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6. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the fifth and the ninth letters of the word M E DIATION, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give *X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give 'Z' as the answer. (1) A (2) N (3)M (4)X (5)Z 7. Prabir started walking towards South. He took a right turn after walking 10 metres. He again took a left turn after walking 20 metres. Which direction is he facing now ? (1) South (2) North (3) West (4) East (5) Cannot be determined 8. How many such pairs of digits are there in the n u m b e r 421579368 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in accending order? (l)None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that d o e s not belong to that group ? (1) Camel (2) Horse (3) Bullock (5) Donkey 10. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second highest number among the following five numbers if the positions of the first and the third digits in each number are interchanged ? 432 851 719 643 287 (4) Cat (1) 8 (3)5 (5)4

1. In a certain code O R I E N T is written as '532146' and SOUL is w r i t t e n as ' 7 5 9 8 ' . H o w is LINE written in that code ? (1) 9241 (2) 8341 (3) 8241 (4) 6241 (5) None of these 2. B is brother of D. D is sister of E. E is brother of F. How is F related t o B ? (1) Brother (2) Sister (3) Brother or Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 3. Pradeep correctly r e m e m b e r s that h visited Chennai before twelfth of July but' after eighth of July. His friend correctly remembers that Pradeep visited Chennai after-tenth of July but before fourteenth of July. On 'which day of July did Pradeep visit Chennai ? (1) Eleventh (2) Twelfth (3) Tenth (4) Either tenth or eleventh (5) None of these 4. In a class, two-third of the students play football, half of the remaining play both football and cricket and the remaining ten students play only cricket. How many students play both football and cricket ? (1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 40 (4) 20 (5) Cannot be determined 5. In a certain code, J E A L O U S is written as BFKKTVP. H o w is HEARTEN written in that code

(2)3 (4)1

Directions ( 1 1 - 1 2 ) : Following questions are based on the information given b e l o w : (1) 'P x Q' means 'P is father ofQ'. (2) 'P - Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. (3) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother ofQ'. (4) 'P + Q' means 'P is brother ofQ'. 11. In the expression B + D X M T N , how is M related to B ? (1) Granddaughter (2) Son (3) Grandson (4) Granddaughter or Grandson (5) None of these 12. Which of the following represents 'J is son of F' ? (DJ+R-TxF (3) J + R - T x F (3)J + M - N x F (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (13-18) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by the three Conclusions numbered, I II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 13. Statements: Some tents are buildings. Some buildings are chairs. Some chairs are windows. Conclusions: i I. Some windows are buildings. II. Some windows are tents.

(1) OFUQBFI (2) BFIQOFU (3) B F I Q U F O ( 4 ) UFOQIBF (5) None of these

JI. Some chairs are tents. ' l ) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and III follow (5) All follow 14. S t a t e m e n t s : All tables are boards. All pens are boards. All boards are papers. Concussions: I. Some pens are tables. IL Some papers are pens. III. No pen is table. (1) All follow (2) Only either I or III follows (3)' Only II follows (4) Only either I or III and II follow (5) None of these 15. S t a t e m e n t s : All chains are cycles. Some cycles are wheels. All wheels are mirrors. Conclusions: I. Some cycles are mirrors. II. Some wheels are chains. III. Some mirrors are cycles. (1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only I and III follow (5) All follow 16. S t a t e m e n t s : Some boxes are hammers. Some hammers are beads. All beads are rings. Conclusions: I. Some rings are hammers. II. Some hammers are boxes. III. Some rings are boxes. (1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and II follow (5) All follow 17. S t a t e m e n t s : Ail jackets are trousers. No trouser is shirt. Some shirts are caps. Conclusions: I. Some caps are jackets.

II. Some shirts are jackets. III. Some trousers are jackets. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows (4) All follow (5) None of these 18. S t a t e m e n t s : Some cameras are binoculars. All binoculars are spoons. Some spoons are cups. Conclusions: I. Some cups are binoculars. II. Some spoons are cameras. III. Some cups are cameras. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows (4) Only either I or II follows (5) None of these D i r e c t i o n s ( 1 9 - 2 2 ) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below : RD15E%K3JI9P8#A2B $KM6W@N4T*7FH 19. W h i c h of the following is the third to the right of the twelfth from the left end ? (1)J (3) B (2)A (4) @




(1)@4T (3)N*

(2)WN (4)@4

(5) None of these Directions (23-25) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Given an input line, a coding machine rearranges the input following certain steps as explained below. I n p u t : 47 desert go 56 there often 32 12 S t e p 1 : 47 desert go 56 there often 32 12 S t e p II : there 47 desert go 56 often 32 12 S t e p I I I : there 12 often 47 desert go 56 32 S t e p TV : there 12 often 32 47 desert go 56 S t e p V : there 12 often 32 go 47 desert 56 Arrangement in Step V is the final arrangement and Step V is the last step. In each of the following questions the rearrangement is done following the same rules as explained in the above illustration. 23. If the fourth step of input is Svonderful 22 seashore 36 48 fine 62 m o r n i n g ' , w h a t was the first step? ( l ) f i n e 48 wonderful 22 seashore 36 62 morning (2) fine 48 wonderful 22 36 seashore 62 morning (3) fine 48 seashore wonderful 22 36 morning 62 (4) fine 48 seashore wonderful 36 22 morning 62 (5) Cannot be determined 24. What will be the third step for the following input ? I n p u t : paper common 36 51 pencil 28 test 66 (1) test 28 paper pencil common 36 51 66 (2) test 28 pencil 66 paper common 36 51 (3) test 66 pencil paper 28 common 51 36 (4) test 28 pencil paper common 36 51 66 (5) None of these

(5) None of these 20. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ? (l)One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (4) None of these 21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that d o e s n o t belong to that group ? (1) B K 2 (2) E 1 % (3)J93 (5) 4 T N 22. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ? (4)N@

25. If Step II of an Input is 'waive 14 available time 38 46 probation 85', how many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement ? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two (5) None of these D i r e c t i o n s ( 2 6 - 3 0 ) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are eight friends studying in three different engineering colleges - A, B and C in three disciplines - Mechanical, Electrical and Electronics with not less than two and not more than three in any college. Not more than three of them study in any of the three disciplines. W studies Electrical in college B with only T who studies Mechanical. P and Z do not study in college C and study in same discipline but not Electrical R studies Mechanical in college C with V who studies Electrical. S studies Mechanical and does not study in the same college where R studies. Q does not study Electronics. 26. Which of the following combinations of college-studentspecializaton is c o r r e c t ? (1) C-R-Electronics (2) A-Z-Electrical (3) B-W-Electronics (4) B-W-Electrical (5) B-Z-Electronics 27. In which of the following colleges two students study in Electrical discipline ? (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 28. In w h i c h d i s c i p l i n e d o e s Q study ? (1) Electrical (2) Mechanical (3) Electrical or Mechanical (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 29. In which of the colleges at least one student studies in Mechanical discipline ? (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Both A and B (5) All A, B and C

30. S studies in which college ? (1) A (2) B (3) A or B (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these D i r e c t i o n s ( 3 1 - 3 5 ) : In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : 'A $ B' means 'A is not smaller than B'. 'A # B' means 'A is not greater than B\ 'A @ B' m e a n s 'A is n e i t h e r smaller than nor equal to B'. 'A B' m e a n s 'A is n e i t h e r smaller than nor greater than B'. 'A % B means 'A is neither greater than nor equal to B'. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are d e f i n i t e l y t r u e and give your answer accordingly. 31. S t a t e m e n t s : H % J, J N, N @ R Conclusions: I. R % J II.H@J III. N @ H (1) Only II is true (2) Only I and III are true (3) Only I is true (4) Only III is true (5) None is true 32. S t a t e m e n t s : M@J,J $T,TN Conclusions: I. N # J II. T % M III. M @ N (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and 111 are true (3) Only I and III are true(4) None is true (5) All are true 33. S t a t e m e n t s : DK,K#F,F@P Conclusions: I. P @ D IT. K # P III. F $ D (1) Only II is true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only III is true (4) Only II and III are true (5) None of these

34. S t a t e m e n t s : k#N,N$f,T%J Conclusions: I. J @ N II. K @ T III. T @ K (1) None is true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only II and III are true (4) Only I and III are true (5) None of these 35. S t a t e m e n t s : M@D,DV,V$W C o n c l o s t o i l s : I VV @ M II. M% V III. D S W (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true (4) Only III is true (5) None of these D i r e c t i o n s ( 3 6 - 4 0 ) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for a d m i t t i n g s t u d e n t s for G r a d u a t e course in Architecture in a college : The student m u s t : (i) be at least 17 years old as on 1.7.2011. (ii) have secured at least 50 percent overall marks in XII Std. final examination. (iii) have secured at least 60 percent aggregate m a r k s in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std. final examination. (iv) have secured at least 55 percent marks in the entrance examination. (v) Pay Rs. 60,000/- annual fee at the time of admission. If a student satisfies all the above conditions e x c e p t (a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 70 percent overall marks in XII Std. final examination, his/her case is to be referred to Principal of the college. ( b ) at (v) a b o v e , b u t can pay atleast 60 percent of the annual fee at the time of admission and the remaining amount within six months, his/her case is to be referred to Vice Principal of the college.

In rch of the questions given below, detailed information about one student is given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the above conditions and sub-conditions. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.7.2011. Mark answer (1) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. Mark answer (2) if the student is to be admitted. Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to the Principal. Mark answer (4) if the student is not to be admitted. Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to Vice Principal. 36. Anirban Mandal has passed his XII Std. final examination with 75 per cent overall marks. He was born on 20th October 1993. He has s e c u r e d 56 per c e n t marks in the entrance test and 62 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std. final examination. He can pay Rs. 40,000/- at the time of admission. 37. Shikha Gupta has secured 60 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics a n d 5 8 per c e n t o v e r a l l marks in XII Std. final examination She was born on 14th February 1993. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance test. She can pay Rs. 38,000/- at the time of admission and the remaining amount within two weeks of admission. 38. Sudha Ghosal was born on 8th August 1994. She can pay Rs. 60,000/- at the time of admission. She has secured 65 per cent overall marks in XII Std. final examination and 55 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. She has also secured 75 per cent marks in the entrance test. 39. Arvind Gogoi has secured 75 per cent overall marks in XII Std. final examination. He has se-

cured 60 per cent marks in the entrance test. He was born on 8th January 1992. He can pay Rs. 60,000/- at the time of admission. He has secured 58 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std, final examination. 40. Mohan Awasthi was born on 25th October 1985. He can pay Rs. 40,000 at the time of admission and the remaining amount within two months. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the entrance test. He has also secured 60 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics and 56 per cent overall marks in XII Std. final examination. Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the rigth should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued ? Problem Figures Answer Figures

Directions (51-66) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words I phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. For more than three years, Anna Feng didn't tell her husband that she had sunk nearly half of their savings into the Shanghai stock market. While he thought all their money was safely sitting in a bank, the value of the stocks plunged by almost 75%. But over the past couple of months, the Shanghai market has shown signs of life, and Feng, a 56-year-old retiree, has recouped half her losses. She's quietly hopeful that may be she'll make it all back. "Everyone seems to be so optimistic about the markets now," she says. Around the world, stocks have been on a tear. In Asia, for example, the Tokyo TOPIX stock index hit a 14year high last week as a bull run in once-dormant Japan gathered momentum; Mumbai's main equity index hit an all-time high in trading early Friday amid India's continuing economic boom; and Hong Kong shares reached a five-year high while indices in Singapore, Jakarta and Sydney set new records. And though stock in Asia, in particular, are on fire, they are not alone. From Germany to Venezuela to South Africa, equity markets in both mature and emerging markets have moved up sharply this year and show little sign of slowing. The underpinning for stocks' strong performance, global bulls say, is straight-forward. Economic growth continues to be strong in places where it has been buoyant for several years (the U.S., China and India) and is finally picking up in places where it had been notably absentJapan and parts of "old" Europe. Moreover, earning and corporate balance sheets around the world are as healthy as they have been in years. In Japan, corporate profits have climbed for four straight years and consumer spending is rising briskly on the back of declining unemployment. Economists say that Japan is now in a golden cycle. So, for now, is much of the world. "It comes down to very simple macroeconomics." says Subir Gokam, an

economist at CRISIL, India's largest credit-rating firm. " T h e global economy is growing without much inflationary pressure." Is anything wrong with this picture ? One very big thing, warn the skeptics. Interest rates are rising nearly everywhere, and if there is one simple adage that many investment advisers live by, It's this: "When rates are high, stocks will die." Indeed, one of the most impressiveor scariest aspects of the current global bull run is that it has come in the teeth of central-bank tightening, most importantly by the U.S. Federal Reserve, which could slow growth in the world's key economic locomotive. The Fed has increased key short-term interest ratethe so-called Fed funds rate 15 times dating back to June 2004, and is widely expected to raise it one or twice more over the next few months. A brief recession and the Sept. 11 terrorist attacks in 2001 spurred a prolonged period of very low interst rates. That boosted U.S. consumptionin particular the ratesensitive housing marketand kept the global economy humming. But long-term rates are now beginning to tick upward: last week the U.S. 30year treasury bond reached 5.04% its highest level since late 2004, and the housing market is cooling offpotentially triggering an economic slowdown as homeowners cut their spending. 5 1 . According to the passage, what makes people hopeful about the markets ? (l)The descent in the value of stocks (2) The trend of substantial increase in value of stocks (3) Safety provided by banks to their deposits (4) Optimism of the stock market players (5) The interest rates are going up 52. Which of the following is T R U E about the comparison between market indices of Mumbai and Hong Kong on the one hand and Singapore, Jakarta and Sydney on the other ? ( l ) T h e indices in the former case are increasing while those in the latter are decreasing

(2) There is no rerqarkable trend visible between the two sets of indices (3) Indices in both the groups of exercises are stable over a period of last five years (4) The markets in both the groupd of countries have shown upward trend (5) None of these 53. What is the impact of increasing long term interest rates ? (A) Demand in housing market is gradually diminishing. (B)Retardation in economic growth. (C)Restrictions imposed by central bank. (1) (A) only (2)'(B)only (3) (C) only (4) (A) & (C) only (5) None of these 54. In what way did the terrorist attack in the US influence the markets ? (1) It led to a brief recession (2) It increased long term need for housing (3) It helped increase the interest rates on housing (4) It prolonged the low interest rate regime (5) None of these 55. How are the interest rates associated with the stocks ? (1) In direct proportion (2) In inverse proportion (3) No relation (4) Dependent upon the investors (5) None of these 56. Which of the following statements is/are F A L S E in the context of the passage ? (A)Economic growth in US, China, India, Japan and old European countries started to show a downward trend. (B)Higher interest rates help boost stock value (C) Skeptics firmly believe that economic growth is a boon from all the angles. (1) All the three (2) (A) and (B) only (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (C) only (5) None of these

57. H o w do the s t o c k v a l u e s in Asian countries compare with that in the other countries of the global ? (1) It cannot be inferred on the basic of the context of the passage (2) There is general decline in the market indices all over the globe (3) Markets show a general rise in the indices all over the globe (4) Markets only in Asian countries have shown u p w a r d trend (5) None of these 58. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for the statement that 'Japan is now in golden cycle' ? (A) It is an economic growth without much inflationary pressure. (B)Japan witnesssed a substantial increase in corporate profits for the last four years. (C)There are more employment avenues open and consumer's spending has increased signifi-cantly. (1) All the three-A), (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (B) only (3) Either (B) or (C) only (4) (A) and (C) only (5) Either (A) or (C) only 59. According to the content of the passage, the spurt in stock markets appears to b e (1) a healthy sign of growing world peace (2) an indication of eradication of global poverty (3) a proof of a negligible number of people below poverty line (4) a t r a n s i t i o n f r o m u n d e r development to enrichement (5) None of these Directions ( 6 0 - 6 2 ) : Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage ? 60. Briskly (1) vigorously (2) efficiently (3) hurriedly (4) insignificantly (5) slowl)

61. Boosted (1) aggravated (2) elevated (3) deflated (4) damaged (5) stopped 62. Plunged (1) fell (2) increased (3) dropped (4) more (5) appeared Directions (63-65): Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage ? 63. Buoyant (1) drawing (2) haphazard (3) upbeat (4) extravagant (5) sailing 64. Spurred (1) shortened (2) widened (3) thronged (4) stimulated (5) escalated 65. Skeptic (1) disbeliever (2) orthodox (3) theist (4) philosoper (5) analyst Directions (66-70) : In each of the following sentences there are two blanks spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete. 66. More is of conditions of the tribals in M a h a r a s h t r a than conditions of those in the other parts of the country. (1) certain the (2) known of (3) aware of (4) favourable those (5) uncertain all 67. Although is not a very desirable feeling, we need a certain amount of it to well. (1) anxiety exist (2) grief enjoy (3) impatience preach (4) anger define (5) jealousy bad 68. Although he is a person, he occasionally loses his (1) quiet power (2) cheerful grief (3) balanced temper

(4) thoughtful anxiety (5) generous wealth 69. In a tone, the leader made a powerful to the mob. (1) realistic zeal (2) lower conviction (3) loud argument (4) soft appeal (5) pitch statement 70. The tunnel was so and congested, that we became (1) long enthusiastic (2) deep cautious (3) dark frightened (4) crowded isolated (5) sharp worried Directions (71-85): V/hich of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer 71. Because of his efficiency, the Director wanted him to work as his assistant. (1) wanted to him (2) wants him to be (3) wanted he to (4) wanted of him (5) No correction required 72. Highly intelligent people s e l dom tolerate any ambiguity. (1) tolerate hardly any ambiguity (2) hardly tolerate ambiguous (3) tolerate any clarity whatsoever (4) hardly tolerate any lacuna (5) No correction required 73. Being toiled for two hours, he sat down to take some rest. (1) Have toiled for (2) Had toiled for (3) Having to be toiled at (4) Having toiled for (5) No correction required 74. He must have behaved impolite and suffer because of that. (1) impolitely and suffer (2) impolitely and suffered (3) impolite and suffered (4) impolitely and have suffer (5) No correction required

75. The Neo Club h a s been extended financial technical help to poor and deserving women. (1) has been extending (2) have been extending (3) is being extended (4) have been extended (5) No correction required 76. Even less intelligent students can b e s u c c e e d e d t h r o u g h hard work and perseverance. (1) get succession (2) be success (3) get success (4) be getting succeeded (5) No correction required 77. Some people experienced life only if they are totally at the mercy of their feelings. (1) experience life as if they are (2) experienced life as if they are (3) experiencing if only w h e n they are (4) experience life when they were (5) No correction required 78. L e a d e r s e n a b l e a g r o u p by imagining and create a future which will fulfill the group purpose. (1) by imagining to creat (2) to imagine and by create (3) to imagine and create (4) to imagining creativity (5) No correction required 79. Some people by naturally talk more than others. (1) by natural talk (2) naturally talk (3) nature by talking (4) Natural by talking (5) No correction required 80. Being a man of principle, he refused to follow the illegitimate instructions. (1) following the illegitimate (2) to following illegitimately (3) to follow the illegitimately (4) not to follow illegitimately (5) No correction required 81. One of the basic choices we make in life is whether following the path of smart selfishness or try to avoid all problems. (1) while following (2) is whether to follow (3) is whether or not to follow

(4) has been whether follow (5) No correction required 82. G o o d - n a t u r e d p e o p l e h a v e been suffered because of their politicking companions. (1) have suffering with (2) are suffered because of (3) are being suffered because of (4) may suffer because of (5) No correction required 83. Making a donation to charity helps some people feel good. (1) helped some people felt (2) helps some people felt (3) helping some people to feel (4) helps some of people feeling (5) No correction required 84. W h y does he worry over petty matters is not known. (1) he worries (2) he did worry (3) he does worry (4) should he be worry (5) No correction required 85. The active learning of adulthood is not only possible but infinitely and desirable. (1) possible but only infinite (2) only possible infinite and (3) possible only if infinite (4) only possible but infinitely (5) No correction required Directions ( 8 6 - 9 0 ) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) To propose the idea of becoming perfected is not the same as saying that we human beings can be perfect. (B) It only means that we are capable of learning, changing and growing throughout the span of our earthly life. (C) Learning is a process that begins at birth and lasts till death. (D) This development through under-standing new things, transforming and developing throught may be considered as the perfection of soul. (E) Given that we are here to conti-nually learn on the journey of life, it seems that the ultimate goal of learning is the perfection of our souls (F) Nor that we should be perfect in everything.

86. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearran-gement ? (DA (2)B (3) C (4) D (5)E 87. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement? (DA (2) B (3)C (4) D (5)E 88. Which of the following should be the F I F T H statement after rearrangement? (DA (2)B (3) C (4) D (5)E 89. Which of the following should be SDXTH (last) statement after rearrangement ? (1)A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)E 90. Which of the following should be the T H I R D statement after rearrangement ? (1)A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)E Directions (91-100): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words, are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Most of us are (91) of open conflict and avoid it if we can. And there is a (92) to expressing and working through conflict. If the working through involves harsh words and name-calling people feel deeply hurt and relationships can be (93-). Sometimes permanently. Some group members may be afraid that if they really (94) their anger, they may go out of control and become Violent, or they may do this. These fears can be very (95) and based on experience. So why take the risk ? Why not avoid conflict at all costs ? Conflict is rather like disease (96) is best, that means attending to areas where (97) may occur before they become an issue. If you have not (98) a conflict happening, your next choice is to treat it early,

or hope that it goes away. If it goes away over time fine. If it (99). then you will still have to handle (treat) it and it is likely to be more (100). 91. (1) scared (3) reckless (5) worried (1) challenge (2) measure (3) principle (4) chance (5) risk 93. (1) established (2) maligned (3) damaged (4) rebuilt (5) involved 94. (1) sublimate (2) express (3) minimize (4) regulate (5) control 95. (1) baseless (2) imaginary (3) exaggerative (4) real (5) national 96. (l)cure (2) diagnosis (3) prescription (4) prevention (5) medicine 97. (1) harmony (2) discomfiture (3) disagreement (4)consensus (5) statement 98. (1) expressed (2) ignored (3) induced (4) seen (5) perverted 99. (1) doesn't (3) (5) 100. (1) (3) (2) won't don't (4) not hasn't credible (2) serious fraudulent(4) urgent (2) careful (4) aware


(5) skilled

Directions (121-125) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question alongwith the statements and decide, the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question. 121. In how many days can 16 men and 8 women together complete the piece of work ? I. 8 men complete the piece of work in 10 days. II. 16 women complete the piece of work in 10 days. III. 5 women take 32 days to complete the piece of work. (1) Only I and II (2) Only I and III (3) Only II and III (4) Only I and either II or III (5) Any two of the three 122. What is the speed of the train ? I. Train crosses a pole in 10 seconds II. Length of the train is 240 metres. III. Train crosses a platform of equal length in 20 seconds. (1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III (3) All I, II and III (4) Any two of the three (5) II and either I or III 123. What is the area of the square ? I. Measure of diagonal of the square is given. II. Measure of one side of square is given. III. Perimeter of the square is given. (1) Only II (2) Only III (3) Only I and III (4) Only II and III (5) Any one of the three 124. What is the two digit number ? I. T h e n u m b e r o b t a i n e d by interchanging the digits of the number is greater than the original number by 18. II. Sum of the two digits of the number is 14. III. Difference between the two digits of the number is 2. (1) Any two of the three (2) Only I and III

(3) II and either I or III (4) All the three (5) III and either I or II 125. W h a t is the rate of i n t e r e s t p.c.p.a. ? I. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs. 5,300 II. The difference between the compound and simple interest on an a m o u n t is R s . 1,060 at the end of 2 years. III. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest. (1) All the three (2) Only III (3) Either II or III (4) Only III or I and II (5) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements Directions (126-130) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow : Sale (in crores) of number of units by Six Different Companies over the years.
Year 1997 Company L M N O P Q 107.0 175.1 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 26.5 36.6 27.5 32.8 19.0 40.12 25.1 25.0 22.5 37.0 17.0 30.0

129. W h a t is the a p p r o x i m a t e average number of units sold in the year 1999 ? (1) 407300000 (2) 427400000 (3) 42740000 (4) 4073000000 (5) 40730000 130. What is the difference between n u m b e r of units sold by C o m p a n y O in the year 1997 and the year 2000 ? (1) 7730000000 (2) 703000000 (3) 7030000000 (4) 77300000 (5) None of these D i r e c t i o n s (131-135) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? 131. 2 3 % of 8040 + 4 2 % of 545 = ?% of 3000 (1) 56.17 (2) 63.54 (3) 71.04 (4) 69.27 (5) None of these

85.0~> 28.48 38.0 76.0 31.38 43.0 45.2 35.1 48.9

156.6 66.49 43.7 112.4 78.24 56.6 95.1 111.8 53.2

192.0 72.18 31.04 42.2

126. Number of units sold by Company M in t h e y e a r 2002 is w h a t percent of the total number of units sold by all the Companies together in that year ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 14.16 (2) 21.48 (3) 16.28 (4) 26.26 (5) None of these 127. Which Company has sold the maximum number of units over the years ? (1)Q (2)M (3) N (4) P (5) None of these 128. Which year is the percentage increase/decrease in number of units sold from the previous year the lowest for Company L ? (1) 2000 (2) 2002 (3) 2001 (4) 1998 (5) None of these

(2) Rs. 2,48,521 (3) Rs. 1,11,624 (4) Rs. 2,06,118 (5) None of these 137. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 14,800 at the end of three years is Rs. 6,216. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ? (1) Rs. 6986.1142 (2) Rs. 7042.2014 (3) Rs. 7126.8512 (4) Rs. 8321.4166 (5) None of these 138. In how many different ways can the letters of the word'PADDLED' be arranged ? (1) 910 (2) 2520 (3) 5040 (4) 840 (5) None of these

139. Vipul decided to donate 5% of his salary. On the day of donation he changed his mind and donated Rs. 1687.50 which was 7 5 % of what he had decided earlier. How much is Vipul's salary ? (1) Rs. 37,500 (2) Rs. 45,000 (3) Rs. 33,750 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 140. 9 children can complete a piece of work in 360 days. 18 men can complete the same piece of work in 72 days and 12 women can complete the piece of work in 162 days. In how many days can 4 men, 12 women and 10 children together complete the piece of work? (1) 124 (2) 81 (3) 68 (4) 96 J (5) None of these Directions (141-145): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow : Number of Articles (in thousands) Manufactured (M) and Defective (D) by 5 units of a Company over the Years UNIT Year M 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 53 49 50 65 70 44 I D 21 18 18 20 31 15 M 45 32 48 68 72 56 II D 12 10 18 15 13 22 M 76 45 55 57 82 32 III D 38 24 16 20 22 32 M 56 63 68 54 48 40 IV D 21 24 30 19 27 15 M 46 36 34 48 58 V D 18 14 15 12 10 60

Directions (146-150) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 YEARS >

141. What is the ratio between total number of articles manufactured by unit III to that by Unit V for all the years together ? (1) 353 : 282 (2) 282 : 353 (3) 457 : 215 (4) 215 : 457 (5) None of these 142. What is the average number of defective items from Unit II for the given years ? (1) 21,500 (2) 17,000 (3) 12,500 (4) 15,000 (5) None of these 143. During which year the largest percentage of articles were defective out of the articles manufactured by Unit IV ? (1) 1996 (2) 1997

(3) 1998

(4) 1999

(5) 2000 144. W h a t was the percentage (rounded off to nearest integer) of defective articles over the number of articles manufactured by all units together in the year 2001 ? (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 33 (5) None of these 145. During which year was the percentage increase/decrease in manufacture from the previous year the highest for Unit I ? (1) 1998 (2) 2001 (3) 1999 (4) 1997 (5) None of these

146. From 1999 to 2004, the total number of people who prefer re i to travel by rail, was approximately how many millions ? (1) 1300 (2) 1500 (3) 1600 (4) 1800 (5) 2000 147. The number of people preferring to travel by rail in 2004, was how many millions fewer than the number of people preferring to travel by rail in 1999 ? (1) 70 ' (2) 45 (3) 75 (4) 50 (5) None of these 148. In 2001, the people preferring to travel by bus represented approximately what per cent of the people preferring to travel by buses, rail and airlines together in that year ? (1) 65 per cent (2) 35 per cent (3) 55 per cent (4) 75 per cent (5) 45 per cent 149. What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring to travel by bus to the number of people preferring to travel by rail in the year 2002 ? (1) 15 : 11 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 11 : 15 (5) None of these 150. In the year 2003, if all the airlines reduced their rates by 50% and 5 0 % of the people who preferred to travel by rail, now preferred airlines, approximately how many millions of people prefer to travel by air ? (1) 290 (2) 313 (3) 330 (4) 300 (5) 325


151 T h e i n t e r n a t i o n a l D a y for Elimination of Racial Discrimination is observed o n : (1) 20th February (2) 20th March (3) 25th May (4) 21st February (5) 21st March 152. Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL) in August 2011 announced to invest ' to develop mines catering to its increased raw material require'ment. (1) ` 8764 crore (2) ` 9100 crore 3)` 10,2(54 crore (4) ` 11000 crore (5) ` 11864 crore 153. The Planning Commission in September 2011 estimated the country's coal demand to go up to by the end of 12th Plan period. ( 1 ) 5 0 0 mt ( 2 ) 7 0 0 mt (3 1000 mt ( 4 ) 1 2 0 0 mt ( 5 ) 1 5 0 0 mt 154. According to a research paper released in September 2 0 1 1 , India's textiles industry is set ' to touch $ 1.4 trillion by the year (1)2012-13 (2)2013-14 (3)2014-15 (4)2015-16 (5)2016-17 155. India's Competition C o m m i s sion of India in August 2011 cleared the way for Disney to buy the all shares of . (l)UTV (2) PTV (3) Star TV (4) All of the above (5) None of these 156. T h e R e s e r v e ' B a n k o f I n d i a (RBI) had decided to withdraw its nominee directors from the boards of which of the following t vpes of banks ? (1) Cooperative Banks (2) Nationalized Banks (3) Private Sector Banks (4) Foreign Banks

(5) None of these 164. Which state in September 2011 157. Which state in September 2011 finalized a new land policy undecided to constitute the der which it will seize indus'Aroyga Kosh to provide finantrial l a n d not u s e d for five. cial support to poor patients years. suffering from life threatening (1) Gujarat diseases ? (2) Rajastha ( l ) U t t a r Pradesh (3) Tamil Nadu (2) Punjab (3) Delhi (4) West Bengal (4) Bihar (5) Gujarat (5) Meghalaya 158. Sonia Gandhi is the Member of 165. A u n g San Suu Kyi who was the Lok Sabha from which of the a w a r d e d the first Benazir following seats ? Bhutto Award recently is a citi(1) Al)ahabad(2) Lucknow zen of: (3) Sultanpur (4) Amethi ( l ) Singapore (2) China (5) Rai Bareilly (3) Taiwan (4) Myanmar 159. According to government data (5) Nepal released in September 2011, to 166. Lee Chong Wei, on May 1,2011, g o v e r n m e n t detected of beat Danish veteran to beunaccounted black money durcome the first w i n n e r of the ing 2010-11. $200,000 Indin Open Super Se(1) ` 9000 crore ries badminton championship in ( 2 ) ` 1 0 6 4 9 crore New Delhi. (3) ` 11,150 crore (1) Peter Gade (4) ` 12000 crore (2) Alex Neil (5) ` 13105 crore (3) Justin Quail 160. 'New Horizons' space craft which (4) Tess Martin was launched by the NASA was (5) None of these meant to study which of the fol167. India's Population has jumped lowing planets ? to billion, an increase of (1) Mars (2) Saturn more than 181 million during (3) Jupiter (4) Pluto 2 0 0 1 1 1 , a c c o r d i n g to provi(5) Mercury sional data of Census 2011. 161. State run power utility NTPC (1) 1.21 (2) 1.27 Ltd. in September 2011 signed (3) 1.30 (4) 1.45 a joint venture with electric(5) None of these ity board for developing its first t 168. T h e Union Budget 2011-2012, overseas project. presented in the Parliament on (1) Sri Lanka (2) Nepal February 28, 2011, announced (3) Pakistan (4) Maldives a new scheme with an outlay of (5) Indonesia Rs. _ _ _ _ crore to be launched 162. The board of Steel Authority of to provide assistance to States India Ltd in September 2011 to modernise their stamp and approved a plan to spend of registration administration and revenue on research and develroll out e-stamping in all the disopment. tricts in the next three years. (1) 1 per cent (2) 1.5 per cent (1) 100 (2) 300 (3) 2 per cent (4) 2.5 per cent (3) 500 (4) 1000 (5) 3 per cent (5) None of these 163. The government in September 2011 decided to effect a condi169. The 12th International Indian tional fourfold increase in the Film Academy Awards function education free for the Indian was organized in which of the Institutes of Technology to . following places in June 2011 ? ( 1 ) ` 4 lakh (2) ` 5 lakh (1) Toronto (2) Bangalore (3) ` 6 lakh (4) ` 7 lakh (3) Panaji (4) Moscow (5) ` 8 lakh (5) None of these

170. Which of the following countries has developed a low cost anti rabies vaccine, which is also the world's first combination rabies vaccine ? (1) China (2) India (3) Britain (4) USA (5) None of these 171. T h e R a i l w a y B u d g e t 2 0 1 1 2012, presented by Railway Minister Mamta Banerjee on February 25, 2011, announced partnership with University for development of new designs for rail steel bridges. (1) Kohima (2) Cuttack (3)Jadavpur (4) Kolkata (5) None of these 172. Which team beat India, on October 14, 2010, to win the Gold Medal of the Men's Hockey Competition of the 2010 Commonwealth Games in New Delhi? (1) New Zealand (2) England (3) Australia (4) Canada (5) None of these 173. The government in September 2011 announced a . hike in the dearness allowance of its employees. ( 1 ) 4 per cent (2) 5 per cent (3) 6 per cent (4) 7 per cent (5) 8 per cent 174. Which of the following organizations has created an 'Investor Protection Fund', which is funded by fines and penalties collected by the organization itself from various clients ? (1) SEBI (3) RBI (2) IRDA (4) AMFI (5) None of these 175. The Economic Survey for 201011, tabled in Parliament by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on February 25, 2 0 1 1 , pegged the e c o n o m i c growth at per cent for the current fiscal, helped by broadbased rebound in agriculture and continued m o m e n t u m " in manufacturing and private services. (1) 8.3 (2) 8.6 (3) 8.9 (4) 9.4 (5) None of these

176. Earlier it was thought safe of allow each financial institution to carry out only one type of financial service. But now banks are selling shares, insurance companies can sell banking services. These new financial conglomerates are colloquially referred to as (1) Multinationals (2) Financial supermarkets (3) Market regulators (4) Brand Promoters (5) None of these 177. Which of the following was/were noted by the Economic Survey 2010-11, tabled by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in the Parliament on February 25, 2011? (A) Gross Fiscal Deficit stands t 4.8 per cent of GDP in, down from 6.3 per cent. (B) Inflation expected to be 1.5 per cent higher than w h a t it would be if the economy were not on growth path. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Only (A) (3) Only (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B) (5) None of these 178. As per the guidelines issued by the SEBI the Permanent A c count Number (PAN) is a must for which of the following ? 11) Demat Accounts (2) All Saving Banks Accounts (3) All Housing Loan Accounts (4) All Current Accounts (5) None of these 179. Many times we read a term'Free Market' in newspapers. What does it mean ? [Pick up the correct statement(s)] (A)It is a market where pricing is driven by the laws of supply and demand. (B)In free m a r k e t things are available without restraints of the government. (C)In such markets goods are free from extraneous influences such as tariff or quotas.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) (A) and (B) both (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 180. Which of the following correctly describes what is e-Bharat ? (1) It is a comprehensive governance programme for rural India launched by the Government of India. (2) It is the new service launched by the MTNL which will provide cheap mobile connection to rural Indians. (3) It is a newly internet service launched by the Tatas providing cheap connections to rural people. (4) It is a call centre service launched by the ITC to help farmers. (5) None of these 181. Corporation Bank is also a distributor of the M u t u a l Fund products. For this the bank has an agreement with which of the following organizations ? (1) Bajaj Allianz (2) DSP Merrill Lynch (3) HDFC Mutual Fund (4) SBI Mutual Fund (5) None of these 182. Small Industries Development B a n k of India in S e p t e m b e r 2011 sanctioned to Bangalore based micro lending Ujjivan. (l)`70crore (2)`78crore (3) ` 93 erore (4)`101crore (5) ` H O c r o r e 183. Mercator Lines in September 2011 a c q u i r e d a 50 per cent stake in a coal mine in for about $ 30 million. (1) Syria (2) Indonesia (3) U A E (4) Siberia (5) China 184. Which of the following banks is t a k e n over b y t h e S t a n d a r d Chartered Bank ? (1) Bank of Bahrain and Kuwait (2) Development Bank of Singapore (3) Deutsche Bank (4) Federal Bank of Germany (5) None of these

185. T h e I S R O , o n J u l y 9 , 2 0 1 1 , named , a veteran remote sensing applications scientist, as the Chairman-cum-Managing Director of its marketing arm Antrix Corporation Limited. ( l ) M o h i t Bansal (2) Brajesh Solanki (3) Baldev Saxena (4) V.S. Hegde (5) None of these 186. The EGoM on Food, on July 11, 2011, cleared the Food Security Bill, which seeks to entitle per cent of the BPL population and 50 per cent of the urban population to heavily subsidised food grains. (1)75 (2)80 (3)85 (4)90 (5) None of these 187. INS K o s w a r i , the indigenously built Fast Attack Craft (FAC) of the Navy was commissioned in V i s a k h a p a t n a m on July 12, 2011. (1) Seventh (2) Ninth (3) Tenth (4) Fifteenth (5) None of these 188. The Baphuon monument, one of the largest temples of after Angkor Wat, was reopened to the public in July 2011 following the completion of a decades-long renovation project. (1) Laos (2) Cambodia (3) Indonesia (4) Malaysia (5) None of these 189. A Milan court, in July 2011, ordered Italian Prime Minister Silvio Berlusconi's company to pay rival media group CIR euro 560 million after it bribed a judge to approve a company takeover. (l)Fininvest (2) Dreams Unlimited (3) Malpaso (4) Suvira (5) None of these 190. General David P e t r a e u s , the U.S. commander in Afghanistan, stepped down in Kabul on July 18, 2011, passing the baton to (1) John Allen (2) Lee Childs (3) Andrew Castle (4) Liam Broady (5) None of these

191. Union Finance Minister Pranab M u k h e r j e e , on J u l y 5, 2 0 1 1 , made it clear that the government would stick to the fiscal deficit target of per cent of GDP for the current fiscal. (1)4.1 (2)4.3 (3)4.6 (4)4.9 (5) None of these 192. The Reserve Bank of India, on July 5, 2011, extended the per cent ceiling of bank investment in liquid schemes of m u tual funds to include short-term debt funds. (1)5 (2)8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (5) None of these 193. Which of the following trophies is accociated with the game of Football ? (1) Evert Cup (2) Mardeka Cup (3) Mumbai Gold Cup (4) Bharat Ram Cup (5) VCC Cup 194. 'Cricket My Style'is a book written by (1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Sunil Gavaskar (3) Rahul Dravid (4) Kapil Dev (5) None of these 195. T e n ' is the currency of: (1) Bulgaria (2) Brazil (3) Chile (4) Cuba (5) Japan 196. Which of the following terms is NOT related with the game of cricket ? (l)Googly (2) Silly Point (3) Smash (4) Bouncer (5) Mid Wicket 197. T a t a H o u s i n g D e v e l o p m e n t Company Ltd., in July 2011, announced its entry into the international market with the launch of its first overseas project in (1) Mauritius (2) Maldives (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) None of these 198. For getting National Old Age Pension the age of the person should not be less than : (1) 50 years (2) 55 years (3) 58 years (4) 60 years (5) 65 years

199. Tiananmen Square Incidence was a well known incidence of the world history. Tiananmen is a place in which of the following countries ? (1) Singapore (2) China (3) Hong Kong (4) Myanmar (5) None of these 200. W h i c h of t h e f o l l o w i n g is a programme to provide electric connections to those living below poverty line ? (1) M P L A D S (2) Kutir Jyoti (3) Ganga Kalyan Yojana (4) Sangam Yojana (5) None of these

201. Periodically adding, changing a n d d e l e t i n g file r e c o r d s is called file (1) updating (2) upgrading (3) restructuring (4) renewing (5) None of these 202. Digital computers use a . system to encode date and programs. (1) semiconductor (2) decimal (3) binary (4) R A M (5) None of these 203. During processing data, programs and processed information are held temporarily in (1) secondary storage (2) R O M (4) CPU (5) None of these 204. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ? (l)TXT (2)WRD (3)F1L (4) DOC (5) None of these 205. The part if a computer that coordinates all its functions is called its . ( l ) R O M program (2) system board (3) arithmetic logic unit (4) control unit (5) None >f these (3) RAM

229. A flat metallic disk that contains a large amount of permanently stored information read optically is called a (1) Monitor (2) A L U (3) C D - R O M (4) RAM (5) None of these 230. When computer users a document, they change its appearance. (l)edit (2) create (3) save (4) format (5) None of these 231. are such distinct items, which do not have wide implication in the given situation. (1) Field (2) Data (3) Query (4) Property (5) None of these 232. Files are organised after storing in (1) Archives (2) Folders (3) Indices (4) Lists (5) None of these 233. To open disk, mouse pointer is placed on disk icon and t h e n (1) mouse is dragged pushing the button (2) mouse is double-clicked (3) mouse is rotated around (4) mouse is clicked after rotating it (5) None of these 234. A computer message is "Do you really want to delete the selected files (s)?" The user cuv.~<i "Yes' key. It is called (1) Program Respons. (2) User output (3) User Response (4) Program output (5) None of these 235. T h e resicw ." c o m p u t e r is called , when computer is already on. (1) Cold Booting (2) Warm Booting (3) Shut Down (4) Logging off (5) None of these 236. The person w h o writes c o m puter program and test, is known as (1) Programmer

(2) Computer scientist (3) Software engineer (4) Project developer (5) None of these 237. Tape drive provides access to data. (1) Timely (2) Sporadic (3) Random (4) Sequential (5) None of these 238. Which of the following is called small single site network ? (1) LAN (3) R A M (2) DSL (4) USB

243. A disk or. which you store information (1) Plate (2) Data disk (3) Paper disk (4) TV disk (5) None of these 244. Any letter, number or symbol found on the keyboard that you can type into the computer (1) Output (2) Character (8"' (4) Print (5) None of these 245. Instructions that tell the computer what to do. Another name for software (1) Programs (3) Options (2) CPU (4) Folder

(5) None of these 239. The user generally applies to access mainframe or super computer. (1) Terminal (3) Desktop (4) Hand held (5) None of these 240. Which of the following is appropriate_.method to s h u t d o w n computer ? (1) C l i c k ' S t a r t ' , t h e n select 'Shut Down' and finally select'Shut Down'. (2) Click 'Start', then select 'Restart the Computer' (3) Switch off the Power (4) S w i t c h off M o n i t o r a n d Printer (5) None of these 241. The capability of the operating system to enable two or more than two programs to execute simultaneously in a single computer system by using a single processor is (1) Multiprocessing (2) Multitasking (3) Multiprogramming (4) Multiex^cution (5) None of these 242. Which of the following is not the major function of a computer? (1) Processing data into information (2) Storing data or information (3) Gathering data (4) Analysing data or information (5) None of these (2) Node

(5) None of these 246. A place in the computer system where data and programs are temporarily stored(1) Paste (3) Memory (2) Open (4) Pocket

(5) None of these 247. A key that will erase information from the computer's memory and characters on the screen (1) Edit (2) Delete key (3) Dummy out (4) Trust key (5) None of these 248. A removable magnetic disc that holds informationCD Floppy disk (2) Hard drive (3) Monitor (4) Portable (5) None of these 249. A c o m m a n d that saves what you are working on into the hard drive, or onto a disk (1) View (3) Save (2) Hold (4) Go

(5) None of these 250. Screen that comes on when you turn on your computer that shows all the icons (1) Desktop (3) Viewer (2) Face to face (4) View space

(5) None of these