Test Booklet No. 7 7 0 3 7 3

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1. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. 2. Fill in the information required on the answer sheet. Your test may not be evaluated if the required details are not entered on the answer sheet. 3. This booklet consists of three sections A, B and C with 38, 38 and 44 questions respectively, i.e. a total 120 questions. You will be given two hours to complete the test. Each question carries 1 mark. If there is a problem with your test booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. 4. You are required to answer questions from all three sections and expected to maximize scores in each section. 5. Each question has five alternatives. Answer each question by darkening the appropriate alternative letter against the question number on the answer sheet. For example if your answer to question number 1 is ‘B’, darken fully the circle ‘B’ against question 1. 6. All answers are to be marked only on the (OMR) answer sheet. Use the margin in the test booklet for rough work. No other piece of paper is permitted to be used for rough work. 7. Use only HB pencil. 8. NEGATIVE MARKS (one fourth of a mark) may be deducted for the first six incorrect answers in each section and 0.5 (half a mark) for each incorrect answer thereafter. 9. Failure to follow instructions and examination norms will lead to disqualification.




Space for rough work

Question No 1-5: In each of the five consecutive years namely Year 1, Year 2, Year 3, Year 4 and Year 5 (in that order), the sports department of a school organized a game in which exactly five students participated every year. Every year, at the end of the game, the five participants were given five different ranks viz. Rank 1, Rank 2, Rank 3, Rank 4 and Rank 5. The number of points awarded to the participants ranked 1, 2 and 3 were 5, 3 and 1 respectively. No points were awarded to the participants ranked 4 and 5. At the end of the game in year 5, the total number of points awarded to nine participants viz. Aman, Aabhas, Naveen, Urmi, Sameer, Rashmi, Sanjay, Kanika and Prashant were as given in the following table: 2. At the end of the game in Year 4, how many participants, out of all the mentioned nine, were awarded lesser number of points than the number of points awarded to Rashmi ? A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 8 E. Cannot be determined 3. In Year 5, what is the ratio of the number of points awarded to Sanjay and Sameer? A. 1: 3 B. 3: 1 C. 1: 5 D. 5:1 E. Cannot be determined 4. In Year 2, the list of participants who were awarded Rank 1, Rank 3 and Rank 2 (in that order) is A. Aabhas, Urmi and Rashmi B. Naveen, Aabhas and Urmi C. Urmi, Rashmi and Naveen D. Sameer, Urmi and Rashmi E. Cannot be determined. 5. In which of the following years, was Rashmi awarded Rank 2? A. Year 2 B. Year 3 C. Year 4 D. Year 5 E. Both (A) and (C)

Name of the Student Point Aman 5 Aabhas 5 Naveen 8 Urmi 2 Sameer 5 Rashmi 6 Sanjay 4 Kanika 10 Prashant 0
In Year 1, Aman, Aabhas, Naveen, Urmi and Sameer participated in the game. In Year 2, Rashmi replaced Aman in the game. In Year 3, Sanjay replaced Aabhas in the game. The same process followed in the subsequent years. It is also known that out of all the nine students, Kanika was the only student who was awarded points in two consecutive years. 1. If Sameer was awarded Rank 3 in Year 3, then which of the following participants was awarded Rank 2, in Year 3? A. Naveen B. Rashmi C. Sanjay D. Either (A) or (B) E. Either (B) or (C)

Question No 6-9: Sixteen teams viz. T1, T2, T3... and T16 are participating in a knock-out hockey tournament which has four rounds viz. Pre Quarterfinals, Quarter-finals, Semi-finals and Final. Based on their past records, the teams T1, T2, T3... and T16 are assigned ranks 1, 2, 3...and 16 respectively. Assume that the ranks assigned to the different teams do not change before the last match of the tournament is over. Following information is given about the four rounds: Round I. Pre Quarter-finals: The first match of this round is played between the two teams ranked 1 and 16. The second match is played between the two teams ranked 2 and15. Following the same pattern, the eighth match is played between the two teams ranked 8 and 9. Round II. Quarter-finals: The first quarterfinals match is played between the teams winning the first and the eighth matches of the pre quarter-finals. The second quarterfinals match is played between the teams winning the second and the seventh matches of the pre quarter-finals. The teams for the other two matches are selected on the same pattern. Round III. Semi-finals: The first semi-finals match is played between the teams winning the first and the fourth matches of the quarter-finals. The second semi-finals match is played between the teams winning the second and the third matches of quarter-finals. Round IV. Final: The final match is played between the winners of the two matches in the semi-finals. All the matches of the tournament are played on one or the other of the four grounds viz. G1, G2, G3 and G4. On any given day, only two matches can be played on each of these grounds - one in the morning slot and the other in the evening slot. 6. There must be a gap of exactly two slots (i.e. one morning slot and one evening slot, in any order) before a team plays it’s next match. If all the matches of the tournament have to be finished in “x” number of days, then which of the following must be correct?

A. The final match cannot be played in the evening slot of the 6th day. B. If eight matches are played on the first day, then no matches can be played on the second day. C. For ‘x’ to be minimum, no match should be played on the fourth day. D. The minimum value of ‘x’ is 7. E. None of the above. 7. A team “T” has a rank which is an even number. It is observed that, whenever team T plays against a team which is ranked lower than T, team T definitely wins. Each of the following statements could be correct, EXCEPT: A. Team T8 did not reach the semi-finals. B. Team T6 did not reach the semi-finals. C. In one of the semi-finals matches, team T3 plays with team T6. D. Team T2 wins the tournament. E. All of these. 8. Between ranks of the two teams which are scheduled to play in a match, if the higher rank is an even number then the match is played either on G1 or on G3. Between the ranks of the two teams which are scheduled to play in a match, if the higher rank is an odd number then the match is played either on G2 or on G4. If the observation mentioned in Q7 above holds true, then which of the following statements is definitely true? A. All the matches in the quarter-finals and the semi-finals rounds can be played on ground G3. B. Number of matches played on grounds G2 or G4 is more than that for grounds G1 or G3. C. Number of matches played on grounds G1 or G3 is more than that for grounds G2 or G4. D. Final match will be played either on ground G1 or on ground G3. E. More than three-fourth of all the matches in the tournament can be played on ground G1.

9. If teams T3 and T9 play in the semi-finals, then which of the following statements could be correct? A. Neither T4 nor T12 play in the final. B. Teams T4 and T5 can be the two teams playing the final match. C. Teams T3 and T10 can be the two teams playing the final match. D. Both (A) and (B). E. Both (B) and (C). Question No 10 to 13: Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H, I and J joined a fitness center. The fitness center is closed on Monday. At the fitness center, a week starts from a Tuesday and ends on the Sunday that follows it. On each of the six days of a particular week, exactly three persons visited the fitness center such that each person visited the fitness center on at least one day of that week. There are exactly four persons who visited the fitness center on more than two days. Further, the following constraints must be obeyed. (I) Both D and E visit the fitness center on three of the first four days of the week. (II) H does not visit the fitness center unless both A and B also visit the fitness center. (III) Each of B, I and J visits the fitness center on different days of the week. (IV) C and F always visit the fitness center on the same day of the week. (V) None of the persons visited the fitness center on three consecutive days of the week. 10. Which of the following persons visited the fitness center on exactly three days? A. I B. J C. H D. B E. C 11. If A did not visit the fitness center on Sunday and J visited the fitness center only on Friday, then which of the following can be the day on which I visited the fitness center?

A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Saturday D. Sunday E. Both (B) and (C) 12. If E and I visited the fitness center on Sunday and Friday respectively, then on which day did J visit the fitness center? A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Saturday E. Cannot be determined 13. If J and I visited the fitness center on Tuesday and Friday respectively, then which of the following persons definitely visited the fitness center on Sunday? A. A B. C C. E D. J E. Cannot be determined Question No 14-19: In the game "Codes", new "messages" are composed and given messages are modified to form another message. A message, whether new or modified, consists of exactly five "words" (meaningful or meaningless) and a word consists of at least six letters of the English alphabets. Within a message, words are written from left to right. A message cannot start with a vowel and no two consecutive words can have vowels. Except for the first word, the successive words are formed by applying exactly one of the four operations to the preceding word- exchange the order of any two letters, add a letter, delete a letter and replace a letter with another. Each word is formed by a different operation than what was used to form the preceding word. The first and the last letter of a message must be the same. Reversing the order of the letters in the first word of the given message forms the first word of the modified message and the successive words are formed using exactly one of the four operations

(as given above) but by applying an operation other than the one applied to form the respective words in the given message. 14. Which of the following messages is valid? A. Cwpstn cwpstc wpstc mwpstc mapstc B. Tbchxpm tbcxhpm tbcxpm mbcxpt mabcxpt. C. Lpstrnm alpstmnh xlpstmn lpstmn npstml. D. Qwertys swertyq swrtyq qwrtys swrtyq. E. Malick malbck mlbckm mlbkcm mkblcm 15. Which of the following is a valid modification of the message given below? Jhghusd jhghpsd dhghpsj dhgpsj adhgpsj A. Dsuhghj dshghj dshfhj dshfhpj jshfhpd B. Dsuhghj dsehghj dsahghj dsbhghj jsbhghd C. Dsuhghj dshghj dshgej dshgqj jshgqd D. Dsuhghj dshghj dshgfj dshgjf fshgjd E. Dsuhghj dshghj dshhgj dhshhqj jhshhqd 16. The third and the fourth words in a modified message are "vfksjy" and "vjksfy". Which of the following, in the given order, can never be the third and the fourth words in the original message? A. vfksjy vjksjy B. fveksjy fvksjy C. kfvsjy kfvsjay D. skfvjy skfvjey E. fvksjy fkvsjy 17. Which of the following word cannot be used as the first word of a message? A. Kmnopp B. Mnpokk C. Pmnkoo D. Nopkmm E. Pomknn 18. What is the maximum number of vowels that a message can use in it? A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 19. The first word of a message has 7 distinct letters in it. How many letters will the message have, if it has the maximum possible number of distinct letters in it? A. 40 B. 41 C. 36 D. 37 E. 42 Question No 20-23: Eight children are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 such that exactly one number is written on the shirt of each child. The mentioned children ate eight fruits on a particular day such that each child ate exactly one fruit. The fruits eaten by any of the mentioned children are of three types - apple, orange and mango. At least one and at most three fruits of each type were eaten by the mentioned children. The consecutive time slots of the day in which these eight fruits were eaten are I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII, in that order. Additional Information Given: 1. No two fruits of the same type were eaten in any two consecutive time slots. 2. No two consecutively numbered children ate either a mango or an apple. 3. Three consecutively numbered children ate an orange each. 4. The children numbered 1 and 7 ate an apple and a mango respectively. 20. Which of the following fruits did child numbered 4 eat? A. Apple B. Orange C. Mango D. Either (A) or (B) E. Either (A) or (B) or (C)

21. If the time slots in which child numbered 3, 1 and 7 ate the fruit is IV, V and III respectively, then which of the following MUST be false? A. The time slot in which child numbered 2 ate the fruit is II. B. The time slot in which children numbered 4 and 5 ate the fruit is VI and VII respectively. C. The time slot in which children numbered 2 and 5 ate the fruit is VI and VIII respectively. D. The time slots in which children numbered 6 and 8 ate the fruit is VI and VII respectively. E. None of the above

told.” If it turned out that at least one philosopher stated the correct number of lies that had been told before he made the claim, then how many lies did the 12 philosophers, actually tell? A. 10 B. 12 C. 7 D. 2 E. 11

25. In the following figure, a small square is drawn inside a large square. The two diagonals of the smaller square coincide with the diagonals of the larger 22. If the time slots in which children numbered 5 and square. From the set {1,2,3,...,1999, 2000}, four 3 ate the fruit is I and II respectively, then each of the consecutive even numbers x1, x2, x3 and x4 and four following statements could be true, EXCEPT: consecutive odd numbers y1, y2, y3 and y4 are selected and are filled in the square, as shown in the A. The time slot in which child numbered 4 ate the fruit figure. is III. x1 B. The time slot in which children numbered 6 and 8 x 2 ate the fruit is III and IV respectively. y1 y2 y3 y4 C. The time slots in which children numbered 1 and 8 x3 ate the fruit is V and VI respectively. x4 D. Both (A) and (B) E. Both (B) and (C) Which of the following statements is definitely true? 23. Which of the following sequences of fruits eaten by children numbered 2, 3, 5 and 8(in that order) is not possible? A. Orange, Orange, Mango and Apple B. Mango, Orange, Mango and Apple C. Orange, Orange, Apple and Apple D. Both (A) and (C) E. Both (B) and (C) 24. Twelve philosophers participate in an international meet. At some point, one of the philosophers commented, “In our talks, one lie has been told”. Immediately following this comment, another philosopher commented, “Now two lies have been told.” which, in turn, was followed by the third such comment, “Now three lies have been told.”. The philosophers continued to comment until the twelfth philosopher commented, “Now 12 lies have been A. If x4 > x3 > x2 > x1 and y4 > y3 > y2 > y1, then the sum of numbers inside the smaller square is always equal to the sum of numbers outside the smaller square. B. The product of the numbers inside the smaller square is greater than the product of the numbers outside the smaller square. C. When taken two numbers at a time, y4 + x4 is the maximum possible sum. D. The sum of all the numbers in the bigger square is completely divisible by 5. E. None of these.

Question No 26-38: The caselets given below are followed by a set of question/s. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 26. In 1998 the Tatas acquired Britain-based Littlewoods retail stores in Bangalore and renamed them Westside. Before entering the Indian retail segment, Westside conducted market research on retailing trends in the domestic and international markets. It was observed that in India, garment retailers generally stocked both store-owned brands and other brands in the ratio of 30:70, as it was easy to attract customers for the established brands. However, many major international retailers stocked only their own brands because of high returns, increased store loyalty and less restriction in terms of display, price and promotion. Stocking of only storeowned brands for Indian retailers posed certain problems. Though they offered higher margins, retailers suffered on account of poor economies of scale (until they established many outlets) and heavy investment in brand building. In such a scenario what would be the best strategy Westside can adopt in order to maximize long-term profits? A. Push its own premium in-store products and earn higher margins through higher prices and more control over the manufacture, quality and distribution. B. Push its own premium in-store products at a discounted price in order to attract the more pricesensitive customers C. Maintain a mix of in-store and other brands in order to attract more customers, even though other brands do not command such higher margins D. Push its own premium in-store brand to earn higher margins and at the same time pass on the savings from cutting out intermediaries to the customers E. Focus on recruiting young and smart sales personnel in order to enhance customer service at its stores. 27. In an incident at the local factory of a large multinational company, the CEO was heckled by three representatives of the workers’ union with whom he

had been having a meeting. Soon after the incident, the management dismissed the three employees The employees involved accepted their dismissal letters but subsequently provoked other workers to go in for a strike to protest the management’s move. The workers at the factory went on a strike for two days after that. The incident had opened a can of worms. The three men who were charge-sheeted, were members of the 41-member committee of BMU, which had strong political connections with the ruling party in the state where the factory was located. Thus the incident became more of a political issue rather than an industrial relations problem when the party started pressurizing the company to resolve the incident in favour of the workers. The trio had also been close to senior managers of the company who were no longer there and had farmed out a large part of the contract labour operations to them. The CEO was also of the view that recalling the chargesheeted workers would set a bad precedent in a company where the labour union was perpetually restive and might be harmful to the company’s interest in the long run. In such a complicated scenario the company was not sure whether to reconsider its substantial investment plans in the state or not. The management of the company is considering the following options in order to resolve the present crisis: 1. Close down the factory where the strike is happening as well indefinitely postpone its investment plans in the state in order to coerce the BMU and the state apparatus to help lift the workers’ strike. 2. Recall the chargesheeted workers in order to lift the strike even though it may set a bad precedent in the company 3. Order for an impartial judicial enquiry into the issue to determine whether the dismissal of the employees was legally right and ask the state apparatus to convince the striking workers to abide by the verdict of the enquiry. 4. Negotiate with the three dismissed workers and offer a generous severance package so that they may themselves help resolve the situation and have the strike lifted.

5. Have the CEO removed hoping that the incident would then resolve out by itself. From the management’s point of view, keeping in mind the company’s objectives, the options for finding a solution to the crisis, in the descending order of ease of implementation would be: A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 B. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 D. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 E. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 Question No 28-29: On June 13, 1999, Coca-Cola (Coke) recalled over 15 million cans and bottles after the Belgian Health Ministry announced a ban on Coke’s drinks, which were suspected of making more than 100 school children ill in the preceding six days. This recall was in addition to the 2.5 million bottles that had already been recalled in the previous week. Children at six schools in Belgium had complained of headache, nausea, vomiting and shivering which ultimately led to hospitalization after drinking Coke’s beverages. Most of them reported an ‘unusual odor’ and an ‘off-taste’ in the drink. In the same week, the governments of France, Spain and Luxembourg also banned Coke’s products while Coke’s Dutch arm recalled all products that had come from its Belgium plant. The entire episode left more than 200 Belgians and French, mostly school children, ill after drinking the Coke produced at Antwerp and Dunkirk. By June 15, 1999, Coke had recalled about 30 million cans and bottles, the largest ever product recall in its 113-year history. For the first time, the entire inventory of Coke’s products from one country were banned from sale. As part of a damage control exercise, Coke sent a team of scientists to Europe. Coke Belgium even announced that it would reimburse the medical costs for people who had become ill after consuming its products. The recall had a significant negative impact on Coke’s financial performance.

Analysts felt that the Belgium recall was one of the worst public relations problems in Coke’s history. One analyst alleged that the company had information about people who had become ill weeks prior to the above incidents. Coke had an opportunity to disclose this information but it did not do so. Others blamed Coke’s promotion strategy to sell soft drinks to school children which had raised lot of controversies in the US. 28. Any decision can be broken down into six important decision-making points: 1. Framing – The way the decision is visualized, articulated in the decision maker’s mind: for example a person deciding to buy a particular Brand X of air-conditioner may frame his decision as either: “ I need to buy the cheapest possible air-conditioner, therefore I shall buy Brand X”, or , “I need to buy an air conditioner that has the least frequency of after sales breakdown, therefore, I shall buy Brand X’ 2. People - The people who are going form part of the decision-making process 3. Process - The process one is going to follow in making the decision 4. Alternatives – The alternatives one would consider in arriving at the decision 5. Information – The information one would consider in making a decision 6. Values – The criteria with respect to which one would make the decision (e.g in the air-condition buying example, a clear set of criteria against which the decision could have been made would have included factors such as price, design, product-performance, after-sales service, etc.) Coke’s decision to adopt certain remedial measures in Europe in the light of the Belgium recall would have involved which of the following decision-making points? A. Framing, values & process B. People, process & information C. People, information & values D. Values, framing & people E. Values, alternatives & people
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29. The situation best highlights which of the following errors: A. Managerial short-sightedness in decision-making. B. Inadequate dissemination of information at a critical juncture C. Managerial incompetence in handling negative customer feedback D. B and C above E. A, B and C above Question No 30-31: The exclusive school contracts in the US allowed Coke exclusive rights to sell its products – soda, juices, and bottled water - in all the public schools of a district. Under the plan, the schools got $350,000 as an “up front” money and a percentage which ranged from 50 percent to 65 percent of total sales. The exclusive contract with Coke represented one of the fastest growing areas of commercialism of schoolhouses According to the Center for Commercial-Free Public Education (CCFPE) in April 1998, there were 46 exclusive contracts between school districts and soft drink bottlers in 16 states in the US. By July 1999, it increased to 150 contracts across 29 states. Critics said that these contracts represented the growing trend of commercialization on school campuses. When students saw products advertised in their schools, they frequently thought that it was something that the schools were endorsing. By displaying its logos prominently in public schools, Coke hoped to re-establish brand loyalty and brand recognition. A study found that the average American teenager could identify some 1,000 corporate logos, but could not name even ten plants and animals in the area where he or she lived. Parents were concerned about the proliferation of logos on school scoreboards, walls, buses and textbooks. Some groups opposed the commercialization in schools saying that it was unethical, immoral and exploitative. They criticized the education community for encouraging commercialization in schools. Alex Molnar, Professor of Education, University of Wisconsin, Milwaukee
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said, “It is an erosion in our culture between what is public and what is private. It represents a subversion of the idea that the school is for the public welfare.” 30. From the passage, which of the following cannot be concluded as one of the plausible reasons for parents being concerned about the proliferation of logos? A. The logos were a source of distraction for students from academic work B. The logos actively encouraged teenagers to spend more on soft drinks C. It seemed that the schools were actively endorsing a soft-drink consuming habit among students D. The schools were not passing on the earnings from the contracts in the form of fee reduction for students E. The exclusive school contracts smacked of commercialization and marked a deviation from the purpose with which schools were set up. 31. The following are the measures the Government could have taken to solve the exclusive school contracts controversy. 1. Cancel the exclusive school contracts 2. Limit the display of logos on public school premises 3. Reassure the parents that the money obtained by each school from Coke as part of the contract was being used only for enhancing the school’s facilities 4. Get into non-exclusive contracts and allow other soft-drink manufacturers to display their logos as well. The options in decreasing order of their impact on parents and other protesting groups are: A. 2, 4, 3, 1 B. 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 1, 4, 2, 3 D. 2, 1, 3, 4 E. 4, 2, 1, 3 32. A change management problem surfaced when a large financial institution (XYZ) decided to focus its operations much more sharply around its customers. In the earlier system, if a client had three different requirements from XYZ, he had to approach the relevant departments separately. The process was

time-consuming and there was a danger that the client would take a portion of the business elsewhere. To tackle this problem the company set up three new departments: major client group (MCG), growth client group (GCG) and personal finance group. Now, the customer talked only to his representative in MCG or GCG. And these representatives in turn found out which department could do the job. Though the customers seemed to be happy about this new arrangement, people within the organization found it unacceptable. In the major client group, a staff of about 30-40 people handled the needs of the top 100 customers of XYZ. On the other hand, about 60 people manned the growth client group, which looked after the needs of mid-size companies. Obviously, the bigger clients required more diverse kinds of services. So working in MCG offered better exposure and bigger orders. The net effect was that the MCG executive ended up doing more business than the GCG executive. Though the top management tried to allay the fears by mentioning that these assignments were interchangeable, complaints against these changes put in continued and XYZ was blamed for not putting in adequate systems in place to develop the right people. The organization is contemplating implementation of the following measures in order to deal with the situation: 1. Reform the compensation structure and put in two different types of structures – a contract basis to attract risk-takers who would fit in the MCG group and a tenure-based compensation for employees in other groups who would want more job security. 2. Impart skills to the different client groups in order to make members of one group capable of smoothly handling assignments when transferred to the other group. 3. Regularly rotate members from one group to another in order to give them more opportunity to perform in diverse areas

4. Reduce the pressure on accountablility among individual team members to reduce the negative impact of a profit center approach 5. Relate rewards to individual performances and not group performances and for individual star performers make the method of selection transparent Which of the following combination of measures from among the above would best suit the organization’s goals of remaining more customer-focused and also reduce the employee anxiety brought about by the change. A. 1, 2, 5 B. 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 1, 3, 5 E. 1, 2, 4 33. XYZ had to face change resistance once again in December 2000, when it was merged with ABC. Though XYZ was nearly three times the size of ABC, its staff strength was only 1,400 as against ABC’s 2,500. Half of ABC’s personnel were clerks and around 350 were subordinate staff. There were large differences in profiles, grades, designations and salaries of personnel in the two entities. It was also reported that there was uneasiness among the staff of ABC as they felt that XYZ would push up the productivity per employee, to match the levels of XYZ. ABC employees feared that their positions would come in for a closer scrutiny. The apprehensions of the XYZ employees seemed to be justified as the working culture at XYZ and ABC were quite different and the emphasis of the respective management was also different. While ABC management concentrated on the overall profitability of the Bank, XYZ management turned all its departments into individual profit centers and bonus for employees was given on the performance of individual profit center rather than profits of whole organization.


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In order to implement a smooth HR integration process in view of the merger, XYZ is focusing on the following areas: 1. Employee communication 2. Cultural integration 3. Recruitment and compensation 4. Performance management 5. Training 6. Employee relations Which of the following is an activity that would not form part of any of the above agenda? A. Dialogues between the management and the employee’s union of ABC B. Skill upgradation programs for the clerical staff of ABC C. Formation of individual profit centers for the merged entity based on business focus areas D. Evolving a common structure of grades and designations for the employees of ABC and XYZ. E. Formation of recreation clubs at different locations for facilitating interaction between employees of the two companies Question No 34-35: In mid-1996, Oprah Winfrey one of the world’s most well-known media personalities and the host of the ‘Oprah Winfrey Show,’ was entangled in a major controversy. The controversy arose because of statements made by Oprah and Howard Lyman during an episode of the ‘Oprah Winfrey Show’ telecast on April 16 1996.The show, based on the theme, ‘Dangerous Food,’ talked about the Mad Cow disease and the threat it supposedly posed to beef consumers in the US. On the show, Lyman blamed the practice of feeding rendered livestock (protein derived from cattle remains) to cattle for outbreak of the disease in Europe, which resulted in the death of over 1.5 million cattle and 20 people in 1996. Lyman’s statements suggested that beef consumers in the US could also contract the human form of the mad cow disease as a similar practice of feeding livestock was followed in the US. On the show, Oprah swore that she would never eat a hamburger again in her life.
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In May 1996, some cattle producers filed a $10.3 million suit against Oprah and Lyman in the Texas state court, under the Texas False Disparagement of Perishable Food Products Act, claiming, business disparagement, negligence and defamation. The cattle producers claimed that Oprah knowingly aired false and defamatory comments about the threat of mad cow disease in the US. The show reportedly had a devastating impact on cattle prices and sales in the US. Prices fell to a 10-year low within a week of the show, causing losses exceeding $12 million to the cattle producers. 34. Out of the following which seems to be the most likely cause for the cattle producers’ suit? A. The fact that Oprah publicly swore never to eat a hamburger again in her life B. Lyman linking the practice of feeding rendered livestock to the mad cow disease C. The devastating dip in cattle prices and sales within a week following the show D. The discussion of a sensitive topic like the Mad Cow disease on a popular television network E. Though Oprah was a popular television personality, she had no real expertise on the Mad Cow disease 35. Which of the following measures taken by the producers of ‘The Oprah Winfrey Show’ is likely to be most effective in making the cattle producers withdraw their lawsuit? A. Air a second show on the same issue with cattle industry representatives on the discussion panel to arrive at a balanced perspective on the issue B. Make Oprah Winfrey publicly eat a burger on her show C. Have David Lyman withdraw his statement linking the feeding of rendered livestock to the Mad Cow disease D. B and C above E. A, B and C above


Question No 36-38: On December 5, 2007, an explosion occurred at the coal mine owned by Rui Zhiyuan Company (RZC) in China. It was yet another deadly coal mining explosion in China reported that year. Official estimates suggested that at least 105 people might have died immediately in the gas explosion at RZC. The earlier explosions had occurred at Yujialing Coal Mine killing 26 workers in March 2007 and Pudeng Coal Mine where 28 mine workers had died in May 2007. The exact number of deaths remained a mystery. The major reason cited for hazardous conditions in coal mines was the negligent attitude of mine owners who allegedly did not pay enough attention to workplace safety. It was alleged that the mine owners often put the lives of the workers at risk by not investing in fire control and other equipment, proper ventilation, etc. In addition, mine owners in China often breached safety regulations to increase production beyond the permissible level. China relies heavily on coal due to scarcity in petroleum resources. About two-thirds of the country’s electricity is generated by burning coal, making China the largest consumer and producer of coal in the world. In addition to electricity generation, China depends on coal for running its factories which comprise China’s huge manufacturing base. The following questions are based on two statements I and II. Examine the statements and then mark:

A. If statement I is an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that must be true based on that evidence. B. If statement I is an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that is not necessarily true based on that evidence. C. If statement I is not an evidence from the passage but statement II is a conclusion that must be true based on that evidence. D. If statement I is not an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that is not necessarily true based on that evidence. E. If statement I is a conclusion based on the passage and statement II is not a conclusion that is necessarily true based on the passage. 36. I. Most mine owners in China had a negligent attitude and did not pay enough attention to workplace safety. II. The heavy reliance of China on coal was responsible for mine owners breaching safety regulations and raising production beyond permissible levels. 37. I. Installing effective fire control and ventilation measures can enhance safety for those involved in mining operations. II. If the mines of China were run by the government instead of private owners, chances of accident would reduce. 38. I. There had been other deadly coal mining explosions in China prior to the one on December 5, 2007. II. It was becoming difficult to find workers for the coal mines in China.


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Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 39 through 44 that follow. Socialism, which, like the god Vishnu, ever dying and ever returning to life, has experienced within a score of years its ten-thousandth incarnation in the persons of five or six revelators,- socialism affirms the irregularity of the present constitution of society, and, consequently, of all its previous forms. It asserts, and proves, that the order of civilization is artificial, contradictory, inadequate; that it engenders oppression, misery, and crime; it denounces, not to say calumniates, the whole past of social life, and pushes on with all its might to a reformation of morals and institutions. then from negation to affirmation, socialism opposes the principle of property with that of association, and makes vigorous efforts to reconstruct social economy from top to bottom; that is, to establish a new code, a new political system, with institutions and morals diametrically opposed to the ancient forms. Thus the line of demarcation between socialism and political economy is fixed, and the hostility flagrant. Political economy tends toward the glorification of selfishness; socialism favors the exaltation of communism.

The economists, saving a few violations of their principles, for which they deem it their duty to blame governments, are optimists with regard to accomplished facts; the socialists, with regard to facts to be accomplished. The first affirm that that which ought to be IS; the second, that that which ought to be Socialism concludes by declaring political economy a IS NOT. Consequently, while the first are defenders of false and sophistical hypothesis, devised to enable the religion, authority, and the other principles few to exploit the many; and applying the maxim A contemporary with, and conservative of, property, fructibus cognoscetis, it ends with a demonstration of although their criticism, based solely on reason, deals the impotence and emptiness of political economy by frequent blows at their own prejudices, – the second the list of human calamities for which it makes it reject authority and faith, and appeal exclusively to responsible. science – although a certain religiosity, utterly illiberal, and an unscientific disdain for facts, are always the But if political economy is false, jurisprudence, which most obvious characteristics of their doctrines. in all countries is the science of law and custom, is false also; since, founded on the distinction of thine For the rest, neither party ever ceases to accuse the and mine, it supposes the legitimacy of the facts other of incapacity and sterility. described and classified by political economy. The theories of public and international law, with all the The socialists ask their opponents to account for the varieties of representative government, are also false, inequality of conditions, for those commercial since they rest on the principle of individual debaucheries in which monopoly and competition, in appropriation and the absolute sovereignty of wills. monstrous union, perpetually give birth to luxury and All these consequences socialism accepts. To it, misery; they reproach economic theories, always political economy, regarded by many as the physiology modeled after the past, with leaving the future of wealth, is but the organization of robbery and hopeless; in short, they point to the regime of property poverty; just as jurisprudence, honored by legists with as a horrible hallucination, against which humanity has the name of written reason, is, in its eyes, but a protested and struggled for four thousand years. compilation of the rubrics of legal and official spoliation,- in a word, of property. Considered in their The economists, on their side, defy socialists to relations, these two pretended sciences, political produce a system in which property, competition, and economy and law, form, in the opinion of socialism, political organization can be dispensed with; they the complete theory of iniquity and discord. Passing prove, with documents in hand, that all reformatory
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projects have ever been nothing but rhapsodies of fragments borrowed from the very system that socialism sneers at, – plagiarisms, in a word, of political economy, outside of which socialism is incapable of conceiving and formulating an idea. Every day sees the proofs in this grave suit accumulating, and the question becoming confused. While society has traveled and stumbled, suffered and thrived, in pursuing the economic routine, the socialists, since Pythagoras, Orpheus, and the unfathomable Hermes, have labored to establish their dogma in opposition to political economy. A few attempts at association in accordance with their views have even been made here and there: but as yet these exceptional undertakings, lost in the ocean of property, have been without result; and, as if destiny had resolved to exhaust the economic hypothesis before attacking the socialistic utopia, the reformatory party is obliged to content itself with pocketing the sarcasms of its adversaries while waiting for its own turn to come.

39. According to the passage, socialism measures the success of the political economy by A. Comparing it to the incarnation of the god Vishnu. B. Judging it by the fruits of its work. C. Proving that the order of civilization is false. D. Vouching for the oppression in the society. E. Investigating the lack of reformation of morals and institutions. 40. What, according to the passage, is the line of differentiation between political economy and socialism?

A. Political economy leans toward the veneration of selfishness; socialism favours the adulation of communism. B. Political economy tends to the disregard for selfishness; socialism favours the downfall of communism. C. Political economy veers toward discounting of selfishness; socialism favours the exaltation of This, then, is the state of the cause: socialism communism. incessantly denounces the crimes of civilization, verifies D. Political economy is for the sacrifice of selfishness daily the powerlessness of political economy to satisfy and socialism defends the spread of communism. the harmonic attractions of man, and presents petition E. Political economy favours the glorification of after petition; political economy fills its brief with selflessness; socialism favours the demystification of socialistic systems, all of which, one after another, pass communalism. away and die, despised by common sense. The persistence of evil nourishes the complaint of the one, 41. Which of the following, according to the passage, while the constant succession of reformatory checks sets the economists and the socialists apart? feeds the malicious irony of the other. When will judgment be given? The tribunal is deserted; A. The socialists think ahead of the times and the meanwhile, political economy improves its economists dwell on the past. opportunities, and, without furnishing bail, continues to B. The economists are atheists whereas the socialists lord it over the world; possideo quia possideo. are agnostics. If we descend from the sphere of ideas to the realities of the world, the antagonism will appear still more grave and threatening. When, in these recent years, socialism, instigated by prolonged convulsions, made its fantastic appearance in our midst, men whom all controversy had found until then indifferent and lukewarm went back in fright to monarchical and religious ideas; democracy, which was charged with being developed at last to its ultimate, was cursed and driven back.

C. The economists are positive about realized objectives, the socialists about the ones yet to be attained. D. The socialists are communists and the economists’ imperialists. E. The economists are disdainful about science and the socialists hold the government responsible for all iniquity in society.

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42. Why does the mantle of falsity descend onto jurisprudence and political economy, according to the passage? A. Because both believe in oppression and misery. B. Because both give rise to crime. C. Because both are harbingers of lawlessness. D. Because both ignore the existence of poverty. E. Because both promote individual acquisitions. 43. In the passage, the economists seek to confront the socialists through which of the following? A. By challenging them to produce a regime of commercialization. B. By daring them to do without belongings. C. By demanding a system which is free from materialism. D. By flouting their reformatory projects as mere copies of the old order. E. By seeking a structure devoid of assets, opposition and followings. 44. Which of the following could be a reason why political economy continues to lord it over the world? A. Socialism loses out on account of destiny. B. Political economy is a utopian state. C. Socialism is overcome by wickedness. D. Material goods prevail over socialism. E. Sarcasms deter socialistic systems. Directions (45-47): The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 45: 1. I suspect that part of the appeal lies in an intrinsic quality of the images themselves, namely the image statistics that underlie what we perceive to be natural images. 2. Both the “Mountains of Creation ” of Spitzer and Moran’s “The Teton Range” communicate something topographic that results from the
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manner in which the overall scale relates to its cragginess. 3. Real-world images contain structural information over a range of scales that communicates verisimilitude. 4. As we attempt to capitalize on the public outreach potential, we should take a moment to consider the quality of people’s aesthetic response by considering the study of Hubble imagery, by doctoral student Elizabeth Kessler who compared Hubble imagery to paintings by members of the Hudson School, such as Albert Bierstadt or Thomas Moran: “The Hubble images are part of the Romantic landscape tradition — they fit that popular, familiar model of what the natural world should look like.” A. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 B. 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 C. 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 D. 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 E. 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 46: 1. The chaos experienced by the Penan is not a part of their traditional religious imaginations, not a myth and not a ritual construct - It is an alarming fact. 2. Order cannot be maintained and “the chaotic” gradually takes over; however, this chaos is not of the creative kind that is periodically embraced in order to refresh life, as we know it from other cultures. It is not a chaotic disintegration that is necessary for a new order to come about, as we know it from numerous myths and rituals. 3. The interpretation of what the birds relate takes place in social interaction between human beings When the forest dies and the birds go away, there are no divinatory messages to interpret, and therefore neither a physical, nor a social-cognitive space in which the Penan can operate: thus people loose their sense of orientation and their sense of meaning. 4. But what do you do if that, which used to define your direction, is gone? The people I met were in distress as they felt abandoned and confused: The

implicit map that used to be drawn by the birds is no longer created, and the precondition for the most important social events, the nomadic movements in the landscape and the hunt, is gone: “People with no direction and no purpose”, the man said. A. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 B. 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 C. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 D. 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 E. 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 47: 1. Irish-Argentines have had a significant influence in football, rugby, field hockey, basketball, polo and other sports. Relations between Ireland and the region were enhanced through frequent sporting contacts. 2. Central to this is the influence Irish immigrants and Argentines of Irish origin have had on the dissemination and development of these sports. In addition to this, a specific contribution was made with the introduction of hurling to Argentina. 3. The prominence given to the successes of Argentina in a wide variety of sports in recent times, in particular those of British origin, has created a greater awareness of the important contribution ingleses have made to the diffusion of the sport in Latin America and Iberia through the bonds of informal empire. 4. As Ireland has now become a net recipient of migrants and home to communities from Latin America and Iberia, it is likely that in the future they will in turn make their mark in those sports which the Irish played a part in diffusing and developing in their countries of origin. A. 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 B. 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 C. 4 - 1 - 2 - 3 D. 3 - 4 - 2 -1 E. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

Directions: (48-56): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow. 48. Employee recognition can help companies build and maintain engaged workforces that are productive, conscientious and loyal. But to be effective, recognition programs must touch a large portion of the workforce, emphasize timely acknowledgement and allow organizations to reap benefits that enhance the employer-employee relationship. When employee rewards and recognition initiatives are discussed with senior management, office parties and one-off gift certificates typically come to mind. Efforts often involve discretionary spending without measurable outcomes or business impact. Long-term strategic planning often is neglected, putting the value and sustainability of recognition and rewards programs at risk. A person seeking to defend the argument that employee recognition initiatives are effective might argue that A. Employee recognition is gaining ground these days. B. Employee recognition in whatever form is a solace for most. C. Employee recognition helps organizations garner huge advantages. D. High attrition rates deter long term planning. E. Rewards and recognition initiatives are on the decline currently. 49. During the past 20 years, the audience for public radio has increased by 500%, and currently, there are nearly 30 million weekly public radio listeners. While many of us rely on public radio for unbiased and indepth news, diverse music, and cultural programming, there are still millions of people nationwide who have limited access to public radio programs. Thus, with additional public radio stations and program options, more people could connect to their communities and world through the voices of public radio. Which of the following is true?


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A. The point above contradicts the speaker’s argument. B. The point above extends the speaker’s argument. C. The point above is similar to the speaker’s argument. D. The point above concludes the speaker’s argument. E. The point above strengthens the speaker’s argument. 50. Peace of mind and heart does not mean acceptance of everything that happens. It does mean letting go of fear. When you live life fearlessly, you experience a kind of peace that permeates every cell of your body, every thought of your mind, every emotion of your heart, every element of your spirit. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker’s argument the most? A. Without effectively connecting to other humans, you become less than human yourself. B. In order to evolve into a state of acceptance, you must develop to value life in all its forms. C. Fear helps us to be careful and avoid danger in life. D. Life is in a constant state of flux, of change, of rhythm and of evolution. E. The pursuit of peace is not something you attain from outside your skin; it develops from within. 51. The most common type of boss isn’t a villain. This person falls in the Respectable Professional category for 29 percent of employees. Employees view them with respect and believe them to be honest and reliable. However, Respectable Professionals are task-driven and conduct business operations efficiently, only displaying flexibility when required. These bosses tend to maintain a professional distance and fail to make the company a fun place to work. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph? A. Tough, controlling and ruthless, the Taskmasters aren’t seen as ethical, honest or intelligent.
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B. Seen as tough, controlling and task driven, the Taskmaster is not cheerful or peaceful, but focused on achieving goals. C. The Taskmaster rates higher on both ethics and competence, but doesn’t engender much employee loyalty. D. Caring Mentors are highly relational and greatly appreciated by their direct reportees. E. Most direct reportees characterize the Taskmasters as inconsistent and clueless; these managers have the lowest employee engagement. 52. In these times of fiscal correctness, it is heresy to call for expansionary fiscal policy to revive the economy. However sound economics underpins such a prescription even if it sounds like the wild cry of a slump struck corporate bothered only about its own bottomline. Which if true would lend support to the author’s view on fiscal policy? A. In the past, most governments have adopted a conservative attitude in the face of an economic slump. B. Expansionary fiscal policy would be welcomed by business houses that have been overwhelmed by the slump. C. Expansionary fiscal policy leading to more expenditure would encourage production in a depressed economy. D. Sound economics suggests that to increase fiscal expenditure during a depression would raise the import bill and adversely affect the trade deficit. E. Fiscal policies are often used as tools to provoke a reaction in the market. 53. Easy import of goods and services spurred by free trade policies introduce goods of various types and quality into the domestic economy. The consumer instead of the government gets the right to choose or reject a foreign product. By treating imports and domestic goods at the same level, the government encourages competition which is essential to improve productivity and lower costs, both are in turn essential to improve the plight of the poor.

Which of the following if true would strengthen the case for free trade? A. Consumers are likely to opt for imported products as they are of superior quality. B. Domestic producers, who enjoy lower costs of production have an edge over the producers of imported products in terms of price. C. Domestic producers have easy access to technical knowledge and face lower costs of production D. Consumers are unlikely to increase their level of expenditure because of the introduction of a wide variety of imported goods. E. The removal of restrictions on imports will result in the loss of an avenue for revenue collection.

All of the following could be used to weaken the argument except. A. The number of cars on the road has increased in the last year. B. Radio stations have aired more interesting programmes in the last year which distracts the driver’s attention. C. Due to poor maintenance, the road conditions have worsened over the last year. D. Most of the mobile phones were sold to people who spend atleast 4 hours driving everyday. E. Most mobile owners travel in chauffeur driven cars.

56. Granted we all need self confidence and a good self image. However when confidence turns to conceit, people invite the proverbial downfall. Some invert 54. The TV entertainment industry is evolving and with ideologists train their pupils to develop an unjustified it its attitudes towards research. The industry is moving adulation of their own personal judgement causing away from its chaotic roots in the direction of whole societies to collapse from ideologies that nurture increased professionalization. TV software companies internal thought conceit. that once consisted of no more than scripts, studios and salesmanship are now proper corporate entities Which of the following statements best highlights the with access to formal sources of funding. Instead of above mentioned problem? entrepreneurs leading by instinct, you’re getting professional with MBA degrees and experience in A. We can be impartial in one area of our lives and established companies. plagued by prejudice in another. B. It takes wrenching experiences to tear us away Which of the assumptions would weaken the claims of from our own thought conceit. increased professionalism in the Television industry? C. People have difficulty recognizing thought conceit in themselves. A. The artists working on TV shows are paid on a D. Not all educators teach respect for self-discipline contractual basis and are not regarded as employees. and humility. B. Banks and financial institutions are wary of lending E. Education tends to wean students away from money to TV producers as the producers are unable thought conceit. to furnish necessary documents. C. Many management graduates who have opted for a Analyse the passage given and provide an career in television are satisfied with their jobs. appropriate answer for the question nos. 57 D. Quite a few television producers see the industry as through 61 that follow. an avenue for making quick money. E. None of the above. Computer programmers often remark that computing machines with a perfect lack of discrimination will do 55. With the advent of mobile phones last year, the any foolish thing that they are told. The reason for this number of automobile accidents has increased. Talking lies of course in the narrow fixation of the computing on the mobile phone distracts the driver’s attention machine’s “intelligence” upon the basely typographical and hence causes accidents. details of its own perceptions—its inability to be
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guided by any large context. In a psychological description of the computer intelligence, three related adjectives push themselves forward: single-mindedness, literal-mindedness, simple-mindedness. Recognizing this, we should at the same time recognize that this single-mindedness, literal-mindedness, simple-mindedness also characterizes theoretical mathematics, though to a lesser extent. It is a continual result of the fact that science tries to deal with reality that even the most precise sciences normally work with more or less ill-understood approximations toward which the scientist must maintain an appropriate skepticism. Thus, for instance, it may come as a shock to the mathematician to learn that the Mober equation for the hydrogen atom, which he is able to solve only after a considerable effort of functional analysis and special function theory, is not a literally correct description of this atom, but only an approximation to a somewhat more correct equation taking account of spin, magnetic dipole, and relativistic effects; that this corrected equation is itself only an ill-understood approximation to an infinite set of quantum field-theoretical equations; and finally hat the quantum field theory, besides diverging, neglects a myriad of strange-particle interactions whose strength and form are largely unknown. The physicist, looking at the original Mober equation, learns to sense in it the presence of many invisible terms, integral, integrodifferential, perhaps even more complicated types of operators, in addition to the differential terms visible, and this sense inspires an entirely appropriate disregard for the purely technical features of the equation which he sees. This very healthy selfskepticism is foreign to the mathematical approach.

literal-mindedness may have more unfortunate consequences. The mathematician turns the scientist’s theoretical assumptions, i.e., convenient points of analytical emphasis, into axioms, and then takes these axioms literally. This brings with it the danger that he may also persuade the scientist to take these axioms literally. The question, central to the scientific investigation but intensely disturbing in the mathematical context—what happens to all this if the axioms are relaxed?—is thereby put into shadow. The physicist rightly dreads precise argument, since an argument which is only convincing if precise loses all its force if the assumptions upon which it is based are slightly changed, while an argument which is convincing though imprecise may well be stable under small perturbations of its underlying axioms. 57. The author discusses computing machines in the first paragraph in order to A. indicate the dangers inherent in relying to a great extent on machines. B. illustrate his views about the approach of mathematicians to problem solving. C. compare the work of mathematicians with that of computer programmers. D. provide a definition of intelligence. E. stress the importance of computers in modern technological society. 58. Scientists are skeptical towards their equations because scientists

A. work to explain real situations which are many times based on approximations. B. know that well-defined problems are often the most Mathematics must deal with well-defined situations. difficult to solve. Thus, in its relations with science mathematics depends C. are unable to express their data in terms of multiple on an intellectual effort outside of mathematics for the variables. crucial specification of the approximation which D. are unwilling to relax the axioms they have mathematics is to take literally. Give a mathematician a developed. situation which is the least bit ill-defined—he will first E. are unable to accept mathematical explanations of of all make it well defined. Perhaps appropriately, bit natural phenomena. perhaps also inappropriately. in other cases, the mathematician’s habit of making definite his
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59. Mathematicians present a danger to scientists for which of the following reasons? A. Mathematicians may provide theories that are incompatible with those already developed by scientists. B. Mathematicians may define situations in a way that is incomprehensible to scientists C. Mathematicians may convince scientists that theoretical assumptions are facts. D. Scientists may come to believe that axiomatic statements are untrue. E. Scientists may begin to provide arguments that are convincing but imprecise. 60. The author suggests that a mathematician asked to solve a problem in an ill-defined situation would first attempt to do which of the following? A. Identify an analogous situation. B. Simplify and define the situation. C. Vary the underlying assumptions of a description of the situation. D. Determine what use would be made of the solution provided. E. Evaluate the theoretical assumptions that might explain the situation. 61. The author implies that scientists develop a healthy skepticism because they are aware that A. Mathematicians are able to solve problems better than scientists B. Changes in axiomatic propositions will inevitably reinforce scientific arguments. C. Well-defined situations are necessary for the design of reliable experiments. D. Mathematical solutions cannot be applied to real problems. E. Some factors in most situations must remain unknown. Directions (62-66): Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks. 62. To have a few things to desire and many things to fear is a miserable state of mind, commonly seen in the case of kings; which makes their mind _____ . They

have many representations of _____ and shadows, which makes their mind _____ A. languishing, perils, uncertain B. pining, risks, unclear C. puissant, hazards, pellucid D. lassitude, problems, limpid E. reinforced, risks, uncertain 63. To apprehend Dicken’s mode of experience his way of _______ the world, one must turn, not to the _________ statements so well __________ to the “speculative thought” of the philosopher, but rather to the non - discursive materials that point a picture with out explaining its significance. A. discovering, concise, reconciled B. finding, excursive, suited C. perceiving, discursive, adapted D. discerning, digressive, conformed E. probing, invalid, suited 64. The Greeks believed that too much power _________ in one person was dangerous. They were the first democratic society in the ________ world of kings and emperors. They were proud of their ________ and maintained their ________ belief in rule by many. A. induced, turbulent, theory, flaccid B. endowed, tempestuous, ideals, frail C. endued, tumultuous, doctrine, flimsy D. entrusted, tumultuous, ideology, fervent E. endowed, turbulent, axiom, frail 65. Beowulf and Gilgamesh are both epics that show struggles and _______ of the stories’ heroes and have similar _______ basics, but they are also different in many aspects. Most stories contain _______ usages of literary devices such as similes, kennings and ___________ . A. washouts, literate, varied, alliterative B. washouts, literary, several, alliteration C. triumphs, literate, several, alliterative D. triumphs, literary, diverse, alliteration E. washouts, literate, little, alternatives
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66. At a time when India is being _________ for everything from its growing economy to its youthful workforce, its languages are getting a much needed boost from the _________ of cool. “It’s a mass movement that is happening”, Dixit says. Youngsters are suddenly _________ that our country is also hip and cool. It doesn’t matter what language you sing in, you just have to be able to sing with _________ .

As he went out and in to fetch the cows– Some boy too far from town to learn baseball, Whose only play was what he found himself, Summer or winter, and could play alone.

One by one he subdued his father’s trees By riding them down over and over again Until he took the stiffness out of them, And not one but hung limp, not one was left A. applauded, purveyors, realizing, conviction For him to conquer. B. cheered, procurer, appreciating, certainty He learned all there was C. acclaimed, assistants, appreciating, conviction To learn about not launching out too soon D. complimented, procurer, realizing, certainty And so not carrying the tree away E. lauded, assistants, proclaiming, excitement Clear to the ground. He always kept his poise Question 67-70: The poem given below is followed To the top branches, climbing carefully by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate With the same pains you use to fill a cup answer to each question. Up to the brim, and even above the brim. Then he flung outward, feet first, with a swish, When I see birches bend to left and right Kicking his way down through the air to the ground. Across the lines of straighter darker trees, So was I once myself a swinger of birches. I like to think some boy’s been swinging them. And so I dream of going back to be. But swinging doesn’t bend them down to stay. It’s when I’m weary of considerations, Ice-storms do that. And life is too much like a pathless wood Often you must have seen them Where your face burns and tickles with the cobwebs Loaded with ice a sunny winter morning Broken across it, and one eye is weeping After a rain. They click upon themselves From a twig’s having lashed across it open. As the breeze rises, and turn many-coloured I’d like to get away from earth awhile As the stir cracks and crazes their enamel. And then come back to it and begin over. Soon the sun’s warmth makes them shed crystal shells May no fate wilfully misunderstand me Shattering and avalanching on the snow-crust And half grant what I wish and snatch me away Such heaps of broken glass to sweep away Not to return. You’d think the inner dome of heaven had fallen. Earth’s the right place for love: I don’t know where it’s likely to go better. They are dragged to the withered bracken by the load, I’d like to go by climbing a birch tree – And they seem not to break; though once they are And climb black branches up a snow-white trunk bowed Toward heaven, till the tree could bear no more, So low for long, they never right themselves: But dipped its top and set me down again. You may see their trunks arching in the woods That would be good both going and coming back. Years afterwards, trailing their leaves on the ground, One could do worse than be a swinger of birches. Like girls on hands and knees that throw their hair Before them over their heads to dry in the sun. But I was going to say when Truth broke in With all her matter-of-fact about the ice-storm, I should prefer to have some boy bend them
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67. According to the opening lines of the passage, which of the following was the reason for the birches getting bent? A. The darker trees were usually bent. B. A boy had been swinging them. C. The rains typically did it. D. The ice-storms had been at work. E. It was a part of the speaker’s mind’s eye. 68. The poet uses which of the following metaphors to describe the melting snow on the birches in the passage? A. Enamel B. Snow-crust C. Crystal shells D. Inner dome E. Broken glass 69. According to the passage, the boy learnt which of the following lessons from the trees? A. That it was important to control the trees. B. It was important to ride over them again and again. C. That the trees were important playmates. D. That one should be entirely prepared before starting out in life. E. That one should conquer with great speed. 70. The line “And life is too much like a pathless wood”, in the perspective of the passage, refers to which of the following: A. That human beings are like the pathless woods. B. That our lives are governed by the woods. C. That our emotions hold the key to our decisions in life. D. That it’s is very easy to lose our way in the forest. E. That life does not throw up discernable paths. Questions No 71-72: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

71. The growth during 2007 was driven by the emerging markets. The number of dollar millionaires created by India’s red hot economy grew by 22.7%; China followed with growth of 20.3% and Brazil came next with a 19.1% expansion in the high net worth population. There had been a divergence between mature and emerging markets in the second half of the year. Mature economies had significantly slower growth compared to other regions and compared to last year. _________________ A. China’s stock market grew by 291% and the Bovespa in Sao Paulo expanded by 93%, as foreign investors flooded into Brazil. B. In the UK, the market capitalisation of the London stock market contracted by 1.5% during 2007. C. The acceleration in mature markets was supported by soaring local stock markets. D. The number of dollar millionaires in Eastern Europe grew at 14.3%, compared with growth of 3% in Western Europe. E. Total market capitalisation of the Bombay exchange expanded by 118% during 2007. 72. There are as many photographs of UFOs as there are of the Loch Ness Monster, and they are of equal quality: blurs and forgeries. Oddly, the advent of inexpensive video cameras has corresponded to a decrease in UFO sightings. Other physical evidence, such as alleged debris from alien crashes, or burn marks on the ground from alien landings, or implants in noses or brains of alien abductees, have turned out to be quite terrestrial, including forgeries. _________________ A. The main reasons for believing in UFOs are the questionable interpretations of visual experiences and the inability to distinguish science fiction from science. B. UFOs are the products of the creative imagination they serve a poetic and an existential function. C. The main reasons for believing in UFOs are the willingness to trust incompetent men telling fantastic stories and the ability to distrust all contrary sources. D. Belief in aliens and UFOs is akin to belief in supernatural beings. E. UFOlogy is the mythology of the space age, rather than angels ... we now have ... extraterrestrials.
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Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 73 through 76 that follow. In one of the many letters he wrote to his son in the 1740s, Lord Chesterfield offered the following advice: “There is time enough for everything in the course of the day, if you do but one thing at once, but there is not time enough in the year, if you will do two things at a time.” To Chesterfield, singular focus was not merely a practical way to structure one’s time; it was a mark of intelligence. “This steady and undissipated attention to one object, is a sure mark of a superior genius; as hurry, bustle, and agitation, are the never-failing symptoms of a weak and frivolous mind.” In modern times, hurry, bustle, and agitation have become a regular way of life for many people—so much so that we have embraced a word to describe our efforts to respond to the many pressing demands on our time: multitasking. Used for decades to describe the parallel processing abilities of computers, multitasking is now shorthand for the human attempt to do simultaneously as many things as possible, as quickly as possible, preferably marshalling the power of as many technologies as possible. In the late 1990s and early 2000s, one sensed a kind of exuberance about the possibilities of multitasking. Advertisements for new electronic gadgets— particularly the first generation of handheld digital devices—celebrated the notion of using technology to accomplish several things at once. The word multitasking began appearing in the “skills” sections of résumés, as office workers restyled themselves as high-tech, high-performing team players. But more recently, challenges to the ethos of multitasking have begun to emerge. Numerous studies have shown the sometimes-fatal danger of using cell phones and other electronic devices while driving, for example, and several states have now made that particular form of multitasking illegal. In the business world, where concerns about time-management are perennial, warnings about workplace distractions spawned by a multitasking culture are on the rise.
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In 2005, the BBC reported on a research study, funded by Hewlett-Packard and conducted by the Institute of Psychiatry at the University of London, that found, “Workers distracted by e-mail and phone calls suffer a fall in IQ more than twice that found in marijuana smokers.” The psychologist who led the study called this new “infomania” a serious threat to workplace productivity. Multitasking might also be taking a toll on the economy. One study by researchers at the University of California, monitored interruptions among office workers; they found that workers took an average of twenty-five minutes to recover from interruptions such as phone calls or answering e-mail and return to their original task. Discussing multitasking with the New York Times in 2007, Jonathan B. Spira, an analyst at the business research firm Basex, estimated that extreme multitasking—information overload—costs the U.S. economy $650 billion a year in lost productivity. To better understand the multitasking phenomenon, neurologists and psychologists have studied the workings of the brain. In 1999, Chief of cognitive neuroscience at the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke , used functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) scans to determine that when people engage in “task-switching”—that is, multitasking behavior—the flow of blood increases to a region of the frontal cortex called Brodmann area 10. (The flow of blood to particular regions of the brain is taken as a proxy indication of activity in those regions.) “This is presumably the last part of the brain to evolve, the most mysterious and exciting part,” Grafman told the New York Times in 2001—adding, with a touch of hyperbole, “It’s what makes us most human.” It is also what makes multitasking a poor long-term strategy for learning. Other studies, such as those performed by psychologist René Marois, have used fMRI to demonstrate the brain’s response to handling multiple tasks. Marois found evidence of a “response selection bottleneck” that occurs when the brain is forced to respond to several stimuli at once.

As a result, task-switching leads to time lost as the brain determines which task to perform. Psychologist David Meyer at the University of Michigan believes that rather than a bottleneck in the brain, a process of “adaptive executive control” takes place, which “schedules task processes appropriately to obey instructions about their relative priorities and serial order,” as he described to the New Scientist . Unlike many other researchers who study multitasking, Meyer is optimistic that, with training, the brain can learn to task-switch more effectively, and there is some evidence that certain simple tasks are amenable to such practice. But his research has also found that multitasking contributes to the release of stress hormones and adrenaline, which can cause long-term health problems if not controlled, and contributes to the loss of short-term memory. 73. By the reference to Lord Chesterfield, the passage emphasizes which of the following: A. Multitasking changes the way people learn. B. Multitasking is not for the successful. C. In multitasking, learning is less flexible and more specialized. D. Focus is superior to multitasking - which can be detrimental. E. Multitasking develops the brain.

74. What, according to the passage, has revealed extensive gaps in the spirit of multitasking? A. The hurry, bustle, and agitation have become a regular way of our life. B. Efforts are required to respond to the many pressing demands on our time. C. The aftermath of multitasking is doing the rounds. D. Resistance to the mindset of multitasking is appearing. E. Multitasking is taking a toll on the economy. 75. Which of the following best represents the key argument made by the author? A. There are several factors that increase the likelihood of multitasking. B. When we force ourselves to multitask, we’re driving ourselves to be less efficient in the long run even though it sometimes feels like we’re being more efficient. C. Today, our collective will to pay attention seems fairly weak. D. People who have achieved great things often credit for their success a finely honed skill for paying attention. E. Multitasking has become the norm in today’s corporate world. 76. According to the passage, Brodmann area 10 A. Hinders multitasking. B. Facilitates multitasking. C. Makes us value based. D. Acts as a mental governor. E. Is esoteric.


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77. For the nine-digit number 2982a7645, following operation is performed: |2 – 9| + |9 – 8| + …+ |6 – 4| + |4 – 5|. For which of the following values of ‘a’ will the above summation be maximum? (| | represents the modulus function) A. 0 B. 2 C. 8 D. 9 E. Both (A) and (D) 78.
Percentage growth 10 8 6 4 2 0 -2 -4 Share (May 2008) 8 6 4 2 2 4 4 0 0 2 0

Spanish language course is 25. Twenty one students are enrolled in Spanish language course. Eighteen boys are enrolled in German and Spanish language courses. The number of students enrolled in German language course is 33. 79. If the ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys enrolled at this school is 2:1, then how many girls are enrolled in French language course? A. 8 B.10 C.12 D. 7 E.13 80. If the number of boys enrolled in German language course is the same as the number of girls enrolled in French language course then how many boys are enrolled at the school? A. 10 B. 20 C.30 D. 40 E. 50 81. Mr. Fruitwala had a total of 100 kg apples, 100 kg oranges and some mangoes in the morning. After the whole day of work he noticed that he has sold 67% of the apples, 73% of the oranges and Y% of the mangoes. If he had sold 75% of the apples and 80% of the oranges and (Y + 3.33)% of the mangoes, then the increase in his sales would have been 5% of the total quantity of fruits with him in the morning. What is the approximate total weight (in kgs) of the mangoes he had in the morning? A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400 E. 500

-2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Day of Month

The above graph represents the percentage growth in the value of a share in a stock market. Its value on day 0 (the day on which it was issued) was Rs.30. Which of the following statements is true? A. The maximum value of the share was on day 6. B. The minimum value of the share was on day 9. C. The value of share on day 6 was greater than that on day 9. D. The maximum and the minimum value of share was on day 8 (or day 7) and day 0 respectively. E. None of these. Questions 79-80: At a European languages school, students can enroll in one of the three language courses viz. German, French and Spanish. The number of students enrolled in French language course is 15. The total number of girls enrolled in German language course and the number of boys enrolled in
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82. A, B and C have certain number of coins with them. The ratio of the number of coins with A and C is 1:3 and the ratio of the number of coins with C and B is 2:7. If the number of coins with B is 18 more than six times the number of coins with A, then find the total number of coins with A, B and C. A. 87 B. 54 C. 29 D. 116 E. 58 For questions 83-86, a statement is followed by three conclusions. Select the answer from the following options. A. Using the given statement, only conclusion I and conclusion II can be derived. B. Using the given statement, only conclusion II and conclusion III can be derived. C. Using the given statement, only conclusion III and conclusion I can be derived. D. Using the given statement all conclusions I, II and III can be derived. E. Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived. 83. An operation is defined by 1    1 + X for X ≥ Y  X*Y =    1 − 1 for X < Y    Y  1 Conclusion I: (–3*1)*(–1*3) = – . 2 5 Conclusion II: (2*2)*(1*2) = . 3 Conclusion III: (–1*–2)*(–3*–4) = (–3*1)*(–1*3) 84. 'X', 'Y', 'Z' are positive real numbers such that Z + 4Y  1 X2 − X   2YZ  + YZ < 0 and ZX > 2.  

Conclusion I: 2Z > Y. Conclusion II: 2Y > Z. Conclusion III: 4Y < Z. 85. F is a function such that F(x) = x4 – bx2 + 1, for all real values of ‘x’ and ‘b’ is any real constant. Conclusion I: Minimum possible value of F(x) is at b , if b > 0. 2 Conclusion II: Roots of F(x) = 1 are equal but opposite in sign. Conclusion III: The maximum possible value of F(x) is x= b . 12 86. Given that A, B and C are distinct prime numbers satisfying A + B + C = 19. Conclusion I: A × B + B × C + C × A = 103. Conclusion II: A – B + C = 13. Conclusion III: 1 1 1 103 + + = . A B C 165

87. Let A = {2, 22 , 23 , 24 , 25 , 26 } and B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12}. Find the number of elements in (A × B) ∩ (B × A). A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 E. 15 Question 88-90: Following is a 4 × 4 grid filled with letters A, B, C and D in the given manner. Each of the letters A, B, C and D is a natural number less than 50. Also, each of the letters A, B, C and D is a multiple 5. The sum of the letters filled in the cells that form the diagonals of the grid is 80. Also, A is the largest among the four mentioned letters. A B C D B C D A C D A B D A B C
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88. What is the value of A + C + D? A. 35 B. 40 C. 30 D. 45 E. Cannot be determined. 89. Which of the following is a possible value of A? A. 35 B. 20 C. 30 D. 15 E. None of these 90. What is the minimum possible value of ‘B’ for which (A + B + C + D) is a multiple of 4? A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 5 E. None of these 91. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are the roots of the equation x2 + px + c = 0 and ‘c’ and ‘d’ are the roots of the equation x2 + px + r = 0, then the value of (a – c)(a – d) is A. p + c B. c – r C. r – c D. c + r E. p – c 1 92. For real numbers a, b and c, if A = a + , a 1 1 B = b3 + and C = c5 + , then what is the 3 b c5 minimum value of (A + 1)2 + B2 + (C –1)6 ? A. 4 B. 12 C. 20
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D. 6 E. Minimum value of the given expression does not exist. 93. Let C, B, and E be three points on a straight line in that order. Suppose that A and D are two points on the same side of the straight line such that ∠ACE = ∠CDE = 90 ° and CA = CB = CD. Let F be the point of intersection of the line segment AB and the circumcircle of ∆ADC. Which of the following is correct? A. F is the incentre of ∆CDE. B. F is the orthocenter of ∆CDE. C. F is the centroid of ∆CDE. D. F is the circumcentre of ∆CDE. E. None of these. 3x and 3g(x – 2) = – 2x for all real 5 value of ‘x’, then the value of f(g(6)) is 94. If 2f(x+3)= 5 2 7 B. − 2 A. C. D. – 3 2

3 2 E. None of these. 95. X and Y start running simultaneously towards the point C on a straight line from the points A and B respectively. The distance between the points A and B is 50 kms as shown in the figure given below. The speed at which X and Y run is 100 km/hr and 50 km/ hr respectively. After covering every 100 kms, X stops running and resumes running in the same direction as earlier after exactly one hour. Which of the following must be true? A B C

A. X will reach the point C before than Y. B. Y will reach the point C before than X. C. Both will reach the point C simultaneously. D. Either (B) or (C). E. Cannot be determined. 96. Two circles of radii 5 cm and ‘r’ cm (r < 5 cm) touch internally at point P. In the larger circle, chord RS is perpendicular to its diameter PQ and it passes through the center of the smaller circle. If the length of the chord QS is 8 cm, then what is the distance between the centres of the two given circles? A. 3.6 cm B. 1.8 cm C. 1.4 cm D. 2.5 cm E. 1.6 cm Question Nos. 97-98 are followed by two statements labelled as I and II. You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from options given below:

A. If Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. If Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. C. If Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question. D. If either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. E. Both Statement I and Statement II are insufficient
to answer the question.

97. In a right-angled triangle ABC, if all the angles are in arithmetic progression, then what is the length of side BC? I: BC > AB and AC = 2(3 – 3)units. II: Sum of all the sides of ∆ABC is 6 units and AC > BC.
98. H o w i s A related to B ?

I: C is the wife of A’s only brother D and she does not have any siblings. II: B is C’s brother in law’s wife.

Answer the question no. 99 to 103 on the basis of the data given below. July August September Sale of Used Maruti Suzuki Cars Maruti Alto 2500 3000 2000 Maruti Zen 2250 1500 3000 Sale of Used Hyundai Motors Cars Hyundai Santro 2800 3200 2500 Hyundai Verna 5500 4500 5200 Sale of Used General Motors Cars Opel Corsa 2500 2000 3000 Chevrolet Optra 3600 4500 5400 Units Purchased = Units Sold + Ending Inventory – Beginning Inventory. All sales figures are in Rupees thousand. All other things are constant. 99. In the month of July, Dream Carz Ltd. sold double the number of Maruti Alto cars that it purchased. If the ending inventory for the month of July was 15, then what was the beginning inventory?(Assume that the selling price of 1 Maruti Alto car in the month of July by Dream Carz Ltd. is Rs.125000)


A. 25 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. Cannot be determined
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100. From July to September, Dream Carz Ltd. sold 8 Opel Corsa cars every month and paid sales tax at a rate of 15% of the sales value of the car. What is the sum of the taxes paid (in Rs. thousand) on the sale of three Opel Corsa cars, one each in the three given months? A. 120 B. 150 C. 140 D. 105 E. 180 101. In the month of July, if 15% of the total sales of Maruti Alto cars together with 10% of the total sales of Hyundai Santro cars contributed 25% to the total profit made by the company, then find the total profit (in Rs. thousand) made by the company in the month of July. A. 3452 B. 2620 C. 3865 D. 2628 E. 3452

102. In the months of July and August, Dream Carz Ltd. purchased 70 Opel Corsa cars. If their inventory had 87 cars at the end of August and 65 cars at the beginning of July, then what was the average sales price (in Rs. thousand) of an Opel Corsa car during the two months? A. 85.25 B. 75.85 C. 83.65 D. 93.75 E. 92.45 103. In the month of September, the company purchased an equal number of cars of all the 6 different brands. The difference(a positive number) in the ending inventory and the beginning inventory was equal for all the six brands. Which of the following could never have been the total number of cars sold in the month of September by Dream Carz Ltd.? A. 30 B. 42 C. 32 D. 36 E. 24

Question 104-106: Kumar studies on only three days in a week: Tuesday, Friday and Saturday. The following line graph provides information about the total number of hours for which Kumar studied on Tuesday and Friday in each of the ten weeks and the total number of hours for which Kumar studied in ten weeks namely I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX and X.

60 Number of Hours 50 40 30 20 10 0 I 16 4 II III 22 12 7 2 20 50 45

55 50 40 17 13 IV 18 12 11 V 5 VI

28 14 8 VII

25 12 7 VIII 4

30 20 12 11 9 IX X

Weeks Tuesday Friday Total

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104. In which week the total number of hours for which Kumar studied on Saturday, is the maximum? A. VII B. I C. IV D. III E. II

107. Which of the following can be the total number of boys, studying either in the primary or in the secondary classes of the school, in 1996?

A. 14 B. 22 C. 17 D. 24 105. In which week did the number of hours for which E. 29 Kumar studied on Tuesday witnessed the maximum percentage increase? 108. Which of the following statements is definitely true? A. II B. IV A. Total number of boys in the years 1997 and 1998 C. III put together, is greater than the total number of girls in D. IX the years 1998 and 1999 put together. E. None of these B. Total number of boys in all the given years put together, is greater than the total number of girls in the 106. What is the difference between the average number of hours per week for which Kumar studied in years 1997 and 1998. C. Total number of students in primary classes the mentioned ten weeks and the average number of in the years 1996 and 1997 put together, is greater hours per Saturday for which he studied in the than the total number of students in secondary classes mentioned ten weeks? in the years 1996 and 1997 put together. A. 21.6 D. Total number of students in 1999 is the highest in all B. 20.4 the given years. C. 22 E. None of these. D. 22.6 E. 22.4 109. If the average marks of all the students in the Question 107-110: The table provides data of average marks secured by boys and girls in primary and in secondary classes of a school, in different years. It also gives the average marks of all the boys and girls, studying in primary and in secondary classes of the school, for the same years. No student in this school studies in both primary and secondary classes and the school has only primary and secondary classes. Years 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 Primary Secondary Total Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls 40 54 54 62 48 58 72 80 60 68 64 72 60 76 68 70 62 74 94 96 90 98 92 97 58 60 76 80 64 62 50 60 80 90 70 76 64 80 76 90 70 84 years 2000 and 2001 are 63 and 72 respectively and if the number of boys studying in secondary classes in the year 2000 is equal to the number of boys studying in the primary classes in the year 2001, then which of the following statements is definitely true? A. Total number of students in 2000 is equal to that in 2001. B. Total number of students in 2000 is 40% more than the total number of students in 2001. C. Total number of students in 2000 is 20% less than the total number of students in 2001. D. Total number of students in 2000 is 33.33% more than the total number of students in 2001. E. Total number of students in 2000 is 25% less than the number of students in 2001.


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110. If the average marks of all the students in the school in 2002 is 80 and the number of boys in secondary classes is 500, then the total number of students in the school in 2002 is A. 4560 B. 3620 C. 4200 D. 3500 E. None of these 111. Ram said to Rahim, “The unit’s digit of the product of my age and your age is one or the other of three values 2, 4 and 8”. If the age (in years) of Ram and Rahim is R1 and R2 respectively, then find the total number of possible pairs (R1, R2). (Given that R1 and R2 are natural numbers less than 20.) A. 108 B. 184 C. 128 D. 96 E. 144 112. If the roots of the equation 4x3 – 12x2 + cx + 21 = 0 are in an arithmetic progression, then find the value of c. 13 4 B. – 13 C. 13

the sum of numbers written on houses owned by Ram to the product of numbers written on houses owned by Rahim, is 8:9. 113. If the product of the numbers written on the houses owned by Rahim is the minimum, then what is the sum of the numbers written on the houses owned by Rahim? A. 15 B. 12 C. 11 D. 14 E. 13 114. If the product of the numbers on the houses owned by Rahim is the minimum, then which of the following is definitely the number written on the house owned by Ram? A. 1 B. 15 C. 9 D. 8 E. 3 115. Which of the following can be the number written on the house jointly owned by Ram and Rahim? A. Only 1 B. Only 3 C. Either 1 or 3 D. Either 1 or 9 E. 1 or 3 or 9 116. If the maximum value of of ax2 + bx + c does not exist, then what is the minimum possible value of |x – a| + |x – 2a| + |x + a| ? A. 3a B. a C. 2a D. 0 E. 4a

–13 4 E. Cannot be determined D. Question 113-115: On a street, there are 40 houses numbered consecutively from 1 to 40 such that exactly one number is written on one house. Ram and Rahim own three of these houses each. Few houses are owned jointly by both Ram and Rahim. The numbers written on houses owned by Ram are in an arithmetic progression. The numbers written on houses owned by Rahim are in a geometric progression. The ratio of
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117. In the X-Y plane, two curves x2 – 4y2 = 0 and (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 = 20 intersect each other at exactly three distinct points. If the point P(a, b) lies on the curve x2 – 4y2 = 0, then find the value of (a + b). (Given that a, b are positive integers) A. 12 B. 0 C. 8 D. 6 E. Cannot be determined 118. How many positive even integers less than 200 can be written as the sum of three consecutive integers? A. 33 B. 20 C. 15 D. 35 E. 51

119. A trapezium ABCD is inscribed in circle with centre O as shown in the figure given below. It is also given that AB is the diameter and the measure of ∠ABC = 60 °. If E is the mid point of arc AEB, then what is the measure of ∠DEC ? D C 60° O



E A. 30° B. 15° C. 60° D. 45° E. 120°
120. W hat is the remainder when 3 2004

is divided by

13? A. 1 B. 12 C. 6 D. 0 E. 7


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