SBI PO 2013 Preparation Guide

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SBI PO 2013 PREPARATION
GUIDE
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PREFACE
Jagranjosh State Bank of India Probationary Officers Recruitment Preparation Package (SBI PO
PDF Package) is an ideal platform for every candidate, who desires to achieve a good score in
the SBI Probationary Officers Recruitment. This exam which is going to be conducted on 28
April 2013.
The SBI PO Preparation Package has been prepared by experts of Jagranjosh.com. Our team of
experts has put in its utmost efforts to bring out a perfect preparation package by blending in
all the ingredients of the bank recruitment examinations.
It is highly advisable for all those appearing for the examination to go through the package with
utmost seriousness and time their performance. This will allow them to get used to the time
limit set for the examination and accordingly manage time. Moreover the results of this exam
should be taken as a benchmark for their preparations so far, and students should try to
improve further more.
Jagranjosh SBI PO Exam PDF Package 2013
The SBI PO Preparation PDF Package includes:
- Reasoning
- Data Analysis and Interpretation
- General English
- General Awareness, Marketing and Computer
(Separate Issue on 28
th
March 2013 with latest update)
- Practice Set
- Previous Years Exam Papers
The questions from all the chapters have also been included to perfectly suit the candidates
need and to finally overcome the written examination. We have tried hard to ensure that each
and every question will help the students to brush their readings so far. Jagranjosh’s SBI PO PDF
Package is a remarkable adaptation to train the students for SBI PO Exam 2013. All the sections
of this Preparation Package have been made very reader-friendly.
The students on completion of the test will be left feeling more confident on their preparation
skills and this will boost their overall performance at the time of the examination.
JagranJosh.com requests all the students to provide their valuable feedback on the package, so
we can provide better versions of preparatory packages to the candidates in the future.
Our team at Jagranjosh.com wishes all the students appearing for the examination.
All The Best.
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Contents
Reasoning ........................................................................................................................................ 5
Puzzles ..................................................................................................................................... 5
Answers ................................................................................................................................... 9
Input- Output ................................................................................................................................ 10
Syllogism ....................................................................................................................................... 23
Data Sufficiency ............................................................................................................................ 29
Coding-Decoding ....................................................................................................................... 35
Coded Relations ......................................................................................................................... 39
Digits/Symbols & Codes ............................................................................................................. 42
Strenghtening and Weakening Arguments ............................................................................... 45
Courses of Action ....................................................................................................................... 50
Cause and Effect ........................................................................................................................ 56
Data Analysis And Interpretation ................................................................................................. 63
Table Charts ............................................................................................................................... 63
Bar Graphs ................................................................................................................................. 68
Line Graphs ................................................................................................................................ 71
Pie Charts ................................................................................................................................... 75
Case Lets .................................................................................................................................... 79
Permutations ............................................................................................................................. 83
Combinations ............................................................................................................................. 91
Probability ................................................................................................................................ 100
Ratio & Proportion ................................................................................................................... 105
Average .................................................................................................................................... 108
Percentage ............................................................................................................................... 111
English Language ......................................................................................................................... 115
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Antonyms ................................................................................................................................. 115
Synonyms ................................................................................................................................. 119
Fill In the Blanks ....................................................................................................................... 123
Error Detection ........................................................................................................................ 129
Idioms & Phrases ..................................................................................................................... 132
Cloze Tests ............................................................................................................................... 138
Passages ................................................................................................................................... 145
Para Jumbled ........................................................................................................................... 155
Sentence Completion Tests ..................................................................................................... 163

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REASONING
PUZZLES
Introduction: In the reasoning section of State Bank of India Probationary Exam, the questions
from puzzles are very important to get good marks in the exam. The questions of puzzles can be
asked in 2 or 3 sets and the number of questions can be 10 to 15.
Here we will do some exercises of puzzles which are very much similar to the expected
questions of SBI PO Exam 2013.
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three different cars Alto, Punto and Vento and there are at
least two persons in any of these cars. Each of them has a favorite (likes) colour, viz black, red,
yellow, green, white, blue and pink, not necessarily in the same order.
- B likes yellow and is not travelling in Vento.
- The one who likes black is travelling in the same car in which E is travelling.
- C likes blue and is travelling in the same car in which G is travelling.
- D is going in Punto only with the one who likes pink.
- G is not travelling either in Punto or Vento.
- F does not like black.
- G does not like either green or white.
- D does not like green.
- E does not like pink.
1. Who likes Black?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these
2. Which of the following combinations is correct?
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(a) D – Vento – White
(b) F – Alto – Pink
(c) G – Alto – Red
(d) B – Punto – Yellow
(e) All are correct
3. What is E’s favourite colour?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Either Black or Yellow
(e) None of these
4. Which of the following person is travelling in Alto?
(a) CD
(b) BCE
(c) DF
(d) BCG
(e) None of these
5. Who likes White?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in
the same order.
- C is sitting third to the left of E.
- D and G are not the immediate neighbor C and E.
- A is second to the right of G and third to the left of H.
- F is not an immediate neighbor of E.
6. Who is third to the left of G?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) H
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(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
7. What is F’s position with respect to B?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) None of these
8. Who is fourth to the right of A?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
(e) None of these
9. Who is second to the left of G?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these
10. Who are the immediate neighbors’ of C?
(a) AB
(b) AC
(c) BF
(d) AF
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 – 15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are six friends; A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a circular table. All the friends are facing
the centre. All of them are working as a Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher, Shop keeper and
Manager but not in the same order.
- The manager and the teacher are the immediate neighbour of the shop keeper.
- A is sitting second to the left of the shop keeper and second to the right of B who is a
lawyer.
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- Teacher is not an immediate neighbor of A.
- Doctor is not the immediate neighbor of B.
- F is a manager.
- C is not an engineer.
- E is neither an engineer nor a shop keeper.
11. D is working as a/an
(a) Doctor
(b) Engineer
(c) Teacher
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
12. Who are the immediate neighbours of the engineer?
(a) Shop keeper and Lawyer
(b) Doctor and Manager
(c) Teacher and Lawyer
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
13. Who is sitting between A and C?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
14. What is F’s position with respect to D?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the left
(e) None of these
15. Which of the following pairs is sitting opposite to each other?
(a) AC
(b) FE
(c) DC
(d) BD
(e) None of these
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ANSWERS
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (e)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (a)
9. (e)
10. (d)
11. (b)
12. (e)
13. (d)
14. (a)
15. (c)



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INPUT- OUTPUT
Introduction: The questions of Input-Output in the PO exams are very common and can be very
much scoring within few minutes. These questions are pattern based in which you have to find
the hidden pattern and then answer the given questions.
Here we will practice the questions of Input-Output
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Refer to the following data, answer the question that follows a set of
numbers when put through a machine comes out in a particular sequence. The table is given
which has six steps. Study the table and answer the questions that follow:
Input: 94 32 54 18 09 08 17 21 68 77 84 92
Step 1: 94 32 54 18 09 17 21 68 77 84 92 08
Step 2: 94 92 32 54 18 17 21 68 77 84 09 08
Step 3: 94 92 84 32 54 18 21 68 77 17 09 08
Step 4: 94 92 84 77 32 54 21 68 18 17 09 08
Step 5: 94 92 84 77 68 32 54 21 18 17 09 08
Step 6: 94 92 84 77 68 54 32 21 18 17 09 08
1. If two new numbers 30 and 22 are added to the sequence, then the position of number 32
with respect to 94 in the last step would be:
(a) 7
th

(b) 9
th

(c) 10
th

(d) 8
th

(e) 6
th

2. By putting the sequence given below in the same machine, what would be the third step in
the sequence?
Input: 24 28 37 11 78 89 96 68 48 54
(a) 96 89 78 11 24 28 37 68 54 48
(b) 96 78 37 89 68 54 48 28 24 11
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(c) 96 89 78 37 68 54 48 28 24 11
(d) 89 78 96 37 68 54 11 28 48 24
(e) None of these
3. For the sequence in above question what will be the 7th number from left?
(a) 37
(b) 54
(c) 48
(d) 24
(e) None of these
4. What would be the middle term of the following sequence after final step?
Input: 24 36 48 54 09 11 17 26 98
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 24
(d) 48
(e) none of these
5. For the sequence in above question, how many steps are involved to get the final
arrangement?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) none of these
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): The arrangements of given input will follow a particular logic.
Understand this logic and solve the questions that follow.
Input: 45 328 877 24 159 648
Step 1: 877 328 45 24 159 648
Step 2: 877 328 45 648 159 24
Step 3: 877 648 45 328 159 24
Step 4: 877 648 159 328 45 24
Output: 877 648 328 159 45 24
6. Which of the following will be 2nd last result of the following input:
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Input: 92 87 153 234 645
(a) 92 153 87 234 645
(b) 87 92 153 234 645
(c) 645 92 153 234 87
(d) None of these
(e) Can’t be determined
7. If the given result is 5th and final then what will be the input?
Step 5: 334 224 114 84 64 4
(a) 224 114 84 64 4 334
(b) 114 224 84 4 64 334
(c) 334 224 4 84 64 114
(d) None of these
(e) Can’t be determined
8. Which will be the last result of given input?
Input: 789 798 79 98 778
(a) 798 79 98 789 778
(b) 778 79 789 98 798
(c) 79 98 778 789 798
(d) 798 789 778 98 79
(e) None of these
9. Given result is first which will be the IIIrd result of input?
Step 1: 656 224 170 589 264
(a) 656 224 589 170 264
(b) 224 656 589 170 264
(c) 264 170 589 656 224
(d) None of these
(e) Can’t be determined
10. Following is the fourth result what will be the sixth?
Step 4: 317 314 263 219 87 85
(a) 317 314 219 263 87 85
(b) 85 87 219 263 314 317
(c) 263 87 219 85 314 317
(d) None of these
(e) Can’t be determined
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Directions for questions 11 to 15: A word arrangement, when rearranged by given input
follows a particular logic behind it. Study that logic and answer the questions that follow.
Input: Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In Winter.
Step 1: Winter Blankets and Warm Quilts Help In
Step 2: Winter Warm Blankets and Quilts Help In
Step 3: Winter Warm Quilts Blankets and Help In
Step 4: Winter Warm Quilts in Blankets and Help
Output: Winter Warm Quilts in Help Blankets And
11. Which of the following will be Step 2 for the given input?
Input: “Life without success is boring”
(a) Is life boring without success
(b) Without life is boring success
(c) Without success life is boring
(d) Data insufficient
(e) None of these
12. In the above question, how many steps are required to get the final output?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None of these
13. If the following Step is 2
nd
for a certain input then what will be the fourth Step?
Step-II: The success my is outcome of diligence.
(a) My success is outcome of the diligence
(b) The my success is outcome of diligence
(c) Success is the outcome of my diligence
(d) The success outcome of my is diligence
(e) None of these
14. Which of the following will be the last Step of given input?
Input: “Never break your elders trust.”
(a) Break never trust your elders
(b) Trust your elders never break
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(c) Break your elders trust never
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
15. How many Steps will be required to get the final output in the above question?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None of these
Directions for questions 16 to 20: A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of
words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration
of input and the steps rearrangement.
Input: Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter to Access Bank
Step 1: Access Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter to Bank
Step 2: Access Bank Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter to
Step 3: Access Bank Busy Guest forum to Thank Easter to
Step 4: Access Bank Busy Easter Guest forum to thank to
Step 5: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest to Thank to
Step 6: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank to to
Step 7: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank To to
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
16. Which of the following will be Step 4 for the given input?
Input: Star Fast arise on water Heater attire
(a) arise attire Fast Heater on water star
(b) arise attire Fast Heater on star water
(c) arise attire Fast Heater star on water
(d) arise attire Heater Fast star on water
(e) None of these
17. Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
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Input: The other stations on first target sorted
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these
18. The Step II of an input is as follows: “are Dare persons to over that”
Which of the following would definitely be the input?
(a) Dare over persons to are that
(b) Dare persons to are that over
(c) Dare are persons to over that
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
19. Which of the following steps would be: “an and every for peer to”?
Input: every and peer to an for
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these
20. Which step number will be the last step of the above input?
Input: Over Go Forum the at once
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (e)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (b)
6. (c)
7. (e)
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8. (d)
9. (d)
10. (e)
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (d)
14. (e)
15. (c)
16. (c)
17. (d)
18. (e)
19. (b)
20. (e)
Answer Explanations
Solutions to questions 1 to 5:
The above questions can be solved using the following rules:
Input: 94 32 54 18 09 08 17 21 68 77 84 92
Step 1: The smallest is found out and is put at the end. At the same time, the largest is found
out and placed at the beginning of the series.
94 32 54 18 09 17 21 68 77 84 92 08
Step 2: leaving the ones that have been sent at the end of the sequence, step 1 is repeated till
the series is in decreasing order.
94 92 32 54 18 17 21 68 77 84 09 08
Step 3: 94 92 84 32 54 18 21 68 77 17 09 08
Step 4: 94 92 84 77 32 54 21 68 18 17 09 08
Step 5: 94 92 84 77 68 32 54 21 18 17 09 08
Step 6: 94 92 84 77 68 54 32 21 18 17 09 08
Q1: Ans. (e)
Final step would be the series in descending order. There is no need to go through all the steps.
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The last step after re-arranging will be:
94 92 84 77 68 54 32 30 22 21 18 17 09 08
Q2: Ans. (e)
Input: 24 28 37 11 78 89 96 68 48 54
Step 1: 96 24 28 37 78 89 68 48 54 11
Step 2: 96 89 28 37 78 68 48 54 24 11
Step 3: 96 89 78 37 68 48 54 28 24 11
Q3: Ans. (b)
From above
Q4: Ans. (a)
Final step would be the series in descending order. There is no need to go through all the steps.
The last step after re-arranging will be:
98 54 48 36 26 24 17 11 09
Q5: Ans. (b)
Input: 24 36 48 54 09 11 17 26 98
Step 1: 98 24 36 48 54 11 17 26 09
Step 2: 98 54 24 36 48 17 26 11 09
Step 3: 98 54 48 24 36 26 17 11 09
Step 4: 98 54 48 36 26 24 17 11 09
Solutions to questions 6 to 10:
The above questions can be solved using the following rules:
Input: 45 328 877 24 159 648
Step 1: The largest interchanges its position with the first one. 87745
877 328 45 24 159 648
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Step 2: The smallest interchanges its position with the last one. 24648
877 328 45 648 159 24
Step 3: Now the first and the last are left-out and steps 1 and 2 are repeated till the
sequence is arranged in descending order.
648328
877 648 45 328 159 24
Step 4: 45159
877 648 159 328 45 24
Step 5: 328159
877 648 328 159 45 24
(This is final output, as the series is now arranged in descending order.)
Q6: Ans. (c)
Input: 92 87 153 234 645
Step 1: 645 87 153 234 92
Step 2: 645 92 153 234 87
Step 3: 645 234 153 92 87
So the 2
nd
last will be Result 2.
Q7: Ans. (e)
Previous steps can’t be determined as we can’t assume the position of the number in previous
results.
Q8: Ans. (d)
The answer can be easily found out by re-arranging the series in descending order. There is no
need to go through all the steps.
Q9: Ans (d)
Step 1: 656 224 170 589 264
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Step 2: 656 224 264 589 170
Step 3: 656 589 264 224 170
Q10: Ans. (e)
Because 317 314 263 219 87 85 is already arranged in descending order.
Solutions to Questions 11 to 15: These questions are based on alphabetical reverse order like Z
Y X W V U.... In every step the lowest in alphabetical order is found out and put at the
beginning.
Input: Blankets And Warm Quilts Help In Winter.
Step 1: Winter Blankets and Warm Quilts Help In
Step 2: Winter Warm Blankets and Quilts Help In
Step 3: Winter Warm Quilts Blankets and Help In
Step 4: Winter Warm Quilts In Blankets and Help
Step 5: Winter Warm Quilts In Help Blankets and (This is the final step)
Q11: Ans. (c)
Input: Life without success is boring
Step 1: Without life success is boring
Step 2: Without success life is boring (This is the final step)
Q12: Ans. (b)
Q13: Ans. (d)
Step 2: The success my is outcome of diligence.
Step 3: The success outcome my is of diligence.
Step 4: The success outcome of my is diligence.
Q14: Ans. (e)
In such type of problems direct rule follows that is to arrange the input in descending order.
Last Step will be “Your trust never elders break”
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Q15: Ans (c)
Input: Never break your elders trust.
Step 1: Your never break elders trust
Step 2: Your trust never break elders
Step 3: Your trust never elders break
Solution for questions 16 to 20
In the given arrangement, the words have been arranged alphabetically in a sequence, altering
the position of only one word in each step.
Input: Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Access Bank
Step 1: Access Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To Bank
Step 2: Access Bank Guest forum to Thank Busy Easter To
Step 3: Access Bank Busy Guest forum to Thank Easter To
Step 4: Access Bank Busy Easter Guest forum to Thank To
Step 5: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest to Thank To
Step 6: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank to To
Step 7: Access Bank Busy Easter forum Guest Thank To to
Q16: Ans. (c)
Input: star Fast arise on water Heater at
Step 1: arise star Fast on water Heater at
Step 2: arise at star Fast on water Heater
Step 3: arise at Fast star on water Heater
Step 4: arise at Fast Heater star on water
Q17: Ans. (d)
Input: The other stations on first target sorted
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Step 1: first The other stations on target sorted
Step 2: first on The other stations target sorted
Step 3: first on other The stations target sorted
Step 4: first on other stations The target sorted
Step 5: first on other stations sorted The target
Step 6: first on other stations sorted target The
Clearly, Step 6 is the last step and 5 is the last but one (second last).
Q18: Ans. (e)
Clearly, none of the given input gives the desired output at Step 2 on rearrangement.
Q19: Ans. (b)
Input: every and peer to an for
Step 1: an every and peer to for
Step 2: an and every peer to for
Step 3: an and every for peer to
Q20: Ans. (e)
Input: Over Go Forum the at once
Step 1: at Over Go Forum the once
Step 2: at Forum Over Go the once
Step 3: at Forum Go Over the once
Step 4: at Forum Go once Over the
Since, all the words in the given input have been arranged alphabetically in Step 4, so it is the
last step.
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SYLLOGISM
Introduction: In this unit we will study some useful concepts of Syllogism and questions which
are generally asked in the SBI PO Exams. After analyzing previous year papers, it is clear that in
the exam you can get 5 to 7 questions from Syllogism.
Syllogism: The literal meaning of syllogism is ‘Conclusion’ or ‘inference’. The questions in the
syllogism are in the form of statements (premises) followed by Conclusion (proposition) and the
students are asked to find the correct conclusion on the basis of the statements.
The general form of statements and conclusions in the syllogism is;
- All as are Bs.
- Some As are Bs.
- No A is a B.
The graphical representation of the statements
1. All As are Bs.

2. Some As are Bs.

3. No A is a B.

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Practice Examples
Direction (Q. 1 – 10): In each questions below there are two/three statements followed by two
conclusions I and II. Assuming both the statements true, you have to decide which of the two
conclusions logically follows the statements. Give your answer
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
1. Statements: Some pens are pencils.
Some pencils are books.
Conclusions: I. some pens are books.
II. All books are pens.
2. Statements: All bottles are bags.
All bags are buses.
Conclusions: I. Some bags are bottles.
II. All bags are bottles.
3. Statements: All pens are pencils.
No pencil is a book.
Conclusions: I. Some books are pens.
II. Some pencils are pens.
4. Statements: Some cups are plates.
No plates are bottle.
Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups
II. No bottle is a cup.
5. Statements: All cups are plates.
All Plates are bottles.
Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
6. Statements: No plane is a river.
No river is a mountain.
Conclusions: I. Some mountains are planes.
II. No mountain is a plane.
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7. Statements: No plane is a river.
All rivers are mountains.
All planes are cities.
Conclusions: I. No plane is a mountain.
II. Some rivers are cities.
8. Statements: Some planes are rivers.
Some rivers are mountains.
Some mountains are cities.
Conclusions: I. Some planes are mountains.
II. Some rivers are cities.
9. Statements: All planes are rivers.
All rivers are mountains.
No mountain is a city.
Conclusions: I. Some cities are rivers.
II. Some mountains are planes.
10. Statements: Some planes are rivers.
Some rivers are mountains.
No mountain is a city.
Conclusions: I. Some cities are planes.
II. No city is a plane.
11. Statement: Some planes are rivers.
No river is a mountain.
No mountain is a city.
Conclusion: I. Some cities are rivers.
II. No city is a river.
Answers:-
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (e)
6. (c)
7. (d)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (c)
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Answer Hints:-
1. The diagram;

2. The diagram;

3. The diagram;

4. The diagram;

6. The diagram;
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7. The diagram can be;

10. The diagram;

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DATA SUFFICIENCY
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam you can get 5 to 7 questions from data sufficiency test. In this
type of questions the candidates are required to find out whether a questions can be answered
or not with the help of the given data.
Here, we will practice few questions of Data Sufficiency Test
Practice Questions
Directions: Each question is followed by two statements 'I' and 'II'. Mark your answer as
(a) If the question can be answered with the help of statement 'I' alone.
(b) If the question can be answered with the help of statement `II' alone.
(c) If the question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not
with the help of either statement alone.
(d) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken
together or separately.
(e) If the question can be answered with the help of either the statement ‘I’ or the
statement ‘II’.
1. How far is town A from town B? Town C is 15 km west of town A.
I. It is 10 km from town B to town C.
II. There is a canal between town A and town B.
2. Adi had an average score of 85 in three tests. What was the Adi's lowest score?
I. Adi's highest score was 95.
II. The average of Adi's two highest scores was 92.
3. A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs. 100. How much profit did he earn?
I. 20% profit would have been earned if it were sold for Rs.90.
II. The profit was one-third of the purchase price.
4. What is Suman’s age today?
I. Today, Suman’s age is five times her son’s present age.
II. Two years hence, Suman’s age will be three times her daughter’s age at that time.
5. Which is costlier – a cup of sweetened corn or a bottle of beer?
I. Sweetened corns are sold at 4 cups for a Rs. 100.
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II. Two bottles of beer can be exchanged for 4 cups of corn.
6. Esha opened a savings account that gives simple annual interest by depositing Rs. 750.
What was the annual rate of interest?
I. The bank does not charge for service and she made no transactions for the first 3
years.
II. Three years later her savings were Rs. 999
7. A city doubles its population every 5 years. How long will it take to increase its population
by 3,600 from its present size?
I. In 1972 the population was 475.
II. The present population is 900.
8. How many students appeared for the examination?
I. Only 50% of students passed the examination.
II. If 10 more students passed, the pass percentage would have been 51%.
9. The ratio of milk to water in a mixture is 5 : 1. How many litres of water should be added to
make the ratio 5 : 3?
I. The amount of water to be added is one third of the original mixture.
II. The ratio of half the amount of milk to the amount of water in the original mixture is
5 : 2.
10. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. It takes 2 hours to travel from A to B downstream.
II. It takes 4 hours to travel B to A upstream.
11. Sandhya’s house is 40km away from Delhi. How long does the round trip from home to
delhi and back?
I. Sandhya travelled at a uniform rate of 30km/hr for the whole trip.
II. If Sandhya travelled 10km/hr faster, then it would have taken her three fourths of
the time for the whole trip.
Answers:-
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (d)
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5. (b)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (c)
9. (d)
10. (d)
11. (c)
Answer Explanations
1. Ans.
Given:

From the first statement, we realise that the distance between town B and town C is 10km;
but the direction is not known.



From second statement nothing is known about the direction.
B
10 km
A C 15 km
A
C 15 km
10 km B
10
km
A
C 15
km
B
A C 15
km
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Thus the question cannot be answered using the given statements. Option (d)
2. Ans.
Let the lowest score be , the highest be , and the middle one be
Then,


Statement I:

Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:


Also,
Thus,
Thus Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Option (b)
3. Ans.
S.P. = Rs. 100.
Statement I:
When S.P. = Rs. 90, Gain = 20%.
C.P. = Rs.
100
90
120
| |
×
|
\ .
= Rs. 75.
Now, (C.P. = Rs. 75 and S.P. = Rs. 100)
¬
Profit = Rs. 25.
Thus, statement I alone gives the answer.
Statement II:
Let the C.P. be Rs. x. Then, gain = Rs.
3
x
.
S.P. = Rs.
3
x
x
| |
+
|
\ .
= Rs.
4
3
x
.
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Thus,
4
3
x
= 100 ¬
3 100
4
x
× | |
=
|
\ .
= 75 ; so C.P. = Rs. 75.
Thus, statement II alone also gives the answer. Option (c)
4. Ans.
Statement I:
Today,
Suman’s age = 5 × (Her son’s age).
Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
Two years hence,
Suman’s age = 3 x (her daughter’s age)
Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Clearly, data even in I and II is not sufficient to get Suman’s present age.
Option (d)
5. Ans.
Statement I:
A cup of corn costs Rs. 100/4 = Rs. 25.
The rate of a bottle of beer is unknown so comparison cannot be made.
Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
2 x (bottle of beer) = 4 x (Cup of corn)
Bottle of beer = 2 x (Cup of corn)
Thus a bottle of beer is costlier than a cup of corn.
Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
Option (b)
6. Ans.
Statement I:
Statement I indicates that the amount deposited initially remained unchanged for 3 years. It
does not talk about anything else.
Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
It indicates the amount accumulated at the end of 3 years.
Here we are not sure if any transaction was made during the three years or not.
Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
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Clearly, data in I and II is sufficient to answer the question as shown below:
Total interest in three years = 999-750 = 249
Interest per year = 249/3 = 83
Annual Rate of interest = 83/750 = 11.06%
(It should be noted here that the actual rate need not be calculated to answer this question)
Option (c)
7. Ans.
Statement I:
Statement I is of no use since present year/population is not mentioned.
Thus statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
Present population is 900
Population after 5 years = 1800
Population after 10 years = 3600
Thus, the answer is 10 years.
Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Option (b)
8. Ans.
Let the total number of students that appeared in the examination be x.
Statement I:
No of passed students = 50% of x = 0.5x
Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
Let the passed number of students be p.
P + 10 = 51% of x
Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement I and II together:
0.5x + 10 = 0.51x
0.01x = 10
X = 1000
Option (c)
9. Ans.
Since the volume is not given in any of the statements, the question cannot be solved using
both the information together.
Option (d)
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10. Ans.
Let the distance between A and B be D km and the speed of the boat and current in still
water be x km/hr and y km/hr, respectively.
Statement I:
D = (x–y) 2
Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
D = (x–y) 4
Thus statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement I and II together:
Even if we combine both statements, we cannot find out the answer, because we have two
equations and three variables.
Option (d)
11. Ans.
Let the speed of Sandhya be x km/hr.
Time for round trip = 80/x
Statement I:
x = 30km/hr
Time = 80/30 hrs.
Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
Statement II:
If speed = x + 10
Then, time = ¾ of 80/x = 60/x
Also, distance = 40km
i.e. (x + 10) (60/x) = 40
From this equation x can be found out, and so can be time.
Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Option (c)
CODING-DECODING
Introduction: In this unit, we will study about the different types of coding-decoding problems.
In the SBI PO Exam this chapter consists of 5 to 7 questions. So this unit needs good practice so
that the students can be familiar with each and every type of questions which can be asked.
Coding: Coding is a process by which certain information is written into another form of
information on the basis of certain principles.
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Decoding: Decoding is use to infer the right information from the coded information.
For Example, In a certain code language, BOOK is written as 2151511. In the same language
how PEN be written?
Answer: - In the above example the letters of BOOK is coded on the basis of their position in
the English alphabet. The letters B=2, O = 15, K = 11. In the same way we can encode PEN as
16514.
Practice Examples
1. If in a certain language, PAPER is written as OZODQ. Which word would be written as
RZKD?
(a) SEAL
(b) SALE
(c) SELL
(d) SKIP
(e) None of these
2. If in a certain language, MANIPULATION is written as NOITALUPINAM. Which word would
be written as ERUTCURTS?
(a) STRUCTURE
(b) FRACTURE
(c) MANUFECTURE
(d) LECTURE
(e) None of these
3. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is written as SSHBMHKF. In the same language,
COUNTRY is written as:
(a) BPVOSSX
(b) DNVMUQZ
(c) BPTOSSX
(d) DNVNVQ
(e) None of these
4. In a certain language, TRY is coded as ABC and SHAPE is coded as DEFGH. How can THREE
be coded in the same language?
(a) ABEHH
(b) BAEFH
(c) AECHF
(d) AEBHH
(e) None of these
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5. In a certain code language, ANGLE is coded as IJKMN and STRIKE is coded as OPQRSN. How
can TRIANGLE be coded in the same language?
(a) PQRQJJMN
(b) PQMNROJJ
(c) POMNROJJ
(d) PQRIJKMN
(e) None of these
6. In a certain code language, BRAIN is coded as ZYXWV and CREATE is coded as UYTXST. How
can CERTAIN be written in the same language?
(a) UTYSXWV
(b) UTYSVWX
(c) UTYSXVW
(d) UTYVWXS
(e) None of these
7. If in a certain code language, TEACHER is coded as klmnolp. How can EARTH be coded in
the same language?
(a) lmpok
(b) lmpko
(c) lmkop
(d) lmokp
(e) None of these
8. If OUGHT is coded as ABCDE in a certain language. How can TOUGH be coded in the same
language?
(a) ABCDE
(b) BCDEA
(c) CDEAB
(d) EABCD
(e) None of these
9. If BITER is coded as KLMNO in a certain language. How can TRIBE be coded in the same
language?
(a) MOLNK
(b) MOLKN
(c) MOKLN
(d) MOKNL
(e) None of these
10. If GROWN is coded as ABCDE in a certain code language. How can WRONG be coded in
the same language?
(a) DBACE
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(b) DBAEC
(c) DBCAE
(d) DBCEA
(e) None of these
11. If F = 6, CAT = 24, then WORD =?
(a) 59
(b) 60
(c) 61
(d) 62
(e) None of these
12. If DOG is coded as 4157, then how would BLUE be coded?
(a) 212215
(b) 213215
(c) 212125
(d) 212521
(e) None of these
13. If EDUCATION is coded as 2F5D1V34P, then how can EQUAL be coded?
(a) 2R15M
(b) 2RM15
(c) 2R51M
(d) 2R5M1
(e) None of these
14. If N = 16, FAN = 27, then FRANCE =?
(a) 56
(b) 57
(c) 58
(d) 59
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (d)
6. (a)
7. (b)
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8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (d)
11. (b)
12. (a)
13. (c)
14. (d)
Answer Hints:-
1. (b) The every letters has been decreased by one in the code according to the English
alphabet.
2. (a) The letters are written in the reversed order.
3. (c) In the code, the letters at odd places is decreased by one and the letters at even places
is increased by one according to the English alphabet.
4. (d) Here, the code for T = A, R = B, Y = C, S = D, H = E, A = F, P = G, and E = H. therefore the
code for THREE is AEBHH.
5. (d) Here, the code for A = I, N = J, G = K, L = M, E = N, S = O, T = P, R = Q, I = R and K = S.
Therefore the code for TRIANGLE is PQRIJKMN.
6. (a) Here, the code for B = Z, R = Y, A = X, I = W, N = V, C = U and T = S. Therefore the code for
CERTAIN is UTYSXWV.
7. (b) Here, the code for T = k, E = l, A = m, C = n, H = o and R = p. Therefore the code for
EARTH is lmpko.
11. (b) Here, F = 6, CAT = 3 + 1 + 20 = 24. Therefore, WORD = 23 + 15 + 18 + 4 = 60.
14. (d) Here, N =(14 + 2), FAN = (6 + 2) +(1 + 2) + (14 + 2),
Therefore, FRANCE = (6 + 2) + (18 + 2) + (1 + 2) + (14 + 2) + (3 + 2) + (5 + 2) = 59.
CODED RELATIONS
Introduction: In this unit we will study about the questions of coded relation. In the SBI PO
Exam, there can be 5 questions from this section. With practice the candidates can solve all the
five questions from this section very easily.
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Solving the questions from Coded-Relation involves these steps
- Convert the coded relation value in the mathematical relations. Generally these relations
are;
‘<’
‘≤’
‘>’
‘≥’
‘=’
- Place the mathematical relation in the statement of each statement and conclusion.
- And answer the conclusion which follows the respective statement.
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 10): in the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, © and % are used with
different meanings as follows:
- P @ Q means “P is not smaller than Q”.
- P # Q means “P is not greater than Q”.
- P $ Q means “P is neither greater than nor equal to Q”.
- P © Q means “P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q”.
- P % Q means “P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q”.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of
the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer
(a) If only conclusion I is true.
(b) If only conclusion II is true.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) If conclusions I and II both are true.
1. Statement: A @ B, B © C, C % D
Conclusions: I. A @ D
II. D % B
2. Statement: A # B, B © C, C @ D
Conclusions: I. A @ C
II. B © C
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3. Statement: A @ B, B @ C, C @ D
Conclusions: I. D # B
II. C % A
4. Statement: A @ B, B © C, C # D
Conclusions: I. A © C
II. B % D
5. Statement: A © B, B % C, C $ D
Conclusions: I. A © C
II. B $ D
6. Statement: A @ B, B @ C, C # D
Conclusions: I. A © C
II. A % C
7. Statement: A $ B, B # C, C % D
Conclusions: I. D % B
II. A # C
8. Statements: A $ B, B @ C, C # D
Conclusions: I. C © A
II. B % D
9. Statement: A # B, B $ C, C @ D
Conclusions: I. B % D
II. C © A
10. Statement: A $ B, B # C, C $ D
Conclusions: I. C © A
II. B $ D
Answer :
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (a)
5. (e)
6. (c)
7. (d)
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8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (e)

Answer Hints:
1. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B > C = D.
2. (b) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≤ B > C ≥ D.
3. (a) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B ≥ C ≥ D.
4. (a) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B > C ≤ D.
5. (e) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A > B = C < D.
6. (c) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≥ B ≥ C ≤ D.
7. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≤ C = D.
8. (d) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≥ C ≤ D.
9. (b) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A ≤ B < C ≥ D.
10. (e) The coded relation of A, B, C and D in the statement is; A < B ≤ C < D.
DIGITS/SYMBOLS & CODES
Introduction: When you will go through the questions of previous exams conducted by State
Bank of India you will find that the examining authorities have asked five questions from
Digits/Symbols & Codes.
These questions are relatively easy and require less time to be solved but at the same time
these questions require very good concentration otherwise you can mark a wrong answer
because the answer options are very close to the right answer.
Here, we will do few exercise of solving these questions.
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 10): In each question below, a group of digits/symbols is given followed by
four combinations of letters options (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the
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combination is the correct code on the following coding system and the conditions that follow.
If none of the four correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (e), i.e. “None of
these” as the answer.
Digits/Symbols 7 9 5 # 4 & 3 * 1 8 $ 2 0 @ 6 %
Letter Codes K L O P W R T E X M N B Z Y S D
Conditions:
i. If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol both these are
to be coded as the code for the symbol.
ii. If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is even digit, there codes are
to be interchanged.
iii. If both the first and the last units are symbols both these are to be coded as ‘A’.
1. 53&8%
(a) OTRDM
(b) OTRMD
(c) DTRMO
(d) DTROM
(e) None of these
2. 84#7*
(a) MWPKE
(b) MWPEK
(c) EWPKM
(d) EWPKE
(e) None of these
3. #560&
(a) POSZR
(b) ROSZP
(c) AOSZA
(d) AOSZR
(e) None of these
4. 2@9%3
(a) BYLDT
(b) TYLDB
(c) AYLDA
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(d) TYLDT
(e) None of these
5. 1$7&8
(a) XNKRM
(b) ANKRA
(c) MNKRM
(d) XNKRX
(e) None of these
6. 9#*%5
(a) LPEDO
(b) OPEDO
(c) OPEDL
(d) APEDA
(e) None of these
7. &4%58
(a) MWDOM
(b) RWDOM
(c) AWDOM
(d) AWDOA
(e) None of these
8. 7#2$6
(a) KPBNS
(b) SPBNS
(c) SPBNK
(d) APBNA
(e) None of these
9. 4#78*
(a) WPKME
(b) EPKMW
(c) EPKWM
(d) APKWA
(e) None of these
10. 2%0@6
(a) SDZYB
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(b) SDZYS
(c) ADZYA
(d) BDZYS
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (e)
6. (a)
7. (b)
8. (c)
9. (e)
10. (d)

STRENGHTENING AND WEAKENING ARGUMENTS
Introduction: In the State Bank of India Probationary Exam you can find questions which will be
dealing with statements and arguments which can be strengthening or weakening in their
nature. The numbers of questions of these types are generally 5.
Here, we will practice few questions which are very similar to the questions which can be asked
in the exam.
Practice questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 20): Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. Give answer as
(a) If only argument I is strong;
(b) If only argument II is strong;
(c) If either I or II is strong;
(d) If neither I nor II is strong and
(e) If both I and II are strong.
1. Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They depict a culture which adversely affects the Indian value system.
II. No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard.
2. Statement: Should the government jobs be offered only to the wards of government
employees?
Arguments:
I. No. It denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and government may lose in the
long run.
II. No. It is against the principle of equality of all.
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3. Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They will help in industrial development of the country.
II. Yes. They will reduce the burden on employment market.
4. Statement: Should the sex determination test during pregnancy be completely banned
Arguments:
I. Yes. This leads to indiscriminate female foeticide.
II. No. People have a right to know about their unborn child.
5. Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So, why
offer extra incentives!
6. Statement: Should there be only one rate of interest for term deposits of varying durations
in banks?
Arguments:
I. No. People will refrain from keeping money for longer duration resulting into reduction
of liquidity level of banks.
II. Yes. This will be much simple for the common people and they may be encouraged to
keep more money in banks.
7. Statement: Should government stop spending money on international sports?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This money can be utilized for upliftment of the poor.
II. No. Sports persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure.
8. Statement: Should officers accepting bribe be punished?
Arguments:
I. No. Certain circumstances may have compelled them to take bribe.
II. Yes. They should honestly do their duty.
9. Statement: Should India become a permanent member of UN's Security Council?
Arguments:
I. Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and amity.
II. No. Let us first solve problems of our own people like poverty, malnutrition and then
think of other nations.
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10. Statement: Should income tax be abolished in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is an unnecessary burden on the wage earners.
II. No. It is a good source of revenue for the government.
11. Statement: Should fashionable dresses be banned?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Fashions keep changing and hence consumption of cloth increases.
II. No. Fashionable clothes are a person's self expression and therefore his/her
fundamental right.
12. Statement: Should cottage industries be encouraged in rural areas?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Rural people are creative.
II. Yes. This would help to solve the problem of unemployment to some extent.
13. Statement: Should a health warning essentially appear on cigarette packs?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is a sort of brainwash to make the smokers realize that they are inhaling
poisonous stuff.
II. No. It hampers the enjoyment of smoking.
14. Statement: Is paying ransom or agreeing to the conditions of kidnappers of political figures,
a proper course of action?
Arguments:
I. Yes. The victims must be saved at all cost.
II. No. It encourages the kidnappers to continue their sinister activities.
15. Statement: Should the vehicles that have been running for more than 15 years be rejected
in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This is a significant step to lower down the pollution level.
II. No. It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts of world because
they will not get suitable job for their very I existence.
16. Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during
their old age?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.
II. Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.
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17. Statement: Should India support all the international policies of United States of America?
Arguments:
I. No. Many other powerful countries do not support the same.
II. Yes. This is the only way to gain access to USA developmental funds.
18. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western, countries be first
tried out on sample basis before giving license for sale to general public in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and
hence it is necessary.
II. No. This is not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.
19. Statement: Should so much money be spent on advertisements?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is essential in a capitalist economy.
II. No. It leads to wastage of resources.
20. Statement: Should jobs be linked with academic degrees and diplomas?
Arguments:
I. No. A very large number of persons with average academic qualifications will apply.
II. No. Importance of higher education will be diminished.
Answers:-
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (a)
6. (a)
7. (b)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (e)
15. (a)
16. (d)
17. (d)
18. (a)
19. (a)
20. (b)
Answer Explanation:
1. Ans. (d) clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more.
So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in
contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold.
2. Ans. (e) Merit, fair selection and equal opportunities for all - these three factors, if taken
care of, can help government recruit competent officials and also fulfill the objectives of the
Constitution. Thus, both the arguments hold strong.
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3. Ans. (e) clearly, encouraging the young entrepreneurs will open up the field for the
establishment of new industries. Thus, it shall help in industrial development and not only
employ the entrepreneurs but create more job opportunities for others as well. So, both the
arguments hold strong.
4. Ans. (a) Parents indulging in sex determination of their unborn child generally do so as they
want to keep only a boy child and do away with a girl child. So, argument I hold. Also,
people have a right, to know only about the health, development and general well-being of
the child before its birth, and not the sex. So, argument II does not hold strong.
5. Ans. (a) clearly, government jobs in rural areas are underlined with several difficulties. In
lieu of these, extra incentives are needed. So, only argument I holds strong.
6. Ans. (a) clearly, the proposed scheme would discourage people from keeping deposits for
longer durations (the rate of interest being the same for short durations) and not draw in
more funds. So, only argument I holds.
7. Ans. (b) clearly, spending money on sports cannot be avoided merely because it can be
spent on socio-economic problems. So, argument I does not hold. Also, if the expenses on
sports are curtailed, the sports persons would face lack of facilities and training and our
country will lag behind in the international sports competitions. So, II holds.
8. Ans. (b) clearly, officers are paid duly for the jobs they do. So, they must do it honestly.
Thus, argument II alone holds.
9. Ans. (a) a peace-loving nation like India can well join an international forum which seeks to
bring different nations on friendly terms with each other. So, argument I holds strong.
Argument II highlights a different aspect. The internal problems\of a nation should not
debar it from strengthening international ties. So, argument II is vague.
10. Ans. (b) Income -tax is levied so that every citizen can contribute a share of his earning
towards the infrastructural development of the nation. So, argument I seems to be vague.
However, income-tax is no doubt a good source of revenue for the government. Hence,
argument II holds strong.
11. Ans. (b) clearly, imposing ban on fashionable dresses will be a restriction on the personal
choice and hence the right to freedom of an individual. So, only argument II is strong.
12. Ans. (b) clearly, cottage industries need to be promoted to create more job opportunities
for rural people in the villages themselves. The reason that rural people are creative is
vague. So, only argument Il holds.
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13. Ans. (a) clearly, such words on cigarette packs would warn the smokers beforehand of its
adverse effects. So, argument I holds strong. However, smoking is a bad habit with' long-
term health hazards and is no means of enjoyment. So, argument II is vague.
14. Ans. (e) both the arguments are strong enough. The conditions have to be agreed to, in
order to save the life of the victims, though actually they ought not to be agreed to, as they
encourage the sinister activities of the kidnappers.
15. Ans. (a) clearly, 15 year old vehicles are not Euro-compliant and hence cause much more
pollution than the recent ones. So, argument I holds. Argument II is vague since owners of
these vehicles need not shift themselves. They might sell off their vehicles and buy new
ones — a small price which every citizen can afford for a healthy environment.
16. Ans. (d) Taking care of the parents is a moral duty of the children and cannot be thrust upon
them legally, nor can such a compulsion ensure good care of the old people. So, none of the
arguments holds strong.
17. Ans. (d) our country cannot support USA's policies blindly without analysis, just to gain
monetary help. Also, we should not withdraw our support without considering the policies,
just because some other nations have done so. So, none of the arguments holds strong.
18. Ans. (a) clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a
product like drugs must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving
license for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong.
19. Ans. (a) clearly, the advertisements are the means to introduce people with the product
and its advantages. So, argument I holds strong. But argument II is vague because
advertisements are an investment for better gain and not wastage.
20. Ans. (b) clearly, delinking jobs with degrees will diminish the need for higher education as
many of them pursue such education for jobs. So, only argument II is strong.
COURSES OF ACTION
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, the questions on Courses of Action are asked to judge the
Applicable knowledge of a candidate. These questions are related to decision making situations
in which you have to suggest the most suitable and correct action which will be required in a
given situation.
Here, we will practice few questions from the topic.
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Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 to 20): In each question below given is a statement followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II. Assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the
information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically
follow.
Mark your answer as:
(a) if only I follows;
(b) if only II follows,
(c) if either I or II follows;
(d) if neither I nor II follows and
(e) if both I and II follow.
1. Most of the development plans in the country develop in papers only.
I. The in-charges should be instructed to supervise the field-work regularly.
II. The supply of, paper to such departments should be cut short.
2. The Central Bureau of Investigation receives the complaint of an officer taking bribe to do
the duty he is supposed to.
I. CBI should try to catch the officer red-handed and then take a strict action against him.
II. CBI should wait for some more complaints about the officer to be sure about the
matter.
3. Due to substantial reduction in fares by different airline services, large numbers of
passengers so far travelling by upper classes in trains have switched over to airline services.
I. The railways should immediately reduce the fare structure of the upper classes
substantially to retain its passengers.
II. The railways should reduce the capacity of upper classes in all the trains to avoid loss.
4. The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the
demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.
I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import
duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality.
II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits so that the demand for indigenous
fruits would be increased.
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5. A large number of engineering graduates in the country are not in a position to have gainful
employment at present and the number of such engineers is likely to grow in the future.
I. The government should launch attractive employment generation schemes and
encourage these graduates to opt for such schemes to use their expertise and
knowledge effectively.
II. This happened due to proliferation of engineering colleges in the country and thereby
lowered the quality of the engineering graduates. Those colleges which are not
equipped to impart quality education should be closed down.
6. A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal
malaria type.
I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive
fumigation in ward X.
II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
7. There have been many instances of derailment of trains due to landslide in the hilly areas
which caused loss of many lives.
I. The railway authority should arrange to deploy pilot engines before the movement of
passenger trains in the hilly areas to alert the trains in case of any landslide.
II. The railway authority should strengthen the hill slopes by putting iron meshes so that
the loose boulders do not fall on the track.
8. Footpaths of a busy road are crowded with vendors selling cheap items.
I. The help of police should be sought to drive them away.
II. Some space should be provided to them where they can earn their bread without
blocking footpaths.
9. It is necessary to adopt suitable measures to prevent repetition of bad debts by learning
from the past experiences of mounting non- performing assets of banks.
I. Before granting loan to customers their eligibility for loan should be evaluated strictly.
II. To ensure the payment of installments of loan, the work, for which loan was granted,
should be supervised minutely on regular basis.
10. The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the
company.
I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
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II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.
11. Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of
India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at
international rates from January this year.
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.
12. The police department has come under a cloud with recent revelations that at least two
senior police officials are suspected to have been involved in the illegal sale of a large
quantity of weapons from the state police armory.
I. A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to bring out all
those who are involved into the illegal sale of arms.
II. State police armoury should be kept under Central Government's control.
13. Every year large number of devotees die due to severe cold on their way to the shrine
located at the top of the mountain range.
I. The devotees should be discouraged to visit the shrine without having proper warm
clothes and other amenities.
II. The government should provide warm clothes and shelter to all the devotees visiting the
shrine.
14. It is reported that though Vitamin E present in fresh fruits and vegetables is beneficial for
human body, capsuled Vitamin E does not have the same effect on human body.
I. The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be banned.
II. People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and vegetables to meet the body's
requirement of Vitamin E.
15. A large number of people visiting India from country X have been tested positive for
carrying viruses of a killer disease.
I. The government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to
India from country X including those Indians who are settled in country X.
II. The government of India should immediately set up detection centres at all its airports
and seaports to identify and quarantine those who are tested positive.
16. The Minister said that the teachers are still not familiarized with the need, importance and
meaning of population education in the higher education system. They are not even clearly
aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education program.
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I. Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.
II. Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education.
17. Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in the office with his rude
behavior.
I. He should be transferred to some other department.
II. The matter should be referred to the Union.
18. As stated in the recent census report the female to male ratio is alarmingly low.
I. The government should conduct another census to verify the results.
II. The government should immediately issue orders to all the departments to encourage
people to improve the ratio.
19. There has been large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating
panic among the internet users.
I. The government machinery should make an all out effort to nab those who are
responsible and put them behind bars.
II. The internet users should be advised to stay away from using internet till the culprits are
caught.
20. Some serious blunders were detected in the Accounts section of a factory.
I. An efficient team of auditors should be appointed to check the Accounts.
II. A show cause notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularity.
Answers:-
1. (a)
2. (a)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5. (b)
6. (e)
7. (c)
8. (e)
9. (e)
10. (a)
11. (d)
12. (a)
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (b)
16. (b)
17. (d)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (e)
Answer Explanations:
1. Ans. (a) clearly, proper supervision alone can see the development in practice. So, only
course I follows.
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2. Ans. (a) clearly, one complaint is enough for a wrong doing. This should be confirmed by
catching the guilty red-handed and then strict action taken against him. So, only course I
follows.
3. Ans. (a) Airlines, being convenient and faster means of transport, people would surely
prefer it to the railways if there is a marginal difference between the fares. Hence, a
considerable gap between the two fares is a must for the railways. So, course I follows.
Following course II would reduce the volume of passengers. Hence, II does not follow.
4. Ans. (d) the ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The
correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous
producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at
prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.
5. Ans. (b) the emphasis should be not on the Government putting all the engineering
graduates to jobs but on the colleges producing not 'degree-holders' but real technical
minds which could compete well for gainful employment. So, only course II follows.
6. Ans. (e) clearly, prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are two ways to
prevent malaria. So, both the courses follow.
7. Ans. (c) clearly, either something should be done to alert the trains well in advance in case
of a landslide or some means should be adopted to prevent blockage of tracks during
landslides. Thus, either I or II follows.
8. Ans. (e) crowding on footpaths is a great inconvenience for walkers. So, stern action needs
to be taken to remove the vendors. But at the same time these people ought to be provided
alternative means of livelihood. So, both the courses follow.
9. Ans. (e) to ensure that debts taken are repaid promptly, the customers' requirements and
future prospects ought to be studied and their work constantly checked. Thus, both the
courses follow.
10. Ans. (a) clearly, a study of rival products in the market will help assess the cause for the
lowering down of sales and then a suitable action can be taken. Thus, only I follows.
11. Ans. (d) the statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the
RBI. The remedy is only to make the banks implement the Act. So, none of the courses
follows.
12. Ans. (a) clearly, the situation demands finding out the real culprits first. So, only I follows.
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13. Ans. (a) clearly, the problem can be solved by warning the devotees of the excessive cold at
the shrine. So, only I follow.
14. Ans. (b) the statement implies that capsule Vitamin E does not function so effectively as
natural Vitamin E. Since no negative effect of capsule Vitamin E is mentioned, so I does not
follow. Hence, only II follows.
15. Ans. (b) clearly, the non-infected persons should not be debarred from visiting India. So,
only course II follows.
16. Ans. (b) clearly, the statement stresses on teachers' lack of awareness and knowledge in
population education and as such the best remedy would be to guide them in this field
through orientation programs. So, only course II follows.
17. Ans. (d) clearly, the only remedy is to somehow attempt to change the habit. If transferred,
the habit will create problem elsewhere. Also, it is no legal complaint to be referred to the
Union. So, neither of the courses follow.
18. Ans. (b) a census is always conducted with the utmost precision, leaving chances of only
negligible differences. So, I does not follow. Further, the ratio can be improved by creating
awareness among the masses and abolishing female foeticide. Thus, only course II follows.
19. Ans. (a) clearly, internet users should not suffer on account of certain individuals who
indulge in internet hacking. However, such wrong-doers ought to be penalised so that there
are no hassles in the use of internet. So, only course I follows.
20. Ans. (e) clearly, the situation demands that the faults in Accounts be properly worked out
and the persons involved be interrogated about the matter. So, both the courses follow.
CAUSE AND EFFECT
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions based on the Cause and Effect
relationship and the candidates are asked to identify the relationship. These type of questions
are asked to test the candidate’s analytical skill.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Cause and Effect relationship.
Practice Questions
Directions: Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may
be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements
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and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between
these two statements.
Mark (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
Mark (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
Mark (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
Mark (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Mark (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common causes.
1.
I. Many schools in the district are closed down this year.
II. Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into acute shortage of drinking
water.
2.
I. A ban on the use of plastic products has been imposed.
II. Small scale units producing plastic products are on the verge of closure.
3.
I. Police had launched a crackdown on all the criminal activities in the locality last
month.
II. There has been a significant decline in the cases of criminal activities in the locality.
4.
I. A large number of devotees visited the shrine on Sunday.
II. Every Sunday special prayers are offered.
5.
I. The government has empowered the Village Panchayats to settle cases of land
disputes in the villages.
II. There has been significant reduction in the number of criminal cases in the district
court.
6.
I. The average day temperature of Delhi has increased by about 2°C in the current year
over the average of last 10 years.
II. More people living in rural areas of the state have started migrating to the urban
areas in comparison to earlier years.
7.
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I. Many shopkeepers have closed their shops for the second continuous day.
II. Two groups of people have been fighting with each other with bricks and stones and
forcing people to stay indoors.
8.
I. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of LPG gas cylinders with immediate
effect.
II. The govt has decided to increase the price of petrol and diesel with immediate
effect.
9.
I. A cyclone is expected to hit the coastal areas within next 24 hours.
II. Warning has been issued that heavy rains are expected in the coastal areas in the
next 24 hours.
10.
I. A majority of the first year students failed in Mathematics.
II. The management has terminated the service of the contractual mathematics
teacher.
11.
I. Taliban is now trying to capture other areas, after its success in Swat valley.
II. Pakistan government is decided to fight against the Taliban.
12.
I. There was a huge rush of people to the temple on 15
th
and 16
th
of the month.
II. The temple authority had decided to close down the temple for repairs from 17th of
the month.
13.
I. Large number of people living in the low lying areas has been evacuated during the
last few days to safer places.
II. The Government has rushed in relief supplies to the people living in low lying areas.
14.
I. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the
country.
II. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position
to withstand the competitions of the bigger banks in the public sector.
15.
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I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for
the past few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the International market have gone up substantially in the last
few months.
16.
I. The performance of Indian sports persons in the recent Olympics could not reach
the level of expectation the country had on them.
II. The performance of Indian sports person in the last Asian games was far better than
any previous games.
17.
I. The university officers have decided to conduct last examination every year in
March/April in order to announce the result at proper time.
II. In past, the result was declared late by the University due to the lack of number of
examiners.
18.
I. The State Government has announced special tax package for the new industries to
be set-up in the State.
II. Last year the State Government had hiked the taxes for all industrial activities in the
State.
19.
I. The government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to
overseas destinations.
II. The national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations.
20.
I. The Government has imported large quantities of groundnut from other countries.
II. The price of groundnut in the domestic market has fallen sharply.
Answers:-
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (d)
7. (b)
8. (e)
9. (a)
10. (a)
11. (a)
12. (b)
13. (e)
14. (b)
15. (c)
16. (e)
17. (b)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (a)
Answer Explanations:-
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1. Ans. (d) there is no relation between schools and draught and drinking water. Both the
statements are the effects of independent causes.
2. Ans. (a) clearly, statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
3. Ans. (a) clearly, decline in criminal activity is the result of Police activity.
4. Ans. (b) devotees visited shrine on Sunday because special prayers are offered every
Sunday.
5. Ans. (d) there cases of land are civil cases, and village panchayats have been empowered to
settle civil cases; and there is no link between civil and criminal cases. Both statements are
independent effects.
6. Ans. (d) the increase in temp is due to some reason say climate change or pollution but that
has no link to migration of people. They might be migrating because of n number of reasons
poverty, jobs, social issues, disease… So clearly I & II are effects whose causes are
independent.
7. Ans. (b) clearly because of chaos the shopkeeper have been forced to stay indoors and
cannot open shops. So the cause is the conflict and effect is closing of shops.
8. Ans. (e) Govt has decided to raise the price of LPG, Diesel and Petrol also but reason is not
given here but surely the reason will be same because they all belong to same category –
i.e. fuels.
9. Ans. (a) Cyclone is expected to hit the coastal region so warning has been issued that there
might be heavy rains.
10. Ans. (a) since all the students failed, the Management no longer wanted this teacher, so it
terminated its services. Again Because of statement I(cause), statement II was taken into
action (effect).
11. Ans. (a) clearly, Pakistan’s action (Effect) is a result of Taliban’s activity (Cause).
12. Ans. (b) since the temple authority had decided to close down the temple for repairs from
17th of the month, hence, there was a huge rush of people to the temple on 15
th
& 16
th
of
the month.
13. Ans. (e) clearly, both the statements are effects of some common cause.
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14. Ans. (b) as, the small banks in the private and co-operation sector in India are not in a
position to withstand the competitions of the bigger banks in the public sector, therefore,
the Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.
15. Ans. (c) clearly, both are independent causes.
16. Ans. (e) both the statements are effects of some common cause as both are talking of
performance of Indian Sports Persons.
17. Ans. (b) since in the past the result was declared late by university, it has decided to
conduct the examination in March/April in order to announce the result at proper time.
18. Ans. (b) due to hike of taxes last year, the State Government has announced special tax
package the new industries to be set up in the State.
19. Ans. (a) when private airlines will operate overseas, the frequency of national flights to
overseas destinations will increase.
20. Ans. (a) since the Government has imported large quantities of groundnut, its price has
fallen.
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DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
TABLE CHARTS
Introduction: The questions on table charts in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary
Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question
papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 table charts with 10 – 15
questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concept of table chart so that they
can earn good marks in the section.
Table Charts: These are the charts of facts and figures shown in horizontal rows and vertical
columns. A table chart can contain facts and figures related to cities, states, countries, time
periods, individual names, companies and miscellaneous information.
The questions on the basis of the table charts are generally asked to find the relation among
the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of
some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.
Solved Example;
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Numbers (N) of five types of FMCG products sold by six different stores in a month and the
price per product (P) (price in Rs 000) charged by each store.
Store A B C D E
Product N P N P N P N P N P
P 56 125 58 122 60 124 61 128 42 126
Q 73 3.5 43 4.8 55 5.6 59 3.9 57 4.5
R 58 13 57 19 52 13 57 12 64 15
S 52 55 55 52 51 54 54 59 49 57
T 62 75 63 76 58 82 55 88 49 86
1. The number of P type products sold by Store E is what per cent of the number of the same
type of products sold by Store C?
(a) 80
(b) 75
(c) 70
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(d) 125
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) here, type P from Store E is 42 and from Store C is 60. Therefore,
2. What is the ratio of the total number of P and Q type products together sold by Store C and
that of R and T type of products sold by Store B?
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 24 : 23
(d) 23 : 24
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) the type P and Q product from store C are 60 and 55 respectively and the type R
and T from store B are 57 and 63. Therefore, the required ratio is 115 : 120 = 23 : 24.
3. What is the average price charged by all the Stores together for the product T?
(a) Rs. 81,400
(b) Rs. 80,600
(c) Rs. 81,600
(d) Rs. 80,400
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) the total price for product T from all the stores is Rs. 4,07,000. Therefore the
average =
4. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A through sale of P type products and
that earned by Store C through the sale of S type products?
(a) Rs. 4.246 lakhs
(b) Rs. 42.46 lakhs
(c) Rs. 424.6 lakhs
(d) Rs. 0.4246 lakhs
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) the amount earned on P from store A = 56 × (Rs. 1,25,000) = Rs. 70,00,000 and the
amount earned on S from store C = 51 × (Rs. 54,000) = Rs. 27,54,000.
Therefore the difference = Rs. 70,00,000 – Rs. 27,54,000 = Rs. 42,46,000.
5. What is the total amount earned by Store D through the sale of S and T type products
together?
(a) Rs. 8,026 Lakhs
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(b) Rs. 802.6 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 8.026 Lakhs
(d) Rs. 0.8026 Lakhs
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) the amount earned by Store D through the sale of S and T type products is;
54 × (Rs. 59,000) + 55 × (Rs. 88,000) = Rs. 31,86,000 + Rs. 48,40,000 = Rs. 80,26,000.
Practice Questions
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of marks obtained by five students in five different subjects in a school
SUBJECT English Hindi Science Mathematics Social Studies
STUDENT (100) (50) (125) (150) (75)
Abhinav 59 76 92 90 64
Brajesh 78 80 72 70 84
Chandan 75 74 80 86 80
Dhruv 71 76 68 78 68
Eeshita 73 72 88 92 80
Figures in brackets indicate maximum marks for a particular subject.
1. What is the average mark obtained by all the students together in Science?
(a) 92
(b) 98
(c) 100
(d) 102
(e) 105
2. What is Chandan’s overall percentage in the examination?
(a) 80.0
(b) 80.2
(c) 80.4
(d) 80.6
(e) 80.8
3. What is the ratio of the total marks obtained by Chandan in Science to the marks obtained
by Abhinav and Eeshita in Social Science?
(a) 25 : 24
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(b) 24 : 25
(c) 27 : 25
(d) 25 : 27
(e) None of these
4. If in order to pass the exam a minimum of 102 marks is needed in Science, how many
students pass the exam?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Zero
(e) More than three
5. Who got the maximum marks among these five students?
(a) Eeshita
(b) Dhruv
(c) Chandan
(d) Brajesh
(e) Abhinav
Direction (Q. 6 – 10): Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A survey of online shopping habits of city dwellers from 5 cities A, B, C, D and E is given below.
The first column gives the percentage of people who do online purchasing less than two times a
month. The second column gives the total number of people who do online purchasing two or
more times per month.
City I II
A 65% 1,75,000
B 30% 3,85,000
C 86% 1,40,000
D 72% 2,38,000
E 56% 3,30,000
1. How many people in city D do online purchasing loss than times in a month?
(a) 6,04,000
(b) 6,00,000
(c) 6,12,000
(d) 6,55,000
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(e) None of these
2. The city with the lowest number of people who do online shopping less than two times in a
month is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these
3. The highest number of people who purchase online less than two times in a month from
any given city (in the survey) is
(a) 8,60,000
(b) 6,12,000
(c) 4,20,000
(d) 3,25,000
(e) None of these
4. What are the total number of people who purchase online less than two times in a month
from A and B?
(a) 3,25,000
(b) 1,65,000
(c) 8,65,000
(d) 6,12,000
(e) None of these
10. What is the average number of people who purchase online less than two times from all the
five the cities?
(a) 4,75,000
(b) 4,75,300
(c) 4,76,300
(d) 4,76,400
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (c)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (e)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (a)
9. (e)
10. (d)
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BAR GRAPHS
Introduction: The questions on Bar Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary Officers
exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question papers we can
say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Bar Graphs with 10 – 15 questions. It is
advisable to every student to understand the concepts of Bar Graphs so that they can earn
good marks in the section.
Bar Graphs: These graphs are one of the oldest methods to present a data. The bar graphs
consist of bars, each of which is a thick box. The value of the reading the bar is determined by
the height of the bar. The bar graphs are generally presented with different colours, shades,
dots, dashes, etc.
The questions on the basis of the Bar Graphs are generally asked to find the relation among
facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of some
facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.
Solved Example;
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Number of people (in thousands) using three different types of Bank Account P, Q and R over
the years.

1. What is the average number of people using Bank Account R over the six years together?
(a) 18,000
(b) 20,500
(c) 22,000
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(d) 22,500
(e) None of these
Answer:- (d)
2. The total number of people using all the three bank accounts in the year 2008 is
approximately what per cent of the total number of people using all the three bank
accounts in the year 2006?
(a) 180
(b) 175
(c) 154
(d) 150
(e) None of these
Answer:- (c)
3. The number of people using bank account Q in the year 2007 forms approximately what per
cent of the number of people using bank account P in the year 2009?
(a) 55
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 65
(e) None of these
Answer:- (b)
4. What is the ratio of the number of people using bank account R in the year 2006 to the
number of people using bank account P in the year 2009?
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
(e) None of these
Answer:- (e)
5. What is the total number of people using bank account P over the six years together?
(a) 1.19 lakhs
(b) 11.9 lakhs
(c) 119 lakhs
(d) 0.119 lakhs
(e) None of these
Answer:- (a)
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Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Total number of children in 5 different schools and the percentage of boys in them

1. Approximately what percentage of girls is in the schools A and F together?
(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 42
(e) 48
2. What is the total number of girls in School C and E together?
(a) 200
(b) 225
(c) 210
(d) 217
(e) 219
3. The number of girls in school B is what percent of the number of girls in school D?
(a) 45
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 55
(e) 54
4. What is the average number of boys in the schools C and F?
(a) 183
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(b) 180
(c) 182
(d) 192
(e) 186
5. What is the ratio of the number of boys in schools D to the number of boys in school E?
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 6 : 5
(c) 36 : 25
(d) 32 : 29
(e) None of these
Answers-
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (e)
LINE GRAPHS
Introduction: The questions on Line graphs or X – Y Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI)
Probationary Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year
question papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist 2 – 3 Line Graphs with
10 – 15 questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concepts of Line Graphs so
that they can earn good marks in the section.
Line Graphs: These graphs are one of the oldest methods to present a data related to time
series and frequency distribution. This type of representation is widely used by news papers,
televisions, government reports, magazines and research papers.
The Line graphs can be;
- Single dependent Variable Graph
- More than One variable Graph
- Graphs with two Scale (two continuous variable)
- Range Graph
- Band Graph
- Speed time Graph
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The questions on the basis of the Line Graphs are generally asked to find the relation among
the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or percentage of
some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.
Solved Example;
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Per cent profit made by two companies over the years


1. If in the year 2006 the expenditures incurred by company P and Q were same, what was the
ratio of the income of company Q to that of company P in that year?
(a) 26 : 27
(b) 27 : 26
(c) 24 : 25
(d) 25 : 24
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
2. If the amount of profit earned by company Q in the year 2007 was Rs. 2.4 lakhs, what was
its expenditure in that year?
(a) Rs. 13 lakhs
(b) Rs. 15 lakhs
(c) Rs. 24 lakhs
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(d) Rs. 16 lakhs
(e) Rs. 20 lakhs
Answer: (d)
3. What is the average per cent profit earned by company P over all the years together?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 40
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
4. If in the year 2009, the incomes of both the companies P and Q were same, what was the
ratio of the expenditure of company P to the expenditure of company Q in the same year?
(a) 26 : 23
(b) 23 : 26
(c) 24 : 25
(d) 25 : 24
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
5. What is the ratio of the amount of profit earned by company A to that by company B in the
year 2010?
(a) 27 : 24
(b) 24 : 27
(c) 23 : 24
(d) 24 : 23
(e) None of these Cannot be determined
Answer: (e)
Practice Questions
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The line diagram shows the cost of production and profit of six companies for the year 2011-12.
(The figures are in 'Lakhs').
Revenue = Cost of Production + Profit.
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1. The ratio of profits of company B and D to the profits of A and E is:
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 10 : 9
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 10 : 7
(e) None of these
2. The profit of company C is what percentage of the revenue of company F?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
(e) None of these
3. The revenue of company C is how many times of company E's profit?
(a) 5.5
(b) 5.25
(c) 5.75
(d) 5
(e) None of these
4. Which company has the maximum percentage of profit?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
5. What is the average profit of the last five companies (B, C, D, E and F)?
(a) Rs. 500
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(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 50,000
(d) Rs. 4,66,667
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (e)
PIE CHARTS
Introduction: The questions on Pie Chart Graphs in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary
Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question
papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Pie Charts with 10 – 15
questions. It is advisable for every student to understand the concepts of Pie Charts so that
they can earn good marks in the section.
Pie Charts: These charts are specific types of data presentation technique where the data is
represented in the form of a circle. In a Pie Chart, a circle is divided into various sections or
segments such that each sector or segment represents a certain type of data in a certain
percentage, proportion or angle. The total of the angles in a Pie Chart is equal to 360°.
The questions on the basis of the Pie Charts are generally asked to find the relation among the
facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find ratio or percentage of some facts and
figures related to some other facts and figures.
Solved Example;
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given pie-charts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Discipline-wise breakup of the number of candidates appeared in Interview and Discipline-wise
breakup of the candidates selected by and organisation.
Total number of candidates appeared in the interview = 6,100 and total number of candidates
selected after interview = 2,100.
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1. What was the ratio of the number of candidates appeared in interview from Art discipline
and the number of candidates selected from Science disciplines?
(a) 56 : 55
(b) 61 : 56
(c) 56 : 61
(d) 55 : 56
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
2. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and Others
disciplines was what per cent of the number of candidates from Engineering and Art
disciplines?
(a) 66.67
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(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 133.33
(e) 150
Answer: (a)
3. What was the difference between the number of candidates selected from Art discipline
and the number of candidates selected from others discipline?
(a) 21
(b) 210
(c) 2100
(d) 84
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
4. From which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of
candidates appeared in interview the maximum?
(a) Management
(b) Engineering
(c) Science
(d) Art
(e) Commerce
Answer: (c)
5. What was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Art discipline
together?
(a) 1,000
(b) 840
(c) 1,050
(d) 630
(e) 924
Answer: (e)
Practice Questions
Direction (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given pie-charts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Discipline-wise breakup of the number of candidates appeared in Interview and Discipline-wise
breakup of the candidates selected by and organisation.
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Total number of candidates appeared in the interview = 25,600 and total number of candidates
selected after interview = 7,500.

1. What was the ratio of the number of candidates appeared in interview from other
disciplines and the number of candidates selected from art disciplines?
(a) 256 : 125
(b) 125 : 256
(c) 125 : 216
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
2. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and Art disciplines
was what per cent of the number of candidates from Engineering discipline?
(a) 66.67
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 120
(e) 150
3. What was the difference between the number of candidates selected from Science
discipline and the number of candidates selected from Commerce discipline?
(a) 1,000
(b) 1,100
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(c) 1,200
(d) 1,250
(e) None of these
4. From which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of
candidates appeared in interview the maximum?
(a) Management
(b) Engineering
(c) Commerce
(d) Science
(e) Art
5. What was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Art discipline
together?
(a) 1,800
(b) 1,950
(c) 2,100
(d) 2,250
(e) 2,400
Answers:-
1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
CASE LETS
Introduction: The questions on Case based Data in the State Bank of India (SBI) Probationary
Officers exams have been asked frequently. After the study of the previous year question
papers we can say the data interpretation section will consist of 2 – 3 Cases with 10 – 15
questions. It is advisable to every student to understand the concept of Case base data so that
they can earn good marks in the section.
Case Based Data: These types of data are presented in the competitive exams to test the
candidate’s interest in numbers, for variables and their inter-relationship and ability to convert
the data into a more meaningful form of information.
These things should be kept in mind when you are solving questions of Cases.
- First read and indentify the variables in the data and respective inter-relationship.
- Chart out the data and fill the data in a more meaningful format.
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- And now, try to solve the questions on the Case based data.
The questions on the basis of the case based data are generally asked to find the relation
among the facts and the figures. The question can be asked to find average, ratio or
percentage of some facts and figures related to some other facts and figures.
Solved Example;
Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
An organization consists of 3500 employees working in different departments, viz HR,
Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the
organisation is 3 : 2. 8% of the males work in the HR department. 22% of the female work in the
account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 3 : 5. One-
seventh of the females work in the IT department. 46% of the males work in the Production
department. The number of females is one-sixth of the males working in the same. The
remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working
in the IT department is 375. 22% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining
work in the Account department.
1. The number of males working in the Account department forms approximately what per
cent of the total number of males in the organisation?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 12
Answer: (a)
2. How many females work in Production department?
(a) 140
(b) 200
(c) 180
(d) 160
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
3. The total number of employees working in the Account department forms approximately
what per cent of the total number of female employees in the organisation?
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(a) 28
(b) 32
(c) 29
(d) 31
(e) 30
Answer: (d)
4. The ratio of the numbers of females working in IT department to the numbers of males
working in the same department is
(a) 15 : 8
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 8 : 15
(d) 2 : 1
(e) 7 : 11
Answer: (c)
5. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and Production
departments together?
(a) 1900
(b) 2040
(c) 2020
(d) 2031
(e) 2042
Answer: (b)
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
An organization consists of 3200 employees working in different departments, viz HR,
Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the
organisation is 5 : 3. 12% of the males work in the HR department. 24% of the female work in
the account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11.
One-tenth of the females work in the IT department. 42% of the males work in the Production
department. The number of females 5% of the males working in the same. The remaining
females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT
department is 300. 20% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining work in
the Account department.
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1. The number of males working in the IT department forms what per cent of the total number
of males in the organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15
(e) 18
2. How many males work in Accounts department?
(a) 840
(b) 400
(c) 220
(d) 240
(e) None of these
3. The total number of employees working in the HR department forms what per cent of the
total number of employees in the organisation?
(a) 28
(b) 28.75
(c) 29
(d) 29.75
(e) 30
4. The number of females working in the Production department forms what per cent of the
total number of males in the organisation?
(a) 21
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 3.1
(e) 2.1
5. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and IT departments
together?
(a) 190
(b) 200
(c) 220
(d) 240
(e) 42
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Answers:-
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (a)
PERMUTATIONS
Introduction: In the SBI PO exams the questions based on Permutation havr been asked few
times and from the exam point of view it is very important to understand the basic concepts of
permutation to solve those questions.
Factorial Notation: The product of n consecutive positive integers beginning with one is
denoted by n! And read as factorial n.
∴ n! = 1 × 2 × 3 ×……. × (n – 1) × (n)
For example, 6! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720.
0! = 1! = 1.
Permutation: The number of different arrangements which can be made by taking some or all
of the given things or objects at a time is called as permutation.
The symbol for permutation of n different things taking r at a time =
n
P
r
or
n
P
r
=
For example,
5
P
3
= = .
Here, we will practice few questions to understand more about permutation.
Practice Questions
Directions (Q. 1 – 20): Consider the arrangements of the letters of the word RAINBOW
1. In how many ways can the letters be arranged?
(a) 5040
(b) 4050
(c) 3040
(d) 8040
(e) None of these
2. How many words begin with R?
(a) 720
(b) 360
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(c) 1440
(d) 1080
(e) None of these
3. How many words begin with R and ends with W?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 360
(e) None of these
4. How many words are there in which R and W are at the end positions?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 210
(d) 240
(e) None of these
5. How many words are there in which N and B are together?
(a) 720
(b) 360
(c) 540
(d) 1440
(e) None of these
6. How many words are there in which I and O are never together?
(a) 1440
(b) 720
(c) 3600
(d) 1440
(e) None of these
7. How many words are there in which vowels are never together?
(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 360
(d) 3600
(e) None of these
8. How many words are there in which A is always before I and I is always before O?
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(a) 840
(b) 420
(c) 720
(d) 1080
(e) None of these
9. How many words are there in which vowels are always before the consonants?
(a) 72
(b) 144
(c) 96
(d) 120
(e) None of these
10. How many words are there in which first and last letters are vowels?
(a) 360
(b) 720
(c) 1440
(d) 2880
(e) None of these
11. If all the words formed are arranged in a dictionary form, then what is the position of the
word RAINBOW in that dictionary?
(a) 3136
(b) 3631
(c) 3361
(d) 1363
(e) None of these
12. If no two consonants are together then in how many ways can the letters be arranged?
(a) 441
(b) 420
(c) 360
(d) 144
(e) None of these
13. How many words can be formed so that the vowels may occupy only even positions?
(a) 567
(b) 144
(c) 576
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(d) 625
(e) None of these
14. How many different words can be formed so that the vowels occupy odd places?
(a) 676
(b) 625
(c) 343
(d) 576
(e) None of these
15. In how many ways can the letters be arranged so that only two vowels always remain
together?
(a) 2880
(b) 1440
(c) 3200
(d) 4096
(e) None of these
16. There are 6 books on Physics, 3 on Chemistry and 4 on Biology. In how many ways can these
be placed on a shelf if the books on the same subject are to be together?
(a) 622080
(b) 888000
(c) 222000
(d) 413080
(e) None of these
17. In how many ways can the letters of the word TAMANNA be arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 420
(c) 840
(d) 720
(e) None of these
18. There are 3 red. 4 green and 5 pink marbles in a bag. They are drawn one by one and
arranged in a row. Assuming that all the 12 marbles are drawn determine the number of
different arrangements.
(a) 22770
(b) 27720
(c) 22077
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(d) 27270
(e) None of these
19. How many numbers of 5 digits can be formed with the digits 0, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if the digits
many repeat?
(a) 2500
(b) 250
(c) 120
(d) 2400
(e) None of these
20. How many numbers each lying between 9 and 1000 can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3,
7, 8 (numbers can be repeated)?
(a) 30
(b) 120
(c) 210
(d) 90
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (a)
2. (a)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5. (d)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (a)
9. (b)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (d)
13. (b)
14. (d)
15. (a)
16. (a)
17. (b)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (c)
Answer Explanations:
1. There are 7 letters in the word RAINBOW and each letter is used only once. So all the 7
letters can be arranged in 7! Ways.
7! = 7×6×5×4×3×2×1 = 5040.
2. If we fix R as the initial letter, then we have to arrange only 6 remaining letters.
Hence required number of permutations = 6!
= 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 720
3. If we fix R and W as the first and last letters then we have to arrange only 5 remaining
letters which can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways.
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4. When R and W are the first and last letters of all the words then we can arrange them in 5!
Ways. Similarly when W and R are the first and last letters of the words then the remaining
letters can be arrange in 5! Ways.
Thus the total number of permutations = 2 × 5!
= 2 × 120 = 240
Alternatively: Except to R and W all the remaining 5 letters can be arranged in 5! Ways and
R and W can be arranged in 2! Ways at the end positions.
The total number of permutations = 2! × 5! = 2×120 = 240
5. Assume N and B as a single letter, then we have only 6 letters for the arrangement
i.e., A, I, R, O, W, BN
which can be arranged in 6! Ways.
Now B and N can also be mutually arranged in 2! Ways
Therefore total number of arrangements = 2! × 6!
= 2 × 720 = 1140
6. Number of permutations when I and O are together
= 2! × 6! = 1440
(Very similar to the previous question)
Total number of permutations = 7! = 5040
Number of permutations when I and O are not together
= 5040 – 1440 = 3600
7. There are three vowels viz., A, I and O
First of all arrange all the four consonants which can be done in 4! Ways.
Now we have 5 places available for the three vowels to be filled up, which can be done in
5
P
3
ways.
Thus the total number of arrangements =
5
3
5!
4! 24
2!
P × = ×
=

8. First of all we arrange all the 4 consonants in 4! Ways.
Now we have 5 places for the 3 vowels as 1. C
1
2. C
2
3. C
3
4. C
4
5.
I. When all the three vowels AIO are together then 5 places can be filled in 5 ways.
II. When A and I are together and O is separated from “AI” then the 5 places can be
filled up in 10 ways.
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III. When I and O are together and A is separated from “IO” then the 5 places can be
filled up in 10 ways.
IV. When A, I and O are separated from each other then the 5 places can be filled up in
10 ways.
Thus there are total 5 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 35 ways in which 5 places can be filled up such that A
is before I and I is before O. Hence total number of ways in which all the 7 letters of
RAINBOW can be arranged in which A is before I and I is before O = 4! × 35 = 24 × 35 = 840.
Alternatively: All the 7 letters of the word RAINBOW can be arranged in 7! Ways.
And 3 particular letters (A, I, O) can be arranged in 3! Ways. But the given condition is
satisfied by only 1 cut of 6 ways, hence required number of arrangements.
7!
7 6 5 4 840
3!
= = × × × =
9. Let all the vowels be in a single packet and all the consonants be in the other packet.
Now all the vowels can be arranged in 3! Ways and all the consonants can be arranged in 4!
Ways.
Hence total number of arrangements = 3! × 4! = 6 × 24 = 144
10. The first and last letters can be arranged in
3
P
2
ways and the remaining letters can be
arranged in 5! Ways.
Hence required number of permutations
=
3
P
2
× 5! = 6 × 120 = 720
11. The correct order of the letters is as follows:
A, B, I, N, O, R, W
Number of words begin with A = 6!
Number of words begin with B = 6!
Number of words begin with I = 6!
Number of words begin with N = 6!
Number of words begin with O = 6!
Number of words begin with RAB = 4!
Number of words begin with RAIB = 3!
Now the next word is RAINBOW (it is the first word which begins with RAIN)
So the ranking of the word RAINBOW
= 5 × 6! + 4! + 3! + 1 = 3631
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12. First arrange the 3 vowels which can be done in 3! Ways. Now there are 4 places created by
the 3 vowels which can be filled up by 4 consonants in
4
P
4
ways.
Therefore total number of required permutations
= 3! ×
4
P
4
= 6 × 24 = 144
13. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
In order that vowels may occupy even places arrange all the 3 vowels, then arrange all the
four consonants in four places. Thus the required number of arrangements = 3! × 4! = 144
14. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
First or all arrange any 3 consonants at even places in 4P3 ways. Now the newly created
four odd places can be filled by the remaining letters which includes 3 vowels and 1
consonants, which can be done in
4
P
4
ways. Hence the required number of permutation
=
4
P
3
×
4
P
4
= 24 × 24 = 576
15. First of all arrange all the four consonants R, N, B, W in 4! Ways.
Then there are 5 places to be filled up by the vowels. But any two vowels are always
together then we assume that there are only two vowels which can be filled in 5 places in
5
P
2
ways. But we have to take any two vowels together out of 4 vowels then this can be
done in
3
P
2
ways.
Hence the total number of permutation =
5
P
2
×
3
P
2
× 4!
= 20 × 6 × 24 = 2880
16. All the 6 books on Physics can be mutually arranged in 6! Ways.
Similarly 3 books on Chemistry and 4 books on Biology can be arranged in 3! And 4! Ways
respectively.
Besides it the three sets of Physics, Chemistry and Biology also can be arranged in 3! Ways
Required number of permutations = 3! × 6! × 3! × 4! = 622080
17. There are total 7 letters of which A occurs 3 times and N occurs 2 times.
Hence, the required number of ways =
7!
420
3! .2!
= =
18. There are total 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 marbles of which 3 are red (alike), 4 green (alike) and 3 are
pink (alike).
The required number of arrangements
12 !
3! 4! 5!
=
× ×
= 27720
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19. Ten thousands place can assume only non-zero digits hence ten thousands place can be
filled up in 4 ways and thousands place can be filled up in 5 ways since repetition is allowed
(and 0 can be filled up in this place). Similarly hundreds, tens and unit place be filled up in 5
ways each.
The required number of numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 2500
20. The number lying between 9 and 1000 consist of 2 or 3 digits in which repetitions are
allowed.
Case 1. (For two digit numbers)
As the tens place can be filled by only non-zero digits and unit digit can be filled up in 6
ways.
The number of 2 digit numbers = 5 × 6 = 30
Case 2. (For three digit numbers)
Hundreds place can be filled up by only non-zero digits hence it can be done in 5 ways and
the rest of the places i.e., tens and unit places can be filled up in 6 ways each.
The number of 3 digit numbers = 5 × 6 × 6 = 180
Total number of numbers = 30 + 180 = 210
COMBINATIONS
Introduction: In the SBI PO exams the questions based on Combination having been asked few
times and from the exam point of view it is very important to understand the basic concepts of
Combination to solve these questions.
Combination: The number of different selections or groups which can be made by taking some
or all of a number of given things or objects at a time is called combination.
The number of combinations of n different things taken r at a time =
n
C
r
or
n
C
r
.
Here,
n
C
r
=
For example,
6
C
3
=
Few important results,
n
C
0
=
n
C
n
= 1.
n
C
1
=
n
C
(n – 1)
= n.
Here, we will practice few questions to understand more about combination.
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Practice Questions
1. In a test paper there are total 10 questions. In how many different ways can you choose 6
questions to answer?
(a) 210
(b) 540
(c) 336
(d) 120
(e) None of these
2. In the above question if the question number 1 is compulsory in how many ways can you
choose to answer 6 questions in all?
(a) 53
(b) 63
(c) 126
(d) 210
(e) None of these
3. Deepti has 5 friends. In how many ways can she invite one or more of them to a dinner?
(a) 31
(b) 5
5

(c) 13
(d) 2
5

(e) None of these
4. In how many ways can a committee of 6 members be formed from 7 men and 6 ladies
consisting of 4 men and 2 ladies?
(a) 252
(b) 525
(c) 625
(d) 256
(e) None of these
5. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from a group of 6 gentlemen and 4 ladies. In how
many ways can this be done if the committee is to be included at least one lady?
(a) 123
(b) 113
(c) 246
(d) 945
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(e) None of these
6. A committee of 7 persons is to be chosen from 13 persons of whom 6 are Americans and 7
are Indians. In how many ways can the selection be made so as to retain a majority of
Indians?
(a) 945
(b) 1057
(c) 923
(d) 1056
(e) None of these
7. In how many ways can a committee of 4 men and 3 women be appointed from 6 men and 8
women?
(a) 480
(b) 408
(c) 420
(d) 840
(e) None of these
8. In the previous question what will be the number of committees in which Miss A refuses to
serve if Mr. B is a member?
(a) 210
(b) 420
(c) 630
(d) 720
(e) None of these
9. A committee of 3 experts is to be selected out of a panel of 7 persons, three of them are
engineers, three of them are managers and one is both engineer and manager. In how
many ways can the committee be selected if it must have at least an engineer and a
manager?
(a) 33
(b) 22
(c) 11
(d) 66
(e) None of these
10. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed out of 6 gents and 4 ladies. In how many ways
this can be done, when at most two ladies are included?
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(a) 186
(b) 168
(c) 136
(d) 169
(e) None of these
11. Mr. Adi has 18 acquaintances of whom 13 are relatives. In how many ways he may invite 10
guests so that 8 of whom are relatives?
(a) 12870
(b) 22022
(c) 20222
(d) 12780
(e) None of these
12. If there are 11 players in a cricket team, all of whom shake hands with each other, how
many shake hands take place in the team?
(a) 36
(b) 55
(c) 66
(d) 96
(e) None of these
13. Amit has a list of 24 friends. He wishes to invite some of them in such a manner that he can
enjoy maximum number of parties, but in each party the number of friends (i.e., invitees)
be same and each party must have different set of persons. Then how many parties can
Amitabh enjoy?
(a) 2704156
(b) 357600
(c) 235763
(d) 270156
(e) None of these
14. An ice-cream parlor offers only family packs of ice-creams with 11 different flavors. If each
member of a family loves different flavors, the maximum how many such families can
purchase the ice-cream if each family contains equal number of persons?
(a) 246
(b) 462
(c) 123
(d)
11
C
2

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(e) None of these
15. In the previous question what is the maximum possible number of member in a family?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) None of these
16. In a meeting everyone had shaken hands with everyone else; it was found that 66
handshakes were exchanged. How many members were present in the meeting?
(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 8
(e) None of these
17. A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from 16 players including 4 bowlers and 2
wicket keepers. In how many different ways can a team be formed so that the team has at
least 3 bowlers and at least one wicket keeper?
(a) 2472
(b) 2274
(c) 2472
(d) 1236
(e) None of these
18. A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from 20 players including 6 bowlers and 3
wicket keepers. In how many different ways can a team be formed so that the team contain
exactly 2 wicket keepers and at least 4 bowlers?
(a) 22725
(b) 27225
(c) 22275
(d) 22775
(e) None of these
19. An urn contains 5 different red and 6 different green balls. In how many ways can 6 balls be
selected so that there are at least two balls of each colour?
(a) 425
(b) 245
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(c) 125
(d) 625
(e) None of these
20. Find the number of straight lines formed by joining 6 different points on a plane, no three of
them being collinear.
(a) 21
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 24
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (b)
7. (d)
8. (c)
9. (a)
10. (a)
11. (a)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (c)
16. (c)
17. (a)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (b)
Answer Explanations:-
1. Out of 10 questions, 6 questions can be selected in
10
C
6
ways

10
C
6
= 210
2. Since question number 1 is compulsory so we have to choose only 5 questions from rest of
the 9 questions, which can be done in
9
C
5
ways

9
C
5
= 126
3. She may invite one or more friends by selecting either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 friends out of 5
friends.
1 friend can be selected out of 5 in
5
C
1
ways
2 friends can be selected out of 5 in
5
C
2
ways
3 friends can be selected out of 5 in
5
C
3
ways
4 friends can be selected out of 5 in
5
C
4
ways
5 friends can be selected out of 5 in
5
C
5
ways
Hence the required number of ways
=
5
C
1
+
5
C
2
+
5
C
3
+
5
C
4
+
5
C
5

= 5 + 10 + 10 + 5 + 1 = 31
Alternatively:
5
C
1
+
5
C
2
+
5
C
3
+
5
C
4
+
5
C
5
= 2
5
– 1 = 3 !
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Since,
n
C
1
+
n
C
2
+
n
C
3
+ …. +
n
C
n
= 2
n
–1
4. A men can be selected out of 7 men in
7
C
4
ways
And ladies can be selected out of 6 ladies in
6
C
2
ways
Hence, the required number of ways =
7
C
4
×
6
C
2
= 35 × 15 = 525
5. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from 6 gentlemen and 4 ladies by taking.
a. 1 lady out of 4 and 4 gentlemen out of 6.
b. 2 ladies out of 4 and 3 gentlemen out of 6.
c. 3 ladies out of 4 and 2 gentlemen out of 6.
d. 4 ladies out of 4 and 1 gentlemen out of 6.
In case I the number of ways =
4
C
1
×
6
C
4
= 4×15 = 60
In case II the number of ways =
4
C
2
×
6
C
3
= 6×20 = 120
In case III the number of ways =
4
C
3
×
6
C
2
= 4×15 = 60
In case IV the number of ways =
4
C
4
×
6
C
1
= 1×6 = 6
Hence, the required number of ways = 60 + 120 + 60 + 6 = 246
6. A committee of 7 persons retaining a majority of Indians can be made from 6 Americans
and 7 Indians by taking.
a. 1 American out of 6 and 6 Indians out of 7.
b. 2 Americans out of 6 and 5 Indians out of 7.
c. 3 Americans out of 6 and4 Indians out of 7.
In case I the number of ways =
6
C
1
×
7
C
6
= 6 × 7 = 42
In case II the number of ways =
6
C
2
×
7
C
5
= 15 ×21 = 315
In case III the number of ways =
6
C
3
×
7
C
4
= 20 × 35 = 300
Hence, the required number of ways = 700 + 315 + 42 = 1057
7. Required number of ways =
6
C
4
×
8
C
3
= 15 × 56 = 840
8. The number of committees in which both Miss. A and Mr. B are always members. We can
select rest 3 men from the remaining 5 in
5
C
3
ways and rest 2 women from the remaining 7
in
7
C
2
ways.
The required number of ways in which both Miss. A and Mr. B are always included
=
5
C
3
×
7
C
2
= 10 × 21 = 210
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Hence the required number of ways in which Miss. A and Mr. B do not serve together =
840–210 = 630
9. 3 experts including at least an engineer and a manager can be selected by taking.
a. 2 managers out of 3 and 1 engineer out of 3.
b. 1 manager out of 3 and 2 engineer out of 3.
c. 2 persons out of 6 (3 managers and 3 engineers) and 1 person out of one who is both
engineer and manager.
In case I, the number of ways =
3
C
2
×
3
C
1
= 9
In case II, the number of ways =
3
C
1
×
3
C
2
= 9
In case III, the number of ways =
6
C
2
×
1
C
1
= 15
Hence, the required number of ways = 9 + 9 + 15 = 33.
10. A committee of 5 persons, consisting of at most two ladies, can be formed in the following
ways.
a. Selecting 5 gents only out of 6.
b. Selecting 4 gents only out of 6 and one lady out of 4.
c. Selecting 3 gents only out of 6 and two ladies out of 4.
In case I, the number of ways =
6
C
5

In case II, the number of ways =
6
C
4
×
4
C
1

In case III, the number of ways =
6
C
3
×
4
C
2

Required number of ways =
6
C
5
+
6
C
4
×
4
C
1
+
6
C
3
×
4
C
2

= 6 + 60 + 120 = 186
11. Required number of ways =
13
C
8
×
5
C
2
= 1287 × 10 = 12870
12. One hand shake requires two different persons.
Number of hand shakes
= number of ways of selecting two persons out of 11 persons
=
11
C
2
= 55
13. If n is even,
n
C
r
is maximum when r =
2
n

Number of invitees in a party
24
12
2
= =
And maximum possible number of parties =
24
C
12
= 2704156
14. If n is odd,
n
C
r
is maximum when
– 1
2
n
r = or
1
2
n
r
+
=
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11– 1
5
2
r = = or
11 1
6
2
r
+
= =

11
C
5
=
11
C
6
= 462
15. Possible number of members in a family is either 5 or 6.
So, the maximum possible number of family members = 6
16. Let there were n persons in the meeting, then number of handshakes =
n
C
2


n
C
2
= 66
¬
!
66
2!( – 2)!
n
n
=
¬
( – 1)
66
2
n n
=
¬ n (n–1) = 132
¬ n = 12
Alternatively: Go through options.
17. Total number of bowlers = 4
Total number of wickets keepers = 2
Rest (normal) players = 10
Possible Combinations:
Bowlers Wicket
Keepers
Normal
Players
3 1 7
3 2 6
4 1 6
4 2 5
Required number of ways
= (
4
C
3
×
2
C
1
×
10
C
7
) + (
4
C
3
×
2
C
2
×
10
C
6
) + (
4
C
4
×
2
C
1
×
10
C
6
) + (
4
C
4
×
2
C
2
×
10
C
5
)
= (3×1×7) + (3×2×6) + (4×1×6)+ (4×2×5)
= 960 + 840 + 420 + 252 = 2472
18. Total number of bowles = 6
Total number of wicket keepers = 3
Total number of normal players = 11 [20–(6+3)]
Possible combinations:
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Bowlers Wicket
Keepers
Normal
Players
4 2 5
5 2 4
6 2 3
Required number of ways
= (
6
C
4
×
3
C
2
×
11
C
5
) + (
6
C
5
×
3
C
2
×
11
C
4
) + (
6
C
6
×
3
C
2
×
11
C
3
)
= 20790 + 5940 + 495 = 27225
19. Total number of red balls = 5
Total number of green balls = 6
Possible Combinations are:
Red Green
2 4
3 3
4 2
Required number of selections
= (
5
C
2
×
6
C
4
) + (
5
C
3
×
6
C
3
) + (
5
C
4
×
6
C
2
) = 425
20. A line required 2 end points for its formation.
Hence required number of lines
= 2 points selected from 6 points
=
6
C
2
= 15
Thus out of total 6 non-collinear point 15 lines can be drawn.
PROBABILITY
Introduction: With the changing pattern of bank PO exams the State Bank of India has also
included few questions from probability to access the quantitative aptitude of a candidate. The
questions of probability in the exam are also based on a given data but in the next exam there
may be some changes in the questioning pattern. Therefore, we have included this chapter for
the candidates to increase their possibility of being selected in the exam. Here, we will study
the basic concepts of probability and also solve few questions.
Probability: It is a mathematical measurement of uncertainty of an event. The value of
Probability varies from 0 to 1. The 0 value of an event’s probability indicates that the event
cannot happen. On the other side the value 1 for any event indicates that the event is certain.
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Some Important Term
1. Experiment: It is an operation which produces some well defined outcomes.
2. Random Experiment: It is an experiment in which all the possible outcomes are known but
the exact output cannot be predicted in advance.
For example; Rolling an unbiased dice, Tossing a fair coin etc.
3. Sample Space: It is a set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment.
For Example; if we toss a coin the possible outcomes are head (H) and tail (T). Therefore the
sample space for tossing a coin = {H, T}.
4. Event: It is a subset of a sample space. It can be understood as an element or a group of
elements from the sample space set.
For Example; if we toss two coins, the possible outcomes are {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Here the
events can be; only H = {HH}, only one H = {HT, TH} or no H = {TT}.
5. Probability of an Event:
Let S be the sample space and E be and Event in the given sample space.
Then, E _ S.
∴ .
Some Important Results
1. P(S) = 1,
2. 0 sP(E) s1
3. P(| ) = 0
4. For event A and B, P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)
5. If A is (not A), then P ( A) = 1 – P (A).
Some Important Formulae
1. n ! = n (n – 1) (n – 2) ......... 3.2.1
2. 0 ! = 1 = 1 !
3. Selection of r things out of n things =
n
C
r
= =
4.
n
C
n
=
n
C
0
= 1
5.
n
C
r
=
n
C
(n – r)



Practice Questions
1. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting two heads is
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
2. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting one head is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
3. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at least one head is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
4. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at most one head is
(a)
(b)
(c)
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(d)
(e) None of these
5. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining a total score of
six?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting same digits on both
the dice?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
7. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting at least total score of
seven?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
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8. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the obtained value on the
both faces is not same?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
9. A bag contains 6 red and 4 blue balls. If 4 balls are drawn at random. The probability that 2
are red and 2 are blue is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
10. A bag contains 7 red and 8 blue balls. If 5 balls are drawn at random. The probability that at
least 4 blue balls are drawn is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
Answers:-
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
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6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Answer Hints:
1. All the possible outcomes when three coins are tossed;
{hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth, ttt}
3. The favourable events are {hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth}
5. All the possible outcomes when two dice are throw
{(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6),
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6),
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6),
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)}
9. Here the number of sample space means selection of 4 balls out of 10 balls =
10
C
4
=
= 201.
Now the favourable events of selecting 2 red balls out of 6 red balls and 2 blue balls out of 4
blue balls =
4
C
2

6
C
2
= = 90.
Therefore the required probability = = .
RATIO & PROPORTION
Introduction: The concept of Ratio and Proportion is very useful to solve questions on Data
Interpretation. In this Unit we will learn the concepts of the topic and solve few questions.
Ratio: A ratio is a comparison of two numbers (quantity in the same unit). It is written as, a: b =
= a ÷b, where a and b are two number (quantity).
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In a ratio a : b, a and b are the terms of the ratio; ‘a’ is called the antecedent and ‘b’ is called
the consequent.
The word ‘antecedent’ literally means ‘that which goes before’ and the word consequent
literally means ‘that which goes after’.
Compound Ratio: Compounded ratio is a product of two or more ratios.
Example: Find the ratio compounded of the three ratios:
2 : 3, 3 : 4 and 7 : 11
Solution: the required ratio is = .
Inverse Ratio: If a : b is a given ratio, then or b : a is called its inverse ratio or reciprocal
ratio.
If the antecedent (a) = the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of equality, such as 2 : 2.
If the antecedent (a) > the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of greater inequality,
such as 3: 2.
If the antecedent (a) < the consequent (b), the ratio is called the ratio of less inequality, such as
2 : 3.
Proportion: A proportion expresses the equality of two ratios. e.g.
Or a : b = c : d or a : b :: c : d.
In a proportion in the form of a : b :: c : d the first and the last terms are called the extremes
and the second and the third terms or the middle terms are called as the mean terms. When
four quantities are in proportion, we can write it in the mathematical form as a : b :: c : d
ad = bc
Practice Questions
1. If 2A = 3B =4C, then A : B : C is ;
(a) 2 : 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3 : 2
(c) 6 : 4 : 3
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(d) 3 : 4 : 3
(e) None of these
2. If , then A : B : C is ;
(a) 4 : 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 4 : 5
(c) 5 : 4 : 3
(d) 5 : 3 : 4
(e) None of these
3. The ratio of 4
3.5
: 2
5
is same as :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 16 : 1
(e) None of these
4. If then the value of x is :
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5
(e) None of these
5. If x : y = 5 : 2, the (8x+9y) : (8x + 3y) is :
(a) 23 : 29
(b) 26 : 61
(c) 31 : 21
(d) 29 : 23
(e) None of these
6. If 15% of x = 20% of y, then x : y is :
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 7 : 3
(d) 7 : 4
(e) None of these
7. If x : y =3 : 2, then (x
2
– y
2
) : (x
2
+ y
2
) is :
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(a) 5 : 13
(b) 13 : 5
(c) 9 : 4
(d) 4 : 9
(e) None of these
8. If , then (x + 4) : (y + 5) is equal to :
(a) 4 : 9
(b) 9 : 4
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 4 : 5
(e) None of these
9. If , then is :
(a) 12 : 5
(b) 13 : 5
(c) 13 : 6
(d) 5 : 12
(e) None of these
10. If Rs. 483 be divided into three parts, proportional to , then the first part is :
(a) 155
(b) 126
(c) 137
(d) 115
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (c )
2. (b)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (d)
9. (a)
10. (b)
AVERAGE
Introduction: In this unit, we will learn the concept of Average and solve the questions based
on it. The concept of Average is very helpful in solving various kinds of questions on Data
Interpretation and Analysis.
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In this unit, we will learn the average, which is in more accurate meaning called as an arithmetic
mean.
Average is defined as the sum of n different numerical values divided by n.
Average =
Average Speed =
If a person covers half of his journey at a speed of x km/h and the next half at the speed of y
km/h, then the average speed during the whole journey is .
Weighted Average of x
1
, x
2
where weight is w
1
, w
2
= .
Average of different groups
If the average of a group of n items is a and the average of another group of m items is m,
then the combined average = .
Practice Example
1. The average of a non-zero number and its square is 5 times the number. The number is:
(a) 9
(b) 17
(c) 29
(d) 295
(e) None of these
2. The average age of the boys in a class is 16 and that of the girls is 15 years. The average age
for the whole class is :
(a) 15 years
(b) 15.5 years
(c) 16 years
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
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3. The average run of a cricket player of 10 innings was 25. How many runs must he make in his
next inning so that his average becomes 30 :
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 80
(d) 100
(e) None of these
4. The mean of 36 observations was 25. It was found later that an observation 24 was wrongly
taken as 42. The corrected new mean is :
(a) 24
(b) 24.5
(c) 25
(d) 25.5
(e) None of these
5. The average weight of A, B and C is 50 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 45 kg and that
of B and C be 54 kg, then the weight of B is :
(a) 45
(b) 48
(c) 50
(d) 55
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b)
Answer Hints
1. (a) Let the number be x. Then
∴ x = 9.
2. (d) We can’t determine the average because there is no information about no. of girls and
no. of boys.
3. (c) His total runs after 10 innings = 25 × 10 = 250 and his total score after 11
th
inning should
be 11 × 30 = 330 to make his average 30. Therefore he requires another 330 – 250 = 80
runs.
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4. (b) The wrongly taken figure is 42 for 24. It means, in the corrected average total value will
decrease by (42 – 24) = 18. Therefore the corrected average will reduce by = 0.5.
5. (b) the total weight of A, B and C is
A + B + C = 50 × 3 = 150 ……(1)
Similarly, A + B = 45 × 2 = 90 …….(2)
And B + C = 54 × 2 = 108 ……….(3)
By (2) + (3) – (1)
A + B + B + C – A – B – C = 108 + 90 – 150
∴ B = 48.
PERCENTAGE
Introduction: In this unit, we will study about the concepts of Percentage and the questions
based on the topic. The concepts of percentage are very helpful in solving various kinds of
questions on Data Interpretation and Analysis.
Percentage: The term “per cent” means “for every hundred”. A fraction whose denominators
is 100 is called a percentage and the numerator of the fraction is called the rate per cent. It is
denoted by the symbol %.
Here x % = . For example 10% = .
Similarly, fraction can be changed in the form of percentage when we multiply them by 100.
For Example .
To decrease a number by a given %:
Multiple the numbers by the factor
To find the % increase of a number:
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% increase =
To find the % decrease of a number:
% decrease =
Practice Example
1. In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters casted their votes, out of which 2%
of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 9261 votes which were 75% of the total
valid votes. Find the total number of votes enrolled in that election.
(a) 15000
(b) 16000
(c) 16800
(d) 17000
(e) None of these
2. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then what percent of x is y?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
(e) None of these
3. The salary of a person was reduced by 10%. By what percent should his reduced salary be
raised so as to bring it at par with his original salary?
(a) 10 %
(b)
(c) 12 %
(d) 13 %
(e) None of these
4. A single discount equivalent to a discount series 10%, 20% and 10% is
(a) 40 %
(b) 35.2 %
(c) 30 %
(d) 25.8 %
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(e) None of these
5. A single discount equivalent to a discount series 50% + 30% + 20% is
(a) 100 %
(b) 80 %
(c) 75 %
(d) 72 %
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
Answer Hints
1. (c) Let the total enrolled votes are x.
Then, Number of votes cast = 75 % of x. Valid votes = 98 % of (75 % of x).
∴ 75 % 0f [98 % of (75 % of x)] = 9261.
2. (a) here 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y) ¬ ¬10(x – y) = 6(x + y)
¬10x – 6x = 6y + 10y¬4x = 16y ¬ x = y ¬25 % of x = y. because .
4. (b) Let we have 100 initially first 10 % discount = 100 × = 10.
The second discount 20 % = 90 × = 18.
The third discount 10 % = 72 × = 7.2.
Hence total discount = 10 + 18 + 7.2 = 35.2.
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
ANTONYMS
Introduction: In this unit we will study about antonyms. The questions about antonyms are
generally asked in SBI PO exams. The SBI PO exam will contain about three to five questions
based on synonyms.
Antonyms: The word comes from ancient Greek words ‘anti’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘anti’ means
‘opposite’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. The literal meaning of antonyms is the opposite name
which means the word which has opposite meaning. For example; Day – Night, Long – Short, Up
– Down, Small – Large, etc
Example Questions
Q. Find the opposite word Concur.
(a) Disagree
(b) Disappear
(c) Disarrange
(d) Discourage
(e) None of these
Answer: The synonyms for Concur are agree, cooperate, combine etc. Therefore the antonym
for ‘agree’ is ‘disagree’. Hence right answer is (a).
Note: for the preparation of the Antonyms questions, the students are required to have a good
practice of the topic and English reading habit. These two things will help you to be better
prepared for the exam. When you are solving the questions of antonyms try to figure out your
synonymous words which come first in your mind for the question word then look at options
for all possible antonyms of your question word and the synonymous words. By this way you
will find the most opposite word for the question word.
Practice Examples
Direction: In the given questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and
mark it in the Answer Sheet.
1. Condensation
(a) Abridgment
(b) Broadening
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(c) Compression
(d) Concentration
(e) None of these
2. Condemn
(a) Praise
(b) Censure
(c) Disapproval
(d) Doom
(e) None of these
3. Encroach
(a) Creep
(b) Infringe
(c) Intrude
(d) Recede
(e) None of these
4. Endeavour
(a) Aim
(b) Try
(c) Abandon
(d) Effort
(e) None of these
5. Ferocious
(a) Barbarous
(b) Bloody
(c) Brutal
(d) Humane
(e) None of these
6. Fastidious
(a) Censorious
(b) Critical
(c) Dainty
(d) Careless
(e) None of these
7. Greasy
(a) Lean
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(b) Oily
(c) Fatty
(d) Sebaceous
(e) None of these
8. Hallow
(a) Consecrate
(b) Desecrate
(c) Dedicate
(d) Devote
(e) None of these
9. Harmonize
(a) Accord
(b) Differ
(c) Agree
(d) Cohere
(e) None of these
10. Hazard
(a) Adventure
(b) Risk
(c) Secure
(d) Peril
(e) None of these
11. Herculean
(a) Athletic
(b) Colossal
(c) Feeble
(d) Strong
(e) None of these
12. Hypothesis
(a) Proof
(b) Conjecture
(c) Supposition
(d) Theory
(e) None of these
13. Impulsive
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(a) Deliberate
(b) Careless
(c) Hasty
(d) Impetuous
(e) None of these
14. Incomplete
(a) Absolute
(b) Defective
(c) Faulty
(d) Partial
(e) None of these
15. Incurable
(a) Hopeless
(b) Irrecoverable
(c) Remediable
(d) Cureless
(e) None of these
16. Judicious
(a) Cautious
(b) Considerate
(c) Cool
(d) Rash
(e) None of these
17. Knot
(a) Complication
(b) Simplicity
(c) Difficulty
(d) Entanglement
(e) None of these
18. Lament
(a) Complain
(b) Moan
(c) Cry
(d) Rejoice
(e) None of these
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19. Legend
(a) Caption
(b) Fact
(c) Fiction
(d) Myth
(e) None of these
20. Malpractice
(a) Dereliction
(b) Evil
(c) Misbehavior
(d) Right
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (b)
10. (c)
11. (c)
12. (a)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (c)
16. (d)
17. (b)
18. (d)
19. (b)
20. (d)
SYNONYMS
Introduction: In this unit we will study about synonyms. The questions about synonyms are
generally asked in SBI PO exams. The SBI PO exam will contain about three to five questions
based on synonyms.
Synonyms: The word comes from ancient Greek words ‘syn’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘syn’ means
‘with’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. Synonyms are the word which has similar meanings.
Two words are said to be synonymous when they have similar meanings. The words caste and
class is synonymous because both the words have similar meaning.
Example Questions
Q. Find the word which synonymous to Deny.
(a) Regain
(b) Refuse
(c) Repair
(d) Reduce
(e) None of these
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Answer: The synonyms for Deny are Contradict, Refuse, Reject etc. here we have Refuse an
option which means the right answer is (b).
Note: for the preparation of the synonyms questions the students are required to have a good
practice of the topic and English reading habit. These two things will help you to be better
prepared for the exam. When you are solving the questions of synonyms try to figure out your
synonymous words for the question word then match with the options.
Practice Examples
Directions: In the given questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
1. Deposit
(a) Degrade
(b) Dethrone
(c) Place
(d) Removal
(e) None of these
2. Depart
(a) Decamp
(b) Divest
(c) Display
(d) Degrade
(e) None of these
3. Portion
(a) Gallery
(b) Fragment
(c) Site
(d) Case
(e) None of these
4. Exact
(a) True
(b) Pattern
(c) Elusive
(d) Close
(e) None of these
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5. Indignant
(a) Bend
(b) Faulty
(c) Gratified
(d) Angry
(e) None of these
6. Incur
(a) Elude
(b) Enhance
(c) Mount
(d) Acquire
(e) None of these
7. Caustic
(a) Acrid
(b) Mild
(c) Cavil
(d) Clue
(e) None of these
8. Cavity
(a) Cave
(b) Hollow
(c) Class
(d) Origin
(e) None of these
9. Charge
(a) Crack
(b) Right
(c) Accuse
(d) Claim
(e) None of these
10. Catastrophic
(a) Callous
(b) Dull
(c) Calamitous
(d) Continuous
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(e) None of these
11. Discretion
(a) Rashness
(b) Careless
(c) Carefulness
(d) Disgrace
(e) None of these
12. Imperative
(a) Optional
(b) Authoritative
(c) Elective
(d) Voluntary
(e) None of these
13. Opportunity
(a) Chance
(b) Omission
(c) Artisan
(d) Vital
(e) None of these
14. Numerate
(a) Compute
(b) Denude
(c) Nudge
(d) Account
(e) None of these
15. Noise
(a) Quiet
(b) Blare
(c) Placid
(d) Peaceful
(e) None of these
16. Nimble
(a) Clumsy
(b) Lump
(c) Silent
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(d) Agile
(e) None of these
17. Nerve
(a) Courage
(b) Weakness
(c) Fragile
(d) Lame
(e) None of these
18. Notch
(a) Designate
(b) Beck
(c) Cut
(d) Rule
(e) None of these
19. Proclaim
(a) Conceal
(b) Cover
(c) Disguise
(d) Announce
(e) None of these
20. Profane
(a) Hallow
(b) Debase
(c) Dedicate
(d) Consecrate
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (c)
10. (c)
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (b)
16. (d)
17. (a)
18. (c)
19. (d)
20. (c)
FILL IN THE BLANKS
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Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Fill in the Blanks to assess the
candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five
questions on the Fill in the blanks.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Fill in the Blanks type.
Practice Questions
Direction: Fill in the Blanks with the most suitable alternative.
1. The terrorists………………………..a bomb in the local bus.
(a) Planted
(b) Hid
(c) Any
(d) Explode
(e) Stole
2. Every citizen is expected to……………………………the interests of his country.
(a) Protect
(b) Guarantee
(c) Increase
(d) Grow
(e) Obey
3. She says her dress cost her Rs 500. It doesn’t look……………………it.
(a) Less
(b) Worth
(c) In
(d) For
(e) About
4. Pulse Polio is a drive……………………….to eradicate polio from all over the country?
(a) Tinted
(b) Began
(c) Launched
(d) Parked
(e) Aim
5. A…………………………of cars was made available to the minister and his party?
(a) Pack
(b) Group
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(c) Number
(d) Fleet
(e) Horde
6. Shikha could not get………………….the examination.
(a) Over
(b) Through
(c) Along
(d) Into
(e) Up
7. The magic show was the prime attraction for the children and adults…………………………..
(a) Alike
(b) Together
(c) All
(d) Either
(e) Altogether
8. It is ……………………………accepted that Jayadeva was born in the village of Kenduli.
(a) Wholesome
(b) Widely
(c) Firmly
(d) Openly
(e) Fairly
9. Abdul is senior to Habib………………………six years in this institute.
(a) Above
(b) Over
(c) By
(d) For
(e) From
10. Ramesh was to appear…………………..the interview for the post of Public Relations Officers.
(a) For
(b) Into
(c) Before
(d) With
(e) At
11. I was speaking to him on phone when the line……………………cut off.
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(a) Got
(b) Gets
(c) Gotten
(d) Getting
(e) Get
12. I do not………………………of his conduct although he is my own brother.
(a) Tolerate
(b) Agree
(c) Excuse
(d) Approve
(e) Writer
13. Rakesh promised me that he would be……………………a letter after reaching home?
(a) Wrote
(b) Written
(c) Write
(d) Writing
(e) Writer
14. The judge found him guilty and he was sentenced…………………death.
(a) To
(b) Upon
(c) For
(d) Till
(e) As
15. Satish is the strongest…………………all the boys in our school.
(a) On
(b) Between
(c) Of
(d) To
(e) Before
16. The teacher asked Priya to go home when when she started…………………..of stomach pain.
(a) Complaining
(b) Knowing
(c) Blaming
(d) Feeling
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(e) Developing
17. Anuradha’s voice is …………………………..sweet as Lata’s.
(a) More
(b) Far
(c) As
(d) Very
(e) So
18. The child has been……………………sick very often for the last three months.
(a) Felt
(b) Falling
(c) Falls
(d) Fallen
(e) Fall
19. The surgeon advised the patient to…………………………an operation.
(a) Undergo
(b) Underpass
(c) Underset
(d) Undertake
(e) Underlie
20. It was in consultation…………………………the workers union that the management arrived at
this decision.
(a) Over
(b) To
(c) About
(d) By
(e) With
21. She…………………..in slandering people.
(a) Enjoys
(b) Participates
(c) Indulges
(d) Laughed
(e) Angered
22. Many are………………………..under the burden of poverty.
(a) Buried
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(b) Pushed
(c) Thrown
(d) Reeling
(e) Pressed
23. We want a law……………………..dowry.
(a) For
(b) About
(c) On
(d) Against
(e) To
24. The curfew was……………..yesterday.
(a) Implemented
(b) Taken
(c) Told
(d) Imposed
(e) Lift
25. He brought oranges……………………..the dozen.
(a) In
(b) By
(c) For
(d) At
(e) To
26. …………………..he woke up, he had missed the station.
(a) Where
(b) After
(c) While
(d) As
(e) When
27. I wanted to know what had………………..beneath it.
(a) Bed
(b) Lain
(c) Laid
(d) Lying
(e) Laying
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28. The principal…………………………the boys to go home.
(a) Let
(b) Deems
(c) Allowed
(d) Want
(e) send
29. The couple did not…………………………the rival company.
(a) Hike
(b) Hack
(c) Excel
(d) Represent
(e) Sold
30. This has……………………..many myths.
(a) Broken
(b) Shatter
(c) Fell
(d) Finished
(e) Stopped
Answer:-
1. (a)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (b)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (c)
10. (a)
11. (a)
12. (d)
13. (a)
14. (d)
15. (c)
16. (a)
17. (c)
18. (d)
19. (a)
20. (e)
21. (c)
22. (d)
23. (d)
24. (d)
25. (b)
26. (e)
27. (b)
28. (c)
29. (d)
30. (b)
ERROR DETECTION
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Error Detection to assess the
candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five
questions on the Error Detection.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Error Detection.
Practice Questions
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Direction: In each sentence below, four words have been printed in Bold Type. One of these
may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context (if any) and is the answer. If all four words
are correctly spelt or appropriate in the context, then the answer is ‘(e)’ i.e. no error.
1. They questioned him and me unendingly about our trip to Singapore and the Purchase we
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Had made. No Error
(e)
2. The Passerbyes seemed not to be affected by the gory sight of the crushed dog. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
3. Mrs Bose, napping on the sofa, woke up started and enquired what happened. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
4. The lady approached me timidly and sat down besides me fidgeting nervously. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
5. The M.P. was noticeably upset by the manner in which the Minister conducted himself.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
No error.
(e)
6. Him not agreeing to the proposal outlined by me is baffling. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
7. Whenever I felt sorrowful I use to turn towards God. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
8. The carpenter uses the saw to saw wood and planks. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
9. I have been ordered to lay in bed and do nothing. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
10. I did this just for your sake and her but have to account for it. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
11. Is there any further reason you give for your strange behavior towards my sister. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
12. The posts were advertised by the Planning Commison in all the local dailies. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
13. I am utterly exhausted and much annoyed with the turn of events against me. No Error
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
14. His niece is too much tall for her age, isn’t she? No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
15. The old woman hugged her grandsons warmly with tear in her eyes. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
16. This train takes perfectly ten hours to reach Calcutta. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
17. His parents were informed of his serious illness and of the surgory performed on him. No
Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
18. The appointment will be made initally for period of three years. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
19. When Satish heard those humiliation words he became furious. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
20. Rajendra and Ashu came very late lost night. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
21. Fluency in English language and last experience in the field would be desirable. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
22. The fact, as brought out by all the newspaper, are that global tele-communication market is
(a) (b) (c)
Not very global. No Error
(d) (e)
23. Water does not few upward to the mountains but downward to the sea. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
24. It is written in the book of God that he who has plenty shall be asked to help others. No
Errors
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
25. He is competent and brilliant at his work, but utterly unpretentious. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
26. He needs not work So hard lest he should fall ill. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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27. The problem seems to be complicated but the real fact is that it is’nt. Is it? No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
28. The amount that I have paid for it is lesser than what you have paid. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
29. These boxers dominated the ring with heroic display of their talent for boxing. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
30. I who had missed the final round yesterday am very upset. No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Answers:-
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (a)
9. (b)
10. (c)
11. (e)
12. (c)
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (d)
16. (b)
17. (c)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20. (c)
21. (c)
22. (a)
23. (b)
24. (b)
25. (b)
26. (a)
27. (b)
28. (c)
29. (e)
30. (c)
IDIOMS & PHRASES
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions of Idioms & Phrases to assess the
candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five
questions on the Idioms & Phrases.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Idioms & Phrases.
Practice Questions
Direction: Find the word/phrases given below each of the sentences should replace the
word/phrase printed in bold letter to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence
is correct as it is and no correction is required, then mark (e) as your answer.
1. The government announced much tax concessions for the income tax payers.
(a) A little
(b) Some
(c) Any
(d) Heaps of
(e) No correction required
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2. Had you gone to Calcutta, do not forget to visit the Metro Rail.
(a) Had you go
(b) If you had gone
(c) Going
(d) If you go
(e) No Correction Required
3. Swimming cannot be learnt unless one will get down to water.
(a) So long as one gets down
(b) Until one gets down
(c) Unless one gets down
(d) Until one will get down
(e) No Correction Required
4. Shabnam asked Laila how did she join Excellent Bank Coaching.
(a) How she has joined
(b) How she joined
(c) How had she joined
(d) That how she joined
(e) No correction required
5. People are voluntarily helping the riot victims.
(a) Spontaneously
(b) Purposefully
(c) Naturally
(d) Intentionally
(e) No Correction Required
6. You are requested to kindly help me.
(a) To help
(b) Kindly to help
(c) To please help
(d) Not to help
(e) No Correction required
7. Ramesh even could not solve the sum.
(a) Ramesh and I both
(b) Only Ramesh
(c) Ramesh but
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(d) Ramesh only
(e) No Correction
8. A body of volunteers have been organized for the relief work.
(a) Are also
(b) Could have
(c) Are being
(d) Is being
(e) No Correction required
9. She is in danger to lose her balance.
(a) To loose
(b) Of lose
(c) Of losing
(d) To lose off
(e) No Correction Required
10. He is good friend of his and I.
(a) His and me
(b) Him and yours
(c) Hers and mine
(d) Me and his
(e) No Correction Required
11. This is the only book which I want.
(a) That I want
(b) I wanted
(c) I had wanted
(d) Which I have wanted
(e) No Correction Required
12. The room is rather too dark.
(a) Much too
(b) Too
(c) Rather
(d) Too much
(e) No correction required
13. Either of these are good.
(a) Either
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(b) Both
(c) Any of these
(d) None
(e) No correction required
14. He walks as if to be drunk.
(a) He were
(b) Though
(c) Like
(d) As
(e) No correction required
15. Nothing than hard work can help you.
(a) Nothing else than
(b) No other things than
(c) But
(d) Nothing but
(e) No correction required
16. He is a sales-representative in a company.
(a) Sales-representative
(b) Selling-representative
(c) Sell-representative
(d) Sail-representative
(e) No correction required
17. It is hard for me re-adjust in life abroad.
(a) With life
(b) To life
(c) By life
(d) Life
(e) No correction required
18. The drought was followed by months of famine.
(a) By many months
(b) By a months of
(c) By
(d) By severe months
(e) No correction required
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19. There are no raises in the salary.
(a) Is any rise
(b) Are no rise
(c) Is no rise
(d) Are no bonuses
(e) No correction required
20. The bell was wrung late.
(a) Is wrung
(b) Is rung
(c) Has rung
(d) Was rung
(e) No correction required
21. The aggregate income of the trader was enormous.
(a) Sum total
(b) Maximum earning
(c) Minimum penalty
(d) Daily sale
(e) No correction required
22. The passenger was on his own.
(a) Clonely
(b) By one self
(c) With his family
(d) Having his own ticket
(e) By himself
23. I have read only the first three chapters of this novel.
(a) The three
(b) The whole
(c) Most of the
(d) Three first
(e) No correction required
24. He is cunning and rogue fellow.
(a) A rogue man
(b) An honest man
(c) Crafty fellow
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(d) Fast trader
(e) No correction required
25. It is better to do something than sit idle.
(a) Sitting idle
(b) Be idle
(c) To sit idle
(d) Not to do so
(e) No correction required
26. He was chosen as captain.
(a) Elected as
(b) Nominated as
(c) Not chosen as
(d) Elected
(e) No correction required
27. Both of us did not attend school.
(a) Both the two boys
(b) We all
(c) Any of us
(d) All of us
(e) The two of us
28. He is not such a fool.
(a) A
(b) That a
(c) Much of a
(d) Quite a
(e) No correction required
29. You will have to return my belonging whenever I ask for them.
(a) Should have to
(b) Will have
(c) Would have
(d) Will be
(e) No correction required
30. I am prepared to lie down my life for the sake of the nation.
(a) Preparing to lie
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(b) Prepared to be laid
(c) Preparing to be laid
(d) Prepared to lay
(e) No correction required
Answers:-
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (e)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10. (c)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (b)
14. (b)
15. (a)
16. (a)
17. (b)
18. (a)
19. (c)
20. (d)
21. (e)
22. (c)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (a)
26. (a)
27. (d)
28. (c)
29. (e)
30. (d)
CLOZE TESTS
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions of Cloze Tests or Cloze Deletion Tests
to assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can
consist of ten questions on the Cloze Tests.
From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions
are relatively easy if you have a good English reading habit. In such kind of questions you have
to make relation with the previous sentence and the next sentence then only you will be able to
solve these questions with better accuracy and speed.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Cloze Tests.
Practice Questions
Close Test (1): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which is numbered. These
numbers are again printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One
of them is perfectly suitable for the whole passage. Find out the appropriate words.
In June 1422, the first Earth Summit (the UN Conference on the Environment) was held in
Stockholm, Sweden. Exactly 20 years later in June 1442-the second Earth Summit was held in
Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. From Rio, a declaration of (1) and (2) plan (3) eventually. In particular,
two international treaties were signed. In particular, two international treaties were signed.
One deals with manmade global (4) that is likely to change the world’s climate in the next
century. The other is concerned with protecting the (5) of the earth’s plant and animal species.
During the 20 years that (6) between the two Earth Summits, our planet has undergone
dramatic changes in population and the (7) pressures that humanity puts on its natural (8) are
(9) as the (10) of the 21
st
Century approaches.
1.
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(a) Leaders
(b) Nations
(c) Heads
(d) States
(e) Principles
2.
(a) Use less
(b) Inhibited
(c) Unwanted
(d) Active
(e) Action
3.
(a) Emerged
(b) Developed
(c) Came
(d) Started
(e) Ended
4.
(a) Heating
(b) Context
(c) Warming
(d) Booking
(e) Threats
5.
(a) Wealth
(b) Variety
(c) Rich
(d) Threat
(e) Awing
6.
(a) Went
(b) Elapsed
(c) Go
(d) Run
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(e) Raced
7.
(a) Polluting
(b) Industry
(c) Immense
(d) Pollution
(e) Pressing
8.
(a) Resources
(b) Funds
(c) Sources
(d) Penances
(e) Beauty
9.
(a) Fashionable
(b) Mainly
(c) Danger
(d) Highlighted
(e) Coming
10.
(a) Twilight
(b) End
(c) Sunset
(d) Dusk
(e) Dawn
Close Test (2): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which is numbered. These
numbers are again printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One
of them is perfectly suitable for the whole passage. Find out the appropriate words.
Besides (1) the Wireless in (2) Local Loops (WLL) scheme and (3) expansion of some telephone
exchanges, the Telecom Department has taken various measures to improve it in Luck now.
Steps are also being taken to clear the waiting list of the telephone connection at a (4) pace.
The Telephone directory in English also (5) to be ready to March by next year.
Giving this information here on Friday, Principal General Manager (Telecom) said that the “Free
Phone Services” would also be introduced under intelligent network services during the (6)
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month. Under this scheme, the payment would be made by the (7) party and not by the caller.
(8) it would be (9) only for the local calls but later it may be (15) to STD and ISD also.
1.
(a) Withdrawing
(b) Allowing
(c) Giving
(d) Introducing
(e) Stop
2.
(a) Starting
(b) Adopting
(c) Giving
(d) Taken
(e) Stopping
3.
(a) Service
(b) Efficiency
(c) Influence
(d) Directory
(e) Service
4.
(a) Advanced
(b) Accelerated
(c) Honest
(d) Abundant
(e) Immense
5.
(a) Thought
(b) Ought
(c) Expected
(d) Has
(e) Expecting
6.
(a) Current
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(b) Called
(c) Dialed
(d) Subscribe
(e) No error
7.
(a) Calling
(b) Called
(c) Dialed
(d) Subscribe
(e) Consumer
8.
(a) Foremost
(b) First
(c) Firstly
(d) Presently
(e) Initially
9.
(a) Legal
(b) Authorized
(c) Valid
(d) Invalid
(e) Expanded
10.
(a) Stretched
(b) Extended
(c) Given
(d) Extend
(e) Allowed
Close Test (3): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which is numbered. These
numbers are again printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One
of them is perfectly suitable for the whole passage. Find out the appropriate words.
For generations man has (1) against the wild to create a world where only he (2) whether
animals and plants survive or are (3) out. Earlier, we accepted as self evident that any (4) in our
environment brought about by sciences and technology must be improvements the (5) world of
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our (6). However, many people all over the world have begun to feel that (7) are going too far,
and that we should try to (8) some of original before we find it (9) too late. The same sciences
which had led us away from nature are now the (10) miracle of creation.
1.
(a) Faced
(b) Stood
(c) Struggled
(d) Challenged
(e) Came
2.
(a) Decides
(b) (b Think
(c) Advises
(d) Observes
(e) Thanks
3.
(a) Taken
(b) Wiped
(c) Put
(a) (d Thrown
(d) Kept
4.
(a) Difference
(b) Increments
(c) Changes
(d) Replacement
(e) Turns
5.
(a) In
(b) At
(c) Over
(d) For
(e) To
4.
(a) Aborigines
(b) Ancient
(c) Successors
(d) Ancestors
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(e) Modern
5.
(a) Ourselves
(b) We
(c) Us
(d) Some
(e) Our
6.
(a) Demolish
(b) Cherish
(c) Save
(d) Renovate
(e) Latest
7.
(a) Occurs
(b) Sounds
(c) Seems
(d) Gets
(e) Earns
8.
(a) Unfolding
(b) Discussing
(c) Arguing
(d) Narrating
(e) Telling

Answers:-
Close Test (1)
1. (
e)
2. (
e)
3. (
a)
4. (
c)
5. (
a)
6. (
b)
7. (
c)
8. (
a)
9. (
d)
10. (
e)
Close Test (2)
1. (
d)
2. (
a)
3. (
e)
4. (
b)
5. (
b)
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6. (
a)
7. (
b)
8. (
e)
9. (
b)
10. (
a)
Close Test (3)
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (c)
9. (d)
10. (a)
PASSAGES
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there are questions on Passages to assess the candidate’s
knowledge of English Comprehension. The exam can consist of twenty to twenty five questions
from two to three passages.
From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions
are relatively easy if you are comfortable with the English language. In such kind of questions
you have to read the complete passage and its original meaning what the writer wants to
convey to the readers then only you will be able to solve these questions with better accuracy
and speed.
Here, we will practice few questions on Passages.
Practice Questions
Passage (1)
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the following question given below
it.
The two great epics, the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, were developed over a period of
centuries and perhaps put to writing in their present form in the second century AD. The
Mahabharata contain about 50000 verses and is the longest single poem in the world. Besides
the main story of the war between the Pandavas and the Kauravas, a number of the other
interesting stories are woven into the epic. The Bhagvat Gita, a later addition to the
Mahabharata, enshrines a philosophical doctrine and it is described the three path of salvation,
viz. Karma, Gyan, and Bhakti. The Ramayana, the story of Rama, is shorter than the
Mahabharata and is full of interesting adventures and episodes. These two epics have
influenced the thinking of millions of people for centuries. This period abounds in influence in
the development from early Vedic religion to Hinduism. There were many other shastras and
smrities. The shastras contained works of science and philosophy. For Example, the
Arthashastra by Kautiliya was treatise on the science of government. There were Shastras on
art, mathematics and other sciences. The smirities deals dealt with the performance of duties,
custom and laws prescribed according to the Dharma. The most famous of these is Manusmriti.
1. W
hat does the Bhagwat Gita enshrine?
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(a) A
bout 50000 poems or verses.
(b) A
lates addition to the Mahabharata
(c) T
he main story of the Kaurvas and the Pandavas
(d) T
he battle of Kurukshetra
(e) T
he philosophy of Karma and the Pandavas
2. W
hy are the Puranas important?
(a) T
hey symbolize the transformation from vedic religion to the Hinduism
(b) T
hey are the masterpiece example of secular literature written I treatises
(c) T
hey contain many shastras and smrities
(d) T
hey contain a lot of works of science and philosophy of Kautiliya
(e) N
one of these
3. W
hat is prescribed in the Manusmriti?
(a) A
philosophical doctrine depicting three paths of salvation
(b) A
treatise on the art of governing
(c) P
erformance of Karma and gyan as described in the Gita
(d) T
he right way of performing customs duties and the performance of law
(e) N
one of these
4. W
hen were the two epics written according to the author’s view?
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(a) I
n the second century AD
(b) A
fter the later additions to the Bhagwat Gita
(c) D
uring the period of Ram and The Pandavas and the Kauravas
(d) P
erhaps, over a period of centuries
(e) N
one of these
5. W
hat comprises the Mahabharata?
(a) A
single poem
(b) 5
0000 poems
(c) T
he Bhagwat Gita
(d) V
edic religious
(e) T
he concept of the sciences of governance
6. W
hich stories are woven into the longest poem of the world?
(a) T
he story of the longest single poem in the world
(b) T
he smrities and the shastras
(c) T
he stories from the Puranas
(d) A
treatise by Kautilya
(e) N
one of these
Direction: Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in the meaning as printed in bold
letter as used in context of the passage?
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7. E
pics
(a) H
oly
(b) p
oems
(c) D
etails
(d) R
eligious
(e) S
tory telling
8. T
reatise
(a) T
reaty
(b) W
ork
(c) T
opic
(d) K
nowledge
(e) T
reatment
Direction: Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as word printed in
bold letters as used in the passage?
9. S
ecular
(a) D
emocratic
(b) R
eligious
(c) C
ommunal
(d) R
ed tapism
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(e) L
iberal
10. F
amous
(a) K
nown
(b) B
est
(c) M
agnificent
(d) I
gnominious
(e) I
gnorant
Passage (2) (Allahabad Bank PO Exam)
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Rajendra stayed in a tiny hut with his goat. One day, his uncles tied it alongside the goats that
belonged to the village butcher. The butcher killed all the goats. Now, Rajendra's goat had a bell
around its neck. Rajendra found the bell. Scared that the boy would tell everyone he had killed
a stolen goat, the butcher gave Rajendra some money! His uncles met him and asked about the
money. 'Everyone wanted goat's meat today. My goat somehow ended up at the butcher's and
he sold its meat. This is my share', he replied. His uncles who owned twenty goats slaughtered
them all and went to sell the meat. But there was so much meat in the market that they got
only a few rupees for their goats.
Angry, they set fire to his little hut. Rajendra came home and found a pile of ash. Sadly he
gathered the ash in a bag and decided to leave the village. He walked till he reached a village
where he sat down under a tree to rest. Who was this stranger carrying a bag of ashes? The
villagers wondered. Rajendra's hut had been his dearest possession, so he said, 'It is the ash
from a sacred place'. The villagers asked him to sell it. But he refused. Rumor spread that a holy
man from the Himalayas had ash that could cure all misfortunes. He wanted no money, but it
was only right that you paid a coin. Soon the ash was all gone and in its place was a pile of
coins. Rajendra decided to return to his village. When his uncles saw him they asked Rajendra
his secret. Rajendra said, 'I sold the ash from my burnt hut and got this money'. His uncles burnt
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down their fine houses, gathered the ashes and set off for the village, but as soon as they
uttered the word 'ash', the villagers beat them! By then the villagers knew here was no magic in
the ash.
Angry, the uncles decided to kill Rajendra. They invited him for a walk and pushed him in the
river. A girl washing clothes nearby heard his screams for help. Being a good swimmer she
dived in. When she heard his story she thought of a plan. The next day Rajendra went to his
uncles' house with the girl, dressed in finery and said, 'When I fell into the river, she saved me.
She has a palace at the bottom of the river. Do come and visit us'. Saying this, they left in the
direction of the river, The uncles decided to follow Rajendra and cheat him of his newfound
wealth. So they ran to the river and dived into its deep waters. They were never heard of again'.
1. Why did the butcher slaughter Rajendra's goat?
(a) Rajendra's uncles had sold it to him
(b) He had stolen it as he did not have sufficient goats
(c) It was the healthiest of all the goats he had
(d) Rajendra agreed to let him if he was given a share of the profit
(e) None of these
2. Which of the following can be said about Rajendra's uncles?
(a) They treated Rajendra badly because they had not been on good terms with his parents.
(b) They were cunning thieves and had made a lot of money
(c) They were rich but were jealous of Rajendra's wealth
(d) They were creative and found indirect ways of helping Rajendra to make money
(e) They tried to drive Rajendra away from the village because they were ashamed of him
3. Why did Rajendra leave his village one day?
(a) He was so upset over the death of his goat that he could not bear to live there any
longer.
(b) He left in order to sell ash at a nearby village.
(c) He had lost his house in a fire set by his uncles.
(d) He was in search of a wife since he had no family of his own.
(e) His uncles refused him shelter and he had nowhere to stay after his hut burnt down.
4. Why did the villagers donate money to Rajendra?
A. They saw his bag of ashes and felt sorry for him.
B. They felt that it was their duty to help him in his time of trouble.
C. He misled them into thinking he had travelled all the way to the Himalayas.
(a) None
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(b) Both A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) None of these
5. How did Rajendra get his uncles to stop harassing him?
(a) He offered them all his wife's wealth
(b) He told them about his good luck so they decided to treat him well
(c) He pushed them into the river
(d) They realised they could not harm him and gave up
(e) None of these
6. What made the villagers angry with Rajendra uncles?
(a) The ash the uncles had sold them was useless
(b) They were asking an unreasonable price for the ash
(c) They thought the uncles wanted to cheat them just as Rajendra had
(d) His uncles had treated Rajendra very badly
(e) None of these
7. Why did the girl go into the river?
(a) She had to enter 'the river to wash her clothes
(b) She wanted to show off her swimming skills
(c) She wanted to save Rajendra
(d) She lived at the bottom of the river
(e) None of these
8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
A. Rajendra plotted with the villagers to teach his uncle a lesson.
B. Rajendra married the girl who saved him from drowning.
C. Rajendra uncles were very greedy.
(a) None
(b) Both (A) and (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) Only (C)
(e) None of these
Directions: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
9. STAYED
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(a) Delayed
(b) Remained
(c) Lived
(d) Postponed
(e) None of these
10. REST
(a) Balance
(b) Relax
(c) Calm
(d) Quiet
(e) Others
Directions: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
11. SACRED
(a) Devil
(b) Unfaithful
(c) Sinless
(d) Unholy
(e) Religious
12. GOOD
(a) Dishonest
(b) Incapable
(c) Unhealthy
(d) Unsuitable
(e) Disobedient
Passage (3)
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Angry taxi-drivers, lorry drivers and private car owner yesterday threatened “violent
opposition” to the Municipal Corporation’s proposed vehicle regulations to control the
emissions of carbon dioxide and other poisonous gases. “It will cost far too much. I simply can’t
afford it”, shouted one angry motorist, when questioned by this reporter, A bus driver added.
Why should the driver of a vehicle have to pay the on-the-spot-fine? This isn’t my personal bus,
I just drive it,”
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Taxi owners, too are incensed at the new regulations. “Why weren’t we consulted?” They
demanded angrily. “We will have to spend a lot of money getting taxis fixed in order to meet
these tough regulations. This will put up taxi fares at least by 25%. The public will suffer………….”
1. In what context did the vehicle drivers and car owners threaten a violent opposition?
(a) They were angry with the Municipal Corporation’s sudden vehicle regulation.
(b) They could not afford to get their vehicle regulations.
(c) They were afraid that the public would suffer.
(d) They were unhappy with the government.
(e) None of these
2. What did an angry motorist mean by “I can afford it”?
(a) He was unable to abide by the newly imposed regulations
(b) He did not own a personal bus.
(c) It was costly to get the vehicle fitted as the regulation demanded.
(d) The regulation was passed without sufficient notice and he could not afford the new
device.
(e) None of these
3. Why did the Municipal Corporation pass the regulation?
(a) It wanted the city to be clean
(b) It had the welfare of people in mind
(c) The cars and buses added to the level of pollution
(d) It would check harmful emissions from the vehicles.
(e) None of these
4. Why did the bus driver object to the regulations?
(a) He had to get his bus fitted to meet the new regulations
(b) He supported the other drivers in the city
(c) The bus was not a private bus
(d) He was made to pay the fine
(e) He was supposed to pay a fine for bus that didn’t belong to him
5. Which of the following was the outcome of the proposed regulations?
A. The driver were very angry
B. Taxi fares went up by 25 %
C. It helped to control poisonous emissions
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
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(d) A and C
(e) A, B, and C
6. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage?
(a) Bus drivers had to pay fine just for driving a bus
(b) Car owner could not afford to get their cars fitted
(c) Public would suffer because of the violent oppositions
(d) Taxi Owner were more angry than taxi drivers
(e) None of these
Direction: Which of the following is mot nearly SAME in meaning as word printed in Bold letters
as used in context of the passage
7. Proposed
(a) Offering
(b) Nominated
(c) Suggested
(d) Imposed
(e) Told
8. Regulations
(a) Laws
(b) Restrictions
(c) Ruling
(d) Rules
(e) Bills
9. Incensed
(a) Scented
(b) Angry
(c) Joyous
(d) Irritated
(e) Enjoying
10. Tough
(a) Difficult
(b) Smooth
(c) Stringent
(d) Partial
(e) Lenient
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Answer:-
Passage (1)
1. (
e)
2. (
a)
3. (
d)
4. (
e)
5. (
a)
6. (
e)
7. (
b)
8. (
b)
9. (
c)
10. (
d)
Passage (2)
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (e)
6. (c)
7. (e)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10. (b)
11. (d)
12. (b)
Passage (3)
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)
6. (e)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (c)
PARA JUMBLED
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Para Jumbled Tests to assess the
candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of five to
seven questions on the Para Jumbled Tests.
From the exam’s point of view it is very important to solve these questions and these questions
are relatively easy if you have a good English reading habit. In such kind of questions you have
to make a relation with the previous sentence and the next sentence then only you will be able
to solve these questions with better accuracy and speed.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Para Jumbled Tests.
Practice Questions
Para Jumbled Test (1):
Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. Fancy lights in shops and markets are switched on to attract the customers.
B. The festive atmosphere starts even before Dussehra.
C. Diwali is called the festival of light and is most eagerly awaited.
D. Everybody seems to be doing nothing bust shopping.
E. Months before it the shopkeepers are very busy in stocking up their shops
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F. The shops and goods are beautifully decorated and displayed.
1. Which of the above should be Fourth sentence?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) A
2. Which of the above should be the Second sentence?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
(e) E
3. Which of the above should be Last sentence?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) F
4. Which of the above should be first sentence?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
(e) B
5. Which of the above should be the Third sentence?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) D
Para Jumbled Test (2)
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Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaning
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. He noticed a very old man coming towards him.
B. He was leaning against the wall.
C. Abraham sat by the door observing all.
D. He looked very tired and hungry.
E. He was followed by an equality hungry boy.
1. Which of the above should be the fourth sentence?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) A
2. Which of the above should be the second sentence?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
(e) E
3. Which of the above should be the last sentence?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) A
4. Which of the above should be the first sentence?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
(e) B
5. Which of the above should be the third sentence?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
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(d) B
(e) D
Para Jumbled Test (3)
Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. I have gone through all the formalities and will be leaving India on 25
th
June
B. My sister has sponsored me to go to Australia for higher studies.
C. Could you meet us at the station, too?
D. Could you arrange for a good hotel for us for three days?
E. I’ll be arriving in Bombay on 23
rd
by Konark Express along with my parents.
1. Which of the above should be the fourth sentence?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) A
2. Which of the above sentence should be the second sentence?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
(e) E
3. Which of the above sentence should be the last sentence?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) A
4. Which of the above should be the first sentence?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
(e) B
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5. Which of the above should be the third sentence?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) D
Para Jumbled Test (4)
Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. To magnetize a screwdriver place it inside a direct current.
B. It becomes magnetized.
C. Remove it from the coil.
D. Place it just over iron fillings.
E. It attracts the iron fillings.
1. Which of the above should be the Second Sentence?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) A
2. Which of the above should be the first sentence?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
(e) E
3. Which of the above should be the last sentence?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) A
4. Which of the above should be the fourth sentence?
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(a) E
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
(e) B
5. Which of the above should be the third sentence?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) D
Para Jumbled Test (5)
Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. However the marketing reports are not good.
B. It is one kind of its kind in India
C. The company, now may bring down the price.
D. The product was launched six months back.
E. One of the reasons is that is that it is costly.
1. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
2. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
3. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?
(a) A
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(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
4. Which sentence should be fourth in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
5. Which sentence should come the Last in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Para Jumbled Test (6)
Direction: Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a meaning
paragraph and answer the questions given below it.
A. I called out his name.
B. It was indeed by old friends.
C. He looked around but did not see me.
D. I stopped to have a closer look at the person.
E. I saw a familiar.
1. Which of the following sentence should come second in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
2. Which of the following sentence should be third in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
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(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
3. Which of the following sentence should be fourth in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
4. Which of the following sentence should be last in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
5. Which of the following sentence should be first in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer
Para Jumbled Test (1)
1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
Para Jumbled Test (2)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Para Jumbled Test (3)
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (b)
Para Jumbled Test (4)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Para Jumbled Test (5)
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (c)
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Para Jumbled Test (6)
1. (
a)
2. (
c)
3. (
d)
4. (
b)
5. (
e)
SENTENCE COMPLETION TESTS
Introduction: In the SBI PO exam, there can be questions on Sentence Completion Tests to
assess the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar and composition. The exam can consist of
five questions on the Sentence Completion Tests.
Here, we will practice few questions on the Sentence Completion Tests.
Practice Questions
Direction: Pick out the most appropriate part to complete the given sentences.
1. The diary is ……………………..on the table…………………..the fire place.
(a) Laying, near
(b) Lying, by
(c) Kept, along
(d) Put, in
(e) Laid, by
2. They continued to move…………………….. ………………….the snow.
(a) Up, inspite
(b) On, despite
(c) Down, above
(d) On, inspite
(e) Along, below
3. A wise parent will ………………………his children…………………read good books.
(a) Want, and
(b) Persuade, against
(c) Want, who
(d) Dissuade, to
(e) Persuade, to
4. ……………………………..the quality of wood the table is not……………………….
(a) Pending, good
(b) For, good
(c) By, bad
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(d) Considering, expensive
(e) For, previous
5. One may find, even in democracy, that some live like kings in…………………..and some live
paupers in……………………………….
(a) Palaces, huts
(b) Homes, houses
(c) Places, shelters
(d) Hotels, slum
(e) Huts, palaces
6. You should never impose……………….your servants too…………………works.
(a) On, little
(b) Upon, much
(c) Upon, little
(d) For, much
(e) Against. Less
7. Had he worked…………………………..he………………….have passed.
(a) Harder, should
(b) Harder, could
(c) Hard, would
(d) Hardly, could
(e) Regularly, must
8. I leaned ……………………..the tree and ……………………to the wireless.
(a) Against, listened
(b) by, went
(c) on, heard
(d) against, sent
(e) towards, went
9. There…………………….a strong……………….last night.
(a) Was, air
(b) Blew, air
(c) Was, breeze
(d) Blew, wind
(e) Rained, rain
10. Birds usually blind their ………………………….the trees.
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(a) Nests, in
(b) Nests, on
(c) Homes, on
(d) Shelters, near
(e) Build, from
11. The Ganga…………………………..in the Himalayas and ………………………… into the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Comes, goes
(b) Originates, fell
(c) Rises, fall
(d) Flows, enters
(e) Flows, goes
12. For a long time I………………………… not decide whether I …………………………… talk to her or not.
(a) Will, can
(b) Should, could
(c) Could, may
(d) May, might
(e) Could, should
13. …………………………..money I had was spent…………………………..a toy.
(a) The, on
(b) The, little
(c) The few, on
(d) What, by
(e) The much, on
14. I sent an immediate…………………to his letter and I…………………… the same from you.
(a) Answer, expect
(b) Reply, expect
(c) Response, accept
(d) Addition, expect
(e) Letter, expect
15. I’ll……………………… my duties today as my mother is ……………………….better now.
(a) Resume, much
(b) Resume, very
(c) Join, rather
(d) Assume, much
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(e) Do, rather
16. He then……………………..to the president.
(a) Requested
(b) Told
(c) Appealed
(d) Lies
(e) Used
17. A……………….inquiry has been ordered against the minister.
(a) Wise
(b) Court
(c) Judicial
(d) Interred
(e) Judicious
18. Will you go to………………….your vote?
(a) Ask
(b) Cast
(c) Put
(d) Do
(e) Carry
19. Some one set his shop……………………..fire and ruined him completely.
(a) To
(b) Upon
(c) In
(d) On
(e) Into
20. I don’t like those who find……………………with me.
(a) Money
(b) Fault
(c) Happiness
(d) Errors
(e) Blunders
21. You have committed a ……………………..by telling her your secrets. Now she
can………………………..you.
(a) Error, threaten
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(b) Blunder, help
(c) Sin, use
(d) Crime, blackmail
(e) Blunder, blackmail
22. The lion sprang………………the cow and………………………..it in an instant.
(a) Upon, ate
(b) Upon, killed
(c) On, ate
(d) Over, injured
(e) On, bruised
23. He can’t …………………………..his name he is…………………………….
(a) Tell, illiterate
(b) Hear, deaf
(c) Sign, illiterate
(d) Write, uneducated
(e) Write, illiterate
24. He refused to………………………….my…………………………orders.
(a) Carry, new
(b) Comply, oral
(c) Obey, verbal
(d) Obey, strict
(e) Abide, casual
25. You…………………..finish your work………………you leave.
(a) Can, while
(b) Must, before
(c) Must, after
(d) Ought to, still
(e) May, so
26. If you not careful for your wealth will…………………………….
(a) Grow
(b) Dwindle
(c) Increase
(d) Die
(e) Stop
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27. The………………….on the government buildings on the Independence Day was so beautiful.
(a) Lighting
(b) Lightening
(c) Lightning
(d) Light
(e) Flag
28. I…………………..to go for daily gym sessions.
(a) Rather
(b) No
(c) Slightly
(d) That
(e) Not
29. Every………………….of India should respect…………………..constitution.
(a) Man, the
(b) Person, a
(c) Native, a
(d) Citizen, the
(e) State, its
30. Evening in Mysore are always…………………..and ………………………
(a) Long, short
(b) Cool, cold
(c) Cold pleasant
(d) Pleasant, cool
(e) Cool, litter
Answer:-
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (c)
8. (a)
9. (d)
10. (a)
11. (c)
12. (e)
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (a)
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (b)
19. (d)
20. (e)
21. (e)
22. (b)
23. (e)
24. (c)
25. (d)
26. (b)
27. (a)
28. (b)
29. (a)
30. (e)





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