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MS 7001EA Unit Description 1.

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Which combustion component transfers flame from a combustion can to an adjacent combustion can? A. transition piece B. crossfire tubes C. spark plug D. flame detector As the hot gases path through the turbine ( power ) section of the turbine which components convert high pressure gas to high velocity gas? A. shroud blocks B. turbine buckets C. nozzles D. diaphragm packing The firing temperature of the gas turbine is 2028 degrees. F., where does this temperature exist in the turbine hot gas path? A. In the turbine exhaust B. At the first stage nozzles C. In the combustion liner D. In the compressor discharge How many journal bearings are used on the gas turbine? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. None of the above Which control device records the gas turbine's # 2 journal bearing's vibration in units of inches per second? A. 39V-1A B. 96VS-22 C. 39V-2A D. 39V-3A How many compressor stages are there? A. 2 B. 17 C. 16 D. None of the above

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MS 7001EA Inlet And Exhaust System 1.

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Which device sends an alarm to the SPEEDTRONIC control system that the differential pressure across the air inlet filters is too high? A. 63TF-1 B. 63TF-2 C. 63GF-1 D. None of the above Which pressure switch causes a turbine air Inlet Differential Pressure Shutdown? A. 63TF-2A B. 63TF-2B C. 63TF-1 A pressure drop of _____ of water across the inlet air filters will initiate an annunciation alarm. A. 8" in/H2O ( 19.9 MBAR ) B. 6" in / H20 ( 15 mbar ) C. 2" in / H20 ( 5 mbar ) D. 3" in / H2O ( 7.5 mbar ) A pressure drop of _____ of water across the inlet air filters will initiate a trip. A. 2" in / H2O ( 5 mbar ) B. 4.5" in / H2O ( 11.25 mbar ) C. 6" in / H2O ( 15 mbar ) D. 8 in / H2O ( 19.9 mbar ) MS 7001EA Control Air Systems

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The function of the control air system is to? A. Control the gas turbine air actuated valves. B. Supply compressor discharge air to pulse air system. C. Supply clean dry compressor discharge air to the inlet filter pulse system. What is the setting of VPR67-1? A. 45 psig. ( 3.10 Barg ) B. 60 psig. ( 4.14 Barg ) C. 100 psig. ( 6.89 Barg ) D. 150 psig. ( 10.35 Barg ) The primary function of the coalescing filter is? A. Filter dirt out of the air supply. B. Remove water vapor from the air supply. C. Remove oil from the air supply. D. All the above.

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MS 7001EA Oil Systems 1.

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Below what lube oil temperature will the turbine not be given a permissive to start? A. 40 degrees F ( 4.4 C ) B. 50 degrees F ( 10 C ) C. 60 degrees F ( 15.5 C ) D. 70 degrees F ( 21.1 C ) When the turbine is tripped, which oil system is responsible for removing control oil pressure? A. trip oil B. lube oil C. hydraulic oil D. none of the above During normal operation of the gas turbine at base load, which pump supplies the Gas Turbine bearing oil system with pressurized oil? A. emergency lube oil pump B. auxiliary lube oil pump C. accessory gear lube oil pump At what approximate pressure is lube oil fed to the hydraulic pumps suctions? A. 26 psig ( 1.79 Barg ) B. 80 psig ( 5.52 Barg ) C. 120 psig ( 8.28.Barg ) D. 125 psig ( 8.63 Barg ) What is the regulated pressure setting for the hydraulic oil supply? A. 1200 psig ( 82.7 Barg ) B. 1275 psig ( 87.85 Barg ) C. 1375 psig ( 94.8 Barg ) D. 1510 psigv ( 104.1 Barg ) Which device sends a signal to the SPEEDTRONIC control system to start the up Auxiliary hydraulic oil pump? A. 63HF-1 B. 63HQ-1 C. VR22-1 D. VPR64-8 The Gas Turbine start permission require that the Auxiliary lube pump runs until the turbine reaches _____ speed and then will automatically shutdown. A. 95% B. 100% C. 50% D. 28%

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If the pressure from the accessory lube pump falls below _____ psig the auxiliary lube pump will automatically start. A. 100 psig ( 6.9 Barg ) B. 104 psig ( 7.17 Barg ) C. 70 psig ( 4.83 Barg ) D. 25 psig ( 1.725 Barg ) Should the lube oil header pressure fall below _____ psig a DC emergency bearing oil pump will automatically start to provide an emergency supply of oil. A. 6 psig ( .41 Barg ) B. 8 psig ( .55 Barg ) C. 60 psig ( 4.14 Barg ) D. 83 psig ( 5.72 Barg ) The maximum oil temperature should not exceed _____ Degrees F. before entering the VPR2-1 regulator. A. 130 Degrees F ( 54,4 C ) B. 175 Degrees F ( 79.4 C ) C. 225 Degrees F ( 104.4 C ) Which device sends a signal to the SPEEDTRONIC control system to start the Auxiliary Lube Oil Pump? A. 63QA-1 B. 63QB-1 C. 63NA-1 D. 63QT-1 Which device is set to maintain the lube oil header pressure at 26 psig? A. VPR41-3 B. VPR3-1 C. VPR2-1 How much lube oil should flow through the Gas Turbine N0. #1 journal bearing? A. 40 GPM ( 151 LPM ) B. 50 GPM ( 189 LPM ) C. 17 GPM ( 64 LPM ) D. 20 GPM ( 76 LPM ) How much lube oil should flow through the load equipment? A. 80 GPM ( 303 LPM ) B. 58 GPM ( 219.5 LPM ) C. 11 GPM ( 41.6 LPM ) D. 17 GPM ( 64.3 LPM )

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MS 7001EA Gas Fuel System 1. Which of the following does not pass through the fuel nozzles? A. water B. fuel gas C. liquid fuel D. compressor discharge E. none of the above

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Which valves in the gas fuel system is directly dependent on trip oil pressure in order to open? A. VGC-1 B. VSR-1 C. VGS-3 D. VGD-1 In the fuel gas system what is the purpose of the control devices 96GC-1 & 2? A. To physically close the gas control valve in the event of a turbine trip B. To send a gas control valve position feedback signal to the MK V SPEEDTRONIC control system C. To port hydraulic oil to the primary control valve's actuator D. To vent gas from the primary control valve When 20FG-1 de-energizes, the VSR-1 valve will: A. close B. open C. cannot be determined D. none of the above Which Pressure switch, installed in the gas piping provides alarm protection should the gas pressure drop below the switch setting ? A. 63HG-1 B. 63FG-3 C. 63HL-1 D. 63AD-1A Which pressure transducers provide the P2 operational pressure feedback signal to the MK V Control System? A. B. C. D. 96FG 96FF 96GC 96SR

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MS 7000EA Starting System 1. Which device is used for cool down? A. Turning Gear B. Slow roll C. Ratchet

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After purging the gas turbine it will be at a firing speed which is approximately _____ RPM. A. 1008 RPM B. 500 RPM What is the approximate time of the purge cycle? A. 10 minutes B. Depends on setting of the purge timer (2TV). C. 7 minutes D. 26 minutes What mechanical devices connect the starting device to the gas turbine shaft? A. Jaw clutch B. Load coupling C. Torque converter D. Accessory gear In Ratchet mode is 20HR-1 energized? A. YES B. NO The slow roll hydraulic ratchet is used to rotate the gas turbine shaft at approximately _____ RPM. A. 10 B. 6 C. 500 D. 45 degrees every 2-3 minutes Which solenoid , controls the loading and unloading of the torque converter? A. 20TV B. 20TU C. 20FL D. 20FG

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MS 7001EA Inlet Guide Vane System 1. What purpose do the inlet guide vanes serve? A. prevent compressor surge B. act as a strainer to keep dirt out of the compressor C. cools the air entering the compressor D. gives the operator an extra pressure gauge to read Which solenoid will immediately trip the inlet guide vanes closed? A. 20TV-1 B. 20VG-2 C. 20FG-1 D. 90TV-1

GE Power Systems Power Systems University

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The function of 96TV-1, 2 are to provide a IGV position signal to the SPEEDTRONIC Control system? A. True B. False MS 7001EA Cooling and Sealing Air Systems

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Which of the following statements is NOT true about the compressor bleed valves? A. the compressor bleed valves will close when the turbine reaches operating speed B. the compressor bleed valves cool the first stage nozzles C. the compressor bleed valves prevent compressor surge D. the compressor bleed valves must be full open to start the turbine Which pressure transmitter records the compressor discharge pressure? A. 96FF-2 B. 96GC-2 C. 96CD-1 D. 96SJ-1 Which of the following air extraction's are taken from the compressor discharge? A. compressor bleed valve supply air B. atomizing air C. air to cool the turbine exhaust casing D. wheel space cooling E. false start drain valves When 20CB-1 is de-energized what is the status of VA2-1? A. 20CB-1 does not control the position of VA2-1 B. VA2-1 is open C. VA2-1 is closed D. none of the above

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5. Which of the following compressor extraction's does not exist? A. 5 th stage - external B. 11 th stage - external C. 16 th stage - external D. 16 th stage - internal

GE Power Systems Power Systems University

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Which compressor extraction is used to prevent compressor pulsation's during start-up or decelerating during shutdown. A. 5 th stage B. 11 th stage C. 16 th stage D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers The first stage nozzle and shroud are cooled by air flowing into the turbine from the __________? A. 5 th stage B. 11 th stage C. 16 th stage D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers What is used to cool the second nozzles? A. 5 th stage B. 11 th stage C. 16 th stage D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers Which extraction is used to cool the first and second stage buckets? A. 5 th stage B. 11 th stage C. 16 th stage D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers The exhaust frame . NO # 3 bearing casing, struts and the third aft wheel space are cooled by. A. 5 th stage B. 11 th stage C. 16 th sta D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers Bearing No. 1, 2, 3 are cooled and sealed by _______ air during startup & shut down. A. eleventh stage B. thirteenth stage C. fifth stage D. compressor discharge plenum E. turbine exhaust frame blowers

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Bearing No. 1, 2, 3 are cooled and sealed by _______ air at 95% speed..
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A. B. C. D. E. eleventh stage thirteenth stage fifth stage compressor discharge plenum turbine exhaust frame blowers MS 7001EA Cooling Water System 1.

GE Power Systems Power Systems University

How many gallons of water per minute maximum can flow through the lube oil heat exchangers? A. 200 GPM ( 757 LPM ) B. 900 GPM ( 3406 LPM ) C. 763 GPM ( 2887 LPM ) E. 400 GPM ( 1514 LPM ) The function of control valve VTR1-1 is to: A. control the amount of lube oil in the heat exchanger B. control the amount of water in the heat exchanger to maintain proper lube oil temperature C. all of the above How many gallons of water per minute maximum can flow through the turbine support legs? A. 22 GPM ( 83 LPM ) B. 60 GPM ( 227 LPM ) C. 30 GPM ( 113 LPM ) D. 40 GPM ( 151 LPM ) How much cooling water should flow through each flame detector water jacket? A. 3 gpm ( 11.3 LPM ) B. 12 gpm ( 45.4 LPM ) C. 10 gpm ( 37.85 LPM ) D. none of the above MS 7001EA Compressor Water Wash System

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In order to perform an off line water wash the following permissives must be met. A. Turbine must be at zero speed B. Inlet temperature must be greater than 40 deg. F C. Wheelspace temperatures less than 300 deg. F & within 120 deg. F of wash water temperature D. All the above When doing an off line water wash all sealing air lines must be closed? A. True B. False The exhaust frame blowers must be off? A. True B. False

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In order to perform an on line water wash the following permissives must be met. A. Turbine must be at operating speed
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B. C. D.

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Inlet temperature must be greater than 50 deg. F Wheelspace temperatures less than 300 deg. F & within 120 deg. F of water wash water temperature All the above MS 7001EA Heating and Ventilating

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Fan motor 88BT-1 is in the ____________ compartment. A. Accessory B. Load coupling C. Turbine E. Gas fuel valve The function of 26BT-1 is to: A. send an alarm to the SPEEDTRONIC control system indicating that the compartment temperature is too high B. turn on the vent fan motor when the compartment temperature is 115 deg. F. C. turn on the space heater The function of 26BT-2 is to ? A. alarm to MK V system B. warm the accessory compartment C. Turn on fan 88BT-1 D. provide turbine wheel corrosion protection Fan 88BT-1 comes on when: A. Humidity is high B. Compartment temperature is above 115 deg. F or 46.1 deg C. C. When the turbine is started D. All the above MS 7001EA Fire protection system

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Which device requires a manual reset to re-arm the fire protection system and permit the turbine to be started again? A. 63CT-1 B. VR7-1 C. 45FT-1A D. 45CP-1A, 2A Signals from at least ____ heat sensitive detectors in an enclosure are required before the gas turbine will trip. A. 4 detectors in a group B. 3 detectors in a group C. 2 detectors in a group D. 1 detector in a group The bleeder valve is set to open and release a small amount of CO2 to the atmosphere at approx. _____ psig or Barg. A. 341 psig ( 23.4 Barg ) B. 357 psig ( 24.5 Barg )
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C. 300 psig ( 20.6 Barg ) D. 275 psig ( 18.9 Barg ) 4.

GE Power Systems Power Systems University

The Safety Relief Valve on the low pressure storage tank will open at ____ psig. A. 357 psig ( 24.5 Barg ) B. 275 psig ( 18.9 Barg ) Which cabinet contains the initial and extended discharge components? A. Pilot control cabinet B. Electrical control cabinet C. On Top-Storage Tank The compressor will cycle On and Off to maintain a pressure within the storage tank ____ psig. A. 275-325 psig ( 18.922.4 Barg ) B. 275-357 psig ( 18.924.6 Barg ) C. 275-310 psig ( 18.8 21.4 Barg ) D. 295-305 psig ( 20.3 21.0 Barg ) Which cabinet contains the isolation valve? A. Pilot control cabinet B. Electrical control cabinet The fire detectors will actuate the system when the temperature exceeds ____ Degrees F. except for which A. 600 Degrees F ( 315.5 C ) B. 325 Degrees F ( 162.7 C ) C. 725 Degrees F ( 385 C ) D. 200 Degrees F ( 93.3 C )

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GENERATOR & EX2000 1.

GE Power Systems Power Systems University

What are the two main functions of a synchronous generator excitation system? a. Increase load on the generator b. Allow regulation of generator terminal volts and/or VARS. c. Allow regulation of generator field d. Supply DC Power to the generator field. Vars ( volt-amperes reactance) are: a. wasted power and should be kept as near to zero as possible. b. necessary to the extent that the load demands them. c. of no importance in a power system. d. controlled by the regulator of the prime mover. When a turbine generator is operating at full speed, rated voltage, no load and the generator circuit breaker is open, and the prime mover governor is increased, the major effect will be to: a. increase frequency. b. Increase VARS. c. Increase generator terminal volts. d. increase output watts. The signal to increase load goes to the : a. Generator Control System. b. Prime Mover Control System. c. Generator Excitation Control System. d. All of the above. What does the AC Regulator use for a feedback signal? a. Generator Field Voltage. b. Prime Mover Speed. c. Generator Armature Voltage. d. All of the Above. What determines whether the regulator used the On Line or Off line Setpoint? a. Normally a direct function of 52G. b. Normally a direct function of 90P. c. Normally a direct function of 90R. d. Normally a direct function of 90R. What does the DC Regulator use for a feedback signal? a. Generator Field Voltage b. Prime Mover Speed. c. Generator Armature Voltage. d. All of the Above.

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What are the four requirements for Synchronizing a Generator to a System Grid? a. __________________ b. __________________ c. __________________ d. __________________ What controls Frequency when the generator is: a. Off-line _______________________ b. On Line _______________________

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10. Increasing excitation increases MWS a. True b. False

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MKV QUIZ 1.. Name the four steps of starting a gas turbine machine 1. 2. 3. 4.

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If a diagnostic alarm is not reset from the diagnostic display after it has been resolved, will it be reannunicated on the < HMI > ? A. True B. False What is the blue area at the bottom of each < HMI> display screen used for? ans.______________________________________

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How many of the processors in a Mark V control panel must be powered up, " healthy " and communicating with one another in order to start a unit from the < HMI >. A. < C > < R S T > B. < R S T > C. < C > < R S > D. None of the above How does an operator access/view the Main Menu on an < HMI > ? ans.________________________________________.

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What is the earliest possible time the unit can be taken off cool down after unit shutdown? ans.___________________________________________.

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What are the keystrokes used to save changes made to a Users Defined Display? A. B. C. If you selected FAST LOAD START by mistake when starting the machine, how can you select a "NORMAL START " ( i.e. and de-select FAST LOAD START )? ans._______________________________________.

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Is the < BOI > ever prevented from being used to issue commands to the MARK V control panel? ans._______________________________________.

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A unit is operating at base load, at 6:09 am, its power output is 83.2 MW its exhaust temperature is 990 degrees F, and the ambient temperature is 46 degrees F. At 4:37 PM on the same day its power output is 76.5MW and the ambient temperature is 82 degrees F.Will the unit's exhaust temperature be higher or lower than the temperature at 6:09 am? A. Higher B. Lower C. same as 6:09 am What message must be displayed on the < HMI > after selecting an operating mode in order to be able to start the unit? ans.__________________________________________.

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You must acknowledge an alarm before you are able to lock it out? A. True B. False How many alarms are displayed per page on the < BOI > display? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 List the keystrokes you must use to access the menu of < BOI > display? ans---------------------------------------------------------

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When viewing a display of a wheel space temperature, which thermocouple would the point name T T W S 1 A 0 1 be associated with? When any alarm conditions are resolved, their status changes to a " O ". A. True B. False

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