GENERAL & ORAL PATHOLOGY, MICROSCOPIC ANA. & MICRO 1.

Factors that influence bone growth in the jaws are ___________ A. all of these B. growth of the oral tissues C. chewing and swallowing D. genetic pattern of patient E. tooth buds developing in the jaw 2. There are two methods of histologic preparation to study both the calcified and soft tissued of the teeth and periodontium. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. In ground technique the pulp disappears including dentin and cementum B. Decalcified section deals with removal of calcified portion of the specimen by immersing it in acid. C. In decalcified histologic technique, the enamel almost disappears but the pulp is preserved including the cementum, dentin and supporting structures. D. Ground section deals with the grinding of the specimen until thin. 3. Endospores are characteristic of the genera___________ A. streptococcus and Escherichia B. clostridium and bacillus C. clostridium and mycobacterium D. chlamydia and bacillus 4. Interstitial pneumonia is typically characteristic of ____________ infections. A. none of the above C. helminthic and bacterial B. mycotic and helminthic D. ricketssial and viral 5. For the immediate treatment of poisoning _____________ is administered. A. Antitoxin C. Toxoid B. none of these D. Formalin 6. Which of the following features the function of the pancreas? A. Cell reproduced gastrin which stimulates flow of gastric juices B. all of these C. A cells produce glucagon that raises blood sugar level D. B cells elaborate the hormone insulin 7. Hemopoesis is the process of producing blood cells. In adults this process takes place where? A. Yolk sac C. all of these

B. Bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

D. Liver

8. In gram staining what is the primary staining used? A. eosin C. saffranin B. hematoxylin D. crystal violet 9. Pernicious anemia is best treated with what vitamin? A. pyridoxine C. Folic Acid B. Vit. B12 D. Iron 10. Which of the following is NOT the principal function of the periodontal ligaments? A. Nutritive C. Sensory B. Formative D. Homeostasis 11. A nerve is a collection of nerve fibers bound together by which of the following? A. Fat Tissue C. Muscle Tissue B. Fibrous Connective Tissue D. Cartilage Tissue 12. The ffg. are fungal diseases EXCEPT: A. Pneomocytosis C. Blastomycosis B. Histoplamosis D. Dermatomycosis 13. Organisms that cause gas gangrene have a metabolism predominantly____________. A. thermophilic C. proteolytic B. none of these D. lypolytic 14. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is formed by which of the following embryonic structures? A. Tuberculum Impar B. Lateral lingual swellings C. None of the above. D. Copula 15. Which of the following process predominate in a chronic granulomatous inflammation? A. Proliferation C. Exudation B. Congestion D. Transudation 16. What is the syndrome associated with multiple OKCs? A. albrights C. Basal Cell nevus bifid rib B. Plummer-Vinson D. Melkersson-Rosenthal

17. The atrioventricular bundle or bundle of His, consists of purkinje fibers. The cells have which of the following characterization? A. fibrous tissues B. they contain glycogen that displaces the myofibrils to the periphery C. none of these D. they have many T-tubules 18. Most important disease producing spore forming bacteria are the following EXCEPT: A. clotridium tetani C. bacillus anthracis B. streptococcus viridans D. clostridium perfringens 19. The healing mechanism after tooth extraction is basically described as____________ A. organization C. Induration B. resolution D. calcification 20. Negri bodies, Guarnieri bodies and molluscum bodies are examples of ________ bodies. A. asteroid C. inclusion B. psammonia D. verocay 21. Large cytoplasmic aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum that stain intensely with basic dyes are the ___________. A. none of these D. neurons B. dendrites E. glial cells C. Nissl substance 22. Which of the following substances is not produced by streptococci? A. hemolysin C. coagulase B. capsule D. hyaluronidase 23. What is the pathognomonic symptom of acute apical periodontitis? A. extraoral swelling B. hypertensive to heat C. Intermediate and throbbing pain D. Tenderness to percussion 24. Leading cause of death from cancer in females is cancer of the ___________. A. breast C. eruption cyst B. stomach D. keratocyst 25. ____________ is the oral cyst that is expected to have the highest rate of recurrence.

A. nasolabial B. none of these C. radicular

D. eruption cyst E. keratocyst

26. Whooping cough is characterized as follows EXCEPT___________. A. disease principally of children and infants B. prolonged paroxysm of coughing C. incubation period of about 4 weeks D. is caused by the organism Bortadella pertussis 27. Papilloma is all of the following, EXCEPT____________. A. treated by simple excision B. rough white pedunculated lesion C. true epithelial neoplasm D. high malignant potential 28. The site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacterial cell is the ___________. A. ribosome C. cytoplasm B. nucleus D. cell membrane surface 29. Squamous cell carcinoma is _____________ A. malignant C. benign B. none of these D. cystic 30. The secondary cuticle is keratinized epithelial layer developed from the reduced enamel epithelium. What purpose does it serve? A. It serves as a connective tissue barrier in the gingival sulcus. B. It becomes the crevicular epithelium in a fully developed tooth. C. After tooth eruption it remains as the dental sac. D. It serves as an attachment of the gingiva to the teeth, as the junctional epithelium 31. The number of goblet cells in the intestinal tract varies by __________. A. increasing to the maximum in the villus part of the intestinal tract. B. decreasing as the need decreases toward the anal outlet C. decreasing to the minimum in the lower colon D. increasing toward the anal outlet 32. One of the body/defense reactions to infection is phagocytosis. Which of these blood cells engage in preventing infection. A. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes

B. Erythrocytes

D. Plasma cells

33. Which of the following does NOT fall under the histological manifestation of a malignant tumor? A. pleomorphism of cells B. non-encapsulated C. hyperchromatic cells D. consists of poorly differentiated anaphylactic cells 34. Shock may be caused by the following EXCEPT: A. myocardial infarction C. none of these B. massive diarrhea D. spinal cord injury 35. Anti-fungal antibiotic of choice against candida albicans is_____________. A. cortisoid C. nystatin B. trosyd D. none of these 36. Of the following cysts which is the most potentially aggressive and destructive? A. periapical C. Dentigerous B. globulomaxillary D. Incisive canal 37. _____________ is an important natural defense of the body against viral infection. A. rest C. DNA and RNA B. Antibiotics D. Interferon 38. Which of the following complications may arise in an infant delivered by a mother with sexually transmitted disease? A. perforated palate C. opthalmia neonatorum B. toxemia D. hutchinsons incisor 39. Regeneration as a mechanism of healing occurs only in those instances in which the necrotic cells are capable of proliferation or reproduction. A tissue NOT capable of regeneration is: A. cardiac muscle C. connective tissue B. bone D. surface epithelium 40. A patient presents unilateral swelling of the left face, which on palpation extends to the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue. Lymphnodes are palpable, radiograph shows a multilocular cyst extending to the midpoint of the ramus. What is your most likely diagnosis? A. pindborg tumor C. osteosarcoma B. fibro-odontoma D. ameloblastoma

41. Centrilobular emphysema is far more common than the panlobular type and initially affects which portion of the lungs? A. Preterminal bronchioles C. Respiratory bronchioles B. Main stem bronchi D. Alveolar ducts

42. Of the mycoplasmal infections in man, primarily pathogenic is____________. A. m. hominis C. m. orale B. m. pneumonia D. m. salivarium 43. If the bacteria circulating in the blood stream settles in the area of inflammation in the pulp of lowered resistance, and producing pulpitis, abscess or necrosis, what is the resulting condition known? A. Metaplasia C. Anachoresis B. Hyperemia D. Aerodontalgia 44. Mosquito-borne transmission is the method of spread of___________. A. histoplasmosis D. all of these B. poliomyelitis E. typhus C. dengue fever 45. Perivascular accumulation mononuclear inflammatory cells is characteristic finding of_____. A. rabies, syphilis, scarlet fever B. staphylococcal pneumonia and rabies C. rabies, scarlet fever D. rabies, typhus, syphilis 46. which of the following locations does desquamation of the papillae occur in benign migratory glossitis? A. circumvallate C. Fungiform portion B. filiform portion D. Dorsum of the tongue 47. mycobacterium tuberculosis is a _________ organism. A. spirilus C. virus B. bacillus D. coccus 48. Of the following vapors and gases which is the most effective antibacterial agent? A. ozone C. ethylene oxide B. formaldehyde D. propylene

49. The staphylococci which cause osteomyelitis may be introduced into the bone by means of the following except: A. maybe spread from a suppurative infection of adjacent tissue B. maybe transported from distant sites of infection to the bone C. through the stomach D. through an open wound 50. The microorganism most suspect in caries formation is____________. A. Streptococcus mutans C. Lactobacillus B. Shigella D. Stretococcus viridans 51. Sucrose is composed of ____________. A. dextrans C. levans B. glucans D. none of these 52. Unilateral cleft lip results from failure to merge of the _______________. A. medial and lateral nasal elaborations B. intermaxillary segment and lateral nasal elevation C. maxillary process and the medial nasal elevation D. two medial nasal elevations 53. What is the mass of infected granulation tissue at the periapical area as a response to mild irritation? A. Granuloma B. Chronic inflammation C. Infected granulation tissue D. Granulomatous tissue 54. Necrosis of cardiac muscle following coronary artery thrombosis is known as _______ necrosis. A. fibrinoid C. coagulation B. liquefactive D. gangrenous 55. Obligate anaerobic bacteria __________. A. required oxygen for growth B. contain catalase C. are killed in the presence of oxygen D. none of these

56. The cell surface antigen detected by monoclonal antibodies and known as CDS is a number for: A. monocytes and granulocytes B. NK cells C. B cells D. T cells 57. One sided association among microorganisms where the products of one maybe beneficial to another is known as: A. synergism C. syntrophism B. symbiosis D. hometrophism 58. The bone of the mandible is ___________. A. formed by intramembranous ossification B. formed by the endochondral ossification of meckels cartilage C. a retained cartilage within the mandibular canal D. all of these 59. Dens in dente is EXCEPT: A. Into the dental papilla B. caused by invagination of the enamel organ C. occurs in developing tooth D. resulting in deep enamel lined pit E. occurs mostly in buccal surface of maxillary lateral incisor 60. Taste buds are found in the____________. A. circumvallate papillae and adjacent trench wall B. circumvallate lingual papillae C. fungiform lingual papillae D. filiform lingual papillae 61. What can result if there is an excess intake of fluoride? A. Atrophy B. Dysfunction of odontoblast C. Degeneration of odontoblast D. Defect in enamel calcification 62. Incubation period of a disease is defined as an interval of time between the entrance of the causative organism into the body and the time of which of the following? A. death of the person

B. development of antibodies against the causative agent C. destruction of the tissue at the point of entrance D. appearance of the symptoms of the disease 63. Ingested flourides helps prevent caries formation by way of____________. A. inhibition of microorganisms B. lowering of plaque pH C. reduction of acid solubility of enamel D. prevention of carbohydrate degradation 64. In which of the following is elastic cartilage found? A. embryonic skeleton B. articular surfaces of the bone C. epiglottis D. nose 65. The most important contributing factor/s to caries information is/are ____________. A. microorganisms C. plaque B. all of these D. sucrose 66. Which of the following genera of fungus diseases is NOT readily transmitted from human to human? A. tricophyton C. microsporum B. epidermophyton D. histoplasma 67. When does spore formation in pulmonary tuberculosis begin? A. after stationary phase of growth cycle B. when conditions are no longer suitable for vegetative growth C. before stationary phase of growth D. after the logarithmic phase of growth cycle 68. One of the structures below is the common site of basal cell carcinoma: A. lowerlip C. oral mucosa B. gingiva D. tongue 69. Histology squamous cell carcinoma features the following, EXCEPT ____________. A. invading nests and sheets of epithelial cells B. abnormal mitoses C. with hyperchromatic nuclei D. non-keratenous pearls

70. Crescent formation is characteristic of which one of the following glomerular disease? A. membranous glomerulonephritris B. focal and segmental glomerulonephritris C. rapidly progressive glomerulonephritris D. minimal change disease 71. The rigid cell wall of gram positive bacteria is chemically characterized as ____________. A. mucopeptide D. murcin B. peptidoglycan E. all of these C. glycopeptide 72. What is the most definitive characteristic of malignancy? A. abnormal mitosis C. metastasis B. pleomorphism D. lack of differentiation 73. Microorganisms like borrelia vincenti and fusiform bacilli are the causative agents of which of the following? A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis B. hyperplastic gingivitis C. pregnancy gingivitis D. localized periodontitis 74. The maturation phase of calcification of the enamel matric takes place beginning at the ____________. A. medially than distally toward crown of the tooth B. occlusal tip of the crown and moving epically towardly the neck of the tooth C. labially, medially, distally and lingually D. neck of the tooth toward the occlusal tip of crown 75. Constant features of a typical blood vessel include A. all of these C. tunica adventitia B. tunica intima D. tunica media 76. Carcinoma refers to benign epithelial tumor; while neurofibromas are independent tumors of skin and oral mucosa A. the first statement is false the the second statement is true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true and the second statement is false D. both statements are true

77. What gram-positive microaerophilic filamentous microorganism causes an infectious disease characterized by a hard board-like swelling draining fistula? A. candidiasis C. small pox B. impetigo D. actinomycosis 78.The dental follicle has an important role in the formation of _________________. A. bone of alveolar socket B. all of these C. cementum over root of tooth D. fibrous periodontal ligament 79. Most bacterial capsule are made of___________. A. lipids C. lipoproteins B. polysaccharides D. lipopolysaccharides 80. One of the manifestations of leukemia includes: A. dental caries B. tonsillitis C. blue line along margins of gums D. gingival hyperplasia 81. Masticatory mucosa is most often covered with____________. A. nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium B. keratinized simple stratified squamous epithelium C. parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium D. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium 82. Shedding of deciduous teeth is an intermittent process. The permanent teeth move upward and the pressure is applied on the roots of the temporary teeth. What is this process that takes place? A. Osteoclastic activity C. Cementoclastic increase B. Pathologic resorption D. Physiologic resroption 83. Calcification of the enamel matrix takes place in two phases, one which is the first place when only ________ percent of calcification is accomplished. A. 30 C. 75 B. 50 D. 25 84. which of the following microbes is likely to be cause of osteomyelitis? A. streptococcus C. gonococcus

B. staphylococcus

D. enterococcus

85. Unlimited spread of exudate through tissues in acute inflammation is characteristic of_____. A. cellulitis C. abscess B. leukopenia D.leukocytosis 86. Nervous system components include_________. A. glial cells B. CNS including brain and spinal cord C. all of these D. PNS which include nerves and ganglia throughout peripheral portions of body E. neuron cells which are the systems basic cellular elements 87. What is the most probable factor in the cause of profuse bleeding following tooth extraction as a familial history? A. Factor XIII C. Factor XII B. Factor VIII D. Factor X 88. Enamel matrix laid down by ameloblasts finally becomes ___________. A. none of these C. 80% inorganic matter B. primary collagen D. 96% inorganic matter 89. Cardinal signs of inflammation include the following except: A. swelling D. Pain B. redness E. heat C. suppuration 90. Spotaneous unilateral facial paralysis with dropping of the corner of the mouth inability to close the eyelid strongly suggests________ A. Bells Palsy C. Tic doloreux B. Steven Johnsons Syndrome D. Trigeminal neuralgia 91. Of the following mechanisms which is responsible for eruptive tooth movement? A. Nutrition C. Bone growth B. Ligament traction D. Root elongation 92. The following are cutaneous viral diseases EXCEPT: A. measles C. Herpes zoster B. actinomycosis D. small pox

93. Sickle cell anemia would be evident predominantly in the ____________ A. tongue as a burning sensation B. buccal mucosa as petechial hemorrhages C. medullary bone of jaws as large marrow spaces D. gingival tissues as hyperplasia 94. Which of the following are in essence heart failure cells? A. desquamated epithelial cells B. only macrophages C. endothelial cells D. macrophages containing hemosiderin 95. the central nervous system includes the brian and spinal cord. It contains nerurons and glial cells. The human CNS contains more than___________. A. 1 billion neurons and 1 billion glial cells B. 10 million neurons and 1 million glial cells C. 5 billion neurons and 40 billion glial cells D. 10 billion neurons and 50 billion glial cells 96. The articular capsule consists of dense, fibrous outer layer, and an inner synovial layer that is made up of loose connective tissue and the synovial membrane. The synovial fluid is made up of plasma and other substances produced by the cells of the synovial membrane. Which of the following is your answer? A. both statements are correct B. the first statement is correct; the second is incorrect. C. both statements are incorrect D. the first statements is incorrect, the second is correct. 97. Submerging dental instruments for 15 minutes in cold disinfections solution is not acceptable as a sterilizing method because this interval cold disinfectants: A. are not effective on gram positive organisms B. have a limited antimicrobial spectrum C. are not effective on viruses D. dont kill gram negative organisms 98. Endocrine glands are structures that secrete hormones to promote body metabolism. Which of the following glands do not belong to the group? A. Thymus C. Pituitary B. Lymph glands D. Thyroid

99. Kopliks spots on the buccal mucosa are pathognomonic of what infection? A. rubella C. rubeola B. roseola D. varicella 100. What is the muscularis externa of the esophagus made up? A. both smooth and skeletal muscle in the middle third B. smooth muscle throughout C. both smooth and skeletal in the lower third D. skeletal muscle throughout