CQE Sample Test #3

1. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this results in a reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in A. Appraisal costs. B. Operation costs. C. Quality costs. D. Failure costs.

2. A method of improving the performance in any function area of your company including product or service quality would be A. Utilizing FMEA or FMECA techniques. B. Applying the benchmarking process. C. Instituting an improved design review procedure. D. Reading the Malcolm Baldrige application guidelines.

3. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough benchmarking ? A. Researching the competitive and non-competitive intelligence. B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarks source. C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient. D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

4. An essential technique in making training programs effective is to A. Have training classes which teach skills and knowledge required. B. Feedback to the employee meaningful measures of his performance. C. Post results of performance before and after the training program. D. Set individual goals instead of group goals.

5. One of the requirements for post-process control of quality information equipment is the testing of completed large-scale products. Such engineering tests must . Be comprehensive and accurate. . Meet customer requirements. . Meet reliability and safety standards. . Be performed within a cost effective time frame. A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

6. When giving instructions to those who will perform a task, the communication process is completed A. When the worker goes to his work station to do the task. B. When the person giving the instruction has finished talking. C. When the worker acknowledges these instructions by describing how he will perform the task. D. When the worker says that he understands the instructions.

7. Acceptable corporate quality goals are normally derived from . The quality department. . Identified customer needs. . Top management objectives. . The quality council. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and IV only D. II and IV only

8. When considering human motivation in solving quality problems, it is MOST important to recognize that A. Individuals have wants and needs. B. Individuals have different levels of needs. C. Individual motivation is of little concern in quality problem solving. D. All individuals have basic needs.

9. Consider the following information system planning steps 1. Determine the processing / analysis requirements. 2. Identify data inputs. 3. Define the QIS scope and objectives. 4. Define outputs and their uses. 5. Flow chart the system. Arrange the above steps into a logical development sequence. A. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 B. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

10. Which of the following quality leaders is associated with the definition of quality as "fitness for use" ? A. Joseph M. Juran. C. W.Edwared Deming. B. Philip B. Criosby. D. Armand V. Feigenbaum.

11. Which one of the following usually represents the greatest problem in quality team operations ? A. Facilitator/leader conflicts. C. Interruptions in meetings. B. Lack of ideas of team members. D. Lack of time by team members.

12. Often costs of quality reports reflect 4-5% of sales when the true amount is 15-20%. Which of the following cost categories is generally neglected ? A. Direct quality department expenses. C. Preventative quality costs. B. Indirect internal and external failure costs. D. Combined appraisal and preventative expenses.

13. A fundamental step in the establishment of Strategic Quality Management is A. Making sure that the quality organization reports to the Chief Executive. B. Surveying customers to determine their level of satisfaction. C. The formation of teams to implement continuous improvement. D. The creation of a quality council (committee, advisory board, etc.).

) A. B. D. 18. Consistently exceed the quoted delivery schedule.14. II only B. Lack of quality in marketed products. Our entire organization is quality minded. A. Provide an initial cost substantially below your competition. D. C. D. The cause(s) for declining productivity rates in the United States is (are) . Exceed the customer's reliability requirements. A service department for all other departments. and specify whose approval is required when there are known risks. In preparing a quality policy concerning a product line for your company you should NOT A. Specify the means by which quality performance is measured. . 17. Identify responsibilities for dispositioning defective hardware. Inspection and process control. II and III only D. B. Include procedural matters or ordinary functional responsibilities. D. C. To coordinate the quality effort. B. Poor communication channels. . C. 16. . Which of the following action steps is MOST recommended to change a satisfied product customer into a delighted customer ? (A delighted customer won't buy anything but your product. What is the principal function of the quality department ? A. I and III only C. Full quality functional deployment. II and Ill 15. The organization listens to the voice of the customer. Develop criteria for identifying risk situations. B. C. Management's refusal to invest more in research and development. Prompt service and product quality. Organizational focus. Have an exceptionally quick warranty claim system. What association does the expression "house of quality" normally make ? A. I.

Gather pertinent customer data. . 2. Measure customer satisfaction. I. . 3 C. 3. 4 B. The capability of the supplier's process. 2. 2. I and III only B. Identify the ISO 9000/Q9000 Standard(s) which contain(s) elements for quality assurance in design and development . Normal set-up information. I. I only C. . A. What is the BEST sequence for developing a customer driven company ? A. Which of the following would be considered key elements in determining the ability of a vendor to supply a satisfactory product ? . The steps necessary to perform certain work. II. 2. B. The identity of the person who does the work. 4. 4 . 4. 3 D. A. III and IV only D. A work instruction does NOT give information about which one of the following ? A. III and IV 21. The extent of the supplier's internal and external product inspection. D. The supplier's corrective action system. 1. ANSI/ASQ Q9002 and ISO 9003.19. ANSI/ASQ Q9000. I and III only D. C. II and IV only C. Develop strategies to fulfill customer satisfaction. 1. ANSI/ASQ Q9001. 1. . 3. II. 2. 3. . 1. I and II only B. Consider the following action steps 1. ISO 9001. 22. 4. II and III 20. Which specifications are applicable. Train employees in customer satisfaction techniques.

26. Upon completion of a branch plant or division quality systems audit. II and III only D. D. an "exit briefing" of concerned personnel should be conducted by the audit team. Quality cost analysis. 25. II and III only C. I. what do high customer satisfaction numbers NOT indicate ? A. . Identifying major quality system deficiencies found during the last audit. Product quality satisfaction. Process capability studies. the complaint rate is MOST directly a measure of A. Customer loyalty. Which of the following is usually a violation of quality audit integrity ? A. Comparing audit results with the branch. . . . D. II. On surveys from customers. Customer satisfaction. C. I and III only B. Rejection rate and specification conformance. C. A system of activities to provide quality of products and service. Market value. Highlighting key areas of improvement since the last audit. C. D.23. Which of the following functions are normally considered work elements of quality control engineering ? . Customer service. 24. A quality control program is considered to be A. Product quality. A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines. Customer satisfaction. B. A. In consumer products. Preproduction planning. Classification of characteristics. A step by step listing of all quality control check points. plant or division last audited. A summary of company quality control policies. D. I. B. Obtaining corrective action commitments. B. B. C. III and IV 27.

An auditor's responsibilities would typically include which of the following ? . If a minor observation is suitably corrected by the auditee during the course of an audit. . I and II only D. Taking action on important audit findings. Taking action on important audit findings. C. The audit team qualifications. . II only B. I and IV only B. it is customarily A. I and III only C. The deficiencies found during the audit. I and III only D. Complying with audit standards and procedures. The working papers used during the audit. I and III only C. A. . D. Documenting and reporting the results of the audit. Determining the scope. II and III only . Omitted from both the exit review and written report. Clarifying the audit objectives. . Included in the exit review but not the written report. II and IV only 31. Maintaining the confidentiality of the audit. An auditor's responsibilities include . II and III only C. purpose and structure of the auditing organization.28. I and IV only D. . The extent of the auditee's compliance A. B. I and II only B. The audit findings would typically NOT include . . 30. II and III 29. A. . I. . I. Omitted from the exit review. Included in the written report only.

35. D. B. Is conducted by nontechnical auditors. II. The inspection system. . B. Condition of equipment. B. I. I. . C. . The physical survey of a potential supplier is NOT performed to assess which one of the following ? A. For optimum results. III and IV 34. the audit function should be an independent organization reporting to A. Quality control. Proposes corrective action for each item uncovered. Production control. C. Manufacturing. Nature of the product lines. B. . C. II only B. Catch defects missed by inspection. D. Measure and report the effectiveness of the control functions. efficient and timely audit reporting and a method for obtaining effective corrective action. Proper positioning of the audit function within the quality organization. Management objectivity toward the quality program audit concept. Selection of capable audit personnel. D. 36. What is the purpose of a quality audit program ? A. What item(s) should be included by management when establishing a quality audit function within their organization ? . A planned audit approach. D. Insure that people follow procedures. C. Is general enough to permit managerial intervention. 33. Level of training of employees.32. An audit will be viewed as a constructive service to the function which is audited when it A. A. II. Top management. II and IV only C. III and IV only D. Provide a super system for continuous improvement. Furnishes enough detailed facts so the necessary action can be determined .

Obtain relatively uniform audits. . One of the MOST important reasons for a checklist in an "in-process" audit is to A. C. I and III only D. On blueprints. . The scope of the audit. Minimize the time required to complete the audit. Which of the following terms represents permission in writing to accept for use. . Single limit tolerances. a completed but nonconforming item. C. D. 40. I only B. Assure that the auditor is qualified. D. C. D. III and IV 39. D. The anticipated audit team size. Reworkable acceptance. Audit inspectors should report to someone who is independent from A. B. II. C. Deviation permit. B. B. Equivalent item.37. Unilateral tolerances. I. either as is or upon completion of rework for a given number of units or specified period of time ? A. Notify the audited function prior to the audit. 38. The proposed audit date(s). A. Middle management. The type of audit to be performed. Limit tolerances. Sales and marketing. Waiver. the extreme measurements permitted by the maximum and minimum size of the feature of an object are called A. I. An annual supplier audit schedule should list which of the following ? . B. Inspection supervision. Nominal dimensions. Production staff functions. 41. . II and IV only C.

B. D. Using automated processed wherever possible. . Which of the following approaches will MOST likely lead to a decrease in internal and external corrective action requests ? A. Hiring and training competent people with quality attitudes. II and IV only D. . Soliciting suppliers that have secured ISO 9000 certification. Ensuring participation of the quality department in design review. D. II. C. Feature grading. . Classification of defects. Scrapping. 46. Which of the following is the responsibility of the MRB Board ? A. B. Circularity. III and IV only D. C. Angularity. Which of the following would be considered to be feature(s) of form in G D & T terminology ? . I. B. III and IV only C. Straightness. A. D. Rework. III and IV 43. A technique whereby various product features are graded as to relative importance is called A. None of the above. I. Completing missed operations. Quality engineering. 45. II and III only B. .42. . Identifying potential suppliers. . Perpendicularity. III and IV . II. Disposition of nonconforming material. I. Using as is. 44. I. Appraising suppliers. Final disposition by quality control of nonconforming material can include . A. Classification of characteristics. II and IV only B. C. II and IV only C.

. II and IV only B. Which of the design forms need only two views to achieve full dimensioning ? A. Round. Automated inspection operations have been successfully applied to which of the following applications ? . Deciding what to do with scrap material. Safety features. Cylindrical. Which of the following is typically created during product design ? . Cylindrical. Manufacturing specifications. . C. D. 48. II. . I. . Perpendicular. Concentric. D. B. Chemical analysis. I and III only B. II and IV only C. D. Deciding what to do with non-conforming material. Product identification. III and IV only D. . . Deciding when corrective action is necessary. 50. A. II. Usually three-view orthographic drawings are used to fully dimension objects. Chamfered.47. Which of the following activities may be the MOST important action of the MRB ? A. I. C. C. II. cone or sphere) is considered which of the following when all points on the surface intersected by a plane are equidistant from the axis ? A. Mechanical gaging. Deciding when to call the customer regarding border-line material. III and IV only C. Visual inspection. Symmetrical. B. III and IV only D. Product reliability. II. III and IV 49. Color determination. A surface of revolution (a cylinder. III and IV 51. B. I. I. A. Symmetrical. .

Usually require a larger sample size for comparable assurance as to the correctness of Decisions in judging a single quality characteristic. C. D. Both. since greater thicknesses can be penetrated. Provide greater assurance. Interpolation rounding. Both since each is equally effective. B. Meniscus. the chance of missing a serious flaw is reduced. C. variables sampling plans A. Ultrasonic. 56. Cylindrical pieces. D. as to the correctness of decisions in judging a single quality characteristic. Stacked parts. 55. Measuring tools. Top management does not provide support.52. B. 54. D. since ultrasonic is less sensitive to porosity and inclusions. B. Radiography. The quality department is understaffed. 53. Have the advantage of greater simplicity. B. Parallax. The principal use of V-blocks is to hold which of the following items in fixed relation to the surface plate ? A. Have the advantage of being applicable to either single or multiple quality characteristics. Several types of good instruments are usually equipped with a mirror behind the dial-pointer to reduce which of the following measurement errors ? A. C. Problems are often not fully solved because : A. The production department hates change. Nonlinearity in lower scale regions. which of the following criteria is the BEST reason for this selection ? A. C. The problem is poorly defined. C. In comparison with attributes sampling plans. B. since the methods complement rather than supplant one another. D. D. When considering whether to use radiographic or ultrasonic inspection to examine critical welds in thick materials. for the same sample size. . Angular pieces.

III and IV only 61. An optical comparator. A sine bar. I. I and II only B. A. D. A bevel protractor. . II and IV only D. Exponential. Subsurface defects cannot be detected. The same person and instrument are used. I. D. What distribution is used to determine the OC curve for an attributes sampling plan ? A. 10 B. B. Level II. 15 C. .57. determine the sample size for a lot size of 100. 60. C. Will not work on porous materials. . Binomial. The binomial or the hypergeometric distribution. B. Which of the following are TRUE statement(s) regarding liquid penetrant testing ? . True testing variability can be obtained in a destructive testing situation under which of the following conditions ? A. 50 58. Using ANSI/ASQ Z1. D. C. C. 59. . When measuring part angles to great accuracy.5. Will not work on ferromagnetic parts. AQL = 6. Enough samples have been tested. normal inspection. An optical flat. Normal. It cannot be obtained. single sampling. A. I and III only C.4. the BEST instrument to select would be which of the following ? A. It is faster than eddy current methods. B. All samples are taken closely together. 20 D.

.85 63. C.62. B. Check the validity of reference standards. That the final customers will not experience defective product. Use random number tables.03 What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects ? A. D.15 4 or more defects = . . D. I and IV only D.35 C. Only variable measurements can be made. The easiest method of generating random numbers for a sampling plan is to A.20 B. Use computer generated numbers. The equipment is both fast and accurate. Measuring and test equipment are normally calibrated to A. III and IV only 64. The use of 100% inspection normally means A. IV only B. Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding the use of pneumatic gages ? . 0. 0. D.70 2 or more defects = . C. II. 0. B. That the lowest over-all quality costs have been considered. III only C. Flip a coin. Determine and/or assure their precision. That there will be an opportunity to rework any product deemed to be outside of specifications. C. 66. . B. The equipment is versatile and can make a variety of measurements. 65.65 D. . I. 0. A high level of skill is required for use. Comply with federal regulations. That selected characteristics have been evaluated against specified standards. Determine and/or assure their accuracy. Given the following probabilities 1 or more defects = . A.35 3 or more defects = . Use the mid-range technique.

70. ASN C. D. The procedure by which the unit was calibrated. Surface finish. Any instrument error found during calibration. B. σ σ C.67. B. Contours. D. A consistent value. AQL D. AOQL B. σ σ B. You are to construct an OC curve. Depth of holes. 68. A reliable value. The identification of the person who performed the calibration. C. σ σ D. 69. C. A typical use for the optical comparator would be to measure A. Which of the following need NOT appear on the calibration label on a unit of measuring and test equipment ? A. The date the unit is due for calibration. C. Which of the following cannot be used as an abscissa value ? A. Diameters of internal grooves. D. A true value. Which of the following is the BEST description of accuracy ? A. LTPD 71. Consider the following information gathered from an R & R study sigma1 = the repeatability standard deviation sigma2 = the reproducability standard deviation The total measurement variation may be determined by which of the expressions shown below: A. B. σ σ . A repeatable value.

75. When specifying the "10:1 calibration principle". Neither corrective nor preventive action. the design should be carefully evaluated by the quality engineer to insure that it has included A. The ratio of calibration standard accuracy to calibrated instrument accuracy. A. C. . C.72. Human motor coordination factors. . The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the secondary standard to that of the primary standard. The ratio of the main scale to vernier scale calibration. A reliability statement for a given product would be incomplete unless it included . B. Both corrective action and preventive action. III and IV only C. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the instrument to that of the primary standard. Having designed a test fixture to performance requirements. The mechanical separation of undersize parts from conforming parts is : A. D. Computer input and printout capability. I and II only B. A numerical probability value. Corrective action. I. I. Low cost components. II and IV only D. Preventive action. Mass production methods. 74. 73. D. C. D. we are referring to A. B. III and IV . I. Operating environmental requirements. B. . II. Successful product performance requirements. Operating time requirements.

II. Assure an acceptable quality to the customer. Given the controller has survived for 5. The concept of accelerated cycling (or a burn-in program) for all devices for six months under normal operating conditions would A. Weak parts must be easily replaceable. Habits are sometimes difficult to change. D. 0. B. Age and skill can limit one's ability to use equipment correctly. 0.4 C. 79. . Assure performance under severe environmental conditions. Failure analysis. III and IV 77. what is the probability of the unit failing before 15. . Qualification test. The probability of this controller surviving for 10. III and IV only D. Reduce premature failures in use. Be of little use. 80.000 hours.2 B. Acceptance test.6 D. . B. Assure that specifications are met under laboratory conditions. D. Significance test. B. Demonstrate the basic function at a minimum testing cost. C. Products should be subjected to tests which are designed to A. I and III only B. A. . I. Improve constant failure rate probability.8 78. II. Conditions such as lighting and heating influence performance. Approximate the conditions to be experienced in customer's application.8. An electronic control module has a constant failure rate. A reliability test conducted during the pre-production stage is called A.76.000 hours is 0. C. C.000 hours ? A. 0. II and III only C. D. Human factors are important considerations when designing for reliability because . 0.

Allowing for part variability. II only B. . of operation ? A. . 31% C. Find the predicted system reliability for the three parts shown if the individual part reliability is 90 percent each for the specified mission time and mission conditions A. I and III only D. 83. . Using this transistor in a device that delivers 180 volts is an B. II.0% C. 90. Operation by user. II and III only C. .1% D. 69% D. II and III 84. I and III only D. I. Derating.2 electrical ratio rule. Measurement of life characteristics. 42% . In-plant testing. A.81.9% B. Application suitability. example of A. The MTBF for an automotive component is 6. 72. and III only 85.000 hrs. I. 89. 19% B. 70. Basic sources of reliability data are . Applying a safety factor. A transistor is rated for use at 220 volts.0% 82. C. Following the 1. Environmental capability. What is the probability of failure for that part after 7. A.000 hrs. Field testing. I and II only B. Reliability testing of parts is performed to yield which of the following type(s) of information ? . III only C. D.

what is the probability of a product surviving until 90 hours ? A. A. 0.920 D. 0 D.99642 91. C. Chance failure phase. 0. Transition phase. 0. B.6543 D. D.5 B.940 B. Designing for maintainability. .92 and R3 = 0. Derating techniques.6585. 0. C. 0. R2 = 0. What is the reliability of the system below if R1 = 0. The first phase in the operation life history of a population of product units is typically called the A.878 C. Assuming independence. Wear out phase. 89. Given a mean time to fail of 90 hours and a constant failure rate.977 88. B.3679 C.6814 B. 0.99127 C. Design redundancy. 0.7121 87. calculate the reliability of the system after 200 hours. Component 2 is normally distributed with a mean of 600 hours and standard deviation of 200 hours.3333 90.9941 C. Acceptance testing. D.92 ? A. 0. Which one of the following will NOT increase reliability in design ? A. 0. 0. 0. 0. 0.99326 D. 0. 0. De-bugging phase.00674 B.86. Component 1 has an exponential failure rate of 3 x 10-4 failures per hour. What is the probability of an item failing in less than 5 hours if it has a constant failure rate of 1/ hour ? A.

Researching the competitive and noncompetive intelligence. PDCA. 96. 95. document. C. More costly. Attaining the target aim. 94. To facilitate a brainstorming session. Vision. Name the continuous improvement loop normally used by teams whereby they decide what they want to accomplish. Reliability may be reduced by failure of sensing devices. The system is too complex. C. carry out the decision. study the results and then repeat the steps A. evaluation. Design. The sequence for the Deming Improvement cycle is A. check. Failure rates are generally high. D. optimization. PDM. Breakthrough achievement. act. Revolutionary progress. D. Evolutionary progress. To show the process capability. B. Why are Pareto diagrams used ? A. What is the major disadvantage of such a model as regards to reliability ? A. D. do. implement. C. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough benchmarking ? A. D. C. Identifying all major critical success functions. B. C. 97. ship. PDPC. observe the effects. C. B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarked source. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient. B. B. D. Plan. creation. To show the flow of information or material. 93. manufacture. inspect. audit. . B. Plan. The Kaizen principle is normally associated with A. In some reliability models redundancy may take the form of standby elements. PCL. To prioritize problems. D.92.

C. It describes a normal curve. Locational data. It is referred to as A. Which of the following sources is most likely to NOT provide input for necessary corrective action ? A. C. C. Customer returns. Inspection results. Who caused the failure. Most of the data points accumulate near the center. Attribute data. Which of the following data are data that can be quantified ? A. D. Variable data. B. 102. . B. D. Random data.98. Continuous data. The weights of cans of paint are considered to be which of the following ? A. C. Coded data. D. D. It has a scattered concentration of points. D. Attribute data. Which of the following elements is LEAST necessary to a good corrective action feedback report ? A. When the correction is effective. 100. D. Systematic diagram. Interrelationship diagram. B. Activity network diagram. A few data points fall outside a normal curve. PDPC 101. 103. B. Calibration techniques. What caused the failure. Discrete data. Audit reports. B. C. B. What correction has been made. The arrow diagram has been converted and expanded in use as a quality management tool. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a stable histogram ? A. C. 99.

Determination of short-term corrective action. Both are there for those who don't like graphs only. All of the above. 106. Check. Act cycle. Graphs help spot data transposition or errors. D. Problem identification and corrective action. To support the Plan. Do. Histogram. Which of the following distributions has a domain of x is greater than or equal to zero ? A. Control limits can be easily applied. B. . D. Lognormal B. II and III 108. A. . C. I only B. Histogram. B. Determination of potential root problem causes. Weibull C. C. As a problem-solving technique. Cause and effect diagram. I. which of the following would be the BEST application for an Ishikawa diagram ? A. Tabular arrays of data and graphs on the same page are especially useful in quality control work because : . What is the name for the graph of a data set made of a series of rectangles each proportional in width to the range of values in a class and proportional in height to the number in the class ? A. . Exponential D. Control chart. II and III only D. 105. Normal curve. Pareto Chart. C. D. B. II only C. Bar chart. Normal distribution. 107. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process ? A.104.

400 miles. that of A. For a certain make of car. the standard deviation of X bar is A. what is the probability of at least one of the cars starting on a cold morning ? A.36 110. 0.05 B. A sample of 100 cars has been selected for testing. Estimated by the arithmetic average. the brake linings have a mean lifetime of 40. What is the probability that a roll of carpet with an average of one (1) flaw per square foot will be rejected by the plan ? A. The expected value of a distribution is .2 sample. The observations in distribution A are grouped closer to the mean than are those in B. 111. 0. D. .95 113. 0. D. 500 miles.109.6.000 miles with a 5. .72 C. B. 0. and we have two such cars. . 0.2 of a 1. . If the probability of a car starting on a cold morning is 0. 0. . 0. Distributions A and B have the same mean. Assuming that the population 112.000 ft. B. The observations in distribution B are grouped closer to the mean than are those in A. A. Equal to the integral of xf(x) over all x. C. There are three times as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B. An inspection plan is set up to randomly sample 3 ft. 0. Estimated by the geometric average.81 C. 50 miles. .84 B. D. B. There are one-third as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B. .90 D.60 D. C.2 carpet and to accept the carpet only if no flaws are found in the 3 ft. C. correction may be ignored. We may conclude that The standard deviation of distribution A is 15. 4000 miles. B is 5.000 mile standard deviation. .

1.25 per pane. Most production processes follow which of the following distributions ? A.0.75 D. 0. 21. B.9. The distribution range. The distribution mean.8. 22. 22. The average number of flaws in large plate glass is . Estimate the standard deviation of the process that produced the following sample 22. None of the above. A box contains 5 red marbles and 2 blue marbles. 0. A.4036 117. C.6864 Given a red marble has been drawn. 22.07564 B.114.25 B.8000 the probability of drawing at least 2 red marbles in the next 3 draws ? C.6911 116.2 D. D.50 118. 115. .05 C. The distribution variance. 0. 0. Poisson. 0.35 B. 23.0587 22. B. Normal. C.7. Exponential. 1. A. 0. what is D. D. The equation below represents: A. The standard deviation of this Poisson distribution is A. The distribution kurtosis.0029 C. 0. 0.4. 0. 0. 0.

D. D. B. B. C.119. C. D. The Cpk value can be improved if the process can be centered. Cp is the ratio of specification width to 6 standard deviations of the process. Recognizing the nature of process variability. Usually increase. D. the mean will A. A Cp of 1 is better than a Cp of 1. You look at a process and note that the chart for averages has been in control. B. Which of the following statements is NOT true ? A. Always decrease. The probability of Event B occurring given Event A has occurred. 121. The equation below represents A. If the range suddenly and significantly increases. Logarithmic interpolation. The same as product specifications. C. Tighter than product specifications. C. Pareto's law. 123. Occasionally show out of control of either limit. The probability of Events A and B occurring. Looser than product specifications. B. Statistical quality control techniques are an application of A. the process capability target is usually A. C.2. The probability of Event A occurring before Event B. Stay the same. 120. 122. D. . Cpk is always less than or equal to Cp. Not related to product specifications. Probability theory. B. The probability of either Event A or B occurring. Permutation concepts.

10. 11. calculate the machine capability standard deviation to nearest 0.3 C. III and IV 125.M. 18. The limits vary with the value of n. 1 0 A.67 D. The central line on the control chart is at 2.49 Determine the 126.004 0.0470 C.76 B. based on a sample size of 10. Compute the upper control limit for an S chart. Which of the following are true statements based on a runs analysis of this data (assume a 95% confidence level)? .7 D. The centerline plotted value is 12. 0. A.002 0. A control chart for defects per unit uses probability limits corresponding to probabilities of 0.002 0.0 06 0 . The actual number of runs is 3.23. 0. 0. 16.975 and 0. 4.001 0.000 0. M 9 A. 20. 1 1 A.0024 B. 3.002 0. 3.001 0. The expected number of runs is 4. 15.73. I. 14. III and IV only D. correct position of these upper and lower control limits when n = 5 A. I.24.124.0013 D. 0. 6. 13.32. Using the range method. II and III only C.0001 of the following 8 A. 8.001 0. The above data would pass a runs analysis test. 8.0030 .7 B.006 A. II.005 0.003 0. . 10.96 C. 0. . 10. .002 0. 0.003 0.005 0.0. I. 2.M.0 03 0 . I and III only B. A run chart has recorded the following values 10. A. 0.00 4 -0.005 -0. 14.025. if the process is in control with a mean of 40 and a sample standard deviation of 7. 0. 0.003 -0. 21 127.M.001 0.

0. what is the probability that the next X-bar point will fall outside the old control limits: A. C. C.5.128.5. 0. 0. D.charts shows the last 50 points to be very near the center line.016 B. 0. In fact.031. This is a terrible situation. the control charts which have been maintained during your absence.029 C. 129. B.0. 130. LCL = 0. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the last 50 samples were taken and nobody thought to recompute the control limits. 0. Somebody "goofed" in the original calculation of the control limits. they all seem to be within about one sigma of the center line.8. He calls your attention to the fact that one of the .7.016 B. I'll get on it right away and see what the trouble is.360 . Greater than that of a u chart. UCL = 23.122 D. What explanation would you offer him ? A.014 C.4 UCL 0. This is fine. 0. what are the upper and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process ? A. the closer the points are to the center line the better our control. You have just returned from a two-week vacation and are going over with your QC manager. The sensitivity of a p-chart to changes in quality is A. Given that resistors are produced in lots of 1000. What is the lower control limit for proportion defective if the average daily production is 5000 units and the average fraction defective is 0. Less than that of a c chart. and that the average number of defective resistors per lot is 12.010 131. 0 D. Equal to that of a chart for averages D. R-bar = 7. D. with the same R. B. If the process level shifts to 101.7 132.3 with n = 4. LCL = 3.2 UCL = 26. UCL = 20. C. LCL = 1. A process is in control at X-bar = 100. LCL = 2. I hope we haven't produced too much scrap.02 ? A. 0. Equal to that of a range chart.131 B.

7 . You determine that it is sometimes economical to permit X to go out of control when ? A. If a process is out of control. Stop the process immediately. The 135. The cost of inspection is high.133. 0. C. Take more readings and continue to plot. 47. The individual R's exceed B. four out of the last five points are beyond 1 sigma and eight successive points are on one side of the center line. 136. Write a discrepancy notice to the supervisor. 48.0012 D. 0. One item is randomly selected. The three-sigma limits of the process are C. Unknown D. 47. what is the probability of this item having a value greater than 210 ? A.3446 B. 0. Investigate to determine what has changed.0375 .0 and 53.9 B. you should A. You are plotting a control chart and the last two of three points are greater than 2 sigma .3 and 54. .1 and 51. D. the theoretical probability that a single point on the X-bar chart will fall between plus one sigma and the upper control limit is A. 45. C.0228 C.2240 B. 0. 0. D. A process is normally distributed with a mean of 200 and a variance of 25. A process is in control with approximately A.8 D.1587 C. σ is appreciably less than the difference between specifications.3413 134. B.2 and 52.0 137. 0. control limits are inside the drawing tolerance limits. 0.

B. II and III . D. B. C. 1. I and II only B. n = 20 adversely affects the location of the mean. The process capability adjusted for centering. sample subgroup sizes larger than 20 should not be used because A. A process measurement has a mean of 758 and a standard deviation of 19. Percentage bound. D. The limits for a Range chart. Increase the number of treatment effects. B. Jacobian interval.9% If the specification limits are 700 and 800.4. distribution ? A. 2. 7. When small samples are used to estimate the standard deviation through use of the range statistic.4% D. The efficiency of the range as an estimator of the standard deviation falls to 70%. II and III only D. what percent of product can be expected to be out of limits assuming a normal 140. 141. D. The distribution for n = 20 is skewed. 139. The equation below represents σ A. The limits for an X Bar control chart. I and III only C.7% B. 142. C. Tolerance internal. C. Provide a means for estimating the experimental error.1% C.138. 3. Which of the following purposes are served by replicating an experiment ? . Confidence internal. The number 20 causes calculation difficulties. . The probability of meeting specification. Improve the precision of estimates of treatments effects. A. . I. An interval that contains a specific proportion of the individuals from a population with a given confidence is a A.

26 B. 12 D. are compared : A B C 4 2 -3 8 0 1 5 1 -2 7 -2 -1 6 4 0 How many degrees of freedom are used to compute the error variance ? A. Chi-square. Chi-square test. If the plating time of a tube increases as the inside diameter decreases. Exponential.05 level of 146. Given the following results obtained from a fixed factor randomized block designed experiment in which the production outputs of three machines A.143. Greater than 1 D. then the correlation coefficient for the inside diameter versus plating time would be A. D. t distribution. F distribution. were obtained on ten samples.23 C. 2. Between 0 and +1 B.09 What is the tabular value of the statistic used to determine the significance of the mean difference at the . 2. B. Duplicate readings. C. Normal. 144.11 D. using two separate instruments. B. 145. Between 0 and -1 C. Ratios of two variances drawn from the same normal population are described by which one of the following distributions ? A. F distribution. 2. B. The variance of what distribution is equal to twice its degrees of freedom ? A. Equal to 1 . C. Student's t C. 2. 14 147. 3 C. probability ? A. D. 2 B.

When constructing a power of test curve one would NOT be surprised to discover that as alpha ( α ) increases: I. The total sum of squares of deviations from the grand mean is equal to the sum of squares of deviations between treatment means and the grand mean plus the sum of squares of deviation within treatments.148. II. The total variance. The degrees of freedom are not additive. 149. II and III only C.208 D. The total standard deviation is equal to the sum of the standard deviation for the treatment effect plus the standard deviation of the random error. compute SST. 150. The variances within the treatment groups. C.533 151. The variances of the treatment groups. D. I. 2. B. A basic population model can be constructed to represent the behavior of the experimentation. In a single analysis of variance. B. 4. 8. III and IV only D. Given the data below. All of the above. II and III only B. The sample size beomes larger A. The value of mu (m ) becomes greater Beta (b ) decreases III. the assumption of homogeneity of variances applies to A. The fundamental equation of analysis of variance may express the idea that A. C. 1-Beta (b ) increases IV.667 B. Component A 12 13 11 A. 12. D. I and IV only .104 Component B 14 12 Component C 16 15 12 C.

There is a strong linear relationship between x and y. D. May require the need to estimate the parameters during the experimentation. I only B.829 C. .778 .95 for two variables. 0. The larger the interval. x and y.826 154. A Latin square design is an experimental design which A. 0. of trials necessary if all interactions are ignored ? A. 80% had anti-lock brakes. 7 What is the minimum number 153. interval for the percent of vehicles with anti-lock brakes ? A.0.0. Neither I nor II 155. Increasing n increases the interval.774 . 156. C. 0.821 B. means that . 0.95x. B. An experiment has 3 factors with 2 levels and 1 factor with 3 levels. A correlation of +0.0. A. Cannot be used when estimation of the interaction effect is desired.954 What is the 95% confidence D.152. the better the estimate of μ . Both I and II D. Increasing n decreases the interval. 4 B. D. When finding a confidence interval for mean μ A. 6 D. Affords a good estimate of interaction effects. B.771 . C. 5 C. . II only C.0. Having to use based on a sample size of n instead of n decreases the interval. In a random sample of 900 vehicles.639 . May not permit all treatments in every block. y may be predicted from x using the equation y = 0.

Rocket A 61 readings 1. Least squares is required to determine the best-fit straight line. Is producing too many defectives when it is. . D.157. The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1. The higher the coefficient of determination.35. the better the fit.30 B. C.40 D. Is not producing too many defectives when it is not. No significant difference because Fcal < Ftable.035 158.237 miles 2 B.. 2 Rocket B 31 readings 2. The type II error is to conclude that the process: A. No significant difference because Fcal > Ftable. Later. Significant difference because Fcal < Ftable. 159. The coefficient of determination ranges from 0 to 1. D.347 miles A. 160. D. A null hypothesis assumes that a process is producing no more than a maximum allowable rate of defective items. 0. B. Its new value will be A. C.. 0. Is producing too many defectives when it actually isn't. 0. C. coefficient was computed using the corrected scores. it was discovered that there was a The correlation defect in the speedometers and they had all been set 5 miles per hour too fast. Significant difference because Fcal > Ftable. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0. 0. Is not producing too many defectives when it actually is.35 C. Which of the following statements is not correct in regards to regression analysis ? A. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and their gasoline mileage. Determine whether the following two types of rockets have significantly different variances at the 5% level.. B.

Solution #3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 D B B B A C B B C A A B D D A 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B C B C B C B B D C D B B C B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 B B D A D C B D C A B D D C B 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 C A D B D D A D C B D C A B B 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 D D C D B C A B B B A D C A D 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 D A C B A C D D D 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 D 106 C 121 D 136 B 151 B B 107 D 122 D 137 B 152 C B 108 D 123 C 138 B 153 D B 109 A 124 A 139 A 154 A B 110 B 125 A 140 C 155 A B 111 B 126 A 141 B 156 D C 112 D 127 C 142 B 157 B B 113 B 128 B 143 A 158 B A 114 D 129 D 144 A 159 B C 100 B 115 D 130 B 145 A 160 D B 101 A 116 C 131 A 146 C B 102 B 117 D 132 A 147 B A 103 B 118 C 133 C 148 A B 104 A 119 D 134 C 149 A C 105 C 120 B 135 D 150 C .