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1. Probable cause of myasthenia gravis a) Excessive synthesis of cholinergic receptor b) Inadequate synthesis of acetylcholine c) Binding of anti-muscarinic receptor antibodies on the muscarinic cholinergic receptor d) Binding of anti-nicotinic receptop antibodies to the nicotinic cholinergic receptor The release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum of the skeletal ms is prevented by: a) Dantroline b) D-tubocurarine c) Succinylcholine d) Baclofen Anti-cholinesterases used to treat myasthenia gravis: a) Nesostigmine b) Pyridostigmine c) Ambenonium d) All of the above Clinical uses: Dantrolene (Dantrium): a) Spasmolytic b) Malignant hyperthermia c) Both d) Neither Competitive NM blockers can be antagonized by: a) Pancuronium b) Tubocurarine c) Atracurium d) Mivacurium Mechanism of termination of succinylcholine a) Reuptake into presynaptic vesicles b) Diffusion away from postsynaptic receptor c) Metabolism by postsynaptic pseudocholinesterase d) Excreted unchanged in urine


Shortest duration of action among nondepolarizing meuromuscular blocking drugs: a) Pancuronium b) Tubocurarine c) Atracurium d) Mivacurium Regarding to succinylcholine pharmacology: a) Rapid onset, long duration of action b) Mechanism for neuromuscular blocking action interacts with muscarinic cholinergic receptors c) Cause postsynaptic membrane depolarization d) All of the above Duration of action of succinylcholine: a) Less than 5 minutes b) 5-10 minutes c) 15-30 minutes d) More than 30 minutes

14. This drug is a short acting anti cholinesterase: a) Neostigmine b) Pyridostigmine c) Edrophonium d) Physostigmine 15. Pseuso-cholinesterase is present in: a) Synaptic cleft b) Vesicle c) Liver and plasma d) All of the above 16. Eserine is another name for: a) Physostigmine b) Neostigmine c) Edrophonium d) Pyridostigmine 17. Anti-cholinesterase agents can be used for a) Glaucoma b) Myasthenia gravis c) Termination of the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs d) All of the above 18. Following statement is true regarding MG: a) Thymus abnormality is common b) Weakness of eye muscle usually present c) Azathoprine is useful in the treatment d) All of the above 19. Following are competitine neuromuscular blocking agents except: a) Atracurium b) Pancurium c) Tubocurarine d) Decamethonium 20. Dtubocurarine produces all the following except: a) Paralysis of respiratory muscles b) Tachycardia c) Hypotension d) Bronchospasm






10. Infuence time course of succinylcholine duration of action: a) Liver disease b) Presence of neostigmine c) Both d) Neither 11. Side effect associated with succinylcholine: a) Cardiac arrhythmias b) Increased intragastric pressure c) Hyperkaleamia d) All of the above 12. Antiarrythmic drug which may increase pre-existing neuromuscular blockade: a) Lidocaine b) Quinidine c) Both d) Neither 13. Antibiotic most likely to have an effect on neuromuscular junction: a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin V c) Tobramycin d) All of the above



which of these agents reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing formation of aqueous humor? a) Timolol b) Pilocarpine c) Latanoprost d) Echothiopate 13. The drug that is LEAST likely to have therapeutic value for this condition is: a) Acetazolamide b) Isoproterenol c) Latanoprost d) Pilocarpine A 62 years old woman is noted to have open angle glaucoma. All of following affect size of the pupil EXCEPT: a) Cocaine b) Tropicamide c) Ecothiophate d) Timolol Topical atropine produce all of the following except a) Mydriasis b) Cycloplegia c) Peduce intraocular pressure d) Loss of light reflex Choline esters like carbachol are most likely to cause which of the following adverse effects? a) Anhydrosis (dry skin) b) Delirium c) Salivation d) Tachycardia 8. All of the following drugs when applied locally to eye produce cycloplegia except: a) Homatropine b) Cyclopentolate c) Timolol d) Scopolamine 11. . 6. A drug produces mydriasis with loss of light reflex when applied locally on eye: a) Adrenaline b) Ephedrine c) Timolol d) Cyclopentolate 16. This may results in which of the following? a) Bronchial smooth muscle dilatation b) Decreased gastrointestinal motility c) Dilatation of blood vessels d) Mydriasis 7. 14. All of the following drugs may increase IOP except: a) Antihistaminic b) Tricyclic antidepressants c) Demecarium d) Corticosteroids 2. She inadvertently applies excessive pilocarpine to her eyes. 10. but causes mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hours? a) Atropine b) Ecothiophate c) Ephedrine d) Tropicamide A 65 years old man has chronic open angle glaucoma.GLAUCOMA 1. a good choice is: a) Isoproterenol b) Phenylepherine c) Pilocarpine d) Tropicamide Which of following drug is used in ophthalmology. 9. 4. A drug which is a2 adrenergic receptor agonist used topically on eye for treatment of open angle glaucoma: a) Pilocarpine b) Dorzolamide c) Ecothiopate d) Brimonidine 15. All of the following produces passive mydraisis except: a) Cyclopentolate b) Tropicamide c) Eucatropine d) Ephedrine 18. Topical physostigmine produce all of the following except: a) Cycloplegia b) Lacrimation c) Miosis d) Twitches of eyelids A direct acting cholinomimetic that is lipid soluble and has been used in treatment of glaucoma ang sjogren syndrome: a) Acetylcholine b) Betanechol c) Physostigmine d) Pilocarpine When pupillary dilatation but not cycloplegia is desired. All of following drugs are used in open angle glaucoma. Which of the following drugs is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used locally as eye drops in treatment of glaucoma: a) Dipivefrin b) Physostigmine c) Apraclonidine d) Brinzolamide 12. The following drugs are used in open angle glaucoma except: a) Pilocarpine b) Dipivefrin c) Acetazolamide d) Glycerol (oral) 19. The following drugs can be used as eye drops in glaucoma treatment except: a) Apraclonidine b) Atropine c) Echothiopate d) Timolol 17. The following drugs act to decreased IOP by decreasing formation of aqueous humour except: a) PGF 2a analogue b) Acetazolamide c) Timolol d) Apraclonidine 20. Eucatropine produces its mydriatics effect via: a) Stimulation of a1 receptors in dilator papillae muscle b) Inhibition of uptake-1 of noradrenaline c) Block of muscarinic receptors in constrictor papillae muscle d) Inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme 5. 3.

6. Concerning salicylates: a) Distributed all over the body & orally absorbed b) Urine alkalinization: increases free salicylate excretion 5. when antiinflammatory action is not necessary a) Penicillamine b) Sulfasalazine c) Acetaminophen d) Piroxicam Probable direct effect of colchicines (mechanism of action): a) Direct membrane stabilization b) Binds to intracellular tubulin. Probeniccid Sulfinpyrazone Effective in management of mild to moderate pain. Symptoms of salicylism: a) Tinnitus b) Decreased hearing c) Vertigo d) All of the above 12. Salicylate intoxication includes all the following except: a) Hyperventilation b) Dehydration c) Hypothermia d) Respiratory alkalosis 19. All of the following drugs are contraindicated in gout except: a) Aspirin small dose b) Aspirin large dose c) Thiazide diuretics d) Loop diuretics 20. NSAIDs now more commonly used because of diarrhea associated with earlier medication: a) Allopurinol b) Colchicines c) d) 7. 4. All of the following are effective in acute attack of gout except: a) Colchicines b) Indomethacine c) Allopurinol d) Prednisolone 18. Colchicines produces all of the following except: a) It is uricosuric b) It causes diarrhea c) It inhibits migration of granulocytes d) It produces agranulocytosis 17. 8. 10. Most non steroidal antiinflammatory a) Inhibit prostaglandins biosynthesis b) Weak organic bases c) Probably increases production of free radicals d) All of the above 13. Allopurinol: a) Increases the catabolism of uric acid b) Increases the renal excretion of uric acid c) Inhibits the xanthine oxidase enzyme d) Stimulates the xanthine oxidase enzyme Uricosuric agents: a) Are infective in patients with impaired renal function b) Increase renal urate excretion c) Can be used instead of allopurinol d) All of the above Drugs with anti-inflammatory effect only in gout and Mediterranean fever is: a) Aspirin b) Paracetamol c) Colchicines d) Allopurinol Acute attack of gouty arthritis may occur early in treatment with allopurinol because: a) Allopurinol increases urate synthesis b) Urate crystals move from tissue to plasma c) Allopurinol increases releases of chemotactic factors d) All of the above Indications for allopurinol (Zyloric) administration: a) When probenicid of sulfinpyrazone cannot be used b) Presence of renal functional impairment c) In a patient with recurrent renal stones d) All of the above Previously most popular drug for treating inflammation of acute gouty arthritis. Aspirin: give inactive salicyluric acid by conjugation d) All the above 14. All of the following drugs are useful in gout except: a) Aspirin small dose b) Aspirin large dose c) Indomethacin d) Allopurinol c) 3. 9. reducing microtubule formation c) Decreases purine synthesis directly d) Prevents IL-1 release directly Reduces uric acid synthesis for management of gout a) Colchicines b) Probenicid c) Sulfinpyrazone d) Allopurinol 2.GOUT 1. Sites of action of probenicid a) Loop of henle b) Proximal tubule. In treatment of gout a) Prednisolone can be used in acute attack if non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs fail to give relief b) Allopurinol can treat acute attack c) Allopurinol acts as uricosuric d) Thiazide diuretics are better than loop diuretics 15.middle segment c) Both d) Neither 11. Probenicid is characterized by all the following except: a) It is useful in treatment of gout b) It is uricosuric at large dose c) It promotes renal tubular secretion of penicillin d) It may induce renal urate stones formation 16. .

Inhalation anaesthesia include all of the following except: a) Halothane b) Enflurane c) Ketamine d) Desflurane 11. . Benzodiazepins in anaesthesia: may be used alone for procedures not requiring analgesic. 7. Benzodiazepins: Diazepam (Valium): a) Advantage: combination with opiods do not result in significant cardiovascular depression 4. 10. 1. Factors determine rate & depth of anaesthetis drugs: a) Anesthetic concentration in the inspired air b) Pulmonary ventilation c) Solubility of anesthetic drugs d) All of the above Is malignant hyperthermia occur. Thiopental: a) Excellent analgesic b) Rapid recovery (20-30 minutes) due to rapid hepatic metabolism c) Absence of respiratory depression d) Precipitates acute porphyria 13. it should be treated with: a) Baclofen b) Diazepam c) Neostigmine d) Dantrolone Malignant nyperthermia is a major complication of: a) Curare b) Neuroleptics drugs c) Fentanyl d) All of the above Nitrous oxide disadvantages: a) No skeletal muscle relaxation b) Weak anaesthetic c) Post-anaesthesia hypoxia (diffusional hypoxia) d) All of the above.LOCAL ANAESTHETICS 8. The surgical stage of general anaesthesia is: st a) 1 stage nd b) 2 stage rd c) 3 stage th d) 4 stage Begins by loss of consciousness & end by normalization of respiration & circulation. Common side effect of nitrous oxide is: a) Hepatoxicity b) Bronchospasm c) Malignant hyperthermia d) Megaloblastic anemia 9. Halothane: a) Very potent b) Non irritant to respiratory passages c) Little post anaesthetic vomitting d) All of the above 18. Nitrous oxide: a) Effective muscle relaxation b) Should not be used in the patient has occluded middle ear c) Significant depression of myocardial contractility d) Significant respiratory depression 20. To treat respiratory depression of opiod drugs use: a) Fentanyl b) Naloxene c) Flumazenil d) Dantroline 19. including: a) Cardiac catheterization b) Some radiological procedures c) Endoscopy d) All of the above 17. 6. Droperidol + Fentanyl: a) Neuroleptic analgesia b) Dissociative aneathesia c) Both d) Neither 16. Ketamine produces: a) Bradycardia b) Dissociative anaesthesia c) Hypotension d) Hypothonia 14. 3. Nitrous oxide disadvantages: a) Excellent analgesia b) Non inflammable c) Very rapid onset and recovery d) All of the above 12. 5. This is: st a) 1 stage nd b) 2 stage rd c) 3 stage th d) 4 stage Sevoflurane: a) Low blood solubility b) Resembles desflurane in pharmacological properties c) Very commonly used d) All of the above Associated with malignant hyperthermia: a) Halothane (Fluothane) b) Isoflurane c) Both d) Neither Enflurane: a) Widely used in paediatrics cases b) May cause nephrotoxicity c) Skeletal muscle relaxation inadequate for surgery d) Difficult adjustment of anaesthesia depth due to significant effects on pulse and respiration b) Cns depression can be reversed with naltrexone c) Associated with anterograde amnesia d) Effective analgesic 15. 2.

Antidepressant therapeutic effects may be delayed for 2-3 weeks with: a) Serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) b) Tricyclics antidepressants c) Both d) Neither Least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension: a) Desipramine b) Sertraline c) Tranylcypromine d) Amitryptyline Primary use of fluoxetine (Prozac): a) Treating obsessivecompulsive disorders b) Management of morbid obesity c) Treating endogenous depression d) Treating anxiety Characteristics of lithium toxicity: a) Tremors b) Diabetes insipidus c) Hypothyroidism d) All of the above Imipramine causes: a) Miosis b) Increased urinary frequency c) Orthostatic hypotension d) CNS stimulation (Alertness) Therapeutics uses of antidepressants includes: a) Severe anxiety disorder b) Post traumatic stress disorders c) Endogenous depression d) All of the above Most likely to be effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disordes: a) Imipramine b) Doxepin c) Clomipramine d) Phenylzine 8. 7. 3. Amitriptiline is contraindicated in all the following cases except: a) Patients with high intraocular pressure b) Patients with history of catheterization for urine retention c) Patients given Sertraline d) Patients with ischemic heart diseases 19. 10. Pharmacological management of hypertensive crisis secondary to ingestion of tyramine-containing foods by a patient treated with phenylzine: a) Nitroprusside b) Phentolamine c) Both d) Neither 13. Side effects of this antidepressants include nausea. Drugs that affect plasma lithium levels: a) Chlorothiazide b) Indomethacin c) Both d) Neither 20. Lithium side effects include all the following excepts: a) Tremors b) Polyuria c) Weight loss d) Teratogenicity 2. Appropriate antidepressant medication would be: a) Imipramine b) Fluoxetine c) Phenylzine d) Amitryptilline 15. .DEPRESSION 1. Significant atropine-like effects seen with: a) Paroxetine (Paxil) b) Imipramine (Tofranil) c) Both d) Neither 11. 14. 5. Low potential for anticholinergic side effects occur with: a) Amitriptyline b) Nialamide (MAOI) c) Desipramine d) Sertraline (SSRIs) 16. Tricyclics antidepressants side effects include all of the following except: a) Dry mouth b) Hypertension c) Sedation d) Tremors 18. Polyuria associated with lithium caused by: a) Lithium-induced osmotic dieresis. vomiting. What is the suspected mechanism of action of Lithium a) Inhibiting intraneuronal inositol-1-phosphate b) Inhibiton of the reuptake of serotonin in the pre-synaptic neuron c) Blockade of post-synaptic dopamine receptors d) Increasing the affinity of the g-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor for GABA 12. and insomnia: a) Tranylcypromine b) Fluoxetine c) Imipramine d) Amitriptylline Antidepressants with relatively few cardiovascular side effects: a) Phenylzine b) Fluoxetine c) Amitriptylline d) Maprotiline 9. Antidepressants effects of TCAs appear after: a) 2-3 hours b) 2-3 days c) 2-3 weeks d) 2-3 months 17. similar to mannitol b) Lithium inhibits sodium exchange in the ascending loop of Henle c) Lithium activates carbonic anhydrase d) Lithium inhibits ADH receptor 4. 6. An elderly male with a history of coronary vascular diseases (MI and 2nd degree heart block) presents with endogenous depression.

3. Antiepileptic drug used in treatment of trigeminal of trigeminal neuralgia: a) Acetazolamide b) Carbamazepine c) Trimethadione d) Phenobarbitone Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all the following types of seizures except: a) Generalized tonic-clonic b) Simple partial c) Absence d) Status epilepsy All of the following statements about phenobarbitone are correct except: a) It is a long acting barbiturate b) An inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes c) Acidification of urine increases its excretion d) Useful in grand-mal epilepsy The following are examples of generalized seizures except: a) Tonic clonic b) Absence seizures c) Simple partial seizures d) Atonic seizures 4. trimethadione c) Carbamazepine. Ethosuximide. Least sedating and effective in managing grand mal and partial seizures: a) Clonazepam b) Valproic acid c) Phenytoin d) Primidone 5. Antiseizure drug that probably act principle at Ca channel: a) Valproic acid b) Ethosuximide c) Phenytoin d) A & b 20. Ineffective in treating grand mal epilepsy: a) Phenytoin b) Carbamazepine c) Ethosuximide d) None of the above 16. Rapid termination of status epilepticus: a) I.V thiopental c) Both d) Neither 19. Drug in order to preference in managing absence seizures: a) Phenytoin. All of the following anti-epileptic drugs are useful in generalized tonic-clonic convulsions (grandmal) seizures except: a) Ethosuximide b) Phenytoin c) Carbamazepine d) Phenobarbitone Antiepileptic drug that cause neural tube defect is: a) Phenytoin b) Carbamazepine c) Valproic acid d) Topiramate 7. carbamazepine. phenobarbital b) Ethosuximide. . Side effects of that anti seizures drug: aplastic anemia. 10. Its antiseizures eefectiveness is due to its metabolism to phenobarbitone: a) Phenytoin b) Primidone c) Diazepam d) Lamotrigine 13. carbamazepine. Antiepileptic drug chemically derived from the tricyclic antidepressants is: a) Carbamazepine b) Ethosuximide c) Phenytoin d) None of the above Valproic acid is shown to be effective against: a) Absence seizures b) Partial seizures c) Generalized seizures d) All of the above 9. 6. Antiepileptic drug that is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA amino transferase enzyme is: a) Pyrimidine b) Vigabatrine c) Lamotrigine d) Gabapentine 14. Drug of choice in treating absence seizures is: a) Phenobarbitone b) Ethosuximide c) Phenytoin d) Carbamazepine 11. valproate d) Valproate. Clinically used for treating grand mal seizure: a) Phenabarbitone b) Phenytoin c) Carbamazepine d) a & b & c 17. Hirsuitism is associated with administration of this antiseizure medication: a) Phenobarbitone b) Clonazepam c) Phenytoin d) None of the above 8. 2.EPILEPSY 1. Phenytoin: a) Is subjected only to first orders kinetics b) Enhances its own metabolism c) Inhibits its own metabolism d) Has few side effects 15. trimethadione 18. valproate.V diazepam b) I. agranulocytosis and systemic lupus: a) Trimethadione b) Carbamazepine c) Valproic acid d) Acetazolamide 12.

should be avoided in patients with: a) Angle closure glaucoma b) Prostatic hyperplasia c) Paralytic ileus d) All of the above Antimuscarinic drug used in management of Parkinson’s disease include: a) Benztropine b) Selegiline c) Amantadine d) Levodopa 7. despite being helpful in in managing Parkinson’s disease. 4. not in the brain: a) Amantadine b) Benztropine c) Bromocriptine d) Carbidopa 16. Which of the following exerts its main effects in the gut. Neurological presentations of Parkinsonism except: a) Rigidity b) Hyperkinesias c) Tremors d) Postural disturbances 8. Anti-Parkinson Drug that probably acts by direct dopamine receptor stimulation: a) Benztropine b) Selegiline c) Bromocriptine d) Amantadine 11.PARKINSONISM 1. . In lower doses. Which of following is the main action of carbidopa: a) Blocks Ach release in the CNS b) Increases permeability of the blood brain barrier to levodopa c) Inhibits metabolic conversion of levodopa to dopamine outside the CNS d) Blocks dopamine receptors 5. 9. 2. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting matebolic inactivation of endogenous dopamine: a) Trihexyphenidyl b) Chloropromazine c) Selegiline d) Bromocriptine 17. Parkinsonism can be induced by all the following except: a) Reserpine b) Haloperidol c) Bromocryptine d) Chloropromazine 20. 3. Selective inhibitor of mono amine oxidase type B is: a) Carbidopa b) Bromociptine c) Selegiline d) Benzatropine 14. Bromocriptine side effect: a) Mental changes b) Postural hypotension c) Dyskinesia d) All of the above 12. 6. Carbidopa reduces: a) The time of onset of L-Dopa therapeutic effects b) The severity of L-Dopa associated dyskinesia c) Dopa decarboxylase activity in CNS d) The L-Dopa dose necessary to achieve therapeutic effect Drugs which increase release of dopamine & inhibits its uptake: a) Pilocarpine b) Physostigmine c) Amantadine d) All of the above Neurotransmitter system that may be involved in Parkinson’s diseases: a) Dopaminergic b) Cholinergic c) Both d) Neither Drug induced Parkinsonism due to depletion of dopamine stores a) Selegiline b) Tolcapone c) Resepine d) Bromocriptine Acetylcholine-blocking agents. A drug that stimulates D2 receptors is: a) Bromocriptine b) Chloropromazine c) Haloperidol d) Selegiline 18. this agent can be used to treat hyperprolactinemia: a) Amantadine b) Bromocriptine c) Selegiline d) Phenothiazines Factors that argue against initial use of benztropine in a patient with mild Parkinson’s disease: a) Old age b) Prostatic hypertrophy c) Narrow angle glaucoma d) All of the above The following are pharmacological characteristics of L-Dopa except: a) Absorbed from intestine by passive transport b) It is a prodrug c) Best results obtained after 3-4 years d) By central DOPA decarboxylase it give dopamine 13. Which of the following drugs inhibits COMT and so can increase central effects of levodopa: a) Selegiline b) Tacrine c) Entacapone d) Trihexyphenidyl 19. Benztropine is a: a) Dopamine agonist b) Antimuscarinic c) Dopamine antagonist d) Parasympathomimetic 15. 10.

BRONCHIAL ASTHMA 1.s flow/ volume curve was shortened d) Metoprolol increased airway obstruction. Major action of Cromolyn: a) Block calcium channels in lymphatics b) Block of mediators release from mast cells c) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi d) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals 12. but symptoms of asthma improved c) The expiratory component of the patient. worsening the 4. In order to suppress the arrhythmias. One of the followings drugs is suitable for general anaesthesia: a) Thipentone Na b) Halothane c) Ether d) Morphine patient’s asthma. An asthmatic patient suffering from acute appendicitis. Suggest a likely consequence: a) The cardioselective beta-blocker. used orally and by inhalation is likely to be: a) Theophyline b) Salbutamol c) Bethamethazone d) Ipratropium Theophylline is a competitive antagonist at which receptors: a) Adrenosine receptors b) Muscarinic receptors c) Beta2 receptor d) H1 receptor All of the following drugs are contraindicated in asthmatic hypertensive patient except: a) Propranolol b) Captopril c) Verapamil d) All of the above 9. high dose metoprolol therapy was started. Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells: a) Beclomethasone b) Albuterol c) Cromolyn d) Metaproterenol 20. Which of the following is a nauseant expectorant? a) Tincture ipecacuanhua b) Acetyl cycteine c) Bromhexine d) Benzonatat 15. After administration. May precipitate acute asthma: a) Exercise b) Aspirin c) Respiratory infection d) All of the above 13. A 10 years old child has severe asthma and was hospitalized 5 times between the age of 7 and 9. metoprolol alleviated the arrthymia and did not affect the patients asthma symptoms b) Since metoprolol is a beta agonist. premature atrial contraction. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in asthma therapy: a) Ipratropium bromide b) Aminophylline c) Propranolol d) Cyclosporine 19. Central antitussives include all of the following except: a) Bromihexine b) Diphenoxylate c) Codeine d) Dextromethorphan 17. 10. Corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma used in: a) Acute asthma b) Chronic asthma c) Status asthmaticus d) All of the above 18. 5. the drug makes the patient tacgycardiac and nervous. The following drugs can be given by inhalation in treatment of bronchial asthma except: a) Adrenaline b) Glucocorticoids c) Theophylline d) Ipratropium The following drugs can be used for long term prophylaxis against asthmatic attacks except: a) Adrenaline b) Salbutamol c) Ketotifen d) Theophylline The following drugs may be effective in relieve ofacute attacks of bronchial asthma except: a) Adrenaline b) Bethamethazone c) Theophylline d) Disodium cromoglycate The following are expected side effects of adrenaline except: a) Palpitation b) Tremors c) Hypertension d) Hypoglycaemia Bronchodilator that increases heart rate but decreases blood pressure when applied by rapid IV or in large dose is: a) Adrenaline b) Salbutamol c) Theophylline d) Ipratropium A bronchodilator used in acute attacks and prophylaxis. An asthmatic is prescribed an adrenergic agent. 7. 3. the most likely to cause adverse effects when used over long periods for severe asthma is: a) Daily administration of albuterol by aerosol b) Daily administration of beclomethasone by aerosol c) Daily administration of Cromolyn by inhaler d) Daily administration of prednisolone by mouth 11. the patient’s arrthymias worsened. Drugs that can dilate bronchi during an acute attack include all of the following except: a) Epinephrine b) Terbutaline c) Theophylline d) Ipratropium 2. This drug was probably a) Salmeterol b) Isoproterenol c) Terbutaline d) A & c 16. . A 38 years old asthmatic that has been using beta adrenergic agonists for several years began to experience arrhythmias. but improved the cardiac rhythm disorders 14. 8. He is now receiving outpatient medications that have greatly reduced the frequencies of severe attacks. Of the following. 6.

Nabilone is antiemetic that block: a) D2 receptors b) 5HT receptors c) Opiates receptors d) Muscarinic receptors 18.ACID PEPTIC DISEASES 9. 1. Which drug accumulates in the gastric parietal cells canaliculi and + + irreversibly inhibits H /K ATPase? a) Cimetidine b) Omeprazole c) Metoclopramide d) Famotidine A drug acting as H2 receptor blocker and has endocrinal and enzymatic side effects: a) Misoprostol b) Cimetidine c) Lansoprazole d) Ranithidine A drug inhibiting CAMP dependent HCL secretion: a) Aluminium hydroxide b) Sucralfate c) Misoprostol d) Aluminium oxide Gastric carcinoids tumor in rats caused by: a) Pirenzepine b) Calcium c) Omeprezole d) Atropine Agranulocytosis and mental confusion of elderly are common side effects of: a) Ranithidine b) Cimetidine c) Famotidine d) Pirenzipine All of the following about sucralfate is true except: a) Is effective in healing of gastric ulcer b) Associated with constipation c) Required systemic absorption for antiulcer activity d) It is a mucosal protective drug Cimetidine: a) Is a prodrug b) Is an analogue of PGE1 c) Is H2 receptor antagonist drug d) Is an antimuscarinic drug As regard H2 receptor blockers ranithidine is preferable over: a) Cimetidine b) Omeprazole c) Pirenzipine d) Odansetron One of following about misoprostol is false: a) It is a synthetic analogue of PGE b) It inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme c) It improves blood supply to the mucosa d) It is a mucosal protective agent 16. Melanosis coli occur with: a) Bran b) Liquid c) Senna (Anthraquinone) d) Lactulose 4. 5. . The absorbable antacid is: a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Ca carbonate c) Mg-hydroxide d) Al-hydroxide 2. 8. Pirenzepine block the following receptor: a) H2 receptor b) a receptors c) B1 receptors d) M1 receptors 15. Pirenzepine produces all of the following except: a) Selective M1 receptor antagonist b) Increase in gastric motility c) Decrease in gastric acid secretion d) Is contraindicated in narrow angla glaucoma 11. One of the following about prostaglandins E2 is false: a) Is the principle prostaglandins synthesized in stomach b) Stimulate gastric acid secretion c) Its synthesis is inhibited by aspirin d) Its synthesis is inhibited by rectal indomethacin 12. 6. Milk alkali syndrome is a common side effect with: a) Magnesium hydroxide b) Sodium bicarbonate c) Sucralfate d) Misoprostol 20. 10. A drug with antacid and laxatives properties: a) Aluminium hydroxide b) Magnesium hydroxide c) Sucralfate d) Omeprazole 13. Antiemetic drugs include all of the following except: a) Metoclopromide b) Neostigmine c) Phenothiazines d) Hyoscine 19. Ranithidine has the following properties except: a) Not pass BBB b) Not inhibit hepatis microsomal enzyme c) Not increase the prolactin d) Produce a powerful antiandrogenic action 14. 3. 7. Agents that protect thet upper GIT from ulcer formation include all of the following except: a) Antacid b) Cimetidine c) Ibuprofen d) Sucralfate 17.