September 2004 Paper 1 MCQs

1. In the preparation of Premolar class I cavity what is the best way of getting retention, A. Slightly done undercut of the mesial and distal walls B. Slightly done undercut of the buccal and lingual walls C. The convergence of the cavity walls 2. In respect to Class V A. it occurs on the buccal groove (fissure) B. it occurs on the lingual groove (fissure) C. it is a result of bad oral hygiene 3. After the placement of a class I amalgam the patient comes back to you complaining of pain on masticating and biting; what is the first thing you would look at, A. Occlusal height B. Contacts areas 4. Child comes to your clinic with a fractured incisor 3 mm super-gingival, how would you treat the case, A. Formocretasol pulpotomy B. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy C. Pulpectomy D. Direct capping E. Indirect capping 5. What is Ante’s Law about, A. The relation between the span of the bridge and the poetics B. The periodontal area of the abutment teeth C. The relation between the length of the root and the abutment. 6. What is the best way to cement Maryland bridge, A. GIC B. Resin C. High compression restorative resin D. Zinc Phosphate cement E. Oxide Zinc and eugenol 7. The ideal length of core in the fabrication of crown and core of endodontically treated tooth is, A. 1.5 of crown length B. The length of the crown C. 2/3 tooth/root length D. ½ root length 8. If aesthetic is not a concern what is the first thing to do to treat soreness under dentures, A. Take the denture off for a week B. Rinse the denture in nystatin C. Apply tissue conditioner 9. While you finishing a class I cavity, the enamel is sound but you noticed in the dentine and on the Dento-enamel junction a brown line, what is your response, A. You leave it and complete the final restoration B. You extend you preparation and clean it C. You apply a cover of varnish 10. Dental caries of the proximal surfaces are usually start at, A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area B. Just gingival to contact areas C. Just about the gingival margin 11. What is the property of high copper amalgam A. Reduced physical creep B. Higher retention 12. In regards to colours what is Chroma stands for, A. Degree of saturation of hue B. Brightness C. Value D. Contrast 13. Frankfort plane extends from, A. horizontally from Sella to nasion B. Sagittal from ….

C. Horizontally from point on superior aspect of external auditory meatus to orbitale 14. Which of the following local anaesthetic is indicated in case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation, A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine) 15. In respect to Lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 vasoconstrictor, A. The toxic threshold is 22ml B. 8.8 ml is the maximum you can give in one session 16. Which one of this restorative method will be LEAST compromised by a core, A. Amalgam B. Composite C. GIC D. Cast gold 17. In preparing a very small proximal amalgam cavity on a molar tooth what would consider, A. Extend the cavity to the gingival margin B. Extend the cavity beyond the contacts areas C. Achieve at least 2mm in dentine D. Extend cavity just beyond dento enamel junction 18. What is true about partial dentures, A. They cause an immediate changes in the oral plaque behaviour B. Night wearing of dentures reduces plaque accumulation C. Relieving the gingival area reduces the gingival enlargement. 19. The biting load of denture base to tissues compared to teeth are, A. Ten times more B. Ten times less C. Equal 20. Compound is, A. Very accurate compression material B. Thermoplastic material 21. the different between normal stone and the dye stone is, A. In the particles size B. The amount of water 22. What sort of reaction happens in the GIC restorations, A. Acid Base reaction 23. A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled with Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks, what your initial management will be, A. Remove the restorative material and start an Endontic treatment B. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative temporary material C. Place a coat of bonding material on the old composite 24. Throbbing pain increases with heat and cold stimuli, the MOST probable diagnosis is, A. Cyst B. Occlusal trauma C. Advanced pulpitis 25. In making your custom trays which of the following is true, A. A uniform thickness is required B. Perforation is better C. Only adhesive is better than perforation 26. The beam that leaves the target is called, A. The primary X-ray B. The electrons C. The secondary rays D. X-rays photons 27. The most common cause of caries in children is, A. Soft diet B. High intake of carbohydrate C. Poor oral hygiene 28. The best storage media for avulsed tooth is, A. Saline B. Milk C. Water D. Saliva

29. An occlusal approaching clasp TIP, A. Should occupy a predetermined undercut B. Contact the tooth under the survey line C. Rigid 30. In the construction of partial denture the surveyor is not used to, A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working cast B. Locate the guide planes C. Determine the location of indirect retainers D. Identify any undesirable undercuts 31. The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over ….. rubber is, A. Retains high flow B. Prevents the colonization of Candida albicans C. Resilient in long run D. Better bond strength 32. The main purpose of finishing the enamel walls is, A. Remove loose enamel rods B. Provide a better surface for the adoption of restorative material 33. A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent pain in heavily restored central incisor; you suspect pulpitis and you have been told that she is in transit leaving by plane next day. Your treatment will be, A. Remove filling and place a sedative dressings B. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix dressings C. Prescribe analgesics and systemic antibiotic 34. which of the following is true regarding TMJ dysfunction, A. It is always due to arthritis, should be treated with NSAIDS before attempting surgery B. Raising bite increases the space in the joint and should be attempted before surgery C. It is mostly due to the medial movement of the condylar head over the glenoid fossa 35. the location of Class V is in, A. The buccal pit /fissure/ B. The occlusal surface C. The cervical third 36. Occlusal cavity with extension of the buccal fissure is classified as, A. Class II B. Class III C. Class I 37. Which of the following does not affect the elasticity of retentive clasp? A. Length of the arm B. The cross section shape C. The material used D. The undercut area 38. Following calcium hydroxide pulpotomy, the dentist would expect dentine bridge to form at, A. The exact level of amputation B. Level some where below the amputation C. Half way between amputation and apex D. At the apical region of the tooth 39. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future recession of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least minimised by, A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice B. Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one third of the crown C. Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown D. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown 40. A partial denture that seats on the master cast but fails to seat correctly in the mouth is a result of, A. Contraction of the metal framework during casting B. Insufficient expansion of the investment material C. Distortion of impression D. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts 41. Which of the following muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture? A. Mentalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator oris

E. Temporalis 42. Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on the articulator without face-bow and you decided to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm. this will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4 mm B. A new centric relation record C. Changes in the condylar guide settings D. Increase in the vertical dimension 43. What is correct in regards to high copper amalgam, A. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its dispersion properties B. Reacts to form copper-tin phase thereby eliminating the tin-mercury phase C. Reacts to form copper-silver phase thereby eliminating the silver mercury phase D. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its grain diffusion 44. What is the best way to get optimum adoption of ceramic to metal, A. Slow firing B. High compression 45. What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal obturation material? A. For their antibiotic action B. For their antiinflammatory action C. To relief pulp pressure 46. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Smoker’s Keratosis? A. Typically affects the hard palate B. Minor mucous glands are swollen with red orifices C. There is a little regression if smoking is stopped

September 2004 Paper 2 MCQs

1. The blood supply to the denture bearing areas of the maxilla A. Superior Maxillary artery B. Grand/greater palatine artery 2. What could be MOST cariogenic, A. Consuming a lot of carbohydrate with meals B. Consuming a lot of elective sweets during meals C. Excessive consumption of sugar soft drinks all day D. Consumption of elective sweets between meals 3. 13 years old boy comes to you with excessive hyperplasia of the gingiva as a result of Phenytoin what is your management, A. Stop the medication B. Force a strict oral hygiene and surgical removal of excess gingival tissues C. Debridement and conservative approach 4. During swallowing, a) suprahyoid muscles relax b) masseter contract c) tongue touches the palate A. a and b B. a and c C. b and c D. none of the above E. all of the above 5. White man 56 years old comes to you with a brown spot on his gingiva and another one on his oral mucosa, when taking the history he mentioned a weight and memory lost. He as well complains of headaches. What is your most probable diagnosis, A. Addison’s disease B. Hyperthyroidism 6. While removing the second primary molar of 9 years old child, the apical ¼ of the root fracture and stay in the socket, A. You will just leave it and observe it B. You take surgically by a lingual flap C. You try to take out by using a root apex elevator D. You use a fine end forceps to take it out 7. Subgingival plaque changes from, A. gram positive to gram negative B. gram negative to gram positive 8. What is the most important factor to reduces dental irradiation, A. Speed of film

B. Collimation C. Filtration D. Cone shape and length 9. With view to Nitrous Oxide what is the major pharmacological problem? A. Contraindicated in pregnancy B. Contra indicated in cardiac dysrhythmias C. Diffusion hypoxia at the end of the case due to slow solubility of the agent in blood 10. Which of the following is an expansile lesion of the oral mucosa, A. Keratocyte B. Radicular cyst C. Cementoma 11. the initial therapy in HIV patient is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach 12. The concentration of Fluoride in the topical NaF A. 2% B. 5% C. 8% D. 10% 13. Which of the following most probable does not exist in the kids acute gingivitis, A. Spirochetes B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus 14. Which of the following is true about warfarin, A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction 15. What is not true about tobacco smoking, A. Redox potential is reduced resulting in anaerobic bacteria B. It is immuno-suppressive C. It is adrenergic 16. patient in your dental chair shows chest pain, weak pulse and dysponea, what is your initial management, A. Give a nitro-glycerine tablet and keep the patient up seated /This answers is for any of the angina symptoms B. Put the patient in supine position C. Do nothing and wait until the symptoms go 17. What are two teeth connected at the cementum called, A. Concrescence B. Dilaceration C. Gemination D. Fusion 18. Developer contaminated with other chemical and was not mixed properly. What is the effect on the X-ray film? A. Too dark film B. Light film C. Foggy 19. Which part of the cranium is considered as the most stable area, A. Frankfort plane B. Occlusal plane C. Anterior cranial plane D. Anterior nasal to gnathion. 20. the difficulty of placing matrices on deciduous dentition is a result of, A. The small mouth of kids which result in problem keeping the matrices in their mouths B. The occlusal convergence of the deciduous teeth 21. What would you expect to see a year after Auto- transplantation of tooth in a prepared socket, A. New well formed periodontal ligament B. Degree of external resorption and fibrous tissues C. New well formatted lamina dura 22. Which muscle will keep the fractured segment of the jaw …… I can not remember this question A. Lateral pterygoid B. Medial pterygoid C. Masseter D. Temporalis

E. Mylohyoid 23. What is INR used for, A. 3 or more is the target prothrombin time to start a safe extraction 24. Branchial Cleft cyst is located , A. Medial to the neck B. On anterior border of the Sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Shows when swallowing 25. the most common way of oral carcinomas to other tissues is/are A. Lymphatic B. Invasion and blood C. Lymphatic and invasion D. Blood and lymphatic 26. What is true about smokers, A. Causes immunosuppression B. Increase redox potential of smokers fibrous growth of anaerobic organisms C. Defects neutrophil function and characteristics D. Can produce smokers palate but rarely metaplasia 27. The main purpose of periodontal treatment is, A. Elimination of plaque and calculus B. Elimination of periodontal pockets C. Reformation of all the periodontal ligaments D. The elimination of all occlusal trauma 28. What is the approximate unstimulated salivary flow rate, A. 2 ml/min B. 0.2 ml/min C. 0.02 ml/min D. 20 ml/min 29. Why is it difficult to use matrices on deciduous teeth, A. It hurts the kids’ parents B. The small mouth opening of kids in that age range makes it difficult to keep matrices in mouth. C. The occlusal concavity of deciduous teeth 30. The thermal and electric pulp tests will, A. Give an accurate indications of the pulp status B. The patient’s response will be either pain or no pain C. The patient can differentiate between cold or hot stimuli 31. Immediately after the extraction of lower molar the patient complains of post operation bleeding and pain, how would manage this, A. Prescribe analgesics and ask the patient to follow a strict oral hygiene B. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anastatic, prescribe analgesics and pack the socket with alvogyl C. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anastatic, suture the socket and prescribe analgesics D. Suture and give pressure packs 32. Gracey curette is characterized by, A. The blade and the shank form 90º angle B. Can be used on both sides C. Can be used on any tooth surface D. It is specific for each surface of the tooth 33. The removable partial denture requires relining what is would be the most appropriate action, A. take a new impression by asking the patient to occlude on it B. Provide equal space (may be it was thickness) between denture and gingival tissues. C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression 34. Why do we use Corticosteroid material in pulp obturation, A. To prevent the inflammatory process B. As an Antibiotic C. To minimize pressure on the periapical tissues 35. As a result of wrong use of tooth brush the patient MOST probable complaint will be when, A. Spontaneous pain or discomfort B. Occasional pain during brushing of the teeth C. Occasional pain during consumption of sweets 36. In regards to dentine strength, which is the right sequence,

A. Affected dentine> Sound dentine> Infected dentine B. Sound dentine> Affected dentine> Infected dentine 37. Symptoms free patient comes to you after four weeks of an endodontic treatment and you find on radiograph the canal is over filled with what it seems to be a cone of Gutta Percha 1mm beyond the apex with a radiolucent small area. What is your initial management?, A. Start apiectomy through a flap and surgery B. Obturate the root canal C. Ask for a recall and observe in three months time D. Seal the pulp chamber and keep it under observation 38. After obturation and on X-ray you notice the obturation materials are 1mm beyond apex. What is your first management? A. Refill the canal B. Pull the GP cone about 1mm out and take a new X-ray C. Leave it as it 39. 2.21mg NaF contains, A. 1mg fluoride B. 2 mg C. 0.5 mg 40. The requirement for root and crown length is, A. 2:3 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 41. Stiffness of material are measured by, A. Proportional unit B. Modules of elasticity C. Stress/ strain 42. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. This is the answer of the American board, to aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient 43. Four years kid shows at your clinic with open bite as a result of thumb sucking, you notice a delayed speech ability what would be your first management, A. Refer to a speech therapist B. Apply a removable habit inhibitor denture C. Apply a removable habit inhibitor denture and educate the parents about it so the kid will not be taking it off so often 44. Two central incisors on a radiograph are showing with what looks like eye drop radiolucency. You decided to start endodontic treatment on these teeth but you tried to open access to the root canal you find clearly closed orifices with what look like secondary dentine. What is your initial management? A. Leave as it and start a permanent restoration. B. Start systemic antibiotic C. Try to ream and file canals 45. A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should you do? A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened B. Check patient’s blood for Hepatitis B antibody HBsAb C. Check patient’s blood for Hepatitis B antigen HBsAg D. Check dentist’s blood for Hepatitis B antibody HBsAb and HIV antigen HIVAg E. Check dentist’s blood for Hepatitis B antigen HBsAg and HIV antibody HIVAb F. Dentist should go and take a HBsAb vaccine 46. when probing for periodontal disease the tip of the probe will be, A. At the coronal end of junctional epithelium B. At the top of the gingival calculus 47. After the initial development stage and in the absence of pathology, a the size of the pulp chamber has been reduced by, A. Deposition of primary dentine B. Deposition of secondary dentine

C. Reparative dentine D. Pulp fibrosis E. Deposition of reparative dentine 48. The most desirable outcome of endodontic treatment is, A. The healing of the alveolar bone B. The deposition of cementum at the apex C. Formation of fibrous capsule around the apex 49. What is NOT related to the normal aging process? A. Progressive bone loss B. Reduced elasticity of muscles C. Decreased elasticity of the skin D. Lower pain threshold 50. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth 51. The most accurate finding of pulpal pathology A. Radiolucency on the apical region B. Pain on hot or cold drinks C. The absence of response to pulp testing 52. for dental caries to progress in dentine, the dentine must contain soluble collagen A. enamel must contain glycoproteins B. diet must contain simple carbohydrate C. diet must contain polysaccharides D. pulp must contain complement 53. A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest which is INCORRECT, A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions achieve 30-40% of cardiac output C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the same rate. 54. Which of the following is true in regards to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection 55. A 9 year old boy has a small white discolouration on his maxillary central incisor. The lesion is most probably, A. Hypocalcification due to trauma of the primary predecessor B. Hypoplasia due to acute systemic infection when 6-12 months old C. Defect during the histo differentiation stage of development D. Defect during the morho differentiation stage of development 56. The best method to take X-ray of the maxillary sinus is, A. Periapical radiograph B. Panoramic view C. Lateral cephaloghraph D. Occipitomental view E. Reverse Towne’s view 57. Which of the following is not a part of the fully formed enamel organ, A. Outer enamel epithelium B. Inner enamel epithelium 58. 18 years old female her weight is 52Kg and she is 163cm tall. On dental examination erosion of teeth on the most of her lingual surfaces is clearly showing. Dietary history revealed a daily rate of 5000 to 7000 Kcal/day. What is most probable would be her case? A. Alcoholism B. Drug abuse C. Bulimia D. Excessive smoking E. Diabetic mellitus type I

59. Which one of the following is true in regards t osseointegration implants in dentistry? A. Fibrous tissues are formed and integrated directly between titanium and bone B. Following insertion, implants can be immediately loaded without problem C. The success of the implants is directly proportional to its area of contact with bone D. The success of the implants depends mostly on low torque preparation and insertion of the fixture E. The success of integration is accurately investigated by immediate radiographic examination 60. Generalised lost of tooth structure by chemical means called, A. Erosion B. Attrition 61. On X-ray, the buccal roots of 16 is considerably elongated; this is a result of, A. Too great vertical angulation B. Inadequate vertical angulation C. Excessive object film distance 62. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is, F. Mylohyoid G. Anterior temporal H. Posterior temporal I. Anterior belly of digastric 63. Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with, A. The continuous wearing of removable orthodontic appliances in otherwise healthy patient B. The proliferation of hypertrophic tissue at the denture periphery C. The overgrowth of some constituents of oral normal microflora D. Allergy to denture base material 64. Which is NOT usually related to gingival inflammation in children? A. Endocrine disturbance B. Viral infection C. Mouth breathing D. Spirochetal infection E. Streptococcal infection 65. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down’s syndrome? A. Decreased neutrophil function B. Macroglossia C. Macrodontia D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease E. Congenitally missing teeth 66. Which of the following is the best evidence that a previous periodontal treatment is successful? A. The patient keeps a 3 month recall appointment B. There is no extrinsic stain C. The patient demonstrates good understanding of brushing and flossing techniques D. There is no bleeding on probing