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Aircraft Instruments

Specimen Examination: 56 questions, total 57 marks; time allowed 90 minutes 1. Pressure error in pressure instruments is caused solely by: (a) (b) (c) (d) a change in airflow with wheels and flaps going down a sudden change of attitude turbulence none of the above since pressure error reflects only the magnitude any pressure errors (1) 2. The air speed indicator is calibrated to: (a) (b) (c) sea level conditions in a standard atmosphere of +15C, 1013.25mb and 1225 gm/M a temperature lapse rate of 1.98C per 1,000 ft up to 36,090 ft where temperature is assumed to be constant at -56.5C sea level conditions in a standard atmosphere of +15C, 1013.25mb, 1225 gm/M and a temperature lapse rate of 1.98C per 1,000 ft up to 36,090 ft where temperature is assumed to be constant at -56.5C atmospheric pressure in a standard atmosphere (1)

(d) 3.

On an air speed indicator the upper end of the green arc indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d) VNE VFE VNO VMD

(1)

4.

IAS is corrected to give CAS by the application of: (a) (b) (c) (d) compressibility error instrument error pressure error instrument and pressure errors (1)

5.

In a servo-assisted altimeter the secondary windings from the 'E' bar provide a current direct to the: (a) (b) (c) (d) capsule stack amplifier two phase motor the AC input of the primary windings (1)

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 1

6.

The pressure altimeter is calibrated in accordance with: (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the ELR ISA DALR SALR

(1)

7.

A flight is planned along a track of 230M to pass over a mountain with an elevation of 2,800 metres. The QNH is 1005 hPa and 1 hPa = 30 feet. You require a minimum clearance of 1500 feet above the mountain; the lowest quadrantal flight level you can accept is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 140 100 120 110

(2)

8.

With two aircraft flying at different levels but at the same Mach Number (MN) the TAS of the aircraft at the lower level compared to that at the higher level will normally be: (a) (b) (c) (d) lower higher the same difficult to assess (1)

9.

In an ambient air temperature of -25C the local speed of sound is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 673 613 643 573 kts kts kts kts (1)

10.

When descending at a constant MN in isothermal conditions the TAS will: (a) (b) (c) (d) increase decrease be constant either increase or decrease depending on compressibility (1)

11.

Which of the following statements about gyros is correct ? (a) (b) (c) (d) A horizontal axis gyro will have maximum topple and no drift at the Poles. Topple at intermediate latitudes varies with the sine of latitude. Air driven gyros are less efficient at higher altitudes due to lower air pressure. Errors due to the rotation of the Earth may be increased by liquid swirl. (1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 2

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12.

An aircraft is on an easterly heading flying from Bristol to London. If the aircraft accelerates its air driven AH will: (a) (b) (c) (d) indicate a turn towards South. not change its indication because there is no change of heading. indicate a turn towards North suffer from an error but due to the random effect of turn error during east/west accelerations it is difficult to predict the nature of any turn which may be displayed during this easterly acceleration. (1)

13.

Acceleration errors are reduced on the electrically powered AH compared to the air driven AH by: (a) (b) (c) (d) less pendulosity and the use of levelling switches. torque switches and less pendulosity. the operation of torque motors during acceleration. the use of vane damping and compensation tilts. (1)

14.

The efficiency with which a spinning rotor will remain aligned with a given datum will increase as its mass is: (a) (b) (c) (d) concentrated at as great a radius as possible. concentrated as close to the axis of spin as possible distributed as uniformly as possible out of balance. (1)

15.

If an air-driven turn indicator has its air filter partially blocked the indications will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) over-reading under-reading over-read or under-read remain accurate

(1)

16.

A two axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have: (a) (b) (c) (d) one two one two degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis. degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis (1)

17.

The gyro in a DGI has (a) (b) (c) (d) one two one two degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis. degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis (1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 3

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18 .

The maximum rate of drift of a gyroscope due to Earth rate is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 90 per hour 180 per hour 15 per hour 5 per hour (1)

19.

Schuler loop compensation is applicable to: North Aligned/Wander Angle Stabilised platform systems (a) (b) (c) (d) Yes Yes No No Strap-down systems No Yes Yes No (1)

20.

The autopilot is coupled to the INS of an aircraft flying from S3500.0' W03000.0' (waypoint 2) to S3500.0' W02000.0' (waypoint 3). The initial track readout from waypoint 2 will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) less than 090 090 more than 090 approximately 270 (1) (I) (II) (i) (ii) (II) (i) (i) (ii) (ii) (1) magnetic latitude aircraft heading true false

21.

Aircraft magnetism is affected by: These statements are: (I) (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) (ii) (ii) (i)

22.

If an aircraft is heading 045M, deviation is 1W and variation is 2E the compass heading would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 044 045 046 047 (1)

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 4

23.

The effect of liquid swirl on northerly turning error will be to: (a) (b) (c) (d) increase the error in both hemispheres increase the error in the northern hemisphere but decrease the error in the southern hemisphere increase the error in the southern hemisphere but decrease the error in the northern hemisphere decrease the error in both hemispheres (1)

24.

Which of the following statements is most correct about the display of information from the weather radar on EFIS instruments: (a) (b) (c) (d) Weather information may be displayed on the EHSI but not with the Plan, Full Nav. Or Full ILS/VOR modes selected. Weather information may be displayed on the EADI Weather information may be displayed on all modes of the EHSI providing the correct selections are made. Two of the above statements are correct but not all three. (1)

25.

With the EFIS heading reference selected to NORMAL the heading information displayed on the EHSI is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Magnetic True True between 73N and 60S otherwise magnetic Magnetic between 73N and 60S otherwise true (1)

26.

Which of the following are required in order that a duplex autopilot system can provide fail operational autoland capability ? (a) (b) (c) (d) two interconnected channels two interconnected channels and continuous control continuous control and comparison monitoring two interconnected channels, continuous control and comparison monitoring (1)

27.

During an autoland descent the earliest aural warning will be sounded automatically at: (a) (b) (c) (d) DH + 50 feet DH 1,000 feet DH + 1,000 feet

(1)

28.

During an autoland at 300 feet what is the aircraft trimmed for ? (a) (b) (c) (d) pitch up sink rate GA altitude DH

(1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 5

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29.

What database and/or parameters are required for a Flight Envelope Protection System ? A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) Performance Attitude Control positions Configuration B&D B, C & D A, C & D A, B, C & D (1)

30.

What are the basic functions of an autopilot ? A B C D E (a) (b) (c) (d) Pitch attitude Wings level Altitude hold Heading hold Speed hold A&B C&D C, D & E A, B & E (1)

31.

What is the primary purpose of a yaw damper ? (a) (b) (c) (d) To prevent 'Dutch roll'. To assist the pilot in maintaining balanced flight. To prevent airframe vibrations in flight. To keep the aircraft straight whilst on the ground and in the air. (1)

32.

Why must the autopilot be synchronised when you want to disconnect it ? (a) (b) (c) (d) To To To To ensure that fail operational landings can continue safely. allow automatic pitch trimming to reset. secure against abrupt changes in aircraft attitude. allow for FD coupling. (1)

33.

Auto-flight auto trim functions in: (a) (b) (c) (d) pitch only. pitch and roll only in all flight phases. pitch, roll and yaw in all flight phases. pitch, roll and yaw in autoland LAND 2 or LAND 3 modes only. (1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 6

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34.

During a semi-automatic landing: I. II. III. (a) (b) (c) (d) the autopilot maintains the aircraft on glide slope until decision height where it disengages automatically the autothrottle maintains aircraft speed until decision height where it disengages automatically the autopilot controls the aircraft down to 50 feet but no FLARE is available I & II I III II & III

(1)

35.

At 50 feet agl during an autoland what happens to the glideslope signal ? (a) (b) (c) (d) it it it it continues to be actioned is disconnected is factored for range is used to flare the aircraft (1)

36.

If the autopilot APP mode is active with LOC engaged and G/S armed and a second autopilot is selected: (a) (b) (c) (d) coupling will occur immediately as the glideslope is captured coupling occurs immediately and the mode becomes active once the glideslope is captured coupling will occur automatically once the glideslope is captured and the aircraft is below 1,500 feet on radio altimeter coupling will not occur until the APP mode is disengaged (1)

37.

The type of gyro used on a yaw damper is: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a rate gyro space gyro variable gyro fixed gyro

(1)

38.

When must you have a pitch and roll autopilot ? (a) (b) (c) (d) in a two-crew aircraft when flying IFR single crew when flying at night when MTOM is greater than 5,700 kg

(1)

39.

Where is the auto-throttle mode displayed ? (a) (b) (c) (d) PFD thrust control computer navigation display ECAM

(1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 7

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40.

What controls airspeed? I II III IV (a) (b) (c) (d) Pitch Autothrottle FD Roll I & III II & III All of the above I & II

(1)

41.

When carrying out a go-around which of the following statements is true ? (a) (b) (c) (d) GPWS GPWS GPWS GPWS 40 ft Mode Mode Mode Mode 3 3 3 3 is engaged automatically. is engaged manually. is engaged when landing gear and flaps are up. operates on a radio height loss of more than (1)

42.

If you are below the glideslope on an ILS approach, the GPWS warnings are: (a) (b) (c) (d) aural aural aural aural "whoop whoop pull up" and a red light. "glideslope" and an amber light. "glideslope" and a red light. "whoop whoop pull up" and an amber light (1)

43.

GPWS Mode 3 will be activated on go-around up to: (a) (b) (c) (d) 700 feet agl 2,500 feet agl 220 feet agl 500 feet agl (1)

44.

The greatest height one could expect a Mode 1 GPWS alert is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 700 feet agl 1,300 feet agl 1,800 feet agl 2,450 feet agl (1)

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 8

45.

With reference to GPWS, at 1,000 feet agl, Mode 1 will be activated when the barometric rate is equal to or in excess of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1,000 1,500 3,000 2,000 ft/min ft/min ft/min ft/min (1)

46.

A VMO/ MMO alerting system contains a barometric aneroid capsule: (a) (b) (c) (d) which is subjected to dynamic pressure and an airspeed capsule which is subjected to static pressure. and an airspeed capsule subjected to static pressure with a feed of static pressure to the case through a metering unit. which is subjected to static pressure and an airspeed capsule which is subjected to dynamic pressure. (1)

47.

When TCAS II interrogates an intruder with no mode C: (a) (b) (c) (d) an RA will be given assuming that the intruder is at the same height. only a TA will be given. No alert will be given. the intruder will not be reported because TCAS II requires mode C. (1)

48.

When a RA from TCAS conflicts with an ATC instruction you should: (a) (b) (c) (d) follow the ATC instruction. follow the RA command attempt to identify the intruder visually treat the RA as a TA. (1)

49.

The TCAS symbol for an RA on an electronic VSI or EHSI is (i) and an intruder is shown as (ii) The missing words are: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a (i) yellow circle red square yellow circle red square (ii) relative height pressure altitude flight level relative height (1)

50.

A vibration meter measures: (a) (b) (c) (d) frequency in Hz relative amplitude period in seconds acceleration in 'g' (1)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 9

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51.

What is the working principle of a capacitive fuel gauge ? (a) (b) (c) (d) di-electric resistivity height of fuel volume of fuel changes in capacitive reactance (1)

52.

What does a bourdon tube measure ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Temperature Pressure Density Volume (1)

53.

A millimetric voltmeter measuring EMF between a hot and cold junction of a thermocouple can be graduated to read temperature if: (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the hot junction is kept at a constant temperature. cold junction is maintained at 15C hot junction is maintained at 15C cold junction is maintained at a constant temperature (1)

54.

Compared to a volumetric flow meter, a mass flow meter compensates for: (a) (b) (c) (d) Temperature Density Volume Pressure (1)

55.

What type of pressure sensor is used to measure the output of a LP fuel pump (the low pressure warning light) ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Aneroid capsule Bellows capsule Differential capsule Bourdon tube (1)

56.

What measures inlet pressure? (a) (b) (c) (d) Bellows Bourdon tube Aneroid capsule Differential pressure capsule (1)

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 10

Aircraft Instruments
Specimen Exam, 56 Questions. 57 marks, Time allowed: 2hrs.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48

A B C D 49 50 51 52 53 54
55 56

A B C D

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 11

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 12

Aircraft Instruments Specimen examination Answers


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a)

Worked Answers
1. The word solely in the question rules out configuration errors and manoeuvres. Pressure error can be a combination of these plus trying to measure static pressure in a moving aeroplane. Answer (d) The ASI is calibrated to the value of air density at mean sea level in a Answer (a) standard atmosphere (1225 gm/M3). The top end of the green arc shows the maximum normal operating speed for an aircraft in the en-route configuration. Answer (c) IAS must be corrected for instrument and pressure errors to give CAS. Compressibility error is used to correct CAS to give EAS. Answer (d) The primary winding of the E bar (inner arm) is fed with AC and the current induced in the secondary windings (outer arms) is passed to the amplifier before it reaches the two phase motor. Answer (b) The pressure altimeter is calibrated to the pressure at different altitudes in a standard atmosphere. Answer (b)

2. 3. 4. 5.

6.

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 13

7.
1,500 ft (min) 1,500 +9,184 + 240 =10,924 ft

2,800 m = 9,184 ft 1005 hPa 8 hPa x 30 ft = 240 ft 1013 hPa

Lowest safe quadrantal FL is FL110 but magnetic track 230 requires an even FL so the lowest acceptable is FL180. Answer (c) 8. Using the RTM graph it can be seen that, at constant MN the lower aircraft will have a higher TAS. The lower aircraft is in warmer air where the local speed of sound will be higher. Answer (b) Either use CRP5: or calculator: 10. 11. -25C next to Mach Index; next to 1 on inner scale is the local speed of sound. LSS = 38.94x273 25 = 613.23 kts Answer (b) Answer (c)

9.

Same MN, same LSS = same TAS

Answer (a) mixes up drift and topple; (b) would be correct if it said cosine, not sine, of latitude and liquid swirl in compasses has nothing to do with gyro errors. At high altitudes the reduced air pressure may not be sufficient to drive the gyro at its design rpm. Answer (c) When accelerating the air driven AH gives a false indication of pitch up and bank right. On an easterly heading the right bank would indicate that the aircraft is turning towards the south. Answer (a) When the torque switches detect a large correction input they cut the power to the levelling switches. The electric gyros in the AH are not pendulous (i.e. they do not have their centre of gravity below the gimbal pivot point. Answer (b) The question is asking what will make a gyro more rigid. Increasing the rpm or increasing the total mass or moving the mass to the rim of the gyro will all increase rigidity. Answer (a) The partial blockage will reduce the air pressure driving the gyro. Underspeed = underread. Answer (b) This is the earth gyro in the AH. This is a tied gyro in the DGI. Answer (b) Answer (d)

12.

13.

14.

15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

Maximum drift is at the poles and is the rate at which the Earth rotates; 360 in 24 hours = 15 per hour. Answer (c) Gyro stabilised platforms are prone to Schuler oscillations and the output from the flight management computer derived from the strapdown IRS is also prone to Schuler oscillations. Answer (b) The INS will follow the great circle track between the waypoints and the track leaving waypoint 2 will be more than 090T Answer (c)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 14

20.

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21.

Aircraft magnetism is made up of two elements; hard iron which changes slowly with time and soft iron magnetism the airframe by the Earths magnetic field. The soft iron changes with the aircrafts heading and latitude. Deviation West, compass best: 045M dev. 1W 046C.

magnetism induced in magnetism Answer (a) Answer (c)

22. 23.

Because the compass needle dips towards the nearer pole the indications when turning through north will lag behind the aircraft in the northern hemisphere and be ahead of the aircraft (lead) in the southern hemisphere. Liquid swirl will always induce a little lag and the errors are cumulative. This will increase the existing error in the northern hemisphere but reduce the error in the southern hemisphere. Answer (b) Weather radar information can only be displayed on the EHSI (not on the EADI) and only on the expanded displays, not the full rose displays. and not on the Plan display. Answer (a) The northern latitude (73N) is fixed but the southern hemisphere latitude is selected by the operator and can be anything between 60S and 65S. Answer (d) Answer (d) Note earliest of the 4 answers offered. In case there is a go-around required. Answer (a) Answer (a)

24.

25.

26. 27. 28. 29.

Information about all four (performance, attitude, control positions and configuration) are required to ensure that the aircraft is being operated within its safe flight envelope. Answer (d) The question only asks for the basic functions of an autopilot; this is control in pitch and roll. Answer (a) Answer (a) The autopilot uses the auto trim function in pitch only; roll corrections are made by the autopilot using control surfaces and not trim surfaces. If a large roll correction is being made by the autopilot using the ailerons there will be a violent change of attitude when the autopilot is disconnected. Answer (c) See answer to Q32 above. Answer (a)

30. 31. 32.

33. 34.

During a semi-automatic landing the autopilot is disengaged manually, not automatically. Autopilot control is not normally down to 50 feet but it could be. Answer (c) Answer (b) Answer (c)
Specimen Instruments Exam. 15

35. 36.
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37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

It is used to detect rate of yaw. This is a JAR-OPS requirement.

Answer (a) Answer (b)

Primary Flying Display is the EFIS Attitude Direction Indicator. Answer (a) Speed control is achieved using pitch and/or power. Answer (d)

GPWS mode 3 (warning of height loss after take-off or go-around) is engaged automatically. Answer (a) Answer (b) Answer (a) Answer (d) Answer (c) This is a form of combined speed indicator. The aneroid capsule is the sealed altitude capsule (subjected to static pressure) and the airspeed capsule is fed with pitot pressure (dynamic + static) and also housed in the case fed with static (subjected to dynamic pressure. Answer (d) Since RAs only work in the vertical plane, if there is no height information available only a TA will be available. Answer (b) Follow the RA command to de-conflict with the other aircraft and tell ATC what has happened. Answer (b) A RA is shown as a red square and vertical information is relative height. Answer (d) Vibration meters do not have any specific unit of measurement shown on them but they are described as showing relative amplitude. Answer (b) Capacitive gauging systems work by sensing the capacitive reactance of the fuel or air in the tanks. Fuel has twice the capacitance of air so a full tank has twice the capacitive reactance as an empty tank. A datum or reference capacitor in the tank compensates for fuel density so that fuel mass or weight is correctly indicated. Answer (d) A bourdon tube measures pressure. Answer (b)

47. 48. 49. 50.

51.

52. 53.

The thermocouple is used to measure very high temperatures based on the difference between temperatures at the hot and cold junctions. The cold junction temperature must be constant but not necessarily at 15C. Answer (d)

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 16

54.

Mass flow meters dont really compensate for anything, they detect the angular acceleration that is proportional to mass. The examiners probably thinks density is the right answer. Answer (b) Dodgy feedback here. This is the most sense we can make out of this question. The only pressure sensors at the LP fuel pump outlet are the LP fuel low pressure light switches which most systems show as transducers. The B737 maintenance manual shows a bellows symbol next to the pressure switch so, short of data, we are going for the bellows capsule. Answer (b) We assume they mean jet engine inlet pressure, some old engines like the Avon used bellows, modern ones use pressure transducers but these often also incorporate minute bellows. Answer (a)

55.

56.

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 17

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Specimen Instruments Exam. 18