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Krisman

REFERENCE GUIDE FOR FOREIGN PHARMACY LICENSING EXAM
(Questions and Answers-2nd Edition)

2012-2013

Manan H. Shroff

1

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Krisman

REFERENCE GUIDE FOR FOREIGN PHARMACY LICENSING EXAM
(Questions and Answers-2nd Edition)
DEDICATED TO KRISHNA

2

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Krisman

This reference guide is not intended as a substitute for the advice of a physician. Students or readers must consult their physician about any existing problem. Do not use any information in this reference guide for any kind of self-treatment. Do not administer any dose of mentioned drugs in this reference guide without consulting your physician. This is only a review guide for preparation for the Foreign Pharmacy Licensing board exam.

The author of this reference guide is not responsible for any kind of misinterpreted, incorrect or misleading information or any typographical errors in this guide. Any doubtful or questionable answers should be checked in other available reference sources.

All rights reserved. No part of this guide may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronically photocopyed, recorded or otherwise , without prior written permission of the publisher. RXEXAM ® is a registered trademark of Pharmacy Exam of Krishna Publication Inc. Any unauthorized use of this trademark will be considered a violation of law. NAPLEX ® and FPGEE ® are federally registered trademarks owned by the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) and this reference guide is in no way authorized or sponsored by NABP.

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pharmacyexam.com Krisman REFERENCE GUIDE FOR FOREIGN PHARMACY LICENSING EXAM (Questions and Answers-2nd Edition) 2012-2013 Manan H.www. Shroff 4 .

immunology. Each answer is explained thoroughly to refresh your memory on specific topics. I would recommend that you to go through the FPGEE® review guide sample questions provided by the NABP (you will get one when your approval from the FPGEE® arrives) to evaluate the importance of our review materials. Our preparation guide covers all the important topics you need to be familiar with to pass the FPGEE®. Please do not go through only the questions and answers.www. statistics. It is the best way to get the most out of this review guide. and any questions or comments are always welcome. It has approximately 1000 FPGEE® TYPE questions with answers and complete explanations.com Krisman PREFACE Reference Guide For Foreign Pharmacy Licensing Exam Questions and Answers Second Edition is specifically written for students preparing for the FPGEE® exam. MANAN H SHROFF 5 . Good Luck. therefore an effort was made to include all of these topics in a review guide. I wish you the very best of luck. I would highly recommend that you take advantage of the Reference Guide For Pharmacy Licensing Exam-Theory. kinetics and biopharmaceutics. Try to understand and learn the answer’s explanations. pharmacology. The FPGEE® exam puts more emphasis on pharmacy management. I hope my efforts will help you to pass your key exam. To prepare for pharmacology.pharmacyexam.

com Krisman TABLE OF CONTENTS SECTION-I QUESTIONS 7 SECTION-II ANSWERS 121 SECTION-III TABLES 243 6 .pharmacyexam.www.

c. T max MEC MTC Cmax 4. c. b. a. d.com Krisman c. b. b. 6. The area under curve gives useful information about : The amount of drug systematically absorbed. a. Emulsifying agent Suspending agent Binder Preservative 8. Which of the following is the most suitable route for administration of insulin ? IM SC IV IV bolus b. d. Benzyl alcohol is classified as: Emulsifying agent Preservative Diluent Suspending agent Cold cream is an example of: Suspension O/W emulsion W/O emulsion O/W/O emulsion Egg yolk or egg white is used as: 7. d. b. Which of the following is the major plasma protein involved in drug binding? 7 . d. a. The minimum concentration of a drug at the receptor site to initiate pharmacological action is defined as: a. The transfer of a drug from high concentrated areas to low concentrated areas is generally defined as: a. c. 3. The time to reach minimum toxic concentration. b. Drug degradation Drug oxidation Polymorphism is generally defined as 1 a. The time to reach peak concentration. Infusion Levigation Diffusion Dissolution 9. c. 10. a. d.www. Substance that may exist only in metastable form. Noyes Whitney equation is helpful to predict the rate of: Drug diffusion Drug dissolution d. b. Substance that has different viscosity time to time. Substance that reduces interfacial tension. c. d. d. a: a. Substance that may exist in more than one crystalline form. d. 2. b. c. 5. a.pharmacyexam. c. b. The concentration at which pharmacological actions of drug would be initiated. c.

b. b. III. Loading dose Maintenance dose Replacement dose Degradation dose 17. Which of the following is/are useful to measure glomerular filtration rate? Creatinine Inulin Albumin I only I and II only II and III only All 18. The rapid degradation of a drug by liver enzymes in a liver is defined as: Third pass effect of metabolism First pass effect of metabolism Rapid degradation Liver elimination 20. a. Vd x P = Cp P x Cp = Vd Vd = P/Cp Vd = Cp/P 16. c. b.www. d. b. b. c. 19. Ribonucleic acid exists in all of the following forms EXCEPT : r RNA m RNA q RNA t RNA 14. Globulin Creatinine Albumin Glycoprotein Krisman 15. d. II. Which of the following equations may be useful to find out the plasma concentration of a drug ? a. c. d. b. b. a.pharmacyexam. d. d. a.com a. b. c. a. c. Cytosine Thymine Uracil Adenine Heparin is classified as a(n): Heteropolysacharide Oligosaccharide Homopolysacharide Monosaccharide 13. a. c. Which of the following structures is a host for Kreb’s cycle ? Mitochondria Golgi bodies 8 . The initial dose of a drug through IV bolus to achieve desirable plasma concentration at once is known as: a. c. d. b. Which pyrimidine base is found only in RNA? a. c. Which of the following is an example of an oligosaccharide? Glucose Sucrose Starch Glycogen 12. b. I. a. d. c. The normal renal creatinine clearance value lies between: 200 to 300 ml/min 80 to 120 ml/min 30 to 60 ml/min 10 to 20 ml/min 11. b. a. c. d. d. d.

B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Neutrophils I only I and II only II and III only All Krisman 21. c. a. c. b. a. d. b. II. a. III. b. b. d. c. Cytoplasmic membrane Ribosome I. Phenylalanine Leucine Tryptophan I only I and II only II and III only All 27 All of the following tests are required to check sensitivity of class A weighing prescription balance EXCEPT : a. d. d. Which of the following cells are involved with immune responses of the body? 01/01/00 80 mm hg 04/04/00 90 mm hg 01/02/00 82 mm hg 01/05/00 85 mm hg 01/03/00 81. Ham 24. The ratio of the mass of an object measured in a vacuum at specific temperature to volume (in ml) of an object at the same temperature is defined as: a. 29. Glycolysis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis Glucogenesis 26. The synthesis of glucose from sources other than carbohydrates is generally known as: a. c. b. b. III. d. Which of the following amino acids should be considered an essential amino acid(s) for the body ? I. d. Arm ratio test Rider graduated beam test Shift test U test 23. c. Which of the following immunoglobulin levels are elevated during asthma ? IgM IgD IgE IgA 22. d. Transferase Ligase Isomerase Aldehyde dehydrogenase A nucleotide is a building block of: Sphingomide Nucleic acid Amino acid Starch 28. a. d. is: 25. Which of the following enzymes catalyses the coupling of two molecules of nucleotides to form DNA ? a. Absolute density Specific gravity Relative density Apparent density The mean blood pressure of Mr.pharmacyexam. c. II. c.com c.5 mm hg 01/06/00 83 mm hg 9 . c.www. b. b. d.

c. b.5 85.I 34. Alfa-error Beta-error Gema-error Infinitive 10 . d. c. d. d. Precision Bias Accuracy Closelessness 37. b.com a. 1% 3% 5% 10% CH3 C C Cl FIGURE . a. b. c. d. When the hypothetical value of a parameter is the same as the observed value of a parameter. d. b.20 Krisman Find out the degrees of freedom in a Chi-square test in a 2x2 contingency table (assume tests are independent).2 0. 81. a. c. b.pharmacyexam.3 1.58 84.0 38. b. c. c. c. 30. c.www. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? Cl F Br I 32. CH3 CI a. The reproducibility of results of a number of experiments is generally known as: a. b. a. 31. Which of the following molecules has the largest dipole movement? The α error is generally considered significant at: 33.4 0.6 83. d. The deviation of data from its mean is generally described by: The average The standard deviation The precision The accuracy 36 a. the error should be considered: a. a. what is the probability of failure ? 0. d. b. b. If the value of p = 0. d. 1 2 3 4 The F distribution generally compares: Two means Two variances Three means Three variances 35. d. c.6 in binomial distribution.

c.. c. d. c.. b. d. a.. The process of transforming a solid directly to a vapor state is generally defined as: H a.I Cl C Cl Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point? H2O H2S H2Se HCN The bond between NH3 and CO2 is best described as a: 40. b.. b. Isomerism Polymorphism Zwitter ion Coupling CH3 FIGURE-4 a. Hydrophobic interaction force Ion dipole or ion induced dipole force London force Van der walls force H C C F 41. H C H FIGURE .O H FIGURE-2 Krisman H N O C CH3 a.pharmacyexam.... Evaporation Melting Sublimation Levigation F FIGURE-3 CH3 C C F 42.www. d.. 11 . The characteristic of solid substances to exhibit more than one crystalline or amorphous form is defined as: F a.....com CH3 C C H H H. Fig I Fig II Fig III Fig IV 43. d. c. c.. d.. Which of the following molecules represents CIS form ? 39. b. b.......

b. a. b. The degradation of Riboflavin by light is classified as: Oxidation Reduction Photochemical degradation Racemization 45. Cl Diffusion coefficient. According to Fick’s law of diffusion.2 Krisman H c. c. c. d. c. The length of the stagnant layer. b. Which of the following drugs is an angiotensin receptor antagonist ? Lisinopril Losartan Methyldopa Captopril 49.3 Cl C Cl 47 The process of degradation of ionic compounds into cations and anions in a presence of water is defined as: a. d. Acetone is classified as a: Polar solvent Nonpolar solvent Semipolar solvent Dipolar solvent C 46. d. 12 50. b. d. The area of the solid. c.com H C H FIGURE . b. b. c. a. c. Solvation Hydration Activation Degradation H C H FIGURE . d. Fig I Fig II Fig III Fig IV What happens to the solubility of alcohol as the molecular weight of alcohol increases ? a. a. The degradation of Penicillin G Procaine is highest in: Solution Suspension Elixir Tablet . c. d. b. H C Cl FIGURE . d. Reduces Increases Remain unchanged Insoluble in water 44. The difference between the concentration of solute to concentration of solute in stagnant layer. which of the following is inversely proportionate to the rate of diffusion ? a.www.4 H C H 48. d.pharmacyexam. b. a. a.

1 2 3 4 56. c. A system with considerable interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium is known as: a. The mean diameter of a droplet generally lies between 10 to 200 nm. c. Rate of sedimentation is very low. 54. d. d. a. It is intermediate in property between solution and emulsion. Which of the following compounds is an acetanilide? CH3CONHC6H5 CH3CHO C6H5CH=N. c. c. d. how many molecules of NH4Cl would be required? (NH4)2S+NICl2—— NIS + NH4CL 52. 58. Lyophilic Lipophylitic Lyophobic Radioactive colloids 13 59. d. It requires a cosurfactant. d. a. c. To balance the following equation. The time to form sediment is less. The rate of sedimentation is independent of : The viscosity of dispersion medium. The rate of oxidation is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT : Temperature Radiation Presence of catalyst Hydrolysis 55. b. The diameter of suspended particles. I only I and II only II and III only I. b. The sedimentation is easy to redisperse. The random motion of solute particles in colloidal dispersion is known as: Newtonian flow Brownian motion Stoke’s law Non-Newtonian flow II III. I Which of the following are characteristics of pseudoplastic flow? Viscosity of the flow generally decreases with an increase in the rate of shears. The lipophilic nature of particles. b c d. a b.pharmacyexam.www. It is a thermodynamically stable system. d.com Krisman 51 a. b. d. Which of the following about flocculated suspension is NOT true? Particles of suspension form loose aggregates. c. b. a. c. d. No yield value has been found with flow. c. a.C6H5 C6H5N=NC6H5 . a. 57. Which of the following is NOT true about microemulsion? 53. b. II and III only a. Suspension of tragacanth follows the pseudoplastic’s flow. b. b. The difference in densities between dispersed medium and dispersed phase.

d. b. c. the test organism should be : L. d. b. 66. Carboxylic acid Imidazole Pyroline Aniline Albumin is an example of a: Simple protein Conjugated protein Derived protein Hydrolysed protein NH Fluorination NH O Fluorination of above compound will result into a well known cancer drug known as: a. b. d. b. c. b. 61. d. c. Fatty acid Glycerol Phosphoric acid Spingosine 67. Sterols Phospholipids Glycolipids Saponins 63. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? Dextrose Dextran Lactose Sucrose a. Methadone 5-fluorouracil 6-mercaptopurine Procainamide 60. Zwitter ion rotation Micelle rotation Mutarotation Steriorotation 65.leichmani L. The spontaneous isomerization of two stereoisomers in aqueous solution that causes specific rotation is known as: a. b. b. Which of the following is NOT a hydrolyzed product of lecithins? a.com Krisman Which of the following is an active moiety of the above compound ? a. b. 14 Which of the following is NOT classified as a titrimetric method of analysis? Direct titration Gravimetric titration Complexation reaction Redox reaction NH . a. d. The susbstance that is isolated from the brain and produces fatty acid. d. 62. For microbial assay of vitamin B-12.aeruginosa S.plantarum P.www. d. galactose and sphingosine upon hydrolysis is known as: a. b. c.pharmacyexam.pneumonia 64. a. d. c. c. N CH CH NHCOOH 2 2 68. a. c. c. c. d.

It is thought to occur due to overactivity of ADH. c. and severe thirst. palladium 71. Gama butyric acid Vanillymandelic acid Homovanillic acid 5 Hydroxyindoleacetic acid 15 73. d. gonorrhea T. Eczema Urticaria Impetigo Erythema 77. a. Rho gam Octeroide acetate Immunoglobulin Pneu-immune The accurate diagnostic test for a patient with cystic fibrosis is : Mantoux test Sweat test Breath test Sick test 72. b. polydypsia.www. 74. c. pneumonphllia Cl. d. c.pharmacyexam. It occurs due to excessive secretion of Phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme. coli N. b. A guthrie test is normally performed to detect it. d. It is a disease usually characterized by mental abnormalities. b. Which of the following about diabetes insipidus is NOT true? It is a disease usually characterized by polyuria. b. 78. b. pharyngitis E. meningitis E. b.com Hemolytic anemia with abnormal hemoglobin is generally found in patients with : a. tetani N. a. Chloroquine Sulfonamide Dimercaptrol Penicillin 75. A high concentration of phenylpyruvicacid is found in urine. d. a. Vitamin B-12 deficiency anemia Sickle cell anemia Iron deficiency anemia Folic acid deficiency anemia Krisman 69. b. . Which of the following is an anaerobic organism? L. b. a. c. c. The allergic skin reaction characterized by wheel formation is known as: a. Which of the following is NOT true about PKU ? a. coli 70. d. b. c. c. The metabolite product of epinephrine and norepinephrine is : a. d. A patient should be monitored for dehydration. d. The urine volume sometimes increases 16 to 24 liters a day. b. d. 76. Which of the following drugs is useful in a Rh negative mother with a Rh positive infant ? a. c. d. c. All of the following drugs may cause hemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency EXCEPT : a. Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing most of the UTI ? S. c. d.

and III only 83. Which of the following factors DOES NOT affect the protein binding of a drug ? The availability of protein for binding. c. d. b. a. Reticulocytes Erythrocytes Leukocytes Thrombocytes 88. c. Lactulose Diphenoxylate Sucralfate Calcium polycarbophill 80. a. d. c. Binding affinity of protein to the drug. a. b. Which of the following drugs is an H2 receptor antagonist ? Hydroxyzine Cimetidine Diphenhydramine Omeprazole . III a. The concentration of a drug at its receptor site. Enzymatic degradation First pass metabolism Relative bioavailability Fick’s degradation 85. c. b. b. 86. The initial degradation of a drug by liver enzymes after oral administration of the drug is known as: a. c. b. d. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is found to lower : Serum K+ concentration Serum Na+ concentration Serum Al+3 concentration Serum Ca+2 concentration 87. c. d. 82. Patients with hemophilia have a deficiency of : RhoD AHF ADH ACE 81. c. Which of the following drugs is indicated for reducing elevated blood concentration of ammonia in blood ? a. b. c. d. d.com Krisman 79.pharmacyexam. In which kinetic reaction is the rate of reaction independent from concentration ? First order Zero order Pseudo first order Second order 84.www. a. The presence of competing substances for protein binding. 16 Doxazosin Terazosin Prazosin I only I and II only II and III only I. c. II. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs acts by blocking alfa-1 receptors ? I. b. II. Severe burns Cystic fibrosis Trauma Hypothyroidism Which of the following cells are generally found to be elevated in a patient with polycythemia vera? a. d. In which of the following conditions is an increase in plasma protein albumin found ? a. b. a. d. b. c. d. b. d.

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Krisman a. b. c. d. Nitroglycerin Milrinone Dipyridamole Digoxin

89 .
a. b. c. d.

Which of the following receptor’s stimulation prevents the release of noradrenaline? Alpha-1 receptors Beta-1 receptors Alpha-2 receptors Beta 2 receptors

95.
a. b. c. d.

Which of the following is a Class-1A arrhythmic agent ? Lidocaine Procainamide Encainide Atenolol

Hypertrichosis is generally associated with the use of a. b. c. d. Hydralazine Minoxidil Methyldopa Clonidine The preferable route for Sodium Nitroprusside is Intramuscular Oral Intravenous Subcutaneous

90.

96.

Which of the following blood cholesterol lowering drugs is an HMG-COA inhibitor ? a. b. c. d. Gembifrozil Lovastatin Cholestyramine Niacin

91.
a. b. c. d.

97.

92.
a. b. c. d.

An overdose of sodium nitroprusside generally causes Severe hypotension Hypertension Renal failure Severe edema

A patient with acute hypercapnia should be treated with which of the following ? a. Doxapram b. Dopamine c. Disopyramide d. Ipecac Which of the following drugs is found to be mucolytic or reduces the viscosity of mucous ? a. b. c. d. Dextromethorphan Acetylcysteine Terbutaline Benzonatate

98.

93.
a. b. c. d.

The use of Sodium Nitroprusside should be strictly restricted by : Adult men Adult women Neonates Children

99.
a. b.

94.

Which of the following hypertensive drugs is known as an inodilator ?

Which of the following drugs is indicated as uterine relaxant for women in labor ? Ephedrine Terbutaline

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www.pharmacyexam.com c. d. Isoetharine Metaproterenol

Krisman

105. Which of the following diuretics cause
hyperkalemia when used concurrently with Captopril ? I. II. III. a. b. c. d. Amiloride Spironolactone Triamterene I only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III only

100. Which of the following is an atropine like drug? a. b. c. d. Retrovir Ipratropium Carvedilol Latanoprost

101. Which of the following is a centrally
acting muscle relaxant ? a. b. c. d. Dantrolene Cyclobenzaprine Bromocriptine Amphetamine

106. Probenecid may competitively inhibit
the renal tubular secretion of : I. II. III. a. b. c. d. Methicillin Methotrexate Dapsone I only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III only

102. Which of the following antiParkinson’s drugs is a dopamine receptor agonist? a. b. c. d. Carbidopa Benztropine Bromocriptine Amantadine

107. Which of the following can be administered for treatment of insulin overdose ? I. II. III. a. b. c. d. Glucagon I.V. Dextrose Lidocaine I only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III only

103. Which of the following diuretics acts
through inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme? a. b. c. d. Furosemide Acetazolamide Spironolactone Hydrochlorothiazide

104 . Which of the following is a common adverse effect of metolazone? a. b. c. d. Seizure Electrolyte loss S.L.E. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 18

108. Which of the following sulfonylurea
agents is indicated for the treatment of diabetes insipidus ? a. b. c. d. Glyburide Chlorpropamide Glipizide Tolbutamide

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Krisman

109 . The deficiency of vitamin A may cause
a. b. c. d. Osteoporosis Night blindness Scurvy Anemia

114. Which of the following is not classified as
an insect control chemical ? a. b. c. d. Insecticides Repellents Attractants Antiseptics

110. Which of the following can be used
for the treatment of Methotrexate overdose ? a. b. c. d. Mephyton Leucovorin Ca+2 Pyridoxine Niacin

115. Which of the following is NOT true about Barium sulfate?
a. It is medicinally used in roentgenography for the examination of the stomach and colon. It is a clear solution. The principle adverse effect is constipation. It needs to be mixed well with food or strained through gauze before it is administered to a patient.

111. Which of the following benzodiazepines can be safely administered to a geriatric patient ? a. b. c. d. Chlordiazepoxide Alprazolam Oxazepam Prazepam

b. c. d.

116. The addition of Ascorbyl palmitate in
the manufacturing process serves as a : a. b. c. d. Preservative Antioxidant Coloring agent Flavoring agent

112. The active metabolite of Primidone is
I. II. III. a. b. c. d. Phenobarbital PEMA Trimethadione I only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III only

117. Epinephrine hydrochloride solution
can be stabilized by adding a small amount of a. b. c. d. Sodium metabisulfite Sodium bisulfite Sulfur dioxide Potassium benzoate

113. Which of the following drugs should not
be used with Fluoxetine? a. b. c. d. Tranylcypromine Digoxin Amitriptyline Lidocaine

118. Which of the following are classified as
certified colors? I. II. III. FD and C D and C External D and C

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The alcohol content of low iso-alcohol elixir is : 127. c. d. d. b. A 500 mg dose of a drug administered via I. d.www. Erythema multiform is generally described as: 20 . c. If the initial plasma concentration of the drug is 10 mcg/ml. EDTA N-acetylcysteine Mesna Diazepam 120. Thrombocytopenia Aplastic anemia Hemolytic anemia Agranulocytosis 123. injection produces a plasma concentration of 2. c. d. c.pharmacyexam. d. and III only a. d.com a. Which of the following is not considered a primary taste? a. d. II.ions Presence of cations and anions Presence of alkaloids 126.5 mcg/ml after 16 hours. The presence of scaling and sloughing on entire skin. b. c. what is the half-life of the drug? a. c. II. I only I and II only II and III only I. b. Saline Sweet Spicy Bitter 124. bioavailability is 1. and III only 121. c. 8 to 10 % 15 to 23 % 50 to 80 % 73 to 78% effect of Chloramphenicol? a. b. Which of the following drugs may cause cholestatic jaundice? I. b. b. c. The antidote for Acetaminophen toxicity is : a. d. 119 . Which of the following is a major adverse a. Chlorpromazine Erythromycin estolate Indomethacin I only I and II only II and III only I. Krisman The presence of erythematous macules and papules. Presence of H+ions Presence of OH. II. III. and volume of distribution is 120.V. The presence of large flaccid bullae on skin. c. a. Sweet taste of a compound is generally attributed to : a. ARF TEN AAC ADR (acute renal failure) (toxic epidermal necrolysis) (antibiotic associated colitis) (adverse drug reaction) 122.000 L. The presence of hair on skin. 2 hours 8 hours 5 hours 15 hours 125. b. b. b. d. c. b. The principal adverse effect of Clindamycin is : a. d.

All of the following indicate the ratio that measures the efficiency of a pharmacy EXCEPT: a. c. Good Excellent Outperform Worst 389. Net profit to net sales Net profit to net worth Net profit to total asset Net profit to inventory II. Which of the following is true about net profit to inventory ratio? 51 . What would be the acceptable ratio for 10 year old pharmacy’s net profit to net worth? a. c.000 $200.pharmacyexam. Manan’s Pharmacy’s part of the financial balance sheet is as follows: YEAR 2000 SALES RX Merchandise Total Cost of goods sold Beginning inventory Ending inventory $600. b. c. d. b. 1% 5% 15% 50% What would be the inventory turnover rate for Manan’s Pharmacy? a.000 $220. Less than 1% 1 to 2 % 2 to 3 % 5 to 7% 391. 388. The acceptable ratio for net profit to net sales would be: a. Inventory turnover rate Net sales to inventory Acid test Net sales to net working capital 394. b. This will indicate the pharmacy’s profitability is : a. c. Which of the following ratios is the best indicator of a pharmacy’s profitability ? a.000 $150. Manan Pharmacy’s net profit to total assets ratio is found to be 15%. It can be used for new and old pharmacies. 393. Which of the following ratios generally indicates the efficiency of a pharmacy ? a. c.000 $500. c. II. I only I and II only II and III only I. 4. b. d. d.www. b. It increases with an increase in sales of the pharmacy. c.000 $750. b. III.0 392. d. It indicates profitability as well as the efficiency of pharmacy.com Krisman I. c. b.5 6. b. and III only 387. Inventory turnover rate Capitalization of net profit Net profit to net sales a. d.3 2. d. d. d.38 3. Net profit to total assets.000 390.

b. c. c. Find out the ratio of net sales to inventory of the above pharmacy.55 115. 2. 404. d.000 = $75. d. A B X C 401. The inventory turnover rate of the above pharmacy would : a.000 a. Cash Accounts payable Accounts receivable Inventory b. Which of the following ratios best describes the account receivable collection times? a. b. Assets Current liability Inventory Prepaid expenses pharmacy’s ability to meet its: 402. c. .000. The acid test generally measures a pharmacy’s : a.pharmacyexam. Which of the following is generally NOT included in current assets ? a. c. Liquidity generally expresses a 397. Financial position Liquidity Profitability Inventory 398. The net sales of the above pharmacy are 840.www.3 = $150. b. d.000 35. c. d. d. b. Class I Class II Class III Class IV 396.com Krisman 395. b.000] a. c. [assume inventory of above pharmacy at time of calculation is $210. d. Meet the expectation Below the expectation Exceed the expectation Cannot calculate 399. Which of the following would generally be considered the fixed assets of a pharmacy? d. d. b.000 = $40. c. Find out the net worth of Manan’s Pharmacy? Total current assets Total fixed assets Total liabilities a. c. Which of the following categories indicates the use of a drug is restricted during pregnancy ? a. Which of the following classes of recalls should be considered a potential hazard to health ? a. 8 4 10 12 400. b.000 1. year end account receivable mean credit sales per day annual credit sales total account receivable total account receivable 365 annual credit sales 24 52 403. b. c. d.

d. Notes payable (>1 yr) Total liabilities Net worth Cost of goods sold 407. d.000 Fixtures and equipment Deposits Total fixed assets TOTAL ASSETS C CURRENT LIABILITIES $ 70. Find out the Acid test (quick ratio) of Manancare Pharmacy from Table 1? a.000 $ 10.000 $ 235.000 $ 75.com a. 202/1 1. Manancare Pharmacy wants to sell its pre$ 30. c. b. Inventory Fixtures and equipment Cash Accounts receivable D Krisman LONG TERM LIABILITY $ 20.000 $ 100.000 $ 10.000 $ 85. Notes payable beyond 1 year.000 53 A/C payable Notes payable (1 yr) Accrued expenses Total current liabilities 40% . b. b.000 405. The Manancare Pharmacy owners asks $350. Acceptable Below expectation Exceeds the expectation Cannot be calculated TABLE 1 A CURRENT ASSETS $ 50.pharmacyexam. Acid test ratio Current ratio Net sales to inventory Inventory to its net working capital 406. d. d. Total liabilities to net worth ratio of Manancare Pharmacy is : a.47/1 13/1 1/1 408. d.000 $ 5. b. Which of the following does NOT measure the pharmacy’s liquidity ? a. Accrued expenses. The Manancare Pharmacy provides the following data upon request.000 $ 165. The investment in fixed assets of MananCare Pharmacy : a. d. All of the following can be considered the current liability of a pharmacy EXCEPT a.000 $ 270. c. c. Accounts payable.000 409. Total new RX dispensed in past 2 years. c. b. The % of Rx that has one or more refill left $ 80.www. b. Notes payable within 1 year. c. Exceeds the requirement Is below the requirement Meet’s the requirement Cannot be calculated Cash A/C receivable Inventory Prepaid expenses Total current assets B FIXED ASSETS 410. c.000 $ 105.000 $ 490.000 scription files.000 for the existing prescription file.000 $ 5000 $ 35.

b. 1 2 0. b. II and III only 417. If the mark down of the price increases the sales of analgesic balm from 60 tubes to 80 tubes. b. What would be your answer to the owner of the pharmacy? a b. d. c. d. III. b. The size of the pharmacy is 600 ft2 and the size of the whole store is 5000 ft2 . b.30 $15. d. c. c. d. Find out the retail price of one box of insulin syringes if : The cost of complement The known retail markup The cost of syringes a. Unitary elasticity Inelastic demand Elastic demand I only I and II only II and III only I. When relative change in revenue is same as the relative change in price. a. Find out the retail price of a box of insulin syringes if the cost complement of the product is 55% and the cost of one box of insulin is $9.00. b. $ 1000 $ 2000 $ 1200 $ 800 412. c. “Manancare Pharmacy” marksdown the price of analgesic balm from $3 to $2. 4.95 .95 13. II. d. For Manancare Pharmacy. Price is too high. what would be the rent of the pharmacy alone? a. it is known as: I. d.95 16. Cannot be calculated.11 $13.30 15.00 411. Find out the % markup of Vasotec prescription if 30 tablets of Vasotec 5 mg retail price is $75 and the cost of the drug is $45.95 $16. The funding for Medicare programs is generally obtained from: I. b. a. c.25 0. d. c. Price is breaking even.com The average RX price Net profit % $ 50 % 15 Krisman 414.pharmacyexam.www. $4. II and III only 413. III.5 416. c.000.11 = 55% = 45% = $9. On the basis of above figures. 55% 75% 66% 10% 415. d Price is okay. II. 54 Social security taxes Premiums paid by participant State government I only I and II only II and III only I. what would be the coefficient of elasticity of this product ? a. c. the total rent for the whole store including the Pharmacy department is $10. a. a.

In a patient cost sharing plan. d. c. b. d. it is known as: a.pharmacyexam. Copayment Coinsurance Deductible Retrospective payment Year 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 Students taking the exam. c. A random sample of the blood glucose concentration of 100 patients has a mean of 130 and a median of 155. The frequency distribution of the sample is: a. Pharmacy manager Actuary Sponsor Vendor Find out the mean of the above data: a. 350 420 530 600 620 635 700 850 419. b. 601 588 720 520 423. The increase in the number of taking the foreign pharmacy exam is as follows: 55 . d. 350 850 610 635 420. Normally distributed Positively skewed Negatively skewed Cannot be calculated 421. c. b. d. The maximum amount that will be paid by a third party to a pharmacy when the drug is available from more than one source is defined as: a. Maximum allowable cost (MAC) Estimated acquisition cost (EAC) Actual acquisition cost (AAC) Average wholesale price (AWC) 424. c. c. b. provides the statistical data that indicates the risk associated with serving the population. All of the following can be a shape of frequency of distribution EXCEPT: a. d. c. b. c. b. when a patient has to pay a specified amount of the cost of prescriptions and a third party will pay the remainding cost of prescriptions. and determines the premiums to cover all the estimated expenses is known as: a. c.com Krisman 418.www. Concurrent reimbursement Prospective reimbursement Retrospective reimbursement Cash reimbursement 425. d. d. What would be the median of the above example? a. Bell shaped distribution Skewed shape distribution U shape distribution T shape distribution 422. d. b. b. A person who works for an insurance company. When a patient pays a full predetermined amount to the provider at the beginning of each month it is known as: a.

b. b. The probability of success remains constant from trial to trial. The secondary structure of protein consists of : I. b. 125 and 115 respectively .90 1. Find out the degree of freedom in a 2 x 3 contingency table Chi-square test when it is applied to test the hypothesis of independence of two variables? a. The repeated trials are dependent upon previous experiment. c. 40 19 10 2 426. II. This hypothesis would result in ? a. The standard deviation of the sample is 35. d. d. 3 2 4 1 427. c. b. with a standard deviation of 40 minutes under the new system. with a standard deviation of 36 minutes. d. III. c. c. A random sample of 50 students had an average examination time of 150 minutes. 0.com Krisman a. Amino acids are joined covalently by : a. Test the hypothesis that the population mean is now less than 180 minutes. 432. d.85 0. b. b. 110 30 125 140 433. Each trial results in an outcome that is classified as success or failure. what would be the degree of freedom in the t distribution? 434. Which of the following about a Binomial experiment is NOT true? a. A new examination procedure using modern computers is being tested. d. 56 Alfa-helix Beta-sheet Beta-bend . d. c. c. 5 3 8 4 429. b. a. Hydrogen bond Peptide bond Oxygen bond Disulfide bond 430. if sample size of 20 is taken from a normal population.0 0. What would be the range of the set of the above observations? a.pharmacyexam.60 in 50 trials ? a. When plotting t distribution curves.www. If the blood pressure measurement of 5 people is 110. One sided Two sided Three sided Cannot be calculated 428. c. 135. d. What is the mean binomial distribution if the probability of success is 0. The experiment generally consists of n-repeated trials. What would be the Pearsonian coefficient of skewness if a sample has a mean of 55 and a median of 45. The average length of time it takes students to finish an exam is 180 minutes. 140. c.35 431. d. b. In protein.

com a. I only I and II only II and III only I. Which of the following substance levels is found to be deficient in a patient with G6PD deficiency? a. b. c.pharmacyexam. lipid and polysaccharide into simple molecules such as carbon dioxide. Coenzyme Holoenzyme Apoenzyme Prosthetic group 57 442. b. Oxidant drug Ingestion of fava beans Certain types of infections . Aerobic glycolysis Catabolic reaction Anabolic reaction Gluconeogenesis 436. Heat Strong acid Organic solvent I only I and II only II and III only I. Oxidative decarboxylation Oxidative phosphorylation Oxidative deamination Oxidative dehydrogenation 435. II. and III only Krisman 438. c. b. c. c. 441. Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency? I. d. The replacement of leucine at the sixth position of the Beta-globulin chain for glutamate is generally responsible for causing it. c. II. The breakdown of complex molecules such as protein. b. d. III. water and ammonia is known as: a. d. What would be the end product of glycolysis in the cell with mitochondria ? a. c. 440. a. Alfa-antitrypsin in reduced form Bradykinin in reduced form Glutathione in reduced form Trypsin in elevated form d. It is characterized with pain. lifelong hemolytic anemia and tissue hypoxia. II and III only 439. b. II. III. Which of the following about sickle cell anemia is NOT true? a. The form Hbs has an extremely low solubility compared to Hba which results into the aggregation of molecules that form or create sickle shaped red blood cells. d. The process in which the release of energy from energy rich molecules such as glucose and fatty acid occurs in mitochondria is known as: a. d. 437. The enzyme with its cofactor is generally known as: a. The denaturation of protein can occur in the presence of : I. c.www. Glucose Glycogen Pyruvate Lactate b. b. d. b. c. d. It is a genetic disorder resulting from the production of a variant hemoglobin.

II and III only a. The inhibition of secretion of pancreatic juice from the pancreas generally results in steatorrhea. c. Which of the following is a building block of membrane of nerve tissue? a. It causes a loss of lipid. b. The pairs of structure that are mirror images of each other are known as: a. b. Prostaglandin Spingomyelin Thromboxane Leukotriene 446. In humans. Obstruction of the pancreas by cholesterol stone. Skeletal muscle Liver Spleen I only I and II only II and III only I. II. c. 445.pharmacyexam. the principle storage of glycogen is found in the : I. . c. b. c.www.com a. and riboflavin are not affected by the condition of steatorrhea. c. Obstruction of the gall bladder by cholesterol stone. c. d. Obstruction of the stomach by cholesterol stone. d. a. Ribose Lactose Glycoprotein Glycosaminoglycans 448. Isomers Enantiomers Epimers Muta rotation c. b. The term cholelithiasis is generally referred to as: a. b. b. 447. Which of the following substances should be classified as a polysaccharide? a. III. c. b. b. d. Which of the following about steatorrhea is NOT TRUE? a. b. I only I and II only II and III only I. d. d. d. The oversecretion of bile salt may impair the absorption of fat soluble vitamins. The absorption of vitamins such as vitamin C. Which of the following agents acts as an emulsifying agent for metabolism of lipid in duodenum? 58 c. d. 444. II and III only 449. essential fatty acid and lipid soluble vitamin in feces. Which of the following should be classified as a disaccharide? a. thiamine. d. Gastric lipase Bile salt Pancreatic juice Secretion Krisman 443. Glucose Hyaluronic acid Sucrose Glycoprotein 450.

II. d. II. II and III only 457. III. d. b. It stimulates synthesis of progesterone and estrogen in the corpus luteum. III. b. Alantoin Uric acid Hypoxanthine Xanthine 452. a. c. b. It initiates the testosterone synthesis in the Leydig cells of the testis. c. Which of the following RNA types comprises 80% of the RNA in the cell? I. The total energy required by an individual can be found by calculating : I. The end product of purine catabolism is: a. 456. Kwashiorkor Marasmus Steatorrhea I only I and II only II and III only I. 455. c. Ribosomal RNA Transfer RNA Messenger RNA I only I and II only II and III only I. Which of the following types of RNA carries genetic information from DNA to cytosol for protein synthesis ? 59 . d. Obstruction of the spleen by cholesterol stone. II and III only 458. Lysozymes Plasmids Mitochondria Cytoplasm 453. d. c. c. a. d. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin K? a. Which of the following is NOT a function of Luteinizing hormone? a. Which of the following is NOT a water soluble vitamin? 459. BMR Thermic effect of food Physical activity I only I and II only II and III only I. It induces ovulation in females. Thiamine Vitamin D Niacin Pyridoxine Krisman 451. II and III only 454. d. a.com d. c. Cabbage and cauliflower Fatty fish and liver Vegetable oils Yellow and green vegetables and fruit b. b. c. The small and circular extrachromosomal DNA molecules that carry genetic information for future generations in bacteria are known as : a. III.www. d. a.pharmacyexam. Which of the following is considered protein deficient malnutrition? I. II. It simulates the process of spermatogenesis. d. b. c. b. b.

II and III only 461. To find out if a substance is carcinogenic which of the following tests should be preformed ? I.www. d. b. Bacteria with two or more flagella is generally known as: a. The moving of bacteria away from the light is known as : a. Which of the following codons are generally known as stop or nonsense codons? I II. The synthesis of protein and lipids in cells is generally carried out by : a. b. Chemotaxis Phototaxis Pili Escapetaxis 466. c. d. a. c. b. c. Gram stain Schaeffer-fulton stain Acid fast stain Flagellar stain 467. b. Eukaryotic Prokaryotic Homokaryotic Heterokaryotic 60 468. III. The growth of bacteria remains constant in which of the following phases? a. d. c. b. d. II and III only Krisman 464. b. c. Which of the following classes of cells have no nucleus ? a. Which of the following types of microscopy is used to observe the unstained living or difficult to stain organisms? a. c. d. d. d. d. Dark field Bright field Transmission electron Scanning electron 462. d. c. UAG UGA UAA I only I and II only II and III only I. b. c. d. b. Pyrogen test Biopsy of cells I only I and II only II and III only I. Ames test . Monotrichous Amphitrichous Lophotrichous Peritrichous 460.com I II III a. III. b. Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus Lysozymes 463. b. The mycobacterium species of bacteria is generally stained with: a. Lag phase Log phase Stationary phase Decline phase . m RNA t RNA r RNA I only I and II only II and III only I. II and III only 465.pharmacyexam. a. c. II. c.

pharmacyexam.com Krisman ANSWERS 121 .www.

e. It must be nontoxic. Oil in water (O/W) : Water is continuous phase and oil is a dispersed phase i. Tragacanth Methylcellulose Agar Tweens 4 (c) The transfer of a drug from a high concentrated area to a low concentrated area is defined as “Diffusion”. Tetanus toxoid and human immunoglobulin G are examples of nanoparticles emulsion. 122 * Acacia * * Gelatin * * Pectin * * Spans * * Sodium lauryl sulfate.pharmacyexam. It can be classified as natural or synthetic. Commonly used emulsifying agents: * * * * phenol benzyl alcohol thiomersal cresol * benzoic acid * chlorobutanol * benzalkonium * cetylpyridinium 2 (c) Cold cream is an example of W/O emulsion. 3 (a) Egg yolk or egg white is useful as an emulsifying agent. Microemulsion : Unlike emulsions. The w/o/w emulsions are generally more preferable for preparation of various pharmaceutical dosage forms. They are used to prolong the duration of action of various drugs. the particle size of this kind of emulsion is limited to nanograms. palatable in test and odor and compatible with other ingredients in the formulation.C) h . The addition of a levigating agent into a solid to blend to make paste is defined as “Levigation” i. Oil in water in Oil (O/W/O). It is generally used for the solubilization of the drug in pharmaceutical dosage form. 5 (b) The most suitable route for administration of insulin is subcutaneous. It lowers the interfacial tension between disperse phase and dispersion medium. 6 (b) Noyes Whitney equation helps to find out the rate of dissolution of a drug. It must be stable for the lifetime of the product.com 1 (b) Benzyl alcohol is classified as a preservative. It is a biphasic liquid dosage form. It is believed to be thermodynamically unstable. microemulsion is a transparent with a small particle size. the addition of glycerine to the powder of sulfa.e. Nanoparticles : As the name suggests. The ideal preservative must have the following characteristics: It must be effective against a broad spectrum of microorganisms. They are useful for the preparation of globulins and toxoids. Preservatives prevent the growth of microorganisms and prevent deterioration of pharmaceutical dosage forms. since it has been found that absorption of insulin via this route is slow and therefore the chance of acute hypoglycemia is very rare. most of the oral emulsions to unmask the oil taste of a medication. soluble. to localize drug in the body and to prepare cosmetics.e. Emulsion is classified by five different categories: Water in Oil (W/O) : Oil is continuous phase and water is a disperse phase. The rate of dissolution is a rate-limiting step in the drug’s bioavailability. The particle size of microemulsion lies between 10 to 200 nm. dC dt = Dc S x (Cs . lotions and liniments. in which disperse phase and the dispersion medium are liquids. Commonly used preservatives: Krisman Multiple emulsions : Water in Oil in ware (W/O/ W).www. i.

V. bolus to achieve desirable plasma concentration at once is defined as the Loading dose of drug. It limited the availability of free drugs to various receptor sites. if the drug is extensively distributed in the tissues and body fluids. 123 Krisman Factors that affect protein binding : Hypoalbuminemia Renal impairment and uremia Pregnancy. Drug binding inhibits the clearance of the drug from the liver and kidney. Drugs having a high affinity for protein binding may displace a low affinity for protein binding.protein binding is decreased in last trimester of pregnancy.e Theobroma oil.www. Likewise. Tmax : Time to reach maximum concentration (Cmax) in a blood. Vd would be high. 10 (c) Albumin is the major plasma protein involved in binding of drugs. a polysaccharide) are useful to measure the rate of glomerular filtration. This indicates that drugs with high protein binding capacity may distribute less in tissues and other body fluids. diamonds and methylprednisolone.com C : Dc : S : Cs : h : Concentration of drug at time t Diffusion coefficient of drug Surface area of drug particles Solubility of drug in diffusion layer Thickness of the diffusion layer surrounding the particles * I II III IV 7 (a) A substance that may be exhibited in more than one type of crystal structure is known as Polymorphism and different structures are known as polymorphous i. The concentration above MTC produces adverse and toxic effect. Drugs that are highly bound to plasma protein have a less V d and vice versa. 8 (b) The minimum concentration of a drug at the receptor site which initiates pharmacological action is defined as Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC). It helps to establish the dose of drug to achieve the specific plasma concentration of drug. such as oral sulfonylurea displaces the coumadin from protein binding. Other terminology includes : MTC : Defined as the minimum toxic concentration. 12 (a) The initial dose of a drug through I. Profound increase in drug binding may reduce the effects of the drug or decrease in drug binding may increase the toxic or adverse effects of drugs. Ideally drug concentration should between MEC and MTC. It is a direct measure of the extent of distribution. .pharmacyexam. 9 (a) Area Under Curve (AUC) provides information about the amount of drugs that are systematically absorbed. 11 (c) The hypothetical volume of distribution of drug can be calculated on the basis of following formula : V = P d C p Vd P Cp = = = Volume of distribution Amount of drug in the body Plasma concentration of drug The volume of distribution is very useful in estimating the plasma concentration of the drug when the amount of drug is known. The replacement of metabolic loss of a drug from time to time to sustain the minimum effective concentration of drug (MEC) is defined as a maintenance dose. 13 (b) The creatinine (endogenous substance obtained from creatinine phosphate during muscle metabolism) and Inulin (exogenous substance. Age-protein binding is less in neonant and children.

It should be actively secreted through renal tubules and should be easily measured in urine or plasma. starch and glycogen 17 (c) Uracil. Monosaccharides : They are simple sugar such as glucose or fructose. Polysaccharides are classified in two different categories : I II Homopolysaccharide Heteropolysaccharide Homopolysaccharide: Consist of only one type of monomeric units i. glycogen. maltose and lactose. Nucleic acids consist of long chains of nucleotides. Oligosaccharide and Polysaccharide. i. They have to degraded into simple sugar in order to be absorb from the intestine. degradation of maltose gives two molecules of glucose. Carbohydrates can be divided into three categories : Monosaccharide. 15 (b) The normal creatinin clearance value lies between 80 to 120 cc/min. and degradation of lactose gives each molecule of galactose and glucose. Purines and pyrimidines bases bind to ribose to form nucleoside. DNA RNA Purine bases Adenine Guanine Pyrimidine base Cytosine Uracil Thymine √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √ * * * Creatinine clearance is the most widely acceptable test to measure the function of kidney. It must not affect the renal function. It should not be metabolized by the liver.e.e. 14 (b) The rapid degradation of drugs by liver enzymes is known as the First Pass Effect of metabolism. i. 16 (b) Sucrose is an example of Oligosaccharide. It consists of a short chain of monosaccharide.www. Krisman Polysaccharides : They consist of long chains of monosaccharides i. cellulose.e. Normal creatinine clearance lies between 80 to 120 cc/min. which when binded to phosphoric acid forms the nucleotides. It consists of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose. sucrose. Nucleotides are the building blocks of the nucleic acid. Heteropolysaccharides: Consist of two or more types of monomeric units. starch.com The ideal characteristics of a drug to measure glomerular filtration rate : * It must be nontoxic and nonreabsorable from the renal tubules. 124 18 (a) Heparin is classified as a heteropolysaccharide. Oligosaccharides : Consists of a small chain of monosaccharides. Degradation of sucrose gives one molecule of glucose and fructose. It is a pyrimidine base that only found on RNA. heparin and hyaluronic acid 19 (c) qRNA.pharmacyexam.e. Creatinine clearance below 60 cc/ min indicates renal function impairment. They can be subdivided into two different categories: I II DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acid) RNA (Ribose nucleic acid) RNA is subdivided into three categories: .

Each tRNA carries the specific amino acid to the site of protein synthesis. one can see tubes and a plate like structures distributed all over the cell which known as the endoplasmic reticulum. and energy from such reactions is stored as ATP. Each tRNA molecule contains anticodon (three base nucleotide sequences) that generally recognize the codon on mRNA. 80% of RNA in the cell consists of rRNA. The lists of the essential amino acids includes : * * * * * * * * * * Isoleucine Arginine Methionine Leucine Lysine Threonine Tryptophan Valine Phenylalanine Histidine 23 (b) DNA ligase catalyzes the coupling of two molecules of DNA. Energy in the form of ATP is usable by cells for their activities. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps in the synthesis of lipids. It helps in the synthesis of protein. It is known as the powerhouse of the cell.pharmacyexam. Glycogenolysis: The breakdown of glycogen into glucose. The Golgi apparatus also helps in the formation of plasma and the lysosome membrane. It helps in storing various substances transformed from the endoplasmic reticulum in a small secretory vesicle. 5 % of RNA in the cell consists of mRNA. They contain digestive enzymes that help in digestion of starch. These vesicle fuse to the plasma membrane and secrete the contents of vesicles into the extracellular portion of cells. glycogen and fat. Lysosomes are extremely small organelles made by the Golgi apparatus. DNA hydrolases hydrolyses the various substances. DNA lyase catalyzes the 125 . It is only found in eukaryotic cells. Rough endoplasmic reticulum has numerous ribosomes that attach to its surface and which give it a rough texture. In the cytoplasm. As its name suggests it conveys the specific genetic information from DNA to the cytosol to prepare the site for specific protein synthesis. 20 (a) Mitochondria is the host for Kreb’s cycle. rRNA : It is found in association with a number of proteins as the component of ribosomes. starch and fat) and release digestive enzymes into vacuoles. It can be smooth or rough. Glycogenesis: The synthesis of glycogen from glucose. DNA transferase catalyzes the transfer of various groups such as phosphate and amino groups. mRNA : It is know as messenger RNA. tRNA : It is known as transfer RNA. 21 (b) The synthesis of glucose from sources other than carbohydrates is known as gluconeogenesis. They fuse with vacuoles (cells that store glycogen. A series of oxidative reactions occur in mitochondria. The other choices include : Glycolysis: Breakdown of sugar into pyruvate or lactate. Rough endoplasmic reticulum helps in synthesis of proteins. 22 (d) All. It makes about 15% of RNA in the cell.www. The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack of flattened membrane sacs.com I II III rRNA (Ribosomal RNA) mRNA (Messenger RNA) tRNA (Transfer RNA) Krisman A cell nucleus is absent in prokaryotic cells.

pollens or foods. 29 (c) The mean blood pressure of Mr. 32 (b) The sum of the all probabilities (failure and success) in binomial distribution is equal to 1. It is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier to provide protection to the fetus. The reproducibility of the series of measurements is known as precision. DNA isomerase catalyzes various isomerizations. Accuracy is defined as closeness of measurements to the true value. relative to o water at 4 C. tears and urine. Arm ratio test. IgE: This immunoglobulin plays an important role in combating helminth and allergy reactions produced such as drugs. Specific gravity : The ratio of the mass of a substance to the mass of an other substance an equal volume taken as standard.www. Ham can be calculated as follows: 80 + 82 + 81. however it cannot cross the placenta due to its large size. Nucleic acids consists of long chains of nucleotides. Krisman 27 (d) U test.6. It accounts for 75% of the serum immunoglobulin and 20% of plasma protein. Relative density : The mass of 1 ml of a standard substance at a specified temperature. 24 (b) Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acid. It accounts for 5 to 10% of total immunoglobulins.4. It serves as an antigen receptor site in the early stages of immune response. The level of this immunoglobulin is found to be highly elevated in patients with allergy condition such as asthma and hay fever. 126 . 26 (c) Immunoglobulins are protein of the antibodies class.58 30 (b) The deviation of data from its mean or average is defined as standard deviation. IgD: It accounts for 1% of total immunoglobulins. therefore if the probability of success is p = 0. It is the first immunoglobulin that is formed by the fetus. 31 (a) The reproducibility of results of a number of experiments is generally known as precision. The minimum weighable quantity for class A prescription balance is 120 mg. Apparent density : The ratio of mass of an object measured in air at specific temperature to the volume of the object in ml at the same temperature. IgG: It is the major immunoglobulin found in blood. IgM: It is the first immunoglobulin produced by the body in response to antigen. It accounts for 10% of total immunoglobulins. Rider and graduated beam test and shift test are commonly employed tests for checking sensitivity of class A prescription balance. It is the only class of immunoglobulin whose Fc region can be recognized by phagocytosis and NK cells.5 + 90 + 85 + 83 6 = 83.com removal of various functional groups other than the process of hydrolysis.pharmacyexam. IgA: It is the major immunoglobulin in external body secretions such as saliva. 25 (b) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are the primary cells of immune responses of the body. 28 (a) The ratio of the mass of an object measured in a vacuum at a specific temperature to the volume (in ml) of an object at the same temperature is defined as Absolute density. the probability of failure (q) should be 0. They can be subdivided into five major categories.

Slowly. Krisman 37 (b) Fluorine has the highest electronegativity compared to other given choices. therefore the degree of freedom in 2 x 2 contingency table would be (2-1) x (2-1) = 1. and if it is less than 95 or greater than 105 (5% difference).www. This means that the error should be considered as significant if the difference between observed value and hypothetical value is more than 5%. For example. electrons in a neighboring atom or molecule may be displaced to produce a dipole this is called process of induction. 35 (a) The degree of freedom in a chi-square test is defined as (R-1) x (C-1). The strength of the most H-bond ranges from 1 to 7 kcal/mole. In the choice “C” two “F” atoms stand opposite to each other and nullify each other effects. it would be considered as alfa-error. The F atom has more electronegativity than Cl.. If the measured value of blood pressure is 100. O=C <. o 39 (a) The high boiling point of H O (100 ) 2 o o compared to H S (-60 ) and H Se (-41 ) is 2 2 attributed the ability of O to make more H-bonds compared to S and Se. dispersion force or London force.6 = 0. we can say that beta error occurrs. A newly formed dipole is known as an induced dipole or debey force. The second type of error is defined as beta error.NR 3 This type of attraction is known as dipole-dipole attraction and has a strength of 1 to 7 kcal/mole. The more conservative approach would be to chose at the level of 1%. It is defined as no difference between observed value of parameter and hypothetical value of parameter. 34 (b) When the hypothetical value of a parameter is the same as the observed value of a parameter.. if we assume that Mr.com p+q = 1 q = 1-p = 1-0. The “t” distribution is useful for a comparison of two means.. It commonly is chosen as 5%. the negative pole of one molecule will try to line up with the positive pole of neighboring molecule. Hydrogen bonding is also responsible for higher solubility of polyhydroxy compounds. Raj’s blood pressure should be 100 mm Hg.. 36 (b) The “F” distribution is used to compare two variances. This will make the molecule more polar..pharmacyexam. 38 (d) In the figure IV F atom is more negative than the C atom and therefore electrons are displaced more towards F atom. The attraction between two induced dipole molecules is known as dipole-induced dipole interaction. It is defined by the ratio of variances. with n -1 in the numerator and n -1 in 1 2 the denominator of the ratio.. 40 (b) Due to electrostatic attraction. Alternative is could include all values greater than or less than 100 upon actual measurement of blood pressure. we can say that hypothetical value of experiment is H = 0 100. therefore the correct choice would be “d”. Sometimes electrons are concentrated in one region of the atom or molecule.4 33 (c) The alfa-error in “Null Hypothesis” is also known as level of significance. H and CH3.. Debey force has a strength of about 1 to 3 kcal/mole. This 127 . and this displacement of electrons generally causes a nonpolar molecule to become a polar molecule which results in an instantaneous dipole... the error should be considered Beta error.

pharmacyexam. If the solvent is other than water. Krisman 44 (b) Cozaar (Losartan) is classified as angiotensin II receptor antagonist. Hydrophobic bond: The association of nonpolar groups in an aqueous solution such as water. the process is known as solvation. As the molecular weight of alcohol increases. the rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the area of the solid. 42 (b) The characteristic of solid substances to exhibit more than one crystalline or amorphous form is defined as polymorphism.www. It is inversely proportional to the length of stagnant layer. The recommended dose of the drug is 50 mg per day with or without food. the positive end of one dipole tries to line up with the negative end of an other dipole. tachycardia and angioedema are reported side effects of the drug. Rate of solution = D x A X (C . Hyperkalemia. It is indicated for the treatment of hypertension. Ion dipole or ion induced dipole bond. L = The length of the stagnant layer 46 (c) Acetone is classified as a semipolar solvent.C ) 1 2 L D = Diffusion coefficient A = Surface area of solid C = Concentration near to stagnant layer 1 C = Concentration of solute to other side 2 of stagnant layer. 47 (b) The process of degradation of ionic salt into cations and anions in the presence of water is known as hydration. 43 (a) The arrangement of geometric isomers in which two ions (in our case Cl) can either be along the same edge of the square (cis) or on opposite corners (trans). Generally trans-isomers are more stable compared to cis-isomers. due to the tendency of aqueous solvents to exclude nonpolar molecules. hypotension. Water is classified as a polar and benzene is classified as a non-polar solvent. the solubility of alcohol decreases. the concentration difference between the concentration of solute in the stagnant layer at the surface of solid and its concentration on the farthest side of the stagnant layer and diffusion coefficient. The driving force behind the movement of the solute molecules through the stagnant layer is the difference in concentration of solute at C1 and its concentration at C2. 45 (d) According to Fick’s law of diffusion. It blocks the binding of angiotensin II to AT receptors. The transform of solid to a liquid is a defined as melting and the transfer of liquids to a vapor is defined as evaporation. in a polar substance. the chances of formation of hydrogen bonds between X C X [CIS ISOMER] C Y Y X C Y C Y X [ TRANS ISOMER ] 128 . diarrhea.com bond has a strength of about 0.5 to 1 kcal/mole. 41 (c) The process of transforming a solid to a vapor without intermediate change to the liquid is defined as sublimation. 48 (a) As the molecular weight of alcohol increases.

Ephedrine. 54 (a) A system with considerable interaction between the disperse phase and dispersion medium is known as Lyophilic dispersion or solvent loving dispersion. radiation and the presence of a catalyst. It is generally observed more with suspension that contains a high percentage of dispersed solid (about 50% or greater of small deflocculated particles). Plastic flow has a yield value because of the presence of van der walls force between flocculated particles. For example. some of the solute molecules (entrapped between solvent molecules) may be released.www. ascorbic acid. It is also known as a “shear thickening system” in which the viscosity of the system increases with increase in shear stress. tragacanth and sodium alginate follows pseudoplastic flow. therefore high molecular weight alcohols are poorly soluble in water. since the hydrolysis of Penicillin G procaine is catalyzed by hydrogen or hydroxide ions. phenothiazine and vitamin A are examples of pharmaceutical products that oxidize very easily. It is not affected by hydrolysis. The droplet size of microemulsions lie between 10 to 200 nm. It is not a thermodynamically stable. 50 (a) The degradation of Penicillin G Procaine is the highest in a solution. Plastic flow has a yield value. which reduces apparent viscosity of the flow. Generally. and the need to break such force before it exists in the flow. In addition. Pseudoplastic flow is known as a “shear thinning system”. 52 (d) A large number of pharmaceutical products such as liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose. the system is known as hydrophilic. which means that it does not start to flow until shear stress exceeds the yield value. and dilatant. Concentrated suspension with flocculated particles generally follows the plastic flow. Light generally catalyzes oxidation and reduction of photoexcited species of such drugs. as shearing stress increases. It does not have the yield value. The viscosity of the pseudoplastic flow decreases with an increase in rate of shear. If the dispersion medium is water. pseudoplastic. Normally. carboxymethylcellulose. They are intermediate in property between solution and emulsion. non-newtonian flow can be classified in three classes of flow: plastic. 53 (b) Microemulsion is the liquid dispersion of water and oil that is made homogeneous and transparent by the addition of surfactant and cosurfactant. the greater rate of shear can be achieved with minimum stress.com water and OH groups of alcohol decreases. Krisman The material that exhibits the plastic flow is known as the Bingham body. The application of thixotropy is very useful in the formulation of pharmaceutical products.pharmacyexam. the well formulated thixotropy suspension will not settle out readily and will become fluid upon shaking. The system that follows conversion from gel to sol upon applying shear stress and reforms back to gel from sol upon resting is defined as Thixotropy. Riboflavin and phenothiazine are examples of such drugs. 51 (d) The rate of oxidation is influenced by temperature. 129 . The third type of flow is described as Dilatant flow. At certain levels with each successive shearing stress. the disarranged particles of the solute try to get along with the direction of flow. and therefore plastic flow curve does not pass through the origin but rather intersects the shearing stress axis. 49 (c) The degradation of Riboflavin by light is an example of photochemical degradation.

essential oils. i.e. A sediment generally forms rapidly compared to deflocculated particles. the rate of sedimentation of deflocculated suspension is slow. 57 (b) Flocculated suspensions have the following characteristics: * The rate of sedimentation is high. The supernatant remains the cloudy. In contrast. galactose and sphingosine. they yield fatty acid. kerasin. acacia and povidone solution. V = 2r2 (P1 . Other polysaccharides include: * * * * * Dextrin Inulin Starch Cotton Soy polysaccharides 62 (c) Lipids can be divided into five classes according to their chemical structure. The suspension with flocculated particles has a clear supernatant region. vegetable oils. i. but once the particles settle at the bottom of the container it is very difficult to redisperse them. (NH ) S + NICl2 42 = NIS + 2 NH Cl 4 56 (b) The random motion of solute particles in colloidal dispersion is known as Brownian motion. 130 . In pharmacy practice suspension with flocculated particles is the most acceptable.e. They are also known as galactolipids due to the presence of galactose. Upon hydrolysis. 55 (b) 2. 61 (b) Dextran is an example of a polysaccharide. and mineral oil etc. such as phrenosin. 59 (a) CH CONHC H 3 6 5 60 (c) The spontaneous isomerization of two isomers in an aqueous solution causes specific rotation which is known as mutarotation. gelatin and starch Particulate dispersions.P2) g 9n velocity of sedimentation in cm/sec radius of the particles in cm density of disperse phase in 3 g/cm density of dispersion medium 3 in g/cm viscosity of dispersion medium gravity acceleration 980. The rate of sedimentation is independent of the lipophilic nature of particles. Glycolipids : Also known as Cerebrosides. suspension of bentonite Krisman 58 (d) The relation of the rate of sedimentation with various parameters can be expressed by Stoke’s law. They are isolated from the brain.www. Particles in sediment do not bind tightly to each other.e.com Hydrophilic suspension is subdivided in to three categories: I True solution. Sediment forms slowly and particles in sediment are tightly packed. gels of methylcellulose. The sediment is loosely packed and can be easily redispersed with minimum stress. i.pharmacyexam.7 cm/ 2 sec II V r P P n g = = = = = = III 1 2 Lipophilic or Oleophilic dispersions have a high affinity for oily substances such as benzene. Gells or jellies.

phosphoric acids and nitrogenous compounds.leichmanni is the most widely used test organism for microbial assay of vitamin B 12. Sterols : The sterols are alcohols structurally related to steroids. water. myocardial ischemia. glutelins and albuminoids. Fixed oils such as lard. arginase. They are esters consist of fatty acid. 131 . They subdivide into primary derived protein (Denatured protein) or secondary derived protein. prolamines. such as spermaceti. such as olive oil. Esophagopharyngitis. It is indicated for the treatment of the rectum. alkali. pancreas and breast cancers. It is a pyrimidine antagonist. Protein is generally classified in three different categories: I II III Simple protein Conjugated protein Derived protein Prosthetic gp Krisman Example Phosphoprotein Phosphoric acid casein. stomach.plantarum is generally used for microbial assay of Niacin and Calcium pantothenate. They generally differ in physical and chemical properties from the protein they are derived from. Fixed oils and fats : They are esters of glycerol and fatty acids. which are solid at room temperature are known as fat. 68 (b) Gravimetric analysis is not considered a titrimetric method of analysis. 66 (b) 5. heat. 67 (a) L. 63 (d) Sphingosine is not a hydrolysed product of lecithin. such as lecithin. angina. globulins. 64 (b) Imidazole is an active moiety of the listed compound.Fluorouracil . They consist of monohydric alcohol and high molecular weight fatty acids. They are obtained form plants and animals such as cholesterol and ergosterol.www. It is classified as a cytotoxic substance. phosphoric acid and nitrogenous compounds other than sphingosine. which upon hydrolysis yield only alphaamino acids such as albumins. enzyme or alcohol. photophobia and decreased vision are reported side effects of the drug. 65 (a) Albumin is an example of simple protein. colon. Titrimetric methods of analysis generally include : I II Acid base titrations Precipitation reactions Simple protein : Naturally occurring proteins.com Phospholipids : Known as Phosphatides. Waxes : Waxes are defined as high molecular weight esters. ovovitellin Nucleoprotein Nucleic acid Glycoprotein Carbohydrate nuclein mucins hemoglobin lecithin tyrosinase. Lecithins are phospholipids and are generally hydrolysed to fatty acid.pharmacyexam. L. Conjugated protein: Conjugated proteins are further classified on the nature of prosthetic groups. xanthine oxidase Chromoprotein Colored gp Lipoprotein Lipids Metalloprotein Metals Derived proteins: They are formed from primary or conjugated proteins by the actions of the acid.

www. the amount of NADPH is not adequate to keep glutathione in a reduced state. probenecid. or by quantitative determination of turbidity produced by dithionite following the reduction of HbS to deoxyHbS in RBC. When RBC’s are deficient in G6PD. 72 (c) PKU is a disease characterized by an elevated serum concentration of phenylalanine and the presence of phenylpyruvic acid in urine. sulfonamide. 132 . These same antibodies may transfer back from the mother’s blood into fetus via the placenta. semicrystalline bodies are formed inside of RBC. This may lead to production of Rh positive antibodies in the mother’s blood. The deficiency of this enzyme may cause severe hemolytic anemia in patients with the use of certain oxidant drugs such as primaquine. The deficiency of enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase Electrochemical methods of analysis include : I II Voltammetery Potentiometery Chromatographic methods of analysis include : I II III Gas chromatography HPLC TLC 69 (b) Sickle cell anemia and Beta-thalassemia are hemolytic anemias associated with abnormal hemoglobins. NADPH is required to keep glutathione in a reduced state and G6PD is needed to convert NADP to NADPH. nitrofuran. so free radicals accumulate inside of red blood cells and cause the oxidation of hemoglobin to methemoglobin. nalidixic acid. The detection of sickle-cell disease can be done by viewing red cell sickling in the presence of the reducing agent sodium metabisulfite.pharmacyexam. 70 (d) Except Penicillin. Rho gam prevents the formation of anti-Rh antibodies in an mother who bears a Rh positive fetus. This enzyme is necessary to prevent the hemolysis. Rh positive antigens may transfer from Rh positive fetuses to the mother via placenta. chloroquine and dimercaptol. Glutathione is an antioxidant which prevents the oxidation of hemoglobin to methemoglobin. and miscarriage. and produce antigen-antibody reactions. These crystalline bodies are pointed and elongated inside of the cell. all of the mentioned medications may cause hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency. and rupture the red blood cells.com III IV V Redox reactions Complexation reactions Large anion and large cation reactions G6PD-Hemolytic anemia: Krisman Gravimetric methods of analysis include: I II III Weighing drugs after separation Weighing a derivative after separation Weighing a residue after ignition Spectrometric methods of analysis include: I II III IV V VI Colorimetry UV absorption IR absorption Fluorimetric emission NMR absorption Atomic absorption The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is necessary to maintain the reduce glutathione level (GSH) in red blood cells. Due to poor solubility of such abnormal hemoglobins in a reduced state. This leads to lysis of red blood cells in the fetus. In Rh negative mother. 71 (a) Rho gam is a useful drug for treatment of an Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive infant.

The Guthrie test is performed to detect PKU. Phenylalanine hydroxylase converts the phenylalanine to tyrosine.www. The disease is associated with mental deficiency. Phenylalanine reverses this inhibition and bacterial inhibition assay is a direct measure of phenylalanine. subtitis.pharmacyexam. The agar medium with serum or blood on the surface is impregnated with alanine at a concentration sufficient to inhibit the growth of B. Gram Positive Microorganisms Organisms Propionibacterium acne Bacilus anthracis Streptococcus pneumonia Disease Neisseria gonorrhea Acne Legionella pneumophilia Anthrax Meningitis Pneumonia Dental caries Yersinia pestis Streptococcus pyrogens Food poison Pharyngitis Rheumatic fever Food poison Skin infection Wound infection Toxic shocksyndrome Klebsiella pneumonia Salmonella typhi Staphylococcus aureus Treponema pallidum Chalmydia trachosis Borrelia burgdorferi Helicobacter pyroli Streptococcus mutane Enterococcus faecalis Krisman Endocarditis Gram Negative Organisms Organisms Hemophilus influenza Neisseria meningitis Gardenerella vaginitis Vibrio cholera Hemophilus aegyptius Disease Meningitis Meningitis Bacterial vaginitis Cholera Conjunctivitis Campylobacteria sp Shigella Food poisoning Food poisoning Shigellosis Food poisoning Salmonellosis Gonorrhea Legionnaire’s disease Lyme disease Peptic ulcer Plague Pneumonia Typhoid Syphilis Trachoma Salmonella 133 . Below are important organisms and the disease produced by those organisms.com is responsible for this. 73 (b) The metabolic product of epinephrine and nor epinephrine is vanillymandelic acid. Homovanillic acid is a metabolic product of dopamine and 5 hydroxyindoleacetic acid is of serotonin. 74 (b) Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic organism that causes tetanus.

com Bordetella pertussis Whooping cough Rabies Poliovirus Anaerobic Microorganisms Rubella Organisms Clostridium botulinum Corynebacterium diptheria Clostridium perfringen Clostridium difficile Clostridium tetani Miscellaneous Organisms Mycobacterium lepre Mycobacterium tuberculosis Important viral diseases Organisms Varicella-zoster Epstein Barr Disease Chickenpox Burkitt. Urticaria or formation of wheals is not a life-threatening condition itself. but it may indicate the patient is more susceptible to anaphylactic reactions. or by excessive use of soap.pharmacyexam. 77 (b) Urticaria or hives is a skin reaction characterized by wheal formation. It can be further subdivided into infant-type atopic dermatitis. The appearance and distribution of lesions depend on the age of the patient. The lesions are wellcircumscribed discrete wheals with erythematosus raised serpiginous borders and blanched centers. The sweat of patients with cystic fibrosis usually contains 3 to 5 times higher concentrations of chloride ions than patients without the disease. 76 (b) A sweat test helps to confirm cystic fibrosis. childhood-type atopic dermatitis and adult-type atopic dermatitis. Lymphoma.coli is responsible for causing most of urinary tract infections (UTI). Allergic contact dermatitis: It is a common skin disease caused by direct contact with substances such as acid and alkali. Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex HIV Paramyxovirus 134 .www. Infectious Mononucleosis Cytomegalic inclusion disease Herpes Aids Mumps Disease Leprosy Tuberculosis Disease Varicella zoster Botulism Variola virus Diptheria Yellow fever Gas gangrene P. The lesion is associated with intense pruritus or burning.colitis Tetanus Krisman Rabies Poliomyelitis Rubella Shingles Smallpox Yellow fever 75 (b) E. Eczema: It is also known as Atopic dermatitis and is characterized by itching.

pharmacyexam. The urine volume increase is up to 16 to 24 liters per day.g.303 log a t (a . The causative organisms are coagulase -positive staphylococci and beta hemolytic streptococci. if one of the reactant present in a very large amount then. 81 (d) The concentration of a drugs at the receptor site does not affect the protein binding of the drug.x) dt 135 . Erythema multiform: It is a skin reaction result of systematic allergic reaction to various agents such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome. e. 79 (b) The rate of reaction is independent of concentration in zero order kinetic.x) (b .www. CH COOC H + H O (excess) 3 2 5 2 CH COOH + C H OH 3 2 5 80 (b) The initial degradation of drugs by the liver after oral administration the of the drug is defined as First Pass Effect of metabolism. It is characterized by a severe increase in thirst.x) t1/2 = 0.693 k Krisman Second order reaction: The rate of change in the concentration of reactants and products is proportional to either the second power of concentration of one reactant or a single power of concentration of two reactants. It is more common in children. It is a fatal complication that occurs due to other poorly controlled dermatitis reactions.com Exfoliative Dermatitis: It is also known as erythroderma syndrome. 78 (c) Diabetes insipidus is a disorder that usually occurs due to a decrease in production of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). The factors that affect the protein binding of drugs are : First order reaction: The rate of change in the concentration of reactants is proportional to the first power of the concentration of a single reactant. polyuria and polydipsia. such as hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in the presence of an excess amount of water. V = -dx = k (a .x) dt kt = x a ( a . rate of such reaction usually depends on the concentration of large reactant and independent of the concentration of the second reactant.dc = k .x) dt -dx = k (a . V = . Zero order reaction: The rate of change in the concentration of reactants and products depends on factors other than concentration of reactants. . photochemical reactions. Patients should be watched for dehydration. t1/2 = dt a 2k k = 2. this type of reaction is usually described as a pseudo first order reaction. Impetigo: It is a superficial bacterial infection of the skin.x) t = 1/ka 1/2 Pseudo First order reactions: In second order reaction.dx = k (a .

The disease condition that may alter the amount of protein available for binding. 83 (b) Tagamet (Cimetidine) is an H2 receptor antagonist indicated for treatment of GERD and heartburn.www. Constipation. It is indicated for treatment of hemorrhage in patients with Hemophilia A or to prevent bleeding in various surgical procedures. Terazosin and Prazosin are specific alpha-1 blockers. These include Prazosin and Terazosin. Thrombopenia is associated with a decrease in thrombocytes counts. Krisman 85 (b) A patient with hemophilia has a deficiency of coagulation factor VIII. The protein binding affinity and capacity of the drug. It is an ion exchange resin that replaces the potassium ions for sodium ions. and headache are reported side effects of the drug. 87 (b) Polycythemia and erythrocytosis are conditions in which there is an increase in the number of erythrocytes found. 84 (a) Lactulose is indicated for treatment of hyperammonia. clonidine and methyldopa. The major side effects of these agents are first dose syncope and tachycardia. The presence of competing substances for protein binding. In contrast.pharmacyexam.com * * Type of proteins available for binding. The acidic contents of the colon entraps the ammonia as ammonium ions and reduces the concentration in the blood. They are indicated for treatment of hypertension and BPH.i. Diarrhea. Beta-1 receptors: Stimulation of these receptors may increase the cardiac rate. It is degraded into organic acid which decrease the ph of the colonic contents. the plasma albumin level is found to be elevated. The function of other receptors: Alpha-1 receptors: Stimulation of these receptors may result in the constriction of blood vessels that supply to skeletal muscles. therefore alpha-1 blockers are very good vasodilators.e. known as Antihemophilic factor (AHF). 89 (c) The stimulation of alpha-2 receptors prevents the release of noradrenaline i. 88 (d) Doxazosin. Agents * * The lists of the conditions or diseases that may decrease albumin levels in plasma and thereby decrease the protein binding includes : * * * * * * Burns Pregnancy Cystic fibrosis Chronic liver disease Chronic renal failure Trauma The conditions that may increase albumin levels in plasma and thereby increase the protein binding includes: * Hypothyroidism 82 (d) In hypothyroidism. Doxazosin. 136 . and gastric irritation are reported side effects of the drug. The deficiency of this enzyme will result in severe coagulation defect. 86 (a) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate reduces the elevated serum concentration of potassium (hyperkalemia). pancreatitis. anorexia. The recommended dose of the drug is 15 grams. one to four times a day.d. It has a powerful cp450 inhibition property. The recommended dose of the drug is 400 mg b. leukemia is a condition in which there is an increase in the number of leukocytes.

The recommended dose of the drug is 5 mg per day. mexiletin.com of this class are helpful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock. therefore most of the bronchodilators are good Beta2 stimulators. edema. lidocaine.www. Flecainide. diarrhea.e. It is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and male pattern baldness. Hypotension. This adverse effect of Minoxidil has been used for treatment of male pattern baldness. which in turn stimulates the carotid chemoreceptors. 96 (b) Mevacor (Lovastatin) is a lipid lowering drug that acts by inhibition of the HMG COA reductase enzymes. 91 (c) The most preferable route for the administration of Sodium nitroprusside is intravenous because of the short half life of the drug. disopyramide Class IB : Phenytoin. pain. The overdose of this agent results in cyanide poisoning. It is a selective inhibitor of cAMP phosphodiesterase enzymes in cardiac and vascular muscles. therefore beta blockers are indicated for treatment of hypertension i. 94 (b) Primacor (Milrinone) is known as an inodilator since it has inotropic as well as vasodilation properties. the precursor for sterols including cholesterol. tachycardia. These will all reduce the synthesis of cholesterol. The recommended dose of the drug is 50 Krisman mcg/kg administered slowly via I. These include albuterol. The other agents in the same class are: * * * * Fluvastatin Atrovastatin Pravastatin Cerivastatin 137 . 92 (b) Overdose of sodium nitroprusside generally results in hypertension instead of hypotension. 93 (c) The use of Sodium nitroprusside should be strictly restricted in infants due to a lack of enzyme rhodanase that converts the cyanide into sodium thiocyanate. Minoxidil is classified as an antihypertensive agent. infusion. Amiodarone Class IV : All the calcium channel blockers. The inhibition of biosynthesis of cholesterol reduces the cholesterol in hepatic cells. myalgia. Here is the classification of antiarrhythmic agents: Class IA : Procainamide. Bretylium. Arrhythmia. and arthralgia are reported side effects of the drug. which stimulates the synthesis of LDL receptors. tachycardia. constipation. over ten minutes. It is indicated for the treatment of CHF. 90 (b) Hypertrichosis (increase in hair growth) is a side effect associated with the use of Loniten (Minoxidil).V. and thrombocytopenia are reported side effects of the drug. nausea and vomiting are reported side effects of the drug. The recommended dose of the drug is 20 mg once daily with an evening meal. 95 (b) Procainamide is a class IA arrhythmic agent. tocainide Class IC : Propafenone.pharmacyexam. This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of 3-hydroxy 3 mehtylglutarylcoenzyme A to mevalonate. responsible for causing hypertension and tachycardia. dyspepsia. and salmeterol. propranolol and atenolol Beta-2 receptors : Stimulation of these receptors dilate vascular smooth muscles. It is indicated for the treatment of hypercholesterolemia. hypotension. Abdominal cramps. Moricizine Class II : All the beta blockers Class III : Sotalol. Inhibition of these receptors helps in controlling hypertension. quinidine.

It is a precursor to noradrenalin and is also itself a neurotransmitter in CNS. 138 . urinary retention and blurred vision. cerebral palsy or multiple sclerosis. The vasodilation offered by dopamine is very important in drawing the blood in the kidney and small bowel during an ischemic attack. ipecac. It is indicated for the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Anemia and neutropenia have been reported. potassium iodide and sodium iodide. It has profound anticholinergic side effects with severe A.com 97 (a) Doxapram is indicated as the respiratory stimulant agent in postanesthesia and in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease associated with acute hypercapnia. Bromocriptine is indicated for treatment of Parkinsons. Dopamine is formed by the decarboxylation of 3. Disopyramide is classified as a class IA antiarrhythmic agent. It should be refrigerated. an agents that loose as and liquefying the mucous. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog indicated for treatment of glaucoma. Ipecac is widely used as an emetic in accidental poisoning. 100 (b) Ipratropium is an atropine-like drug. terpin hydrate. irritation in the throat. Dryness of mouth. It is a dopamine receptor agonist.www. Carvedilol is a new beta blocker just recently introduced in the market. The diuretic property of dopamine helps to preserve the renal tubules. Hypotension is a principal adverse effect of the drug. 98 (b) Acetylcysteine is classified as an expectorant. The respiratory stimulant to effect of this agent is attributed to its ability to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla via carotid chemoreceptors. The principal adverse effect associated with the use of Bromocriptine is lung toxicity. The cardiac stimulation improves the deteriorated cardiac function. It is indicated for treatment of cardiac shock. It should be carefully used in patients with congestive heart failure with glaucoma and urinary hesistancy. constipation. the substances that specifically inhibit or suppress the act of coughing. stroke. The major adverse effects reported are dry mouth. It is not indicated for skeletal spasm resulting from rheumatic disorders. Terbutaline is indicated as a bonchodilator for asthma patients and as a uterine relaxant in premature labor.pharmacyexam. node suppression properties. 99 (b) Terbutaline is indicated as uterine relaxant for women in labor. soothes irritated mucosa and make coughs more productive. Dextromethorphan and benzonatate are classified as antitussive agents. blurred vision and mild bradycardia have been reported with the drug. It is also used as an expectorant. painful musculoskeletal conditions. It is also indicated as an antidote to minimize hepatic toxicity in acute acetaminophen overdose. Retrovir is indicated for treatment of HIV. It is ineffective in treating muscle spasm due to a central nervous system disease. The major adverse effect reported with Dantrolene is hepatotoxicity. Dextromethorphan and codeine act centrally by depressing the cough center in the medulla.V.4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA). Benzonatate acts peripherally by anesthetiz- Krisman ing strech receptors in the respiratory passage and reducing the cough reflexes. Other expectorants include: guaifenesin. Retrovir induced anemia can be treated by the use of Epogen. It is indicated for treatment of CHF. It generally decreases the viscosity of bronchial secretions and facilities the excretion of cough. Dantrolene sodium is indicated in controlling treatment of spasticity resulting from upper motor neuron disorders such as spinal cord injury. 101 (b) Cyclobenzaprine is indicated for treatment of muscle spasm associated with acute.

pharmacyexam. oil. Probenecid may competitively inhibit the renal tubular secretion of penicillin. sulfonamide. It is indicated for treatment of glaucoma. sulfonylurea. severe diarrhea. seizure. meat. and H2O.V. Nausea. and water retention are reported side effects of the drug. Desmopressin is considered as primary therapy for treatment of diabetes insipidus.com Amphetamine is indicated for treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. epilepsy and edema.. Central system stimulation and insomnia have been reported with use of Amphetamine. Electrolyte loss is a common complication of Metolazone therapy. It is indicated for the treatment of edema associated with CHF. eggs. 104 (b) Zaroxolyn (Metolazone) is classified as a thiazide diuretic. liver pernicious anemia (Cyanocobalamin) Nicotinic acid leafy veg. milk fish. Amiloride. liver. 103 (b) Diamox (Acetazolamide) acts through the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzymes. (Niacin) wheat. The recommended dose of the drug is 250 mg to 1000 mg per day. bone marrow depression.www. 107 (b) The I. It is indicated for the treatment of diabetes and as a secondary therapy to treat partial central diabetes insipidus. It increases the excretion of Na. It has been successfully used as an antidiuretic to reduce polyuria in patients with this disorder. aminosalicylic acid and pantothenic acid. 102 (c) Parlodel (Bromocriptine) is classified as an antiparkinsons drug. 109 (b) A deficiency of vitamin A generally causes night blindness. green veg. Hypoglycemia. It is a dopamine receptor agonist. liver pellagra macrocytic anemia 139 . nuts. naproxen. clofibrate. curd. Vitamin Vit A Sources carrots. and toxic epidermal necrosis are reported side effects of the drug. It is indicated for the treatment of Parkinsonism. Pulmonary dysfunction is the principal side effect of the drug. The recommended dose of the drug is 2. Cl. 106 (d) All. hemolytic anemia. The recommended dose of the drug is 200 mg to 500 mg per day for treatment of diabetes insipidus. The recommended dose of the drug is 5 to 20 mg once daily. It is a controlled II drug. pulses Folic acid green veg. 108 (b) Diabinese (Chlorpropamide) is classified as a sulfonylurea agent. Spironolactone and Triamterene are potassium sparing diuretics and may cause hyperkalemia if used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors.5 mg to 5 mg twice daily with meals. dextrose and glucagon can be administered for the treatment of insulin Krisman overdose. Diseases night blindness Vit B1 (Thiamin) Vit B2 (Riboflavin) beriberi cheilitis Vit B12 milk. indomethacin. eggs germinated cereals milk. 105 (d) ACE inhibitors therapy associated with an increase in serum concentrations of potassium. electrolytes loss.. vomiting. Glucagon and dextrose cause an increase in blood glucose concentration and helps in relieving hypoglycemia and insulin overdose toxication. Below are vitamins and their deficiency induced diseases. renal disease and nephrotic syndrome. yeast.

112 (b) Mysoline (Primidone) is a prodrug metabolites to phenobarbital and phenyl ethyl malonamide. meat. milk veg. Zolpidem. It should be carefully used with 5 FU since the former enhances the toxicity of the later. such as in the control of leaf feeding insects. 114 (d) Antiseptic controls the growth of microorganisms and should not be classified as an insect control chemical. soybean bleeding disorder Vit E (Tocopherol) Vit K 110 (b) Methotrexate overdose can be treated by administering Wellcovorin (Leucovorin Ca). It is a derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid. Repellants : Certain insecticide chemicals possess the repellant action. Insomnia is the principal side effect of the drug.pharmacyexam. milk and molasses to feed poison them. This will cause insects to avoid such places treated with such insecticides. The concurrent use of these two medications will result in severe hypertensive crisis. tomato. Ataxia. Insecticides: They are further classified according to the type of action that results in the destruction of insects. It is indicated for the treatment of tonic-clonic seizure. Attractants: In this method. the insecticides are mixed with food that is consume by insects.com Vit C (Ascorbic) citrus fruits scurvy lemon. Lorazepam. Zaleplon and Triazolam are short acting benzodiazepines and are more preferable to use for older or geratic patients because of their short half lives. The recommended dose of the drug is 20 to 40 mg per day. I II III Stomach poison Contact insecticide Fumigant Vit B6 (Pyridoxine) Vit D (Calciferol) butter. It should be carefully prescribed with MAO inhibitors. vertigo. the insects are attracted by various means such as foods particles such as sugar. green veg peripheral neuropathy Krisman 113 (a) Prozac (Fluoxetine) is classified as an SSRI. Contact insecticides : This is the most common use for control of insecticides. amla tomato. fumigants. Pyrimethamine. eggs. Allergic reactions such as urticaria and anaphylaxis are reported side effects of the Leucovorin. Its sedative. Insect control chemicals may be classified in to four different categories: insecticides. Tranylcypromine is an MAO-A inhibitor and should be avoided by patients taking Fluoxetine. It is indicated to reduce the toxicity associated with overdose of folic acid antagonists. rickettsia cod liver oil. repellents. nausea and vomiting are reported side effects of the drug. usually in closed spaces. such as Methotrexate. osteoporosis shark liver oil leafy veg. The recommended dose of the drug is 100 to 125 mg at bed time. hypnotic and anticonvulsion effects are attributed to its ability to increase the concentration of GABA in the brain. and Trimethoprim. nystagmus. 111 (b) Alprazolam. Temazepam. liver..www. green veg. It has a prolonged half life. 140 . In this method. Stomach poison : In this method. drowsiness. Fumigants : They are gases or vapors of insecticides for the control of insects. insecticides should be placed where the contact of insects with the insecticide can be easily achieved. It takes 3 to 5 weeks to get the drug completely out of the body. diplopia. and attractants.

e. Flavoring agents may be defined as compounds used for the purpose of imparting flavors. ehtylenediamine.e. dehydroacetic acid. potassium metabisulfite. i. and for high alcoholic elixir it is 73 to 78%. Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is generally caused by drugs and group II staphylococci. vanilla and wild cherry syrup are used for flavoring purposes. The sour taste of a compound is attributed to the presence of hydrogen ions and lipid solubility of compounds such as acid. amphetamines. A preservative is a substance that inhibits the growth of microorganisms and prevents the various formulations to get deteriorated from various microbes such chlorobutanol. There are four basics or primary tastessweet. The solution form of Barium ion is highly toxic. Sweet. It is characterized by the presence of erythema all over the 141 . 121 (b) The sweet taste of a compound is attributed to the presence of polyhydroxy groups. It is also known as Lyell’s syndrome. peppermint oil. 123 (a) Erythema multiform (EM) is classified as a dermatological reaction. sucrose. Coloring agents may be defined as substances used for the purpose of imparting color.” 116 (b) Ascorbyl palmitate is classified as an antioxidant agent that prevents or inhibits the oxidations in various pharmaceutical formulations and therefore prevents the deterioration of various formulations. sour. KBr. tannins. 122 (a) The alcohol content of low alcoholic elixir is 8 to 10%. titanium dioxide and alizarin. The principal adverse effect of Barium sulfate is constipation. legs and forearms. 118 (d) All mentioned choices (FD and C. therefore: Mcg/ml 10 mcg/ml 5 mcg/ml 2. 117 (b) Epinephrine hydrochloride solution can be stabilized by the addition of a small amount of sodium bisulfite. feet. Krisman 119 (c) Spicy is not classified as a primary taste. lemon oil.com 115 (b) It is a suspension form of Barium sulfate medically used in roentgenography for the examination of the stomach and colon. sodium bisulfite and sodium metabisulfite. sour and saline. trunk. orange oil. i.e. potassium benzoate and potassium sorbate.pharmacyexam. These include butylated hydroxyanisole. lactones and alum. bitter. D and C. external D and C dyes) are classified as certified colors. bitter and saline are primary tastes. (b) The initial plasma concentration of the drug is 10 mcg/ml.www. NH Cl and NaCl. The sweetness of a compound increases with an increase in the number of hydroxy groups such as amino and amide groups that contain compounds. It is characterized by the presence of erythematosus macules and papules peripherally. 4 Free bases such as alkaloid and amides (molecular weight greater than 300) may impart a bitter taste to the compound. It should be mixed well with food or strained through gauze before administered to the patient. For example “Barium sulfate” instead of “Barium. such as red ferric oxide.5 mcg/ml Hours 0 8 hours 8 hours Total = 16 hours The half-life of the drug should be 8 hours. carbon black. phenol. hands. which is an antioxidant. Mannitol. therefore it is recommended to indicate the full name of the drug when prescribing. i. The presence of cations and anions in the same compound imparts the saltiness to the compound. 120.

levodopa and streptomycin are also reported to cause immune hemolytic anemia. phenobarbital and chlorpropamide.com body. 126 (c) The principal adverse effect of Clindamycin is AAC (antibiotic associated colitis). The bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol is further classified as dose related or not dose related. Minocycline. Drugs that may cause this are: penicillin. 128 (d) Drugs that may cause hemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency include: quinine. as well as on the mucous membrane. Neomycin is the most oto and nephro toxic among the aminoglycosides. 129 (b) Ringing or buzzing (tinnitus) in the ear is associated with salicylate. trazodone. vomiting. It is characterized by the presence of erythematosus macules and papules peripherally. The skin becomes hemorrhagic. Erythromycin does not produce hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency. erythromycin estolate. certain tricyclic antidepressants. chills. penicillin. anorexia and myallgias. sulfonamide. It does not Krisman depend on the duration or dose of therapy and cannot be prevented by withdrawing the drug. 124 (b) N-acetylcysteine is found to be an effective antidote for the treatment of acetaminophen overdose. The disease is usually characterized by the presence of fever. primaquine. The second type. Anemia usually begins 18 weeks to 4 years after treatment . quinidine and isosorbide dinitrate. It is indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia. and returns to normal rapidly with discontinuation of therapy. It is a principle adverse effect of Minoxidil. nitrofurantoin. chlorpropamide. Pigmented retinopathy is the most common side effect of the drug. Mefenamic acid. Loop diuretics such as furosemide. The dose related effects of chloramphenicol can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. 127 (b) Aplastic anemia is a major adverse effect of Chloramphenicol. dose not related. It is now used for the treatment of baldness. Immune hemolytic anemia is most commonly found with methyldopa. It is classified in the macrolide group of antibiotics. Severe diarrhea is a reported side effect of the drug. The severity of this side effect is dose and therapy 142 . The normal dose of acetaminophen does not cause this since only a small amount of metabolites form. phenacetin. Hirsutism or hypertrichosis is defined as the presence of hair all over the body. Permanent hearing loss is reported with aminoglycoside antibiotics. Steven-johnson syndrome is a severe variant form of erythema multiform (EM). 125 (b) Chlorpromazine. sulindac and methyldopa may produce cholestatic jaundice. bumetanide and ethacrynic acid also possess the ability to produce ototoxicity. phenylbutazone. Hemolytic anemia is induced by drugs.www. aspirin. The drugs that may cause this are sulfonamide. chloramphenicol and sulfonamide. a derivative of tetracycline is also an ototoxic drug and its use requires great caution in older patients. 130 (b) Mellaril (Thioridazine) is classified as an antipsychotic drug. allopurinol. The toxic metabolic product of acetaminophen damages the liver by binding to the cells of the liver. phenytoin. which may be easily conjugated with glutathione in the liver. allopurinol.pharmacyexam. It is dose related and generally appears at a serum concentration of 20 mg/dl or higher. Salicylate induced hearing loss may return to normal within 3 days after discontinuation of the drug. is fatal and life-threatening. nausea.

Ferrous sulfate Dried ferrous sulfate Ferrous gluconate Ferrous fumarate 20% 30% 12% 33% 387 (b) Net profit to net worth ratio is the best indicator of a pharmacy’s profitability. 178 . A 40% figure can be achieved in a new pharmacy. This ratio is calculated by dividing profit by inventory. 386 (c) Ferrous fumarate contains a high amount of elementary iron (33%). and diarrhea are reported side effects of the drug. 382 (c) The deficiency of Vitamin B 12 generally causes pernicious anemia. 381 (b) The deficiency of thiamine generally causes the disease Beri-Beri. 389 (c) An acid test generally measures the liquidity of the pharmacy. Neuritis may occur. there is no scope to modify the patient’s therapy (since the event has occurred). 378 (b) Nolvadex (Tamoxifen) is an estrogen receptor antagonist indicated for treatment of breast cancer. It can be calculated by dividing the sum of cash and accounts receivable by the current liabilities.com study of a particular drug after the common adverse effects reported by number of patients is such a review.d. It can be used for new and old pharmacies. The target value for this ratio would be 20%. Pulmonary embolism. because it compares the net profit to net investment in the pharmacy. Below is the list of iron salts and their iron contents. Carrots are a good source of vi- Krisman 385 (a) Deficiency of Iron normally causes hypochromic anemia. 390 (d) The acceptable ratio of Net profit to net sales generally lies between 5 to 7%. It is generally calculated by dividing the cost of the goods sold by the average of beginning and ending inventory. In this review method.pharmacyexam. vomiting. 392 (d) All. The recommended dose of the drug is 10 to 20 mg b. 383 (b) Green vegetables.i. 391 (c) The acceptable Net profit to net worth ratio for a 10 year old pharmacy would be 15%. thromboembolic order.www. 388 (b) Inventory turnover rate generally describes the efficiency of a pharmacy. curd and pulses are good sources of folic acid. The patient’s weight and appetite generally decreases and the patient gets easily tired. Defective bones and teeth are generally reported with osteomalacia and rickettsia due to a deficiency of Vitamin D. liver. Hyperchromic anemia is normally reported with a deficiency of folic acid and vitamin B12. It is a good indicator of profitability as well as efficiency. 379 (b) tamin-A. hemorrhage and retarded healing are important signs of scurvy. Prospective utilization review is generally carried out before the patient receives the drug. 384 (c) Abnormal destruction of RBC is generally classified as hemolytic anemia. It increases with an increase in sales of a pharmacy. hepatic necrosis. Such as checking a patient’s profile before the patient receives the drug. Concurrent utilization review is carried out at the time when the patient is receiving the drug. nausea. 380 (c) Bleeding from the gums.

Below are the categories and their effect on pregnancies.20.00. 400 (c) Category X is contraindicated in pregnancy. A B C D = = = = Controlled studies show no risk. The product in question may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences should be classified as a class II type recall.000 398 (a) . 404 (b) Fixtures and equipment would be considered fixed assets of a pharmacy.www.000 + 75. = 50. 403 (b) Accounts payable are generally not included in current assets. so it would be considered good. cost of goods sold beg inv + end inv 2 = 5.000 200. Manan Pharmacy’s net profit to total asset ratio is 15%.000 4 = 397 (b) Net worth can be calculated by subtracting total liabilities from total assets.000 = 1. Manan Pharmacy’s turnover rate is below expectations.00.000 = 2. 395 (b) 396 (b) The ratio of net sales to inventory can be calculated as : = 750. 402 (b) The acid test generally measures a pharmacy’s liquidity. Risk cannot be ruled out. Cash. Accounts payable.total liabilities = 190. Positive evidence of risk. accrued expenses and notes payable within 1 year are considered current liabilities of the pharmacy.00.000 = 1.000 85. 405 (d) Notes payable beyond 1 year are considered Long-term liabilities of the pharmacy.75.15.000 . accounts receivable and inventory are part of current assets.47 179 The inventory turnover rate should be a minimum of 4 with a target of 6 or higher. 406 (b) Acid Test ratio can be calculated by dividing the sum of cash and accounts receivable by the current liabilities. The product in question is not likely to cause any adverse health consequences should be classified as a class III type of recall.com 393 (a) The normal target value for net profit to total asset ratio is between 10 to 20%.38 = 401 (b) Liquidity generally expresses a pharmacy’s ability to meet its current liabilities. No evidence of risk in humans.000 = 2.000 Krisman 399 (a) Class I type of recalls should be considered a potential hazard to health. 394 (b) The inventory turnover rate can be calculated by dividing cost of goods sold by the average of beginning and ending inventory.000 210. Net worth = Total assets . Cost of goods sold Beginning inventory Ending inventory IN TOR = = $ 5.000 + 220000 2 2.pharmacyexam.

it is known as unitary elasticity. 411 (a) E = Q where P E = Coefficient of elasticity Q = % of sales quantities change P = % of price change In our example. Net profit % R = P = N = 180 .000 = Total liabilities Net worth = 105. therefore the asking price is too high.15 $ 240. When the relative change in revenue is less than the relative change in price. the sales quantities of analgesic balm has been changed from 60 to 80 (33% change). 413 (b) R = C P R C P = = = Retail price of drug Cost of drug Cost complement in % $16. 408 (b) Below expectation.000 165000 = 63. 409 (c) The investment of Manan Pharmacy in a fixed asset meets requirements. = = Fixed assets x 100 Net worth 35000 x 100 165000 21% x 100 The owner of the Manan Care Pharmacy is asking $ 350. Total new prescription is dispensed in past two years. it is known as inelastic demand. If the relative change in revenue is greater than the relative change in price. V = = Krisman [ (80. The pharmacy’s average prescription price. The % of prescriptions with one or more refill left.4) x 50] 0.pharmacyexam. The target value for this ratio would be 20% or below. Therefore elasticity of coefficient would be : = 33 33 = 1 412 (a) When a relative change in revenue is the same as relative change in price.www. it is said to be elastic demand.000 x 0.63% The target value for Total liabilities to net worth ration would be 50% or less.com 407 (c) Net sales to inventory measures the efficiency of the pharmacy. and the price of balm has changed from 3 to 2 (33%).000 for an existing prescription file.30 = 410 (b) The price of a prescription file can be calculated by the following equation: V V F = = = [ (F x R) P] N where Price of prescription file.

For a $ 45 drug. Actual acquisition cost (AAC): The actual price paid by a pharmacy after all trade.com Therefore the retail price of insulin would be = 9. 420 (a) The maximum amount that will be paid by a third party to a pharmacy when the drug is available from more than one source is defined as MAC.30 MU/C = Known retail mark up cost of complement 45/55 = 0.X for year 1999 is $1500 and his deductible is $250.$ 45). For a $100 drug ? 30 x 100 / 45 = 66% make up 415 (c) $16. or maximum allowable cost Estimated acquisition cost (EAC): The third party’s estimate of the prices paid by a pharmacist for a particular drug product.www.81 = $ 16. the pharmacy will only make money when the cost of medications dispensed to the patient is less than the fixed cost provided by the institution.00 0.30 $ 1200 = Total rent x space ratio = 10. In this type of payment. is known as an actuary. 181 . 418 (a) Copayment: It is a patient cost sharing plan in which the patient has to pay a specified amount ( normally $ 10 to $ 15) of the cost of prescriptions and a third party will pay the remainder.81 = 81% cost of drug x (100 + MU/C) 9 x (181%) 9 x 1.55 = $ 16. 419 (b) A person who works for an insurance company and provides the statistical data that indicates the risk associated with serving the population. the third party will only pay benefits after the patient pays $ 250 out of his pocket. volume and cash discounts. and determines the premiums to cover all the estimated expenses. therefore the mark up on prescriptions would be $30 ($ 75 .e. $ 30 would be the mark up.30 Cost complements % + % mark up = 100% 414 (c) 66% Krisman Coinsurance: It is a part of a patient cost sharing plan in which the patient pays a specified percentage of all the losses incurred. Total health care cost for Mr.000 x 600/5000 = $1200 R = = = = 416 (c) Rx rent 417 (b) The funding for Medicare programs is generally obtained from social security tax and premiums paid by the participants. The retail price of a drug is $75. Average wholesale price (AWP): The published list price of a particular product.pharmacyexam. then. i. Capitation: A form of prospective reimbursement in which an institution will pay a fixed amount of money to the service provider pharmacy for each patient. Deductible: A part of a patient cost sharing plan in which the patient has to pay a fixed amount of the cost (normally $ 250) within a specific period of time (normally 1 year) before the benefit is paid by third parties.

The frequency distribution of a sample is calculated by = Mean . 182 = 3 (55 .pharmacyexam. skewed.Median (Mode) = 130 . 431 (b) The degree of freedom for chisquare test can be calculated by = ( R-1) x (C-1) = (2-1) x (3-1) = 2 432 (a) One sided.Median) Standard deviation Krisman 427 (b) Each trial in a Binomial experiment comes out a success or failure. If the sample is even then calculate the average of the middle values.www. U shaped and or J shaped. the frequency distribution of the sample would be negatively skewed. The probability of success remains constant from trial to trial. 434 (d) The secondary structure of protein consists of alfa-helix. An example of this is tossing a quarter for “n” times to get heads (tails would be considered a failure) each time. = = 140 . beta helix and betabend.155 = -25 If the value of (mean-mode) is negative. The repeated trial are independent of previous experiments. 433 (b) Amino acids are joined by peptide bonds in proteins. 425 (d) The frequency of distribution can be bell shaped. for example in our experiment the middle values are 600 and 620. If the value is positive then the frequency distribution of the sample would be positively skewed. strong acid or organic solvent. The experiments generally consists of “n” repeated trials. 435 (d) The denaturation of protein can occur in the presence of heat.85 . 422 (b) Mean = 588 = 350+420+530+600+620+635+700+850 8 = 588 423 (c) The median of a sample is the middle value of an experiment. 428 (b) The mean of binomial distribution can be calculated by : Mean = n x p = 50 x 0.110 30 430 (b) The degree of freedom for a t distribution can be calculated by = n-1 : = 20-1 = 19.6 = 3 429 (b) The range of a set can be calculated by the difference between the highest value and the lowest value of the experiment. 426 (c) The Pearsonian coefficient can be calculated by the following formula: 3 (Mean . therefore the median would be : = 600 + 620 2 = 610 424 (c) Negatively skewed.45) 35 = 0.com 421 (b) If a patient pays a full predetermined amount to the provider at the beginning of each month is known as Prospective reimbursement.

451 (b) Luteinizing hormone induces testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells of the testis and ovulation in females. thermic effect of food and physical activity help in the calculation of energy required by an individual. 450 (c) An obstruction of the gall bladder by a cholesterol stone is defined as cholelithiasis. BMR.com 436 (c) Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder resulting from the production of variant hemoglobin. Krisman 443 (b) Lactose is classified as a disaccharides. lipid and polysaccharide into simple molecules such as carbon dioxide. The water soluble vitamins such as vitamin C. 449 (b) Sphingomyelin is a building block of membrane of nerve tissue. The formation of HbS has extremely low solubility compared to HbA.e.www. thiamine and riboflavin have no effect on their absorption. 440 (c) Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis in cells that contain mitochondria. 441 (c) Glutathione in reduced form is deficient in patients with G6PD deficiency. 452 (d) All.pharmacyexam. heparin and chondroitin are classified as polysaccharides. The cells that lack mitochondria produce lactate instead of pyruvate as the end product of glycolysis. 442 (d) All. 438 (b) The process in which the release of energy from energy-rich molecules such as glucose and fatty acid occurs in mitochondria is commonly referred to as Oxidative phosphorylation. It normally causes a loss of lipid. and certain types of infections may cause hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency. fatty acid and lipid soluble vitamins in feces. Fe ) required for the activities of certain enzymes are known as Coenzymes. Oxidant drug. Nonprotein +2 +2 cofactors (i. Zn . 437 (b) The enzyme with its cofactor is known as Holoenzyme. 447 (b) Bile salts act as an emulsifying agent for metabolism of lipid in duodenum 448 (b) Steatorrhea is a result of improper secretion of bile salts from the liver and pancreatic juice from the pancreas. The replacement of valine at the sixth position of the beta globulin chain for glutamate is responsible for this. 444 (b) The pairs of structure that are mirror images of each other are known as enantiomers. Apoenzyme refers to the protein portion of the holoenzyme. and results in aggregation of molecules to form or create sickle shaped red blood cells. ingestion of fava beans. water and ammonia is known as catabolic reaction. 183 . It is characterized by pain. 446 (b) Hyaluronic acid. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone stimulate spermatogenesis in the testis. Certain oxidant drugs such as sulfamethoxazole and primaquine produce hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency. It also stimulates synthesis of estrogen and progesterone in the corpus luteum. lifelong hemolytic anemia and tissue hypoxia. 445 (b) The principal storage of glycogen in the body is found in the skeletal muscles and liver. 439 (b) The breakdown of complex molecules such as protein. It consists of glucose and galactose.

tuberculosis. Marasmus is also known as a protein deficit disorder. cauliflower. It has better resolution than Phase contrast microscopy. UGA and UAA are known as Termination codons. Krisman 460 (d) All. It is usually seen in children. 184 . The deficiency of this vitamin causes bleeding disorder. 456 (b) The end product of purine catabolism is uric acid. however it produces three dimensional views of the surfaces of specimens. spinach. 461 (a) Dark field microscopy is indicated to observe microorganisms that do not stain or are difficult to stain. Certain mammals further oxidize uric acid into allantoin. Transfer RNA comprises 15% of total RNA and Messenger RNA comprises 5% of the total RNA. anorexia. It produces three dimensional images. When one of these codons appears in an mRNA chain. edema. depigmented hair and a decrease in plasma albumin concentration are common symptoms associated with this disease.pharmacyexam. AUG is classified as Initiation codon in the process of peptide chain synthesis. Normarski microscopy is also useful for the observation of finer details of internal structures of unstained organisms. Weakness. The serum concentration of uric acid plays an important role in precipitating gout. anemia and extreme muscle weakness are common symptoms associated with this disease. rickettsia and hypocalcemia. The specimen should be visualized in different degrees of brightness and darkness. such as M. it indicates that the peptide chain synthesis coded by the mRNA is about to be complete. 454 (b) Vitamin D is not a water soluble vitamin. and is very expensive. 462 (c) Acid fast stains generally stain the mycobacterium species of bacteria. UAG. Stop codons or Nonsense codons. 458 (a) Ribosomal RNA comprises 80% of total RNA. It uses visible light. and this further degrades (only in animals) to urea or ammonia. leprare and M. Scanning electron microscopy also uses electron beams instead of light rays. It plays an important role in increasing the uptake of calcium by the intestine. liver and egg yolk are principal sources of vitamin K. It is used to study a thin section of cells for the details of internal structure. Bright field microscopy is the mostly employed microscopic method. It occurrs due to chronic deficiency of calories and can occur even in the presence of intake of adequate protein. Skin lesions. Deficiency of this vitamin causes osteoporosis.www. 457 (b) The small and circular extrachromosomal DNA molecules in bacteria that carry genetic information for future generations are known as plasmids. Phase contrast microscopy is used to observe the internal structure of unstained microorganisms. Transmitting electron microscopy uses electron beams instead of light rays. The microorganism generally appears colored on a light background.com 453 (b) Kwashiorkor is a protein-deficient malnutrition disorder. 455 (a) Cabbage. 459 (a) Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the DNA to cytosol for protein synthesis.

up to such an extent they are not able to produce any kind of disease. it dramatically increases in the log phase and decreases in the decline phase. The movement of bacteria toward or away from certain substances in their environment by an unknown mechanism is known as chemotaxis. Most of the prokaryotic cells such as bacteria are unicellular organisms. Carbon source. A solution of substance that needs to be tested should be placed on the plate. osmotic pressure and radiation are the physical factors needed for the growth of the bacteria. The tail sheath of bacteriophage normally helps in the transformation of genome from the head into the cytoplasm of the host cell. animals and fungi fall into this class. bacteria with two flagella located at each end are known as amphitrichous. hydrostatics pressure. 472 (c) The reduction of the numbers of pathogenic microorganisms. helical structure known as flagella. Sterilization is defined as the complete removal of all microorganisms from the material or an object. The plate and tail fibers normally help the bacteriophage to attach to the specific receptor site on the cell wall of the susceptible host bacterium. nitrogen source. 470 (c) When the transfer of genetic information from one cell to another cell is carried out by the plasmid. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane bound structures. Most plants. it is known as conjugation. These cells lack a nucleus and other membrane bound structures. sulfur and phosphorus are nutritional factors for the growth of bacteria. If colonies of salmonella (that means the substance has a mutagen ability to grow salmonella without histidine) appear then the test sub- Krisman stance has the ability to produce mutagenicity and vice versa. pH. thin. 468 (c) The growth of bacteria remains constant in the stationary phase. 465 (b) Bacteria that can move away from (negative phototaxis) or move towards (positive phototaxis) the light are known as phototaxis. 464 (c) Most bacteria are able to move through the long.pharmacyexam. A cancer producing property is usually associated with the mutagenic (capability of a substance to alter DNA) property of a substance.www. so determining that a substance is capable of producing mutagenicity is the first step to identify carcinogenicity of the substance. Bacteria with only one flagella located at one end are known as monotrichous. temperature. vitamins.com 463 (b) All living cells can be classified as prokaryotic or eukaryotic. 185 . is known as disinfection. 467 (b) The synthesis of protein and lipids in cells is generally carried out by endoplasmic reticulum. bacteria with two or more flagella located at one or both ends are known as lophotrichous and bacteria with flagella all over the body are known as peritrichous. 466 (a) An AMES test can be used to find out whether a substance has the capability to produce carcinogen. trace elements. 469 (b) Moisture. In an AMES test. the growth medium that lacks histidine is inoculated with salmonella that requires histidine to grow. oxygen. 471 (a) A Genome (a component of the bacterio phage) carries the genetic informations necessary for replication of new phage particles.

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