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Chemistry 1. Among 1) KO2 only 2) 3) 4) BaO2 only 2. Which of the following are homologues.

1) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3CH2NHCH3 2) unpaired electron is present in :

3)

4) CH3COOH and CH3COOCH3 3. In a hydrogen atom, in transition of electron a photon of energy 2.55 eV is emitted, then the change in wavelength of the electron is 1) 3.32 2) 6.64 3) 9.97 4) None of these 4. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing bond length ? 1) P O > Cl O > S O 2) P O > S O > Cl O 3) S O > Cl O > P O 4) Cl O > S O > P O 5. I effect is shown by 1)

2)

3)

4)

6. S for freezing of 5 g of H2O(l) (Enthalpy of fusion is 80 cal/g) at 0C and 1 atm is 1) 6.12 J/K

2) 0.244 J/K 3) 1.465 J/K 4) 6.12 J/K 7. The golden yellow colour associated with NaCl to Bunsen flame can be explained on the basis of 1) low ionisation potential of sodium 2) emission spectrum 3) photosensitivity of sodium 4) sublimation of metallic sodium of yellow vapours 8.

Incorrect statement about this compound is: 1) It shows geometrical isomerism 2) It posses centre of symmetry 3) It posses plane of symmetry 4) It shows optical isomerism 9. Given: 4NH3(g) 2N2(g) + 6H2(g) ; rH = + 184 kJ/mol The standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia gas is 1) 46 2) 92 3) 46 4) none of these 10. The correct order of acidic strength of oxy-acids of chlorine is 1) HCIO < HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO4 2) HCIO4 < HCIO3 < HCIO2 < HCIO 3) HCIO > HCIO4 > HCIO3 > HCIO2 4) HCIO4 < HCIO2 > HCIO3 > HCIO 11.

The structure of Q is 1)

2)

3)

4)

12. Consider the following reactions: + 6H+ + 6e I + 3H2O + 3H2O + 6e I + 6OH Predict where does 1) In acidic medium 2) In basic medium 3) In pure water 4) Equally effective in both acidic and basic mediums 13. ; ; E = +0.907 V E = +0.260 V

acts as a better oxidant?

Compound (X) is 1) malonic acid 2) carbon suboxide 3) tartaric acid 4) acetic acid 14. The number of moles of grignard reagent consumed per mole of the compound

is : 1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 1 15. For a hypothetical reaction, A + 3B P & M 2Q + R H = 2x kJ/mole of A H = +x kJ/mole of M

If these reactions are carried simultaneously in a reactor such that temperature is not changing. If rate of disappearance of B is y M sec1 then rate of formation (in M sec1) of Q is : 1)

2)

3)

4)

16. Which ion has tetrahedral geometry : 1) [Fe(CO)5] 2) [Co(NH3)6]2+ 3) [NiCl4]2 4) [Ni(CN)4]2

17.

Final product is/are 1)

2)

3)

4) CH3CHO + HCHO 18. Equal weight of N2 and O2 are put in a flask at 27C. Calculate the partial pressure of N2 if partial pressure of O2 = 0.44 atm. 1) 0.44 atm 2) 0.50 atm 3) 0.94 atm 4) 0.38 atm 19. Choose the correct order of the acidity. 1) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Al(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Mn(H2O)6]2+ < [Al(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 3) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Al(H2O)6]3+ 4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Mn(H2O)6]2+ < [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Al(H2O)6]3+ 20 The product of the reaction: .

X will be ? 1) C6H5CH = CHCOOH 2)

3) C6H5CH = CCOOH

4)

21. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3 is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1 atm is ( 1) 274.76 K 2) 377 K 3) 376.4 K 4) 374.76 K 22. When NH4OH is added in Hg2(NO3)2 solution, the ppt formed is 1) Hg2O 2) Hg + HgO 3) 2Hg + HgOHg(NH2)NO3 4) HgOHg(NH2)NO3 2 3. 1) = 0.52 K kg mol1)

2)

3)

4) 24. Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atom that can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it. 1) 53 pm 2) 45 pm 3) 93 pm 4) 60 pm 25. Which of the following is correct order of EA. 1) N < C < O < F 2) F > Cl > Br > I 3) F > Cl > Br > I 4) C < N < O < F 2 Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the following compounds: 6.

1) I > II > III > IV 2) IV > III > II > I 3) II > I > III > IV 4) II > III > I > IV 27. From the following equation CaC2 + H2O CaO + C2H2 ; . The mass of polyethylene which can be produced by 20 kg of CaC2 (in kg) 1) 6.75 2) 7.75 3) 8.75 4) 9.75 28. A0/2 atoms of X(g) are converted into X+(g) by energy E1. A0/2 atoms of X(g) are converted into X(g) by energy E2. Hence ionisation potential and electron affinity of X(g) are : 1)

2)

3)

4) None 29. Which of the following is a disaccharide 1) Lactose 2) Starch 3) Cellulose 4) Glucose 30. If you have a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4, then: 1)

2) 3) 4)

31. Which of the following term is not related to Al-Extraction. 1) Serpek's process 2) Hall-Heroult process 3) Thermite process 4) Hoop's process 32. A mixture of 1) Simple distillation 2) Fractional distillation 3) Vacuum distillation 4) Steam distillation an be separated by

33. An electron having velocity 2 106 m/s has uncertainity in kinetic energy is then calculate the uncertainity in position (in Angstrom, ) of the electron. [Given : h = 6.62 1034 J-sec] 1) 50 2) 500 3) 5000 4) None of these 34. Consider two reactions I. Zn + conc. HNO3 (hot) Zn(NO3)2 + X + H2O II. Zn + dil. HNO3 (cold) Zn(NO3)2 + Y + H2O Compounds X and Y are respectively 1) N2O, NO 2) NO2, N2O 3) N2, N2O 4) NO2, NO 35. ,

1)

2)

3)

4)

36. A student found that 310 kJ of energy was released on burning 10 g of propan-1-ol, CH3CH2CH2OH. From this experiment, what is the enthalpy of combustion, in kJmol 1, of propan1-ol? 1) 310 2) 1296 3) 1860 4) 3100

37. When KMnO4 solution is added to hot oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time. This is because 1) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst 2) CO2 is formed 3) Reaction is exothermic 4) MnO4 catalyses the reaction 38. Which of the following resonating structure is most stable? 1) 2) 3)

4)

39. If Hvaporisation of (C2H5)2O (l) is 350 J/g at it's boiling point 308 K, then molar entropy change for condensation process is 1) 84.09 J/mol.K 2) 84.09 J/mol.K 3) 1.136 J/mol.K 4) None of these 40. In which of following reaction CO2 gas will be evolved. 1)

2)

3)

4) All English and Logical Directions for question 41 to 42: Pick out the antonym of the words given below : 41. IMPLICATE 1) appease 2) exonerate 3) adore 4) advocate 42. ABANDON 1) Roost 2) Forfeit 3) Quit 4) Forsake

: In the following questions, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. 43. Choose the correctly spelt word. 44. Choose the word which is different from the rest. 1) Chicken 2) Snake 3) Swan 4) Crocodile 45. Choose the word which is different from the rest. 1) Cap 2) Turban 3) Helmet 4) Veil Directions for question 46 to 48: Choose the correct meanings of phrases/idioms out of the four response given under each. 46. Bed of roses 1) Very soft bed 2) Dull life 3) Belong to 4) Full of joys 48. Smell a rat 1) To act unfairly 2) To talk boastfully 3) To have reason to suspect 4) To discourange Directions for question 49 to 50: In each of the following questions you are given one or more blanks. Each question is followed by four choices, only one of which fits the blank(s) appropriately. That correct choice is your answer. In case there is more than one blank, each answer choice has more than one filler which should fit the blanks in their respective order. 49. Among the factors _______ to the low productivity in agriculture, the first place is occupied by irregular water supply. 1) producing 2) showing 3) resulting 4) contributing 50. Women should be paid the same as men-when they do the same job, for surely, what is sauce for the ____ is sauce for the _____. 1) goose, gander 2) cock, hen 3) fox, vixen 4) buck, doe Directions for question 51 to 52: Complete the sentence with appropriate option.

51. He gave me an additional ......... of Rs. 100 month by ......... of the commissioner. 1) allowance ; permission 2) pay ; allowance 3) payment ; agreement 4) salary ; admittance 52. The director has ......... me to ......... a speech for him. 1) notified ; do 2) demanded ; prepare 3) entrusted ; write 4) commissioned ; draft Directions for question 53 to 55: Education is for life, not merely for a livelihood. So long as we are unmindful of this truth, the quality of our educational curriculum as well as that of our teacher and students is likely to remain inadequate. It is not enough for a society to have experts. It needs human beings who can think, feel and act generously, the kind of people who cannot be replaced by computers and robots. The great fault of our present age is its emphasis on efficiency at the cost of humanity. 53. When the author says that education is for life rather than for a livelihood, he means to say that 1) education is a generally useful thing in life 2) the primary purpose of education is to train people to be proper human beings 3) education is useful for earning a living 4) education can enable enough for a society 54. The author says that is not enough for a society to have experts because 1) experts are egocentric 2) experts do not have an overall view of things because of their being highly specialized 3) along with efficiency, educated people need to be sympathetic and sensitive to the needs of society 4) experts are highly eccentric people 55. Proper human beings cannot be replaced by computer and robotes because 1) computer and robots are non-human 2) computer and robots react mechanically 3) only human beings can have specialized knowledge 4) only proper human beings can think creatively and act generously 56. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime 4. Judge 5. Judgement 1) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 2) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 3) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 4) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 57. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country 1) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

2) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 3) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 4) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 58. 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 12, 14, 20, ?, ? 1) 26, 32 2) 24, 28 3) 30, 32 4) 22, 24 59. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Factory, Product and Machinery ? 1)

2)

3)

4)

60. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Author, Lawyer and Singer ? 1)

2)

3)

4)

Directions for question 61 to 62: The numbers in each row or column of the square are written according to the same rule. By identifying the rule, find the missing number . 61. 5 11 15 1) 240 2) 250 3) 290 11 4 15 36 125 ?

4) 300 62. 59 13 27 1) 65 2) 75 3) 85 4) 70 : In each of the following questions, choose the set of figures which follows the given rule. 63. Rule :- Closed figures becomes more and more open and open figures more and more closed. 1) 11 21 43 9 37 ?

2)

3)

4)

Directions for question 64 to 65: (a) As the got up, a frightened native told him about the man-eater. (b) When he approached the thick bush, he saw the lion running towards him. (c) Tom was awakened by the feaeful screams of the villagers. (d) In a stage of fright, a shot was fired accidentally by Tom, nut it hit the lion. (e) Tom decided to chase the lion and took out his gun. 64. Which of the following should be the second sentence? 1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d 65. Which of the following should be the last sentence? 1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d Mathematics 66. The greatest value of du on the interval [1, 1] is

1)

2)

3)

4) ln 2 67. The largest possible range of values of 'a' for which the function f(x) = x2 + ax + 1 is strictly increasing on [0, 2) is 1) [ 2, ] 2) [ 4, ] 3) [0, ) 4) (1, ) 68. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, ......... 200 and another population B has 100 observations 151, 152, .........., 250. If VA and VB represent the variance of the two populations, respectively, then VA/VB is 1) 1 2) 9/4 3) 4/9 4) 2/3 69. Shaded region is represented by

1) 2x + 5y 80, x + y 20, x 0, y 0 2) 2x + 5y 80, x + y 20, x 0, y 0 3) 2x + 5y 80, x + y 20, x 0, y 0 4) 2x + 5y 80, x + y 20, x 0, y 0 70. If a1 = 1, a2 = 5 and an + 2 = 5 an + 1 6 an, n 1. Then 1) 3n 2n 2) 2n + (1)n 3) 3n + 1 2n + 1 4) 5n 4n 71. The angle of elevation of the tower observed from each of the three point A, B, C, on the ground, forming a triangle is the same angle . If R is the circum-radius of the triangle ABC, then the height of the tower is 1) R sin 2) R cos 3) R tan 4) R cot 72. The first three terms of an arithmetic sequence, in order, are 2x + 4, 5x 4 and 3x + 4. The

sum of the first 10 terms of this sequence, is 1) 176 2) 202.4 3) 352 4) 396 73. Let 1) 2) 3) and z = 1 + i, then |w| and amp w respectively are

4)

74. The locus of the complex variable z when Arg the argand plane is : 1) a straight line 2) a circle 3) a parabola 4) a segment of a circle 75. If 1) AP 2) GP 3) HP 4) none 76. Let f(x) = ax + b where a and b are real numbers, f(f(f(1))) = 29 and f(f(f(0))) = 2. Then b equals 1) 2/7 2) 2 3) 3 4) 2/13 77. Number of different matrices which can be made using all the 111 distinct numbers without repetition, is 1) 4 2) (111)! 3) 4(111)! 4) (111) 4! 78. Identify the incorrect statement in respect of two square matrices A and B conformable for sum and product. (Note: tr. (A) denotes the sum of the diagonal elements of matrix A.) 1) tr(A + B) = tr(A) + tr(B) 2) tr(A) = tr(A),
T

(where is a complex number) in

= 0, then p, q, r are in :

3) tr(A ) = tr(A)

4) tr(AB) tr(BA) 79. The minimum value of 1) 0 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4 80. If the quadratic equations, ax2 + 2cx + b = 0 & ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 (b c) have a common root, then a + 4b + 4c is equal to 1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 1 81. Let A and B are two events such that P(A) = 1/2 and P(B) = 1/3. If the probability of atleat one of their occuring is 2/3 then 1) 1/4 2) 1/9 3) 1/6 4) 1/5 82. Let P(A) = 0.7 and P(B) = 0.3. Let Bc denotes the complement of the set B. Then the smallest value of P 1) 0.3 2) 0 3) 0.6 4) 0.4 83. If y = y(x) and it follows the relation 2exy2 + y cos(x2) = 4, then y'(0) is equal to 1) 0 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8 84. is has the value equal to is

If y(x) = 1) ln 2 2) ln 1 3) ln 4 4) ln 3 85.

then y'(1) is equal to

The function f(x) = (sin 2x)tan2 2x is not defined at continuous at 1) 2) , is

. The value of

so that f is

3)

4)

86. If f is a continuous function and 1) 9/2 2) 2/9 3) 0 4) non-existent 87. is equal to

If 1) 2 2) 5/2 3) (5/2) 4) 1/2 88.

at z =1 has the value equal to

If f(x) = ex + 2 e2x + 3 e3x + ...... + , then 1) 1 2) 1/2 3) 1/3 4) ln 2 89.

If equal to 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6 90. If 1) 2) 3) 4)

= 324, then the volume of tetrahedron formed by

is

represents the vectors

respectively, then which one is correct.

91. The circles x2 + y2 + x + y = 0, x2 + y2 + x y = 0 intersect at an angle of : 1) 30 2) 45 3) 60 4) 90 92. The equation of the circle having the lines y2 2y + 4x 2xy = 0 as its normals & passing through the point (2, 1) is : 1) x2 + y2 2x 4y + 3 = 0 2) x2 + y2 2x + 4y 5 = 0

3) x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y 13 = 0 4) none 93. The length of an external common tangent to the two circles x2 + y2 4x 4y + 4 = 0 and x2 + y2 12x 10y + 52 = 0 is : 1) 2) 3) 4) none 94. Radii of the circles S1 : x2 + y2 = 1 S2 : x2 + y2 2x 6y 6 = 0 and S3 : x2 + y2 4x 12y 9 = 0 are in 1) A.P. 2) G.P. 3) H.P. 4) none 95. Let the focal radii of two points P and Q on the parabola y2 = 4x are 8 and 16 respectively. If the tangents and P and Q intersect at T, and S is the focus then l(ST) is equal to 1) 42 2) 8 3) 82 4) 16 96. There are exactly two points on the ellipse whose distance from the centre of

the ellipse are greatest and equal to 1)

. Eccentricity of this ellipse is equal to

2)

3)

4)

97. Minimum value of f(x) = 18 sec2 x 8 sin2 (x) is 1) 8 2) 10 3) 16 4) none 98. The line joining two points A(2, 0); B(3, 1) is rotated about A in the anticlock wise direction through an angle of 15. The equation of the line in the new position is : 1) 2) x 2y 2 = 0 3)

4) none 99. If (a, b) and (c, d) are two points on the line whose equation is y = mx + k, then the distance between (a, b) and (c, d), is 1) 2)

3) 4)

100. The point on the curve 2y = x2 nearest to (4, 1) is 1) (0, 0) 2) (2, 2) 3) (2, 1) 4) (22, 4) 101. An equation of the line normal to the graph of y = x3 + 3x2 + 7x 1 at the point where x = 1 is 1) 4x + y = 10 2) x 4y = 23 3) x + 4y = 25 4) x + 4y = 25 102. Consider the circles S1 : x2 + y2 4x + 6y + 8 = 0 and S2 : x2 + y2 + 4x + 2y = 0 Then they have 1) one external common tangent 2) two transverse common tangents 3) no common tangent 4) only one point in common 103. The position vectors of the 3 angular points A, B, C of a triangle are (3, 2, 3) ; (5, 1, 1) and (1, 2, 1) respectively. If the bisector of the angle A meets the side BC at D then the position vector of the point D are 1)

2)

3)

4) none 104.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 0 105.

1) 2xex2 2) 0 3) 2x.ex2 4) ex2 106.

If 1) 0 2) 3)

dt, then in the interval [0, 2], f(x) attains maxima at

4) 2 107. Which of the following functions are differentiable on the interval (1, 1)

1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III 108. A fair die is thrown twice. Let 3 events A, B and C are defined as A : the first throw is 4 B : the total of two throws is 7 C : the total of two throws is 8. Then 1) A and B are independent 2) A and B are mutually exclusive 3) A and C are independent 4) A and C are mutually exclusive 109. If A is an involutary matrix of order 3 and B is also a non singular square matrix of same order then the matrix (B1AB)2 equals 1) A 2) B 3) unit matrix 4) null matrix 110. Let f(x) = sin (2x + 1) and g(x) = x3 + 3 for all real x. Then the derivative of the composite function f[g(x)] is 1) cos(2x3 + 7) 2) 6 sin(2x3 + 7) 3) 6 cos(2x3 + 7) 4) 6x2cos(2x3 + 7) Physics 111. A uniform electric field points in the positive x direction, as shown below (left). Along the two lines, 1 and 2, a plot of the electric potentials as a function of distance along these lines from initial point i to final point f is best described by which plot below?

1)

2)

3)

4)

112. In a similar experiment to that shown in Figure, an electron is projected horizontally at a speed v into a uniform electric field pointing up. The experiment is repeated twice with the electron projected at the same initial speed v but at angles above and below the horizontal. The path of the electron in each case is shown in the diagram below. The relationship between the final speeds of the electron when it exits the area of the uniform electric field is:

1) vb > v > va

2) va > v > vb 3) vb = va > v 4) vb = v = va 113. Consider the circuit in the figure below and assume that the battery has no internal resistance. Just after the switch is closed, the current in the battery is

1) zero 2) /2R 3) 2/R 4) /R 114. Three objects are brought close to each other, two at a time. When objects A and B are brought together, they repel. When objects B and C are brought together, they also repel. Which of the following are true? 1) Objects A and B possess charges of the opposite sign. 2) Objects A and C possess charges of opposite sign. 3) All three of the objects possess charges of the same sign. 4) One of the objects is neutral. 115. Rank the magnitude of the electric field at points A, B, and C shown in this figure (greatest magnitude first).

1) A, B, C 2) A, C, B 3) B, C, A 4) B, A, C 116. If the moderator were suddenly removed from a nuclear reactor, the most likely consequence would be that the reactor would 1) become supercritical and a runaway reaction would occur, 2) become subcritical and the reaction would die out, or

3) no change would occur in the level of the reactor's operation. 4) none of these 117. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is V. The ratio of debroglie wavelength of electron to the minimum wavelength of X-ray is directly proportional to 1) V 2) V1/2 3)

4) independent of V 118. A comet moves in an elliptical orbit around the Sun. Which point in its orbit represents the highest value of the speed of the comet? 1) perihelion 2) aphelion 3) neither perihelion nor aphelion 4) all points 119. A satellite is relocated from its original orbit around the Earth to an orbit that is 4 times the radius of the original orbit. As a consequence of this move, the new period of the satellite will be

1) 16 times 2) 8 times 3) 4 times 4) 2 times 120. Two particles undergo SHM along parallel lines with the same time period (T) and equal amplitudes. At a particular instant, one particle is at its extreme position while the other is at its mean position. They move in the same direction. They will cross each other after a further time

1) T/8 2) 3T/8 3) T/6 4) 4T/3

121. Two particles are in SHM with same angular frequency and amplitudes A and 2A respectively along same straight line with same mean position. They cross each other at position A/2 distance from mean position in opposite direction. The phase difference between them is : 1)

2)

3)

4)

122. Imagine you have 1 kg each of iron, glass, and water, and that all three samples are at 10C. Rank them from least to greatest amount of energy transferred by heat if each sample increases in temperature by 20C. 1) iron, glass, water 2) glass, iron, water 3) glass, water, iron 4) water, glass, iron 123. Calculate the slopes for the A, C and E portions of the figure below. Rank the slopes from least to greatest?

1) A, C, E 2) A, E, C 3) C, E, A 4) C, A, E 124. The figure shows the graph of P-T diagram for one mole of an ideal gas, undergoing expansion. The ratio of volume of gas at point C to that at point A is

1) 4/3 2) 3/4 3) 1/2 4) 2 125. An ice cube wrapped in a wool blanket and another identical ice cube is exposed to air at same room temperature. As compared to the second cube, the time for which the first cube remains frozen is 1) shorter 2) same 3) longer 4) impossible to determine 126. You have two rods of the same length and diameter but they are formed from different materials. The rods will be used to connect two regions of different temperature such that energy will transfer through the rods by heat. They can be connected in series, as in part In which case is the rate of energy transfer by heat larger?

1) When the rods are in series 2) When the rods are in parallel 3) The rate is the same in both cases 4) Data insufficient 127. If you blow across the top of an empty soft-drink bottle, a pulse of sound travels down through the air in the bottle. At the moment the pulse reaches the bottom of the bottle, the correct descriptions of the displacement of elements of air from their equilibrium positions and the pressure of the air at this (bottom) point are 1) the displacement and pressure are both at a maximum 2) the displacement and pressure are both at a minimum 3) the displacement is zero and the pressure is a maximum 4) the displacement is zero and the pressure is a minimum 128. A sound is produced by plucking a string in a musical instrument, then 1) the velocity of transvers wave in the string is equal to the velocity of sound in air 2) the frequency of the wave in the string is equal to the frequency of the sound produced 3) the wave in the string is progressive

4) the tension in the string varies from point to point 129. A vibrating guitar string makes very little sound if it is not mounted on the guitar. But if this vibrating string is attached to the guitar body, so that the body of the guitar vibrates, the sound is higher in intensity. This is because 1) the power of the vibration is spread out over a larger area 2) the energy leaves the guitar at a higher rate 3) the speed of sound is higher in the material of the guitar body 4) none of these 130. A violin plays a melody line and is then joined by a second violin, playing at the same intensity as the first violin, in a repeat of the same melody. With both violins playing, what physical parameter has doubled compared to the situation with only one violin playing? 1) wavelength 2) frequency 3) intensity 4) sound level in dB 131. Increasing the intensity of a sound by a factor of 100 causes the sound level to increase by 1) 100 dB 2) 20 dB 3) 10 dB 4) 2 dB 132. Consider detectors of water waves at three locations A, B, and C in the figure below. Which of the following statements is true?

1) The detected wavelength is largest at location B. 2) The detected wavelength is largest at location C. 3) The detected frequency is highest at location C. 4) The detected frequency is highest at location A. 133. The molar specific heat of a diatomic gas is measured at constant volume and found to be 29.1 J/mol K. The types of energy that are contributing to the molar specific heat are 1) translation only 2) translation and rotation only 3) translation and vibration only 4) translation, rotation, and vibration 134. Two pulses move in opposite directions on a string and are identical in shape except that one

has positive displacements of the elements of the string and the other has negative displacements. At the moment that the two pulses completely overlap on the string, 1) the energy associated with the pulses has disappeared 2) the particles of the string are not moving 3) the string forms a straight line 4) the pulses have vanished and will not reappear 135. Rank an automobile dashboard, seatbelt, and airbag in terms of the average force they deliver to a front-seat passenger during a collision, from greatest to least.

1) dashboard, seatbelt, airbag 2) dashboard, airbag, seatbelt 3) seatbelt, airbag, dashboard 4) seatbelt, dashboard, airbag 136. Two objects are at rest on a frictionless surface. Object 1 has a greater mass than object 2. When a constant force is applied to object 1, it accelerates through a distance d. The force is removed from object 1 and is applied to object 2. At the moment when object 2 has accelerated through the same distance d, which statements are true? 1) p1 < p2 2) p1 > p2 3) K1 < K2 4) K1 > K2 137. A steel wire of length 1 m and mass 1 gm and having a uniform cross-sectional area of 10
6

m2 is rigidly fixed at both the ends. The temperature of the wire is lowered by 20C. If the

transverse standing wave are set up by plucking the string in the middle, the frequency of the fundamental mode of vibration is (Ysteel = 2 1011 N/m2, steel = 1.21 105/C) 1) 110 Hz 2) 1.1 Hz 3) 1100 Hz 4) 11 Hz 138. A wine glass can be shattered through resonance by maintaining a certain frequency of a highintensity sound wave. The figure below shows a side view of a wine glass vibrating in response to such a sound wave. If an integral number of waves "fit" around the circumference of the vibrating rim, how many wavelengths fit around the rim in part (a)?

(a) 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

(b)

139. Balboa Park in San Diego has an outdoor organ. When the air temperature increases, the fundamental frequency of one of the organ pipes 1) stays the same 2) goes down 3) goes up 4) is impossible to compare 140. You are tuning a guitar by comparing the sound of the string with that of a standard tuning fork. You notice a beat frequency of 5 Hz when both sounds are present. You tighten the guitar string and the beat frequency rises to 8 Hz. In order to tune the string exactly to the same tuning fork, you should 1) continue to tighten the string 2) loosen the string 3) go to a room of lower temperature 4) impossible to determine 141. You do a very precise experiment to test the properties of a piece of wire. You stretch the wire by applying an outward force to each end of the wire and measure its change in length. If you then precisely double this force and the wire still follows Hooke's Law, the change in length of the wire 1) will exactly double 2) will just slightly more than double 3) will just slightly less than double 4) will decrease by exactly a factor of two 142. When light with a wavelength of 425 nm uniformly illuminates a single slit, the central bright fringe, observed on a screen located 0.630 m from the slit, has a width of 0.0166 m. What is the width of the slit? 1) 1.61 105 m 2) 3.23 105 m 3) 4.84 105 m 4) 8.07 105 m 143. Lenses in a camera use refraction to form an image on a film. Ideally, you want all the colors in the light from the object being photographed to be refracted by the same amount. Variation of refractive index (n) of various materials with wavelengths is as shown. Of the materials shown in this figure, which would you choose for a camera lens?

1) crown glass 2) acrylic 3) fused quartz 4) impossible to determine 144. In the figure, five light rays enter a glass prism from the left. How many of these rays undergo total internal reflection at the slanted surface of the prism?

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 145. A certain biconvex thin lens is designed by drawing two circles of the same radius next to one

another and using the overlapping region as the area to be used for the lens. If the radius of each circle is r, and the index of refraction of the glass for the lens is 1.5, the focal length of the lens (when used in air) will be :

1) 0.75r 2) r 3) 1.5r 4) 2r 146 Two charged particles of equal mass are travelling in circular orbits in a region of similar uniform, constant . magnetic field as shown. The particles are observed to move in circular paths of radii R1 and R2 as shown with speeds v1 and v2, respectively. Assume the particles do not interact with each other.

As the figure shows, the path of particle 2 has a smaller radius than that of particle 1. Which one of the following statements about this system is false? 1) |v1/Q1| < |v2/Q2| 2) Particle 2 carries a positive charge. 3) Particle 1 carries a negative charge. 4) Neither particle gains energy from the magnetic field. 147. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? 1) Electromagnetic waves carry energy. 2) X-rays have longer wavelengths than radio waves. 3) In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed. 4) They consist of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields that oscillate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. 148. Which one of the following statements concerning the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is true? 1) The wavelength is inversely proportional to the speed of the wave. 2) The wavelength is the same for all types of electromagnetic waves. 3) The wavelength is directly proportional to the frequency of the wave. 4) The wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave. 149. Complete the following sentence: The various colours of visible light differ in 1) frequency only. 2) wavelength only. 3) their speeds in a vacuum.

4) frequency and wavelength. 150. Light of 600.0 nm is incident upon a single slit. The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen that is 0.50 m from the slit. The distance between the first and third minima of the diffraction pattern is 0.80 mm. Which range of values listed below contains the width of the slit? 1) 0.1 mm to 0.4 mm 2) 0.4 mm to 0.8 mm 3) 0.8 mm to 1.2 mm 4) 1.2 mm to 1.6 mm