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Aviation Law

Feedback Paper 1 1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that ATS can request a change of speed to an aircraft on final approach? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 5nm 3nm 2nm 4nm

If the braking action is reported by ATS as 0.25 or below, the condition for braking is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Good Medium/Poor Medium Poor

3.

Which of the following cannot be included in a registration mark? (a) (b) (c) (d) LLL RCC TTT FFF

4.

What is the definition of Distress? (a) (b) (c) (d) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or within sight

5.

What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)? (a) (b) (c) (d) An emergency situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are subject to danger A situation where it is thought that fuel is exhausted A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety A situation in which it is thought that an aeroplane and its passengers are In emergency

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6.

What letter is inserted in a flight plan when the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some stage in the flight? (a) (b) (c) (d) V I Z Y

7.

When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PiC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with VFR until destination: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression cancelling my IFR flight He/she must request and obtain clearance He/she may request the IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight

Which of the following combinations is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. (ii) and (iii) (ii) and (iv) (i) and (iii) (i) and (iv)

What is the speed restriction in class B airspace under 10 000 ft in both IFR and IFR? (a) (b) (c) (d) 250 kts lAS 200 kts IAS 260 kts TAS not applicable

9.

What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled? (a) (b) (c) (d) It It It It must must must must be located within a CTR have a control tower have a control tower and be in a CTR be in controlled airspace

10.

What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence? (a) (b) (c) (d) 18 21 16 23

11.

When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL(A), how often are you required to have a medical examination? (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The 12 month period reduces to 6 months 24 month period reduces to 12 months 6 month period reduces to 3 months 9 month period reduces to 3 months
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12.

You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited? (a) (b) (c) (d) Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum of of of of 100, 100, 100, 100, not not not not more more more more than than than than 15 30 25 50 in in in in a a a a procedural procedural procedural procedural flight flight flight flight trainer trainer trainer trainer

13.

At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what change in cross wind component change would he inform you of? (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 kts 8 kts 3 kts 5 kts

14.

A SVFR flight can fly in a control zone if the visibility is l500m or more without a radio, if the class of airspace of the CTR is: (a) (b) (c) (d) C,D,E D, E D E

15.

What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the same runway? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 3 1 2 minutes minutes minutes minutes

16.

A procedure to alter level in a hold is known as: (a) (b) (c) (d) Shuttle Procedure turn Base turn Racetrack

17.

Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made: (a) (b) (c) (d) To the left To the left then right To the right Procedure turn right then left

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18.

Which of the quadrantal levels should be used when true track is 358, variation is 3W and deviation is 5 E? (a) (b) (c) (d) FL FL FL FL 75 60 70 65

19.

In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at: (a) (b) (c) (d) Rate of turn of 3/sec Rate of turn of 3/sec or 20 bank whichever is lesser Rate of turn of 3/sec or at a bank angle of 25 whichever is lesser Bank angle of 25

20.

What level of alert would be inserted in field E of an ASHTAM following a volcanic eruption in which a pyroclastic ash cloud extends above FL250? (a) (b) (c) (d) Red alert Orange alter Yellow alert Green alert

21.

What is the maximum track guidance distance for a turning departure? (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 10 25 25 km nm nm km

22.

What radius from a VOR is MSA provided? (a) (b) (c) (d) 25 10 15 15 nm nm nm km

23.

What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC? (a) (b) (c) (d) Separation Helping when communications have failed To assist pilots with technical problems To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

24.

What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30 leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a holding pattern? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 minutes 2 minutes 3 minutes 30 seconds

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25.

Which of the following is a valid colour scheme for signs on an aerodrome? (a) (b) (c) (d) Black on red Yellow on black or black on yellow Red on white Orange

26.

What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light:? (a) (b) (c) (d) Blue Steady red Yellow Green

27.

How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 4 3 2

28.

Lead in lights are: (a) (b) (c) (d) Green at threshold across the runway White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway Yellow White across the runway

29.

The documents which allow an aircraft entry to a country: (a) (b) (c) (d) Must be typewritten Can be accepted in ink in block capitals Are accepted at the discretion of the state of arrival Must be typewritten or sent in electronic data format

30.

If you observe a distress light on the ground you should: (a) (b) (c) (d) Flash landing lights or navigation lights twice Fly over as low as possible the flash light Fly in circles above then flash lights Fly a triangular pattern

31.

You are on the surface and are injured by an object from an aeroplane. Which convention allows you to claim damages? (a) (b) (c) (d) The Hague Rome Warsaw Pads

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32.

A non-scheduled aircraft wants to land for non-commercial reasons in an ICAO contracting state. The flight plan is to be sufficient notification for acceptance of this flight. How much time in advance must the flight plan be received? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 hour 2 hours 4 hours 24 hours

33.

ICAO publishes: (a) (b) (c) (d) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only International law

34.

Which annex covers entry of cargo? (a) (b) (c) (d) 6 14 9 11

35.

Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes? (a) (b) (c) (d) 14 11 6 18

36.

To what did the Tokyo convention of 1963 address itself? (a) (b) (c) (d) Licensing of scheduled air services Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in the same state Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in another state Interference with an aircraft in flight

37.

An aircraft is coming in from the left. Which light will you see first? (a) (b) (c) (d) Steady red Steady green Flashing green White

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38.

An aircraft suffers a complete radio failure in IMC conditions in a holding pattern having received an EAT. How long should it stay in the hold? (a) (b) (c) (d) Until the last received and acknowledged EAT 30 minutes Not at all 20 minutes

39.

Name the criteria for descent below MDH on a VM(C) approach: (a) (b) (c) (d) Threshold in view, able to keep visual reference to terrain, clear of cloud Clearance from ATC, threshold in view, inside aerodrome traffic zone Runway visual, 5km visibility and clear of cloud Visual glide path indication of on glide path and VMC exists

40.

When must you operate your SSR transponder? (a) (b) (c) (d) Always At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

41.

What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR? (a) (b) (c) (d) Z Y I V

42.

In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted? (a) (b) (c) (d) D F A B

43.

What types of separation do ATC apply? (a) (b) (c) (d) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal Horizontal vertical and composite Horizontal, vertical and lateral

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44.

What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 4 minutess

45.

In European airspace, an aircraft experiencing total radio failure after departure should: (a) (b) (c) (d) Climb immediately to cleared altitude Maintain last assigned flight level for3 minutes then as per flight plan Maintain last assigned altitude for 5 minutes than as per flight Return to aerodrome of departure

46.

What is the minimum distance from threshold that a controller must have issued clearance to land by, for a non precision approach? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm 2 nm 3 nm 10 nm

47.

What does the SAR signal X on the ground mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) We We We We need help are OK need medical supplies have gone away

48.

What is AIRAC? (a) (b) (c) (d) A package of information including AlP, NOTAMS route briefings A telecommunicated message of operational significance which has short notice The main body of knowledge concerning a national aviation system A means of amending operationally significant permanent information

49.

Hijack must be notified by the state of landing to the: (a) (b) (c) (d) State State State State of of of of operator and the operator, the operator, the operator, the the the the state state state state of of of of registration registration and ICAO registration and ECAC registration and ICAO and ECAC

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50.

Aerodrome code 4 refers to field length: (a) (b) (c) (d) 900 m 1000 m 1600 m 1800 m

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Intentionally Blank

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Aviation Law
Feedback Paper 1, Answers

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

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Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 d d c a c d d d b a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 a c d d d a c c c a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a a a a b b a b b a 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 b a c c a d b a a b 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 b d c a b b c d b d

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