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Biochemistry 304

Exam 1 Version B VERSION B


All questions are multiple choices (two points for each question). Please read ALL ANSWERS before choosing the single BEST answer for each question. If you choose to mark the hardcopy first, please be aware that any clerical answers are YOUR responsibility alone! 1. Version B B. Version B.

Questions 2-10: Chemical bonds, Water, pH, pKa, buffers, thermodynamics (Chapter 1): 2. Why does DNA double-helix denature when the pH is raised to 9? A. Protons dissociate from the phosphate groups in the backbone, which disrupts the hydrogen-bonding pattern between strands. B. Protons bind to guanine residues giving them additional positive charges which disrupt the hydrogen bonding to the other strand. C. Protons dissociate from guanine bases disrupting the hydrogen bonding to the other strand. D. Protons bind to functional groups that serve as hydrogen-bond acceptors, thus disrupting the hydrogen bonding to the other strand. A drug (D) has a pKa of 6.4. At a pH of 7.4, which of the following approximates the ratio of the unprotonated form to the protonated form (i.e., D-/HD)? A. 0. B. 10. C. 0.1. D. 1. The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that A. The entropy of a system increases if a process is spontaneous. B. The entropy of a system's surroundings increases if a process is spontaneous. C. The total entropy of a system and its surroundings increases if a process is spontaneous. Solution A has a pH of 7.0, and Solution B has a pH of 6.0. Both Solutions are of equal volume. Which of the following statements about Solutions A and B is most accurate? A. Solution A has 7/6 of the hydrogen ion concentration of Solution B. B. Solution A has 6/7 of the hydrogen ion concentration of Solution B. C. Solution A has 1/10 as many hydrogen ions as Solution B. D. Solution A has 10 times more hydrogen ions than Solution B. What are the primary chemical components present in a phosphate buffer at pH 7.4? A. H3PO4 and PO4-3 B. H2PO4- and PO4-3 C. HPO4-2 and PO4-3 D. H2PO4- and HPO4-2 E. H3PO4 and HPO4-2 1





Biochemistry 304 7.

Exam 1 Version B


For Reaction (1): A + B C + D, G = -80 kJ/mol; For Reaction (2): D + E F + B, G = +70 kJ/mol; Then Reaction (3): A +E C + F A. Can occur spontaneously. B. Can not occur spontaneously. C. is at equilibrium. D. is undecided. What happens to nonpolar molecules in water? A. They dissolve independently. B. They aggregate together. C. They form hydrogen bonds. D. All of the above. What two properties of water are important for biological interactions? A. The polarity of water. B. The density of water. C. The cohesive properties of water. D. A and C. E. B and C. What is the [A-]/[HA] ratio when the weak acid is in a solution with a pH one unit ABOVE its pKa? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 1:10 D. 10:1




Questions 11-18: Protein composition and structure (Chapter 2): 11. Which of the following amino acids contains one or more atoms of sulfur per molecule? A. Valine B. Lysine C. Methionine. D. Alanine Which amino acids contain hydrophobic side chains? A. Phe, Leu, and Cys. B. Phe, Leu, and Met.. C. Val, Leu, and Ser. D. Val, Leu, and Asp. Which of the following is NOT true of peptide bonds? A. They tend to be planar. B. They are generally in the trans and rarely in the cis configuration. C. They tend to have the amide nitrogen protonated to give a positive charge.



Biochemistry 304 14.

Exam 1 Version B


At a pH of 7, what charged group(s) are present in glycine? A. NH3+ B. COO C. NH2+ D. (A) and (B) E. (B) and (C) For the peptide, Ala-Arg-Asp-Ala-Asn-Ala, what would be the expected charges at pH 1, 7, and 13? A. +3, +2, -1 B. +2, -2, -1 C. +2, 0, -2 D. +2, -1, -2 Which amino acids contain reactive aliphatic hydroxyl groups? A. Serine and methionine. B. Serine and threonine. C. Methionine and threonine. D. Cysteine and threonine. Which is an appropriate statement of involvement of the hydrophobic effect in protein folding for water-soluble globular proteins? A. Polar portions of the molecule are generally exposed to solvent to interact effectively with water. B. Nonpolar portions of the molecule can be placed on the surface of the molecule only if hydrogen bonded to water. C. Nonpolar portions of the molecule associate with one another on the interior of the protein. Of the 20 amino acids from which proteins are made, which is most likely to be present with its R-group in a mixture of ionization states near physiological pH? A. Tyr B. His C. Glu





Questions 19-22: Hemoglobin (Chapter 7): 19. Which of the following is correct concerning fetal hemoglobin? A. Fetal hemoglobin binds 2, 3-BPG more tightly than normal adult hemoglobin. B. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen less than normal adult hemoglobin at all pO2. C. Fetal hemoglobin is composed of two and two subunits. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

Biochemistry 304 20.

Exam 1 Version B


The molecular consequences of the hemoglobin S (the abnormal form of hemoglobin responsible for sickle cell anemia) mutation are that A. The hemoglobin S forms aggregates and fibrous precipitates when oxygen is bound. B. The hemoglobin S forms aggregates and fibrous precipitates when oxygen is released. C. The hemoglobin S has a lower solubility and tends to precipitate in the lungs. Hemoglobin S, the abnormal form of hemoglobin responsible for sickle cell anemia, is the result of a mutation in the gene for the subunit. This mutation results in the change of A. a hydrophobic amino acid R group to a positively charged amino acid R group. B. a negatively charged amino acid R group to a hydrophobic amino acid R group. C. a negatively charged amino acid R group to a positively charged amino acid R group. Which of the following describes the Bohr Effect? A. Lowering the pH results in the release of O2 from oxyhemoglobin. B. Increasing the pressure of CO2 results in the release of O2 from oxyhemoglobin. C. Increasing the pH increases the T-form of hemoglobin. D. A and B. E. B and C.



Questions 23-31: Enzymes (basic concepts, kinetics, catalysis and regulation) (Chapters 8-10) 23. The common activator of the pancreatic zymogens is A. Trypsinogen. B. Chymotrypsin. C. Trypsin. D. Elastase. What do trypsin, subtilisin, and wheat carboxypeptidase II have in common? A. All bind hydrophobic amino acids. B. All contain a catalytic triad at the active site. C. All are synthesized in the pancreas. D. All contain a hydrophilic substrate-binding pocket. In this type of inhibition, the inhibitor can only bind to the ES complex to form an ESI complex. A. Competitive. B. Noncompetitive. C. Uncompetitive. D. None of the above. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme will A. Reduce the Michaelis constant (KM). B. Reduce the maximum velocity (Vmax). C. Increase the Michaelis constant (KM). D. Increase the maximum velocity (Vmax).




Biochemistry 304 27.

Exam 1 Version B


An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by A. Raising the energy of the products B. Raising the energy of the reactants C. Lowering the energy of the reactants D. Lowering the energy of activation Based on the active sites of cysteine proteases, aspartyl proteases, and metalloproteases, which would you expect might have a covalent intermediate involved in its mechanism? A. Aspartyl proteases. B. Cysteine proteases. C. Metalloproteases. Binding of a water molecule to the zinc ion in metalloproteases induces A. a hydronium ion to form. B. a large conformation change in the binding site. C. ionization of a His residue, which functions as a strong nucleophile. D. a lowered pKa for water, which leads to formation of a zinc bound hydroxide ion. If the presence of a specific compound, H, decreases the Vmax for an enzyme-substrate reaction, which of the following would be true? A. H would be a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. B. H would be an uncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C. H would be a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. D. With H present, the enzyme would convert substrate to product faster. Protein kinases generally regulate the activity of target proteins by transferring a phosphate group from ATP to what kind of functional group on the target protein? A. Carboxyl groups. B. Hydroxyl groups. C. Hydrophobic groups.





Questions 32-43: Carbohydrates (Chapter 11): 32. What linkages occur in glycogen? A. Alpha-1, 4. B. Alpha-1, 6. C. Beta-1, 4. D. A and B. E. B and C. Fructose can cyclize to (a) A. Pyranose ring. B. Furanose ring. C. Both pyranose and furanose ring forms. D. None of the above.


Biochemistry 304 34.

Exam 1 Version B


Which of the following polysaccharides contains branched chains? A. Amylose and amylopectin. B. Cellulose and amylopectin. C. Glycogen and amylose D. Glycogen and amylopectin. Formation of pyranose and furanose forms of sugar result in the generation of a new asymmetric carbon giving rise to - and - forms of the sugars. The carbon at which this newly created asymmetric center is generated is referred to as A. The epimeric carbon. B. The anomeric carbon. C. Carbon number 1 in the numbering scheme for sugars. Carbohydrates are? A. Polyhydroxy aldehydes. B. Polyhydroxy ketones. C. Polyhydroxy alcohols. D. A and B. E. A and C The processes of O-linked glycosylation A. Take place in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). B. Take place in the Golgi apparatus. C. Take place in both endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus. D-mannose and D-galactose are A. Enantiomers. B. Epimers. C. Anomers. D. None of the above. Each of the following substances is a glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Heparin B. Hyaluronate C. Ceramide D. Dermatan sulfate Which of the following are reducing sugars? A. Maltose. B. Lactose. C. Sucrose. D. A and B. E. A and C.







Biochemistry 304 41.

Exam 1 Version B


Hydrolysis of lactose by the enzyme lactase yields: A. Glucose only B. Fructose only C. Glucose and galactose D. Glucose and fructose Cellulose is not digested by humans because it A. is a relatively insoluble protein-carbohydrate complex inaccessible to our digestive enzymes. B. is a mucopolysaccharide, for which there are no hydrolytic enzymes. C. is highly sulfated, making it inaccessible to most glycosidases. D. is a polymer of linked glucose molecules for which we have no digestive enzymes. E. resists enzyme action because of its highly branched structure. Which of the following is the -D-galactopyranose?



B) C)


C) E)


D) B)






Questions 44-51: Nucleic Acids (Chapter 4): 44. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship of replication and transcription of DNA? A. Copies of both DNA strands are made during both processes. B. Replication requires both a template and a primer while transcription only requires a template. C. Both utilize the same nucleotides. D. None of the above. Features of the genetic code include A. a codon is defined by three bases. B. The code overlaps. C. The code is degenerate. D. A and B. E. A and C.


Biochemistry 304 46.

Exam 1 Version B


What is the nucleotide sequence on the DNA template strand that yields the CUA codon for leucine? A. GAT. B. AUC. C. TAG. D. TAG. Which of the following is a pyrimidine base that is present in RNA, but is NOT present in DNA? A. Guanine B. Uracil C. Thymine D. Cytosine Which of the following is a nucleotide? A. Uracil B. Ribose C. Adenosine D. Thymidylate Which of the following represents the two pyrimidine bases in DNA? A. Uracil and thymine B. Adenosine and uracil C. Cytosine and thymine D. Guanine and cytosine DNA is more resistant to hydrolysis than RNA. What feature of DNA is responsible for this characteristic? A. The difference in base composition between DNA and RNA. B. The difference in the backbone linkages in DNA and RNA. C. The absence of a 2'-hydroxyl group in deoxyribose. As a sample of DNA is heated, it is said to "melt". What is occurring? A. The DNA is converted from a solid to a liquid state. B. As hydrogen bonds are broken, the two strands separate. C. The large polymeric DNA is broken down into smaller pieces as the backbone is partially hydrolyzed.