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SAT PRACTICE TEST

v1.2 © 2010-2013

Form Code APOS212

Test Serial #: 100212
No reproduction of any portion of this work, whether mechanical or electronic, is allowed without the express written permission of Apollo Prep LLC. All rights reserved. SAT is a registered trademark of the College Entrance Examination Board, an institution that is unaffiliated with Apollo Prep LLC.

Apollo Prep SAT Practice Test 

1
Your Name:
(Print) Last First M.I.

Use a No. 2 pencil on ALL sections of the answer sheet, including the essay. Be sure each mark is dark and completely fills the intended circle. Completely erase any errors or stray marks.

I agree to the testing conditions, rules, and regulations for this exam.
Signature: Home Address:
Number and Street City State State/Country Zip Code

Date:

Home Phone:

(

)

Center:
(Print) City

2

YOUR NAME
Last Name (First 6 Letters) First Name (First 4 Letters) Mid. Init.

3
MONTH

DATE OF BIRTH
DAY YEAR

5
Female

SEX

9
Male

(Copy from front of test book.)

Test Serial #

0 – ’ – ’ – ’ – ’ – ’ 1

0 1 2 3

0 1 2 3

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A B C D E F G H I J

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FORM CODE

(Copy and grid as on front of test book.)

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

4 5 6 7 8 9

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

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0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

ZIP CODE

K L M

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
0 0 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6

PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

SERIAL #

SECTION

1

I prefer NOT to grant Apollo Prep the right to use, reproduce, or publish my essay for any purpose beyond the assessment of my writing skills, even though my name will not be used in any way in conjunction with my essay. I understand that I am free to mark this circle with no effect on my score. IMPORTANT: Use a No. 2 PENCIL. Do NOT write outside the border! Words written outside the essay box or written in ink WILL NOT APPEAR in the copy sent to be scored, and your score will be affected.

Begin your essay on this page. If you need more space, continue on the next page.

Page 2

Continue on the next page, if necessary.

Continuation of ESSAY Section 1 from previous page. Write below only if you need more space. IMPORTANT: DO NOT START on this page—if you do, your essay may appear blank and your score may be affected.

Page 3

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

SECTION

2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

SECTION

3
CAUTION

Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if you are told to do so in your test book.
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

Student-Produced Responses

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Page 4

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

4

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

5

CAUTION

Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if you are told to do so in your test book.
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

Student-Produced Responses

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Page 5

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

SECTION

6

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

SECTION

7
CAUTION

Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if you are told to do so in your test book.
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

Student-Produced Responses

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Page 6

8 9

PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

SERIAL #

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

8

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

9

1 2 3 SECTION 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

10

Page 7

Time – 25 Minutes
Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Important Reminders: • A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. • Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet. • An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.

If you chase two rabbits, you will catch neither of them. Russian proverb

Assignment: Does success require intense focus on one goal, marginalizing all other priorities? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.

Time – 25 Minutes 20 Questions
Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

1. If x + y = 9 and 5x – 2x = 21, what is the value of y? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 3 4 6 7

2. A letter is picked at random from the letters in the word FLORIDA. What is the probability that the letter is a vowel? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1/7 1/3 3/7 1/2 3/4

3. If 3x – 3 = 3, what is the value of 3x + 3? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) –3 0 3 6 9

2, 3 3, 2 1, 3 3, 1 1, 1 3, 3 5. For each of the pairs of numbers above, the “point value” of the pair is either the product or the sum of the numbers in the pair, whichever is higher. What is the sum of the “point values” of all six pairs shown above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 27 28 29 30 31

4. Which of the following figures, when placed together with the figure above, will form a square with no overlap and no spaces?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6. In the figure above, what is the value of a? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 84 87 90 93 96

(E)

7. If s > t, then s is how much greater than the positive difference between s and t ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) s–t 2s – t t–s t – 2s t

10. The regions in the Venn diagram above show the numbers of dancers in a certain group who perform in hip-hop, ballet, and jazz dance. According to the diagram, how many of the dancers in the group perform in exactly 2 styles of dance? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 18 24 30 36 45

8. In the figure above, the polygon ABCDEFGHJ is equilateral and equiangular. If an arc has endpoints C and E and passes through D, as shown, what is the measure, in degrees, of this arc? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 80 120 144 150 160

"1% C = 14, 000$ ' #2&

t

30

11. At time t = 0, a chemical is dispersed into the air at a certain site. The concentration C, in parts per € of the chemical in the air at the site t million, seconds after the dispersal of the chemical is given by the formula above. What is the concentration of the chemical, in parts per million, in the air at the site 2 minutes after the dispersal of the chemical? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 875 1750 3500 7000 Over 10,000

9. Tick marks are equally spaced on the number line above. Which of the lettered points has the coordinate with the greatest absolute value? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a b c d e

x 0 1 2 3 4

f(x ) 4 2 0 3 1

14. If the sum of a, b, and c is 20, what is the average (arithmetic mean) of a, b, c, and 20? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 10 15 20 40

12. Several values of the function f are given in the table above. If the function g is defined by g(x) = f(f(x)), what is the value of g(1)? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 4

15. Which of the following is equivalent to p percent of q, where p and q are positive numbers? I. II. III. q percent of p 1 percent of pq p percent of q percent of 100

13. At a certain junior high school, the 100 students in the eighth grade are divided into homerooms A, B, C, and D, with each student assigned to exactly one of the homerooms. If each of the homerooms A, B, and C individually contains more than one-quarter of the students in the eighth grade, what is the greatest number of eighth-grade students who could be assigned to homeroom D? (A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 25 (E) 26

(A) III only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III

16. If a and b are positive integers such that a + b < 8, what is the greatest possible value of a2 + b2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 32 37 49 50 64

19. Which of the following pairs of functions have the property that f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) for all positive numbers x? I. f(x) = x3, g(x) =
2

x 1 II. f(x) = x , g(x) = 2 x
17. In the diagram above, the three circles’ diameters all lie along segment AD. If AB = BC = CD, what fraction of the large circle is shaded? (A) (B) III. f(x) = 4x – 2, g(x) = €

3

x +2 4

1 9 1 3 4 9 5 9 2 3

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

€ I only II only € I and II only I and III only II and III only


(C)


(D)


(E)

€ €
18. In how many different ways can a total of 20 cents be formed with standard American coins (penny, nickel, dime)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 6 7 8 9 10

20. A metal shelter is built in the shape of a rectangular solid, with four walls and a roof but no floor. The total volume of the shelter is 900 cubic feet, and the horizontal length of each of the shelter’s four walls is x feet. If the cost of the metal used to manufacture the shelter is $10 per square foot, what is the total cost, in dollars, of the metal used to make the shelter? (A) (B)

€ € € € €

(C) (D) (E)

36, 000 + 10 x 2 x 36, 000 + 20 x 2 x 3600 + x2 x 36, 000 + 10 x 2 x2 36, 000 + 20 x 2 x2

Time – 25 Minutes 24 Questions
Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic … given to (B) promiscuous … intent on (C) picky … disappointed (D) savvy … apathetic about (E) selective … interested in

3. The most effective verbal communication is ------, yet not ------: it uses words that express the exact ideas that the speaker wishes to convey, yet is not excessively burdened with obscure vocabulary. (A) approximate … painstaking (B) accurate … artless (C) vague … elaborate (D) precise ... overwrought (E) unbiased ... simplistic

4. While some psychologists believe that personalities are fixed from an early age; others believe that they are quite ------ and can be molded extensively by experience, even late in life. (A) plastic (B) intractable (C) duplicitous (D) reactionary (E) genial 5. Many high-paying occupations are either dangerous or mind-numbingly repetitive; employers in these fields use ------ rewards to compensate for the hazards and ------ of the work. (A) pecuniary … tedium (B) finite … heterogeneity (C) fiscal … lethargy (D) intangible … constancy (E) spurious … monotony

1. Many leading scholars of the medieval era were known for their ------: they produced groundbreaking research in areas of startling diversity. (A) specialization (B) versatility (C) artistry (D) rigidity (E) frugality

2. Prof. Catalano’s exams, which test subtle linguistic principles and idiosyncrasies, require students to have an exceptionally ------ knowledge of the material. (A) speculative (B) ambiguous (C) nuanced (D) formal (E) colloquial

Questions 6-7 are based on the following passage.
During the Bronze Age (approximately 2500-1000 BC), the rise of societies based on hierarchical distinctions of status and wealth saw a concomitant increase in skilled metalworking. Although improved 5 mining and metallurgical technology certainly helped give rise to this specialization, the importance of the contemporary social structure cannot be neglected. The cultivation of sophisticated metalworking skills required consistent availability of raw materials, a 10 luxury that was simply unavailable to artisans in preceding periods. With the advent of social hierarchies, however, arose the practice of patronage, in which wealthy sponsors ensured the comfortable livelihood of craftsmen in exchange for those 15 craftsmen's work and loyalty. Thus relieved of the necessity of procuring raw materials themselves, these artisans were freed to become the first master metalworkers. 6. The passage supports which of the following statements about the progress of artistic skill? (A) It is influenced by both social and technological factors. (B) It is rare without the assistance of social elites. (C) It is only possible when artisans do not need to acquire their own raw materials. (D) It was faster during the Bronze Age than during the preceding or following time period. (E) It accelerates in proportion to the standard of living in a society. 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the raw materials with which Bronze Age craftsmen worked? (A) In the new hierarchical society, only the wealthy classes had access to them. (B) Some artisans were able to produce master metalwork without them. (C) The practice of patronage was developed to facilitate the task of acquiring them. (D) A middle class of merchants formed around the business of buying and selling them. (E) Acquiring them was time-consuming and difficult.

Questions 8-9 are based on the following passage.
Among the Navajo, the topic of death is taboo. Just as the colloquial terms for select bodily and sexual functions are prohibited in polite American discourse, so words relating to the cessation of life, or to terminal 5 illnesses or injuries, are strictly prohibited in Navajo society. The Navajo taboo, however, is of much greater import than its American counterpart: Navajo lore holds that mere words of death, spoken aloud, can actually end lives. Hospital staff attending to dying 10 Navajo patients have had to develop questions that circumvent this issue carefully, since direct questions about life support and resuscitation will be met with stony silence by the patients and their families. Instead, then, staff must describe a hypothetical "other 15 person" faced with similar decisions, gleaning patients' or families' opinions on what this other person should do. 8. The statement that “The Navajo taboo ... is of much greater import” (lines 6-7) implies that non-Navajo Americans (A) are not averse to the discussion of injuries or death in polite discourse (B) are more permissive of taboo speech in general than are the Navajo (C) have not experienced the trauma of death and injury to the degree that the Navajo have (D) do not ascribe similarly serious consequences to uttering taboo words about bodily functions (E) are more direct than the Navajo in their style of communication 9. It may be inferred from the final sentence of the passage that the Navajo (A) find health-related discussions that do not pertain directly to their own health inappropriate (B) would rather delegate medical decisions to others than make those decisions themselves (C) draw on the experience of others in their tribe to make more informed medical decisions (D) do not sufficiently understand the ethics of advanced medical technology (E) believe that discussing the death of hypothetical people does not have the same destructive potential as discussing the death of real people

Questions 10-15 are based on the following passage.
The constant noise pollution that characterizes modern cities has birds singing a different tune— literally. The incessant background sound of the urban environment—from the whoosh of freeway traffic to the deafening roar of jet engines, the honking of taxicabs to the screaming sirens of ambulances and fire trucks—has caused adaptive changes in the singing of city-dwelling birds. Urban blackbirds, researchers have found, now sing tunes that are significantly higher in pitch than those of their forest-dwelling counterparts; in other words, the city birds make entirely different sounds because they—and, more consequentially, their opposite-sex counterparts, with whom they mate and reproduce—have become all but deaf to the native pitch of their own songs. This shift in song does not, of course, become encoded into the singing birds' genes. But it may nonetheless have a drastic effect on their future gene pool. After all, as urban birds' vocals and hearing diverge farther and farther from those of their rural counterparts—and as more and more generations of birds are born and bred in increasingly loud and restless cities—urban and rural birds may become less attracted to one another's mating calls, or even less likely to recognize one another as members of the same species. Eventually, the urban and rural bird populations would go their separate ways altogether, resulting in divergent evolution: they would become two distinct species. It may be surprising enough that sound could have any effect on a gene pool, even if only an indirect one. But, as is so often the case in science, the truth is even more outlandish: sound can directly affect individual genes! In 2007, Korean scientists identified two genes in rice that respond specifically to certain frequencies of sound. Not surprisingly, these findings have largely been greeted with skepticism by the scientific community—but, if the effect is reproducible, scientists would be forced to accept the idea that sound, like sunlight, can regulate the genes of plants. If enough sound-sensitive genes are found, a whole new universe of possibilities will be opened up. Could rows and rows of hybrid crops grow in heated greenhouses in the perpetual darkness of a polar winter? With so many unknowns, we may as well speculate even more wildly: Could grass, exposed to tens of thousands of hours of precisely controlled sound frequencies, be coaxed into a new variant that humans could digest—ending world hunger through acoustics? And, finally, what about our own genes? If plants can be hardwired to respond to sounds, why not animals, including ourselves? No one denies the emotional power of music—but could that power lie, unbeknownst to us, in direct genetic manipulation? Having read the Korean scientists' report, I'll never

55 listen to music in the same way again. And my teenage daughter, constantly gushing about how her newest favorite song has changed her deep inside, may be closer to the mark than she's ever thought. 10. The phrase “more consequentially” (line 12) implies that (A) birds’ inability to hear the songs of the opposite sex has greater consequences than does their inability to hear their own songs (B) the effect described has manifested to a greater extent in one sex of birds than in the other (C) the effect described has magnified the differences between sexes of the same bird species (D) urban birds must develop alternate mating signals to substitute for singing (E) city-dwelling birds’ songs can alter the ability of the opposite sex to hear certain frequencies

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11. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “native”, as used in line 14? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) local aboriginal first natural adaptive

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12. Which of the following circumstances would most likely lead to a “divergent evolution” similar to that described in lines 26-28? (A) A glacier melts, connecting two formerly separate lakes and allowing the species in those lakes to interact. (B) An insect species infests an international shipping fleet, thus acquiring the ability to travel to other continents. (C) A freeway is built through the habitat of a certain snail species, separating it into two distinct areas inaccessible from one another. (D) A virus infects the vocal cords of a certain cricket species, altering the sound of its mating call. (E) Certain human societies enforce a rigid segregation of men and women.

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13. Which of the following quotes from the passage best encapsulates the meaning of “indirect”, as used in line 30? (A) “has caused adaptive changes” (line 7) (B) “not ... encoded into the singing birds’ genes” (lines 16-17) (C) “they would become two different species” (line 28) (D) “affect individual genes” (lines 32-33) (E) “the effect is reproducible” (line 37)

15. With which of the following statements about the two proposed ideas in the fourth paragraph (lines 40-48) would the author most likely agree? (A) The second is less realistic than the first. (B) Neither is likely to be realized. (C) Though fanciful, they are useful as rough models of existing processes. (D) If successfully implemented, they will soon come to be seen as necessities. (E) There is sufficient evidence to judge the first, but not the second.

14. The author’s statement that “Not ... community” (lines 35-37) most directly implies that (A) scientists are generally reluctant to accept new theories that they find counterintuitive (B) scientists often propose seemingly implausible or farfetched hypotheses (C) the Korean researchers’ findings satisfied the longstanding expectations of many scientists (D) other scientists have attempted, without success, to replicate the Korean researchers’ findings (E) even solid evidence has little effect on the scientific community’s reluctance to adopt new ideas

Questions 16-24 are based on the following passages. Passage 1
Stepping onto campus grounds for the first time, high school graduates are thrust into a novel and unfamiliar world. They are given – usually for the first time – a significant degree of true autonomy, with an accompanying level of responsibility and expectation. This new universe, which might be described as the students’ first foray into adulthood, is essentially similar to the professional world that awaits them four years down the road. The university is the first environment where young people must truly manage time, without the reassuring, if bleak, regularity of the high-school bell schedule or a teacher’s guiding hand. For the first time, they must complete large projects or papers with few or no intermediary deadlines; juggle multiple independent class syllabi; and, most importantly, adapt to varying workloads, as professors will brook few, if any, excuses if their demands are not met punctually. Formidable as these challenges may seem to the incoming freshman, though, they will eventually smooth the same students’ transition to similar tasks in the world of work upon graduation. No supervisor will peer continually over a trainee’s shoulder to ensure that work is done on time, or regularly accept excuses if it is not. Instead – much as in college – the trainee will simply be expected to have the work done on time, by whatever means. Also unlike high school, where the academic curriculum varies little from student to student, the university gives its students substantial variety and freedom in selecting a curriculum, allowing them to carve out personal niches within the larger academic community. Although they have doubtless been forging personal identities all through adolescence, the university generally represents their first opportunity to define and narrow their professional vocation – a process that will continue, in fits and starts, all the way to retirement.

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interest, serving the student only as a platform upon 50 which his or her performance can be evaluated. If their true goal were to prepare students for the world of work, universities would marginalize or eliminate “general education” requirements, replacing them with vocational training or other classes in practical 55 skills. True, some universities prepare their graduates well for the completion of lengthy and rigorous projects, or for the simultaneous management of myriad tasks. What is sorely lacking in many of today’s university 60 graduates, though, is the simple ability to handle many core activities of daily living. Many of them struggle to understand personal finances; most, though they may have studied an impressive variety of academic subjects, have little notion of what is actually involved 65 in the day-to-day life of any given profession. One might remark that today’s universities are designed, intentionally or not, to turn out graduates who are highly educated and well read, yet long on debt and short on worldly wisdom.

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16. The authors of both passages explicitly agree that (A) the principal value of a university education is to prepare graduates for employment (B) universities prepare students well for life after school (C) it is a university’s responsibility to teach its students to manage their finances (D) university graduates are generally skilled at managing tasks and time (E) the primary value of university classes is to provide a means of evaluating students

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17. In context, the statement that “they ... deadlines” (lines 14-15) most clearly implies that (A) high-school students are unlikely to be assigned large papers or projects (B) high-school students are sometimes not required to complete assigned tasks (C) the concept of a deadline is not truly introduced to students until after high school (D) high schools and universities assign and treat large projects in essentially the same way (E) high-school students are likely to be given deadlines for drafts of a project in addition to those for the finished project

Passage 2
At a recent press conference, a reporter queried the dean of a prominent state university as to the purpose 40 of higher education. Without hesitation, the dean replied that the function of the university is, above all, to prepare its graduates for the demanding careers that await them. If the dean is right, then our universities are doing 45 a singularly abysmal job of accomplishing their purpose. Very little of any given student’s college curriculum will pertain in any way to his or her future career. Instead, most of it is purely of academic

18. The example of a supervisor and trainee (lines 2226) primarily serves to (A) substantiate the author’s description of the working world as bewildering (B) illustrate university graduates’ general lack of preparation for work (C) draw an analogy between expectations in collegiate and professional environments (D) illustrate difficulties typically faced by first-year students adapting to the university environment (E) provide as an example of the author’s previous statements concerning the demands on university students

21. In the opinion of the dean mentioned in lines 4043, Passage 1 (taken as a whole) shows that universities are (A) serving their intended purpose well (B) straying from their original purpose (C) in need of major changes to their academic curricula (D) unnecessarily challenging for first-year students (E) in danger of going out of existence 22. The author of Passage 1 would most likely respond to the assertion that “Very little ... career” (lines 46-48) by (A) stating that universities’ academic offerings are relevant to job selection and performance (B) reiterating the need for more job-related training in universities (C) lamenting university graduates’ general lack of preparation for everyday necessities (D) attributing this fact to the general uniformity of the curriculum followed by university students (E) claiming that how tasks are assigned, rather than what is covered, is of primary importance 23. The author of Passage 2 remarks that university graduates are likely to be “deep in debt” (line 51) because (A) university tuition is extraordinarily expensive (B) they do not receive adequate guidance in everyday financial management (C) they will forever be indebted to schools for providing them with an excellent education (D) they will still not be sufficiently educated to secure jobs that pay well (E) their families are more likely than ever to come from underprivileged backgrounds 24. The meaning of the word “simple”, as used in line 60, is closest to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) unadorned elementary limited easy understandable

19. The last sentence of Passage 1 most clearly implies that (A) no choice of career or professional specialty is irreversible (B) graduating university students are no longer ambivalent about career decisions (C) university graduation serves as an effective deadline for finding one’s vocational niche (D) universities provide the first chance for students to forge unique personal identities (E) significant parallels exist between the university environment and the working world

20. Which of the following statements about highschool students is supported by Passage 1? (A) They typically narrow their career choices significantly before graduation. (B) They are expected to pursue independent research. (C) They are not given enough responsibilities. (D) They mostly study the same academic subjects. (E) They study an academic curriculum that is mostly irrelevant to their future careers.

There is no section #4 on this exam. When you take an official SAT exam, there will be one extra, “experimental” section that does not count toward your score. There is no experimental section on this practice exam, so section #4 has been omitted.

Time – 25 Minutes 35 Questions
Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A. If not, select one of the other choices. In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English: that is, pay attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: The battery powered Dan’s radio for much longer than expected, and that lasted over three months. (A) and that lasted over three months (B) when it lasted over three months (C) more than three months was how long it lasted (D) upon having lasted over three months (E) lasting over three months

2. Because of her unsuccessful trying to pick the lock on her front door for ten minutes, Clara realized that she could simply enter through the unlocked back door. (A) Because of her unsuccessful trying to pick the lock on her front door for ten minutes (B) She tried unsuccessfully for ten minutes to pick the lock on her front door, then (C) After ten minutes of unsuccessfully trying to pick the lock on her front door (D) Although for ten minutes she tried to pick the lock on her front door unsuccessfully (E) Trying for ten minutes to pick the lock on her front door without success

3. Many schools in South Korea do not employ full-time janitors, plus the students are responsible for keeping the building and grounds clean. (A) do not employ full-time janitors, plus the students (B) employ no full-time janitors, even though students (C) that do not employ full-time janitors because the students (D) employ no full-time janitors, resulting in students who (E) do not employ full-time janitors; instead, students

1. Japan and Australia are two examples of countries that drive on the left side of two-way streets. (A) Australia are two examples of countries that (B) Australia, two countries where drivers (C) Australia are two countries where drivers (D) Australia are two examples of countries where they (E) Australia are two examples in which countries

4. Many professional athletes endorse commercial brands, and are paid more for it than for actually participating in their sport. (A) Many professional athletes endorse commercial brands, and are paid more for it than for actually participating in their sport. (B) Endorsing commercial brands, many professional athletes are paid more for it than for actually participating in his or her sport. (C) Many professional athletes are paid more for endorsing commercial brands than for actually participating in their sport. (D) Paid more than for actually participating in his or her sport, many professional athletes endorse commercial brands. (E) For endorsing commercial brands is why many professional athletes are paid more than for actual participation in their sport. 5. Michael Jordan is most widely known for his prolific career in professional basketball, he also had a career briefly in professional baseball. (A) Jordan is most widely known for his prolific career in professional basketball, he also had a career briefly (B) Jordan, most widely known for his prolific career in professional basketball, also had a brief career (C) Jordan, most widely known for his prolific professional career in basketball, but who also had a brief career (D) Jordan is most widely known for his prolific career in professional basketball, and also briefly having a career (E) Jordan, who is most widely known as having a prolific professional basketball career; he also briefly had a career

6. In Uruguay, hotels are equipped with electrical outlets that are compatible with American plugs; in neighboring nation of Argentina, on the other hand, hotels generally have no such outlets. (A) are equipped with electrical outlets that are compatible with American plugs; in neighboring nation of Argentina, on the other hand, hotels generally have no (B) equipped with electrical outlets are compatible with American plugs, whereas in Argentina, a neighboring nation, they generally lack (C) are equipped with electrical outlets and are compatible with American plugs, whereas the neighboring nation of Argentina generally lacks hotels with (D) equipped with electrical outlets compatible with American plugs, whereas the neighboring nation of Argentina generally has no hotels with (E) are equipped with electrical outlets compatible with American plugs; Argentina, on the other hand, is a neighboring nation, and its hotels generally lack

7. In yesterday’s archery practice, Katie shot twenty arrows at the target, and she hit the bull’s-eye fourteen times and missing the entire target only once. (A) target, and she hit (B) target and hit (C) target; she hit (D) target, hitting (E) target, and hitting

8. To be admitted to the university’s hotel management program, candidates must possess an undergraduate degree, speak English, at least two other major languages, and lived in at least two different countries. (A) speak English, at least two other major languages, and lived (B) speaking English and at least two other major languages, and living (C) speaking English, as well as two other major languages or more, and having lived (D) speak English, two or more other major languages, and live (E) speak English and at least two other major languages, and have lived

10. The new assistant track coach, a formerly Canadian national champion in the 100- and 200-meter dashes, has brought inspiration to the school’s athletes to set ambitious goals for their training. (A) coach, a formerly Canadian national champion in the 100- and 200-meter dashes, have brought inspiration to (B) coach, a formerly Canadian national champion in the 100- and 200-meter dashes, inspire (C) coach, a former Canadian national champion in the 100- and 200-meter dashes, has inspired (D) coach is a Canadian national champion, formerly in the 100- and 200-meter dash, inspiring (E) coach, a former Canadian national champion in the 100- and 200-meter dash, who has inspired

9. Though clean, renewable, and inexpensive, only areas with a certain latitude and topography can have access to wind power consistently. (A) only areas with a certain latitude and topography can have access to wind power consistently (B) wind power is consistently available only in areas with a certain latitude and topography (C) only those areas with certain latitude and topography have wind power that is consistently accessible (D) access to wind power, which is only available in areas that have a certain latitude and topography (E) wind power, available on a consistent basis in only those areas having a certain latitude and topography 11. No planet in our solar system – not even Mercury, which is much closer to the Sun – has surface temperatures higher than those of Venus. (A) surface temperatures higher than those of Venus (B) surface temperatures higher than it does on Venus (C) hotter surface temperatures, as Venus does (D) hotter surface temperatures, like Venus (E) higher surface temperatures, like Venus does

The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English. Example: It has occasionally been difficult to find home A B decorations that appeal to both my wife and I. C D No error E

15. Almost every student in the school’s senior class are children of at least one parent who A B C attended the school himself or herself. D No error E

16. Kyle saw many famous buildings walking A through New York, but none fascinated him B C more than the Cathedral of St. John the D Divine. No error E

12. Visitors to the seaside community can enjoy A B open-water swimming as well as to run C D along the beach at low tide. No error E

17. Any large-scale accomplishment requires both the willingness to invest great effort A as well as the ability to perform the feat B C itself. No error D E

13. Completion of a high-school calculus course is either recommended or a requirement for A B C admission to most of the university’s D science programs. No error E 18. Young people who move to cities from A small towns may find greater and more diverse opportunities, but they also C face stiffer competition for jobs. No error D E

14. The two students threatened with expulsion A B earlier this year for having missed too many C D classes. No error E

19. The schooling fish of the Pacific Ocean, which swim together in large groups, is A usually decorated in bright colors that B C dazzle and confuse predators. No error D E 20. If you delve into mythology from different A cultures, the reader will encounter certain B C themes, such as creation stories, repeatedly. D No error E 21. If Thomas had been aware of the high cost A B of parking at the airport, he would have left C his car at home and taken a taxi. No error D E 22. There is no doubt that fans of the college’s football team will still be loyal many years A from now, even though none of the current B C players will be on their roster anymore. D No error E 23. Surprising those who had thought that molds A B were entirely harmful to human health, C Alexander Fleming has discovered the D medicinal properties of penicillin in 1928. No error E

24. Both James and Margaret have extensive A experience in laboratory science and have B been the director of various research C D programs. No error E 25. The music of the Romantic composers is A B more emotional and less systematic C than the composers of the Baroque and D Classical periods. No error E 26. Because a tree had fallen across the main A highway, the Smiths will be forced to take a B C detour that would add two hours to their trip. D No error E 27. This device can scan a document and convert A it into a readable form by flipping a single B C D switch. No error E 28. Before they were eliminated in the A B quarterfinals, St. John’s School was the favorite to win the tournament. No error C D E 29. The annual rainfall in certain parts of A B South America’s Atacama Desert is less than C D one millimeter per year. No error E

Questions 30-35 are based on the following passage.
Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.

(12) Still, Milarepa does not achieve his goal entirely through his own efforts. (13) Inspired as he might be, Milarepa is unable to achieve enlightenment without the assistance of a learned teacher. (14) However, he must find a teacher who complements his personality and learning style. (15) Milarepa studies under several teachers, without success, before encountering one with whom he is compatible and who helps him to achieve enlightenment. (16) His search is exhaustive, to be sure, but it is ultimately good fortune that connects Milarepa with the teacher who helps him achieve his goal.

(1) If asked to enumerate the qualities of a folk hero, most Westerners would describe a character who is "larger than life." (2) In at least some ways, possessing qualities that ordinary humans lack. (3) They may be people of ordinary size but with practically superhuman abilities, like the Greek hero Odysseus – or they may be larger than life in a more literal sense, like Paul Bunyan of American lore. (4) In any case, the typical Western folk hero is lucky enough to be born a hero. (5) At the beginning of his story, Milarepa, perhaps the most well-known folk hero in the Tibetan Buddhist tradition, is better described as an "anti-hero" than as a hero. (6) Milarepa was hardly born with typically heroic qualities. (7) His tale follows him along his long quest for enlightenment; he developing his "heroic" traits and faculties along the way. (8) This type of character may seem to be a strange choice for an epic hero, but Milarepa's tale actively engages readers in a way that stories of Odysseus or Paul Bunyan cannot. (9) As a result, Milarepa's name is now familiar to readers in many countries outside Tibet. (10) The life path of Milarepa, who eventually becomes an enlightened hero, makes the same path seem accessible to anyone reading his story. (11) Although Milarepa's journey to enlightenment is neither quick nor easy, his tale indicates that any serious student, no matter how humble his or her background, may attempt the same quest.

30. In context, which is the best way to revise and combine the underlined portion of sentences 1 and 2 (reproduced below)? If asked to describe the qualities of a folk hero, most Westerners would describe a character who is "larger than life." In at least some ways, possessing qualities that ordinary humans lack. (A) (As currently written) (B) Westerners, possessing at least some qualities that ordinary humans lack, would describe a character who is "larger than life." (C) characters described by Westerners would be "larger than life" – possessing at least some qualities that ordinary humans lack. (D) Westerners would describe a character who is "larger than life" – possessing at least some qualities lacking in ordinary humans. (E) Westerners, describing a "larger-than-life" character, would possess at least some qualities lacked by ordinary humans.

31. In context, which of the following sentences would best be inserted after sentence 4 (reproduced below)? In any case, the typical Western folk hero is lucky enough to be born a hero. (A) It would thus be extremely difficult for a typical reader of Western folk tales to find common ground with the heroes of those stories. (B) These exaggerated heroic qualities, which inevitably make the hero seem distant from the reader's own life and experiences, help the reader escape into a fantasy world for the duration of the tale. (C) As a result, those accustomed to Western folk tales are often surprised by the qualities of the Tibetan folk hero Milarepa. (D) However, this archetype of a larger-thanlife epic hero is not limited to the folklore of Western peoples. (E) In Tibet, the folk hero Milarepa is as highly revered as was Odysseus in ancient Greece. 32. In context, which of the following, if inserted between sentences 6 and 7, would most improve the second paragraph? (A) The contrast with Western epic heroes, who are already superhuman at the outset of their stories, is striking. (B) At the beginning of his tale, he is weak, foolish, and easily manipulated. (C) Like Western epics, though, Milarepa's tale was passed down through centuries of oral tradition before it was ever written down. (D) Not all qualities considered heroic in Tibetan Buddhism, though, would be considered likewise by Westerners. (E) Other tales in the Tibetan oral tradition feature protagonists who are similarly unexceptional at the outset.

33. In context, which revision of the underlined portion of sentence 14 (reproduced below) is most appropriate? However, he must find a teacher who complements his personality and learning style. (A) (As it is now) (B) As a result, (C) Still, (D) Moreover, (E) To illustrate, 34. In context, sentence 9 would best be (A) left where it is now (B) placed after sentence 7 (C) placed after sentence 11 (D) placed after sentence 16 (E) omitted 35. Which sentence, if placed after sentence 16, would be the most effective concluding sentence for the essay? (A) Today, the tale of Milarepa has been translated into hundreds of languages around the world. (B) Even so, it is difficult for Westerners to grasp certain key concepts of Milarepa's story, since words such as "enlightenment" and "teacher" do not exactly capture the essence of the original Tibetan words. (C) The key role of Milarepa's teacher in the tale reflects the extremely high regard in which teachers are held in Tibetan society. (D) It is possible that another hero, similar to Milarepa, could have invested comparable effort in searching for a teacher yet failed to find one. (E) The overall contrast notwithstanding, Milarepa thus has at least one thing in common with Western folk heroes: he has luck on his side.

Time – 25 Minutes 20 Questions
Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

2. Pat, Kris, and Cass scored a total of 62 points in a basketball game. If the average of Pat’s and Kris’s totals was 17 points, how many points did Cass score? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 22 24 26 28 30

1. If the figure in the xy-coordinate system above is a square and the coordinates of P are (16, 0), what is the value of b? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 4 8 16 32

3. A car-rental agency charges a base rate of $6 per day to rent a car. In addition, the agency charges 12 cents per mile that the car is driven during that time. What is the total cost of renting a car from this agency for a total of 5 days and driving it 140 miles each day? (A) $22.80 (B) $30.60 (C) $46.80 (D) $90.00 (E) $114.00

4. Which of the following is directly proportional to the side length of a square? I. The area of the square II. The length of a diagonal of the square III. The perimeter of the square (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III

6. In a certain baseball league, each team plays exactly half of its 80 regular-season games on its home field. (No two teams in the league share the same home field.) So far this season, a certain team from this league has played 70 percent of its games on its home field. If this team has 30 games left to play this season, how many of the remaining games will the team play on its home field? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 9 12 15 21

7. In how many different ways can a triangle be made with three of the points A, B, C, D, Y, Z above as vertices? 5. What is the area of rectangle ABCD in the figure above? (A) 24 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 48 (E) 60 (A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 18 (E) 20 (x + a)(x + b) = x2 + 6x + p 8. In the equation above, a and b are constant integers, not necessarily positive. If the equation is true for all values of x, then which of the following cannot be the value of p? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) –16 –7 5 9 12

9. A printing press produces copies of a book at a constant rate. If the printing press produces 100 copies of the book in six minutes, how many copies will it produce in 15 minutes?

10. Points P and Q lie on a circle whose area is 16π square units. What is the maximum possible straight-line distance between points P and Q?

11. If s and t are different positive integers such that st = 4, what is one possible value for the sum of s and t?

13. If 4 is added to a number, the result is 4 times the original number. What is the value of the original number?

Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 14. In the figure above, five segments intersect at Q. BQ is perpendicular to PR, CQ bisects ∠BQR, and AQ bisects ∠PQC. What is the measure, in degrees, of ∠AQB?

12. The scatterplot above shows the numbers of male and female residents of the town of Jumpton, according to census results recorded every ten years from 1960 to 2010. If the “gender disparity” is defined as the absolute value of the difference between the numbers of men and women, in which of the years shown was the gender disparity greatest?

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 22, 33, 44, ... 15. The sequence above contains every positive integer whose digits all have the same value. Each such integer appears exactly once, and there are no other integers in the sequence. If the integer 7,777,777 appears in the sequence as the nth term, what is the value of n?

17. In the xy-coordinate plane, the slope of the line ax + by = c, where a and b are constants, is –2. b What is the value of ? a

16. Annie makes a decorative border by cutting identical square indentations, with side length x inches, into all four sides of a square edging, as shown in the figure above. If each side of the original edging is 15 inches long, and the finished border is to have a perimeter of 80 inches, what is the value of x?

18. In the figure above, point B lies on the graph of y = kx2, where x is a constant, and ABCO is a square. If the perimeter of square ABCO is 36 units, what is the value of k?

Time – 25 Minutes 24 Questions
Turn to Section 5 (page _) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic … given to (B) promiscuous … intent on (C) picky … disappointed (D) savvy … apathetic about (E) selective … interested in

4. When Brad moved abroad, the differences between his habits and the local customs were so ------ that he could not hope to blend in; he could only try to be less ------. (A) stark ... conspicuous (B) inexplicable ... nonchalant (C) extreme ... resolute (D) trying ... verbose (E) subtle ... complacent 5. The fifth-grade students’ work was seldom both creative and well-organized; most of it was either ------ yet uninventive or ------ yet disorderly. (A) presumptuous ... original (B) meticulous ... imaginative (C) painstaking ... indifferent (D) chaotic ... inspired (E) precarious ... novel 6. The mechanic’s inspection was ------ and ------: he did not inspect all of the car’s mechanical components, and the inspections that he did perform were only superficial. (A) selective ... perfunctory (B) incomplete ... fastidious (C) thorough ... brisk (D) inexpert ... diligent (E) partial ... preconceived 7. The mint plant is notorious among gardeners for its -----: it can reproduce so rapidly that it can displace other species from gardens within days. (A) seclusion (B) fecundity (C) fluctuation (D) vulnerability (E) rectitude 8. The emperor of Japan is ------ in the Shinto religion: he is worshipped as a god. (A) appraised (B) deified (C) stigmatized (D) cloistered (E) deferred

1. Since human nutrition is extremely complex, ------ diet plans, such as those designed around just one or two easily grasped ideas, are unlikely to be effective. (A) convoluted (B) simplistic (C) repressive (D) personalized (E) traditional 2. Most Americans’ tax returns are quite simple and straightforward, despite the popular portrayal of tax calculations as ------ and difficult to understand. (A) alluring (B) adept (C) intricate (D) fallacious (E) hostile 3. Scientific theories are rarely refined or altered until changes are forced by experimental findings that are ------ with the current theory. (A) harmonious (B) reconciled (C) emphatic (D) incompatible (E) innocuous

Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages. Passage 1
“It’s rough to slough through,” I coughed – or so I might, anyway, were a foreign learner of English to ask me about the language’s uniquely inconsistent and idiosyncratic spelling. Rough, through, cough: why are 5 they spelled alike? On the flipside, why will you pay if you don’t obey? Why not pey, or else obay? The lack of standardization in English spelling is rife with costs, and not just for adult learners from other countries. Studies show that it takes an average child nearly three 10 years to achieve rudimentary literacy in English, compared to as little as six months in languages with more consistent spelling rules. Simplifying English spelling would make a drastic difference in the speed with which both children and adult learners learn to 15 read and write the language, and would enable more people worldwide to master it – a consideration that will only increase in importance, given the ever greater extent to which English is becoming the “language of the world.” Passage 2 20 It’s true that English spelling is far from simple, both to explain and to learn. Not only does written English come in many local flavors (or are they flavours?), but there are also innumerable gray areas (grey areas?), even within a single regional variant of the language. Not surprisingly, then, calls have been issued for the standardization – and even the simplification – of English spelling, under the assumption that such actions would make things easier for everyone. As reasonable as they might seem at first, these claims are fundamentally misguided. Sure, simpler spelling might make learning curves steepen a bit, but the resultant benefit, if any, is dubious. After all, children (and foreign learners) don’t take that long to learn to spell correctly; English-speaking countries are hardly facing an epidemic of illiteracy. More troubling, too, is the tendency of spelling-reform proponents to forget completely about today’s educated adults, whose brains are not nearly as plastic as children’s. As painful as spelling may be for small children, it would be infinitely more excruciating – and paralyzing, professionally and otherwise – for adults to forget everything they know about spelling and learn a new system, as much “simpler” as that system may be.

9. Passage 2 differs from Passage 1 in that Passage 2 considers the experience of (A) young children learning to spell in their native language (B) adults trying to adapt to a new system of spelling in an already familiar language (C) foreign learners learning to spell in a second language. (D) teachers contending with the difficulties of a complex spelling system (E) linguists contemplating exactly how to define new spelling rules

10. The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond to the statement that “it takes ... English” (lines 9-10) by stating that the author of Passage 1 is (A) overestimating the significance of the cited time period (B) reporting statistics inaccurately (C) neglecting the experience of foreign learners (D) insufficiently respectful of longstanding linguistic traditions (E) underestimating the difficulty of acquiring childhood literacy 11. Both authors explicitly agree that (A) the benefits of standardizing English spelling would outweigh the costs (B) the global importance of English is increasing (C) today’s educated adults would find it quite difficult to learn a new spelling system (D) a simpler system of English spelling would take less time to learn than the current one (E) more non-native speakers would attempt learn English if its spelling were easier to master 12. The quote marks around “simpler” (line 44) primarily serve to indicate (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) importance direct quotation irony jargon metaphor

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Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage.
Oh no, I thought, I'm turning into my mother. I had let my guard down just enough for a small fragment of sarcasm to escape my mouth -- a little quip about Petri dishes,** when my niece had failed to wash her hands after handling food -- but that small fragment was enough to strike mortal fear in my heart. It was the first direct hit on the target that was my own separate identity: surely I had said and done many things that were my mother's trademarks, in ways both good and bad, but this was the first time I could consciously remember echoing her exact words, verbatim. There are no words to do justice to the immediate and utter revulsion that I felt; this was the realization of a childhood nightmare of mine, in which my initially hazy reflection in a funhouse mirror was slowly distorted and transmogrified, eventually crystallizing into a clear picture of my mother – a dream that I swore would never come true. With the foolish confidence so typical of teenagers, I had planned my future personality with more less the sole intention of avoiding this kind of scene. Every time my mother would scold me with one of her cute maxims – as stomach-turning to me as they were smirkingly clever to her – I would remind myself that I'd never annoy my own future children with such lame attempts at humor. Whenever I noticed irksome contradictions in her behavior, like her demands that I clean my room in spite of the clothes and papers strewn around her own, I felt smugly superior: I would never be such an inconsistent, do-as-I-say-not-as-I-do authority figure to my own offspring. So, when my mother's infamous words somehow decided to issue from my own mouth, I was petrified with disbelief. Next came the aftershock: this terrifying transformation, this dreaded confluence of identities that I’d feared for my entire adolescent life … just wasn't so terrifying after all. See, I was at that age when so many of my mother’s annoying habits were just starting to make sense. The older you get, the smarter your parents become, I once overheard a comedian saying on TV. I didn't really get it at the time – I was only twelve, and was my mother ever stupid back then! – but that little nugget of wisdom rang more and more true every year. The seemingly harsh rebukes at my seemingly insignificant transgressions; the hysteria when I decided to play impromptu games of hide-and-seek in public; the strict curfews on Saturday nights – I was starting to see her side of all these things, much to the chagrin of my strongheaded, shortsighted former self. The timing couldn’t have been better. Just as those annoying little nuggets of wisdom began to overcome my dogged adolescent resistance routine – just as the

downward spiral into familial resemblance passed the 55 point of no return – that same resemblance had gone from toxic, to merely harmless, to somewhat understandable, to acceptable enough to joke about. I'm turning into my mother, I thought. After the obligatory roll of my eyes, I smirked.
**Petri dish: A circular piece of glassware in which scientists grow cultures of bacteria.

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10

13. In line 6, "strike" most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) attain eradicate record attack induce

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14. In lines 7-8, the "separate identity" refers to the narrator's (A) use of sarcasm to inject personality into otherwise neutral statements (B) purposeful differentiation of her speech and behavior from her mother's (C) taking on a role of authority with her niece (D) inconsistent behavior when she is careless about using sarcasm (E) recognition of certain personality traits as her own, even though she shares them with family 15. Which of the following words in lines 22-23 is used in an ironic sense? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) “scold” “cute” “maxim” “stomach-turning” “clever”

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16. Which of the following rhetorical devices is used in lines 10-11 ("I could … verbatim")? (A) The intentional use of redundancy for emphasis (B) Comparison of a current experience to a childhood experience (C) Exaggeration for effect (D) Retrospective description of events unknown to the narrator at the time of their occurrence (E) Third-person narration

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17. The narrator's retrospective descriptions of how she would "never … humor" (lines 24-25) and would "never … parent" (lines 29-31) are best described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) bitterly regretful humorously ironic objectively analytical naïvely optimistic coldly ambitious

21. Which of the following perceptions or behaviors, as described in lines 44-49, has the narrator eventually come to see as unjustified? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) “rebukes” (line 45) “insignificant” (line 45) “hysteria” (line 46) “her side” (line 48) “chagrin” (line 49)

18. Which of the following rhetorical techniques does the narrator use in her description in lines 31-33 (“So I was ... mouth”)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Overstatement Personification Metaphor Irony All of these rhetorical techniques are used.

22. Which of the following excerpts best captures the essence of the narrator’s “strongheaded, shortsighted former self” (line 49)? (A) “I was petrified with disbelief” (line 31) (B) “my mother’s annoying habits were just starting to make sense” (lines 38-39) (C) “was my mother ever stupid” (line 42) (D) “the hysteria” (line 46) (E) “I was starting to see her side” (line 48) 23. In the statement "The timing couldn't have been better" (line 50), the narrator is (A) increasingly noticing her similarity to her mother at the same time when that similarity no longer offends her (B) gaining wisdom necessary for raising children very soon before she is about to have children of her own (C) beginning to understand her mother's point of view soon before that perspective will change (D) realizing what makes her own personality unique before her personality becomes indistinguishable from her mother's (E) ironically describing the unfortunate coincidence of two incompatible changes in her behavior 24. The narrator’s use of “annoying” (line 52) and “downward spiral” (line 54) is best described as (A) emphatic because they describe how her feelings intensify as the passage proceeds (B) satirical because her actual feelings have always been largely the opposite (C) empathetic because of her uncanny ability to detect the corresponding feelings in others (D) ironic because she uses them to describe feelings that she no longer holds as strongly (E) inconsiderate because she does not appreciate the value of others’ contributions

19. The “aftershock” (line 34) refers to the narrator’s (A) dismay at having imitated her mother’s behavior (B) newfound view of her previous concerns (C) realization that she has suppressed the development of her true personality (D) conflict with her mother that is resolved later in the passage (E) misgivings about her loss of childhood innocence 20. The humorous quote in lines 39-40 ("The older … become") is meant to indicate that (A) parents deal with older children more successfully than with younger ones (B) when raising their second or later children, parents often apply lessons learned from raising their first child (C) the quality of wisdom is generally associated with advanced age (D) parents understand their children’s personalities, beliefs, and motivations increasingly well as the children age (E) children have insufficient perspective regarding their parents' actions until they are older

Time – 20 Minutes 16 Questions
Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

1. If

1 of a number is 8, what is 3 times the number? 4

€ €

2 3 11 (B) 4 (C) 6 32 (D) 3 (E) 96
(A)

2. For positive numbers t, the expression ⇒t⇐ is defined to be the greater of the two values t2 and t + 3. What is the value of ⇒2⇐? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1 2 3 4 5

5. If x –

1 4 1 = , what is the value of 5(x – )? 2 5 2
(B)

4 (A) € €25 29 (D) €5

3 2
(E) 6

(C) 4

3. The graphs above show the effect of speed on a the stopping distance and fuel economy of a particular model of car. If a car of this model is traveling at a constant speed so that its fuel economy is greater than 30 miles per gallon and its stopping distance is greater than 300 feet, which of the following could be the car’s speed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 50 mi/h 60 mi/h 70 mi/h 80 mi/h 90 mi/h

6. In the triangle above, what is the value of y? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 30 45 60 75 90

4. An office is open from 10:00 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. each day from Monday through Saturday. If the office is closed on Sunday, for what fraction of the total number of hours in the week is the office open? (A)

5 28

(B)

5 24

(C)

1 4

(D)

7 24

(E)

1 2

7. If |x + 2| < value of x? (A)€ –2

1 , which of the following is a possible 2
3 2
(E) 0

9. If x and y are positive integers, each greater than 5, which of the following ratios has the largest value? (A)

(B) –

(C) –1

x +1 y

(B)

x +1 y +1

(C)

x y −1

1 (D) – €2

x (D) y +1 €

x +1 (E) y −1 €

10. In the xy-coordinate plane, line m passes through the points (a + 1, b + 2) and (a + 6, b + 1), where a and b are constants. What is the slope of a line, in the same xy-coordinate plane, that is perpendicular to line m? (A) –5 1 (B) – 5 1 (C) 5 (D) 5 (E) More than one slope is possible.

8. In the figure above, what is the value of x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 7 5 2 (approximately 7.07) 10 10 2 (approximately 14.14)

€ €

€ €

11. If the variables x and y are directly proportional, which of the following quantities is/are constant for all positive values of x and y? I. II. III. x–y xy x y

13. Six teams participate in a basketball tournament. If each team plays every other team exactly once, how many games are played in total? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 15 18 21 30 36

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

None I€ only II only III only I, II, and III

12. A list contains five different positive integers. If the average (arithmetic mean) of the integers in the list is 6, what is the largest integer that could appear in the list? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 8 11 17 20 26

14. If the function f(x) is defined for all numbers x and the maximum value of f(x) is 6, what is the maximum value of f(x + 2) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 3 4 6 8 12

24, –12, 6, ... 15. The first term of the sequence above is 24, and 1 every term after the first term is equal to − times 2 the preceding term. How many of the first 40 terms of this sequence are between 0 and 1? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 14 15 17 25 34 16. A cube has volume V. What is the volume, in terms of V, of the smallest cylinder that can enclose the cube? (A)

πV 4
(D) 2πV

(B)

πV 2
(E) 4πV

(C) πV

€ €

Time – 25 Minutes 24 Questions
Turn to Section 9 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Tara is an extremely ------ shopper; even if she browses through hundreds or thousands of items, she will rarely be ------ purchasing more than one or two of them. (A) enthusiastic … given to (B) promiscuous … intent on (C) picky … disappointed (D) savvy … apathetic about (E) selective … interested in

3. Technological innovation may ------ without subsidies from government or private investors, since the cost of developing a new invention is often ------- for new firms. (A) flag … circumscribed (B) languish … inconsequential (C) stagnate … prohibitive (D) accelerate … controversial (E) deteriorate … offset 4. Smith had been a ------ youngster, with a famously short temper, but, by the age of fifty, he had become known as just the opposite: -------- gentleman who could settle the most passionate feuds with words alone. (A) placid … a tactful (B) belligerent … a convivial (C) truculent ... a diplomatic (D) profligate… an eloquent (E) precocious … a prudent 5. The candidate’s controversial speech acted as -----public debate: many citizens, already concerned with the issues involved, were prompted to discuss them aloud. (A) a supplement to (B) an impediment to (C) a catalyst for (D) a benchmark for (E) a diversion from 6. Convincing actors must not be too -------, nor must they be overly --------; they must express just the right amount of emotion on stage. (A) restive ... lethargic (B) melodramatic ... brooding (C) indifferent ... meticulous (D) impassive ... histrionic (E) ostentatious ... diffident

1. The security provided by car alarms, according to the police chief, was ------: cars with the alarms were just as likely to be stolen, in fact, as were cars without them. (A) benign (B) divergent (C) illusory (D) intuitive (E) simplistic 2. Great musicians invariably supplement their musical ------- with considerable ------: though naturally gifted, they achieve their full potential only after thousands of hours of practice. (A) facility … sloth (B) enthusiasm … resistance (C) aptitude … perseverance (D) impediment … activity (E) apprehension … tenacity

Questions 7-19 are based on the following passage.
The following passage is adapted from a short story written in 1920. Modern-day statistical analysis has removed a great deal of the mystery that once shrouded certain parts of our lives. Until just a couple of centuries ago, our statistical tools were so few, and so primitive, that it was impossible to analyze even relatively simple games of chance. Today, on the other hand, students are well equipped to analyze those problems after taking only a basic high-school or college statistics course – and, with a little more study, they can tackle many of the more subtle effects of everyday things. With only a rudimentary knowledge of modern statistics, casino owners – and players – can detect systematic cheating or skimming, even on a small scale, with remarkable reliability. Given sufficiently comprehensive data, officials can detect slight, even imperceptible, hazards to public health with relative ease. One might think, then, that this sort of analysis would translate naturally into the rapid and relatively uncomplicated adoption of whatever policies it might suggest. In the case of practical subjects – those that submit easily to objective analysis, and that are largely accepted by the public as “scientific” – one would be, for the most part, correct. In considering less practical matters, though, many statistical investigators have been hamstrung by the same coldly analytical perspective that affords them their insights in the first place. After all, the public is largely emotional and irrational, especially when it comes to political and policy implications of anything perceived as insulting or dangerous. Such were the barriers encountered by Robert Strange McNamara, a former business professor hired by Ford Motor Company after World War II, when he spearheaded the movement to install seat belts in passenger cars. McNamara – whose unusual statistical analysis had increased the effectiveness of air raids during the war – had previously worked with airlines, and was thus aware of the impressive safety benefits of the seat belts installed on airplanes. Given their effectiveness in airplanes, McNamara reasoned, seat belts would constitute a significant – and ridiculously cheap – advance in automotive safety technology; he thus set about conducting experiments and collecting data to support his hypothesis. Sure enough, he concluded, the installation of seat belts in passenger cars would likely reduce traffic deaths by more than half! Invigorated, McNamara took his solution to company managers, who, he was sure, would receive and implement the idea with similar enthusiasm. 55

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McNamara couldn’t have been more wrong. Indeed, he had made one of the most common, and most frustrating, errors to which human nature is prone: assuming that everyone else would think just like him. They didn’t, of course, for exactly the same reason his insights were so revolutionary in the first place. Most people don’t think in terms of hard numbers and probabilities; Ford’s management – along with the general driving public – was no exception. The company managers’ initial reactions to McNamara’s proposal thus ranged from polite skepticism to outright derision. McNamara did not give up on the idea of seat belts in cars, though. Eventually, Ford’s management was sufficiently swayed by his impressive reputation and his passion for the idea, and sufficiently hungry for a competitive advantage, that they adopted his proposal and began to install seat belts in all new Ford cars. The real roadblock, though, lay not in convincing the managers – who could be duly convinced by a dollarsand-cents argument – but in convincing the public. McNamara had thought that the obvious and undeniable safety advantages of seat belts would make them an instant hit with the public, who not only would come to view the seat belts themselves as a necessity but would also develop a more favorable view of Ford in general. What actually happened, though, was almost precisely the opposite. Most consumers saw the new seat belts as an unnecessary feature that brought an equally unnecessary increase in price (notwithstanding the actual, practically negligible, cost of adding the belts). Worse, many potential buyers were insulted, misinterpreting Ford’s motivation as a condemnation of their own driving skills. In a result that would be incomprehensible to many in this age of often hysterically overprotective safety regulations, Ford’s revenues actually dipped after its introduction of seat belts. Only after the introduction of laws requiring all occupants of passenger vehicles to wear them – and after a few subsequent decades of change in public opinion, at a pace best described as glacial – were even half of all drivers buckling up. People, as McNamara learned the hard way, and as many other economists would be well advised to keep in mind, are not economically rational machines. Whether a particular policy or idea makes sense in strictly economic or statistical terms is only half of the equation: the other half is whether the idea “makes sense” emotionally, enough to convince people to change ingrained patterns of behavior. To ignore the latter would be, one might say, just as irrational as to ignore the former.

50

7. In line 4, “primitive” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) crude inaccurate ancient innate indispensable

10. The author’s statement that “many ... place” (lines 25-28) is best exemplified by which of the following excerpts? (A) “The public is largely emotional and irrational” (lines 28-29) (B) “McNamara reasoned [that] seat belts would constitute a significant – and ridiculously cheap – advance in automotive safety technology” (lines 41-43) (C) “Managers ... could be duly convinced by a dollars-and-cents argument” (lines 70-71) (D) “McNamara had thought that the obvious and undeniable safety advantages of seat belts would make them an instant hit with the public” (lines 72-74) (E) “Ford’s revenues actually dipped after its introduction of seat belts” (lines 87-88)

8. From lines 3-10 (“Until ... things”), it can most reasonably be inferred that the author believes which of the following? (A) A statistical method should successfully be able to analyze games of chance before it is used to examine everyday occurrences. (B) Everyday life was less predictable a couple of centuries ago than it is today. (C) The development of more sophisticated statistical methods was driven by the desire to characterize everyday randomness more precisely. (D) A couple of centuries ago, people lacked sufficient data to analyze games of chance properly. (E) Simple games of chance are easier to analyze than are the effects of many everyday items.

11. Which of the following may best be inferred from the author’s statement in lines 28-31 (“After all ... dangerous”)? (A) The more universal the effect of a particular policy, the more emotional and irrational will be the public’s reaction to it. (B) The public should be more analytical and less emotional in considering potential threats. (C) It is impossible for the public to analyze objectively those issues and policies that have significant emotional impact. (D) The public is likely to react emotionally to illusory threats and insults as well as to genuine ones. (E) Political decisions pertaining to potentially dangerous or sensitive subjects are unlikely to be made rationally.

9. According to the information in the first paragraph, which of the following might be a reason why statistical analysis cannot be used to examine a particular everyday phenomenon? I. The relevant analytical tools have not been developed to a sufficient extent. II. The relevant data available to researchers are insufficiently comprehensive. III. The phenomenon is imperceptible to the general public. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) II only I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II, and III

12. The author portrays McNamara’s idea that the Ford company managers “would receive and implement the idea with similar enthusiasm” (lines 49-50) as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) disingenuous naïve disquieting astute farcical

13. The error described by the author in lines 52-53 (“one of the ... prone”) can best be described as a (A) tendency to be overly objective in evaluating the situation at hand (B) dismissive attitude toward others’ emotions and worldviews (C) failure to consider issues from the standpoint of others (D) inclination to take personal offense to impersonal situations and actions (E) reluctance to change existing patterns of behavior

16. The author points out that Ford’s managers “could be duly convinced by a dollars-and-cents argument” (lines 70-71) to suggest that (A) they were easier for McNamara to persuade than was the general public (B) they too were inclined to underemphasize the role of emotion in people’s decisions (C) the development of statistical analysis enabled managers to make better business decisions (D) they were largely inclined to agree with McNamara’s initial proposal (E) their reaction to McNamara’s proposal would reflect that of the general public 17. The author portrays consumers’ perception that seat belts “brought an equally unnecessary increase in price” (lines 80-81) as (A) empirical (B) credulous (C) ironic (D) trenchant (E) uncouth 18. Which of the following statements is best justified by the author’s description in lines 88-93 (“only after ... buckling up”)? (A) People are generally unwilling to adopt new safety measures unless compelled to do so by their government. (B) Legislation does not have to agree with the prevailing public opinion in order to be enacted. (C) The enactment of laws requiring a certain behavior will generally accelerate public acceptance of that behavior. (D) Public opinion is one of the primary drivers of new legislation. (E) New legislation may be intended to aid companies in their efforts to promote public safety. 19. Which of the following literary devices does the author employ in using the words “makes sense” (lines 96-97 and 101) and “irrational” (line 104)? (A) Irony (B) Analogy (C) Double meaning (D) Personification (E) Understatement

14. As portrayed in the passage, the “reason [McNamara’s] insights were so revolutionary in the first place” (lines 55-56) was his (A) remarkably deep understanding of the theory of probability and statistics (B) unusual knack for combining statistical analysis with observation of people’s actual motivations (C) experience across a diversity of fields, from the military to the manufacturing business (D) ability to analyze potentially sensitive issues from a detached standpoint (E) thorough study of his predecessors’ work

15. Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the Ford managers’ feelings and actions regarding McNamara’s proposal (lines 59-68) (A) Their feelings toward the proposal changed from skepticism to wholehearted endorsement. (B) Their initial reaction to the proposal was largely, if not completely, negative. (C) They were influenced by factors other than the particulars of the proposal itself. (D) They eventually acted against their initial instincts. (E) They thought that the company might derive a competitive advantage from implementing the proposal.

Time – 25 Minutes 35 Questions
Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. Directions: For each item, select the best answer choice; mark the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A. If not, select one of the other choices. In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English: that is, pay attention to grammar, word choice, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: The battery powered Dan’s radio for much longer than expected, and that lasted over three months. (A) and that lasted over three months (B) when it lasted over three months (C) more than three months was how long it lasted (D) upon having lasted over three months (E) lasting over three months

2. The coach refused to blame particular players for the team’s loss, saying that the whole team was responsible for the outcome of the game. (A) coach refused to blame individual players for the team’s loss, saying that the whole team was responsible for the outcome of the game (B) coach refused to blame the team’s loss for particular players, he said the whole team had responsibility for the game’s outcome (C) coach, saying that the whole team was responsible for the game’s outcome, he refused to blame that particular players caused the team to lose (D) coach, saying that the game’s outcome was the responsibility of the whole team, refusing to blame the team’s loss on particular players (E) coach refused to blame that individual players had caused the team’s loss, but said the whole team was responsible for its outcome 3. In many states, a driver with any infraction on their driving record may not drive either a taxi nor a commercial truck. (A) a driver with any infraction on their driving record may not drive either (B) a driver with any infractions on his or her driving record may not drive either (C) drivers with any infraction on his or her driving record may neither drive (D) a driver with any infraction on his or her driving record may drive neither (E) drivers with any infractions on their driving record may neither drive

1. Sleep deprivation, making people more likely to commit errors in performing routine tasks, but, surprisingly, studies have shown that it also increases their creativity and mental flexibility. (A) Sleep deprivation, making people more likely (B) Although sleep deprivation creates a greater likelihood (C) Sleep deprivation, which makes people more likely (D) Sleep deprivation makes people more likely (E) Sleep-deprived individuals have a greater likelihood

4. Some humorists have suggested Englishspeaking New Yorkers to refer to Puerto Rico as “Richport”, in the same manner, Puerto Ricans call New York “Nueva York.” (A) English-speaking New Yorkers to refer to Puerto Rico as “Richport,” in the same manner, Puerto Ricans (B) that English-speaking New Yorkers refer to Puerto Rico as “Richport,” just as Puerto Ricans (C) that English-speaking New Yorkers should call Puerto Rico as “Richport,” just like Puerto Ricans who (D) English-speaking New Yorkers calling Puerto Rico “Richport,” Puerto Ricans similarly (E) that, in New York, English speakers call Puerto Rico as “Richport,” just as in Puerto Rico they 5. Seeing-eye dogs guide blind people safely along streets and through buildings, and also providing them with companionship and emotional comfort. (A) guide blind people safely along streets and through buildings, and also providing them with companionship and emotional comfort (B) guide blind people safely, not only along streets but also through buildings, providing them with companionship and to comfort them emotionally (C) safely guide blind people along streets and through buildings, but they also serve as companions for emotional comfort (D) safely guide blind people not only along streets and through buildings, but also serving as companions and providing comfort to their emotions (E) not only guide blind people safely along streets and through buildings, but also provide them with companionship and emotional comfort `

6. The U.S. Interstate highway system was first constructed during the presidency of Dwight Eisenhower, has since revolutionized the ground transport industry. (A) system was first constructed (B) system first constructed (C) system, which first began its construction (D) system, beginning construction (E) system, on which construction began 7. Antarctica is not just the coldest continent on Earth; it is also, ironically, the driest. (A) Antarctica is not just the coldest continent on Earth; it is also, ironically, the (B) Ironically not just the coldest continent on Earth, Antarctica, also (C) Antarctica is not only Earth’s coldest continent, and, ironically, also its (D) Not Earth’s only coldest continent, Antarctica is also the (E) Not only the coldest continent on Earth, but Antarctica is, ironically, also the 8. Students in the health class watched live video feeds of several hospital procedures, like a baby being born by cesarean section, as well as the surgical removal of a large cyst from a patient's body. (A) like a baby being born by cesarean section, as well as (B) such as a baby born by cesarean section and (C) such as the birth of a baby by cesarean section and (D) including among them the cesareansection birth of a baby or (E) the birth of a baby by cesarean section, and

9. Sperm banks usually require potential donors to provide a detailed family medical history, in the case of men who were adopted as children, the result is that they are often precluded from becoming donors. (A) history, in the case of men who were adopted as children, the result is that they are often precluded (B) history, resulting in men who were adopted as children being precluded (C) history, the result is that they often preclude men who were adopted as children (D) history; for men being adopted as children, the result is they are often precluded (E) history; as a result, men who were adopted as children are often precluded

11. Although many video games are situated in fantasy worlds quite unlike our own, others feature human characters who get up in the morning and go to work, just like real people, to return home in the evening, spending time with their families. (A) who get up in the morning and go to work, just like real people, to return home in the evening, spending time with their families (B) that get up in the morning, go to work, return home in the evening, spend time with their families, just as real people do (C) who, just like real people, get up in the morning, go to work, and return home in the evening to spend time with their families (D) who, just like real people, get up in the morning to go to work; in the evening they return back home, and spending time with their families (E) that get up in the morning, just like real people going to work, and returning back home in the evening to spend time with their families 12. Bridges are exposed to cold air both above and below the road surface, and this is why they ice up more quickly than surface roads do. (A) Bridges are exposed to cold air both above and below the road surface, and this is why (B) Because bridges are exposed to cold air both above and below the road surface is the reason why (C) Bridges are both exposed to cold air above and below the road surface, this is the reason that (D) Because bridges are exposed to cold air both above and below the road surface, (E) Both exposed to cold air above and below the road surface, bridges, for this reason,

10. Even with his electric bill paid for, Lorenzo’s electricity was cut off due to a bug in the electric company’s computer database. (A) Even with his electric bill paid for, nonetheless, Lorenzo’s electricity was cut off due to (B) Even though his electric bill had been paid for, Lorenzo nevertheless had his electricity cut off because of (C) Even though Lorenzo had paid his electric bill, his electricity was nonetheless cut off because of (D) Despite having paid his electric bill, Lorenzo’s electricity was nonetheless cut off by (E) Even though Lorenzo had paid for his electric bill, his electricity was nevertheless cut off due to

13. Great disasters damage and destroy most of the buildings and infrastructure in affected areas, by doing this ironically they often accelerate the modernization of those areas, by spurring the construction of better, more resilient replacement structures. (A) Great disasters damage and destroy most of the buildings and infrastructure in affected areas, by doing this ironically they (B) A large number of buildings and infrastructure in affected areas are ironically damaged or destroyed by great disasters, in so doing, they (C) Great disasters, ironically, damage and destroy a large amount of the buildings and infrastructure in affected areas, so as to (D) Because a large percentage of affected areas’ buildings and infrastructure are damaged or destroyed, ironically, great disasters (E) By damaging or destroying most of the buildings and infrastructure in affected areas, great disasters, ironically,

14. A “delivery intercept,” rerouting the delivery of a shipment, by most shipping companies is allowed to be requested by the shipper, but not by the person who is to receive the package. (A) A “delivery intercept,” rerouting the delivery of a shipment, by most shipping companies is allowed to be requested by the shipper, but not by the person who is to receive the package (B) A “delivery intercept” is an action which reroutes the delivery of a shipment, most shipping companies allow the shipper but not the recipient to request this (C) According to most shipping companies, a “delivery intercept” reroutes the delivery of a shipment; the shipper, and not the person receiving the package, who may request this action (D) Most shipping companies allow the shipper, but not the intended recipient, to request a “delivery intercept,” an action that reroutes the delivery of a shipment (E) A “delivery intercept” reroutes the delivery of a shipment, whichb can be requested by the shipper, but not by the potential recipient at most shipping companies