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MB0027 - Human Resource Management

1. This study embodying behavioral science knowledge relating to the working of line and staff officials and
union leaders to motivate organizational goals.
a) Personnel Management
b) Human Resource Management
c) Production Management
d) All
2. In the opinion of _______,” Human Relations is the study and practice of utilizing human resources through knowledge
and through understanding of the activities, attitudes, sentiments and inter-relationships of people at work”.
a) Huneryager
b) Elton Mayo
c) F.J. Roethlisbrger
d) McFarland
3. Kautilya provides a systematic treatment of management of human resources as early as 14th century B.C. in
his treatise titled __________
a) Artha- Shastra
b) Shreni
c) Varnashram
d) None
4. ___________ is that phase of management, which deals with the effective control, and use of manpower.
a) HR Management
b) Operational Management
c) Personnel Management
d) None
5. Has been widely used to help women to be more direct in making known their demands for equal opportunity.
a) Assertiveness training
b) Management awareness training
c) Career development programmes
d) Promotion
6. Institute for Social Research, study those principles of leadership that were associated with _________
a) Reduces labor turnover
b) Highest productivity
c) Improving quality
d) Reduces absenteeism
7. In “Varnashram”or caste system, those individuals engaged in manual work were known as _________
a) Kshatriyas
b) Vaishyas
c) Shudras
d) Brahmins
8. In “Caste System”, individuals who used to earn their livelihood by engaging themselves in activities such s
teaching, sacrifice or stat management were designated as ________
a) Kshatriyas
b) Vaishyas
c) Shudras
d) Brahmins
9. In “Varnashram”, those individuals specializing in fighting were termed as __________
a) Shudras
b) Brahmins
c) Kshatriyas
d) Vaishyas
10. In ________, managers are more sensitive to their sexist attitudes and in changing their attitudes.
a) Human Relations
b) Selection policy
c) Management awareness training
d) Assertiveness training

11. Kautilya provides a discussion on _____ and _____ embracing job descriptions, incentive systems and performance evaluation.
a) Leadership and staffing
b) Staffing and personnel management
c) Directing and controlling
d) Staffing and production management
12. The concept of “Varnashram “or caste system was originally based on __________ principle
a) Divide and conquer
b) Division of labor
c) Justice and equality
d) None
13. Elton Mayo and F.J. Roethlisberger conducted experiment on human relations, their findings were ________
1) Economic incentives are more potent
2) Leadership practices and work-group pressures influence employee satisfaction and performance.
3) Any factor influencing employee behavior is embedded in a social system.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
14. HRM emphasizes on training, which covers the following aspects
1) Increase productivity
2) Improving quality
3) Improving organizational climate
4) Ensuring personnel growth
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1,2,3,4
15. An understanding of human behaviour are:
1. Enable manager to anticipate and prevent problems.
2. Assist the manager to develop a better realization of how his own attitudes and behaviour play a part in everyday affairs.
3. Develop keener sensitivity towards other people.
4. Reconciling manager’s interest and capabilities with the needs and goals of the organization.
5. Cast aside some mental luggage that increase mental load.
a) 1,3,4,5
b) 1,2,45
c) 2,3,4,5
d) 1, 2,3,4,5
16. According to ______ and ______, Human Relations is a systematic, developing body of knowledge devoted to
explaining the behaviour of individuals in the working organization”.
a) Huneryager and Hechmann
b) Halloran and McFarland
c) Elton Mayo and F.J. Roethlisberger
d) Jucius and Ginzberg
17. From the 14th century B.C. to the later half of the 10th century A.D., the relationships between the employer and
the employees were marked by _______ and ________
a) Master and slave
b) Justice and equality
c) Inter-related and inter-dependendent
d) None
18. During early British rules, there prevailed a _________ policy towards the business.
a) Divide and conquer
b) Division of labour
c) Laissez-faire
d) Justice and equality
19. The Head of Personnel Department is associated with ______ Management and helps it in the formulation of
personnel policies for the company.
a) Middle
b) Top
c) Lower
d) All
20. True or False:
1. Human Resource Management covers personnel aspects and include social, Professional and
individual enterprise aspects. (True)
2. Innovations in technology and production methods generally not require the restructuring of job roles and
responsibilities. (False)
3. Management awareness training and assertiveness training are the techniques related to the
development of human potential. (True)
4. When a human relationship exists in an organization, it is referred to s “public- human relations” and
when it exits outside it is known as employee-human relationship. (False)
5. Personnel Management focuses only on personnel aspects like justice determination, task
specialization, performance appraisal etc. (True)
6. Productivity is not associated markedly with the nature of human resources and their total environment consisting
of inter-related, inter- dependent and interacting economic and non-economic factors. (False)
21. True or False
1. A Human Relations Programme represents an attempt at improving employee morale and motivation
through employee participation in the decision – making process. (True)
2. Human Relations seek to emphasis ‘technical aspects rather than ‘employee’ aspect of work. (False)
3. Virtual disappearance of owner managers and the growth of professional mangers capable managing
according to professional code. (True)
4. The Hawthorne Studies found that productivity decreased when the level of illumination was
decreased almost to moonlight levels. (False).
5. “Human relation should emphasis ‘communication’ as a major function of management”. (True)
6. Human Relations emphasizes policies and techniques designed to improve employee morale and job satisfaction. (True)

22. In “Varnashram”or caste system, those individuals engaged in area of trade, business and agriculture were called ________
a) Vaishyas
b) Brahmins
c) Shudras
d) Kshatriyas
23. The Madras Labour Union Act was organized in ______________
a) 1922
b) 1920
c) 1919
d) 1918
24. According to ________act of 1881, the workers employed in the factories were allowed a week off day as well
as limiting the hours of works for women workers to eleven per day.
a) The Plantation Act
b) Indian Trade Unions Act
c) Factory Act
d) Mines Act
25. Human resources are wasted through ________
1) Obsolesces of skills
2) Better work opportunities
3) Good personnel policies
4) Hurdles of adjusting to change
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 4
26. The Personnel Department is responsible for many varied functions including ______________
1) Research and development
2) Wage and salary administration
3) Grievances handling
4) Safety and training
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
27. Every manager has to be prepared to deal with different changes effectively through ______ and _____ programs.
a) Training, cultural
b) Educational, development
c) Seminars, technical
d) All
28. According to Juicius,”the human factor’ refers to a whole consisting of inter-related, interdependent and inter-acting ____component
1) Physiological
2) Sociological
3) Psychological
4) Ethical
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
29 ________in management is a process that brings workers into contact with and causes them to be influenced
by their leaders, their jobs and other aspects of the organizations, which they work.
a) Planning
b) Direction
c) Human Relations
d) None
30. Management of _______ resource is the essence of being a manager who has to get things done through others.
a) Technical
b) Economic
c) Human
d) All
31. True or False
1. The physical resources will not give results unless the human resources are applied to them. (True)
2. The Plantation Act 1863 makes provision that if the workers failed to complete their period of
contract, they should be imprisoned for a period not exceeding three months. (True)
3. Human Relations in management is a process that brings workers into contact with and causes them to be
influenced by their leaders, their jobs and other aspects of the organizations, which they work. (True)
4. Human relations covers only inter – personal interactions. (False)
5. Management awareness training and assertiveness training deals with the problem of job
discrimination against men. (False)
6. The human resources have also been designated as human factors. (True)
7. Majority of the problems in organizational setting are physical, technical and economic rather human and social. (False)

32. ________ is the process by which a management determines how an organization should move from its current
manpower position to its desired manpower position.
a) Human Resource Planning
b) Staffing
c) Transfer
d) None
33. According to Wickstrom, Human Resource planning consists of a series of activities….
1) Forecasting future manpower requirements
2) An inventory of present manpower resources
3) Anticipating manpower problems
4) Planning necessary programs of promotion transfer.
a) 1,2
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,2,3,4
34. At the sector level, the Human Resource planning is done by central or State govt. and may cover needs of
_________, _____________, __________
a) Education facilities, occupational distribution, program of economic development.
b) Agricultural, industrial and service sector.
c) Heavy industries, consumer goods industries, public utility industries
d) All
35. According to ________,” the ultimate mission or purpose is to relate future human resources to future
enterprise need so as to maximize the future return on investment in Human Resource.
a) Wickstrom
b) Sikula
c) R. N. McMurry
d) Douglas McGregor
36. The process of Human Resource planning include various steps ________
1) Auditing Human Resources.
2) Developing a human resource
3) Planning job requirements and job description
4) Estimating future organizational structure
5) Deciding goals or objectives.
a) 2, 4,5,1,3
b) 1, 3,2,4,5
c) 5, 4,1,3,2
d) 1, 2,3,4,5
37. These interview are preliminary screening of applicants to decide whether more detailed interview will be worthwhile.
a) Patterned interview
b) Depth interview
c) Stress interview
d) Preliminary interview
38. The recruitment of supervisory personnel in all organized industries I generally by ______ from within the organization.
a) Promotion
b) Transfer
c) Reference
d) None
39. A particular sources of recruitment that permits some self-screening.
a) Advertising
b) Leasing
c) Professional institution
d) Nepotism
40. _______ interview is that helps to demonstrate important personality characteristics which would be difficult to
observe in tension-free situations.
a) Patterned interview
b) Depth interview
c) Stress interview
d) Preliminary interview
41. Reservation of _______of vacancies for scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates is an art of statutory requirement of India.
a) 50%
b) 30%
c) 25%
d) 20%
42. True or False:
1) Human Resource planning fulfills only organizational goals not individual or national goals. (False)
2) At the national level, Human Resource planning is done by Govt. and includes items population
projections, economic development, industrial and geographically mobility of labour. (True)
3) Matching the employee abilities to enterprise requirements, with an emphasis on present instead of
future arrangements. (False)
4) Nepotism has been widely used in office administration fields. (False)
5) The real purpose of recruitment to fill up vacancies. (False)
43. Cover the complete life history of the applicant and include the candidate’s work experience, qualification, health interest and hobbies.
a) Depth interview
b) Preliminary interview
c) Patterned interview
d) Stress interview
44. The _______ procedure is essentially a series of methods of securing pertinent information about the applicant.
a) Selection
b) Human Resource planning
c) Discipline
d) None
45. _______ is that systematic and chronological information is obtained and hence yields to statistical analysis.
a) Preliminary interview
b) Stress interview
c) Depth interview
d) Patterned interview
46. The factors led to accurate predictions of the candidate’s suitability for a particular position
1) Basic character traits
2) Motivation
3) Emotional maturity
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 3
47. A substantial amount of subjectivity and their unreliability is to be expected from ______ when used as a tool of evaluation.
a) Application blank
b) Physical examination
c) Induction
d) Interview
48. ________ procedure places reliance on the evaluation of former employers, friends and professional personnel.
a) Application blank
b) Check of references
c) Preliminary interview
d) None
49. _______ belongs to the hiring of relatives in family owned firms.
a) Employee referrals
b) Nepotism
c) Leasing
d) Unconsolidated applicants
50. It provides preliminary as well as aid in the interview by indicating areas of interest and discussion.
a) References
b) Preliminary interview
c) Application blank
d) All
51. True or False:
1) Recruiting should take into consideration ethical practices. (True)
2) Fill the higher vacancies from the labour market and lower level vacancies by promotion. (False)
3) The job specification and the applicant are not interrelated at each step in the selection procedure. (False)
4) The job analysis only includes job specification. (False)
5) The authority to select an employee comes from the employment requisition as developed through
analysis of the workload and work forces. (True)
52. It is process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.
a) Selection
b) Recruitment
c) Planning
d) None
53. _________ are combinations of direct and indirect questioning of the applicant.
a) Depth interview
b) Preliminary interview
c) Patterned interview
d) Stress interview
54. It is concerned with the problem of introducing or orienting a new employee to the organization.
a) Selection
b) Induction
c) Recruitment
d) None
55. Indicates any process by which the aptitude, skills and abilities of employees to perform specific jobs are increased.
a) Training
b) Motivation
c) Morale
d) Discipline
56. Trainees remember things that they _____, much longer than they do information they receive through talks or reading alone.
a) See and hear
b) Observe
c) Grasp
d) None
57. According to ____________________, there are three different purpose of learning.
1) Acquiring Intellectual Knowledge
2) Acquiring Manual Skills.
3) Acquiring Problem- solving skills.
a) A.D. Sinha
b) Douglas McGregor
c) Williams
d) Elton Mayo
58. The acquisition of a ________ requires practice or experience accompanied by feedback pure trial and error
learning can be speeded up by guidance.
a) Manual skill
b) Problem- solving skill
c) Intellectual knowledge
d) None
59. ______ a detailed analysis of the organization structure, objectives, human resources and future plans and an
understanding of its culture, milieu.
a) Man Analysis
b) Task Analysis
c) Organization Analysis
d) All
60. A trainer has to consider alternative methods of presenting training material to participants in order to stimulate
their _______ and facilitate retention of the matter.
a) Attention
b) Interest
c) Attitudes
d) All
61. The main objective of individual training methods are:
1) Developing interest
2) Appeal to senses
3) Demonstration value
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
62. It is a classroom training, which is often imparted with the help of equipment, and machines, which are
identical with those in use in the place of work.
a) Apprenticeship
b) Vestibule
c) Simulation
d) On the job training
63. For a ________, the essential requirements are
1) An adequate number of personnel.
2) Personnel performance is up to the required standard.
3) Effective working environment
a) Man Analysis
b) Organizational Analysis
c) Task Analysis
d) All
64. This technique enables the trainee to concentrate on learning the new skill rather than performing an actual job.
a) Simulation Method
b) Apprenticeship Programme
c) Off the job training
d) Vestibule training
65. Following are the disadvantages of ______ training program
1) Splitting of responsibilities
2) Additional investment in equipment, which can be duplicated
3) Training situation is somewhat artificial
a) Off the job
b) Vestibule training
c) Experiential Method
d) None
66. True or False
a) The most widely used classroom method for improving the problem- solving skills is the case method. (True)
b) Over and under emphasis on training stems largely from inadequate recognition and determination of
training needs and objectives. (True)
c) Training inputs can’t be used to effect changes of attitudes and consequently of the organizational climate. (False)
d) Demonstration Value method can be used effectively as an aid to overcome the “breakdown of communication”. (True)
e) Off the job training is appropriate for teaching the knowledge and skills, which can be acquired, in a
relatively short period. (False)
67. In ______ the workers are employed on a small stipend to learn the job first and after satisfactorily completing
the training they are absorbed in the industry.
a) Simulation Method
b) Apprenticeship Program
c) Knowledge Based method
d) Experiential Method
68. The emphasis in ___ is on achieving through group processes and dynamics a better understanding of one self and others.
a) Simulation Method
b) Knowledge based Method
c) Experiential Method
d) Apprenticeship Program
69. Acc to _____” Management development is the development of management over and above its science and
theory of its practice and application in organization.
a) Whiting Williams
b) B. Filippo
c) Paul D. Standohar
d) Dr. B.K. Madan
70. In ________an effort is made to expose participants to concepts and theories, basic principles and pure and
applied knowledge in any subject area.
a) Knowledge based method
b) Experiential method
c) Simulation Method
d) None
71. The categories of the method ________ are lectures, seminars, workshops, films training etc.
a) Experiential method
b) Knowledge method
c) Simulation method
d) All
72. The _____ training helps an individual to improve his comprehension of self, others, group behaviors and personal interaction.
a) Attitudinal
b) Vestibule
c) Off the job
d) All
73. The advantage of ___________ methods are
1) The hiring cost is lower
2) The loyalty of employees is increased
3) Immediate returns can be expected.
a) Apprenticeship
b) Stimulation
c) Knowledge- based methods
d) Experiential Methods
74. _________ is a technique, which duplicates, as nearly as possible, the actual conditions encountered on a job.
a) Knowledge based method
b) Stimulation
c) Apprenticeship method
d) Experiential method.
75. _________ is the act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job.
a) Discipline
b) Job analysis
c) Job specification
d) Training
76. True or False:
a) Vestibule training attempts to duplicate on –the – job situations in a company classroom. (True)
b) The advantage of using the vestibule- training system is the disadvantages of specialization. (True)
c) For analyzing the organization climate, the direct methods are observation, questionnaires and interviews. (True)
d) Training external to the employing unit sometimes teaches techniques on methods contrary to
practices of the participant’s organization. (True)
77. _______ entails a detailed examination of a job, its components, its various operations and the conditions
under which it has to be performed.
a) Man Analysis
b) Organizational Analysis
c) Task Analysis
d) All
78. Training enables employees to develop and rise within the organization and increase their ______
1) Market value
2) Earning value
3) Job security
4) Economical use of material and equipment.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1,2,3,4
79. For evaluating the training the following outcomes can be measured
1) Reaction
2) Learning
3) Behavior
d) Results
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1,2,3,4
d) None
80. The result obtained are plotted on a graph to determine whether changes have occurred as a result of the training program.
a) Longitudinal Analysis
b) Structured Interview
c) Both
d) None
81. According to ________ “, Discipline is the force that prompts an individual or a group to observe the rules,
regulations which are deemed to be necessary to the attainment of an objective.
a) Dr. Spriegal
b) Brenblett
c) Calhoon.Richard .D.
d) None
82. In the broad sense means orderliness- the opposite of confusion
a) Training
b) Leadership
c) Discipline
d) All
83. According to whom ”Discipline means orderliness – the opposite of confusion.
a) Dr. Spriegal
b) Brenblett, Earl R
c) Calhoon. Richard .D.
d) None
84. Discipline means
1. It is the training that corrects moulds, strengthens or perfects.
2. It is the control gained by enforcing obedience.
3. It is the punishment or chastisement.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
85. True or False:
1. Discipline might be described as orderly conduct based on definite standards catalyzed by effective leadership. (True)
2. Discipline measures should not be based on certain principles. (False)
3. Rules should be uniformly enforced if they are to be effective. (True)
4. All the rules should be appraised after long duration. (False)
5. Rules should not vary with changes in the working conditions of employees. (False)
6. A disciplinary policy should have as its objectives of the prevention rather than punitive. (True)
86. Charge sheet is based upon a ___________ complaint against the employee in question.
a) Written
b) Oral
c) a and b both
d) None
87. Definite and precise provisions for appeal and review of all disciplinary actions should be mentioned in the for collective agreements.
a) Notice Boards
b Handbook
c) Bulletin Boards
d) None
88. In serious cases, which warrant discharge or suspension, the ________ should be consulted.
a) Personnel Officer
b) Line Executive
c) Industrial Relations Officer
d) All
89. True or False:
1. While giving the punishment the seniority or the position of the employee must be considered. (False)
2. If the penalty is imposed long after a violation of rules has been committed, it loses its positive and
corrective influence. (True)
3. The punishment should be commensurate with the gravity of the offence. (True)
4. The main objective of a disciplinary is to ensure that the wrong – doer is punished, or held up to
ridicule and not that a wrong behaviour is corrected. (False)
5. Discharge is the most severe penalty that a business organization can give and constitutes “industrial
capital punishment. (True)
90. The request for the extension of time for the submission of explanations should be considered in good
________in accordance with the rules of natural justice.
a) Experience
b) Faith
c) Leadership
d) Supervision
91. According to _________ of the Indian Constitution, “no person shall be dismissed or removed from the service until he has
been given a reasonable opportunity to show causes as to why the proposed action should not be taken against him.
a) 310
b) 312
c) 311
d) 315
92. The punishment to be awarded should be such as would prevent a __________of the offence
a) Reoccurrence
b) Recurrence
c) a and b both
d) None
93. According to this theory, wages are determined not by subsistence level but also by the standard of living to
which a class of laborers becomes habituated.
a) Residual claimant theory
b) The wage fund theory
c) Subsistence theory
d) Standard of living theory
94. Which theory is also known as ‘Iron Law of Wages’?
a) Subsistence theory
b) Demand and supply theory.
c) The bargaining theory of wages
d) Purchasing power theory
95. True or False:
1. A disciplinary action should be evaluated in terms of its effectiveness. (True)
2. The Line Executives should issue only verbal and written warnings. (True)
3. It is essential that the rules and regulations regarding discipline are properly and carefully formulated
and communicated to the employees. (True)
4. Identical punishment should be awarded for different offences. (False)
5. “Let the punishment fit the crime” is appropriate when disciplining the employee. (True)
96. Arrange the steps in proper order for taking the disciplinary action
1. Collection of data or facts bearing on the case.
2. Follow – up on the disciplinary action.
3. Choice of penalty.
4. An accurate statement of the disciplinary problem.
5. Selection of tentative penalties to be imposed.
6. Application of the penalty.
a) 2,3,4,1,5
b) 6, 5, 4,3,2,1
c) 4, 1, 2,3,5,6
d) 4, 1, 5,3,6,2
97. In ______ method of job evaluation, jobs are compared one with another and arranged or valued in the order of
their importance or their difficulty.
a) Point
b) Time-span
c) Ranking method
d) Guide-chart profile method
98. Indicates the specific duties to be performed by the worker and the circumstances under which these duties are to be performed.
a) Job analysis
b) Job description
c) Job Evaluation
d) All
99. In this theory, wages tend to settle at a level just sufficient to maintain the workers and his family at minimum subsistence levels.
a) Marginal productivity theory
b) The wage fund theory
c) Subsistence theory
d) Standard of living theory
100. In this theory, the total wage fund and the number of workers determine the average worker’ share in the form of wages.
a) Demand and supply theory
b) The wage fund theory
c) Marginal productivity theory
d) Purchasing power theory
101. Wage and salary administration is concerned with financial aspects of __________
1) Needs
2) Motivation
3) Rewards
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 1,2,3
102. ______ holds that the prosperity, productivity and progress of industry depend on there being sufficient
demand to ensure the sale of its products and pocketing of reasonable profits.
a) Demand and supply theory
b) Residual claimant theory
c) Purchasing power theory
d) The bargaining theory of wages
103. ______ is determined by a set of personal and job factors, include worker’s health, length of service,
intelligence, skill and other personality or temperamental factors.
a) Job Evaluation
b) Job satisfaction
c) Job specification
d) None

104. _________ as the process of analysis and assessment of jobs to ascertain reliably their worth.
a) Job analysis
b) Job description
c) Job Evaluation
d) All
105. Quantative evaluation measures include
1) The ranking system
2) The point system
3) The job classification system
4) The factor comparison system
a) 1,2
b) 2, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1, 3
106. Match the following:
SET A SET B
1) Subsistence theory was propounded by a) John Davidson. (3)
2) Fixed Periodical payment b) Wages. (4)
3) The bargaining theory of wages was propounded by c) David Ricardo (1)
4) Money paid for services rendered d) Salary. (2)
107. The major determinants of job satisfactions are ___________
1. The facility in which the individual reacts to unpleasant situations.
2. The facility with which he adjusts himself to other persons.
3. The nature of work not in relation to the man’s abilities, interest.
4. Security.
5. His relative status in the social and economic group with which he identifies himself.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4,5
c) 3,4
d) 1,2,4,5
108. The main objectives of the job evaluation Programme
1) Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.
2) Sound wage differentials between jobs.
3) Elimination of wage inequalities.
4) Creation of a method of job classification
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,2,3,4
d) 1,4
109. Non-quantitative evaluation measure include
1) The ranking system
2) The point system
3) The job classification system
4) The factor comparison system
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 3,4
d) 1,3
110. According to which theory, wags represent the amount of value created in the production, which remains after
payment has been made for all factors of production.
a) Residual claimant theory
b) Demand and supply theory.
c) The bargaining theory of wages
d) Purchasing power theory

111. Francis A. Walker (1840-1897) propounded _________ theory.


a) The wage fund theory
b) Subsistence theory
c) Residual claimant theory
d) Marginal productivity theory

112. True or false:


1. Subsistence theory was propounded by David Ricardo (1772-1823). (True)
2. Wage and salary administration is to establish and maintain an equitable wage and salary structure and
not equitable labour –cost structure. (False)
3. The payment towards manual or mechanical work is referred to as salary. (False)
4. Salary is commonly understood as price of labour. (False)
5. Wages are determined by the value of the gross product of the marginal unit of labour employed. (False)
113. This method depends upon recognition that there are differences in the level of duties, responsibilities and
skills required for the performance of different jobs.
a) Point
b) Time-span
c) Grade description
d) Guide-chart profile method
114. In ________method, the higher in the hierarchy of organizational structure of jobs the longer the period before
the results of a decision are scrutinized for adequacy.
a) Point
b) Time-span
c) Ranking method
d) Guide-chart profile method
115. Which type of promotion limit a person’s contact with other department and does not permit him enhance hi knowledge.
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Both a, b
d) None
116. True or false:
1) In horizontal promotion, employees are promoted from one rank to next higher rank in the same department. (False)
2) All job evaluation depends heavily on job analysis and job description. (True)
3) The job is personal and the positional is impersonal. (False)
4) Many positions may involve the same assignment of duties. (True)
5) Job analysis provides the essential information on which each job is evaluated. (False)
117. Match the following:
1) Non-quantitative evaluation measure a) uniform from one period to the next. (3)
2) Wages b) job- classification system. (1)
3) Salary c) is a written record of the duties, responsibilities of the job. (4)
4) Job description d) calculated according to the number of hours employed. (2)
5) Quantitative evaluation measures e) The factor- comparison system (5)
6) Time span method propounded by f) E.J. Benge. (7)
7) Factor-comparison propounded by g) Professor Jaques. (6)
118. According to __________ morale is “ the sum total of several psychological qualities which include courage,
fortitude, resolution and confidence.
a) Dale Yoder
b) Joseph D. Mooney
c) Haimann
d) Edwin B. Filippo
119. It is based on the hypothesis that employee’s answer to certain questions will reveal their attitudes.
a) Unguided interview
b) Guided interview
c) Questionnaire
d) None
120 True or False:
1. The building of morale is a mechanical problem that could be solved by either rewards or punishment. (False)
2. Job enrichment tries to deal with dissatisfaction by increasing job depth. (True)
3. Morale can be improved by effective profit –sharing schemes. (True)
4. Perceptive managers notice deterioration in the morale of the employees only when they become obvious. (False)
5. Motivation aims at transforming “the will to do “ into “the ability to do”. (False)
6. Drives are action- oriented and provide an energizing thrust toward goal accomplishment. (True)
7. Theory Z is equivalent to a “Contingency Theory of Motivation”. (True)

121. ________ is method is generally used to collect employee opinions about the factors, which affect morale and
their effect on personnel objectives.
a) Guided interview
b) Unguided interview
c) Conducting the survey
d) The questionnaire method
122. The act of stimulating someone to take a desired course of action to push the right button to get a desired reaction.
a) Morale
b) Leadership
c) Motivation
d) All
123. James Driver says that, motivation means the phenomenon involved in the operation of _______ and ______
a) Level of aspiration and degree of commitment
b) Incentives and drives
c) Job enrichment and flexing working of hours.
d) None

124. The theory is based on the assumptions that the supervisor has a low opinion of the worker and still lower expectations from them.
a) Theory Y
b) Theory X
c) Theory Z
d) All
125. The theory relies heavily on self-control and self-direction.
a) Theory Z
b) Theory X
c) Theory Y
d) None
126. According to _______ “, Discipline is the force that prompts an individual or a group to observe the rules,
regulations which are deemed to be necessary to the attainment of an objective.
a) Dr. Spriegal
b) Brenblett
c) Calhoon. Richard .D.
d) None
127. Job context variables are
1) Supervision
2) Job security
3) Status
4) Recognition
5) Advancement
a) 2,4
b) 3,4,5
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,4,5
128. Job content variables are
1) Growth in the job
2) Achievement
3) Challenging Work
4) Administration
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2
c) 1,4
d) 1,2,3
129. According to P.T. Young, motivation is the process
1) Of arousing or initiating bahaviour
2) Of sustaining an activity in progress
3) Of channeling of activity in the given course
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 1,2,3

130. Rearrange the steps of motivation


1) Selecting and applying the appropriate motivator.
2) Follow- up the results of the application.
3) Prepare a set of motivating tools.
4) Size up situation requiring motivation.
a) 3,2,14
b) 2,1,34
c) 1,4,32
d) 4,3,1,2
131. In the broad sense means orderliness- the opposite of confusion ”
a) Training
b) Leadership
c) Discipline
d) All
132. According to whom ______”Discipline means orderliness the opposite of confusion.
a) Dr. Spriegal
b) Brenblett, Earl R
c) Calhoon.Richard .D.
d) None
133. Discipline means __________
1. It is the training that corrects moulds, strengthens or perfects.
2. It is the control gained by enforcing obedience.
3. It is the punishment or chastisement.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
135. True or False:
1. Discipline might be described as orderly conduct based on definite standards catalyzed by effective leadership. (True)
2. Discipline measures should not be based on certain principles. (False)
3. Rules should be uniformly enforced if they are to be effective. (True)
4. All the rules should be appraised after long duration. (False)
5. Rules should not vary with changes in the working conditions of employees. (False)
6. A disciplinary policy should have as its objectives of the prevention rather than punitive. (True)
136. Charge sheet is based upon a __________ complaint against the employee in question.
a) Written
b) Oral
c) a and b both
d) None
137. Definite and precise provisions for appeal and review of all disciplinary actions should be mentioned in the for collective agreements.
a) Notice Boards
b Handbook
c) Bulletin Boards
d) None
138. In serious cases, which warrant discharge or suspension, the _________ should be consulted.
a) Personnel Officer
b) Line Executive
c) Industrial Relations Officer
d) All
139. True or False:
1. While giving the punishment the seniority or the position of the employee must be considered. (False)
2. If the penalty is imposed long after a violation of rules has been committed, it loses its positive and
corrective influence. (True)
3. The punishment should be commensurate with the gravity of the offence. (True)
4. The main objective of a disciplinary is to ensure that the wrong – doer is punished, or held up to
ridicule and not that a wrong behaviour is corrected. (False)
5. Discharge is the most severe penalty that a business organization can give and constitutes “industrial
capital punishment. (True)

140. The request for the extension of time for the submission of explanations should be considered in good ______
in accordance with the rules of natural justice.
a) Experience
b) Faith
c) Leadership
d) Supervision
141. According to _________ of the Indian Constitution, “no person shall be dismissed or removed from the service until he has
been given a reasonable opportunity to show causes as to why the proposed action should not be taken against him.
a) 310
b) 312
c) 311
d) 315
142. The punishment to be awarded should be such as would prevent a __________ of the offence
a) Reoccurrence
b) Recurrence
c) a and b both
d) None
143. True or False:
1. A disciplinary action should be evaluated in terms of its effectiveness. (True)
2. The Line Executives should issue only verbal and written warnings. (True)
3. It is essential that the rules and regulations regarding discipline are properly and carefully formulated
and communicated to the employees. (True)
4. Identical punishment should be awarded for different offences. (False)
5. “Let the punishment fit the crime” is appropriate when disciplining the employee. (True)
144. Arrange the steps in proper order for taking the disciplinary action
1. Collection of data or facts bearing on the case.
2. Follow – up on the disciplinary action.
3. Choice of penalty.
4. An accurate statement of the disciplinary problem.
5. Selection of tentative penalties to be imposed.
6. Application of the penalty.
a) 2,3,4,1,5
b) 6, 5, 4,3,2,1
c) 4,1,2,3,5,6
d) 4,1,5,3,6,2
145. According to ________ grievance as “a written complaint filled by an employee claiming unfair treatment”.
a) Dale Yoder
b) Prof. Pigors
c) Prof. Jucious
d) International Labour organization
146. The National Commission of Labour states that complaint affecting one or more individual workers in respect of there
1) Overtime
2) Leave
3) Transfer
4) Seniority
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 3, 4
d) 1,2,3,4
147. Rearrange the steps for handling a grievance
1) Get the facts
2) Follow Up
3) Apply the answer
4) Analyze and divide
5) Receive and define the nature of the dissatisfaction
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
c) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
d) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

148. True or False:


a) The superior who are people oriented rather than task oriented can handle the grievance easily. (False)
b) A grievance machinery is usually thought of in connection with accompany that deals with a labour union. (True)
c) The line manager assumes prime responsibility for the settlement of a grievance. (True)
d) Business agents are specialists in union-management negotiation. (True)
149. A grievance should be deal within the limits of the __________
a) Managers
b) First Line supervisors
c) Labour Union
d) None
150. The clearest opportunity for settlement is found at the first stage before the grievance has left the jurisdiction of the
a) Management
b) Labour union
c) Supervisors
d) All
151. The objective of the ___________ is to resolve a disagreement between an employee and the organization
a) Arbitration
b) Leadership
c) Grievance Procedure
d) All
152. An _______ is an outside third party who is brought into settle a dispute, and have the authority to make a decision.
a) Business agents
b) A representative of International union
c) Industrial relation executives
d) Arbitrator
153. Kimball Young defines a group as “two or more persons in a state of _________
a) Common objective
b) Common interest
c) Social interaction
d) None
154. _________ provided by the group through friendship between individuals with in it.
a) Egoistic needs
b) Cognitive needs
c) Functional needs
d) Affiliative needs
155. Needs such as aid in daily activities help in the adjustment to work routine, or even the avoidance of boredom can be met by group
a) Affiliative needs
b) Egoistic needs
c) Functional needs
d) Cognitive needs
156. These are the characteristics of ________ work group.
1) Sanctioned by some authority
2) Prescribed division of labour
3) Stable and consistent personal interactions
a) Informal
b) Formal
c) Both
d) None
157. Informal group help to support their member and to protect them from ……
a) Outside pressure
b) Authority
c) Hostile work environment
d) All
158. People interacting with a parent ego are protective, dogmatic, and __________
a) Evaluative and righteous
b) Equal, worthy
c) Rebellious, selfish
d) None

159. True or False:


a) The word ‘dynamic’ derived from a Greek word, which means ‘force’. (True)
b) According to W.J.H. Sprott,”Norms are the ought of bahaviour”. (False)
c) Cognitive needs are satisfied by motivation. (True)
d) The end goal of the manager’s organizing responsibility is to create informal work group. (False)
e) The informal group can also be a source of status or prestige for the membership. (True)
160. Is the degree of attraction that the group has for each of its members.
a) Status
b) Group Cohesiveness
c) Group Norms
d) All
161. The ________ego is based upon reason and seeking and procession information and on factual discussion.
a) Parent
b) Child
c) Adult
d) None
162. _____________ is concerned with the interactions and forces between the group members in a social situation.
a) Group Cohesiveness
b) Formal Hierarchy
c) Group Dynamics
d) All
163. According to ________ a group consists of two or more persons who share norms about certain things with
one another and whose social roles are closely interlocking.
a) Kimball Young
b) T.M. Newcomb
c) W.J.H. Sprott
d) Sherif
164. Established the Research Centre for Group Dynamics in 1945.
a) Kurt Lewin
b) Dorwin
c) Kimball young
d) Thomas Hurrel
165. A member’s ___________ to participate influences needs satisfaction.
a) Perceived goal Attainment
b) Status Consensus
c) Perceived Freedom to Participate
d) None
166. True or False:
a) People interact with each other in terms of their psychological position or behavioral pattern known as ego status. (True)
b) There exists a close parallelism between the personality traits of the group member and the syntality traits of the group. (True)
c) Dorwin Cartwright has stressed the importance of group dynamics particularly in the context of resistant to change. (False)
d) Group decision-making is not very helpful in gaining acceptance and commitment. (False)
167. The relationship in which one-person influences other to work together willingly on related task to attain that level which he desires.
a) Leadership
b) Motivation
c) Discipline
d) None
168. This theory assumes that the capacity for leadership is inherent _________ that great leader are born not made.
a) Trait
b) Participative
c) Relational
d) Great Man
169. The style of leadership is effective in situation where group member are highly qualified in an area of
expertise, it often leads to poorly define roles and a lack of motivation.
a) Democratic
b) Delegative
c) Autocratic
d) All

170. The term transformational leadership was first coined by J.V. Downton in __________
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
171. The degree to which the leader challenges assumptions, take risks and solicits follower’s ideas ________
a) Intellectual stimulation
b) Charisma or idealized influence
c) Inspirational Motivation
d) Individualized attention.
172. The theory of leadership are based upon the belief that great leaders are made, not born.
a) Participative
b) Great Man
c) Trait
d) Behavioural
173. This theory focuses on the role of supervision, organization and group performance.
a) Management
b) Relation
c) Situational
d) None
174. Following are the features belongs to which style:
1) Does only enough to preserve job and job seniority.
2) Gives little and enjoys little.
3) Protects himself by not being noticed by others.
a) The produce or perish style.
b) The team style
c) The middle of the road style
d) The impoverished style
175. Charismatic rule is often found in various _________
1) Authoritarian states
2) Autocracies
3) Dictatorships
4) Theocracies
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3,4
d) 1,3
176. These leaders seem to have a great sense of strategic vision and a capacity to convey the essence and viability
of that to a broad group of people.
a) Sensing opportunity and formulating a vision
b) Articulating the vision
c) Achieving the vision.
d) None
177. Match the following:
1) Forces in the manager a) Need for immediate decision under pressure mitigates against participation. (4)
2) Forces in the subordinate b) Team holds organizational values and tradition. (2)
3) Forces in the subordinates c) Belief in team members participation and confidence in capabilities of members.
4) Time pressure d) Tolerant of ambiguity, competent, identify with organizational goals. (3)
178. This theory often identify particular personality or behavioural characteristics shared by leader
a) Contingency
b) Trait
c) Management
d) Situational
179. This theory of leadership focus on particular variables related to the environment that might determine which
particular style of leadership is best suited for the situation.
a) Situational
b) Behavioral
c) Participative
d) Contingency
180. The leader provides clear expectation for what needs to be done, when it should be done and how it should be done.
a) Democratic
b) Autocratic
c) Laissez- Fair
d) All
181. True of false:
a) A leader is concerned only with the task not with the people with whom he is working. (False)
b) According to management theory people can learn to become leader through teaching or observation. (False)
c) Charismatic leaders can be agents of destruction ad can lead to disastrous outcomes. (True)
d) Management theories also known as transformational theory. (False)
e) Transformational leaders are focused on the performance of good members, but also want each person
to fulfill his or her potential. (True)
f) Relationship theories also known as Transactional theory. (False)
182. Match the following:
1) The Diplomat a) Identifies himself with his subordinate even at the risky moment. (3)
2) The Autocrat b) Self-centered and interested in his own narrow field. (4)
3) The Quarter Back c) Sticks to routine, pleases to superiors. (5)
4) The Expert d) Opportunist who exploits subordinates. (1)
5) The Bureaucrat e) Directive and expects obedience from followers. (2)
183. The leader makes decision independently with little or no input from the rest of the group.
a) Democratic
b) Autocratic
c) Laissez- Fair
d) All
184. In ________ theories, the leader retain the right to allow the input of other
a) Great Man
b) Participative
c) Trait
d) Relationship
185. This style of leadership is applied where there is little time for group decision making.
a) Democratic
b) Authoritarian
c) Delegative
d) None
186. Leader offer guidance to group members, but they also participate in the group and allow input from the group members.
a) Democratic
b) Laissez- Fair
c) Autocratic
d) All
187. The leaders offer little or no guidance to group members and leave decision making up to group members.
a) Democratic
b) Laissez- Fair
c) Autocratic
d) All
188. Match the following:
1) The impoverished style a) Uses this style to pressure their employees through rule and punishment. (3)
2) The team style b) Manager have low concern for people and production. (1)
3) The produce or perish style c) Try to balance between company goals and worker’s needs. (5)
4) The country club style d) High concern for people and a low concern for production. (4)
5) The middle- of – the road style e) Encourage teamwork and commitment among employees. (2)
189. This leadership theory focuses on the actions of leader, not on mental qualities or internal state.
a) Situational
b) Relational
c) Behavioral
d) All

190. True or False:


a) Transformational leader often have high ethical and moral standards. (True)
b) Positive is power over the people and negative is power through the people. (False)
c) Transactional leaders offer a purpose that transcends short –term goals and focuses on higher order intrinsic needs. (False)
d) Management involved power by influence. (False)
e) Leadership involves power by position (False)
f) The accommodating leader is almost incapable of employing the more punitive and legitimate powers. (True)
191. Douglas McGregor published his thesis “ Human side of Enterprise “ in ________
a) 1961
b) 1959
c) 1960
d) 1958
192. True or False:
1) The autocratic leaders gives subordinate a greater degree of delegation in decision making while the democratic
leader are more likely to make their own decisions and not engage their subordinates. (False)
2) The produce or perish style is based on theory X of Douglas McGregor. (True)
3) The status –Quo leader uses the middle-of-the-road style to achieve acceptable performance. (True)
4) The sound/team leader leads by positive example and endeavors to foster a team environment in
which all team members can reach their highest potential, both s tem members and as people. (True)
5) Grid theory makes behaviors as tangible and objective as any other corporate commodity. (True)
6) In impoverished style, a leader uses a “delegate and disappear” management style. (True)
193. The Managerial Grid Model is a behavioral leadership model developed by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton.
a) 1963
b) 1964
c) 1962
d) 1961

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