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True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. Eukaryotic cells are characterized by a lack of a distinct nucleus, whereas prokaryotic cells have
intracellular compartments bordered by membranes and a well-defined nucleus.
2. Lipids and proteins are the major components of the plasma membrane. 3. Lysosomes remain fully active by maintaining an acid pH created by pumping hydrogen ions into
4. The chief function of ribosomes is to provide sites for lipid synthesis. 5. If cells are deprived of communication from extracellular chemical messengers, most cells
6. Non-dividing cells, such as myocardial fibers, are capable of hypertrophy, but not hyperplasia. 7. Dysplasia is a common type of normal cellular adaptation. 8. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia rarely occur together. 9. Noise, illumination, and prolonged vibrations can cause cellular injury.
____ 10. Irreversible damage to the myocardium can be detected by elevation in the contractile protein called
troponin, which is released from the myocardial muscle.
____ 11. Chemical injuries initiate biochemical reactions that damage cell membrane by decreasing the
permeability of the plasma membrane.
____ 12. Aging is the result of a genetically controlled development program or built-in self-destructive
____ 13. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading cause of mental retardation and miscarriages. ____ 14. The main function of natural killers cells is recognition and elimination of bacteria. ____ 15. The inflammatory response is the body’s first line of defense. ____ 16. Neutrophils are involved in activation of the adaptive immune system. ____ 17. Several bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are resistant to killing by granulocytes and
can survive inside macrophages.
____ 18. Resolution is best defined as the restoration of original structure and physiologic function. Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 19. Which of the following best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption? a. Cells can produce proteins. b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes.
c. Membrane channel proteins d. Carbohydrate chains b. Golgi complex c. Endocrine disorders What prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? a. Glycoprotein channels c. ____ 24. proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis. By closing down the membrane transport channels to hormones and chemicals. The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus. and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane. ____ 23. d. In cirrhosis. Phospholipid bilayer Using the fluid mosaic model. d. and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane. d. Cardiac and vascular disorders b. c. By increasing the number and sensitivity of lysosomes to destroy bacteria. ____ 26. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascade may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases? a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte. proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis. proceeds to the lysosome for synthesis. By shifting the bilayer from hydrophobic to hydrophilic in response to antibodies. Peroxisome c. ____ 25. proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis. b.c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? a. By altering the number and patterns of receptors to bacteria. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders d. and chemicals. Ribosome b. Ribosomes d. b. Lysosomes What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell? a. antibodies. Autoimmune and malignant disorders c. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove ____ 21. Cells can synthesize fats. which reduces its . ____ 22. Lysosomes b. Cells can take in and use nutrients. The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus. and is transported in a encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane. and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane. how does cholesterol alter the fluidity of the plasma membrane of erythrocytes? a. Oxyhydrosomes Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. ____ 20. how is the cell capable of actively protecting itself against injurious agents? a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus.
Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. ability to carry oxygen. d.____ 27. which influence the volume of solution b. Hormone signaling How do cells receive communication from the extracellular fluid surrounding them? a. b. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c. Because plasma contains sodium and chloride. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. ____ 30. Cells will shrink. b. Cells will divide. . Paracrine signaling b. d. c. destroyed or immobilized? a. such as protein and glucose. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes. b. c. Chemical messengers such as ligands When a second message is necessary for extracellular communication to be activated. such as proteins and glucose A patient who has diarrhea receives a 3% saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. Because the volume affects perfusion more than the weight of solutes c. Because more of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes. Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact? a. ____ 31. Autocrine signaling c. Because osmotic activity depends on the concentration of solutes present in plasma. rather than by water d. guanosine diphosphate (GDP). which allows binding of excess glucose. ____ 32. adenosine monophosphate (AMP). which reduces its ability to carry hemoglobin. it is provided by: a. guanosine triphosphate (GTP). Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes. d. adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Why is “osmolality” preferred over “osmolarity” as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals? a. c. Neurotransmitter signaling d. ____ 28. Cells will swell or burst. Cells will become hydrated. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes. which prolongs it life span beyond 120 days. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells? a. ____ 29.
By active diffusion c. b. ____ 38. b. By passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion) ____ 34. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? a. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. b. By active-mediated transport (active transport) b. Sodium gates close allowing potassium into the cell to changing the membrane potential from positive to negative. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell ____ 35.____ 33. potential from positive to negative. By passive osmosis d. How a cell membrane functions b. Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? a. Solute molecules flow freely into and out of the cell. They provide growth factor for tissue growth and development. Potassium gates close allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane ____ 36. Mediated transport c. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) b. c. They restrain cell growth and development. . How tissue is differentiated d. d. c. How is the transport of glucose from the blood to the cell accomplished? a. Active transport b. No repairs in the plasma membrane can take place. Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. d. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) c. ____ 39. All substances are secreted into the cellular matrix. Passive transport What occurs during exocytosis? a. fibroblast cells. ____ 40. d. Why our bodies appear to be solid c. epidermal cells. They provide nutrients for cell growth and development. How fluid moves between the intracellular and extracellular compartments What is the name of the method of transport that uses transmembrane proteins with receptors that have a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported? a. c. What does the fluid mosaic model explains? a. c. Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. Transmembranous transport d. They block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle. b. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium d. d. platelets. connective tissue cells. Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes. What is the action of platelet-derived growth factor? It stimulates production of: a. ____ 37.
Metaplasia c. Hyperplasia b. receptor-mediated exocytosis. ____ 48. Muscular disease such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? a. d. G1 b. Cells swell because of the influx of nitric oxide (NO). Gastrointestinal diseases such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease d. passive transport. . c. ____ 42. c. Cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease b. sodium and chloride. c. glycolysis c. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized? a. ribosomes.____ 41. Cells swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl). Cells shrink because of the influx of calcium (Ca). receptor-mediated endocytosis. which destroys the infrastructure. The cellular uptake of cholesterol depends on: a. oxidative phosphorylation b. Shift of potassium out of the mitochondria. passive transport ____ 43. G2 ____ 45. Reduction in ATP production caused by edema from an influx in sodium. c. adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Under anaerobic conditions. d. b. receptors. a. Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis. S c. potassium. d. Dysplasia d. calcium. ____ 47. c. ____ 49. lipids. Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of: a. b. what effect does the loss of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) level have on cells? a. Anaplasia During ischemia. amphipathic lipids. antiport system. lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells? a. Influx of calcium ions halts the ATP production. d. Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases? a. Renal diseases such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis c. ____ 44. lactolysis d. Cells shrink because of the influx of potassium chloride (KCl). b. the process of _____ provides energy for the cell. d. b. b. Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to: a. Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial ____ 46.
What is the most common site of lipid accumulation? a. which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream b. ____ 54. which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream d. Pancreas and adrenal glands d. What. b. Accumulation of lipids obstruct the common bile duct preventing flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder b. ____ 56. A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull such as an aneurysm eruption. occurs under the dura. Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water. Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures. Nerves and blood-forming organs ____ 51. ____ 55. if any. d. How does lead poisoning affect the nervous system? a. Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss. d. Muscles and bones c. b. Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins. whereas an epidural hematoma is formed from arterial blood that collects rapidly. c. c. c. Which organs are affected by lead consumption? a. It inhibits production of myelin around nerves. Heart and blood vessels b. A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura. which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream . What physiologic changes occur during heat exhaustion? a. whereas an epidural hematoma ____ 53. Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids What causes hemoprotein accumulations? a. is the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma? a. c. It alters the transport of potassium into the nerves during synapse. A subdural hematoma usually is formed from venous blood that collects slowly. Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperature. Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins d. whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull such as a blunt force trauma. These terms may be used interchangeably. ____ 52. d. There is no difference. Liver d. It increases the resting membrane potential. It interferes with the function of neurotransmitters. Excessive storage of amino acids. Excessive storage of albumin. which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells c.____ 50. Excessive storage of iron. Coronary and other arteries b. b. Subcutaneous tissue What mechanisms occur in the liver after lipid accumulation in liver cells? a. Excessive storage of hemoglobin. Kidneys c.
Activation of phospholipases. The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called: a. this is an example of: a. Caseous necrosis c. Gangrene necrosis What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis? a. hormonal hyperplasia. a. hormonal anaplasia. hormonal dysplasia. d. Gangrene necrosis After ovulation. hyperplasia. Kidneys and heart d. b. which degrade the proteins to which calcium normally binds c. Coagulative necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis d. and tissues. ____ 63. Coagulative necrosis b. ____ 60. ferritin c. Liquefactive necrosis c. hemoglobin b. ____ 64. . transferrin What is the cause of free calcium in the cytosol that damages cell membranes by uncontrolled enzyme activation? a. hormonal hypertrophy. b. which interferes with the binding of calcium to protein b. Activation of endonuclease. Lungs and pulmonary vessels b.____ 57. Bacteriologic necrosis b. ____ 62. Brain and spinal cord c. Gangrenous necrosis What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene? a. pathologic dysplasia. Hemosiderosis is a condition in which excess _____ is stored as hemosiderin in cells of many organs ____ 58. dysplasia. Caseous necrosis d. pathologic hyperplasia. iron d. which compete with calcium for binding to proteins d. which normally pumps calcium from the cell What organs are affected by the type of necrosis that results from hypoxia caused by severe ischemia or caused by chemical injury? a. Muscles and bones What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells? a. An influx of phosphate ions. ____ 61. Depletion of ATP. the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. ____ 59. c. Liquefactive necrosis c. c. Caseous necrosis d. d.
Infectious injury d. Because of the result of DNA damage and inefficiency of cellular repair For which disease has the chromosomal location NOT been identified? a. An increase in alpha-fetoprotein c. Because the genetic program for aging is encoded in the brain and controlled by hormonal agents b. Removal of part of the liver leads to _____ of the remaining liver cells. dysplasia b. metaplasia c. What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise? a. Noise-induced and low-frequency ____ 69. What is the single most common cause of cellular injury? a. Cystic fibrosis What datum from an amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect? a. Chemical injury c. bubbles of _____ form emboli. compensatory hyperplasia d. why is there an increase in the osmotic pressure within the ____ 70. Because plasma proteins enter the cell b. Because the immune function declines with age d. ____ 71. In decompression sickness (the bends). compensatory dysplasia ____ 66. Because free radicals of oxygen that result from oxidative cellular metabolism cause abnormal cell growth c. ____ 72.____ 65. Hypoxic injury b. nitrogen c. oxygen b. An increase in embryonic protein For which women would an amniocentesis be recommended? . carbon dioxide d. Acoustic trauma and noise-induced b. ____ 73. hydrogen ____ 68. An increase in amnionic protein d. a. Huntington disease b. High-frequency and acoustic trauma d. During cell injury caused by hypoxia. Because there is an influx of glucose through the injured cell membranes What is the explanation for why cancer increases as one ages and the number of autoantibodies increases with age? a. Genetic injury ____ 67. An increase in chorionic protein b. cell? a. Sickle cell disease d. Because sodium chloride enters the cell d. a. Because the ATPase-driven pump is stronger during hypoxia c. High-frequency and low-frequency c. Hemophilia A c.
Retinoblastoma and type 1 neurofibromatosis c. Translocation Inserting bone marrow cells into an individual who produces abnormal erythrocytes is an example of what therapy? a. ____ 79. X-linked dominant b. Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene. For all pregnant women For pregnant women who have a family history of certain genetic disorders For pregnant women who are over 40 years of age For pregnant women who had a late menarche What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or mitosis? a. X-linked recessive c. b. a. Somatic cell therapy b. d. Hemophilia A and leukemia Which of the following disorders has a mode of inheritance similar to hemophilia A? . ____ 76. Huntington disease and hemochromatosis b. Chorionic villi biopsy People who have neurofibromatosis have a varying degree of the condition because of the genetic principle of: a. Gene mapping b. One half Which genetic diseases have been linked to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene? a. d. Familial breast cancer and polycystic kidney disease d.a. expressivity. One fourth c. ____ 77. Genetic engineering therapy d. c. ____ 80. ____ 75. ____ 81. Amniocentesis d. Polyploidy d. penetrance. Recombinant DNA therapy What is the most clinically useful technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 2 months’ gestation? a. autosomal dominant d. recessiveness. Aneuploidy b. What is the probability that the next child will have the same genetic disease? a. Linkage analysis c. Nondisjunction c. b. c. autosomal recessive A couple has two children with a genetic disease. One sixth b. ____ 74. ____ 78. dominance. One third d. Germ cell therapy c.
To provide specific responses toward antigens b. Helicobacter pylori Which antimicrobial peptide is activated by tumor necrosis factor alpha and is found in alveolar macrophages and T-lymphocytes? a. Clostridium difficile d. ____ 82. 9 years of age. sex-linked recessive What is a purpose of the inflammatory process? a. β-Defensins c. Increased capillary permeability d. To prevent infection of the injured tissue d. b. They secrete mucus. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury How do surfactant proteins A & D provide innate resistance? a. ____ 86. They promote phagocytosis c. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms c. Activates the clotting cascade b. Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy? a. is admitted to the pediatric ward with hemophilia A. Endothelial cell contraction Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. Interleukin 1β What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory process? a. Complement cascade b. d. a. They synthesize lysosomes. Platelet aggregation c. b. sex-linked d. Kinin system d. ____ 89. c. Vasodilation b. ____ 88. ____ 84. α-Defensins b. He inherited this condition through a ___________ trait. d. Lactobacillus b.a. sex-linked dominant b. ____ 83. Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues . ____ 87. Candida albicans c. sex-influenced c. Clotting system c. Immune system What is an outcome of the complement cascade? a. Cri du chat syndrome Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) Polycystic kidney Down syndrome A boy. ____ 85. Cathelicidin d. They initiate the complement cascade.
Bradykinin d. d. From mast cells What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage? a. b. From bacterial infected cells c. It causes vasodilation around the inflamed area. Plasmin What effect does chemotactic factor have on the inflammatory process? a. It is the processing of pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity. b. ____ 94. Eosinophils release arylsulfatase B. Eosinophils release immunoglobulin E. It stimulates smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area. c. It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation. From macrophages d.c. What is the role of eosinophils in regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells? a. It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever. . c. d. ____ 91. Interferons alpha and beta (IFN α and IFN β) Where is tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF α) secreted? a. d. which defends the body against parasites. It is the anaphylatoxic activity resulting in mast cell degranulation. Destroyed tissue is replaced by non-functioning scar tissue. It is the tagging of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. which stimulates the formation of B lymphocytes. complement and activating the Hageman factor? a. activating ____ 92. From virally infected cells b. Interleukin 1 (Il-1) b. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF α) d. Eosinophils release lysosomal enzymes. c. b. c. What is function of the complement cascade called opsonization? a. Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots. It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation. It is the destruction of glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms. ____ 93. Inactivates chemical mediators such as histamine d. Histamine c. What are the inflammatory effects of nitric oxide (NO)? a. Interleukin 10 (Il-10) c. ____ 96. ____ 95. which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation. which activate mast cell degranulation during acute inflammation. Attacks bacterial cell membranes ____ 90. d. It increases capillary permeability and causes pain. Eosinophils release histaminase. It directs leukocytes to the inflamed area. Kallikrein b. Which cytokines are produced and released from virally infected host cells? a. b. ____ 97. It produces edema around the inflamed area.
factor X. complement b. Recognition. inflammation is: a. b. prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity. fibrinolysis In the clotting cascade. c. d. Destroyed tissue is replaced by epithelialization. Impaired collagen matrix assembly d. Matching Match the structure with its function. a.b. Impaired epithelialization b. Frequently histamine 1 (H1) and histamine 2 (H2) receptors are located on the same cells and act in a/an _____ fashion. Engulfment. fusion. ____ 100. activated. fusion. Regeneration occurs in which original tissue is replaced.) . c. Impaired contraction c. When histamine binds the histamine 2 (H2) receptor. the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at: a. inhibited. destruction A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response? a. d. recognition. destruction b. destruction d. their circulatory system is too immature to adequately perfuse tissues. a. fusion. Hageman factor. Engulfment. coagulation c. destruction c. d. The _____ system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to ____ 99. recognition. factor XII. they have an insufficient number of mast cells. engulfment. they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis. b. ____ 98. Resolution occurs when tissue is regenerated. d. ____ 101. (Answers A through D may be used more than once. recognition. Fusion. ____ 103. c. c. factor V. additive c. Impaired maturation Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response because: a. accelerated. kinin d. ____ 104. their lungs are too immature to deliver oxygen to tissues. engulfment. not changed. ____ 102. synergistic b. b. antagonistic d. agonistic Which of the following indicates a correct sequence in phagocytosis? a.
Passive-mediated transport Active-mediated transport Osmosis Diffusion ____ 105. Changes in gonads as hormonal stimulation decreases Liver regeneration Increases in the size of the uterus and breasts during pregnancy Thymus gland changes during childhood Causes myocardial enlargement as a result of dilated cardiac chambers Match the genetic terms with the corresponding diseases. Compensatory hyperplasia ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 108. 116. 112. 122. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Cystic fibrosis Hemophilia Sickle cell disease Huntington disease Achondroplasia Phenylketonuria (PKU) Match the disease with its chromosomal abnormality. Cri du chat ____ ____ ____ ____ 120. Turner syndrome e. 119. Klinefelter syndrome d. 123. 121. (Terms can be used more than once. 118. 111. Facilitated diffusion Match the terms with the corresponding examples. X-linked dominant d. Physiologic atrophy b. X-linked recessive ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 113. 114.) a. Pathologic atrophy c. Down Syndrome b. Autosomal recessive c. 117. a. Physiologic hypertrophy d. 110. 109. b. Zygote has one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene An additional chromosome joining the normal homologous pair Single X chromosome with no homologous X or Y chromosome Two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome . Protein carrier ____ 107. 115. c. Pathologic hypertrophy e. d. Terms may be used more than once. Movement of water ____ 106.a. Fragile X syndrome c. Autosomal dominant b.
132.) a. Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria ____ ____ ____ ____ 129. a. 131. Tears Sebaceous glands Perspiration Saliva . Phagosome d. Fusion e. Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid b. 128. Destruction ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 124. 125. Microorganisms are ingested Microorganisms are killed and digested Enhance recognition and adherence of bacteria by phagocytes Lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte Intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed Match the biochemical barriers with its function. 126. Engulfment c. 130.Match each step of phagocytosis with its function. Opsonization b. (Terms can be used more than once. 127.
9. 11. 14. 7-8 p. 131 p. 26 p. 18. 14 p. 7. 6. 15. 5. 8. p. 28 p. 25. 21. 27 p. Fig 1-13 p. p. 53 p. 73 p. 29. 6 p. 7. 3. 36. 32. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: C B D A B D B A B A D B C C D C B C A A REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 82 p. 19 p. 195 p. 14 . 20 p. 12 p. 31. 2 p. 34 p. 196 p. 11. 37. 4. p. 178 p. 10 p. 33. 52 p. 13. 14 p. 16. 23. 10. 22. 32 p. 27. 17 p. 2. p. 28. 1 p. 13. 48 p. 48 p. 12. 177. 38. 4 p. 19 p. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: F T T F T T F F T T F T T F F F T T REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. Caption of Fig 1-5. 7 p. 34. 35. 18 p. 6. 48 p. 72. 31 p. 24. 7 p. 17. 20. 26. p. 201 MULTIPLE CHOICE 19. 30. 195 p.patho review Answer Section TRUE/FALSE 1. 34 p.
48 p. 75 p. 70. 60. 133 p. 73. 80 p. 79. 51 p. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: B A D B C B B C A B C D A C A C B A C D C B B B A D C A B A C C C B B B A D B D D B B D C B REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 56. 134 p. 82. 81. 47. 76 p. 43. 62. 56 p. 64. 144 p. 73 p. 70 p. 84. 31 p. 46. 55 p. 133 p. 33 p. 48 p. 148 p. 57. 48 p. 23 p. 50 p. 77-78 and caption of Fig 2-17 p. 67. 42. 75. 133 p. 54. 55. 56 p. 61 p. 56 p. 59. 83. 76 p. 44. 78. 50. 49. 76. 45. 61. 74 p. 177 .39. 71 p. 63. p. 84 p. 79 p. 52. 79 p. 77. 146 p. 75 p. 58. 66. 18 p. 69. 52 p. 51. 144 p. 30 p. 80. 65. 145 p. 79 p. 68. 41. 72. 125 p. 148 p. 145. 40. 175 p. 48 p. 48. 142 p. 71. 74. 53. 27 p.
92. 46 p. 195-196 p. 141 p. 119. 204-205 p. 98. 100. ANS: A 108. 143 p. ANS: C 106. 28 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 201 p. 94. 88. 182 p. 46 p. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: A E C A D D B D B A A B E A D C REF: p. 96. 179 p. 104. 148 p. 46 p. 137 p. 90. 148. 26 REF: p. 182 p. 99. 89. 112.85. 193 . 178 p. 134 p. 192 p. 135 p. p. 136 124. 192. 111. 149 p. 47 p. 103. 102. 113. 146 p. 188 p. 117. 93. 183 p. 191 p. p. 87. 101. 109. 197 p. 110. 141 p. 197 p. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: C A A A D A D C D B D C A B C A C C C B REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 144 p. 188 p. 121. 122. 46 p. 114. p. 91. 182 p. ANS: B 107. 140. 178 p. 120. 206 MATCHING 105. ANS: B REF: p. 95. 188 p. 115. 123. 182 p. 116. 184 p. 86. 97. 118. 28 REF: p.
129. 177 p. 193 p. p. 192. 127. 193 p.125. 192. 177 p. 177 . 193 p. 192. 128. 130. 132. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: E A D C B A B B REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. p. 126. 177 p. p. 192. 131. 193 p. p.
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