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**Proctored - Mock CAT 3
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For questions 1 to 5:

Based on the information provided in the questions, we can infer that

JLM and ASC are the subjects taught in ‘P’ (5).

From (4) and (5), it is clear that B is studying in ‘R’.

From (1), it is also clear that FLG is taught in ‘Q’.

So, D is studying in ‘R’ and got placed in ‘X3’.

From (6), it is clear that E is studying ASC and got placed in ‘X4’.

Name Subject University Company

A JLM P X1

B CSC R X2

C PSY Q X5

D BAN R X3

E ASC P X4

F FLG Q X6

1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 5

For questions 6 and 7:

As per the information given in the question we know that Rita

(family B) is one of the twin baby girls and is 8 years old.

Also, Kaya (family A) is 9 years old and the age of Radha and Reena

is 13 years and 7 years respectively.

Let, the age (in years) of Maya, Shreya and Farah be (x – 3), x and

(x – 5) respectively.

We also know that Maya and Shreya are sisters.

So, any one of the three persons Maya, Shreya and Farah can be the

other twin baby girl.

6. 1 Given that Radha is elder than all the mentioned persons.

So, Farah cannot be the other twin baby girl as then the age

of Shreya will be equal to the age of Radha, i.e. 13 years.

So, either Maya or Shreya is the other twin baby girl.

So, the value of ‘x’ can be 11 or 8.

Therefore, the age of Farah can be 6 or 3 years.

7. 5 Given that Reena belongs to family B.

Therefore, Farah has to be the other twin baby girl as Maya

and Shreya are sisters and the total number of girls in family

B is 3.

So, the value of ‘x’ is 8 + 5 = 13.

Therefore, age of Shreya is 13 years.

8. 3 If Yasir occupies seat number 1, then the serial number of the

seat on which the remaining persons can be seated are as

follows:

Persons Numbers of the seats

Arafat 2 or 3

Rasheed 2 or 3 or 4

Ali 4 or 5

Rehman 5 or 6

Case I: Seat number 2 is unoccupied.

Arafat will occupy seat number 3, Rasheed will occupy seat

number 4 and similarly the serial number of the seat occupied

by Ali and Rehman is 5 and 6 respectively.

Total number of ways in which they can be seated = 1.

Case II: Seat number 4 is unoccupied.

Ali and Rehman will sit on seat number 5 and 6 respectively

and Arafat can sit on either of the seats numbered 2 or 3.

Total number of ways in which they can be seated = 2.

Hence, total number of ways in which the mentioned 5 persons

can be seated = 1 + 2 = 3.

9. 2

P Q

R S

M N

O

T

SPM 90 OPQ 30 ∠ ° − ∠ °

MPT SPT SPM 60 30 30 ∴ ∠ ∠ − ∠ ° − ° °

TPQ OPQ MPT 60 30 30 ∴ ∠ ∠ − ∠ ° − ° °

( ) ( ) PTQ 180 TPQ PQT 180 30 60 90 ∴ ∠ ° − ∠ + ∠ ° − ° + ° °

PT QR 3

In PTQ: sin60

PQ PQ 2

∆ °

2

Required ratio

3

⇒

Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.

10. 1 Given that y = x × [x] and [ ] 8 x x 17. ≤ × ≤

Let

y

x

a

**where ‘a’ is a positive integer.
**

As, y = x × [x]

y y y

y a

a a a

] ]

⇒ × ⇒

] ]

] ]

for,

y = 9, a = 3

y = 10, a = 3

y = 11, a = 3

y = 16, a = 4

y = 17, a = 4

⇒ Total ‘5’ possible values of x.

For questions 11 to 14:

The total points given by the judges J

1,

J

2

, J

3

, J

4

and J

5

is 25, 20, 30, 20

and 20 respectively. Please bear in the mind that judges awarded

distinct point to the candidates. The range of the possible points earned

by the five contestants is given in the following table.

Judge Samir Milind Ranvir Sahil Arjun

J

1

9 6 5

1 or 2 or 3

or 4

1 or 2 or 3

or 4

J

2

4 0 or 2 0 or 2 8 6

J

3

1 or 2 or 4

or 5

11

1 or 2 or 4

or 5

6 7

J

4

7 0 or 3 0 or 3 8 2

J

5

3 5 8 0 or 4 0 or 4

11. 3 Minimum possible points earned by Sahil = 1 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 0

= 23.

12. 1 Maximum possible points earned by Ranvir = 5 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 8

= 23.

Required percentage ×

23

100 20%

115

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13. 4 Given that the judge J

2

and J

4

gave the same points to Milind.

This is only possible if both the judges gave 0 points to Milind

because if Milind got 1 point from the judge J

2

, then Ranvir will

also get 1 point from the judge J

2

and this is not possible.

Given that Samir got 4 points from judge J

3

, which means that

Ranvir got 6 – 4 = 2 points from judge J

3

.

The total points earned by Ranvir = 5 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 8 = 20.

14. 5 The range of the total points earned by all the five contestants

is given below.

Samir: 24 - 28

Milind: 22 - 27

Ranvir: 14 - 23

Sahil: 23 - 30

Arjun: 16 - 23

Therefore, both Ranvir and Arjun will definitely not earn more

points than Sahil.

15. 1 Using statement A:

Given equation is ax

2

+ 2bx + c = 0 ...(i)

Also,

2ac

b

a c

+

Discriminant of equation = 4 (b

2

– ac)

2

2 2

2

4a c a c

4 ac 4ac

a c

(a c)

]

− ]

− − −

]

]

+

+ ] ]

]

Therefore, the discriminant is ‘– ve’ and hence the roots of the

given equation are not real.

Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Using statement B:

D = 4(b

2

– ac)

The information a > c and b > c is not sufficient to answer the

question.

Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the

question.

Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.

16. 4 Using statement A:

Given that ∠ ° BPC 80 .

∴ ∠ + ∠ ° BAC BPC 180 .

Therefore, BACP is a cyclic quadrilateral.

But this information is not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the

question.

Using statement B:

Given that BAR 2 ACB 60 . ∠ ∠ °

But this information is also not sufficient to answer the

question.

Combining both the statements together:

We know that BACP is cyclic quadrilateral, Q is the mid point

of AP and BAR 60 . ∠ °

Also, BPA ACB 30 . ∠ ∠ °

( ) PBA 180 – BAP BPA 90 . ∴ ∠ ° ∠ + ∠ ° Hence, AP will be

the diameter and Q will be the centre of the circle that will

circumscribe the quadrilateral BACP.

( ) CQP 2 BAC– BAR 80 . ∴ ∠ ∠ ∠ °

Hence, option (4) is the correct choice.

17. 2 It is obvious that A > B. Also, since both A and B are two– digit

numbers, therefore 9 < A < 100 and 9 < B < 100.

Given that 2A = 5B, therefore A has to be a multiple of 5.

The value of ‘A’ will be minimum when the value of ‘B’ is

minimum, which occurs at B = 10.

Possible values that A can take are 25, 30, 35,...90 and 95.

Corresponding values of B will be 10, 12, 14,....36 and 38.

Using Statement A:

Given that A + B > 123

There are two sets of values of A and B for which A + B > 123,

(A = 90 and B = 36) and (A = 95 and B = 38)

Hence, statement A is not sufficient to answer the question

Using Statement B:

Given that A + B > 132

A + B > 132 only for A = 95 and B = 38. So, the value of A is 95.

Hence, statement B is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.

18. 3 Using statement A:

If both the holes are opened, then it will take

69 × 92

minutes

69 + 92

| ·

' J

( J

to completely empty a full tank.

Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Using statement B:

Given that the quantity of water flowing through hole A in 3

minutes is same as the quantity of water flowing through hole

B in 4 minutes.

Therefore, the quantity of water flowing through hole A and

hole B independently in 1 minute will be in ratio 4:3.

Therefore, if hole A is closed and hole B is opened it will take

4

69 92 minutes

3

× to completely empty a full tank.

Hence, statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.

19. 4 The prices at which Ajay purchased 4 varieties of rice are

50 paise/kg,

100

paise/ kg,

3

25 paise/kg and 20 paise/kg

respectively.

They are mixed in the ratio 4:3:2:1. Let, the cost price of the

mixture be ‘X’.

1 100

X 4 50 3 2 25 1 20 37 paise/ kg.

10 3

| ·

× + × + × + ×

' J

( J

In order to make a profit of 20%, the selling price of the mixture

will be 1.2 × 37 paise/kg =

250

kg/ Re.

111

20. 4 Ratio of the sides of original cuboid = 60 : 40 : 30 = 6 : 4 : 3

Dimensions of the smaller cuboid not only should be multiple

of 6, 4 and 3 as but should be factors of 60, 40 and 30 in the

same order.

Factors of 60 = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 60)

Factors of 40 = (1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, 40)

Factors of 30 = (1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30)

The possible dimensions of the smaller cuboid can be (6, 4, 3)

(12, 8, 6) and (30, 20, 15)

Hence number of cuboids could be

60 40 30 60 40 30 60 40 30

or or

6 4 3 12 8 6 30 20 15

× × × × × × | · | · | ·

' J ' J ' J

× × × × × ×

( J ( J ( J

= 1000 or 125 or 8

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21. 1 Let DAC x ∠

ABD x 36 ⇒ ∠ + °

A

B

x + 36°

x + 36°

(180°–2y)

x

y

y

C

D

F

If FCD DFC y ∠ ∠

In the ADC ∆ , x + y = ADB x 36 ∠ + ° (Exterior angle)

⇒ y = 36° ⇒ FDC 108 ∠ °

22. 2 The nth term of the series 4, 8, 12, 16... 960 is 4n.

The mth term of the series 2, 6, 12, 20, ... 930 is m(m + 1) and

930 is the 30th term of the series as: 2 = 1 × 2, 6 = 2× 3,

12 = 3 × 4, and so on.

So, all the terms in the series 2, 6, 12, 20, ... 930 that are

divisible by 4, will be there in the series 4, 8, 12, 16, ... 960.

Hence, m(m + 1) will only be divisible by 4 when ‘m’ is divisible

by 4 or ‘m’ leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 4.

Hence, for m = 3, 4, 7, 8, ... 27 and 28, m(m + 1) will be divisible

by 4.

Hence, there are 14 values of ‘m’ for which m(m + 1) is

divisible by 4.

Therefore, total number of terms common to the two given

sequences is 14.

For questions 23 to 25:

Given that the increase in the number of applicants in the Commerce

stream in 2008 as compared to 2007 is 70000 and that the average

number of applicants in the four given streams in 2008 is 400000.

Therefore, the increase in the number of applicants in the Engineering

stream in 2008 will be 70000 + 20000 = 90000.

Thus, the corresponding increase in the number of applicants in the

Medical Science stream in 2008 will be 90000 – 69000 = 21000 and

subsequently the increase in the number of applicants in the Arts

stream will be 21000 + 59000 = 80000.

23. 5 So, the values of C, E and F will be (70000 – 21000 = 49000),

(80000 – 90000 = – 10000) and (80000 – 70000) respectively.

So, all the four options (1), (2), (3) and (4) are true.

For questions 24 and 25:

Let the number of applicants in the Engineering, Medical Science,

Commerce and Arts stream in 2007 be ‘x’, ‘y’, ‘z’ and ‘w’ respectively.

Therefore, the number of applicants in the Engineering, Medical Science,

Commerce and Arts stream in 2008 will be (x + 90000), (y + 21000),

(z + 70000) and (w + 80000) respectively.

So, x + y + z + w + 261000 = 400000 x 4 = 1600000.

Or, x + y + z + w = 1339000.

24. 1

25. 2 Required percentage

80000

= × 100 = 5.97 % 6%

1339000

| ·

≈

' J

( J

26. 1 As 80

x

= 4 ...(i)

80

y

= 5 ...(ii)

80

(x+y)

= 20 ...(iii)

x

80 80

20

4

80

or, 80

1 – x

= 20 or

1

(1 x)

80 20

−

1 x y (1 x) (y)

(1 x) (1 x)

20 20

− − − −

− −

y

1

(1 x)

20

−

−

y y

1

(1 x)

1 x

20 20

20

20

−

−

| ·

' J

' J

( J

y

20 20

4

5

(80)

Alternative method:

3 80

x

= 4 and 80

y

= 5

∴ x = log

80

4 and y = log

80

5

80 80 80 80 80

4

80

80 80

1 log 4 log 5 log 80 – log 4 log 5 1 x y

1 x 1 log 4

log 80 log

− − − − −

⇒

− −

−

log 4 80 20

20

80

log 4

l og 4. 20 4

log 20

⇒

Special note:

Look for the mathematical fallacy here:-

80

x

= 4 or (2

4

.5)

x

= 2

2

or 2

4x

.5

x

= 2

2

or, 2

4x–2

.5

x

= 2

0

.5

0

Equating the powers of 2 and 5 on both the sides, we get

4x – 2 = 0 and x = 0

or,

1

x

2

and x = 0

Which is impossible and hence many of you clicked option (5)

Data inconsistent as your answer.

Mind you when 80

x

= 4, x = log

80

4 which is an irrational

number, but while solving it above we preassign a rational

value of to it.

27. 3 There are two possible cases

Case I: Four letter word contains only one ‘a’

Case II: Four letter word contains three ‘a’ s

Case I: Exactly two distinct letters are used

(a) Other three letter are same in the word (a, b, b, b)

(a, c, c, c) (a, d, d, d)

Total cases

4!

3 12

3!

×

(b) Exactly three distinct letters are used in the word

(a, b, b, c)

(a, b, b, d) (a, c, c, d) (a, c, c, b) (a, d, d, b) (a, d, d, c)

Total cases

4!

6 72

2!

×

(c) Four distinct letters are used in the work (a, b, c, d)

Total cases = 4! = 24

or One ‘a’ can be placed in any of the four places in ‘4’

ways and remaining three places can be filled by

b, c and d in 3 × 3 × 3 ways

∴ Number of ways = 4 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 108

Case II: Possible cases are (a, a, a, b) (a, a, a, c) (a, a, a, d)

Total cases

4!

3 12

3!

×

Required no. of cases = 108 + 12 = 120

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28. 3 Selling price of a shirt in the first month

= Rs.(0.7 × 900) = Rs.630

Profit earned by selling 1 shirt in the first month

= Rs.630 – Rs.300 = Rs.330.

Selling price of a shirt in the second month

= Rs.(0.5 × 900) = Rs. 450.

Profit earned by selling 1 shirt in the the second month

= Rs.450 – Rs.300 = Rs.150

Let, the number of shirts sold in the first month be ‘x’.

∴ 330x = 150(240 – x)

x 75 ⇒

Required difference = 240 – 2x = 90.

29. 4 In the given figure

OE = OD = OC (Radii of the same circle)

In the triangle ODC

OC = OD(Radii of the same circle)

Also, OC = OE = CD (given OE = CD)

∴OC = CD = DO

Hence all the three angles of the triangle ODC will be 60°

In the EAO ∆

EA = EO

Let EAO EOA x ∠ ∠

OED 2x[Exterior Angle] ⇒ ∠

OED ODE 2x[As OE OD] ⇒ ∠ ∠

In the DAC ∆

x + 2x + 60 + 60 = 180°

⇒ x = 20°

⇒ ADC 100 ∠ °

A

X

2X

2X

60

60 60 X

B C

D

E

O

For questions 30 to 33:

30. 3 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that

one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means

that statement III is definitely false.

So, A took a blue ball.

31. 4 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that

one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means

that statement III is definitely false.

Considering the statements made by E and A: Both

statements II and III by E state that B took a blue ball and hence

both are false as only one statement made on B is true. So

statement I of both A and E are correct.

So, F took a red ball and B took a green ball.

Hence statement II by A was false.

So, C took a red ball.

32. 2 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that

one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means

that statement III is definitely false.

Considering the statements made by B:

We know that statement I is definitely false as A took a blue

ball. Also, statement III is false.

So, statement II made by B is true.

Considering the statements made by F: We already know that

A took a blue ball and C took a green ball. Hence, both the

statements I and II are false and therefore statement III made

by F is true.

So, neither D took a yellow ball nor did he took a red

ball.

Consider the statements made by D: We already know that

statement II is false as F took a red ball. So, one of the

statements I and III is true.

It is also given that balls of two different colours were not

taken by any of the mentioned persons.

Case I: E took a yellow ball

D must have taken a blue ball and balls of white and black

colour are not taken by any of the mentioned persons.

Case II: D took a green ball

E could have taken either a white or a black ball.

For four persons viz. A, F, C and B the exact color of

the balls taken by them can be determined.

33. 3 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that

one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means

that statement III is definitely false.

Considering the statements made by B:

We know that statement I is definitely false as A took a blue

ball. Also, statement III is false.

So, statement II made by B is true.

Considering the statements made by F: We already know that

A took a blue ball and C took a green ball. Hence, both the

statements I and II are false and therefore statement III made

by F is true.

So, neither D took a yellow ball nor did he took a red

ball.

Consider the statements made by D: We already know that

statement II is false as F took a red ball. So, one of the

statements I and III is true.

It is also given that balls of two different colours were not

taken by any of the mentioned persons.

Case I: E took a yellow ball

D must have taken a blue ball and balls of white and black

colour are not taken by any of the mentioned persons.

Case II: D took a green ball

E could have taken either a white or a black ball.

If E took a yellow ball, then D must have taken a blue ball.

So, it is correct.

34. 4 Let, the amount that was invested by the man in the bank be

‘C’.

1.2(1.2C – 200) = 400

1.44C 240 400 ⇒ +

640 4000

C Rs. Rs.

1.44 9

∴

35. 1 Case I: The total number of factors of N is equal to 2.

We know that only prime numbers have two factors.

The total number of multiples of all prime numbers greater

than 33 and less than 50 will be 2.

Such prime numbers are 37, 41, 43 and 47.

Case II: The total number of factors as well as multiples

(below 100) of N is equal to 3:

So, the number N should be less than 34 and more than 24

We know that only squares of prime numbers have 3 factors.

There is only one square of a prime number in this range

i.e. 25.

So, a total of 5 such numbers exist.(37, 41, 43, 47, 25)

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36. 4 The nine consecutive integers can be from(1 to 9), (2 to 10),

(3 to 11), (4 to 12), (5 to 13), (6 to 14), (7 to 15). Here we have

not included (8 to 16) as they sum up to 108.Now the sums

are 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90, 99. Thus there are 7 numbers less

than 100 which can be expressed as a sum of 9 consecutive

integers.

The required sum (45 + 54 + 63 + 72 + 81 + 90 + 99) = 504.

For questions 37 to 40:

Let us assume,

x = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the

total Mobile phone users in that city.

y = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the

population of that city.

z = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the

total Blackberry Mobile users in the 8 cities.

37. 1 So the Density of Mobile users is same as the ratio of y to x.

The table below depicts the Mobile density for different

mentioned cities.

D M R J C B S V

Mobile Density 0.23 0.32 0.28 0.43 0.61 0.13 0.58 0.66

It is clear from the table that C has the second highest density

of Mobile users.

38. 5 As M has 9600 more black berry users than S

Let the total number of Blackberry Mobile users be ‘a’.

then, 0.16 of a = 9600

Hence, a = 60,000

Total number of Blackberry Mobile users in M

= 4% Population(P) of M

= 25% of 60000

⇒ Population of M =

25

60000 60000 k

4

| ·

× ×

' J

( J

, where k =

z

y

For the population of any city to be greater than one lac,

‘k’ for a particular city should be greater than

5

3

| ·

' J

( J

By observation , we can see that for the cities R, C, S and V,

k is less than

5

3

| ·

' J

( J

.

39. 1 As there are total of 60000 ‘Blackberry Mobile’ users and

75000 Blackberries phones means there is a total of 15000 or

25%, extra Blackberries if each of the ‘Blackberry Mobile’

users take 1 ‘Blackberry Mobile’ each.

Possible ways to distribute the rest 25% among the eight

cities are(in percentage) as follows.

(I) B × 1 + C × 2 = 15 × 1 + 5 × 2 = 25%.

(II) M × 1 = 25%.

(III) D × 1 + C × 1 = 20 × 1 + 5 × 1 = 25%.

(IV) R × 1 + S × 1 + V × 1 = 8 × 1 + 9 × 1 + 8 × 1 = 25%.

(V) R × 2 + S × 1 = 8 × 2 + 9 × 1 = 25%.

(VI) V × 2 + S × 1 = 8 × 2 + 9 = 25%.

(VII) J × 1 + B × 1 = 10 × 1 + 15 × 1 = 25%.

(VIII) J × 2 + C × 1 = 10 × 2 + 5 × 1 = 25%.

Therefore, users of all the cities can hold more than one

“Blackberry Mobile”.

40. 4 2007:

Let the number of ‘Blackberry Mobile’ users, number of Mobile

users and the population of city B be a, M and P respectively.

a = 2.5% of P = 18% of M ...(i)

2009:

No of Blackberry Mobile users = 9a

No of Mobile users = (1.5)

2

× M = 2.25 M

Population = (1.1)

2

× P = 1.21 P

Required Percentage =

(2.25M 9 )

100

1.21P

−

×

a

M 2.25

2.25 9 9

0.18

100 100

(1.21) P

1.21

0.025

a

a

| · | · | ·

− −

' J ' J ' J

( J ( J ( J

× ×

| ·

' J

( J

3.5

100 7.23%

48.4

×

41. 4 In the given paragraph only sentences C and D are correct.

Sentence A is incorrect as it uses ‘from’ instead of ‘since’ to

denote the time-frame of the G20 protests. Sentence B

incorrectly uses ‘the’ before ‘number’. Here we are not

referring to any specific group so the article before ‘number’

should be an indefinite one-’ a’. Sentence E should have ‘was

sent’ instead of the incorrectly used ‘has been sent’ as we

are referring to an action, which is indicated by a time

reference, completed in the past.

42. 5 Only sentences C, D and E are correct. In sentence A, there

should be no article before ‘climate’ as the sentence is referring

to climate in general and not talking of the climate in a particular

place. B is incorrect because it uses ‘off-peg’ instead of ‘off-

the-peg’ which is an expression to denote something that is

readymade.

43. 2 Only sentence A is correct. In sentence B it should be ‘a book

about Lawerence’ ; a book is written about a person and on a

subject-matter. C has a modifier error as ‘also’ is incorrectly

placed, since the author in sentence A is talking about the

author ‘making up his mind’, ‘also’ should modify the same

phrase in sentence C, therefore it should come immediately

before the phrase ‘made up my mind’ in sentence C. In its

correct form C should read as ‘I had also made up my mind...’.

The error in D is similar to B. In E ‘earlier’ should be used

instead of ‘early’ as we are comparing the time-frames of two

decisions.

44. 3 Only sentences D and E are correct. In A there is an

inconsistency of a plural noun matching with a singular

adjective- ‘social creature’ should read as ‘social creatures’

as it refers to ‘human beings’; also the sentence should not

have the indefinite article ‘a’. In sentence B there should be no

article before ‘company’ as the author is referring to company

in a general sense; the correct sentence would read as ‘we

like company’; The sentence should have ‘the’ before ‘trivial’.

In sentence C there should be a restrictive clause represented

through the relative noun ‘that’ as it defines the ‘obvious sense’;

once in its correct form C should read ‘in the obvious sense

that we each depend.....’

45. 1 All the sentences except for D are correct. D flouts the tense

consistency that is maintained throughout the paragraph. It

should read ‘have looked toward’ instead of ‘are looking toward’

to convey the meaning implied in the paragraph.

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46. 1 Paragraph four of the passage describes the self limiting

mode adopted by the writers to the extent that all serious

matters are addressed in the serious mode. The passage

mentions the dominant Greek culture but it does not in any

way become the reason for the preference. In fact the opening

lines of the 4th paragraph blame the self-limiting approach on

the writers. Hence options 3 and 5 can be ruled out. Options

2 and 4 are false. Culture is definitely a factor attributed but

there is no socio-cultural pressure which is dominant. Also

option 4 cannot be said to be the primary or intrinsic reason as

it is assuming too much beyond the scope of the argument.

47. 5 Only option 5 did not contribute to the spread of tragedy.

Options 1-4 are seen as responsible / contributory towards

the reach and growth of the genre of tragedy.

48. 4 The author is critical of the obsession with tragedy. He believes

that something is wrong with the modern literary novel. He is

bold in his criticism; note the words “dull, bloody boring etc.”

The author criticises the culture and writers. The sacrifices

made to garner attention in international awards etc also attract

the author’s criticism. More than sarcasm, analysis and a

questioning or humorous stance, the author adopts a clear-

cut critical tone. Hence option 4 is becomes the correct answer

choice.

49. 5 Options 1 and 2 talk only about Wittgenstein and leave out

relativism. Option 3 has an incorrect cause effect relationship.

Option 4 again has a cause effect relationship which cannot

be substantiated by the paragraph. Only option 5 gives the

correct summary though the order of the themes is

interchanged. Wittgenstein comes second in the paragraph

and Relativism comes first.

50. 1 Options 2 leaves out metamorphosis and is also incomplete.

Options 3 and 5 talk about evolution in a vague manner. They

also leave out why a ‘theosophical’ diagram is needed. Option

4 talks about ‘liking of biologists’ which is nowhere expressed

in the paragraph. So, only option 1 qualifies as a correct

summary though it is too concise.

51. 4 Option 1 introduces a ‘may’ whereas the paragraph is

assertive that Raga is inseparably linked to Rasa. Option 2

leaves out ‘Raga’ altogether. Option 3 is incomplete in its

description of Raga as also the purpose. Option 5 becomes

flawed towards the end – ‘association of Raga with Indian

wisdom’ is general and not to the point. Option 4 gives a

reasonably correct summary of the paragraph.

52. 3 Option 1 introduces a new concept ‘foreground’. Also it does

not talk about the ‘human hell’. Option 2 leaves out the possible

purpose of Liardet. Option 4 is incorrect and reads too much

into the paragraph. Option 5 is incorrect in saying ‘clearly

voices’ whereas the paragraph just hints that the purpose

may be reform. Option 3 gives a correct and concise summary

of the paragraph.

53. 5 The very fact that notes were distributed in excess points to

the fact that the regulation of the banks was improper. The

anomalies were exposed only during the hour of crisis.

54. 4 Only option 4 is the correct answer choice it is evident from

the first line of the 3rd paragraph. Options 1 and 3 are

contradictory to the fact mentioned in the passage. Option 2 is

not indicated anywhere in the passage.

55. 1 The passage does not allude to the sources of funds for the

farmers except for a direct reference to the banks as the

lenders. Hence option 1 cannot be inferred. All the other options

can be found in the last two paragraphs of the passage.

56. 5 All the options mentioned are just symptoms that were evident

during the panic of 1819. None of them is a predominant

factor. Hence 5 is correct.

57. 2 Eclogue is a short pastoral poem, usually in the form of a

dialogue between shepherds. Similarly Madrigal is a type of

16th- or 17th-century part-song for unaccompanied voices,

performed without musical instruments in which several

singers sing different notes at the same time. Both the stem

pair and option (2) are examples of a classification relationship.

58. 1 Paddock is an enclosed area used for pasturing or exercising

animals. It also refers to an enclosure where race horses are

saddled. Hence Paddock is a place where an animal is kept. A

doctor is not a place where a stethoscope is kept. A prison is

not necessarily a place where a buccaneer/a pirate is kept.

An estuary is the mouth of a large river. So it is not a place

where insects are kept. A refectory is the dining hall in an

educational institution; again it has no connection with sheep.

An apiary is a place where bees are kept.

59. 1 The words of the stem pair Obtrusion : Intrusion hint a similar

meaning of unwanted involvement. Option (2) and (4) display

opposites so cannot be valid options. Option (3) soreness:

lesion has a Cause and effect relationship, which makes it an

incorrect answer. Option (5) demonstrates an antonymous

relationship hence it is incorrect. In Option (1) spuriousness:

Facade, both words hint a similar meaning of falseness and

resemble the Synonymous relationship like the stem pair.

60. 1 ‘Venality’ is corruption. Honesty is its antonym. Verity means

truthfulness and falsehood is its antonym. So (1) shares the

same relationship as the pair in the question.

61. 2 Here the relationship is that of opposites. Bucolic-refers to

village life and it is the opposite of Urban. Options 1, 3 and 4

have synonyms. In option 5, a fanatic is also a zealot. But a

Choleric person is one who gets angry and hence is opposite

to amiable.

62. 5 The passage uses the Dolly incident as an example to discuss

that cloning is possible. It ends with –what should be our

reaction to this fact?. So option 1 is a part of the passage.

Option 2 has not been touched upon much in the passage-

only in a small way in the last paragraph. Option 3 is again a

small part of the passage. Option 4 forms a small part of the

passage in the beginning. However the discomfort was soon

dispelled as the author points out in the first paragraph. Option

5 is what the author is primarily trying to say in the passage.

Throughout the passage, the author hints at the acceptance

of cloning as a positive development.

63. 1 The author mentions that bearing children for ill siblings and

cloning are ethically similar- because both-children and clones-

can be produced with a similar intention of giving a spare

supply of body elements to siblings making option 1 correct.

Options 2-5 are not seen to be comparable.

64. 5 The last paragraph describes cloning as an advantage and

the author uses the words ‘gigantic leap’ earlier. Hence the

passage may well be seen in the light of an advance for the

process of cloning. Option 2 is a point that is not discussed in

the passage. Options 3 and 4 are exaggerated.

65. 2 In course of means while something is going on, 1 is incorrect

as it means at a suitable time, 3 is incorrect, as it means

‘because’. 4 means ‘because of’ and 5 is grammatically

incorrect.

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66. 3 Option 3 is correct, Penelope’s web means ‘An endless job.’

All the other options are incorrect.

67. 4 Option 4 is correct, fair and square means ‘honest and proper’,

all the other options are incorrect.

68. 2 Option 1 is not something on which all trainers would agree. In

fact Philips would not agree with this statement. Option 3 is

again a statement which is too definitive and would be debated

among trainers. Option 4 is incorrect as it is contrary to the

facts in the passage. Option 2 is something on which most of

the trainers would agree. Refer to the start of para 4.

69. 5 None of the options 1 to 4 are statements to which the author

would definitely agree. Option 1 is a bone of contention among

the trainers. Option 2 is Philip’s opinion-not the author’s. Option

3 is vague—since it looks like there is a lack of realization

about the lack of time on the part of the people running the

management courses. So the intent itself is missing, which is

not correctly projected in Option 3. The author has not made

any assertion like option 4 nor can it be inferred. Hence option

5.

70. 2 Option 2 is correct, as it is directly related to the preceding

sentence and answers the first question. All other options

are talking about something that takes place much later.

71. 4 Option 4 is the best answer as it is directly linked to the

preceding sentence that talks about entrepreneurs. All the

other options are not related to the preceding sentence.

72. 2 The paragraph talks about market inefficiencies that lead to

the failure to calculate the costs of those who do not participate

in transactions that financial institutions get into. These

“externalities” are nothing but the losses suffered by the

economy on account of transactions made by the financial

system. Because of this the financial market fails to correctly

evaluate risk and is ‘systematically inefficient’. Therefore option

2 is right.

73. 2 The opening lines discuss the main aspects of 20

th

century

philosophical thinking which according to the author had two

main parts. The author does not mention any other aspect of

the thought process. Here analytical is close to questioning ;

Option 1 is incorrect as it was the reason for the origin of the

movement, Options 3 & 4 are ongoing aspects of both

movements, Option 5 is false.

74. 4 The passage states that the problem of objectivity is created

by the assumption that “ consciousness in taking something

as object is “creative” of a boundary which cannot be crossed

by consciousness”, making one deduce that this boundary

creation leads to subjectivity. Options 1,2, 3 & 5 are incorrect

because they are not alluded to with respect to the problem

per se’.

75. 2 The paragraph mentions the integration of rules onto ontology,

this reference alludes to the break in the logical structure of

things. In simple words insertion of rules/imperatives makes it

difficult to understand how things are logically integrated as a

whole. Option 1 states a fact. It is directly given and hence not

an implication, Options 3 and 4 are aspects of the principle

which are again given. Option 5 is not implied at in the

paragraph and is too generic.

76. 4 Option (1) is out of question as we can not infer that rents are

low. Option (2) says that the landlords are interested only in

rents, which is beyond the scope of information offered in the

paragraph. Option (3) is incorrect as tenants are not in the

subject. The paragraph starts with a suggestion. This

suggestion can come from any source be it an organization or

an individual. Therefore option (5) lies beyond the scope of

the given information. Option (4) fills the logical gap of more

houses available for rent and rents coming down. Rents can

come down when the supply exceeds demand and hence it

is the correct answer.

77. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because it pertains to the preferences

of the client. Also, this tends to weaken the above conclusion

as it is the family businesses that would have been able to

establish a good reputation more than individual restorers.

Option (2) is inappropriate because it seriously weakens the

above conclusion by stating that those generations who have

been in this business for years are more knowledgeable and

skillful than independent restorers.

Option (3) challenges the basis of the argument by stating

that the quality of restoration is most important rather than

which party does the restoration. This does not strengthen

the given conclusion as it seems to ignore the parties involved

in the restoration process. Hence, it is incorrect.

Option (4) is correct as it strengthens the above conclusion

by highlighting the unique service provided by individual

restorers in comparison to the service provided by others

who are in this business for generations. Hence, since families

in the restoration business are unable to match this service,

they should think of getting into other professions.

Option (5) does not have any impact on the argument because

it explains what is needed while restoring a painting. This only

elaborates on the technical process and does not affect the

conclusion presented above. Hence, (5) is not the correct

answer.

78. 5 Option (1) is incorrect because it does not have any impact on

the argument. It just suggests that these developments happen

at an early stage in life which has already been stated in the

argument.

Option (2) is incorrect as it does not highlight the flaw in the

reasoning. It adds a parallel dimension to the situation given in

the paragraph.

Option (3) elaborates on the need for social skills and their

impact on the child’s personality. It does not impact the argument

in any other way and hence it is not the best choice.

Option (4) suggests how others around the child can help him

build his social skills. This provides an additional solution but

does not present any flaw in the argument. Hence, it is

incorrect.

Option (5) is correct as the type of reasoning used in the

question is: for Y to happen, X has to take place. If we can

prove that X does not guarantee the occurrence of Y, it will

help us to weaken the reasoning. Option (5) states that those

students who have an interest in music are good at adapting

to the environment and not vice-versa. This brings out the

flaw in the reasoning.

79. 5 Mr. A is terminally ill and is going through insufferable pain. The

court will turn down the plea of Mr. A only when the court is

convinced that he is not terminally ill. The court is considering

the recommendations of the group of doctors attending to Mr.

A but there some doctors from the fraternity who believe that

he has not been treated properly for the disease. This can

raise doubts about the deteriorating condition of Mr. A; hence

the court can reject the plea for euthanasia. Options (2) and

(3) do not hold true as Mr. A is considered to be terminally ill

and these go against the basic premises of the case. Option

(4) is out of question as the court has turned down the plea

so the court, anyway, has given a verdict in the matter. Option

(1) is beyond the scope of the argument.

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80. 1 Option (1) is the best choice because it is within the purview

of the argument. It is clear that the government plans to take

these steps in the hope of meeting the requirement for parking

space in the city. This can be inferred from the given argument

as it is in sync with the government’s intentions presented

above.

Option (2) is incorrect because it suggests that diversion of

traffic from neighbouring areas creates further problem;

however, this cannot be justified from the argument.

Option (3) cannot be inferred from the argument because the

argument pertains to the problem of parking space in public

areas within the city and not residential areas. Hence, this is

an incorrect inference.

Option (4) is incorrect because it cannot be inferred from the

argument. The argument does not refer to the problems related

to following traffic rules. The behaviour of the drivers on the

road is also not discussed in the argument which is why no

inference can be drawn on this basis.

Option ( 5) is wrong because it shifts the blame on the

incompetence of the traffic control department which is not

discussed above. This inference is out of scope of the given

argument and hence is incorrect.

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