125rp. A vertical load of 8kN is applied 30cm from the left hand bearing, a load of 12kN acting downward and forward at an angle of 450 with the horizontal is applied midway between bearings and a load of 10kN acting downward and

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Set No. 3

forward at an angle of 600 with the horizontal and 25 cm to the left of right hand bearing. Power 0f 14kW is supplied at the rst load, a power of 8.5kW is taken o at the second load and the remainder at the third load. Determine the suitable diameter for the shaft if the permissible shear stress is limited to 50MPa. Draw the bending moment diagram for the shaft. [4+12] 7. Design a bushed -pin type exible coupling to connect a pump shaft to a motor shaft, transmitting 32kW at 960rpm. The overall torque is 20% more than mean torque. The material properties are as follows : (a) The allowable shear and crushing stress for shaft and key material is 40 MPa (b) The allowable shear stress for cast iron is 15MPa (c) The allowable bearing pressure for rubber bush is 0.8N/mm2 (d) The material of the pin is same as that of shaft and key Draw neat sketch of the coupling. [44=16]

8. (a) Why the circular cross section is most commonly used for spring and not others? Under what circumstances the non- circular section would be recommended (b) Design a helical spring for a spring loaded safety valve from the following data: Valve diameter = 65mm Maximum pressure when the valve blows o freely = 0.75 N/mm2 Valve lift when pressure rises from 0 .7 to 0.75 N/mm =3mm Maximum permissible stress in the material of the spring =500 N/mm2 Spring index =6 Modulus of rigidity of the spring material = 1105 N/mm2 . [6+10]

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Set No. 4

1. (a) Dene the terms load, stress and strain. Discuss the various types of stresses and strains. (b) Explain the dierence between linear and lateral strain. [10+6]

2. A hot rolled steel shaft is subjected to a torsional moment that varies from 330Nm clockwise to 110 N-m counter clock wise and an applied bending moment at a critical section varies from 440 N-m to -220 N-m. The shaft is of uniform crosssection and no key is present at the critical section. Determine the required shaft diameter. The material has an ultimate strength of 550 M N/m2 and a yield strength of 410M N/m2 . Take the endurance limit as half the ultimate strength, factor of safty of 2, size factor of 0.85 and surface nish factor of 0.62. [16] 3. (a) Discuss the standard location of elements of a welding symbol. (b) A 65 mm diameter solid shaft is to be welded to a at plate by a llet weld around the circumference of the shaft. Determine the size of the weld if the torque on the shaft is 3 KN-m. The allowable shear stress in the weld is 70 Mpa. [8+8] 4. (a) Dene the following terms with necessary sketch. i. ii. iii. iv. Major diameter Minor diameter Pitch Lead.

(b) Derive an expression for the maximum load in a bolt. When a bracket with a circular base is bolted to a wall by means of four bolts. [8+8] 5. (a) A rectangular key of width 16mm, and the thickness 10mm tted on shaft of 50mm dia. Determine the length of key. Take the permissible shear and crushing stresses for the key material as 45 and 70MPa respectively. (b) What are the design considerations in the following parts in a knuckle joint? i. ii. iii. iv. Pin diameter Inner part rod Outer part rod Thickness of outer part.

[8+8]

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Set No. 4

6. Power is transmitted to a shaft supported on bearings, 900mm apart, by a belt drive, running on a 450mm pulley, which overhangs the right bearing by 200mm. Power is transmitted from the shaft through a belt drive, running on a 250mm pulley, located mid-way between the bearings. The belt drives are at right angle to each other, and the ratio of belt tensions is 3; with the maximum tension in both the belts being limited to 2kN. Determine the diameter of the shaft, assuming permissible stress as 60MPa. Indicate the assumptions made, if any. Draw the BM & S.F diagrams. [16] 7. Design a bushed -pin type exible couplings to transmit 25kW at 960rpm. Use the following stress values: Shear stress =50MPa(shaft and key) 30MPa(pin) Crushing stress =90MPa (key) Bearing pressure=0.45N/mm2 (rubber bush).

[16]

8. (a) How are springs classied? Explain their construction and working with sketches, and the uses to which each can be put? (b) A car is provided with four leaf springs each having 9 leaves and supports are 1m apart and section of the leaf is 405 mm. The full capacity load for springs amounts to 8000N. The rear axle takes 60% of load, breaking strength 12000N/mm2 . Check the dimensions. [6+10]

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Set No. 1

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DIGITAL IC APPLICATIONS ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Design a 4-input CMOS OR-AND-INVERT gate. Explain the circuit with the help of logic diagram and function table? (b) Explain the following terms with reference to CMOS logic. i. ii. iii. iv. Logic 0 and Logic 1 Noise margin Power supply rails Propagation delay

[10+6]

2. (a) What is the necessity of separate interfacing circuit to connect CMOS gate to TTL gate? Draw the interface circuit and explain the operation. (b) Draw the circuit diagram of basic CMOS gate and explain the operation. [8+8] 3. (a) Write a VHDL Entity and Architecture for the following function? F(x) = a b c Also draw the relevant logic diagram. (b) Explain the use of Packages Give the syntax and structure of a package in VHDL [8+8] 4. (a) Write a data-ow style VHDL program for the full adder outputs S and Co with inputs A,B,CI as shown below. F(S) = A B C1 F(CO ) = AB + AC1 + BC1 Using the above entity write a structural VHDL program for a 5-bit ripple carry adder. [16] 5. Design a two-digit BCD adder with logic gates. Using this logic write the VHDL program. In structural style of modeling. [8+8] 6. (a) Design a 16-bit comparator using 7485 ICs. (b) Write a behavioral VHDL program to compare 16-bit signed and unsigned integers . [16] 7. (a) Design an 8-bit serial-in and parallel-out shift register with ip-ops. Explain the operation with the help of timing waveforms.

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Set No. 1

[8+8]

(b) Write VHDL data-ow program for the above shift-register. 8. (a) Realize the logic function performed by 74381 with ROM.

(b) How many ROM bits are required to build a 16-bit adder/subtractor with mode control, carry input, carry output and twos complement overow output. Show the block schematic with all inputs and outputs. [8+8]

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Set No. 2

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DIGITAL IC APPLICATIONS ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Design a CMOS transistor circuit that realizes the following Boolean function. f (x) = (a + b). (b + c) Also explain its functional operation. (b) What are the parameters that are necessary to dene the electrical characteristics of CMOS circuits? Mention the typical values of a CMOS NAND gate. [8+8] 2. (a) Compare CMOS, TTL and ECL with reference to logic levels, DC Noise margin, propagation delay and fan-out. (b) List out dierent categories of characteristics in a TTL data sheet? Discuss electrical and switching characteristics of 74LS00. [6+10] 3. (a) Explain the various data types supported by VHDL. Give the necessary examples. (b) Discuss the case statement and its use in the VHDL program. [8+8] 4. Design a logic circuit to detect prime number of a 5-bit input. Write the structural VHDL program for the same. [16] 5. (a) Draw the logic symbol of 74245 and explain its operation? (b) Write a VHDL program for 74245? [16] 6. Write VHDL program for 8-bit comparator circuit. Using this entity write VHDL program for 24-bit comparator. Show the additional logic used for this purpose use structural style or modeling. [16] 7. (a) Design an 8-bit parallel-in and serial-out shift register? Explain the operation of the above shift register with the help of timing waveforms? (b) Draw the logic diagram of 74X174IC and explain the operation. Develop the VHDL mode for this IC. [8+8] 8. (a) Explain how a 44 binary multiplier can be designed using 2568 ROM. (b) Determine the ROM size needed to realize the logic function performed by 74153 and 74139. [8+8]

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Set No. 3

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DIGITAL IC APPLICATIONS ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Design a CMOS transistor circuit that has the functional behavior as f (x) = (a + b) ( b + c + d)(a + d) Explain it circuit with the help of logic diagram and function table. 2. (a) Mention the DC noise margin levels of ECL 10K family. (b) A single pull-up resistor to +5V is used to provide a constant-1 logic source to 15 dierent 74LS00 inputs. What is the maximum value of this resistor? How much high state DC noise margin can be provided in this case? [6+10] 3. (a) Discuss the steps in VHDL design ow. (b) Explain the dierence in program structure of VHDL and any other procedural language. Give an example. [8+8] 4. (a) Write a data-ow style VHDL program for the following functions. Also draw to logic circuit diagram. F(S) = A B C1 F(CO ) = AB + AC1 + BC1 (b) Design the logic circuit and write a data-ow style VHDL program for the following function. [8+8] F (X ) = A,B,C,D (3, 5, 6, 7, 13) + d (1, 2, 4, 12, 15) 5. (a) Design a 32 to 1 multiplexer using four 74151 multiplexers and 74X139 decoder. (b) Realize the following expression using 74151 IC f (Y ) = AB + BC + AC 6. Design a 24-bit comparator circuit using 74682 ICs and discuss the functionality of the circuit. Also implement VHDL source code in data ow style. [16] 7. (a) Draw the logic diagram of 74174 IC and explain the operation. Develop the VHDL model for this IC. [8+8] [16]

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Set No. 3

(b) Design a switch debouncer circuit using 74109 IC Explain the operation using timing diagram. [16] 8. (a) Explain the necessity of two-dimensional decoding mechanism in memories. Draw MOS transistor memory cell in ROM and explain the operation. (b) Design an 88 diode ROM using 74138 for the following data starting from the rst location. [8+8] 11, 22, 33, F F, DD, CC, 01, 7E

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Set No. 4

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 DIGITAL IC APPLICATIONS ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Design a 4-input CMOS OR-AND-INVERT gate. Explain the circuit with the help of logic diagram and function table? (b) Explain the following terms with reference to CMOS logic. i. ii. iii. iv. Logic 0 and Logic 1 Noise margin Power supply rails Propagation delay

[10+6]

2. (a) Design a transistor circuit of 2-input ECL NOR gate. Explain the operation with the help of function table. (b) Compare CMOS, TTL and ECL with reference to logic levels, DC Noise margin, propagation delay and fan-out. [8+8] 3. (a) Explain with an example the syntax and the function of the following VHDL statements. i. Process Statement ii. Case Statement (b) Explain Implicit and Explicit visibility of a Library in VHDL? [8+8]

4. (a) Design a logic circuit to detect prime number of a 4-bit input? Write the VHDL program for the same in structural style of modelling. (b) Design the logic circuit and write a data-ow style VHDL program for the following function? [8+8] F (X ) = A,B,C,D (3, 5, 6, 7, 10, 13, 14) + d (1, 2, 4, 15) 5. (a) Design a 32 to 1 multiplexer using four 74151 multiplexers and 74139 decoder? (b) Write a data ow style VHDL program for the above design? [10+6]

6. A 16-bit barrel shifter is a combinational logic circuit with 16-data inputs, 16data outputs and 4-control inputs. The input word is rotated by a number of bit positions specied by control bits. Write a VHDL program using data ow style? [16]

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Set No. 4

[8+8]

7. (a) Design a module-8 binary counter and decoder with glitch-free outputs. Explain the operation. (b) Design a module-60 counter using 74163 ICs.

8. (a) With the help of timing waveforms, explain read and write operations of SRAM. (b) Explain the internal structure of 64K1 DRAM. With the help of timing waveforms discuss DRAM access. [8+8]

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Set No. 1

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 COMPUTER NETWORKS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) What are the distinct characteristics of local area networks, explain briey? Why is a LAN required and what objectives are achieved by having a LAN (b) A group of 2n 1 routers are interconnected in a centralized binary tree, with a router at each tree node. Router i communicate with router j by sending a message to the root of the tree. The root then sends the message back down to j . Derive an approximate expression for the mean number of hops per message for large n, assuming that all router pairs are equally likely. [8+8] 2. (a) Give a comparison of semiconductor diodes and LEDs as light sources? (b) Discuss about wireless communication in detail? [6+10]

3. (a) Discuss the error control technique which is commonly used in data network. What value of N is used in go-back-N ARQ technique used in ARPANET and why? (b) Imagine that you are writing the data link software for a line used to send data to you, but not from you. The other end uses HDLC, with a 3-bit sequence number and a window size of seven frames. You would like to buer as many out of sequence frames as possible to enhance eciency, but you are not allowed to modify the software on the sending side. Is it possible to have a receiver window greater than one, and still guarantee that the protocol will never fail? If so, what is the largest window that can be safely used? [8+8] 4. (a) Discuss about MAC addresses? (b) Explain about a bit-map collision free protocol? [8+8]

5. What are the services provided by Network layer to Transport layer. Explain. [16] 6. (a) What are ATM Service categories? Explain. (b) What is Quality of Service? How ATM supports Quality of Service? 7. (a) Explain the techniques for controlling packet life time. (b) What is forbidden region? Explain how sequences numbers are given to TPDUS. [8+8] 8. (a) What are the components of SNMP management models? Explain? (b) What is the signicance of abstract syntax notation? [8+8]

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Set No. 1

[5+5+6]

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Set No. 2

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 COMPUTER NETWORKS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Dene the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv. Computer Network Peer process Protocol Interface. [8+8]

(b) Discuss various network applications and goals in detail. 2. (a) Discuss in detail about space division switches? (b) With a neat diagram explain ISDN system for home use?

[8+8]

3. (a) A block of bits with n rows and k columns uses horizontal and vertical parity bits for error detection. Suppose that exactly 4 bits are invented due to transmission errors. Derive an expression for the probability that the error will be undetected. (b) Explain about the three kinds of frames in HDLC protocol? 4. (a) Explain in detail binary count down collision free protocol? (b) Give the detailed description of 802.3 frame format? 5. (a) Compare Circuit switching with Packet switching. (b) Consider any two networks of your choice which support Circuit switching or Packet switching and explain them in detail. (c) Explain the strategy that can be used at the receiver to achieve reordering of the packets. [6+6+4] 6. (a) How fragmentation is achieved? Explain the format of fragment. (b) What is Firewall? How Firewall provides security? [8+8] [8+8] [8+8]

7. (a) What is Pay load? What is the payload size of the maximum length message that ts in a single AAL 3/4 cell? (b) When a 1024 bytes message is sent with AAL 3/4, what is the eciency obtained? In other words, what fraction of the bits transmitted are useful data bits? Repeat the problem for AAL 5. [6+10] 8. (a) What is multimedia? What are the problems with Audio and Video transfer over computer network?

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Code No: S0503/R05 (b) How images are compressed using JPEG?

Set No. 2

[8+8]

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Set No. 3

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 COMPUTER NETWORKS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Give a detailed description of the Novell Netware reference model. (b) With suitable examples explain simplex, half-duplex & full-duplex communication. [10+6] 2. (a) Television channels are 6MHz wide. How many bits/sec can be sent if four level digital signals are used? Assume a noiseless channel (b) How does a virtual circuit dier from a physical circuit? What advantages would a virtual circuit provide? [8+8] 3. (a) Mention and discuss the functioning of data link layer protocols in detail. (b) Data link protocols almost always put the CRC in a trailer, rather than in the header. Why? [12+4] 4. (a) What is the prime dierence between a token bus and a token ring? (b) A large population of ALOHA users manages to generate 50 requests/sec, including both originals and retransmissions. Time is slotted in the units of 40 msec. i. What is the chance of success on the rst attempt? ii. What is the probability of exactly k collisions and then a success? iii. What is the expected number of transmission attempts needed? [4+12] 5. What are the services provided by Network layer to Transport layer. Explain. [16] 6. (a) How congestion is controlled in V.C. subnets? (b) What is Choke packet? How use of choke packets helps in congestion control? [8+8] 7. (a) What are the applications which use connection oriented service and which use connection less service? Explain? (b) What is the type of service that is required for uncompressed audio & video. Explain? (c) What is the type of service that is required for compressed audio & Video? Explain? [6+5+5] 8. What is KDC ? How Authentication is achieved using KDC ? [16]

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Set No. 4

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2012 COMPUTER NETWORKS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Explain problems of the TCP/IP model and protocols? (b) With a neat diagram explain ARPANET design? [8+8]

2. (a) Television channels are 6MHz wide. How many bits/sec can be sent if four level digital signals are used? Assume a noiseless channel (b) How does a virtual circuit dier from a physical circuit? What advantages would a virtual circuit provide? [8+8] 3. Explain in detail the two data link protocols widely used in the Internet? [16]

4. What is a token? Discuss the protocol of token ring LAN in general. Discuss with example how priority is implemented in a token ring LAN? [16] 5. (a) What is Broadcasting. What are the various methods of achieving it. (b) What is Reverse path forwarding. How it is useful for broadcasting. Explain with an example. [10+6] 6. (a) What is the format of Cell in ATM? (b) Compare Permanent V.C. with Switched V.C. in ATM. (c) How xed size cells increases the speed of switching? [6+5+5]

7. (a) Suggest modications to TCP to make it suitable for short data transfers. (b) UDP provides only connectionless service. For applications which use UDP how you provide reliability. [10+6] 8. Explain in detail DES. [16]

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