This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
Full Exam Paper plus solution Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 1 SIDS data stored in the FMC Performance database are: (a) Standard Instrument Departures. X (b) Standard Information Departure Service. (c) none of the above. Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 2 In an EICAS system, Secondary Engine parameters move to the upper tube when: (a) the status mode is displayed. X (b) the event record is pressed. (c) MAX IND is reset. Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 3 A Level "B" alert message on EICAS requires: (a) prompt action. (b) time available action. (c) timely action. X Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 4 The Attitude Sphere Pitch and Roll Movement on an EADI are supplied from which of the following systems ? (a) TCAS. (b) IRS. X (c) GPS. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 5 The result of adding 11001 to 10110 is: (a) 101111. X (b) 111111. (c) 1011111. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 6 Convert the Octal number 723 to binary. (a) 011100100011. (b) 111010011. X (c) 111100011. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 7 The logic representation favoured by most designers is: (a) positive logic. X (b) negative logic. (c) positive/negative logic.
Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 8 The resultant of adding the binary numbers 1110, 101, 0011 is: (a) 10011. (b) 10110. X (c) 11010. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 9 A device used to convert analogue data into digital form is called: (a) a decoder. (b) an ADC. X (c) a DAC. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 10 An ADC converts: (a) a Digital input into a corresponding Analogue output. (b) an Analogue input into several Analogue outputs. (c) an Analogue input into a corresponding Digital output. X Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 11 A DAC converts: (a) an Analogue input into a corresponding Digital output. (b) a Digital input into a corresponding Analogue output. X (c) a Digital input into several Digital outputs. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 12 A disadvantage of a simple 3 bit output ADC is that it: (a) gives very poor resolution and is not very practicle. X (b) has a very slow conversion time. (c) has a very fast conversion time. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 13 The Tracking ADC uses: (a) an ADC in its circuitry. (b) a DAC in its circuitry. X (c) a Servomechanism in its circuitry. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 14 In A/D conversion what is the Quantisation interval ? (a) The time between successive analogue to digital conversions. (b) 2 raised to the power of n, where n = the number of bits in the A/D converter binary output. (c) The analogue voltage value between successive quantisation levels. X Module 5 . 4 . 1 Level 2 Q 15 An ARINC 429 digital data bus transmission line consists of: (a) a pair of conductors. X
(b) three wires. (c) a single conductor. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 16 The Boolean identity (A . 1 =): (a) A. X (b) 1. (c) 0. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 17 When both J and K inputs to a negative edge triggered JK flip-flop are logic 1, the Q output: (a) changes on every clock pulse. X (b) changes on every second clock pulse. (c) is always 1. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 18 The advantage of using an EXCLUSIVE OR gate rather than a BASIC OR gate is that a logic state: (a) 1 output is obtained when one input is logic 0 and the other logic 1. (b) 0 output is obtained when both inputs are at logic 1. X (c) 1 output is obtained when both inputs are at logic 1. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 19 The indeterminate state for the RS flip flop is when: (a) both inputs are logic 0. (b) both inputs are logic 1. X (c) the S input is 1 and the R input is 0. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 20 The speed of data transfer into a simple register using basic S-R bistables is uncontrolled. This is overcome by using: (a) master-slave bistables. X (b) parallel registers only. (c) synchronised clock pulses. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 21 If the word NOT is added to a proposition the operation is known as: (a) stopping. (b) negating. X (c) commending. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 22 In an Asynchronous Binary Counter the clock input is connected: (a) to each flip flop. (b) only to the last flip flop.
X (c) ROMs only. 1 Level 1 Q 27 An LED used in Fibre Optic applications is made of: (a) Indium Oxide. 11. (b) some types of RAMs. (b) the more negative voltage is logic 1. X (b) the physical equipment of the computer system. 6 . (c) heaters. 5 . Module 5 . dangerous EHT voltages exist at the: (a) Post Deflection Anode (PDA). X Module 5 . 11. (b) negative or the grid more positive. 10. X Module 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 26 Magnetic materials are used in: (a) EPROM. 6 .(c) only to the first flip flop. the cathode must be taken more: (a) positive or the grid more negative. Software is:(a) the operational program. 1 Level 2 Q 23 Negative logic means: (a) the more positive voltage is logic 1. 1 Level 2 Q 30 Power supply arrangements are such that the final anode is usually at . Module 5 . 6 . 1 Level 2 Q 24 In Computer Terms a Byte is: (a) a 4-bit word. (b) Gallium ****nide Phosphide. (c) Gallium ****nide Indium Phosphide. (b) an 8-bit word. 1 Level 2 Q 25 In a Computer System. Module 5 . Module 5 . Module 5 . 11. (c) both of the above. 1 Level 2 Q 28 To “brighten” a PPI tube. X (c) all voltages used are negative. 1 Level 2 Q 29 In a cathode ray tube. X (c) negative or the grid more negative. X (b) X and Y deflection plates. X (c) a 16-bit word. Module 5 .
(b) a red circle and an aural warning. 15. 1 Level 2 Q 37 Symbols coloured white on the EADI are: (a) warnings. a resolution advisory is indicated by: (a) an open diamond. (b) signal carrying cables. 15. X (c) power feeder cables. Module 5 . This is to ensure that: (a) the electrons will have zero deflection at this stage. X Module 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 31 Brilliance correction can be achieved by using: (a) low-level clamped trapezoidal pulses. 14. (c) de-focusing effects are kept to a minimum. 11. (b) with their leads open. (c) present status situation. 12. (b) cautionary warnings. Module 5 . (c) a red square and an aural warning. (c) trapezoidal pulses but not if blanking is being used. X (c) open circuit faults. (b) trapezoidal pulses but not if bright-up is being used. X Module 5 . (b) transient faults. 15. 1 Level 2 Q 36 In a TCAS system. 1 Level 2 Q 33 HIRF has most effect on: (a) flight control cables. Module 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 35 Fault ball indications are particularly useful for diagnosing: (a) line defects. X (c) C band frequencies. (b) the PDA facility will have the full effect.earth potential. X Module 5 . X Module 5 . X . (b) L band frequencies. (c) with their leads shorted. 1 Level 2 Q 34 Each GPS satellite transmits two: (a) X band frequencies. 15. 1 Level 2 Q 32 ESDS sensitive ICs are transported: (a) in plastic bags only.
1 Level 2 Q 40 The symbol used to represent a WAYPOINT on an EFIS display is a: (a) star. A mixture 3) Dew point is: a. An Element b. X Module 5 . The Temperature at which condensation actually occurs b. A compound c. If an object is placed between the focal point and the pole. 15. Total internal reflection c. 15. Newton’s 2nd Law c. 15. (b) Argon-Helium. The Temperature at below which condensation occurs c. (b) By switching the system off. (c) circle. X (b) square. (c) By pressing the test switch again. the image will be: a. Inverted and larger b. The Temperature at above which condensation occurs 4)Fibre Optics operate on the principle of: a. Newton’s 1st Law 2) Water is: a. Module 2 Module 2(Physics) 1) The gyroscopic principle of "Rigidity" operates on: a. (c) Helium-Neon. Virtual and on the opposite side . 1 Level 2 Q 38 The gas found in an IRS Laser Gyro is: (a) Hydrogen.?? b.?? 5)In a concave mirror. X Module 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 39 How is the EICAS BITE test cancelled ? (a) By pressing the erase button.Module 5 . Real. Newton’s 3rd Law b.
Real. Sound Wave b.273 c. The water will boil at a higher temperature than sea level b. The water will boil at a lower temperature than sea level 7)An atom that has lost an electron is: a. Positively Charged b.000ft: a.s) a.100 10)842 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to: a.8 m/s/s) a. 40m/s c.c. erect and diminished 6)For a fixed mass of water at sea level ISA conditions and at 10.6g c. Stress divided by strain c. Stress multiplied by Strain b. Radio Wave 12) An astronaut blasting off from Earth experiences a G-Force of? (Take g as 9.2 degrees Celsius 11)Which of the following is an example of a Longitudinal Wave a.s That’s all I can remember at present but will try get more. The water will boil at the same temperature as sea level c.7g 13) A ball is dropped from rest.400 Degrees Celsius b. What is its speed after 4 seconds? (Take G as 10m/s.450 Degrees Celsius c. Light Wave c. There were a lot of questions bases on the Pressure=Force/Area equation and also manipulating . 80m.-173 b. Negatively Charged c.5g b. 20m/s b. Strain divided by stress 9)100Kelvin in degrees Celsius is: a.232. It possesses no charge 8)Young’s modulus of elasticity is: a.
30m/s 3)A lifting machine moves an effort a distance of 200cm in order to raise a load by .20 5)A motorcycle of mass 400kg is moving at a velocity of 8m/s.0.formula in general.800g/m3 c.45m/s c.s) a.320 kgm/s b.80kg/m3 7)The density of CU is 8.4 c. substances which retain their original form c. viscosity of a liquid decreases with increasing temperature c. I have also included past questions from Shannon Aerospace Physics exam in the past.9 b.3200 kgm/s c. elements in fixed ratios b.Its density is: a.5m.The Velocity Ratio is: a. Find the coefficient of Dynamic Friction:-(take g as 10m/s.900kg/m3.1/20 b.Calculate its momentum: a. two or more substances mingled together 2) A ball is dropped from rest.8.what is its relative density: a. 1) Compound are made up of: a. What is its speed after 3 seconds?(take G as 10m/s.90m/s b.8.40 4)A force of 15N is needed to move a body of mass 30kg along a footpath with uniform velocity.890 8)How does the viscosity of a liquid change with temperature: a. viscosity of a liquid increases with increasing temperature b.800kg/m3 b.25 b.89 c.1/2 c.50 kgm/s 6)The specific gravity of Meths is 0.s) a. Viscosity of a liquid does not change with temperature .
Headlights b. when the object is inside the focus 11)A convex mirror forms a virtual image when: a.0. when the object is placed at the centre of curvature b. the object is inside the focus b.9)Which of the following 2 points are equal: a. Periscope 17)What is the wavelength of a note of frequency 1kHz when its velocity is 340m/s: a.5kJ 15)Which of the following has no units: a.5N b.34m b.40 degrees C and 40 degrees F b.-32 degrees C and 0 degrees F c.34km .212 Degrees 14)What work is done if a force of 100N moves a body 15metres: a.0.3.-40 degrees C and -40 degrees F 10)When is the only time a concave mirror forms a virtual image: a. Rear View Mirror c.1500kJ c.The resultant is: a. Stress b.1. Elasticity 16)A Concave mirror is used for: a.148 Degrees c.4m c.0. Strain c.30 Degrees b.7N c. always c. when the object is at the focus c.15mJ b.1N 13)What is 100 degrees Centigrade in Fahrenheit: a. the object is at the centre of curvature 12)Two Vectors are at 90 degrees to each other having magnitudes of 3N and 4N.
I can remember them going on a about local oscillators and various other in-depth areas" • What do you get when you add 2H2 and O2 a) 2H2O b) 2HO c) 2H20 • A gyroscope suffers from apparent wander this is caused by a) Friction on the gimbals and bearings b) The aircraft flying along a north south track c) The earth’s rotation • The splitting of a chemical compound is called a) Analysis b) Bombardment c) Synthesis • The specific heat capacity of a gas heated at a constant pressure.. Increased b. Decreased c.Physics Module 2 – Physics A note from the Sender. I only remembered a few as they were straight over my head.. My last paper contained about six or seven questions.18)If the speed of a gyro is increased. "A good thing people should be made aware about the B2 exam is the depth that they go into on fibre optics. the force required to precess the gyro is: a. Remains the same Mod2 Module 2 Module 2 . will the specific heat capacity of the same gas heated at a constant volume a) Be the same b) Less c) More • A time period of 10 microseconds is equal to a frequency of a) 10KHZ b) 1MHZ c) 100KHZ • When heat flows from a hot area to a cold area it is called a) Convection b) Conduction c) Radiation .
• A quadrature component of a vector is a) 1800 to the original b) 450 to the original c) 900 to the original • Attenuation in fibre optic cables is caused by a) Backscattering and microbends b) Absorption and scattering c) Microbends and scattering • In a fibre optic flying control system a) The sensor needs electrical power b) The sensor and transmitter require electrical power c) The sensor inputs to the transmitter.8 rise in 0F • Adiabatic compression is when a) Kinetic energy is gained b) A compression cycle where no heat is lost or gained c) Where heat is given of to the surroundings • The addition of 2 separate vectors to produces a vector called the a) Sum b) Resultant c) Component • What is the momentum of a ball of mass 2 grams and has a velocity of 10cm/s a) 0.911 rise in 0F b) 33 rise in 0F c) 1.0002kgm/s b) 20Kgm/s . which needs power to send the signal down the fibre optic cable • 1 Newton is equal to a) 1 Joule per second b) 1 kilogram of force c) 1 kilogram meter per second per second • 1 degree rise on the centigrade scale will cause a a) 0.
c) 5Kgm/s • What is the atomic number? a) Number of protons in an atom b) Number of electrons in an atom c) Number of neutrons in an atom • What is the mass number? a) Number of electrons and protons b) Number of neutrons and protons c) Number of electrons and neutrons • What is the kinetic energy of a plane of mass of 2 metric tonnes and has a velocity of 2m/s a) 4Kj b) 2Kj c) 0.2Kj • In fibre optics the type of cable chosen by a) Matching the diameter of the cable to the wavelength b) Distance required to travel c) The strength of signal needed • The most common good refrigerants are a) Water ammonia freon b) Water freon carbon dioxide c) Ammonia freon methyl bromide • The specific gravity of a substance is calculated by a) The density of the body divided by the density of water b) Density of the body squared c) Density of the body squared multiplied by the density of water • An atom with 3 free electrons is said to be a) Trivalent b) Pentavelent c) Covalent .
• The heat required to change a liquid to a gas is called the heat of a) Fusion b) Vaporisation c) Condensation The 'Sl' unit of Mass is a) The pound (LB) b) The metre (m) c) The Kilogram (kg) The Sl base unit of length is: a) The centimetre b) The kilometre c) The metre The Sl unit of acceleration is: a) The square metre (m2) b) The metre per second squared (m/s2) c) The metre/second (m/s) The Sl unit of density is a) The cubic metre (m3) b) The Pascal (Pa) c) The kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m3) The Sl unit of energy is a) The Joule (J) b) The Watt (W) c) The Pascal (Pa) Ten kilograms is expressed numerically as a) 10kg b) 1 Mg c) 10K A force of 10 million Newton's is expressed numerically as a) 1 MN b) 10mn c) 10MN 1. An atom consists of: .
high condensing pressure High condensing temperature. Stress is given by: Force per unit area 5. The maximum number of electrons in the inner shell of an atom is: 2 4 8 3. Temperature is a measure of: Heat energy of particles The amount of vibration of particles . high condensing pressure 4. An atom with five electrons in its outer shell is: Covalent Pentavalent Trivalent 8. An object accelerating down a slope would gain kinetic energy: Equal to the potential energy lost Greater than the potential energy lost Less than the potential energy lost 6. Produced quality of sound depends on: Frequency and harmonics of the waves being produced Pure sine waves being produced by the source Quality of the receiver 7. A good refrigerant has: High condensing temperature. neutrons and electrons 2.Protons and electrons Protons and neutrons Protons. low condensing pressure Low condensing temperature.
Particles vibrating in air: Produce waves Tend to give off heat 14.The force which opposes twisting deformation in a material is: Strain Stress Torsion 15.Precession in a gyro is: Inversely proportional to the magnitude of the torque applied Proportional to the magnitude of the torque applied Proportional to the square of the magnitude of the torque applied 13.If 5kg of ice melts it would: Take up less volume Take up more volume Take up the same volume 11.In a heat pump: Flow across the condenser is always in one direction The compressor gains heat The condenser loses heat 12.9. The weight of an object in air suspended in gas or liquid would: Decrease Increase Stay the same 10.Heat received from radiation is: Inversely proportional to the distance from the source Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source .A gyro with a fixed point free to rotate in three axis is: An earth gyro A space gyro A tied gyro 16.
The mass of a proton equals the mass of a: Beta particle Electron Neutron 22.A converging lens can focus light rays: Because it is a sphere Because the incoming rays are already converging Because the light rays travel more slowly in the centre 20.What is the speed of sound in air at 0 degrees C: 331 metres per second 25.A force perpendicular to a beam is: Compressive Shear Tensile 24.When light rays enter a medium with a different refractive index: They change speed 19.What temperature scale is used with the Combined Gas laws: Centigrade Fahrenheit Kelvin .Two sound waves of close frequency could be heard as: A beat Two distinct sounds Two varying sounds 21.Proportional to the distance from the source 17.For a diffusing lens the image is: Behind the lens Beyond the lens 18.Catalysts: Slow down reactions Speed up and slow down reactions Speed up reactions 23.
26.What is the speed of light in air: 300 000 kilometres per second 27. of equal frequency: A standing wave is formed The two waves cancel each other out They have no effect on each other .Graded index fibre optic cable: Has a variable refractive index across its cross sectional area 31.5.Mass number is equal to: The number of protons and electrons in an atom The number of protons and neutrons in an atom The total mass of an atom 30.For a concave lens the image is A chromatic orb Real Virtua 33.81 metres 10. What is the speed of the ray in the cable: 200 000 kilometres per second 300 000 kilometres per second 400 000 kilometres per second 28.If a wave travelling to a point meets a wave.Focal length is equal to: Half the distance between the centre of the sphere and the mirror 29.19 metres 32.To what height would water rise in a tube given the pressure is 1 bar: 9. from that point.If a ray of light enters a fibre optic cable with refractive index 1.
If a fluid moves slowly it has: High viscosity Low viscosity Medium viscosity 36.What shape is a venturi tube: Gradually tapers to minimum cross sectional area Maximum cross sectional area in the centre Minimum cross sectional area in the centre 35.What is the energy required to change state from solid to liquid: Heat of fusion Heat of vaporisation Specific heat-------------------Module 11 1) Air above mach 0.1MHz a) ILS b) VOR c) COMMS 5) At what colour does a yellow fuseable plug on a wheel melt at? a) ? b) ? c) ? .34.What is boundary layer: Air at the wing vortices Laminar flow over the wings reducing drag 37.7 is a) compressible b) incompressible c) compressible only when above the speed of sound 2) spongy brakes are usually a result of a) air in the system b) internal leakage c) external leakage 3) Over inflated tyres may cause damage to a) wheel hub b) wheel flange c) brake drum 4) what is 111.
Have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. a drill b. Looking through the hole and checking for threads showing . The pot life of a cold cured resin: a. Decreases with an increase in temperature * ATTITA composite notes/CAIPAL7-6 6. A close tolerance fit c. Attempting to pass locking wire through the hole c. Dzuz Fasteners provide: a. Locally manufactured concave knife c. Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces* c. Quick release fasteners at inspection panels * naval hardware 5. Increases with increase of temperature b.6) Above the critical mach no. Take up initial slack by additional pulleys c. the drag coefficient will a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same 6) Oxygen cylinders are removed from a/c and tested every a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 6 years (maybe 4 years was an answer) Modules 6 and 7 1. For easy hammering into position b. Use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet 2. To correctly tension cables it can help to: a. Aircraft skin is joggled to: a. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by: a. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with: a. Make a frame lighter but stronger 4. Is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations c. Attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole *CAIP3-7 b.* CAIP AL/3-7 b. Conform to the Area rule b. A Router* CAIP AL/7-6 3.
A full list of decals would be found in a. a Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of a. Resin to hardener ratio is 100:45. What will the actual reading be . 47 grammes b. Natural rubber Vegetable based fluid c. Radiused quadrants c. ANOs b. 27 grammes * c. Numbers and Letters *A&P General Sect 7 11. 145 grammes 14. Numbers b. Aircraft log book 8. Numbers and letters 10. Letters c. Maintenance schedule c. Synthetic rubber Mineral based fluid CAIP AL/3-21 9. A series of numbers b. how much hardener is used with 60 grammes of resin a.7. Cable is wrapped with lubricated hessian sleeve b. The specified torque for loading a bolt is 50ils/ins but an extension of 2 ins is needed to reach the bolt in addition to the 8inch torque wrench. Fairleads * naval hardware 13. A series if letters *CAIP BL/9-1 c. Use the old one to apply the set c. Butyl rubber. Ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure *CAIP 3-13 b. Always pressure test before fitting 12. The British system of heat treatment codes is a. ethylyne propolyne or Teflon * Phosphate ester based fluid b. What is used to prevent chaffing of a cable through a bulkhead a. When fitting a replacement flexible hose a. The American system of heat treatment codes uses a.
Red 16. AS 162-408 . The distance between two holes *CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch) b. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material c. 1/8 inch b. Upgrade as primary * c. ¼ inch c. 54lbs/ins b. Repairs which can be made whilst the aircraft is enroute c. supports or jury structure and some dismantling * 20. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of a. What is meant by the term Major Repair a. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either primary or secondary what action should you take a. Yellow b. Repairs which require the use of special jigs. Yellow b. What is meant by the term Pitch ratio a. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets 19.a. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary 18. Red * 17. 60lbs/ins 15 What colour is used to identify a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing a. 1/16 inch * CAIP BL/6-27 21 What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given. Green * c. Grade as secondary b. Repairs which can be made without dismantling for access and do not require the use of specialist tools b. Green c. What colour is used to identify a primary structure on a diagram or drawing a. 40lls/ins * CAIP BL-30 c.
1 inch length b. 60 to 80 psi c. as many times as required 26. Peened . 4 hours 25. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F a. 1 inch c. 1/8 inch dia. The rivet length is in graduations of 1/8 inch 23. Place the rivets in a refrigerator set at 0 deg C to 5 deg C for a max of 45 hours * CAIP/BL6-27 27. How can age hardening be delayed a. 20 to 60 psi b. 7/8 inch b. Solid rivets made from BS L37 will age harden after heat treatment. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F a. When fitting Rivnuts how are they secured and prevented from rotating a. Three times * CAIP/BL6-27 c. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch c. In what period of time must the rivets be used before re-treatment is required a. What would the marking . Twice only b. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. 40 to 60 psi 24. If no more in stores. ½ inch dia. 2 ½ hours c. ½ inch 25. Indicates close tolerance rivet * CAIP BL/6-27 b. ½ inch length * CAIP BL/6-27 22. Keep the rivets in a warm oven at a temp of 118deg C for a max of 60 hours c. ½ inch length c.a. 2 hours * CAIP BL/6-27 b. Dip the rivets in a salt bath for a period of time b. ¼ inch dia. What is the max number of times that they can be retreated a.5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet a.
Be unchanged 5.axis (c)Wing chord and tail plane chord 7. The optimum angle of attack is the angle at which the: (a)Aerofoil produces maximum lift (b) Aerofoil produces least drag (e) The highest lift drag ratio is produced 6.) Move rearwards (c) Remain stationary 4. Locked at the rear c.b. lift will:a.Air flow around a wing causes (a) Increase in speed and decrease in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and an increase in pressure over the lower surface (b) Decrease in speed and pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and decrease in pressure over the lower surface (c)Increase in speed and pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and pressure ouer the lower surface 2.Angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle between:(a)Wing chord and free steam airflow (b )Wing chord and longitudinal. The centre of pressure is the:(a) Point on the chord line through which the resultant lift force acts (b)Point of maximum pressure on the lower surface of a wing (c)Point through which the resultant of all the weight forces act 3.)Move forward (b. 5 Part 1 MODULES 3. 4 . A locating key * CAIP BL/6-28 Modules 3. A wing of 40 ins chord has a thickness/chord ratio of 10%. 4 5 Part 1 1. The thickness would be:- . Form drag and skin friction together are known as: (a) Parasite drag (b) Profile drag (c) Induced drag 8. 1. If the angle of attack is increased the centre of pressure will:(a. Increase b. With an increase in air density. Decrease c.
The waisted fuselage on some modern aircraft in the vicinity of the wings is due to: (a) Manufacturing problems (b) The application of area rule (c)Radar interference problems 15. A Mach Triimner is a device which: (a) Automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region . The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over normal length is: ( a) 3% (b) 5% ` (c)2% 16. 11.(a) 4ins (b) 0. (c) Prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No (d) Switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range 14. The critical Mach No is the: (a) Mach No when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound (b) Mach No when a shock wave forms at the leading edges (c) Aircraft Mach No when the airflow at some point on it reaches the speed of sound 12. The fin helps to give: (a) Directional stability about the longitudinal axis (b) Directional stability about the normal axis (c) Longitudinal stability about the normal axis . When the right rudder pedal is rooved forwards the: (a) Rudder moves to the left .4 (c)10 ins 9.(a) Surface roughness (b) Lift being produced (c) Frontal area 10. Induced drag is due to: . When the flaps are lowered on landing approach the aircraft will: (a) Pitch nose up (b) Pitch nose down (c) Lose Iift rapidly 17. An aeroplane flying above the critical Mach No will usually experience:(a) A nose down pitch (b)A nose up pitch (c) An oscillation in pitch 13.
A geared balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface: (a) Operating automatically to assist the pilat moving the surface (b) Operating automatically to provide feel to the controls (c) Operating independently by the pilot to remove excessive loads from the controls 19. Ieft spoilers remaininq retracted (b)Left spoilers extending.(c) Rudder servo tab moves to the right (d) Rudder moves to the right I8. Control surfaces are mass balanced to: (a) Eliminate control flutter (b) Aerodynamically assist the pilot move the controls (c) Provide equal control forces on all three controls 25. servo tab c. right spoilers remaining retracted (c)Left and right spoilers extending 23. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. how does the 'feel' vary? (a) In proportion tp distance of control column from neutral (b) With aircraft speed and control surface deflection (c) With aircraft speed and air density . A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving autoana.lers extending. An anti balance tab is used to: (a) Trim the aircraft (b) Relieve stick loads © Give more f eel to the controls 20. trim tab b. by: (a)Right spoi.tically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a a. Aerodynamic balance is used to (a) Prevent flutter of the control surfaces (b) Make the control surfaces easier to move (c) Reduce the control surface Ioad to zero 24. Down movement of the elevator trim tab will: (a) Make the aircraft nose heavy (b) Overcome a tendency for the aircraft to fly nose heavy (c) Overcome a tendeney for the aircraf t to fly tail heavy 22. roll to the right is caused. In a simple spring feel unit . geared balance tab 21.
26. In a fully powered control system, how is the aircraft directionally trimmed about the normal axis? (a) By aileron trim tab (b) moving the balance tab on the rudder (c ) Repositioning the rudder surf ace 27. Stressed skin constructios is: (a) A method of fitting skins under tension (b)A structure in which the skin is load bearing (c) A process in which skin and stingers are machined from solid 28. A monocoque structure: (a) Has no supporting members, all the loads being taken by the skin (b) Has some supporting members to help the skin take the loads (c) Is made entirely from one single piece of metal 29.An integrally machined structure has (a)Stiffeners attached to the skin by bonding (b) Stiff eners attached to the skin by welding (c)Has skin and stiffeners machined from a solid block 30. Fuselage frames are numbered to: (a) Give an easy reference for location of components etc (b) Ensure that frames are manufactured to the correct specification (c) Aid the manufacturer on assembly in the jig 31.A wing spar is subject mainly to a. Bending loads b. Tensile loads (c) Shear loads 32 . A f ail safe structure has : (a) A higher than normal safety factor (b) A containment shield around a jet engine to prevent fuselage damage in event of engine failure © Suff icient strength to permit continued operation for limited time after failure of part of the primary structure 33.When compared with pure aluminium, how would the corrosion resistance of aluminium alloy be best described? (a) Superior (b)Inferior (c) About the same 34. What is the name of the anti-corrosive process applied to some aliminium alloys? (a) Chromating (b) Anodising (c) Livingstoning 35. Which of the following factors make titanium more preferable than mild steel? (a) Strength/weight ratio (b)Low cost of production (c) Better machining properties (ie easier to cut, file,drill etc)
36. What is used to bond laminated sheets of carbon fibre together to produce carbon fibre reinforced plastic structure? (a) Phenolic formaldehyde (b) Polyester resin (c) Epoxy resin 37.What is the purpose of a fatigue meter? (a) It gives the pilot a visual indication of 'G' loads (b) It absorbs loads and registers proof stress (c) It measures loads which are used in the calculation of fatigue life consumption 38. What is meant by the term allowance when riveting? (a) The difference between hole diameter and rivet diameter (b) The amount of rivet shank allowed to form the tail (c) The spacing distance in a double lap joint 39.A close tolerance standard hexagon is identified by (a) A raised disc on the head (b) An embossed ring on the head (c) By a green dyed finish 40.Which of the following close tolerance fasteners does the hexagon part of the nut torque off? (a) Lockbolt (b) Unfixed close tolerance bolt (c) Hi-lock fastener 41. Bending stresses are a combination of: (a) Tension and shear stresses (b) torsional and compression stresses (c)Tension and compression stresses 42. What is used in the neutralising procedure following the spillage of battery acid? (a) A dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate (b) A washing of distilled water (c)An application of a coat of Vaseline 43. What is the effect of immnediate refrigeration (-15°C to -20 ° C ) after solution treatment of alminium alloy components? (a) To suspend natural ageing for a limited period (b) To increase the rate of artificial ageing (c) To soften the metal permanently thus retarding fatigue 44. What causes stress corrosion cracking? (a)A large area of visible corrosion (b) A combination of a steady tensile load and a corrosive condition (c)Overstressing the structure 45. Carbon Reinforced Pl.tic (CRP~ is: (a)Stronger than GRP (b) Weaker than GRP (c) As strong as GRP 46. 'HI-LOCR` fasteners must be, (a)De-greased before use (b)Fitted using a torque wrench (c) Installed 'as received' from stores
47 Under the 'Hole Classification' system, close tolerance bolts are:- (a) Close Ream and Class III (b)Close Ream and Class I (c)Classes I and II 48.In a hydraulic retraction system, operation in the correct order is achieved by , (a) Sequence valves (b) Non-return valves (c) Shuttle valves 49. Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure can be checked: (a) At any time (b) With the system depressurised (c) With the system pressurised only 50.What does a triple redundancy equipped aircraft in a single hydraulic system failure condition use-for primary control? (a) Balance tabs (b) Standby pump system started by the crew (c) The remaining hydraulic systems
An FMS SYSTEM, BESIDES CONTROLLING NAVIGATION, THRUST AND AUTO-NAV, ALSO PROVIDES take off and landing warnings dedicated status and warnings gpws warnings What does the CADC feed alt/fms/sec radar stby alt / machmeter cab press ctrllr sensor / machmeter / altimeter The recording medium in an FDR is a HD floppy disk plastic tape coated with ferrite copper foil coated with ferrite CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a square wave sawtooth wave sinusoidal wave An ARINC 429 bus uses a twisted sheilded pair of wires two bi- directional twin sheathed and earthed wires a single twin wire cable for each transmitter The inputs and outputs of a CADC are pitot and static in;altitude, attitude;IAS and VS out pitot and static in; altitude, IAS, mach and VS out pitot in; static, altitude, mach ,IAS and VS out HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is
in view green out of view ARINC 573 is related to what system INS FDR WX RADAR The rising runway is positioned from information derived from barometric height vertical speed radio altimeter If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is digital analogue sychronous Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by position feedback amplifier gain calibration What information is required before completion of the alignment of an inertail navigation system aircraft present position aircraft present position and heading heading and attitude IRS accelerometers are mounted 60 degrees to each other 45 90 Fly by wire control is acheived by ailerons spoilers spoilers and ailerons Asingle failure of a fly by wire system has no effect on aircraft operation will limit flight profile will reduce operational heights and speeds ARINC 629 current mode couplers are .
what is the purpose of debooster valve in a hydraulic system: a. (B is the correct answer) 4. decrease the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. vor b. bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed 1 megohm 1 OHM 0.capacitive resistive inductive In order to maintain HIRF protection. loran c (c is the correct answer) 3. hold the wires b. yellow c.05 OHM EADI sky and ground display is provided by synthetic TV signals raster scan stroke pulse Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRU'S in periodic mode is in order of power up shortest to largest TG shortest to largest TI Module 11 Module 11 1. prevent chafing. b. what is the purpose of the p clip in the firewire: a. what is the colour band on a hydraulic seal a. white b. increasing the pressure and applying brakes quickly. dme c. white or yellow 2. (B is the correct answer) maintain constant pressure . which of the following uses hyperbolic curve a.
silicon. 20 watts b. 112 ohms resistance 3. ground spoilers angle is: a. 28 volt d. 70 watts power c.5. Potential difference is measured in a. circuit carrying a current of 4 amps will have a. c. 50 degrees 6. 115 volts ac 7. c. Electrics Multi Choice 1. 28 volts dc b. amps b.c. 100 watts 2. 7 ohms resistance b. fuel b. fuel cross feed valves are supplied with a. 60 degrees (B is the correct answer) c. 30 degrees b. special lubricant. ohms c. fuel cross feed valves are lubricated by: a. A circuit of resistance 4 ohms carrying a current of 5 amps has a power loading of a. volts . battery power. 80 watts c.
multiplying e.f. current = e. by resistance 7. Individual resistance of 10 ohms. volts b. amps c. 17 ohms c.4.m.m.m. e. by current c. by current b. 10 ohms and 5 ohms connected in parallel have a .f. Ohm's law states that a. 6.m. Individual resistance’s of 2 ohms. = current divided by resistance b. The power of a circuit in watts may be found by a.f. resistance = current divided by e. dividing e.25 ohms b.f.f. 100 ohms 8. multiplying e.m. divided by resistance c. ohms 5. 10 ohms and 5 ohms connected in series have a total resistance of a. 1.m. Current is measured in a.f.
Three resistors. With the 2-prong lead of a bonding tester shorted out by the single-prong lead.5 ohm 10. 2.5 ohms b. During a bonding test. attached to the component under test while the single-prong lead is used as a probe 12. 25 ohms c. 0. 0. Their total resistance is a. prevent compass malfunction and local accumulation of static charge c. used as a probe b. Bonding is used on an aircraft to a. the double-pronged lead is a. a a.total resistance of a. 2 ohms c. 22 ohms b. provide a low-resistance path for earth return and to equalize potential throughout the aircraft 11. of 4. isolate all electrical circuits to prevent accidental operation of components b. minimum of 10 megohms will be registered b. zero reading will show .4 ohm 9. are connected in parallel. 12 and 6 ohms. attached to the main aircraft earth c.
c. b.g.g. 15. 28 volt wild d. 12 volt at 20 amp for one hour c. The correct electrolyte for a charged lead-acid battery is a.c.g. Two 12-volt batteries of 40 ampere-hour are connected in series. b.c. dilute sulphuric acid at 1. output from the generator is a. c.27 s. They will produce a.c.T. c. dilute potassium hydroxide at 1. 24 volt at 80 amp for one hour 14. 24 volt controlled d.c.310 s. dilute sulphuric acid at 1. tester is a . reduce the supply to the circuit then the generator output is too high 16. In a 24 d. maximum resistance reading will show 13.27 s. 17. An H. disconnect the supply to the circuit in the event of an overload b. act as an additional protection in case the fuse fails to rupture c. 28 volt controlled d. Circuit breakers are fitted in circuits to a. 24 volt at 40 amp for one hour b. electrical system.
In a simple electric circuit. with voltage constant. constant c. 19. the sum of the currents taken by the devices divided by the number of devices b. low-voltage. generator is controlled by a. in the power-consuming devices connected in parallel. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled. wiring between the bus bar and the item of equipment going to aircraft earth c. current in the field circuit b. high voltage ohmmeter 18. a broken conductor between the bus bar and the item of equipment b. the sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the devices. Output from a d. low-reading ohmmeter b. a resistor in the generator output circuit c. A short-circuits in a "single pole" circuit could be caused by a. the current will be a.a. the total current consumed is a. the sum of the currents taken by the devices c. the resistance in the armature circuit 21. doubled 20. an open circuit between the item of equipment and aircraft earth . halved b.c. high-reading ohmmeter c.
applied voltage. combined series and parallel 24. Capacitance of a capacitor depends on a. 80% Module 5 Multi Choice .part 2 300. continuity. applied voltage and plate area 25. 90% c. insulation c. insulation 23. continuity. bonding. charging current. series c. Thermo-couples in a jet pipe temperature system are connected in a. 50% b. parallel b. The tests to be carried out on an aircraft circuit are in the order a. insulation. bonding. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of a. bonding b.22. distance between plates. continuity. Passive sensors in fibre optics a) require power for the processing signal before they send them down the fibre optic b) require no power and they do not process signals # c) process the signal but do not require power . plate area and dielectric material b. plate area and dielectric material c.
Optical fibre losses are due to a) absorption only # b) absorption. This means it is # a) set b) reset c) intermediate 307. scattering and reflection c) radiation. octal and binary numbers c) hex. In a bi-stable memory circuit # a) the memory is lost as soon as power is removed b) the memory is retained indefinably c) the memory needs to be refreshed constantly. absorption and reflection 309. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this information can be a representation of a) binary. the input voltage # a) stays on constantly b) is switched by the digital input c) is intermittent 306. octal and decimal numbers 304. Fibre optic data bus links are # a) bi-directional b) one way data buses c) simplex 303. even when power is on 305. ARINC 629 utilizes # a) full duplex b) half duplex c) simplex 308. in an analogue to digital converter. octal or decimal numbers # b) hex. An LCD display uses what type of power supply? # a) Continuous AC b) Variable level DC voltage c) DC voltage 302.301. In an RS flip flop output is one. The cone of acceptance is measured between # a) longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle b) the two outer angles c) the diameter of the core .
A centralised monitoring computer system is used a) to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit # b) to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit c) testing systems on the ground only 314. Fibre optic cables use a) reflective outer shell # b) refractive outer shell c) reflective inner shell . unmagnetised c) High frequency 313. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are # a) electromagnetism b) electrostatic c) solid state 316. An ALU is an example of # a) LSI b) SSI c) MSI 312. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses a) a pair of wires per transmitter unit # b) a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics c) a single wire 315. An R-2R Converter has values or resistance a) whose precision are accurate # b) whose relative precision are accurate c) whose precision are not accurate 311. A nand and nor to become a not gate have # a) inputs connected together b) inputs inverted c) outputs inverted 317.310. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using a) wave dividing multiplexing # b) time dividing multiplexing c) encoder 318. What does 1 represent in an analogue system? # a) Switches closed. magnetised b) Switches open.
Scales.D. what precaution are taken? # a) Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft b) First earth with aircraft then to it c) Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur . What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending? a) Quicker b) More information sent # c) Only one pair of conductors 322. In fibre optic cable. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS.I b) speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems # c) parallel input impedance 323. A terminal controller a) transmits only when addressed b)is repetitive transmitting # c) will transmit only once during each transmit interval 321. A sinusoidal circular time constant produces what output? # a) 90 degrees out of phase b) 180 degrees out of phase c) In phase 320. the lines. Indicator and Synoptic are generated by a) synoptic scan # b) stroke scan c) raster scan 325.319. Speed of computer process information depends upon a) the size of the programme # b) the time period to access the memory c) the external inputs to the system 326. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which "write once" and "read many" is # a) a CD Rom b) an IC c) a magnetic tape 327. In an EFIS display. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon a) size of S. signals are separated by # a) active optic filter b) passive optic filter c) low pass filter 324.
screening. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols. input & output port 329. A computer message 3B4 is a) binary b) octal # c) hexadecimal 336.U and # a) memory and input & output port b) register section. on an EADI is by # a) stroke scan b) raster scan c) trapezoidal input 332. A computer consist of at least the C. ALU. ALU. earthing. timing and control section c) memory.P. V/S scale etc. When carrying out HIRF maintenance on aircraft. Audio sounds recorded digitally a) are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors # b) are superior quality and "data preservation" c) are narrow bandwidth 334.05 ohms 335. In modern aircraft.328. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by # a) shielding. the output from the clock is used a) to synchronise the signals on the control bus # b) give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems c) to provide a clock pulse for CRT 333. the max resistance is a) 1 milliohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0. bonding and interference filters b) enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done c) coating in a conductive paint 330. The supply to an LCD is # a) AC b) current restricted DC c) voltage restricted DC 331. One of the ARINC 429 formats is a) hexadecimal # b) BCD c) octal .
all displays have 1 bit of information missing. within an EFIS display system. A computer using RAM would utilise a) a compact disc # b) an integrated circuit (chip) c) magnetic tape 342.337. When does voice data recording commence? # a) On engine start b) From aircraft take off run c) After take off when airborne 338. 2D in decimal is # a) 45 b) 43 c) 41 345. With a j-k flip flop which is the output set # a) q = 1 b) q = 0 c) either 343. The operational data base of the FMS may have to be modified in flight a) by the pilot b) automatically by the DADC # c) It cannot be modified in flight . What would be the most probable cause? a) Symbol generator and sensor input # b) Display controller and sensor input bus c) Display controller and symbol generator 341. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal # a) 2C b) 4F c) 2F 339. A heading reference of 320 degrees in a word label format would be written as a) 101010001 # b) 11010000 c) 01000111 340. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is a) on the glideslope b) below the glideslope # c) above the glideslope 344.
SAT # c) altitude. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is # a) 54 b) f4 c) 5f 354. mach no b) altitude .346. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is a) a clock signal # b) parallel data c) serial data 351. CAS. TAS. IAS. If one EICAS CRT fails # a) the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data b) the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data c) the standby CRT will automatically take over 353. roll and waypoints 355. on an EHSI in weather radar mode. TAT. TAT 349. Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial by a) a parallel register # b) a shift register c) a synchronous counter 350. An LED will emit light when # a) it is forward biased b) it is reverse biased c) either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied 347. vertical speed. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is # a) low power dissipation b) high voltage handling c) high power dissipation 352. EADI displays # a) pitch and roll attitudes b) heading and weather radar c) pitch. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on a) the EADI # b) the EHSI c) the FMC CDU 348. a severe storm would be shown as . SAT.vertical speed. vertical speed. mach no. angle of attack. CADC outputs are a) altitude.
The input bus into a central processor unit is a # a) one way bus b) bi directional bus c) two way bus 358. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to a) an AND gate # b) an OR gate c) a NOR gate . Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be # a) displayed of each individual display b) only no.a) orange areas with black or yellow surrounds # b) red areas with black surrounds c) blue areas with white background 356.1 c) can not be interchanged 363. 2 can be displayed on the no. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display by a) brighter clearer output b) more energy efficient # c) large viewing angle 360. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by # a) integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual b) An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format c) manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller 357. Most fibre optic connectors are designed so a) the receptacle has to torque to a designated torque to ensure correct alignment # b) the connectors can not be over tightened c) the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft 361. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested a) in the air only # b) on the ground only c) in the air and on the ground 362. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring ground station is a) TCAS II # b) ACARS c) TAWS 359.
A multiplexer # a) takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output b) takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output c) takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output 371. The CPU consists of a) register and arithmetic logic unit only # b) ALU. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during a) take-off b) gear retraction # c) forward motion 369. The ARINC 429 system uses the following system to transfer data a) non return to zero b) harvard bi phase # c) bi-directional return to zero . The light source used in fibre optics is # a) higher bandwidth than visible light b) lower bandwidth than visible light c) visible light 367. it's memory will # a) be lost indefinitely b) be saved indefinitely c) downloaded to memory 368. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from a) thin film resistors # b) transistors c) diodes 365. Software changes come under the responsibility of a) the national aviation authority # b) the aircraft constructor c) the engineer 370. timing and control section only 372.364. register c) register. timing and control section. To display a circle on a CRT you use a) 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase # b) 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase c) 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase 366. When the power is removed from a bi-stable memory device.
voltage mode coupler # c) data bus cable. data bus cable only b) data bus cable. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally. stub cable. Data bus cables are terminated using # a) 130 ohms resistor b) 100 ohms resistor c) 25 ohms resistor 380. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on which system? a) Flight management system # b) Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM) c) EADI 381. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes a) current mode coupler. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using a) bipolar return to zero # b) manchester bi-phase c) non return to zero 375. coils are placed on the neck of the tube a) one on the side. The Flight data recorder starts recording a) after take off b) on aircraft roll out from stand # c) after the first engine has started . one at the bottom b) each side # c) top and bottom 377. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT # a) secondary engine parameters b) synoptic display c) flight phase page 378. current mode coupler. stub cable 376.373. Who can design new software? # a) BCAR section A8 approved company b) BCAR section A1 approved company c) The CAA 379. Which of the following ARINCs are bidirectional? a) 429 # b) 629 c) 573 374.
The resistance of the magnetic coils of a C. Data to flight data recorder can be taken form a communal data bus if a) it goes directly to it b) the power is within flight data recorder limits # c) if source isolation has been considered 383.29 c) 11.10 megohms c) between the strap and the pin ground must be <. Is offset by using # a) trapezoidal voltage b) constant voltage c) saw tooth voltage 388.S. Of the data would be # a) bit 19 b) bit 11 c) bit 28 384.382. The name given to the joining of two fibre optic cables by aligning them carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is a) Fusion . the L. The BCD data field of arinc 429 is contained within bits a) 1.T. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits.R. In arinc 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. The major source of degradation of HIRF protection is a) corrosion b) damage to static wicks # c) radio filter break down 387.10 meghms 386.10 Megohms # b) between your skin and the pin ground must be <. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in a) horizontal axis b) circular motion # c) vertical axis 389. the resistance measured a) between the strap and the pin ground must be >. prior to removal of ESDS equipment. Light transmission in a fibre optic cable is due to # a) repeated internal reflection b) refraction of the light c) defraction of the light 390.8 # b) 11. After attaching a wrist strap to you wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground).B.28 385.
In a fibre optic cable a) only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time # b) multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time c) data can only be sent in one direction 392. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue in put and then back down when this is reached is a a) successive approximation counter # b) a tracking ramp type converter c) flash type converter 395. A central fault display system should be available through a) a bite test # b) a easily accessible multifunction control display unit c) a central bite test box with clear LED indications 394. how output impedance 399. where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop a) switch open / light on / Q b) switch closed / light off / Not Q # c) positive / magnetised / Q 393. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally # a) high input impedance. low output impedance b) high input impedance .# b) End to end c) Lens Coupling 391. Magnetic materials are used in . Radio altitude is displayed on a EFIS system a) on the Electronic horizontal situation indicator # b) on the electronic artificial direction indicator c) on the RMI 397. high output impedance c) low input impedance . Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to a) switch on the input b) switch of the inputs # c) change the state of the inputs 396. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording a) the last 25 hours b) the last 25 hours of aircraft flight # c) the last 25 hours with engines running 398.
The pins on an op amp are numbered a) clockwise # b) anticlockwise c) cross ways 401. What systems use base 16? . What systems uses base 10? # a) Decimal b) Digital c) Octal 408. Decimal 10 converted to binary is a) 1111 b) 1001 # c) 1010 407. What logic gate would this circuit represent? a) NAND Gate b) NOR gate # c) AND gate 406. To get logic 1 using this gate a) A or B = 1 b) A and B = 1 # c) A and B = 0 405. A parallel register # a) reads each bit to be stored simultaneously b) requires a clock pulse for each bit c) reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line 402. HIRF protection is in the order of # a) hardened skin and protecting wires / LRUs b) bonding as many parts of the aircraft as possible and a maximum resistance of 0. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to a) 38 b) 48 # c) 22 404.a) ROMs only # b) some RAMs c) EPROM 400.05ohms c) periodically turn off components whilst radio transmitting 403.
Analogue logic 1 is a) closed switch. The "light" emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength # a) slightly longer then that of visible light b) slightly shorter then that of visible light c) equal to that of visible light 417. BCD. Fibre optic cables consists of a silica glass core and # a) refractive outer cladding b) reflective outer cladding c) reflective inner cladding 411. ARINC 629 is transmitted using # a) fibre optics or twisted pair of wires b) single wire for each transmitter c) SWG 28 wire 414. Binary coded decimal. EADI pointers. format has a minimum of . dials and engine data is produced using # a) stroke b) raster c) electromagnetic waves 410. Fibre optics relies on a) fibre absorbing light # b) light reflecting off cladding c) light escaping cladding 416. Logic Q=0 # b) closed circuit. BITE for ground use only is switched off a) when breaks are released b) when undercarriage up # c) on take-off 415. Logic Q=1 c) open circuit 413.a) Octal b) BCD # c) Hexadecimal 409. The waveform to the coil of a CRT is # a) trapezoidal b) ramp c) analogue 412.
range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator # c) autoland. compass rose and flight director bars b) autoland.1011002? a) 1101112 b) 100011012 # c) 1101012 423.N. greater signal security. roll a) autoland. a EFIS system ADI displays pitch. an aircraft flies a) course directed by ground station # b) great circle route c) rhumb line 426. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning display comes from the a) EFIS channel of DMC3 # b) ECAM channel of DMC1 c) ECAM channel of DMC3 424. more robust 420. easier to manufacture and assemble. Fibre optic cable over copper cable has the following advantages a) non-conductive. Using I. rad alt. greater bandwidth # b) non-conductive. decision height and slip indicator 421. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system a) only one databus is required # b) two databuses are required c) four databuses are required 425. What warnings can an FMS provide? . altitude. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary? # a) 111110000110 b) 111110000001 c) 3974 422. decision height. greater signal security c) greater bandwidth. A simplex system has # a) 1 transmitter and multiple receivers b) 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal c) 1 bus controller and multiple receivers 419.S. What is 11000012 . greater bandwidth.# a) four "0s" or "1s" b) 2 lots of four "0s" or "1s" c) 3 lots of four "0s" or "1s" 418.
in an IN system. displays a) distance perpendicular from the selected track # b) difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track c) difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track 431. Control Display Unit. For an IRS System to pass the ‘Alignment System Performance Test’ the a) entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last power down b) the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered # c) the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU 429. selection of TKE aka Track Angle Error.only available on the ground # b) Lower screen only .only available on the ground c) In flight 432. when is the maintenance mode available? a) On the upper and lower screens .# a) Discrete warnings b) Spurious faults c) Ground faults only 427. What causes the X and Y beam deflections in an EFIS CRT display? # a) Electromagnetic b) Electrostatic c) Either 434. the purpose of the stable platform is to # a) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers b) provide attitude reference c) stop the gyros from toppling . Aircraft heading HDG is a) the angle between True North and the desired track b) the angle between True North and the actual track # c) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft 428. CDU. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out? a) When BITE selected b) After engine shut down # c) Continuously when system is in use 433. in the EICAS system. The accepted error from INS / IRS is a) 2 miles / hour + 3 miles b) l mile / hour + 3 miles # c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles 430.
The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted a) parallel to each other # b) 90o to each other c) 120o apart 440. XTK aka cross track is the a) angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track b) actual track across the earth’s surface # c) perpendicular distance from the desired track 438. Gyro-compassing is the term used for a) self-alignment in azimuth b) self alignment in the vertical # c) use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform 441. An IN system requires data from the a) doppler system b) satellites # c) air data computer 437. The output of an INS can be fed to a) vertical speed indicators # b) attitude indicators c) altimeters 439. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted a) parallel to each other # b) orthogonally c) 12Oo apart 436. The control of the speed or rate that the F/D Command bars move can be controlled by a) position feedback # b) rate or velocity feedback c) amplifier gain 443. Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to a) perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE # b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status c) perform in-flight BITE only 442.435. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation a) in the air only # b) on the ground only c) either ground or air .
if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will be # a) 16 b) 29 c) 11 452. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series? a) More information can be sent b) Takes less time # c) Saves weight 445. If part of a display is lost on a CRT. What is the function of a status register? # a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor b) To store a program during an interrupt c) To synchronise the clock pulse 449. this could be due to # a) an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor b) an inoperative symbol generator or control panel c) loss of power to the CRT . A DAC uses a precision amplifier to # a) ensure the output voltages remain accurate b) ensure the input remains accurate c) compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature 451. An ADC uses advance approximation to a) increase resolution # b) increase speed c) increase accuracy 450. A BCD word occupies bits 11-29. How is multiplication achieved in an ALU? # a) by addition b) by subtraction c) by coupling 448.444. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit a) when addressed # b) when terminal gap is sensed c) when signal gap is sensed 447. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus? # a) Yes b) No c) Only if paralleled 446.
453. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment a) periodically check bonding leads for condition # b) ensure all static wicks are in place c) transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference 454. Sensors in a fibre optic flight control system a) require power for processors # b) do not require power c) require processing to give output 460. A simplex system has # a) one transmitter. L. When a BITE test is carried out on a system with moving parts it should be a) carried out without operating moving parts # b) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated and taken to there stops c) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated but not to there mechanical stops 455. many receivers b) a bus controller and separate controller c) one transmitter.D.5V 461. An accuracy amp is used to a) give output at required level # b) compensate for temperature variation c) make output between 0 . different light frequencies are separated by # a) an active filter b) a passive filter c) a star network 458.s can give a) high definition displays b) red and green displays only # c) monochrome displays only . one receiver 456. The smallest operation of a CPU is # a) the timescale b) the processor sub-cycle c) the processor cycle 457. The most common CRT for an EFIS system screen is a a) electrostatic b) electromagnetic # c) combined 459.E. in a fibre optic system.
In fibre optics the wavelength of the light is a) less than visible light # b) more than visible light c) equal to that of visible light 467. Fibre optic systems can transmit data in a) one direction only b) in two directions # c) both directions at the same time 463.46 2. A typical example of a mass storage device is # a) CD ROM b) IC c) magnetic tape 469. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source in fibre optics a) higher bandwidth # b) lower frequency range c) lower intensity 468. In an R-2-R ladder converter the values of resistors # a) are precise b) do not need to be of precise values c) only the first resistor need to be precise 466. A typical example of an IC is a) ALU # b) CPU c) dip switch 470. A circular time constant produces what sort of output? a) in phase b)180o out of phase . For large bandwidth high-speed fibre optic transmission what sort of cable would you use? # a) Single mode b) Graded index c) Step index 465. When handling a PCB you should ensure that a) electrical power is isolated # b) ground yourself first to aircraft then PCB c) ensure you do not touch the ends so that copper contacts do not become contaminated 464.
which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions. is a a) Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer # b) Shift Register c) Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter 473. 1 # c) 1. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibre optic cable will be a) twice that of the cone of acceptance # b) approximately half that of the cone of acceptance c) parallel with the end of the cable 477.# c) 90o out of phase 471. 0 ----475. A fibre optic cable is connected to a unit that will not be frequently disconnected. 1 c) 0. A device. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320. What would be the outputs if A=0 B=0 C=1 # a) 0. 1 b) 1. 0 476. this is represented in bits 18 as # a) 01101000 b) 01011001 c) 00001011 ---474. A cyclic test should be performed for ECAM # a) during power up b) during in-flight c) MCDU . The preferred type of connector to be used is a a) Ball lens type # b) Butt type c) Quick disconnect type 478. Speed of light in a fibre optic fibre a) is always the same no matter what material it is # b) is never greater then the speed of light in free space c) increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index 472. 1 b) 1. What would be the outputs if A=1 B=1 C=0 a) 0.
What is octal 33in hexadecimal? a) 22 b) 11 # c) 1b 485. What is 44 in hexadecimal? # a) 2c b) 2d c) 2F 484. at low ambient temperatures. an LCD screen a) loses contrast # b) is slower to update as data changes c) viewing angle becomes larger 486. What is used for the power of 10? a) octal b) digital # c) decimald 483. What is EPROM? # a) erasable programmable read only memory b) enhanced programmable read only memory c) erasable programming read only module 481.479. Colour CRT shadowmask screen resolution is # a) 84 triads b) 400 lines per square inch c) 600 lines per scan 487. How is the symbol generator detecting the program error # a) looking at the odd parity without error b) looking at the even parity without error c) check sum bites for error detect 480. A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for # a) analogue to digital converter b) frequency divider c) digital to analogue converter . A CRT is # a) electromagnetic b) electrostatic c) solid state i 482.
A basic computer would consist of a) register section. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored? a) ALU b)Control unit # c) Memory unit 490. Where does the clock signal in a microiprocessor come from? a) ALU # b) Control unit c)Memory 489. An LCD display # a) has three colours only b) has infinite colours c) is monochrome 491. A B S 000 011 101 110 . in ARINC 629 aperiodic mode. aperiodic mode is used # a) for normal operation b) for landing and approach operation c) for database loads 493. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a seven segment digital display? a) Multiplexer b) Demultiplexer # c) Decoder 494. ARINC 629. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved? a) Via a twisted pair of shielded cables # b) Using two data buses c) Via a current mode coupler 495. input/output ports and CPU c) RAM/ROM and input/output ports ----496. LRUs transmit in order of a) power up # b) shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap c) longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap 492. ALU and timing and control section # b) memory.488.
As far as a software product is concerned # a) the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM b) the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component. c) the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase 504.497. # b) CMCS monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data. On an external power socket the two short pins are a) for the AC interlock circuit # b) to prevent arcing when inserting and extracting the socket c) used to act as a guide 500. c) CMCS modifies and upgrades BITE systems 502. # c) 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals . A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric date requires a) at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters b) the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only. Where is the rising runway? # a) EADI b) EFIS c) CRTs in the passenger cabin 498. Flat plate antenna is # a) series of waveguides with slots b) a parabolic antenna c) used to transmit RF signals only 501. # b) It detects incidences of peak value c) it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves 503. What is ILS marker frequency? # a) 75 Mhz b) 100 Mhz c) 125 Mhz 499. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as a) CMCS replaced but is not related to the older BITE system. Operation of a frequency counter is such that a) it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave. This is the truth table for a # a) E-OR b) NOT c) NAND 497.
in a colour cathode ray tube. VSI and ASI # b) Mode control panel. Raster and Stroke generator display. green and blue 509. Altimeter. b) distance measuring indicators. An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data select lines # a) 3 b) 2 c) 8 511. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion? a) Voltage to frequency # b) Flash converter c) Single ramp method 508. the amount of braiding a) is a trade-off design feature b) must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the cable # c) keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit 506. how is the phosphor arranged in the tube? a) A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it b) Layers of red. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be a) 101 011 b) 110 111 # c) 111 111 513. for braided cables. blue and green # c) A single phosphor layer containing red.505. digital counters # c) weather radar indicators 507. HSI and Symbol generator 512. a) ADC. What is a passive device? a) Matrix LCD # b) Capacitor . microprocessor and Data inputs c) ADI. An electronic flight instrument display consists of. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in a) IRU control display units. An LCD which is back lit is a) monochrome b) three colours # c) multicoloured 510.
Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage? a) ECL b) MOSFET # c) SCR 520.c) LED 514. An IRU interface test is carried out # a) only on the ground b) in the air c) on the ground or in the air 521. A priority encoder a) Outputs the selected input # b) Outputs the highest input c) Outputs the lowest input 515. An Arinc 629 label word is # a) 12 bits b) 8 bits c) 10 bits 519. What is a passive device? a) Matrix LCD b) LED . How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word # a) 4 bytes b) 2 bytes c) 8 bytes 518. For a computer to start up the basic instruction is from the a) ALU b) RAM # c) ROM 522. The output voltage of arinc 429 signal is a) +5v b) -5v # c) +10v to -10v 517. The data format use to transmit signal to flight data recorder a) Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit # b) Harvard bi-phase 12 bit c) Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit 516.
The smallest operation possible in a computer is the # a) timing cycle b) processor sub-cycle c) processor cycle 526.# c) Capacitor 523. A current mode coupler contains E core assembly. An example of a small size integrated circuit would be a) DIP switch b) ALU # c) Control Processor Unit 525. the glideslope pointer is # a) above the centre line b) below the centre line c) level with the datum 529. The purpose of the E core is # a) couple the signal to the data bus b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current mode coupler . FMS system gives warning indications for a) cruise b) take off and landings only # c) any flight phase 528. FMS CDU warnings are a) OFST and Fail b) fail and MSG # c) MSG. A common used material in computer manufacturing is a) ferrite material b) permeamag material # c) ferromagnetic material 527. An aircraft on an ILS approach is below the glideslope centre line. fail and OFST 531. A backlighted LCD a) has infinite colours b) is monochrome # c) has only 3 colours 524. A dot matrix/LED construction is a) 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display # b) 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display c) 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display 530.
Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is a) always the same period b) flexible # c) can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software Module 4 JAR-66 MODULE 4 1.c) enable easy access for monitoring purposes 532. works to # a) perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems.C. GERMANIUM DIODES ARE USED FOR… . Testing of CADC can be carried out a) in the air # b) ground only c) air and ground 533. PICTURE OF AN SCR IS IT A… A) SCR B) FET C) PNP TRANSISTOR 3. central maintenance computer. ie BITE b)give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status c) perform in-flight bite only 535. THE COLOUR OF AN LED IS DUE TO… A) THE ACTIVE MATERIALS B) A PLASTIC LENS C) A COLOUR FILTER 2. The TX/RX of Arinc629 is a) encoder/decoder # b) multiplex/de-multiplex c) switching 536. CMC. is invalid in the pre-set heading mode when a) flags out of view b) flag green # c) flag in view 534. A DIODE IS CONNECTED ACROSS AN LED TO… A) PREVENTS THE LED WORKING UNTIL A CERTAIN VOLTAGE LEVEL IS REACHED B) PROTECTS THE LED IF A. EHSI information displayed.IS CONNECTED C) PREVENTS BACK EMF WHEN THE LED IS SWITCHED OFF 4.
WHEN TESTING A DIODE WITH A MULTIMETER THE POSITIVE LEAD IS CONNECTED TO… A) ANODE. A DIFFERENTIAL SYNCHRO HAS… A) ONE 3 PHASE ROTOR AND ONE 3 PHASE STATOR B) ONE 3 PHASE ROTOR AND ONE SINGLE PHASE STATOR C) ONE SINGLE PHASE ROTOR AND ONE 3 PHASE STATOR .A) SIGNAL DETECTION B) RECTIFICATION C) 5. A DESYNN ROTOR IS … A) A PERMANENT MAGNET B) ELECTROMAGNET C) 11. WHAT ELECTRONIC DEVICE CONNECTS ACROSS A RELAY TO PREVENT BACK EMF A) BI-DIRECTIONAL ZENER DIODE B) SCHOKKY DIODE C) GUNN DIODE 7. WHEN A STEP INPUT TO A SERVO SYSTEM OVERSHOOTS AND OSCILLATES IT IS… A) UNDER DAMPED B) OVER DAMPED C) CRITICALLY DAMPED 12. COMPONENTS ON THE OTHER 9. A MULTI LAYER PCB HAS… A) CIRCUITS AND COMPONENTS ON BOTH SIDES B) MULTIPLE LAYERS OF CIRCUITS C) CIRCUITS ON ONE SIDE. WHEN A PCB IS FULLY ASSEMBLED IT IS COATED WITH A) INSULATING VARNISH B) WAX C) CONFORMAL COATING 10. NEGATIVE TO EARTH C) CATHODE. NEGATIVE TO THE CATHODE B) CATHODE. NEGATIVE TO ANODE 6. WHICH DIODE HAS A LOWER FORWARD BIAS VOLTAGE…A) SILICON B) GERMANIUM C) BOTH THE SAME 8.
output equal to the whole of the transformer primary winding. POWER TO THE… A) STATOR B) ROTOR AND STATOR C) ROTOR 18.4 windings(2stator 2 rotor).in a bridge rectifier: a.output is equal to the whole of the transformer secondary winding.what will be the output frequency of a three phase half have rectifier:a. A ZENER DIODE IS USED FOR… A) RECTIFICATION B) VOLTAGE STABILISATION C) 1. 2.13.6 windings(3stator 3 rotor). POSITION FEEDBACK IN A SERVO SYSTEM IS… A) IN PHASE WITH THE INPUT B) ANTI-PHASE WITH THE INPUT C) 90 DEGREES OUT OF PHASE WITH THE INPUT 15. VELOCITY FEEDBACK WHEN THE SERVOMOTOR HAS STOPPEDIS… A) AT A MAXIMUM IN-PHASE WITH THE INPUT B) MAXIMUM ANTI-PHASE WITH THE INPUT C) ZERO 17. b.same frequency c. . 2 windings(one stator one rotor). c. A DIFFERENTIAL SYNCHRO CAN BE USED AS A… A) TRANSMITTER B) TRANSMITTER OR A RECEIVER C) RECEIVER 14. VELOCITY FEEDBACK IS … A) PROPORTIONAL TO SERVOMOTOR SPEED B) INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO SERVOMOTOR SPEED C) THE SAME ALL THE TIME 16.thrice.a resolver had a. b. A TORQUE SYNCHRO HAS AC. 3.output equal to the half of the transformer secondary winding. c.double b.
Increase the accuracy of the control synchro. 7. c. b. To check the output of a Synchro stator it would be preferable to use? Ans. Resistors and capacitors to couple stages of amplifiers so that? Ans. Majority carriers. Oscillate.silicon. A Valve Voltmeter. No DC across. . Pick offs rotate on the slab resistor. Op amps use what power supply? Ans.4.graphite. An astable multivibrator is a? Ans. An RC Connected Amp has? Ans. 11.gallium.germanium. 4. 5v to 15v DC. 2. High current flow when temperature rises. When is maximum voltage induced into the rotor of a control synchro? Ans. Free running vibrator. it conducts via? Ans. 9. 1. 12. 0 degrees 5. 10. 3.for signal diodes we use: a. 6. c. The purpose of the Flywheel incorporated into a synchro? Ans. Only AC can be supplied.for a zener doide we generally use: a. Ans. the servo will? Ans. the amplitude from the feedback system is below normal. If in a servo system. When a PN junction is forward biased. 5. Thermal runaway in a transistor refers to. 8. To prevent oscillations. In a Slab Desynn transmitter the? Ans. Synchro capacitors are connected into synchro systems to? Ans.germanium.silicon. b.
26. this will cause? Ans. 19. 14. This designates? Ans. the components are mounted by? Ans. you would adjust? Ans. 2 V 25.13. 24. 17. 22. A control system synchro pointer is? Ans. By doping in successive layers. Positive is connected to the P type and the negative is connected to the N type. In an electronic circuit with an operational amplifier connected in the push-pull configuration. 21. 27. In a PNP transmitter. 23. Torque synchro receiver bearing friction will cause? Ans. More positive than the base. Pin 3 on an Op Amp has a + symbol. Non-inverting input. Misalignment. the circuit? Ans. If velocity feedback in a servo system is above optimum. 20. Lever length. Emitter to Collector. 18. current flow is mainly due to the? Ans. Modulation. Majority carriers. the components are inserted? Ans. When forward biased. 15. Utilises both sides of the input signal. A Desynn instrument has a positive irregular increasing error. When forward biased. In an Integrated Circuit. The typical voltage drop across an LED is? Ans. An advantage of a FET when compared to a bi-polar transmitter is? . which way does the conventional current flow? Ans. the? Ans. 16. Sluggish operation. In an Integrated circuit. Metal oxide film etched onto the surface. A DC signal converted to a phase sensitive AC is? Ans. Motor driven. For a NPN transmitter to conduct the collector circuit has to be? Ans.
Ans. The input resistance is higher. 28. The semiconductor material most commonly used in “chips” is? Ans. Silicon 29. The typical bandwidth for an audible frequency amplifier is? Ans. 10 – 100 KHz. 30. What control system is used on an input that gives a controlled predetermined output? Ans. Closed loop. 31. Increasing velocity feedback from optimum will give? Ans. A sluggish performance. 32. A rate control servo system with a steady input voltage will give? Ans. Constant speed. 33. Where are de-coupling capacitors used in digital circuits? Ans. Close to the positive pin. 34. What are the majority carriers for forward biased PN junction devices? Ans. Electrons and holes. 35. The resistance measured using an AVO between Collector and Emitter of a transmitter is? Ans. Same both ways. 36. Germanium in its pure state is? Ans. Neutral. 37. Common Collector has the following characteristics? Ans. Medium voltage gain, High current gain and Non-inverting output. 38. Two push – pull transmitters have what commoned? Ans. Emitters. 39. In a Common Emitter Amplifier, RE is used for? Ans. Stabilisation. 40. If the reverse bias voltage across a Diode is too high? Ans. Load current reverses. 41. The rotor coil of a Synchrotel? Ans. Is stationary. 42. An increase in the amplitude of a rate feedback signal will cause?
Ans. Reduced hunting. 43. An increase in Negative feedback will? Ans. Decrease system sensitivity. 44. In integrated circuit is manufactured by? Ans. Doping impurities into layers of intrinsic material. 45. A de-coupling capacitor in a PCB is used to? Ans. Pass AC only. 46. A monostable vibrator? Ans. Is switched on by a trigger pulse then within a pre set time will eventually return to its original state. 47. Position feedback is used to? Ans. Ensure control surface moves to the demanded position by the controls
1. A felt filter in an oil lubrication system should be a) removed and cleaned in a container of lead free petrol * b) removed and replaced with a new filter element c) removed and cleaned in MEK 2. What filter is used in a oil scavenge pump in the inlet side of the pump? a) Wire wound filter * b).Wire mesh filter c) Threaded filter 3. Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by a) bleed air supply from compressor * b) electric bonded heater mats c) hot oil supply from lubrication system 4. HEIU ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from a) discharge inductor * b) discharge capacitor c) starter system electrical circuit 5. Switch over on a FADEC engine occurs * a). only on engine start up
b) when engine is shut down c) when the A and B channels are 'healthy' 6. Vibration pick-ups are located * a) on the turbine case b) on the fan/compressor case c) on both fan and turbine cases 7. A divergent intake is a) convergent/Divergent from front to rear b) divergent/Convergent from front to rear * c) divergent from front to rear 8. High frequency vibration a) energises air particles prior to compression b) can give an indication of a fluctuating (EPR) * c) causes engine components to crack 9. What is used as an extinguishant in fire bottles? a) Water * b). Halogenated hydrocarbons c) Freon compounds 10. What purpose does the nose cone serve on the (N1) fan on a high bypass engine? a) Assist in diffusing airflow b) Reduce and straighten any turbulent air * c) Streamlined fairing
1. The head marking on a close tolerance BSF bolt is a) a lowered ring under the hexagon b) a series of dots on the head face c) a raised disk on the head face 2. In the drawing, what letter represents the length of a BSF bolt? a) B b) C c) A
Turnbuckles are correctly fitted when a) the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing b) both rods are seen to touch in the inspection hole c) both rods enter the barrel by the same amount 5. both bolts are correctly wire locked when a) both A nad B are right hand treads b) both A and B are left hand threads c) A is a right hand thread and B is a left hand thread 4.3. Sheet metal should be stored a) on its edge in racks to prevent scratching b) stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets c) above 25 degrees centigrade 7. An aluminium alloy bolt may be identified by a) its colour (dyed green) b) the letter A stamped on the head c) its colour (dyed black) 8. A (British) 3/8" dia UNF bolt will have the diameter code letter a) N b) J c) G . Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes? a) To transmit thrust loads with radial loads b) To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement c) To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load 6. In the drawing.
The continuous coloured line on a hose assembly a) will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose b) identifies hose material c) identifies fluid compatibility of hose 10. Clad aluminium alloy (alclad) has a pure aluminium coating of a) 5% of alloy thickness b) 1% of alloy thickness c) 0. The main metal in monel is a) nickel b) stainless steel c) aluminium 2. Adapter nipples are not required on a) pipe to pipe coupling b) pipe to internally coned adapter c) pipe to externally coned adapter 5. A tube complying to BS T51 is a) tungum b) high pressure seamless copper tube c) HTS tube 4.9. Austenitic stainless steels are a) magnetic b) non-magnetic c) hardened by heat treatment 3. The storage life of a flexible hose can be up to but not exceeding a) 2 years .002" regardless of alloy thickness 1.
Have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with: . The stationary race of a journal bearing is normally a) an interference fit b) a push fit c) a spigoted fit 8. The markings on a flexible hose must include the a) manufacturers name b) date of manufacture c) internal bore size 7.* CAIP AL/3-7 b. Use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet 2.b) 4 years c) 5 years 6. To correctly tension cables it can help to: a. The formation of steel depends upon a) the formation of pearlite into austenite b) the presence of pearlite in the structure c) the formation of austenite into pearlite 1. Inspection of bearings is normally carried out a) in situ b) when dismantled c) when removed from an assembly 9. Take up initial slack by additional pulleys c. Damage to the shield of a bearing should result in a) rejection of the bearing b) replacement of the shield c) no action 10.
The British system of heat treatment codes is a. The American system of heat treatment codes uses . A full list of decals would be found in a. Aircraft skin is joggled to: a. A series if letters *CAIP BL/9-1 c. Make a frame lighter but stronger 4. A Router* CAIP AL/7-6 3. A close tolerance fit c. A series of numbers b. Maintenance schedule c. a drill b. Numbers and letters 10. For easy hammering into position b. Aircraft log book 8.a. Increases with increase of temperature b. ethylyne propolyne or Teflon * Phosphate ester based fluid b. Butyl rubber. Synthetic rubber Mineral based fluid CAIP AL/3-21 9. Natural rubber Vegetable based fluid c. Dzuz Fasteners provide: a. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by: a. Attempting to pass locking wire through the hole c. The pot life of a cold cured resin: a. Decreases with an increase in temperature * ATTITA composite notes/CAIPAL7-6 6. ANOs b. Looking through the hole and checking for threads showing 7. Attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole *CAIP3-7 b. Quick release fasteners at inspection panels * naval hardware 5. Conform to the Area rule b. Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces* c. a Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of a. Locally manufactured concave knife c. Is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations c.
40lls/ins * CAIP BL-30 c. Letters c. Red 16. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either primary or secondary what action should you take . 47 grammes b. When fitting a replacement flexible hose a. What will the actual reading be a. Yellow b. Numbers b. 54lbs/ins b.a. how much hardener is used with 60 grammes of resin a. 60lbs/ins 15 What colour is used to identify a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing a. Always pressure test before fitting 12. Green c. Radiused quadrants c. Use the old one to apply the set c. Numbers and Letters *A&P General Sect 7 11. Fairleads * naval hardware 13. 27 grammes * c. Yellow b. What is used to prevent chaffing of a cable through a bulkhead a. The specified torque for loading a bolt is 50ils/ins but an extension of 2 ins is needed to reach the bolt in addition to the 8inch torque wrench. Cable is wrapped with lubricated hessian sleeve b. Green * c. Red * 17. 145 grammes 14. Ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure *CAIP 3-13 b. Resin to hardener ratio is 100:45. What colour is used to identify a primary structure on a diagram or drawing a.
½ inch length * CAIP BL/6-27 22. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F a.a. Repairs which can be made without dismantling for access and do not require the use of specialist tools b. 7/8 inch . supports or jury structure and some dismantling * 20. Grade as secondary b. 20 to 60 psi b. The rivet length is in graduations of 1/8 inch 23. ¼ inch c. 40 to 60 psi 24. What is meant by the term Pitch ratio a. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary 18. What would the marking . The distance between two holes *CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch) b. What is meant by the term Major Repair a. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets 19. Repairs which can be made whilst the aircraft is enroute c. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material c. AS 162-408 a. Indicates close tolerance rivet * CAIP BL/6-27 b. ¼ inch dia. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch c. 60 to 80 psi c. Repairs which require the use of special jigs. Upgrade as primary * c.5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet a. ½ inch length c. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F a. 1/8 inch b. 1/16 inch * CAIP BL/6-27 21 What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given. ½ inch dia. 1 inch length b. 1/8 inch dia. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of a.
Solid rivets made from BS L37 will age harden after heat treatment. 1 inch c. Stress relieving by heat treatment ? . A locating key * CAIP BL/6-28 1.b. Peened b. How do you check a turnbuckle is in safety ? a) use the inspection hole or check the number of threads showing b) ensure that the turnbuckle cannot be turned by hand c) make sure that no threads are showing at either end of the turnbuckle 2. Place the rivets in a refrigerator set at 0 deg C to 5 deg C for a max of 45 hours * CAIP/BL6-27 27. ½ inch 25. In what period of time must the rivets be used before re-treatment is required a. as many times as required 26. Three times * CAIP/BL6-27 c. If no more in stores. Locked at the rear c. 2 hours * CAIP BL/6-27 b. Twice only b. When fitting Rivnuts how are they secured and prevented from rotating a. Dip the rivets in a salt bath for a period of time b. What is the max number of times that they can be retreated a. The vacuum connections in a fibre glass repair must overlap the ? a) breather mat b) peel ply c) top layer of glass fabric directly 3. 2 ½ hours c. The taper of a standard taper pin is ? a) 1 in 36 b) 1 in 48 c) 1 in 20 4. How can age hardening be delayed a. Keep the rivets in a warm oven at a temp of 118deg C for a max of 60 hours c. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. 4 hours 25.
a decoupling capacitor is used to get rid of transient currents between which points? a) The electronic circuit and the aircraft ground b) Interspaced along the circuit c) The negative rail and the rest of the circuit . What are the signs of fretting corrosion ? a) flaking b) intergrannular cracking c) black powder or cocoa staining 8.a) reduces residual stresses due to manufacturing process b) reduces the hardness of heat treated materials c) restores the full fatigue life to "life limited" structural components 5. Alclad materials can be heated ? a) as many times as required b) once only c) 3 times only 6. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is applied to the surface. the metal is ? a) aluminum b) alclad c) dural 11. The colour code on sheet metal indicates ? a) only the specification of the material b) the specification and gauge of the material c) that the material is from an approved source 9. What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from a) copper b) stainless steel c) aluminium alloy 7. Spherical roller bearings resist what loads ? a) large thrust and moderate radial b) large radial but no thrust c) large radial and moderate thrust 10. The patern of a gear is the ? a) mark it leaves on the mating gear b) profile of the gear teeth c) the path they take when the gear is rotating Part 66 Module 4 (g) On a PCB.
what is used to make the colour? a) The doping material b) The electrons c) The plastic lens cover An atom with 5 electrons in its outer shell is part of a) an N type material b) a P type material c) a C type material In a FET.C a) Nand b) Nor c) And An increase in negative feedback to the servo amplifier a) increases amplifier stability b) decreases amplifier stability c) has no effect How is a push-pull transistor arrangement connected? a) emitter to emitter b) collector to collector c) base to base Thermal runaway in a transistor is caused by a) excessive heat causing maximum current flow b) excessive heat causing minimum current flow c) low heat causing minimum current flow A single integrated circuit Op Amp has how many pins? a) 4 b) 7 c) 8 A thyristor is commonly used for a) voltage regulation b) overvolts regulation . collector and emitter c) drain.In an LED. source and gate b) base.B. the junction connections are called a) drain. the gate described is F = A. collector and junctions In the Boolean algebra statement below.
cathode. cathode.c) rectification A diode which emits photons when conducting is a a) zener b) varactor c) light emitting Avalanche breakdown occurs when a) forward bias becomes excessive b) forward bias exceeds a certain value c) reverse bias exceeds a certain value The electrodes of an SCR are a) anode.6V b) 0.6V An advantage of a common emitter is a) it is a voltage follower b) it has high power gain c) it has high voltage gain .2V c) 1. drain. infinite input impedance & zero output impedance is characteristic of a a) Class A amp b) Class B amp c) Op amp Forward voltage of a silicon diode is a) 0. gate c) gate. anode What gives an LED its colour? a) A gas b) The cover c) Composition and impurity of the compound For conduction of a transistor the emitter junction is a) fwd biased b) reverse biased c) fwd or reverse as appropriate to the input signal In a PNP transistor which way does conventional current flow a) base to emitter b) collector to emitter c) emitter to collector Infinite gain. source b) source.
what is used to convert signals from one form to another? a) Transmitter b) Transducer c) Transformer Components on an integrated circuit are a) in the solid b) don't need them c) on the surface What diode is used to stop power spikes in a coil? a) Two directional zener diode b) Shottky diode c) Gunn diode The anode of a diode is connected to a +4v DC supply and the cathode is connected to a +2v DC supply.6V b) 0.What amplifier is biased at cut off a) A b) B c) C When testing a transistor with an ohmmeter.4V What diode gives off light photons when forward biased a) LED b) Shottky diode c) Gunn diode A logic circuit with more than one gate will have a) one of 2 states of logic output b) 2 or more outputs c) an analogue output In a synchro.2V c) 0. what is the resistance of the emitter/collector? a) High resistance one way b) High resistance both ways c) Low resistance both ways What is the typical volts drop across an LED a) 1. The diode is a) forward biased not conducting b) reverse biased not conducting .
c) forward biased conducting Using electron flow in a diode the current flows from a) Anode to Cathode b) Cathode to Anode c) Cathode to Base A control surface position feedback signal is a) proportional to surface position b) inversely proportional to surface position c) non-linear In a PNP transistor. conventional current will flow when a) the emitter is more positive than the base b) the base is more positive than the emitter c) the collector is more positive than the emitter An E&I transformer out of datum has a) equal and opposite voltages in each windings b) unequal and opposite voltages in both windings c) no voltage in either winding A gyro will provide a) rate feedback b) velocity feedback c) positional feedback In a common collector circuit the output and input are a) out of phase by 90o b) in phase c) out of phase by 60o In velocity feedback the signal is a) in phase b) out of phase c) equal to the error signal When a hole diffuses from the p region to the n region a) it becomes a minority carrier in the n region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier A junction diode a) has one p-n junction b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify c) can handle only small currents .
A germanium diode is used for a) voltage stabilisation b) rectification c) signal detection A germanium diode a) has a lower forward bias voltage than a silicon diode b) has a higher forward bias voltage than a silicon diode c) has the same forward bias voltage as a silicon diode a VLSIC has a) less than 1000 gates b) more than 1000 gates c) more than 10.000 gates A momentary input at the reset input of a flip flop will a) reset the true output to 0 b) reset the true output to 1 c) clock in new data from the data inputs Which type of flip flop has only 1 data input a) RS b) JK c) D A low pass filter has a) a capacitor in series and an inductor in parallel b) a capacitor in parallel and an inductor in series c) both capacitor and inductor in parallel When you use an op amp as a buffer it has a) high input impedance and low output impedance b) low input impedance and high output impedance c) the same input an output impedance What switches off a thyristor? a) Remove the gate voltage b) Remove supply voltage c) Reverse bias gate When an SCR is switched on it has a) high resistance b) low resistance c) no change in resistance Part 66 Module 4 (f) .
a rapid increase in current flow for a relatively small increase in voltage occurs a) only after the forward bias exceeds the potential barrier b) when the flow of minority carriers is sufficient to cause an avalanche breakdown c) when the depletion layer becomes larger than the space charge area An LVDT has a) an output winding which is wound in series opposition b) an input winding whose voltage will change with load movement c) an output winding whose voltage and frequency is linear to load angular movement A diode connected across a relay coil is used to a) allow the coil to energize with only one polarity b) cause a delay in switching on c) dissipate coil spikes on switch off Differential transmitters are used to a) add or subtract two electrical signals b) add or subtract a mechanical signal to an electrical synchro signal c) increase the operating speed of the synchro receiver To convert a differential synchro from subtraction to addition you would a) reverse the reference phase supply b) change over two rotor and stator connections c) change over all three stator windings When resolving a Cartesian input to a Polar output a) the inputs are a shaft angle and a voltage b) the outputs are two voltages c) the inputs are two voltages To check the forward resistance of a diode with a multimeter.A differential synchro transmitter used for addition has a) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TX b) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TR c) the TDX R1. R3 and S1. S3 connections cross connected to the TX If forward bias is increased from zero on a p-n junction. the lead connected to the positive terminal is put to the a) anode b) cathode c) either anode or cathode A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with a) one single coil b) two coils at 90o to each other .
c) three coils at 120o to each other The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are a) equal b) out of phase c) in phase The output of a resolver synchro is a) dependant upon the position of the rotor only b) proportional to the speed of input rotation c) a function of the rotor position and excitation voltage The rotor of an autosyn position indicating system is a) a permanent magnet b) an electromagnet c) spring controlled A band pass filter excludes frequencies a) above the frequency required only b) below the frequency required only c) above and below the frequency required The rotor of a magnesyn transmitter is a) a dc electromagnet b) a permanent magnet c) an ac electromagnet In general the accuracy of a synchro system increases if the a) stator current is high b) stator current is low c) rotor current is high Torque synchro systems are normally used when the a) mechanical load is low b) mechanical load is high c) system accuracy is of extreme importance In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically disposed by a) 90o b) 120o c) 180o The induced signal in the output coils of the magnesyn system a) de-saturates the soft iron core b) damps the pointer oscillations c) is of a value of 800 Hz .
The direction of the induced (secondary) magnetic field in a synchro transmitter a) is 90o to the primary magnetic field b) in the same direction as the primary field c) is in the opposite direction to the primary field The cogging effect in synchros is rectified by a) using carbon brushes b) using an elliptical cog c) skewing the rotor A transistor is said to be in the quiescent state when a) no signal is applied to the input b) it is unbiased c) no currents are flowing In an unbiased p-n junction. but would cause a heavy current to flow c) make the receiver rotor rotate in the opposite direction Torque synchro systems are normally used when the a) mechanical load is low b) mechanical load is high c) system accuracy is of extreme importance A common base transistor circuit is so called because a) the base region is located between the emitter and collector region b) the base is n-type material c) the base is common to the emitter and collector circuits What device transfers one energy type to another? a) Transmitter b) Transducer c) Transponder Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction? a) Collector to emitter b) Emitter to base . because no charges are crossing the junction c) zero. because equal but opposite currents are crossing the junction Reversal of the power supply to either the transmitter or the receiver of a torque synchro system would a) cause a 180o displacement between the transmitter and the receiver b) have no effect on the indication. current flow is a) due to the diffusion of minority carriers only b) zero.
same frequency. but exactly anti-phase. The pins are counted a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) from left to right In a synchro system. which gate is described? F=A+B+C a) Or b) Not c) And In an E and I signal generator at datum. the two input waves are the same amplitude. the stator coils are at what angle in relation to one another? . the voltage on the secondary windings a) are equal and opposite b) is maximum c) is zero In a synchro resolver. if two stator lines are crossed the receiver will a) not be affected b) be 180o out c) reverse direction In the following Boolean algebra statement.c) Collector to base Electrical power is supplied to a synchro rotor a) directly b) through slip rings c) through a commutator The purpose of a flywheel incorporated in a synchro is to a) increase the driving force b) prevent oscillations c) prevent insect ingress In an operational amplifier. What would the output be? a) Double b) Zero c) Half A thyristor has which of the following? a) High resistance when switched on b) High resistance when switched off c) A positive temperature coefficient On an integrated circuit the hole in the top left corner is pin 1.
constant voltage b) variable voltage. variable voltage Rate feedback can be obtained from a a) synchro b) tachogenerator c) potentiometer Positional feedback can be obtained from a a) synchro b) tachogenerator c) potentiometer The frictional force in a servomechanism that is proportional to speed is called a) stiction b) coulomb friction c) viscous friction The 'null' point in a control synchro is when the two rotors are a) at 90o to each other . the a) rotor is fixed and the stator moves b) rotor and stator is fixed c) stator is fixed and the rotor moves Part 66 Module 4 (e) The junction barrier offers opposition to only a) holes in the p-region b) free electrons in the n-region c) majority carriers in both regions An increase in velocity feedback will a) decrease the speed the load moves b) increase the speed the load moves c) have no effect on speed A two phase motor will stop when a) the reference phase is reversed b) the control phase is reversed c) the control phase is zero A tachogenerator output is a) variable frequency.a) 45 degrees b) 80 degrees c) 90 degrees In a synchrotel. constant frequency c) variable frequency.
a 25o clockwise rotation of the input rotor would result in the output rotor a) moving 25o clockwise b) moving 25o anticlockwise c) moving 180o to rectify the defect Damping in a servomechanism is easier to apply if a) the mechanism is light and has low inertia b) the mechanism is heavy and has high inertia c) the mechanism is light and has high inertia Reverse bias a) lowers the potential barrier b) raises the potential barrier c) greatly increases the majority carrier current If the electrical connections to the feedback generator in a control synchro system were disconnected. the a) motor would run in the wrong direction b) input signal to the amplifier would reduce c) system would tend to oscillate An increase in servo amplifier gain a) reduces the speed of the system b) increases system response c) reduces tendency to hunt In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when the a) CT rotor is at null b) two rotors are aligned c) power is removed The term 'velocity lag' refers to a a) speed error b) position error c) acceleration error The rotor of an AC tachogenerator a) has skewed slots b) has a copper. brass or aluminium cylinder c) rotates at constant speed A servo system with transient negative velocity feedback .b) parallel to each other c) wired in series If two of the stator leads are cross connected in a control synchro system.
a) is damped with little velocity lag b) is damped with high velocity lag c) is underdamped with high velocity lag To reverse the direction of rotation of a two phase induction motor a) reverse the polarity of the control phase b) reverse the polarity of both the control phase and reference phase c) shift the reference by 90o In a rate servo (speed control) the signal into the servo amplifier is a) input voltage plus tachogenerator output b) input voltage minus tachogenerator output c) input voltage plus position feedback voltage Loss of DC to a servo amplifier causes the motor to a) run continuously b) stop c) reverse Avalanche breakdown occurs when a) forward current becomes excessive b) forward bias exceeds a certain value c) reverse bias exceeds a certain value An AC servo demand can be converted to drive a DC motor by the introduction of a a) rectifier b) modulator c) demodulator Synchro indicator systems are used when the indication is required to move a) a fraction of the input distance b) slower than the input rate c) at the same rate as the input A linear variable differential transformer is used to measure position feedback where a) 360o of rotation and high angular accuracy is required b) accuracy is of limited importance but robust construction and reliability is important c) an output whose phase is related to direction of movement and amplitude linear over a wide range A low frequency sinusoidal input will cause a closed loop servomechanism load to a) move to a demand position with no overshoot b) move backwards and forwards at the input frequency c) move to the demand position and then return to the datum position without any overshoot .
To reduce oscillations about a demand position a) the amount of velocity feedback would be decreased b) the amount of velocity feedback would be increased c) the amount of position feedback would be increased If a servo amplifier is suffering from drift a) the load would move to a new position. proportional to the drift and then return back to the datum position c) the load would oscillate about the datum position In a transient velocity feedback circuit. 270o . proportional to the drift and stay there b) the load would move to a new position. it is necessary to a) reduce the tacho feedback b) increase the tacho feedback c) increase the position feedback Angular displacement of the control coils with respect to the reference coils in a two phase induction motor are a) 0o. 180o b) 90o. the tachogenerator output is summated with the demand voltage a) only when the load is slowing down b) at all times when the load is moving c) only when the load is speeding up or slowing down Positive feedback applied to a servomechanism a) decreases the response of the system b) opposes the demand signal c) increases the response of the system A differential synchro rotor consists of a) one winding parallel to the transmitter rotor b) two windings at 90o apart c) three windings at 120o apart Part 66 Module 4 (d) When a hole diffuses from a p-region to the n-region it a) becomes a minority carrier in the n-region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier How are the pins numbered on an op-amp IC? a) counter clockwise from the dot b) clockwise from the dot c) from left to right from the dot To increase the output of a servo amplifier.
it is necessary to a) reduce the tacho feedback b) increase the tacho feedback c) increase the position feedback .c) 90o. 120o a two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism a) will always require a starter b) is self starting under light loads c) runs with no slip A servomotor having only a tachogenerator as a feedback device will a) vary its speed with input error voltage b) have a constant speed for any given input voltage c) null out at a position dependant upon input error voltage A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because a) it has good starting characteristics b) good speed/voltage relationship c) low inertia The null position of a torque synchro system is when a) the TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other b) the TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other c) the TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other Reversal of two of the stator connections on a torque synchro receiver would cause a) the transmitter to become the receiver b) the output to move the same direction as the input c) the output to move the reverse direction to the input An AC tachogenerator stator has a) two windings 180o apart b) three windings 120o apart c) two windings 90o apart When a hole diffuses from a p-region to the n-region it a) becomes a minority carrier in the n-region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier How are the pins numbered on an op-amp IC? a) counter clockwise from the dot b) clockwise from the dot c) from left to right from the dot To increase the output of a servo amplifier.
120o a two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism a) will always require a starter b) is self starting under light loads c) runs with no slip A servomotor having only a tachogenerator as a feedback device will a) vary its speed with input error voltage b) have a constant speed for any given input voltage c) null out at a position dependant upon input error voltage A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because a) it has good starting characteristics b) good speed/voltage relationship c) low inertia The null position of a torque synchro system is when a) the TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other b) the TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other c) the TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other Reversal of two of the stator connections on a torque synchro receiver would cause a) the transmitter to become the receiver b) the output to move the same direction as the input c) the output to move the reverse direction to the input An AC tachogenerator stator has a) two windings 180o apart b) three windings 120o apart c) two windings 90o apart A junction diode a) has one p-n junction b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify c) can handle only very small currents When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary. 270o c) 90o. 180o b) 90o. the rotor has a) no circulating currents b) low circulating currents c) no magnetic fields .Angular displacement of the control coils with respect to the reference coils in a two phase induction motor are a) 0o.
but otherwise does not move A closed loop servomechanism a) must only have position feedback b) must have both position and velocity feedback c) can have either position or velocity feedback Critical damping in a servomechanism is a) the point which allows just one overshoot before the load comes to rest b) the amount of damping that results in the load just not oscillating c) the critical damping required for the optimum damping of the servomechanism In a control synchro system the power supply is connected to the a) transmitter rotor and amplifier b) receiver rotor and amplifier c) transmitter and receiver rotors Reverse rotation of a control transformer rotor can be caused by a) connections between the transformer rotor and the amplifier reversed b) connections to the transmitter rotor reversed c) short circuit between two transmission lines Velocity feedback a) opposes the demand input b) assists the demand input c) prevents dead space errors Velocity lag can be decreased by a) introduction of an integrator b) keeping the error detector (summing point) output as low as possible c) decreasing the coulomb friction in the system Part 66 Module 4 (c) The power supply to a torque synchro system is connected to a) the transmitter stator b) the transmitter rotor only c) the transmitter and receiver rotors . the servo motor a) moves to a certain position b) moves at a constant speed c) oscillates.The output of a tachogenerator should be a) sinusoidal b) exponential c) linear With a constant input to a speed control servo.
a steady input will result in the servomotor a) oscillating about a new datum b) rotating at a constant speed c) rotating to a new datum position An E&I bar output at datum has a) no induced voltage in the secondary windings b) an imbalance of voltages in the secondary windings . the velocity feedback is a) zero b) maximum and anti-phase c) maximum and in phase The primary purpose of rate feedback in a positional servo system is to a) ensure minimum response time b) prevent excessive overshoot c) ensure system linearity In an AC rate servo. the power supply is connected to a) the brushes b) the resistor slab c) the rotor When a servo has reached its null and stopped. then a) the transmitter rotor will turn to align with the receiver rotor b) the receiver will overheat c) a high current will flow in the stator windings A zener diode a) stabilizes voltage at a predetermined level b) allows current to flow in one direction c) acts like a switch The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower circuit because a) the emitter current follows the collector current b) the emitter voltage follows the base voltage c) the emitter voltage follows the collector voltage In a toroidal resistance transmitter indicator system.If the rotor of the receiver in a torque synchro system was prevented from aligning with the transmitter rotor.
c) equal and opposite voltages induced in the secondary A non-inverting op-amp a) has a non-inverting input and an inverting output b) has an inverting input and a non-inverting output c) a non-inverting input connection only Amplifiers may be classified as a) common emitter or common collector amplifiers b) voltage amplifiers or impedance amplifiers c) voltage amplifiers or power amplifiers What is a shottky diode used for? a) Very high frequency applications b) Stabilsation c) Rectification The result of cross connecting two of the transmission leads in a torque synchro system and then turning the rotor of the transmitter 60o clockwise would be a) the receiver would move 60o clockwise b) the receiver would move 120o anticlockwise c) the receiver would move 60o anticlockwise The control windings of a two phase servomotor is supplied with AC voltage of a) constant amplitude b) variable phase c) variable amplitude. . variable phase In a torque synchro that includes a differential synchro the power supply is connected to a) the transmitter rotor only b) the transmitter and receiver rotors only c) all three rotors A differential synchro rotor has a) three windings b) two windings c) one winding If the rotor of a control synchro sticks a) the system hunts b) high current will flow c) the position feedback will oscillate With the reversal of the connections to the rotor of the transmitter of a torque synchro.
the position of the receiver rotor will be a) unchanged b) changed by 120o c) changed by 180o The application of a 'stick-off' voltage to a control synchro servo system is a) to overcome the effect of static friction b) to overcome the effect of viscous friction c) to prevent alignment to a false null When removing a microprocessor a) no damage is done by static discharge b) considerable damage can be done by static discharge c) ensure the power is OFF to avoid static discharge An amplifier can provide both voltage gain and current gain when it is connected in the a) common base configuration b) common emitter configuration c) common collector configuration How do you increase voltage gain of an amplifier? a) decrease base circuit bias b) decrease input resistance c) increase input resistance In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically displaced by a) 90o b) 120o c) 180o A servo system may include a brake. an automatic trim system is one example where a brake is used. The brake is a) applied during trimming to prevent oscillations about the demand position b) applied when trimming is complete to prevent stabilizer creep c) applied during trimming to prevent servo runaway A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with a) one single coil b) three coils at 120o c) two coils at 90o In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when a) the CT rotor is at null b) when the two rotors are aligned c) when power is removed .
In a speed control servo system (rate control). the purpose of the tachogenerator is a) to make the velocity proportional to servo demand b) to make the deflection proportional to servo demand c) to make it run at constant speed The result of reversing the rotor connections to the receiver of a torque synchro system is that the rotor position a) is unchanged b) is changed by 120o c) is changed by 180o The rotor of a torque synchro indicator is a) supplied with an excitation voltage b) short circuited c) connected in series with the transmitter stator coil Part 66 Module 4 (b) What type of diode would be used to stop voltage spikes across a coil of a relay? a) Gunn diode b) Schottky diode c) Double acting diode A silicon diode. when compared to a germanium diode has a) a higher forward bias voltage b) less forward bias voltage c) the same forward bias voltage A zener diode is used for a) rectification b) voltage stabilization c) modulation A multi-layer PCB has a) one layer on either side b) two or more layers on one or both sides c) two or more layers connected in series When a servomotor overshoots after a step input and oscillates it is a) over damped b) under damped c) critically damped .
3 phase rotor b) single phase stator. the components are mounted a) by means of wires connecting them b) by metal oxide film c) by metal screws One characteristic of the emitter follower is a) low resistance output b) low current amplification c) high voltage amplification . 2 phase rotor c) 3 phase stator. single phase rotor When a servomotor has stopped. the rate feedback from a tachogenerator is a) zero b) maximum and in phase c) maximum and anti-phase A tachogenerator is usually used for a) rate feedback b) angular feedback c) position feedback Differential synchros have a) a transmitter only b) a receiver only c) a transmitter and a receiver In an integrated circuit.The rotor of a desynn indicator is a) an electromagnet b) a permanent magnet c) an AC magnet The position feedback from a potentiometer is a) anti-phase b) in phase c) 90 degrees out of phase A differential synchro has a) 3 phase stator.
the power supply is connected to a) the rotor windings of the transmitter only b) the rotor windings of both the transmitter and receiver c) the stator windings of the transmitter The phase difference between the supplies of a two phase induction motor is a) 180o b) 90o c) 0o To reduce overshoot errors in a synchro a) the system will have position feedback b) the system will have velocity feedback c) the gain of the amplifier is increased A synchro transformer is used to a) derive an error voltage from a synchro transmitter signal and a shaft position b) obtain a 26 volt AC reference c) add the output of two synchro transmitters Reversal of the complete power to a torque synchro system will a) have no effect b) cause reverse rotation of the receiver rotor c) displace the receiver rotor by 180o The power supply to a torque synchro system is a) AC b) DC c) AC or DC When a positive voltage is applied to the base of a normally biased n-p-n common emitter amplifier a) the emitter current decreases b) the collector voltage goes less positive c) the base current decreases .A reduction from the optimum setting of the velocity feedback in a servo loop could cause a) low servo gain b) instability c) slow response In a torque synchro system.
but its voltage gain will be high. if it is connected in the a) common base configuration b) common emitter configuration c) common collector configuration An open loop system is one which has a) no direct feedback loop b) rate feedback loop c) position feedback only Mechanical friction in a servo results in a) reduced gain b) increased damping c) increased inertia 9.An amplifier current gain will be slightly less than 1. The position feedback signal is a) in phase with the input demand signal b) in anti-phase with the demand signal c) phase advanced by 90o with respect to the input signal 10. A servo system that overshoots and oscillates is a) under damped b) over damped c) critically damped Part 66 Module 4 (a) What gives the colour of an LED a The plastic it is encased in b The active element c The type of gas used inside it A germanium diode is used for a rectification b voltage stabilisation c modulation Why is a Diode put in parallel with an LED a To protect it from AC .
b So it will only work above a certain voltage c So it will only work below a certain voltage When testing the forward bias of a Diode with a multimeter a The positive lead of the multimeter is placed on the cathode b The positive lead of the multimeter is placed on the anode c It does not matter which terminal the positive lead is placed on In an NPN transistor the P is the a)collector b)base c)emitter The output of a tachogenerator is a)proportional to speed of rotation b)proportional to position c)proportional to acceleration AC power is supplied to a)torque receiver only b)torque transmitter only c)both the torque receiver and torque transmitter How is a PCB protected after manufacture? a)With non-conductive varnish b)With wax c)By conformal coating A differential synchro a)can only be used as a transmitter b)can only be used as a receiver c)can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Thyristor? a)High voltage handling b)High current handling c)High power handling A semiconductor doped with an element having a valency of 5 will produce a)an N type material b)a P type material c)either an N type or a P type depending on what type of semiconductor material is used What are the ideal characteristics of an Op Amp? a)Infinite gain. infinite input Impedance and infinite output impedance .
On initial engine start up #2 engine fails to ignite how would you troubleshoot 3. 2.A (maintenance error detection aid) and how does it work.b)Low gain. How would you certify an aircraft after it had suffered an accident/incident 4.C a)AND b)OR c)NOT What gate does the following Boolean expression represent F = A+B+C a)NOT b)NOR c)OR To decrease the voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier you would increase the resistance in the a)base circuit b)collector circuit c)emitter circuit A resolver has a)2 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator b)3 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator c)2 coils on the rotor and 3 coils on the stator The 'null' point on a control synchro is when the two rotors are a)at 90o to each other b)parallel to each other c)wired in series A FET when compared to a junction transistor is a)low impedance b)high impedance c)current operated EASA 66 Short answer questions EASA 66 Short answer questions example 1. infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance c)Infinite gain. infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance What gate does the following Boolean expression represent F = A.E.D.What is M.B.How do aircraft manufacturers design aircraft to counteract HIRF .
The alloy has not been modified. what dimension is measured: The diameter of the indent .Part 66 Modue 6 (B1) What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean: a. What is a Rockwell tester used for: Hardness Testing Fatigue Testing Tensile Testing What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks? Fatigue Testing Tensile Testing Hardness Testing During a Rockwell Hardness test. The alloy has been modified b. what dimension is measured: The diameter of the indent The depth of the indent The diameter and depth of the indent What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture: Impact Resistance Test Fatigue Testing Hardness Test What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets: Annealing Solution Treatment Precipitation Here are my Guesses! What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean: a. The percentage of impurities in the alloy c. The alloy has been modified What is a Rockwell tester used for: Hardness Testing What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks? Tensile Testing During a Rockwell Hardness test.
What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture: Impact Resistance Test What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets: Precipitation .
This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
We've moved you to where you read on your other device.
Get the full title to continue reading from where you left off, or restart the preview.