SURGERY 1. A man sustained severe blunt injuries in a car crash twelve hours ago.

The activity of this hormone is now expected to be decreased in this patient: A. insulin B. cortisol C. epinephrine D. aldosterone (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 25-29) 2. A young woman is debilitated by pruritus and burning sensation from her presternal keloid. The recommended initial treatment is: A. topical application of silicone sheets B. intralesional corticosteroid injection C. surgical excision D. low-dose radiation (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 241-242) 3. A patient is placed on NPO in preparation for an elective major abdominal surgery. The body‟s preferred initial fuel source during the fasting state is: A. hepatic glycogen B. skeletal muscle glycogen C. muscle protein D. body fat (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 24) 4. A 48-year-old woman has prolonged ileus after surgery for an obstructed duodenal ulcer. The problem is probably due to: A. hypochloremia B. hypocalcemia C. hypomagnesemia D. hypokalemia (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 48-49) 5. A man with chronic prepyloric ulcer appears weak after repeated bouts of non-bilious vomiting over the past 3 days. Fluid therapy should be started using: A. Normosol M B. Lactated Ringer‟s solution C. Normal saline solution D. Hypertonic saline solution (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surg ery (8th edition): pp. 51-52) 6. A multiply injured patient has persistently low urine output. The oliguria is most likely due to prerenal failure rather than acute tubular necrosis if the tests reveal: A. low urine specific gravity B. low urinary excretion of sodium C. low BUN/creatinine ratio D. low creatinine clearance (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 348-349) 7. A woman admitted to the ICU for severe acute pancreatitis begins to manifest paresthesia of the face and extremities, muscle cramps, and a positive Chvostek‟s sign. These are probably due to: A. hypocalcemia B. hypokalemia C. hypomagnesemia D. hypophosphatemia (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 50) 8. Increased nutritional support appears to aggravate tachypnea in a septic patient with respiratory failure. Lessening the amount of this substrate may alleviate the problem: A. carbohydrate B. fat emulsion C. essential amino acids D. non-essential amino acids (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 28-29) 9. Administration of this amino acid is expected to be beneficial to a patient suffering from damage to intestinal mucosa due to adjuvant chemotherapy for esophageal cancer: A. arginine B. valine C. leucine D. glutamine (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 38) 10. Early supplementation of this vitamin is recommended to promote wound repair in a patient with extensive seconddegree flame burns: A. A B. C C. D D. E (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 210)


A diabetic 41-year-old man is admitted for necrotizing fasciitis in the perineum. A high dose of this antibiotic is generally included in the initial antimicrobial therapy because of concern for clostridial pathogens: A. metronidazole B. vancomycin C. penicillin G D. aminoglycoside (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 122) 12. Transfusion of properly cross matched blood is begun on a man admitted for massive bleeding from erosive gastritis and thirty minutes later, he develops urticaria and fever. This should be administered to the patient: A. antihistamine B. mannitol C. furosemide D. sodium bicarbonate (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 79-80) 13. A patient under anticoagulation therapy using warfarin, who is set to undergo surgery for acute cholecystitis, has decreased prothrombin concentration. Warfarin can be reversed by parenteral dose of: A. protamine sulfate B. vitamin K C. EACA D. hydroxyurea (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 73-74) 14. Arterial blood gas analysis is performed on a patient just admitted with a diagnosis of severe acute pancreatiti s. This reveals a pH of 7.30 and low levels of bicarbonate and pCO 2. The most urgent part of management is: A. volume resuscitation B. intravenous bicarbonate C. calcium infusion D. mechanical ventilation (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 50-51) 15. Seven days after surgery for a perforated appendicitis, the primarily closed incision is noted to be erythematous, slightly swollen and tender. The appropriate treatment is: A. local heat therapy B. topical antibiotics C. new systemic antibiotics D. incision and drainage (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 119-120) 16. A man is brought to the E.R. with blood spurting from a hacking wound in the in the distal right thigh. He is alert and has a systolic BP of 100 mmHg. What is the initial management step? A. apply direct pressure on the wound with sterile gauze B. apply digital pressure on proximal femoral artery C. apply a thigh tourniquet above the wound D. open the wound and clamp the bleeders (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 74) 17. A young man presents to the E.R. with a stab wound in the left chest. Examination reveals subcutaneous emphysema and absent breath sounds on the left chest; the trachea is shifted to the right. What is the probable diagnosis? A. massive hemothorax B. tension pneumothorax C. cardiac tamponade D. flail chest (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 131) 18. A 58-year-old woman on NSAID therapy for arthritis has a 6-hour history of epigastric pain that has progressively become severe. Her abdomen is distended, rigid and diffusely tender. This diagnostic test should be done first: A. upright chest x-ray B. esophagogastroduodenoscopy C. abdominal ultrasound D. abdominal CT scan (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 959-960) 19. After aggressive fluid therapy, a trauma victim shows a systolic BP of 110 mm Hg, cold extremities, rapid but strong peripheral pulse, and a central venous pressure of 12 cmH 2O. The patient has: A. increased systemic vascular resistance B. decreased stroke volume index C. decreased cardiac index D. excessive cardiac preload (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 132) 20. An elderly man admitted with a diagnosis of sigmoid volvulus has a markedly distended, non-tender abdomen and hyperactive bowel sounds. The initial treatment is: A. endoscopic detorsion B. detorsion via laparotomy C. decompressing transverse loop colostomy D. Re section of involved segment of colon (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 1098)


Pancreatic necrosis is suspected in a 49-year-old woman who has not improved despite 3 days of intensive care for acute pancreatitis. The diagnosis is best established through: A. C-reactive protein measurement B. abdominal ultrasound C. contrast-enhanced CT scan D. CT-guided percutaneous biopsy (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1234-1238) 22. A chronically constipated 67-year-old woman presents with acute left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, LLQ direct and rebound tenderness, and fever. The appropriate diagnostic examination is: A. transvaginal ultrasound B. abdominal CT scan C. proctosigmoidoscopy D. barium enema (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1082-1083) 23. After an elective hemicolectomy for colon cancer, a 78-year-old man remains hypotensive and tachycardic. He has distended neck veins, cold skin, oliguria, and elevated central venous pressure. He apparently is suffering from this type of shock: A. hypovolemic B. cardiogenic C. septic D. neurogenic (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 95-100) 24. For the past 6 weeks, a 67-year-old man has been asymptomatic except for constipation after a course of antibiotic therapy for left lower quadrant abdominal pain. He should undergo: A. CEA determination B. barium enema C. colonoscopy D. abdominal CT scan (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1082-1083) 25. A 32-year-old-man with a week‟s history of fever presently has right lower quadrant abdominal pain and tenderness and bloody diarrhea. The most probable diagnosis is: A. typhoid ileitis B. amebic colitis C. ileocecal TB D. intussusception (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1049-1050) 26. A 75 year old woman in the ICU after undergoing cholecystectomy for acute Cholecystitis is hypotensive and tachycardic. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is elevated to 18 mmHg, and cardiac output is 3 L/min. she is shock best described as which of the following? A. hypovolemic shock B. septic shock C. cardiogenic shock D. anaphylactic shock (Classification -Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp.) 27. A 19 year old man is brought to the emergency department with a stab wound at the base of the neck (zone I) The most important concern for patients with such injuries is which of the following? A. upper extremity ischemia B. cerebral infarction C. exsanguinating hemorrhage D. mediastinitis (Classification -Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp.) 28. In septic shock, which of the following is true? A. the mortality rate is beteeen 10& and 20% B. gram-negative organisms are involved exclusively C. the majority of patients are elderly D. the most common source of infection is the alimentary tract. (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp.) 29. The injury most often missed by selective nonoperative management of abdominal stabwounds is to which of the following? A. colon B. spleen C. ureter D. diaphragm (Classification - Recall; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. ) 30. A 63-year-old male tobacco smoker has a 1.5 cm non-healing ulcer in his lower lip. A nodular lesion is palpable deep to the ulcer. The most likely diagnosis is: A. squamous cell carcinoma B. keratoacanthoma C. malignant fibrous histiocytoma D. verrucous carcinoma (Classification - Application; Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 518)

pigtail catheter drainage of the empyema B. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Physical examination of the patient‟s neck r eveals no lymph node enlargement. Keratoacanthoma (Classification – Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. ulcerated lesion on the right cheek. video assisted thoracoscopic drainage with deloculation C.Application. squamous cell carcinoma (Classification – Application. Fibrosarcoma D. early thoracotomy and drainage (Classification . This is the most common aggressive primary malignant bone tumor in adolescent and occurs in methaphyseal area of long bones with high incidence of pulmonary metastases: A. lymph gland spread is often encountered C.Recall. 538-540) 33. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. She has a history of total thyroidectomy for papillary cancer at the age of 38 years. The lesion has been present for 4 months and is not painful.Application. Imaging studies combined with endoscopic biopsy have led to the diagnosis of nasopharyngeal cancer.) 35. A biopsy confirms that the lesion is a carcinoma. 521-522) 38. 1. The most likely diagnosis is: A. What is true in carcinoma of the posterior third of the tongue? A. combined chemotherapy and radiation D. basal cell carcinoma D. p. melanoma C. A 43-year-old-man presents with nasal obstruction and occasional epistaxis. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. This is best managed with: A. Biopsy of a slow growing infraauricular mass reveals a benign pleomorphic adenoma that is confined to the superficial lobe of the parotid gland. Vol. Squamous cell carcinoma B. The lesion has been present for one year. electrodessication D. A 58 year old woman undergoes excision biopsy of a tumor in the left posterior triangle of her neck. 1. TB granuloma B. A 65 year-old farmer presents with a 1. The best treatment strategy now is: A. What is the most likely site of the primary tumor? A. surgical resection (Classification . A 59 year old woman has discomfort in the posterior part of her tongue. piriform fossa (Classification . the tissue is well differentiated (Classification . 601-602) 40. A 60-year-old woman has a 10-day history of cough and fever. Adamantinoma (Classification -Recall. Imaging studies show multiple fluid loculations in the right chest cavity with an estimated volume of 500 ml. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 439-440) 36.31. Thoracentesis draws purulent material. hamartoma . ovary B. Source . SHIRES 7TH EDITION. Chrodrosarcoma B. insertion of multiple thoracostomy tubes D.Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. tumor enucleation B. A-50-year-old woman presents with a 3 cm solitary pulmonary nodule in the left upper lobe. external beam radiation B.Recall. total parotidectomy (Classification . intracavitary radiation B.522) 39. tumor excision with 2 mm margin C.5-cm ulcerated lesion on the middle third of his lower lip.PRINCIPLES OF SURGERY by SCHWARTZ.) 34. lymphoid tissue is absent B. SPENCER.) 37. A 60-year-old man has a 3 cm nodular lesion with central ulceration in his left cheek. SHIRES 7 TH EDITION. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source . there is an excellent prognosis D. SPENCER.Recall. Vol.PRINCIPLES OF SURGERY by SCHWARTZ. Histology suggests that this is a metastatic cancer. The standard treatment is: A. The standard treatment is: A. A 65 year-old patient who spends summer in Baguio City presents with a painless. Herpes simplex D. kidney D. Osteosarcoma C. excision with 2-4 mm margin (Classification . The main consideration is: A. superficial parotidectomy D. external beam radiation C. 1049-1050) 32. topical 5-fluouracil C. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Basal cell carcinoma C. adrenal gland C. Section biopsy proves this to be basal cell carcinoma. No lymph nodes are palpable in the patient‟s neck. pyogenic granuloma B.

catheter-directed thrombolysis . Observation B. A 45-year-old woman with “lumpy” breasts undergoes mammography. lumpectomy alone B. ductal carcinoma in situ (Classification . atypical ductal hyperplasia D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. non-seminomatous germ cell tumor D. A man with malignant pleural effusion in association with an inoperable lung cancer may benefit from the instillation of sclerosing agent into the pleural cavity. 481) 47. The recommended treatment is: A. c-fos B. intrathoracic goiter B. and ptosis. She has 0. What management advice should be given to her? A. A 45-year-old woman presents with weakness towards the afternoon. aortoiliac thrombosis C. mammography C. talc B. What diagnostic test is indicated? A. No palpable breast mass is noted. metastatic thyroid cancer (Classification . and without femoral and distal pulses. Buerger‟s disease D. weakness. A 63-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation has sudden onset of pain. Mammographic findings are suggestive of high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ confined to the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. which appears cool.C. 600-601) 43. shortness of breath.Application. Test for this biomarker is currently recommended to facilitate the selection of adjuvant chemotherapy: A. florid hyperplasia B. 593-594) 42. This reveals clustered microcalcifications in the lower outer quadrant of her left breast.Application.Application. primary lung cancer D. cytology of discharge (Classification . Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. once the lungs are almost fully expanded.Application. No axillary node and distant metastases are detected. Coronary angiogram reveals a triple-vessel disease in a diabetic 55-year-old man presenting with unstable angina. A 16-year-old girl is bothered by cyclical premenstrual pain in her breasts. gentamicin C.Application. ductography D. A 20-year-old woman consults for a 2-cm mass in her left breast. 463-464) 44. The most likely diagnosis is: A. 465-466) 45. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. non-tender and has a rubbery consistency and smooth borders. An asymptomatic 40-year-old woman with no palpable breast mass undergoes mammography. fibrocystic disease C. sclerosing adenosis C.5-1. arterial embolism B. Vitamin C (Classification . CT scan reveals an anterior mediastinal mass. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook o f Surgery (8th edition): pp.0 cm nodularities in the upper outer quadrant of both breasts. breast ultrasound B. How should she be managed? A. The most likely diagnosis is: A. cystosarcoma phyllodes (Classification . cyanotic.Application. An accepted sclerosant is: A. A premenopausal woman undergoes modified radical mastectomy for a 3-cm breast cancer.Application. fibroadenoma B. The right leg has normal pulses. c-myc C. 472-473) 46. and paresthesia in his left leg. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The probable diagnosis is: A.Application. lumpectomy and radiotherapy C. 493) 49.AHER2/neu (Classification . Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. A 45-year-old woman has a recent onset bloody nipple discharge from her right breast. non-Hodgkin‟s lymphoma C. 556-557) 41. mammography D. aspiration biopsy (Classification . Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The mass is movable.Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. thymoma (Classification . The probable diagnosis is: A. breast ultrasound C. mastectomy D. 759-762) 50. mastectomy and axillary node sampling (Classification . 493) 48. carcinoma D. penicillin G D.Application. p53 D. Raynaud‟s disease (Classification .

Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. How should he b managed? A. Aspiration fails to relieve the pressure symptoms. Ebstein‟s anomaly (Classification . The most probable diagnosis is: A. balloon angioplasty C. bile reflux gastritis C. To protect her from developing anemia. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. cramping abdominal pain. ECG reveals right ventricular hypertrophy. 990) 57. transposition of the great arteries D.Recall. administration of indomethacin D. truncus arteriosus B. 985-987) 56. Endoscopy shows linear mucosal tears at the gastroesophageal junction. a 34-year-old man has developed a pancreatic pseudocyst with mature wall that is pressing on his stomach. ERCP reveals a periampullary cancer in a 64-year-old man admitted for jaundice. The indicated treatment is: A. 617-618) 53. long-term anticoagulant therapy C. and progressive abdominal distention. 636) 54. weakness. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. Popliteal pulses are palpable but the posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are bilaterally absent. He now has ulceration of the tip of the right 3rd toe and left 2nd and 4th toes. infusion of prostaglandin C. The symptoms are suggestive of: A.ification . no comorbid conditions are identified. post-vagotomy diarrhea B. external drainage D. midgut volvulus sigmoid volvulus B.Application. the patient complains of diaphoresis. colorectal cancer ileocecal tuberculosis (Classification . 1281-1288) 59. A 65 year old male who underwent a colon resection of carcinoma 2 years prior to consult is found to have 3 solid nodules approximately 2 cms each in the right and left lobes of the liver. multiple toe amputations D.) 1.B. The diagnosis is: A. local excision and adjuvant chemotherapy C. immediate surgical correction of PDA (Classification . excision of pseudocyst (Classification .Application.Application. Dieulafoy‟s lesion (Classification .Recall. administration of indomethacin B. A 60 year old man with no previous operation has a 5-day history of inability to pass flatus or feces. There is no extrahepatic disease detected. After truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with gastrojejunostomy for an obstructed duodenal ulcer. radical excision of the head of pancreas and duodenum B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. internal drainage (cystogastrostomy) C.Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B.Application. 652-653) 51. A few weeks after recovering from severe pancreatitis.Recall. 919) 55. tetralogy of Fallot C.Recall. 792-793) 52. stenting and chemotherapy (Classification . and abdominal discomfort followed by diarrhea several minutes after meals. A 3-year-old girl presents with cyanotic spells that have increased in severity and frequency since birth. The preferred treatment is: . The indicated treatment is: A. angiography followed by bypass surgery (Classification . ferrous sulfate C. vitamin B12 D. dumping syndrome (Classification . A 41-year-old male chronic smoker has a 2-year history of bilateral foot claudication. external beam radiation D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. 1256-1258) 58.Application. A woman undergoes total gastrectomy for a huge proximal gastric carcinoma. A diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is made. Transmyocardial revascularization (Class. The most important step in management is: A. A 54-year-old man presents with hematemesis after a bout of vomiting and retching. administration of somatostatin B. The principal diagnostic consideration is: A. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. No metastasis is detected. X-ray shows a boot-shaped heart. A premature infant with progressive dyspnea without cyanosis since birth has machinery murmur in the pulmonic area. afferent loop syndrome D. transferrin (Classification . cessation of smoking B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Boerhaave‟s syndrome C. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. folic acid B. Menetrier‟s disease D. she must be given a regular parenteral dose of: A. coronary artery bypass grafting D.

the man‟s fissure -related anal pain during and after defecation has become excruciating. rectal carcinoma B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. endoscopic decompression C. During surgery for a large right indirect inguinal hernia.Application. A warranted diagnostic procedure for this patient is: A. fine needle aspiration B. Spigelian (Classification .) 64.Application. expectant treatment B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1103-1104) 66. interstitial D. sliding B. Despite 3 months of medical treatment for posterior midline anal fissure. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. A 63-year-old man is presently asymptomatic after medical treatment for LLQ pain and tenderness. Richter‟s C. decrease in caliber of stools and occasional bloody-mucoid diarrrrhea in a 67-year-old man is suggestive of: A. . who has no signs of strangulation. microwave coagulation therapy D. CEA determination B. 1358) 67. chest upright x-ray B. A. intussusception D.Application. hepatic flexure D. The presence of tenesmus. barium enema D. herniography (Classification .Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. MRI D. Diagnostic tests show an ileocolic intussusception in a 38-year-old man. sigmoid colon B. Her abdomen is now diffusely tender with board-like rigidity. ultrasound C. He should undergo: A. radiofrequency ablation C. A 56-year-old woman taking NSAID for chronic arthritis experienced severe epigastric pain 6 hours ago.) A 35 year old female with a prolonged intake of contraceptive pills develops right upper quadrant pains. Sulfur-colloid scan done showed a cold lesion. The appropriate initial diagnostic test is: A. What is recommended for this patient? A. ileocecal tuberculosis (Classification .Application. 1364-1366) 2. abdominal ultrasound D. excision of fissure B. cecum (Classification . amebic colitis C.A. splenic flexure C. plain abdomen supine x-ray C. A previously asymptomatic 45-year-old obese woman consults for a non-tender swelling below her right inguinal ligament just lateral to the pubic tubercle. hydrostatic reduction D. The appropriate treatment is: A. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. internal sphincterotomy (Classification . conservative treatment B. Ultrasound shows an isodense 5 cm mass in the right lobe of the liver. 1089-1090) 61. exploratory laparotomy (Classification . Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. anal divulsion D. botulinum toxin injection C. liver transplantation (Classification . Colonoscopy C.Application.) 63. abdominal CT scan (Classification .Application. 119-120) 60.) 65. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The patient has this type of hernia: A. surgical resection of metastatic nodules (Classification – Application.Application. A man who has an obstructed rectosigmoid cancer in association with a competent ileocecal valve is liable to develop perforation of: A. abdominal CT scan (Classification . This patient should undergo. 1090-1091) 62. systemic chemotherapy B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. resection C. enucleation D. the cecum is noted to form part of the wall of the hernia sac.Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp.

The recommended treatment is: A. mesenteric cyst B. adrenal adenoma B. vitamin K B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. No associated symptoms are noted. 1413-1416) 71. medullary D. With the preoperative diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. Digital rectal examination detects no mass in the prostate.Application. alkalinization of the urine B. warfarin D. thyroid function tests B. intraoperatively there was blood tinged peritoneal fluid and appendix was noted to be normal. she was operated on. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1460-1461) 74. Diagnostic work-up should start with: A.Application. A 12 year old female complain of 1 day history of epigastric pain which shifted to the right lower quadrant associated with anorexia and vomiting. He probably has this type of thyroid cancer: A. 1455-1458) 73. The probable pathology is: A. rectus sheath Hematoma C. A 55-year-old man is admitted for gross hematuria associated with left flank pain and anemia.Application. which he has neglected for the past 9 months. Fothergill sign way positive. heparin C. A 35-year-old man presents with right flank pain and microscopic hematuria. pituitary adenoma (Classification . The indicated diagnostic test is: A. Administration of this drug may be beneficial: A. pheochromocytoma D. family history is negative for thyroid cancer.Application. A 67-year-old man is bleeding excessively following a transurethral prostatectomy. 1420-1421) 72. chemoradiation (Classification . thyroid ultrasound C. enhancing mass in the left kidney. omental infarction (Classification . The bleeding is assessed to be due to local plasminogen activation leading to increased fibrinolysis on the raw wound surface.Application.68. which is suppressed by large dose of dexamethasone. ruptured rectus sheath Hematoma D.) 69. The treatment of choice is: A. anaplastic (Classification . A 45-year-old is discovered to have a solitary 2-cm firm nodule in his right thyroid lobe. papillary B. needle biopsy of prostate (Classification . thyroid scan D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surg ery (8th edition): pp.Recall. omental torsion C. The most probable cause of the patient condition is: A.) 70. mesenteric adenitis (Classification . Family history is negative for thyroid malignancy. On physical examination there was a palpable mass at the supraumbilical area with direct tenderness. omental torsion D. Physical examination revealed direct and rebound tenderness on the right lower quadrant. His urinary metanephrines are elevated. pelvic ultrasound D. A 60-year-old man presents with slight urinary urgency. Intravenous pyelography reveals a 4 mm radiolucent stone in the distal right ureter. open ureterolithotomy (Classification . and diaphoresis. tumor embolization D. frequency. Her ACTH is markedly elevated. fine needle aspiration biopsy (Classification . Imaging studies reveal a 3-cm mass in his right adrenal gland. prostatic acid phosphatase B. renal cell carcinoma .Application. desmoid tumor B. A 49-year-old woman complains of central obesity with moonlike facies and hirsutism. adrenal carcinoma C. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy C. adrenalectomy B. However. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1546-1549) 77. The likely diagnosis is: A. and a decrease in the force of micturition. A 42-year-old man presents with headache. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. CT scan detects a solid. prostate-specific antigen C. palpitations. A 59-year-old man presents with 4-cm firm mass in the left lobe of the thyroid associated with a firm occipital mass that is 6 cm in its widest diameter.Application. radiotherapy C. 82) 75.Application. follicular C. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. stone extraction via ureteroscope D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. A 54 year old male taking anticoagulant for the fast 4 weeks developed 3 day history of abdominal pain. What is your impression? A. 1535-1537) 76. EACA (Classification .

acute subdural hematoma (Classification . stereotactic radiosurgery (gamma knife) D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp.Application. 1613-1614) 82. sedation of agitated patient (Classification .Recall. rectus abdominis muscle flap B.Recall. If brain metastasis is the main consideration. renal oncocytoma (Classification . 2 years D. 4 years (Classification . A 23-year-old woman sustained blunt head trauma to her right frontoparietal area in a car crash. A bedridden 61-year-old woman has a significant neurologic recovery from a previous stroke. 1633) 80. 1706-1707) 83. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Z-plasty B. rotation skin flap C. 1797-1799) 84. Swelling and tenderness about the shoulder with loss of deltoid contour are noted. hypovolemia even of mild degree D.Application. An hour after admission.B. CT scan shows cerebral contusion. CT scan of the brain with intravenous contrast C. fracture of proximal humerus D. MRI of the brain with intravenous contrast D. Marlex mesh . A young man just admitted for blunt injuries from a car accident is stuporous. this is best confirmed by means of: A. 6 months B.Recall. the appropriate procedure to refashion the scar is: A. brachial plexus injury (Classification . What should be avoided as it can cause secondary brain injury to this patient through its deleterious effect on intracranial pressure? A. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. deltoid muscle rupture B. Upon arrival at the E. A 10-week-old baby with cleft lip and palate has undergone a successful cleft lip repair. chest wall reconstruction may utilize: A. 1619) 79. Resection of a sarcoma results in a significant lateral chest wall defect. 12 months C. she is alert and has no neurologic deficit. skin graft B.R. As a basketball player falls hard on his extended right arm. What is the recommended treatment in addition to corticosteroids? A.Recall. he feels immediate severe pain with subsequent inability to move his right arm. A 54-year-old woman with no previous neurologic disorder has new onset seizures without associated gross neurologic deficit. scar excision and skin graft D. diffuse axonal injury B. tensor fascia lata graft D. which caused he to be unconscious for several minutes.Recall. Doppler ultrasound (Classification . 1825-1826)) A small thick antecubital scar from a 2 nd degree flame burn is constricting movement. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The likely diagnosis is: A. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. 1633) 81. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. A 55-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with frequent severe headache. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. cerebral contusion C. A. the pressure ulcer can be managed with: A. whole-brain radiotherapy C.Application.Application. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. X-ray shows a linear non-depressed right frontoparietal fracture. electroencephalography B. 1531-1532) 78. shoulder dislocation C. deltopectoral flap (Classification . To relieve the constriction. occasional vomiting. 86. 1792-1793)) 85. and weakness of the right upper extremity. acute epidural hematoma D. To minimize pulmonary dysfunction. elevation of the head B. resection of lesion causing arm weakness (Classification . intrathecal chemotherapy B.. Once the infection has been controlled by debridement and supportive treatment. She has an infected deep pressure ulcer in her sacrum. It is recommended that cleft pate repair be done before the baby reaches this age: A. microsurgery free flap (Classification . omental flap C. respiratory acidosis C. renal tuberculosis C. vomiting followed by progressive neurologic deterioration are noted. gluteus maximus flap D. renal sarcoma D. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): p. advancement flap C. She was treated for breast cancer 10 years ago.

Give emetics to induce vomiting D. Give half strength vinegar. The most common isolated microorganism is__? A. This patient is best managed by--A. During feeding. 1823-1824)) 87. 910 97.Application.Recall. A diagnosis of intussusception is made in an infant with paroxysms of crampy abdominal pain and vomiting. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. duodenal atresia B. transesophageal ultrasound D. air embolus Schwartz‟s Complication in Surgery p. inspissated bile syndrome D. 909 96. A newborn infant has excessive drooling followed by coughing immediately after feeding. pneumoniae D. hemorrhage B. D. Schwartz‟s: Esophagus p. Which of the following statements is true regarding the arterial blood supply of the stomach? . Early postoperative small bowel obstruction is a rare finding and occurs less than 1 % of the time. Ingested caustic agents rapidly pass through the esophagus and stomach into the small intestines. pneumatic reduction D. A 67 y/o man has an intraabdominal abscess caused by perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. water-soluble contrast study (esophagram) C. K. B. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Start with milk.Application. When it does. A. A. inability to pass orogastric tube into the stomach B. Which of the ff statements is true concerning corrosive injury to the esophagus? A. 1496-1497) 91. A 4-week-old baby boy presents with frequent non-bilious vomiting. C. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. peristaltic waves are seen in the upper abdomen in association with a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. lemon juice or orange juice B. A radionuclide scan demonstrates presence of radioisotope in the intestine. infections or abscess D.Application. Staphylococcus epidremides Schwartz‟s: surgical infection pp 121 93. 347 95. A 3-week-old infant is noted to have jaundice in association with acholic stools shortly after birth. 1499-1500) 92. internal hernias B. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis B. egg white or antacids C.337 94. Escherichia coli B. volvulus neonatorum (Classification . 1481-1482)) 89. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. hydrostatic reduction with barium (Classification . midgut volvulus D. The initial treatment of choice is: A. Sodium bicarbonate is one of the treatment option. endoscopic reduction C. Acid ingestion is not injurious to the stomach because of its non-acidic pH. A 27 year old female was brought to the ER with history of suicidal ingestion of household muriatic acid. 1493-1494) 90. malrotation C.Application. technical errors Schwartz‟s: surgical complications p. A 3-day old infant who has not passed meconium presents with abdominal distention and bilious vomiting. pneumothorax C. Hirschprung‟s disease (Classification . biliary atresia C. jejunal atresia D. Schwartz‟s: Esophagus p. neonatal hepatitis B. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The infant has no peritoneal signs and remains hemodynamically stable. Source – Schwartz‟s Textbook of Surgery (8th edition): pp. The diagnosis is: A. 1486-1487) 88. nasogastric decompression B.(Classification .Recall. the most common cause is_____. duodenal atresia C. choledochal cyst (Classification . The main diagnostic consideration is esophageal atresia. This can be readily confirmed by: A. One of the most common complication of central venous access is_____. Bacteroides C. Acid injury is more destructive than alkaline injury. plain abdominal radiograph (Classification . Alkaline injury is more destructive than acid injury. post-operative adhesions C. This finding rules out the diagnosis of: A. wound infection D.

A 5-month old baby boy was seen at the ER with complaints of non-bilous vomiting that became increasingly projectile over several days to weeks and cannot tolerate liquid intake. Stage III-A D. 935-937 98. Peritoneal lavage Schwartz‟s: p. Histopath revealed tumor penetrating the serosa. B. percutaneous aspiration of cyst Schwartz‟s: p. What is the correct diagnosis? A. 1159 104. The local factor affecting wound healing: A. The left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the celiac trunk. the major stimulants of acid secretion by the gastric parietal cell are the following. Selective embolization of left hepatic artery B. CT scan shows a 6 x 8 cm cystic lesion in the right lobe of the liver. Extend beyond the border of original wound and rarely regress spontaneously D. Smoking Schwartz‟s: p. Stage II C. regional lymph nodes are not involved and distant metastatic lesions are not detected. 235 107. Intussusception Schwartz‟s: Pediatric Surgery p. Cantlie‟s line D. gastric viability may be preserved after ligation of at least two of the four named gastric arteries C. developed epigastric mass measuring about 6 cm accompanied by pain and fullness. 1140 105. 1256 . An imaginary line that divides the liver into right and left lobe that runs from the inferior vena cava to the tip of the gallbladder fossa: C A. CT scan B. Meconium ileus C.1486 101. Acute pancreatitis Schwartz‟s: p. The characteristic of Keloid scars: A. histamine B. Cryoablation D.The right gastric artery. Hemangioma C. a branch of the superior mesenteric artery supplies the gastric antrum Because of the rich intramural collateral vessels. 1162 – 1163 103. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Hirschprung‟s disease D. Trauma A. At a cellular level. Schwartz‟s: Stomach pp.1512 102. Ultrasound C. Catlie line B. cryoablation of cyst C. 970 100. Abdominal examination revealed palpation of typical “olives” in the right upper quadrant with visible gastric wave s. Stage I B. Mesenchymal hamartoma Schwartz‟s: Pediatric Surgery p. Pseudocyt of the pancreas B. Abdominal x-ray D. A 55 y/o male diagnosed to have chronic pancreatitis. 943 99. right hepatic lobectomy D. No treatment C. A 35 y/o male presents with 1 year history of early satiety and right upper abdominal discomfort. Stage III-B Schwartz‟s: Stomach p. C. Develop within 4 weeks after trauma C. Ultrasound of cyst show no internal echoes. 240 108. D. Left hepatic lobectomy Schwartz‟s: pp. The largest artery supplying the stomach is the right gastric artery. The appropriate management is: A. What is the correct tumor stage on TNM staging? B A. gastrin Schwartz‟s: Stomach p. Occur in areas of flexion and extension Schwartz‟s: p. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Arise above the skin level and stay in the confine of the original wound B. A patient with gastric adenocarcinoma underwent subtotal gastrectomy. Calot‟s line C. 142 106. acetylcholine D. unroofing of the cyst B. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Gastric carcinoma C. The diagnosis is: A. Charcot‟s line Schwartz‟s: p. Hepatoblastoma D. except: A. Age B. Low oxygen tension D. Which of the following is the most common malignant liver tumor in childhood? A. What is the appropriate treatment for an incidental 3 cm liver hemangioma found on abdominal CT scan of 37 year old woman? A. prostaglandinE2 C. The diagnostic tool important in evaluating liver injury in a stable blunt trauma patient is: A.

Lymph node in the posterior triangle of the neck is within what level: A. 1275 110. Level IV C. Type of benign solitary pancreatic neoplasm consisting of symptomatic fasting hypoglycemia and profound syncopal episodez: A. 463 113. Hypoparathyroidism D. anorexia. Give the most probable electrolyte imbalance the patient might have: A. Radiotherapy B. Give colloid solution Schwartz‟s: p. Neurogenic shock D. Immediate excision of the lesion is needed D. 48 119. body malaie and watery diarrhea. 1301 111. Breast lesion that can be treated with close observation with or without tamoxifen: early invasive breast carcinoma lobular carcinoma in situ ductal carcinoma in situ inflammatory carcinoma of the breast Schwartz‟s: p. Hyponatremia D. 476-477 115. This form of shock has a low blood pressure. 534 118. The best time to repair of cleft lip is: A. Traumatic shock Schwartz‟s: p. Obstructive shock C. 6 months D. Injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve Schwartz‟s: pp. Thalassemia Schwartz‟s: p. 10 weeks Schwartz‟s: p 1797 112. Staging of Hodgkin‟s disease C. Hypokalemia Schwartz‟s: p. 1415 117. Thyroid scanning Schwartz‟s: p. Restore perfusion with volume resuscitation F. 120. 10 months B. The most important part of the treatment of severe metabolic acidosis among trauma patient is: A . Level VI Schwartz‟s: p. Injury to cervical sympathetic trunk C. This lesion is best managed with: A. Glucagoma D. High oxygenation E. 50-51 . CT and MRI C. 1429-1448 116. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Insulinoma C. Ductography D. C.Correct abnormality with exogenous bicarbonate B. The best screening imaging technique for breast cancer is: A.109. Mammography Schwartz‟s: pp. It was diagnosed as a Mondors disease. 16 weeks A 36 y/o female complain of an acute pain at the lateral aspect of her left breast. Level V D. Total mastectomy Schwartz‟s: p. Magnetic resonance imaging B. Gastrinoma B. This is considered as a single most important test in the evaluation of patients with thyroid masses: A. The most common indication for splenectomy: A. nausea. D. VIPoma Schwartz‟s: p. D A 46 y/o female who underwent a total thyroidectomy for stage II papillary carcinoma developed 3 weeks later with Chvostek‟s and Trouseau‟s sign. low urine output but has an elevated central venous pressure: A. warm compress and rest of ipsilateral extremity C. Level II B. vomiting.481 114. 95-102 55 y/o male who has been in the ward for the past 4 days and is receiving IV fluid of D5W is complaining on his 5 th hospital day of headache. Fine needle aspiration cytology D. This could be due to: A. Recurrence of papillary thyroid carcinoma B. Hyperkalemia C. A tender firm cord is found on the same site on physical examination. Hypernatremia B. Anti-inflammatory medication.Vasodilatory shock B. Thyroid ultrasound B. Ultrasonography C. Trauma to spleen B.

Osteosarcoma B. renal failure patients B. malnutrition D. head trauma D. B. The most significant factor associated with both fetal and maternal deaths in pregnant patients with acute appendicitis is A. diabetic patients C. D. appendeceal tip near the uterus D. rennin C. pulmonary failure patients D. renal failure formulas D. calorie-dense formulas Schwartz‟s: p. renal trauma B. liver trauma Schwartz‟s: p. It usually affects patients over 70 yrs. 1129 129. Streptococcus anginosus Swhartz‟s: p. size of burn B. formation of a phlegmon B. What is the single most important factor in predicting burn related morbidity and mortality? A. pulmonary failure formulas C. is true of the superior mesenteric artery syndrome? A. old. The most biologically active and potent vasoconstrictor is angiotensin II endothelins epinephrine serotonin Schwartz‟s: p. angiotensin II Schwartz‟s: p. non-epithelialization of the tract B. 9 123. angiotensin I D. A . C Which of the following factors present in a entero-cutaneous fistula increases the possibility of closure of the tract? A. Branched chain amino acids are used in parenteral nutrition for what specific type of patients? A. hepatic failure patients Schwartz‟s: p. ACTH B. type of burn C. Swhartz‟s: p. The most common primary bone malignancy: A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. associated medical condition Schwartz 7 th ed. The most potent stimulant for aldosterone release is: A. retrocecal appendix Schwartz‟s: p. Heart failure formulas B. 23 124. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C.. It is often seen in obese individuals. which appears only in adults? A. etiology of burn D. Ostoblastoma D. It is a surgical emergency. 228-232 / Ans.33 126. Ewing‟s sarcoma C. 1037 131. Chondrosarcoma Schwartz‟s: p. high output fistula C. 1027 130. long bone fractures C. Compression is over the third portion of the duodenum. appendeceal perforation C. In what type of parenteral feeding is fat increased to 50% of total calories? A. The appendeceal flora remains constant throughout life with the exception of what bacteria. 31 125. 1665 122. Peptostreptococci D. C. Which of the ff. p.121. In trauma patients significant reduction in infectious complications were noted in patients given early enteral nutrition as compared to those given who are unfed or given parenteral nutrition except for what type of trauma patients? A. 33 127. sepsis Swhartz‟s: p. 1121 128.

The result of DPL is considered grossly positive if. spleen Schwartz 7 th ed. packing. stabbed wound involving the diaphragm D. elevated serum calcium.. p. A. ensuring an adequate airway Schwatz 7th ed. 157 / Ans... restoration of blood volume D.156-157 / Ans. C 135. D 134. 5 ml of blood is aspirated C. 167 / Ans. A. nocturia. 187 / Ans.. p. 1453-1458 / Ans. 113-115 / Ans. pulmonary hematoma Schwartz 7 th ed. D 133. 15 ml of blood is aspirated Schwartz 7 th ed. 165 / Ans. splinting of fracture B. A. During the initial resuscitation of a hypovolemic patient secondary to a vehicular accident external bleeding is best controlled by. direct finger pressure C.132. A 139. cardiogenic shock B. p. In penetrating neck injuries zone II is referred to an area between. cricoid cartilage and angle of mandible C. debridement and repair D. D 137.. Her laboratory exams shows normal FBS.. B . 1 ml of blood is aspirated B. pancreas D. hemothorax C. and elevated intact PTH. large intestine C. clavicle and cricoid cartilage B. Metastatic breast ca C. p. application of tourniquet D. B 141. cushing‟s syndrome B. polydypsia. D 136. polyuria and polydypsia. Hyperparathyroidism Shwartz 7th ed. septic shock D.. suturing B. blood transfusion Schwartz 7thed. A 35 y/o male presents with a long standing severe hypertension with associated muscle weaknes. splenorrhapy C. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) remains the most sensitive test available for determining the presence of intraabdominal injury. Appropriate management for the injured spleen should be. What would be the most likely diagnosis? A. 8 ml of blood is aspiarated D. polyuria. 1434-1439 / Ans. 156 / Ans. the first and most important emergency measure to be taken care of is: A. NIDDM B.. small intestine B. While undergoing exploratory laparotomy for blunt abdominal injury. Hyperthyroidism D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. What type of shock is caused by the interference of the balance of vasolidator and vasoconstrictor influences to arterioles and venules? A.. p. waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome Shwartz 7th ed. p. A 50 y/o female consulted to you and complaints of fatigue.. splenectomy B. A. D 138. joint pains and constipation. hypovolemic shock C. control of bleeding C. immediate closure of abdominal lesion and volume replacement Schwartz 7 th ed. Blood exams revealed an elevated aldesterone level and elevated serum potassium. below the clavicle Schwartz 7 th ed. pheochromocytoma C. A 140. conn‟s syndrome D. neurogenic shock Shwartz 7th ed. headache. Which of the following constitute an immediate threat to life because of inadequate ventilation A. 193 / Ans. p. p. flail chest B. p. p. to the patients BPwas noted to be 70 palpatory while bleeding was noted coming from the splenic hilum. Which of the following is the most commonly inured organ in blunt abdominal injury? A. above the angle of the mandible D. In the initial management of an acutely and seriously injured patient.

.. 270-271 / Ans. keloids C. decubitus ulcer C. 188-189 / Ans. Lesion of the gastrointestinal tract that result in comlete regeneration and recovery. bleeding from the liver is best controlled by. 234 / Ans. p. elastin C. Equilibrium between collagen synthesis and collagen degradation occurred during the stage of. diabetic ulcer B. p. marfan‟s syndrome D. B 145. B 151. surgical incision following simple appendectomy Schwartz 7 th ed. crohns disease C. urethrography C. epithelization C. Stable patients at risk of urethral injury. 264 / Ans. p. p. ligaments and bones is. The major component of the extracellular matrix that provide strength..suture C.. p.. 281-282 / Ans... secondary intention C. B . p. 161-162 / Ans. wound contraction B. liver resection Schwartz 7 th ed. decubitus ulcers Schwartz 7th ed.. The genetic disorder arising from mutations in the genes for type I collagen causing increase propensity for the bones to break under minimal stress is. granulation tissue formation D. paracrine factors C. B 144. 228 / Ans.. A. hyaluronic acid Schwartz 7 th ed. p. peptic ulcer disease B. B 149. autocrine factors D. endocrine factors B. p. intacrine factors Schwartz 7 th ed. A. hemostasis and inflammation B. tertiary intention D. ehlers-danlos syndrome B. 278 / Ans. C 143. In assessing the extent of hepatic injury following blunt injury to the abdomen. tendons. cystoscopy D. remodeling Schwartz 8 th ed. Partial thickness wound such as seen in superficial second degree burns heal by which of the following process: A. p. A. A 150. pringle maneuver D. Delayed primary wound closure is indicated in which of the following type of wound. 280-281 / Ans. 228 / Ans. fibronectin D. hypertrophic scars B. necessitates an immediate.. Cytokines that are produced by one cell and affect an adjacent cell such as transforming growth factor beta (TGFB) are called. radiation colitis D. Skin lesions that extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. p. D 147. matrix synthesis D. support and structure of all soft tissues. primary intention B. gastric erosions Schwartz 7 th ed. A. A. diabetic ulcers D. B 146. urethral catheterization B. A. do not regress with time and recur after excision. manual cmpression of liver parenchyma B. epidermolysis bullosa Schwartz 7 th ed. proliferative stage C.142. Type of healing in which the wound is allowed to heal by granulation tissues formation and contraction: A. A. KUB-IVP Schwartz 7 th ed. using figure of 8 . maturation and remodeling Schwartz 8 th ed. contaminated traumatic wound D. 266 / Ans. C 148. D 152. osteogenesis imperfecta C. p. collagen B.. manifestating as presence of blood at the matus. A. A. quarternary intention Schwartz 8 th ed.

longer vasa recta D. p. CT scan C. B 155. A. a. unreferred parietal pain D. percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) B. Kehr‟s sign is a classic example of. A. the edematous bowel wall the intestinal lumen vomiting the peritoneal cavity Schwartz 7 th ed. Which of the following diagnostic modalities consistently localizes the site of bleeding in cases of lower GI bleeding.. C 156... Barium enema Schwartz 7 th ed. B 160.. unreferred visceral pain B. D 154. strangulated obstruction D. p . neoplasm Schwartz 7 th ed. 1066 / Ans. A 50 y/o male with history of alcoholism was admitted because of history of progressive jaundice. diverticulosis C. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction for all age group combined is. colonic malignancy B. p . C 157. complete intestinal obstruction B. p. more fatly mesentery B.. A. volvulus c. adenamatous polyps D. C . associated with tea-colored urine. 1018 / Ans. The bleeding in Mallory-Weiss syndrome is secondary to. HIDA scan Schwartz 7 th ed. The most obvious route of fuid and electrolyte loss in patients with intestinal obstruction from leocecal TB is through. penetration of ulcer affecting the gastroduodenal artery B. referred parietal pain Scwratz 7th ed. ERCP C..153. 1057 / Ans. linear tears of the gastroesophageal junction C. 1054 / ans. p. C 158. Occlusion of the blood supply to a segment of bowel in addition to obstruction of the lumen is referred to as. achlic stools. adhesive bands d.. A. hematobilia Schwartz 7 th ed. 1071 / Ans. C 159. 1056 / Ans. Relative to the ileum.. Ultrasonography D. less prominent plicae circularis C.. The simplest and most non-invasive method in the diagnosis of this patient is. 1034-1035 / Ans. p. p. gastric erosions D. p. lesser in diameter Schwatz 8th ed. 1065 / Ans. A. Angiography D. ileus Schwartz 7 th ed. weight loss and mild epigastric pain. A. closed-loop obstruction C. C 161. ulcerative colitis Schwartz 7 th ed. p. referred visceral pain C. the jejunum has. A. trangulated hernia b. colonoscopy B. The most common cause of massive lower GI bleeding is. 1062-1063 / Ans.

direct bilirubin increased. A. colicky aggravated by fatty food intake 4 hours ptc. appendectomy B. The laboratory examination of a 45 year old female came in with the following results . total colectomy D.. A. A 45 year old female came in because of right upper quadrant pain. meckel‟s diverticulitis B. The most common malignant neoplasm of the small bowel is. spingelian hernia B.. B 171. p. ercp Schwartz / Ans. acute gastroenteritis D.. In children with history of URTI 3 days prior to development of RLQ pain. C 172. utz showed a hyperechoic mass at he neck of the gallbladder with posterior shadowing. pain the right lower quadrant when palpatory pressure is exerted in the left lower quadrant B. A. p. flexion-extension of the right lower extremity D. p. sgpt was elevated. alkaline phosphatase increased.162.. The precipitating factor in secondary omental torsion is. asking the patient to cough Schwartz 7 th ed. littre‟s hernia D.4) is A. The presence of a Meckels diverticulum in a hernial sac is called. acute mesenteric adenitis Schwartz 7 th ed. C 170. Rovsings‟ sign is elicited by. C . ascending cholangitis Schwartz / Ans. midinspiratory arrest was illicited while the palpating hand was on the right subcostal area . 1524-1525 / Ans. The recommended treatment for patients with adenocarcinoma of the appendix is. metastatic carcinoma Schwartz 7h ed. A. D 166.. medical management C. right hemicolectomy C. cholecystectomy D. bifid omentum B. 1558 / Ans. acute infectious hepatitis C. The most likely diagnosis is A. adenocarcnoma carcinoids sarcomas lymphomas Schwartz 7 th ed. femoral hernia C. 1556 / Ans. 1242 / Ans. acute appendicitis B. 1249 / ans. pain in the right lower quadrant when palpatory pressure is exerted directly over the pont of tenderness C. Physical exam showed a palpable mass at the right subcostal margin non-movable tender. the most likely condition is/are A. 1387 / Ans. A. 1385 / Ans. acute ascending cholangitis Schwartz / Ans. The most common solid tumor of the omentum is. acute appendicitis B. subtotal colectomy Schwartz 7ht ed. D 168. p. A 163. the differential diagnosis most often confused with appendicitis is. The most common anaerobic bacteria that is isolated in intraabdominal infection is. B 167. A. accessory omentum C. C 164. perforated peptic ulcer C. bacteroides specios D. 1392 / Ans. obesity D. perforated peptic ulcer D. appendectomy B.. richter‟s hernia Schwartz th ed. acute calculous cholecystitis D. p. p. peptococcus specios C. liposarcoma C. D 169. fusobacterium specios Schwartz 7 th ed. leiomyosacoma D. The treatment of choice for the above condition ( no. A 165. foci of intraabdominal inflammation Schwartz 7 th ed. protime prolonged ... clostridium specios B. p. p. A. lymphoma B. acute cholecystitis C.

C A 25 year old male came in with chronic draining lesion at the perianal area of 2 years duration. Hyperesthesia B. What is your diagnosis? A. 250 . daily irrigation with nss B. Cathether sepsis B. repeart explore lap and cbde Schwartz / Ans. A 25 year old female came in with a palpable breast mass noted 2 weeks ptc. 183. B. C. Plasma B. non-tender at the right upper outer quadrant. Physical exam showed a draining lesion about 4 cm from the anal verge at the 3:00 position. he came back at the OPD for follow up complaining of tenderness at the operative site. Foreign body reaction to suture D. Lymph D. 177. perianal abscess D. fecalysis B. physical exam showed a tender mass at the right lateral position w/c precludes rectal exam with a bulging tender mass adjacent to it. Urinary tract infection A patient was operated on for acute cholecystitis. posterior midline C. thrombosed external hemorrhoids B. After 24h postop. Surgical site infection C. no familial history of ca. colonoscopy w/ biopsy D. galactocoele Schwartz / Ans. ba enema C. 100 B. Associated with on and off colicky abdominal pain. the insensible water loss in cm3 per day is approximately: A. After 5 days. 200 D. He also noticed that his stools have diminish in caliber just like a goat stool.5 cm well delineated border. the mass is about 2. the patient developed fever. anterior midline B. Atelectasis The basic problem in poor wound healing regardless of the underlying factor is: A. What is the most likely cause of his fever? A. fibrocystic disease C. breast ca D. 176. Interstitium C. The most likely condition is A. Impaired inflammatory response Ileus following A. A patient s/p cholecystectomy and cbde with t-tube choledochostomy showed a distal cbd stone on t-tube cholangiography . radially directly opposite D. 181. variable Schwartz / Ans. The incision site was nonerythematous. A 178. fibroadenoma B. choledococopy and basket extraction of the stone D. D. Poor local hemostasis B.the most likely diagnosis would be A. For every degree rise in temperature. movable. 182. Low 02 tension D. B 30 year old female came in because of painfull perianal mass 2 days ptc. 180. 150 C. ercp C. abdominal surgery is expected to last for at least how many days? 3 4 5 6 179. The internal opening is probably A. C 174. rectal polyp Schwartz / Ans. Capillary oozing A patient was discharged 3 days after appendectomy (suppurative). management would be A. Seromas are fluid collections coming from the: A. Anemia C. prolapsed internal hemorrhoid C.the single most important examination would be A. Drug-related conditions C. 175.173. C A 50 year old male came in because of loss of weight about 30% of his previous body weight. ct scan Schwartz / Ans. Aspiration pneumonia D.

Coli D. C. Most common A. Egf C. 15 D. Pseudomonas C. X C. Fever C. D. D. 187. Pdgf B.184. C. B. D. Changes in sensorium Which of the following statements is not a sound principle in the fluid and electrolyte therapy post operatively? A. Alanine B. Submucosa D. 194. A. Mucosa Which amino acid provide energy source in the GIT A. benign esophageal tumor is Leiomyomas Fibromas Myomas Fibromyomas 197. Which ion if altered determines the shift of fluid from one compartment to another? A. Chloride D. Tachycardia B. Xi D. Blood supply of lesser curvature is . C. The offending organism in surgical site infection is. It is not necessary to give potassium with in the first 24 hour D. Urine volume is replaced on a mililiter to mililiter basis C. Xi B. 192. Bicarbonate Which of the following cytokines may help control keloids and hypertrophic scars? A. Acute pancreatitis C. Potasium C. B. 188. 189. 10 C. A. Renal colic Convulsions if A. Serosa B. Glucose intolerance D. Thorough evaluation of the pre and intra-op fluid status B. Acalculous cholecystitis B. What is the least likely cause of the abdominal pain? A. Glutamine D. for staging esophageal cancer is Determine its resectability Prognostication To assess whether the procedure is for cure or palliation Whether pre-op chemotherapy is indicated 191. 193. Viii Primary reason A. 5 B. Insensible water loss is considered in the fluid therapy The average potassium (in meq/l) content of the bile per day is A. Bacteroides Earliest manifestations of catheter related complication following parenteral nutrition. Sodium B. Staph aureus B. TGB-B Which part of the GIT provides strength in the anastomosis A. TNF D. present during the resucitative phase of burn injury may be due to Hypoxemia Hyponatremia Infection Hypokalemia 185. Muscularis C. B. E. 195. 190. Tryptophan A 54yo male patient with 3rd degree burn approximately 40%TBSAdeveloped abdominal pain on the 4 th hospital day. 18 Which cranial nerve is involved in the act of swallowing A. 186. Valine C. 196. Superior mesenteric artery syndrome D.

Severe abdominal pain due to chronic gastritis B. Ileoascending intussuception C. The patient had hematoma and abrasions on his RUQ and R flank. medical student. Omental patch After truncal vagotomy for peptic ulcer disease. The assessment of negative result signifies: A. A 77 year old.A. male. C. No hollow viscus injury B. Superficial spreading B. Acute cholecystitis with cholangitis D. D. Quantify volume of urine output A 23 yo female. Patient was GCS 13-14 with blunt abdominal trauma following a motor vehicular accident. Localize site of obstruction C. What type of gastric cancer has favorable prognosis? A. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cardiac tamponade A 32 yo male was brought to the ER because of blunt abdominal trauma due to fall. 198. Which of the following best describes the required operation? A. chronic smoker on NSAIDs for arthritis presents with an acute abdomen and pneumoperitoneum. Does not rule out abdominal organ injury The most important factor in the management of contaminated wounds is A. 206. Repair of perforation and truncal vagotomy C. Ulcerative D. the patient may develop the following except: A. Broad spectrum antibiotis B. Suture of perforation D. Needle did not reach the peritoneal cavity D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage was done & showed negative results. He requested one-shot intravenous pyelography en route to or. Changes in sensorium D. Rapid respiration C. The endoscopist noted a lesion at the antrum and took biopsy. 208. Polypoid C. Anti-tetanus prophylaxis C. was brought to the ER because of VA. Sigmoid carcinoma D. Perforated peptic ulcer disease Increased venous pressure . Find out extravasation of urine B. 207. Adequate debridement D. Acute pancreatitis C. Pallor B. B. Pneumothorax C. 200. Cardiac tamponade D. 202. C. decreased pulse pressure and decrease heart sound are pathognomonic of: A. It turned out to be gastric cancer. . Hypotension A patient underwent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for gastric outlet obstruction. Linitis plastica A patient diagnosed to have perforated peptic ulcer disease had his symptoms 8 hours prior to admission. Determine function of either kidneys D. Your resident assessed that the patient has surgical abdomen and needs immediate surgery. Absent blood in peritoneal cavity C. What could be the most likely cause of this? A. 203. Left gastric Right gastric Gastroepiploic Splenic Manifestation of acute gastric dilatation A. the principle behind these procedures for the doudenal injuries is to 204. neoplasm of the stomach Adenocarcinoma Lymphoma Leiomyosarcoma Squamous cell carcinoma 199. Gastric stasis B. Gallstone formation Most common A. 201. B. Aneurysm of the arch of aorta “Bird‟s beak” deformity is a radiologic sign of A. Repair of perforation and selective vagotomy B. He was prepared for surgery. Closure without tension Whether it‟s diverticulization or exclusion. Sigmoid volvolus B. 205. Diarrhea D. Acute myocardial infarction B. 209. The reason for such procedure is to: A. D.

Lipids C. Anteromidline B. He is pale and tachycardic. Abundance of blood supply Which structures demarcates the node levels in breast cancer: A. RBC tag scan Which is the most important stimulus for triggering endocrine response to injury A. . Folic acid B. Afferent nerve stimulation from the injured area C. Colonoscopy D. 215. After resuscitation. preferably delivered in a constant flow Pellagra. 210. Rigid proctoscopy C. Vitamin a C. Zinc The primary source of energy following trauma is A. Prevent fistula formation To rest or isolate the injure doudenum Prevent leakage Contain the inflammation at the RUQ Sphincterotomy for anal fissures is usually done at the A. Anterolateral Surgical management of familial adenomatous polyposis depends on the A. Pectoralis major C. 219. Its lymphatics B. Clean B. Barium enema B. glossitis. Arachidonic acid D. C.A. he again passed out more bloody stools as well as clots.o. Can be done endoscopically or open method B. NGT aspirate is bilious. Tumor size D. Latissimus dorsi B. Pectoralis minor Carcinoma of the breast among the elderly presenting as a bulky. Postero midline D. Size of polyps C. Staging Elective colorectal cancer operation is classified as A. Histologic grading D. B. 216. male is admitted to the hospital after passing out large amount of maroon-colored stools. 221. Number of polyps seen B. 213. Lymph node involvement B. Dirty Which of the following is the most important prognostic determination of survival after treatment of colorectal cancer A. dermatitis. The larger volume of breast tissue D. Histologic differentiation A 60 y. Carbohydrates Eicosanoids are cell mediators derived from A. Clean contaminated D. D. which of the ff is the most appropriate initial test: A. Cholesterol C. 212. Hypovolemia B. Indicated for mentally obtunded patients C. At the ER. Posterolateral C. Protein D. The predeliction of cancers superiorly C. 214. 222. Contaminated C. Local wound factors Which is not true regarding gastrostomy tube feeding? A. Axillary artery D. Glutamine The reason why approximately one half of breast cancer are located at the upper outer quadrant is A. Transmural extension C. 218. colloid tumor is 211. 220. Tissue acidosis D. 217. Caloric requirement is based on patient‟s need D. Pantothenic acid D. Glycogen B. & peripheral paresthesias with spinal cord symptoms are due to deficiency of A. Glycerol B.

Classical mastectomy + irradiation C. nontender. Mammography C. C. What will be your initial diagnostic procedure? A. Subdermal lymphatics A 34 female patient came at the OPD with 2cm palpable mass. Mucinous Medullary Adenoid Apocrine Management of inflammatory breast carcinoma with the best response A. Lobules D. 223. moveable. RM+hormonal manipulation Which of the following structures which when encroached by cancer gives rise to the “orange -peel” appearance of the breast? A. glands of Montgomery B. Chemotherapy+irradiation D. Needle or open biopsy B. Neoadjuvant chemo + MRM+ irradiation B. No axillary nodes noted. D. 224. Magnetic resonance imaging 225. Patient has an elder sibling who died of breast ca last 2 years ago. B. Ductal ampulla C. . Open biopsy ultrasound of the breast D.A.

Collagen synthesis is at its peak at around how many days? A. Tt+ats+cloxacillin Superior vena A. D. Ct scan Progressive painless jaundice with positive “ Courvoisier‟s sign” suggest A. Betamethasone B. The initial diagnostic tool in assessing biliary ductal obstruction A. C. 11 cm Squamous cell A. C. leave wound open + tetanus immunoglobulin +toxoid+antibiotics D. 3-5 C. Cortisone Most common A. Posterior The second most frequent benign salivary gland neoplasm is A. Triamcinolone C. Choledocholithiasis B. 232. 238. 236. 10-14 Formation of collagen fibers by cross-linking is enhanced by lysyl oxidase together with A. 45 male came in to the ER with a 3 cm lacerated wound at the left leg after he was bitten by a pig. Hydrops of gall bladder C. Midlateral C. 228. B. Copper C. 5-7 D. Zinc D. 8 cm B. D. Pancreatic head or peri ampullary neoplasm D.226. Oxyphilic adenoma 235. ca of the lung is usually associated with Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia Hyperglycemia Hypomagnesemia 233. He has received tetanus toxoid and tetanus immunoglobulin 10 1/2 years ago. D. Alkaline phosphatase B. Magnesium B. 1-2 B. Central D. Chromium Which of the following steroids useful in the treatment of scars and keloids A. 229. 239. Proctosigmoidoscopy C. Tip B. Size of primary tumor B. Ultrasonography C. Ercp D. Tetanus immunoglobulin only C. B. B. Pleomorphic adenoma B. 234. Choledochal cyst The initial diagnostic procedure in patients presenting with lower GI bleed A. C. Toxoid + tetanus immunoglobulin+antibiotics B. . The average length of the adult trachea is A. What would be the appropraite management at the ER? A. 9 cm C. 230. cause of hospital acquired infections are coming from the Respiratory tract Intraabdominal Urinary tract Blood 227. Barium enema D. caval obstruction is commonly caused by Fibrosing mediastinitis Bronchogenic carcinoma Caval thrombosis Aortic aneurysm 231. NGT intubation B. Colonoscopy The main parameter for determining the clinical stage of head and neck tumors is A. 10 cm D. Metastasis D. Prednisolone D. Lymph node involvement C. Functional loss Malignancy of the tongue usually occurs at the A. 237. Debridement.

Burkitts lymphoma B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. Hurthle D. D. Apply ice pack over the hernia D. 250. Hepatocellular carcinoma A normal to low CVP that does not rise with rapid administration of crystalloids indicates: A. Substance associated with increased incidence of mesothelioma A. Sedate patient and reduce the hernia C. IVP C. the patient developed numbness around the lips and fingers. & RR 30. Metaplasia C. 245. 246. Hyperplasia B. Bladder D. 240. Improper placement of CVP C. 248. Bun and creatinine D. which among the drugs acts by reducing the intraprostatic dihydrotestosterone levels without lowering the plasma testosterone level? A. The acidosis in A. Smoking B. Injury to both nerves cause upper airway obstruction B. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum Sialadenoma hypovolemic shock is due to Phosphate Lactic acid Carbonic acid HCL 241. Inadequate rate of infusion B. 249. Patient complained of abdominal pain with BP of 100/70. The appropriate management is: A. A 23yo male patient came in at ER with irreducible inguinal hernia of >16hours duration. C. Hodgkin‟s D. . Urinalysis In the medical treatment of BPH.C. Ischemia to the parathyroids C. Dysplasia D. Schedule patient for surgery At the ER. Follicular B. Improper choice of crystalloids Recurrent laryngeal nerve is preserved in thyroid surgery. What could have caused this? A. Liver B. Doxazosin 251. 252. D. The following are the minimal laboratory evaluation you would request except: A. which one is the most aggressive? A. Silica C. Transection of superior laryngeal nerve True regarding A. 243. Lead Prostatic carcinoma usually metastasizes to the A. Observe for progression of pain B. CR 120. Angiogenesis Epstein-barr virus is associated with the following tumors. What is false with regards to this nerve: A. Bone The earliest visible evidence of neoplastic transformation is A. 24 H after surgery. 244. C. 64% of the r recurrent is seen along the tracheosophageal groove Among the types of thyroid cancer. Injury to the ipsilateral nerve cause disability of phonation C. Continuing hypovolemia D. hernia: Most common type of hernia in females is direct hernia Strangulation is more common in indirect than in femoral hernia Tension-free repair is best achieved with bassini technique Repair of umbilical hernia is indicated in infants with hernia > 2cm 242. B. D. B. 247. It is a branch of cranial nerve x D. Asbestos D. Hematoma D. Papillary C. Kidneys C. Anaplastic A 45yo female patient underwent total thyroidectomy for follicular ca. except A. CBC and electrolytes B. Transection of recurrent nerve B. a patient complained of renal colic.

hypertonic dehydration D. actual Na deficit is 250 mEq D. . The most likely diagnosis is: A. uncompensated metabolic acidosis is present C. dry sticky mucous membranes C. hypernatremia TRUE statements regarding fluid and electrolyte losses in this patient: A. ventricular arrhythmias Extracellular fluid deficit results in: A. which abnormality is he liable to manifest? A. small bowel C. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis In the above patient. increased sodium B. can go into hypovolemic shock anytime C.3%NaCl Interpret the above ABG results: A. depressed eyeballs. and his central venous pressure is 2 cmH 2O. Finasteride Terazosin Tamsulosin A 48hour old baby boy was brought to the ER due to vomiting of bilious vomitus. What is the most likely cause? Tracheo-esophageal atresia Ileal atresia Pyloric stenosis Rectal mass A 28 kg child with ruptured appendicitis has the following laboratory results: BP=90/60. 264.600 cc initial fluid resuscitation is 560 cc given as fast drip decrease in Na is primarily due to renal losses decrease in Na is dilutional in nature In the same patient. uncompensated metabolic acidosis C. cardiac tamponade C.35. D. vomiting accounts for an insignificant amount of the volume loss B. extracellular increase of K+ D. hypovolemic shock D. congestive heart failure B. Na=125. PR=110. depletion of cellular ATP C. anion gap is increased B. increased hematocrit C. C. shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left D. 260. plasma Which of the following is an expected cellular change/s in hypovolemic shock? A. liver This hemodynamic monitor is valuable to differentiate a pericardial tamponade from hypovolemia: 254. 253. 265. hypotonic dehydration B. Which of the following is TRUE? A. increased intracranial pressure B. which of the following is TRUE? plasma volume is 5. Cl=95. decreased BUN D. Initial assessment is an Intestinal Obstruction probably from adhesions. the ideal intravenous fluid to infuse is D50. sequestration of fluid in the urinary system accounts for majority of the losses D. C. The most likely fluid state of this patient is: A. blood flow to which of the following area/s is under sympathetic nervous system control? A. 261. blood C.B. His cardiac output is 1. 263. brain B. the patient has weak and rapid pulse. pO2=100. RR=25. D. decreased creatinine A 70-kg is admitted because of abdominal colic followed by vomiting of previously ingested food. K=3.9 L/min. compensatory fluid shift from other compartments is sufficient to maintain homeostasis Fluid replacement in this patient should begin with: A. 256. compensated metabolic acidosis D. and failure to pass out meconium. heart D. 258. C. pulmonary embolus During compensation for hypovolemic shock. pCO2=35. colloids D. increase in transmembrane potential A patient has a blood pressure of 70/50 mmHg and a serum lactate level of 30-mg/100 ml (normal: 6 to 16). On examination. and dry tongue and mucous membranes. intracellular gain of Na+ and H20 B. HCO3=24. ph=7. 257. crystalloids B. 259. 255. isotonic dehydration C. abdominal distention. compensated respiratory alkalosis B. 262.

A. B. C. D. 266.

CVP C. pulmonary catheter Arterial catheter D. capnograph

In a multiply injured patient with acute blood loss, adequate preload to the heart is maintained initially by the: A. increase in systemic vascular resistance B. development of tachycardia C. hormonal effects of angiotensin D. hormonal effects of antidiuretic hormone An example of neurogenic shock: A. convulsion B. syncope C. carpopedal spasm D. involuntary fine tremors



Coagulation factors tested by prothrombin time (PT): A. VII C. VIII B. XII D. XI The initial hemostatic response to injury is: A. platelet formation C. vascular constriction B. hemolysis D. initiation of coagulation cascade All are major events in the hemostatic process: A. vascular dilatation C. fibrin deposition B. platelet plug formation D. hemolysis The following are suggestive of DIC: A. platelet counts of 250,000/ B. increased fibrin split products C. normal fibrinogen level D. hypofibrinogenemia





Injury to the intima of blood vessels exposes the subendothelial collagen which initiates: A. fibrinolysis C. release of cyclic AMP B. platelet aggregation D. vasoconstriction A 77-year old man is scheduled to undergo sigmoid colectomy. He denies any history of prolonged bleeding. Preoperative evaluation of hemostasis should include: A. no screening tests B. prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) C. platelet count, blood smear, and PTT D. platelet count, PT, and PTT The total caloric requirement of a malnourished patient is calculated using his: A. Actual weight C. 50% of ideal body weight B. 75% of ideal body weight D. Ideal body weight In prescribing the nutrition therapy, micronutrients are given at what % of RDA: A. 100 C. 60 B. 80 D. 50 Nitrogen excretion is less in: A. starvation B. sepsis C. severe burns D. elective surgery






At the initial stages of septic shock it is normally expected to have a: A. normal blood volume C. cold extremities B. hypertension D. hypothermia A 38-year-old male had abdominal exploration for multiple gunshot wounds. He is febrile T 38.5 C on the 2nd postop day; HR is 98 bpm, BP 100/80. WBC count is 13000. The patient is hooked to a ventilator. The patient is developing what condition; A. SIRS C. severe sepsis B. sepsis D. septic shock On the 5th day post-op the patient in addition to the above findings now shows erythema and draining pus from the abdominal incision site. The patient now is developing; A. SIRS C. severe sepsis B. sepsis D. septic shock On the 10th day post-op, the patient is persistently febrile with increase in WBC count (18000) and this time with oliguria that is unresponsive to fluid resuscitation. The patient now is developing; A. SIRS C. severe sepsis B. sepsis D. septic shock





The above patient was given pressor agents to improve his condition, despite this he remains oliguric. The patient now has: A. SIRS C. severe sepsis B. sepsis D. septic shock Immediately after mastectomy your patient asks if any of the following promotes wound healing, which one wills you advise your patient? A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B B. Zinc supplementation D. carbohydrate rich foods Severe cases of hidradenitis suppurativa in the groin area are best managed by excision of the involved area and: A. closure by secondary intention B. delayed primary closure C. primary closure D. partial thickness skin grafts An elderly cancer patient fell and sustained a deep lacerated wound over the right forehead about 9 cm length. If wound infection later develops in this patient. The major cause of impaired wound healing is: A. anemia C. DM B. local wound infection D. all of the above What technique of wound closure is recommended in a patient with ruptured appendix with spreading peritonitis? A. primary C. secondary B. delayed primary D. tertiary If the lacerated wound is sutured closed, this healing is known as; A. primary C. tertiary B. secondary D. delayed primary Wound healing in this patient may be impaired because of his; A. age C. type of wound B. depth of the wound D. cancer Infection in the above wound is partly controlled by the presence of what cells; A. macrophages C. endothelial cells B. fibroblast D. T lymphocytes Important activities of macrophages during wound healing; A. wound debridement C. activation of coagulation cascade B. arginine synthesis D. fibrin clot The ABC‟s of resuscitation includes the following: A. establish adequate airway B. bleeding should be controlled by applying tourniquet C. circulation should be maintained by rapid infusion of blood D. oxygen should be delivered if necessary A 25-year-old male is brought to the ER after he sustained a stab wound to the 5th intercostals space. PE: conscious, stretcher-borne, vitals are as follows: blood pressure 90/50, pulse 110/min and respiratory rate 30/min. Which of the following statements is true: A. primary survey and initial resuscitation should be instituted one after the other B. a complete detailed physical exam should be performed so as not to miss any injury C. large-bore IV lines should be inserted D. blood for CBC and x-matching should be drawn An 8-year old boy has a closed angulated deformity of his right forearm. VS: BP = 99 mm Hg systolic and PR = 110 Identify the most emergent problem of the victim. Write any of the following: A. Airway or Cervical Spine C. Circulation B. Breathing D. Disability or Neurologic Injury A 7-year old boy is gasping for breath. He can speak clearly, but complains of chest pain and an inability to get his breath. He is becoming increasingly anxious. VS: BP = 100 mm Hg systolic and PR = 110 Identify the most emergent problem of the victim. Write any of the following: A. Airway or Cervical Spine C. Circulation B. Breathing D. Disability or Neurologic Injury A 25-year-old man is unconscious, withdraws from painful stimuli, eyes are closed, but they open in response to pain, and he is making unintelligible sounds. His pupils are equal, and both react sluggishly to light. His Glasgow coma scale score is: A. 5 C. 11 B. 8 D. 14















After control of this patient's airway is achieved, the first diagnostic study to obtain is: A. x-rays of the skull C. x-rays of the cervical spine B. CT scan of the head D. carotid angiography A 19-year-old woman presents with a non-bleeding stab wound, 1 cm long, in the anterior triangle of her neck, 3 cm above her left clavicle. Examination of the neck reveals that the wound has penetrated the platysma muscle, and that the left carotid pulse is normal; there is no hematoma or bruit. Appropriate management of this patient: A. immediate tracheostomy B. nasogastric intubation C. chest x-rays D. formal neck exploration under general anesthesia Following an automobile accident, a 30-year-old woman is discovered to have a posterior pelvic fracture. Hypotension and tachycardia respond marginally to volume replacement. Once it is evident that her major problem is free intraperitoneal bleeding and a pelvic hematoma in association with the fracture, appropriate management would be: A. application of antishock trousers and exploratory laparotomy B. arterial embolization of the pelvic vessels C. exploratory laparotomy and possible bilateral internal iliac artery ligation D. external pelvic fixation to stabilize the pelvis Large amount of free intraperitoneal blood is seen in a patient with penetrating abdominal injury after an abdominal ultrasound, the next best step is to: A. apply antishock trousers and exploratory laparotomy B. arterial embolization of the pelvic vessels C. exploratory laparotomy D. external pelvic fixation to stabilize the pelvis A 6-year-old is having episodes of watery diarrhea for the past three days. She is lethargic, irritable and restless. The heartbeat is rapid but the pulses are weak. The child should: A. stay home and call the pediatrician for advice B. stay home and have a cold bath C. proceed to the nearest hospital emergency room D. get a glass of cold fruit-juice to drink Over-enthusiastic fluid resuscitation should be avoided in this child because of: A. potential liver failure B. acute myocardial infarction C. venous thrombosis and rupture D. potential cerebral injury A study on ruptured appendicitis will be conducted in a tertiary university hospital that includes all age groups and all genders on the rate of SSI between primary vs. delayed primary closure. What is the possible confounder in this study? A. all age groups B. ruptured appendicitis C. SSI D. primary vs. delayed primary The most common type of inguinal hernia in both males and females is: A. Indirect B. Direct C. Femoral D. Mixed. The Cooper‟s ligament repair for direct or femoral hernia is popularized by: A. Bassini B. McVay C. Halsted D. Ferguson A 22 year old female consulted a physician because of a 2x2x2 cms, movable, well circumscribed, non tender mass, noted accidentally while taking a bath. Physical examination was consistent with the findings above. Most likely diagnosis is: A. Breast Ca B. Fibrocystic change C. Fibroadenoma D. Phylloides tumor The next thing to do on the above patient is: A. Reassurance and observation B. Ask for a mammogram C. Partial mastectomy D. Hormonal treatment Ivory an 18 year old female consulted because of breast tenderness becoming more severe just before menses. PE – showed asymmetric nodularities on the upper outer quadrant of both breasts with no dominant mass . Menstrual cycle is monthly and regular. Most likely diagnosis is: A. Sclerosing adenosis C. Fibrocystic change B. Normal premenstrual tension D. Breast Ca Sarah Jane a 35 year old female consulted because of an intermittent bloody nipple discharge on the right breast PPE- no mass noted on the right breast Most likely diagnosis is: A. Papillary cancer C. Bleeding galactocoele B. Mammary duct ectasia D. Intraductral papilloma Chemotherapy in breast carcinoma is:







302. 303. 304.





Results showed (+) for malignant cells . 313. Which would be most helpful in determining whether there really is a thyromegaly or none: A. UV radiation B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma B. Zone I C. Local invasion and metastases almost never occur C. Immediate surgery The most commonly injured intraabdominal organ following a blunt abdominal trauma. Local wound exploration B. total parotidectomy D. Metastases frequently occur to cervical lymph nodes. MRI B. lymph node metastases B. Zone IV Her 316. Grave‟s disease B.lungs and bone results in a 10% 5 yr survival rate The most important prognosticating factor in thyroid cancer is: A. hypothyroidism D. Follicular Cancer C. The course of papillary thyroid cancer is best described by which of the following statements?: A. 322. squamous cell carcinoma B. 309. tumor size C. 311.E. Immediate surgery D. papillary carcinoma D. radiation therapy abdominal 310. You will recommend: A. proceed with local wound exploration D. Follicular carcinoma D. small intestine D. patient‟s age D. distant metastases and local invasion are rare D. Plummer Vinson‟s disease D. smoker underwent FNAB for a 4cm preauricular mass. Rapid widespread metastatic involvement of the liver . Papillary carcinoma B. alcohol The site of injury corresponds to which zone of the neck? A. spleen C. 315. MRI of the neck . A 16 year old high school student came to you with a complaint that her friends took notice of an anterior neck enlargement since she started on her weight reduction program. Zone II D. were normal 323. Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism D. Primary Hyperparathyroidism B. A 60 year old woman with chronic renal failure and undergoing hemodialysis 2-3x/week develops tumoral calcinosis. Triple angiography of the abdomen Fifteen minutes later the BP became 60 palpatory. papillary carcinoma The appropriate treatment for a benign parotid neoplasm is: A. You were indecisive as to whether there really was a thyromegaly. 321. Metastases are rare. hypocalcemia B. a second opinion from an endocrinologist B. Medullary carcinoma The next appropriate thing to do in managing the above case will be: A. Most common histology of head-neck cancers is: A. 319. Adenosquamous carcinoma The most common causative agent being implicated in head-neck cancers is: A. On the third hour post-op. He is probably suffering from A. A. he experienced circumoral numbness. C. heat intolerance and weight loss. Secondary Hyperparathyroidism C. given to those with at least 4 positive axillary metastasis usually a combination of multiple agents free of any side effects used to control local recurrence Breast malignancy that is known to have the highest incidence of bilaterality and multicentricity: A Paget‟s disease of the breast C. hypokalemic acidosis 320. Zone III B. The rest of the P. “shelling out” of the tumor B. nitrates D. CT Scan C. Frey‟s syndrome C. parathyroid hormone is markedly elevated while her Ionized Calcium is normal. Tobacco C. 317. superficial parotidectomy C. Adenocarcinoma C.A. histologic grade 43 years old female present with diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland accompanied by palpitation. Parathyroid carcinoma. 314. Pancreas B. PR-120/min accompanied by distention. 318. The diagnosis of the above is: A. CT scan C. Lobular carcinoma D. She is most probably suffering from : A. 312. colon A 55 y/o male. B. D.The patient is most probably suffering from: A.Colloid goiter A 50 years old male has just undergone a total thyroidectomy for follicular cancer of the thyroid. local growth is rapid B. Pleomorphic adenoma C.

335. calcium B. Breast The standard of treatment for patient with biliary colic and cholecystolthiasis by ultrasound is A. 1 cm diameter rounded mass coming out of the anus. This patient has: A. thrombosed internal hemorrhoids A 65 y/o female was referred for surgical consult because of abdominal pain and distention. Rectal carcinoma D. Fluid resuscitation. 333. 331. luscency beneath the right hemidiapragm D. CT scan of the pelvis Majority of peptic ulcer patients are successfully managed medically or conservatively.C. Endoscopic Stone removal In an infected obstructed common bile duct producing cholangitis which of the following is the best option for drainage in a very poor risk patient ? A. Stone Dissolution B. . Sodium D. Explored immediately because bleeding is an indication for surgery C. irregular mass was noted at 6 cm from the anal verge The most likely diagnosis here is: A. Above patient is best managed by: A. Cell type C. Magnesium below normal is: 325. 336. Penetrating peptic ulcer B. Aggressively resuscitated with fluids and measures to localize site of bleeding should be done in preparation for possible surgery B. 326. Aggressive medical treatment of PUD B. step ladder abnormality A 75 y/o female is being worked up for paralytic ileus The electrolyte that is usually A. Laparotomy after resuscitation / IV antibiotics C. Cholecystectomy C. 327. A 72-year old male consults because of change in bowel habits for the last 2 weeks. Perforation C. 330. A significant and independent influence on the prognosis of a patient who had an esophageal resection for cancer is: A. Proctosigmoidoscopy D. nasogastric decompression and somatostatin D. Thyroid Scanning D. a hard. Malignant degeneration A 48 year old company manager who has been taking proton pump inhibitor irregularly for the past 2 years because of on & off epigastric discomfort presents in the emergency room with hematemesis and melena. A 43 year old male patient with on & off epigastric pain during the past 15 months complains of sudden severe epigastric pain later on becoming generalized. stomach D. Degree of cellular differentiation D. Anal wart D. Potassium C. Anal canal carcinoma The most appropriate initial diagnostic procedure to be done is: A. Tumor penetration of the esophageal wall B. Rectal carcinoid C. An upright chest file taken at the ER shows a strip of lucency underneath the right hemidiaphragm. 328. Emergency ERCP A 30 y/o male who usually has dripping fresh blood after defecation suddenly had anal pain and a smooth. colorectal C. Lungs B. Acute pancreatitis C. This is most likely: A. Massive GI bleeding D. cholecystostomy 334. Cholecystostomy D. internal hemorrhoids 3rd degree C. Perforated diverticulitis D. Air in the distal rectum B. Location of the tumor in the esophagus Hepatic resection should be considered for localized metastatic spread from which of the following primary site? A. 332. Pneumatosis intestinales C. Gastric outlet obstruction B. Watchful waiting for 24-48 hours. On rectal exam. Chest x-ray B. This patient should be: A. Ultrasound of the abdomen C. 329. Perforated peptic ulcer. Give massive doses of anti-ulcer medications D. serum TSH. peri-anal abscess B. Findings in the scout film of the abdomen that will be highly suggestive of intestinal obstruction: A. tender. Rectal Polyp B. Which of the following complications is the most common indication for surgical intervention? A. T3 & T4 324.

Electroencephalogram Abrasion wounds on the face are best treated with: A. all of the above are correct Essential elements in the survival of a skin graft: A. Proteus sp obliterans? 342. dilated pancreatic duct D. Klebsiella. distal ileum B. E. 343. 348.B. 345. multiple gallstones. Gall bladder polyp near the neck D. Plain skull x-rays B. obstruction is most frequent in : A. abdomen slightly tender with guarding RUQ. 338. hepatoma C. A. Dilated extrahepatic bile ducts D. Syncope C. Cold hands and feet B. 344. Intermittent claudication. 340. A massively bleeding posterior duodenal ulcer. laser surgery D. CT scan finding that is highly indicative of infected pancreatic necrosis. pancreatic head cancer B. acute cholecystitis C. Nerve supply. edema C. split thickness skin grafting C. Sigmoid colon The most common cause of Acute Cholecystitis is : A. Severe pain D. Vascularity B. careful observation and follow up C. PPE showed a palpable non tender gallbladder? A. pruritus and tea colored urine. ERCP and stenting D. jejunum D. The most likely diagnosis in a 70 y/o male presenting with significant weight loss accompanied by progressive jaundice. Hemiparesis B. 339. ruptured gallbladder The problem of patient in the previous number is best managed by: A. anorexia. gallbladder empyema The severity of pancreatitis. chills. high grade fever and hypotension. Staph saprophyticus C. coli B. MRICP 337. Poor hair growth C. duodenum C. 350. E. coli infection C. Edema and thickening of gallbladder wall B. Scout film of the abdomen D. 341. 346. Dry dressing D. particularly in those patient who is not improving after 24 hours of medical management can be assessed using: A. Congestive heart failure. gallbladder cancer D. wound cleansing and debridement with normal saline B. gas bubbles in the retroperitoneum When gallstone ileus occurs . Gastroduodenal artery . Angiography D. A 45 year old jaundiced patient who has been diagnosed to have gallbladder and common bile duct stones by ultrasound 6 months ago is brought to the ER because of abdominal pain . which of the following is most likely involved: A. 347. administration of oral antibiotics B. Contracted gallbladder C. Dynamic CT Scan B. What is the Most Common symptom of acute aortic dissection? A. Enterobacter D. Deformed toenails D. Acute suppurative obstructive cholangitis B. High level echoes with posterior acoustic shadowing. surgical/endoscopic decompression of biliary tree after resuscitation and antibiotics D. This is the BEST procedure for a patient with acute head injury secondary to a vehicular accident: A. Angiography C. operative CBD exploration and T tube choledochostomy C. The strongest evidence of presence of gallstones by ultrasound is : A. 351. Most common cause of UTI in children: A. cystic duct obstruction B. Left gastric artery B. empyema of the gallbladder D. Antibiotics C. give systemic antibiotics and steroids. The patient most likely is having which of the following: A. MRICP Which of the following clinical clues is a reliable symptoms of arteriosclerosis A. PE: icteric sclerae . 349. calcifications B. CT scan C.

Plain film of the skull The radial nerve is at greatest risk for injury with which fracture: A. Flat plate x-rays reveals air under the diaphragm. Acetylcholine D. The most common site of involvement for skeletal tuberculosis is the: A. her abdomen is found to be distended and tender in the left lower quadrant. Achalasia A 38-year old man with a history of fever associated with abdominal pain of several weeks duration presents now with a sudden onset of explosive abdominal pain and vomiting. Carcinoma of the colon C. C. 355. A 28-year old man with a history of emotional disturbance enters the hospital with a history of weight loss and regurgitation of food. Tuberculosis enteritis B. Small bowel obstruction due to adhesions B. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Gastrin C. Typhoid enteritis .000. X-ray reveals multiple gas fluid levels. Evaluation of cardiovascular system B. Blood per rectum D. Supracondylar fracture of the humerus D. Findings on PE are positive for healed abdominal scars. Crampy abdominal pain B. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Chronic cholecystitis B. Chronic intestinal ischemia C. 352. Prostaglandins The most common symptom associated with a Meckel‟s diverticulum is: A. Periumbilical pain C. sign of compartment syndrome in the hand includes: Pain with passive stretch at the digits Absent radial pulse Motor paralysis Swelling of the digits 353. B. Gallstones and ascites A 56-year old man has suffered from intermittent claudication for 5 years. Short gastric artery Left gastroepiploic artery Which of the following would inhibit parietal cell acid secretions? A. A hernia C. 357. Spine A 65-year old woman with a history of chronic constipation is transferred from a nursing home because of abdominal pain and marked abdominal distention. CT scan shows mesenteric lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. 356. Homonymous hemianopsia C. Peptic ulcer D. Appendicitis B. Regurgitation is worse when he lies down. 354. Cancer of the esophagus C. Superior quadrantanopsia D. Duodenal ulcer D. D. 360. Establishment of an airway D. Hiatal hernia B. 361. The most likely diagnosis is: A. D. Fracture of the shaft of the humerus C. Small bowel obstruction A 68-year old man presents with crampy abdominal pain and distention vomiting. Evaluation of pupillary reflexes C. The WBC count is 12. Watery diarrhea The typical visual field deficit caused by a pituitary adenoma with suprasellar extension is: A. On examination. Appendicitis D. He has a history of a 15-lb weight loss. Inferior quadrantanopsia The evaluation of a comatose patient with a head injury begins with: A. 358. Bitemporal hemianopsia B. Volvulus of the sigmoid colon D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm 359. The most likely diagnosis is: A. The most likely diagnosis is: A.C. Histamine B. Femur C. Pelvis D. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus B. Olecranon fracture An early A. He has recently developed cramping abdominal pain that is made worse by eating. Tibia B.

C. The condition is most commonly due to: A. B. a peanut. On expiration. his mediastinum shifts to the right. hyponatremic acidosis C. hypernatremic alkalosis A 1week old infant presents with moderate respiratory distress and tympany in only one hemithorax. carcinoma of the sigmoid colon D. C. Penicillin B. Malignant pleural effusion C. D. perinephric abscess D. eventration of the diaphragm C. B. Bochdalek hernia D. Echoencephalography The appropriate antibiotic for a patient with a cellulitis of a leg due to streptococcus is: A. D. D. Carotid arteriography B. spontaneous pneumothorax B. Clubbing and blueness of fingers Which of the following studies is contraindicated in a drowsy patient with papilledema whom one suspects of having acute closed head trauma: A. she has significant pyuria but without bacilluria. The most likely diagnosis is: A. He appears pale and dehydrated. B. he had noticed that he is passing air during micturition. diverticulitis D. D. Diverticulosis B. Splenectomy is often A. diverticulitis of the colon A 42-year old woman has been complaining of intermittent gross hematuria. Erythromycin C. Primary peritonitis Ulcerative colitis indicated in the management of: Hereditary spherocytosis Hereditary neurofibromatosis Aplastic anemia Hashimoto‟s disease gallbladder palpable on PE of a jaundiced patient is strongly suggestive of: Empyema of the gallbladder Mirizzi‟s syndrome Gallstone impacted in the ampulla Pancreatic carcinoma Which of the following suggest unresectability of a left upper lobe lung cancer: A. A painless distended A. The most common cause of the above condition is: A. colonic carcinoma A 54-year old male has been complaining of recurrent hypogastric pain for almost 6 months. carcinoma of the bladder B. Hemoptysis B. C. He is cyanotic. Which of the following is most indicative of a urethral hematuria high-riding prostate on rectal examination oliguria scrotal ecchymosis . A 40-year old man is injury: A. A cough specimen with positive sputum cytology D. Meckel‟s diverticulum C. hypochloremic alkalosis D. The likely metabolic abnormality the patient would have is: A. urethritis B. Lumbar puncture C. hypochloremic acidosis B. On urinalysis. CT scan D. B. Atelectasis A little boy aspirated lodged in the: A. bladder stone C. For almost 3 weeks prior to consult. tuberculosis of the kidney A 25-year old male had episodes of severe vomiting due to a gastric outlet obstruction. D. Cloxacillin Massive bleeding from the lower GI tract (beyond the ligament of Treitz) is most often due to: A.C. tuberculosis of the urinary tract C. The peanut most likely is right main stem bronchus left main stem bronchus trachea esophagus hit by a car and sustains an injury to the pelvis. C. 3rd generation cephalosphorins D.

Empyema B. amoebic abscess C. On contrast CT-scan. The embolus most probably originated from: A. Heart Which of the following elements is not a component of venous thrombogenesis: A. Endoscopic injury B. Staphylococcus aereus C. carcinoembryonic antigen B. Whether the stenosis is smooth or has an irregular countour A 60-yr old man with a history of atrial fibrillation is found to have a cyanotic cold right lower extremity. Hypercoagulability In a patient suffering from an acute arterial embolic phenomenon. Hepatic artery D. ipsilateral hemianopsia The most common complication of lung abscess is: A. osteomyelitis of the ribs The most common posterior-superior sulcus chest tumor in a 6-month old child is: A. Deep vein thrombosis C. Splenic artery C. The cross-sectional area of the stenosis C. Disruption of endothelial intima C. In following this patient for possible recurrent tumor. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. nerve C. a 5 cm lesion in the left lobe of the liver enhances and then decreases over a 10-minute period from without to within. Boarhaave‟s syndrome D. contralateral hemiparesis D. alpha fetoprotein C. fatty infiltration D. The length of the stenosis B. prostate specific antigen D. The length and area are equally important D. alkaline phosphatase The most common cause of esophageal rupture or perforation: A. The most likely lesion is a: A. Carcinoma The superior mesenteric artery communicates with the celiac artery via the: A. Blunt chest trauma C. the most frequent and significant long term sequela is: Claudication Recurrent foot infection Development of stasis ulcer Pulmonary embolism In an arterial stenosis. if the ischemia is not relieved. Pneumothorax C. Dorsal pancreatic artery The most common offending organism in pyogenic osteomyelitis is: A. Venostasis D. which of these following tissues is the first to be irreversibly damaged: A. Escherichia coli B. carvernous hemangioma A 28-year old male has had a nonseminomatous testicular cancer treated. contralateral mydriasis B. hepatic adenoma B. Lungs D. bronchopleural fistula D. Incompetent valves in perforating vein B.A 64-year old man has mild upper abdominal pain. synovial membrane Which of the following clinical manifestation may suggest tentorial herniation: A. decorticate rigidity C. the most useful serum marker would be: A. Teratoma . fat D. Pancreatico-duodenal artery B. muscle B. Neuroblastoma B. An atherosclerotic plaque B. the most critical factor is: A. Entococcus In patients who developed a documented episode of deep vein thrombosis.

Management could either be water restriction or replacement depending on the cause D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflex is a manifestation A 60 kg lean male would normally have this amount of body water: A. Methanol ingestion 50-57 A 60-year old female. Melanoma D. Hypoglycemia may be a cause C. Interleukin 4 A 27-year old hypertensive. The most likely cause is: A. Cytotoxix T-cell effectiveness D. tuberculosis B. late metastasizing characteristic: A. 24 liters C. Basosquamous carcinoma Following the Goodsall-Salmon‟s rule in fistula in ano. Two-antigen HLA match with donor D. She is extremely thirsty and stuporous. 48 liters A practical but useful clinical parameter that can be used to assess the adequacy of volume replacement in patients suffering from hypovolemia is: A. Basal cell carcinoma C. Curve tract C. Straight tract B. bronchial rupture What substance is released by macrophages in order to activate T helper/inducer (CD4+) lymphocytes: A. Renal tubular acidosis C. Pulse rate A 42-year old man who has been on prolonged total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administration was noted to have scaly. hyperpigmented lesions over the acral surface of elbows and knees and alopecia. 36 liters B. Serum sodium determination C. Serum sodium determination would give a normal result B. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Which of the following factors would preclude transplantation: A. emphysematous blebs C. Urine output C. Hypomagnesemia D. S-shaped tract One of the following statements is correct regarding hyponatremia: A. Central venous pressure measurement B. cystic hygroma ganglioneuroma The most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is: A. Diarrhea B. D. Interleukin 2 production Which of the following malignancy exhibits a slow growing. Interleukin 2 C. Excess glucose calories C. presents with headache backache and frequent vomiting. Macrophage function B. 30 liters D. She is blood type B and has had four transfusions of packed cells over the preceding 6 months. Serum calcium determination B. Positive crossmatch C. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg The primary mechanism of action of cyclosporine A is inhibition of: A. Donor blood type O B.C. Blood pressure D. No tract D. an anteriorly located opening less than 3 cm fro m the anal opening follows: A. Serum potassium determination . Antibody production C. Essential fatty acid deficiency B. The most likely cause of the condition is: A. Zinc deficiency A 40-year old man is found to have severe metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap. diabetic woman is admitted for cadaveric renal transplantation. Interleukin 1 B. Ureterosigmoidostomy D. Interleukin 3 D. The test most likely to identify the cause is: A. post mastectomy for breast cancer. pneumonia D.

359. B. flame burns C. D. scald burns B. Buccal mucosa D. Nasopharynx C.1698 360. the most common primary malignant bone tumor is: Osteosarcoma Ewing‟s sarcoma Answer: A. Pulmonary fibrosis 354. Septic shock D. Pavlik harness Answer: A. B. Dennis Brown Splint D.1718 A unique feature of immature bone is the capacity to undergo plastic deformation without breaking and to sustain an incomplete fracture also called: Nighstick fracture Monteggia fracture Galleazzi fracture Greenstick fracture Answer: D. C.1679 The gold standard of treatment of femoral shaft fractures in adults is: Closed reduction and hip spica application Open reduction and reamed intramedullary nailing Closed locked antegrade intramedullary nailing Plating Answer: C. Serum glucose determination The Trendelenburg‟s (head down) position is benefi cial in the initial management of which type of shock: A. A. Immediate operative treatment C. B. Mediastinum The most frequent organism in highest density that can be isolated from contamination following colon perforation are: A.1688 Initial treatment of Talipesequinovarus (clubfoot) is: A. Gram positive aerobes B. 355. A. A. B. C. electrical burn A 20 year old man has lymphadenopathy behind and inferior to his right ear. Schwartz 8th ed p. S chwartz 8th ed p. The most likely site of the primary tumor is: A. A. A. C. D. Increased physiologic shunt B. D. Schwartz 8 th ed p. Biopsy shows the lesion to be a lymphosarcoma. D. B. C. Hypovolemic shock B. Schwartz 8th ed p. Increased dead space C.1661 Chodrosarcoma Fibrosarcoma The best treatment for septic arthritis of the hip is: Repeated daily aspiration Arthroscopic drainage Surgical drainage/Arthrotomy with antibiotic therapy Antibiotic therapy only Answer: C. Serial Casting immediately after birth/time of diagnosis B. D. B. chemical burn D. Gram positive anaerobes D. Schwartz 8th ed p1678 The most common form of inflammatory arthritis: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Septic Arthritis Psoariatic Arthritis Answer: B.1654 20 to 25 years of age 30 to 35 years of age After multiple myeloma. Overall bone mass increases up to what age afterwhich there is an overall decrease in bone mass: 10 to 15 years of age 15 to 20 years of age Answer: D.D. Cardiogenic shock C. 358. Schwartz 8 th ed p. A. Neurogenic shock The most common form of burn is: A. D. . Cardiogenic pulmonary edema D. Floor of the mouth B. 356. Schwartz 8th ed p. 357. Gram negative anaerobes The most clinically significant early physiologic abnormality in post traumatic pulmonary insufficiency is: A. Gram negative aerobes C. C. C.

Weber Test c.The nasolacrimal duct empties into the: a. anterior ethmoids b. Fibrous dysplasia Ans. sinusitis: a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome B. of superior laryngeal nerve c. Schwartz 8th ed p. inferior meatus c. B page 359 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 19. Juvenile angiofibroma b.1763 11. upward and forward d.361. pleomorphic adenoma d. sphenoethmoidal recess Ans. B page 269 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 17. vagus nerve Ans B page 387 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 20. Rinne Test b. Trigger finger C. there was a bulging mass at the nasopharyngeal area. oculomotor nerve ( CN III) Ans. Swabach Test d.This is a autosomal recessive trait characterized by situs invesus. external br. lymphangioma b. A page 21 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 14. recurrent laryngeal mnerve b. This nerve controls the muscle of facial expression which is easily observe during face and neck examination a. vagus nerve ( CN X) c. cystic fibrosis b. The very first thing to do is: a) instill antiseptics b) do copious water irrigation .In doing an otoscopic examination of an adult . downward and anteriorly c. On flexible nasal endoscopy. upward and backwards b. facial nerve ( CN VII) b.The most common benign gland tumor of children of parotid gland is: a. the ear is pulled a. A page 245 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 16. lacrimal gland d. downward and posteriorly ans : a page 5 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 12. Albrights syndrome d. hemangioma c. Vincents Angina b. Ludwigs angina c. Retropharyngeal abscess Ans. All of the above Ans. Pierre robin syndrome Ans. trigeminal nerve ( CN V) d. Trench mouth d. Inverted papilloma c. This is a cellulitis or phlegmonous inflammation of the superior compartment of the suprahyoid space .A 22 year old construction worker comes for consult because an unknown liquid got into his eyes. internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve d.the cricothyroid muscle is innervated by : a. Inflammation of the tendons in the first dorsal compartment containing the Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis brevis tendons is called: A. kartagener syndrome c. A 3 year old boy was brought to the ER due to recurrent epistaxis. The most common cause is odontogenic in origin a. De Quervain‟s Tenosynovitis D. bronchiectasis. c page 9 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 13. mucoepidermoid CA ANS B page 325 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 21. that compares the bone conduction of the examinaer from that of the patient. Nasal polyp d. B page 179 Boise funadamental of otolaryngology 15. a.This is a clinical hearing test using tunning fork . What is the \ possible diagnosis of the patient a. Lateral Epicondylitis Answer: C.

and several coin lesions on chest x-ray. D.c) d) assess vision put topical antibiotics 23. presence of lymph node metastases. A 40 year old female was diagnosed with Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma. configuration of the primary tumor 1. The C. C. B. The most likely diagnosis would be: a) cataracts b) age related macular degeneration c) central retinal artery occlusion d) congestive angle closure glaucoma 24. Following Goodsall‟s rule. Medullary Carcinoma C. relieved by rest.A 55 year old male known diabetic with moderately severe non proliferative retinopathy comes in for 6 months blurring of vision not corrected with pinhole. The most likely diagnosis is: a) macular edema b) traction retinal detachment c) incipient cataract d) vitreous hemorrhage 25. and the neck and body of the pancreas. She may need a) concave lenses b) convex lenses c) intraocular lenses d) binocular lenses 26. Clinical staging for this patient would be: A. Stage I . Follicular Carcinoma B. in the same quadrant radially. Calot B. good vision at near. She may need a) convex lenses b) cylindrical lenses c) concave lenses d) binocular lenses 30. In patients with rectal cancer. She presents with a hard thyroid mass. Passaro D. This finding indicates that the lesion is: A.Ultrasonography incidentally revealed a single 1 cm gallstone in an asymptomatic 55 year old. the second and third portion of the duodenum. a fistula in-ano with an external opening located 4 cm from the anal verge would have its internal opening located : A. cervical lymphadenopathies. Which of the following is the recommended treatment? A.A patient complains of poor vision at distance. in a separate quadrant 2. Observation and follow-up Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Open cholecystectomy Bile acid dissolution therapy 2. The D. Computed Tomography scanning best evaluates: A. in the anterior midline in the posterior midline radially. Histologic examination of a thyroid gland tumor reveals psammoma bodies. The presence or absence of hepatic metastases. D.A chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland is a a) cyst b) stye c) chalazion d) dermoid 1.A 41 year old female complains of slightly congested eyes with headache after prolonged near work. depth of rectal wall penetration. Hurtle Cell Carcinoma 2. A 65 year old filipino male comes in for bilateral insidious painless progressive visual deterioration. 70-90% of primary gastrinomas are located in the area defined by a triangle with points located at the junction of the cystic duct and common bile duct. B. Papillary Carcinoma D. Hesselbach C. The B. This area is known as the Triangle of A. C. Bermuda 1.

Stage III E. Answer B # 1 inability of the ipsilateral lung to expand due to the herniated abdominal viscera recurrent aspiration pneumonia due to concomitant gastroesophageal reflux splinting of the contralateral diaphragm from distention of the intestinal tract incomplete development of the lung resulting in inadequate area for gas exchange questions Patients with either external or middle ear lesions usually have: A. B. provide 100% oxygen have intravenous lines running stabilize the cervical spine have intubation set ready 1. Respiratory distress in cases of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is a result of A.75 Oral or systemic antibiotics are indicated in Otitis Externa when: A.50 91 page 46 D 2 82 B 3 99 B 5 D 6 118 C 10 67 . Sensorineural hearing loss C. C. Mixed hearing loss D. is indicated. Lumpectomy with radiation therapy is the recommended treatment. epidural abscess B. it is most critical to: A. C. Streptococcus C.75 The most common etiology of acute otitis media in all age group A. Otoacoustic emission MPL: 0. Moraxella catarrhalis MPL : 1. With regards to further management. H. Play audiometry B.5 cm lobular carcinoma in situ with negative margins. Careful clinical follow-up without further surgical intervention is sufficient at this time. The infection extends beyond the limits of the canal MPL: 0. without axillary dissection. Stage II C. 1. Fibrous layer C. An open excisional biopsy reveals a 1. subdural abscess C. One is not sure if the patient has Otitis Externa or Otitis Media B. D. Debris is seen within the external auditory canal D. C. Staphylococcus sp. B. Influenzae D. meningitis MPL: 0. Mirror image biopsy of the contralateral breast is warranted. Auditory Brainstem Evoked Response D.B. Epidermal layer B. B. In performing maneuvers to ensure airway patency. Pure tone audiometry C. none of the above MPL: 0. C.75 Most accurate test in detecting deafness in neonates and in children A. D. D. A 45 year old woman has a mobile lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. Total mastectomy. brain abscess D. B. which of the following statements is true? A. During the initial assessment of the multiply injured patient. The patient complains of severe pain C. Conductive hearing loss B. Mucosal layer D.00 Which layer is missing when a tympanic membrane perforation heals A. B. Stage IV 3.75 The most common intracranial complication from supurative Otitis Media is: A. obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination stabilize the patient and comfort the relatives detect and treat immediately life-threatening injuries detect and treat immediately limb-threatening injuries 2. the main goal and objective of the Primary Survey Is to: A. None MPL: 0. D.

75 The most common cause of epistaxis in the elderly A.75 Rhinitis medicamentosa is due to overuse of A. Foreign body D. A lady dentist with nasal obstruction throughout her pregnancy B. d. Cleft palate MPL: 0. Tragal tenderness C. Trauma B. Structure of the upper esophagus MPL: 0. Presence of purulent discharge with headache MPL: 1.C 11 The most common complaint of patients with otomycosis: A. Oral decongestants C. A 53 y/o hypertensive female with epistaxis MPL: 0. Allergic rhinitis C. Local decongestants MPL: 0. Oral steroids B. with intranasal mass C. A 66 y/o male. with profuse epistaxis D. Itchy ear D. Meniere‟s disease D. (+) profuse purulent nasal discharge.75 A 20-year old sailor has a persistent sorethroat and is found to have a pharyngitis with enlarged tonsils and cervical adenophaty . Upper respiratory tract infection B. Acoustic neuroma B. What is your assessment? A. Local steroids D. b.75 Which is the most critical aspect of management in odontogenic infection: A. Orbital cellulitis C. Abnormal direct laryngoscopy D. Periorbital cellulitis B. Presence of watery nasal discharge with headache C. A 14 y/o boy. A medical intern with one sided nasal obstruction and headache D. Barotrauma C. Work-up to identify possible mediastinal extension MPL: 0. A normal PE and barium swallow B. Lesion of the upper esophagus C.00 Which of the following best describe vasomotor rhinitis A.00 Which of the following best describe a patient with allergic rhinitis? A. Orbital abscess MPL: 0. Presence of purulent nasal discharge with obstruction B. c.00 Sudden hearing loss with concurrent dizziness while scuba diving suggests: A. Atherosclerosis and hypertension C.75 Which of the following best describe a patient with juvenile angiofibroma A. A farmer with nasal obstruction and crusts in the nasal cavity MPL: 0.75 82 B 12 94 14 100 A 21 A 3 year old boy was refered to the ENT service due to edema of the eyelids. A 24 y/o female bank teller with epistaxis during office hours B. Gram stain of pharyngeal secretions 297 236 B 22 C 27 202 A 28 225 D 29 203 C 30 245 C 31 A 33 392 B 34 344 . Subperiosteal abscess D. Remove the offending tooth D. Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo MPL: 0. Earache B. This is usually associated with a/an: A.75 A 50-year old female presents clinically with globus hystericus. Non mucoid ear discharge MPL: 1. A jeepney driver with nasal obstruction and sneezing C. 236-264 Pertinent physical examination: normal visual acuity. Appropriate cidal antibiotic B. Blood dyscrasia MPL: 1. Breastfeeding D. Perform aggressive incision and drainage C. full extraocular muscles. (-) proptosis. Presence of watery nasal discharge with obstruction D. (-) chemosis. smoker.75 Conditions predisposing to the development of otitis media A.

Achalasia D.negative diplococci.75 A 50 year-old male had barium swallow with the report of aperistalsis. Asymptomatic tonsillar hyperplasia D. Lingual tonsil MPL: 0.5lbs with APGAR score of 9 and 10. There was no associated cough. good cry and weight gain. Acute tonsillophayngitis D. Tracheostomy C. PPE: (+) trismus. Congenital subglottic stenosis B. Obstructive sleep apnea B. Epipharynx B. increased salivation. Hypopharynx D.25 The region of the pharynx that extends from the base of the skull to the level of hard palate: A. Recurrent peritonsillar abscess C. RR= 40/min. Thyroiditis MPL: 0. and failure of the lower esophageal spinchter to relax. Aortic and bronchial constriction in the esophagus C. Guerlach‟s tonsils B.75 393 D 44 . What is your working diagnosis? A. Stridor is slightly relieved by putting her in a supine position. peritonsillar swelling (left) pushing uvula across midline. Laryngocoele D.75 Complication of a retropharyngeal abscess may involve: A.75 This lymphoid tissue may be completely removed because of the presence of a capsule: A.2 C . Acute pharyngitis C. Hypoglossal paralysis C. Mesopharynx C. Scleroderma MPL: 0. Request for a plain chest x-ray B. Bacteroides pharyngitis MPL: 1. Acute tonsillitis B. Horner‟s syndrome D.50 Majority of FB coins will be trapped in the: A. Pharyngeal tonsil C.00 D 35 A 25y/o male consulted at the OPD due to dysphagia of 2 days duration. Streptococcal pharyngitis B.50 Tonsillectomy should be considered for all of the following except: A. Palatine tonsils D.75 475 346 C 36 350-351 C 37 471 C 38 352 A 39 362 A 40 274 C 41 A 1 1/2 month-old baby girl was brought to your clinic because of stridor. Haemophilus influenza D.75 The best thing to do in this patient for your initial evaluation is/are: A. Presbyesophagus B. These findings support a diagnosis of: A. esophageal dilatation. She was sent home after 2 days with no perinatal complications. Mediastinitis B. Gastroesophageal constriction B. Cricopharyngeal constriction D. T=37. Peritonsillar abscess MPL: 0. Laryngopharynx MPL: 0. Unilateral tonsillar hyperplasia MPL: 0. Laryngomalacia MPL: 0. Gonococcal pharyngitis C. D 43 Your initial impression is: 393-394 A. Congenital laryngeal web C. Tonsils MPL: 0.shows gram. Birthweight was 6. The patient was delivered to a G8P7 40 year old laundrywoman from payatas via NSD. Which of the following is your primary consideration? A. She has a good suck with normal swallowing. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm C. Direct laryngoscopy MPL: 0. Request for CT scan of the neck D.

hyoid B. C. subglottic stenosis B. lateral neck X-rays MPL: 1. Tracheostomy C. Acute epiglottitis C.50 Your initial diagnostic procedure is: A. Direct laryngoscopy MPL: 0. he developed persistent dyspnea accompanied by a lump on the right side of the neck. cricoid D. substernal and intercostal retractions. patient was brought to the ER because of stridor associated with cyanosis.75 399 D 46 399 A 62 year old farmer from Iriga City came in because of dyspnea. patient was playing in the sala while her daddy was eating peanut while watching world meeting of families. Esophageal foreign body MPL: 0. Chronic non-specific laryngitis B.A 6 year-old boy was brought in to the clinic because of cough associated with moderate-grade fever and sorethroat characterized by painful swallowing few days PTC. vocal fold paralysis C. Acute subglottic laryngitis D. Laryngoscopy D. Patient is a chronic alcoholic and smoker. His condition started 10 months PTC as hoarseness associated with hemoptysis. CT scan of the chest C. RR=36/min. cough syrup and antipyretics. patient is obese. Laryngeal CA MPL: 0. T=40C . On PE. laryngomalacia MPL: 1. afebrile. thyoid d.00 The best thing to do in this patient as your initial evaluation and management is/are: A. Pedunculated vocal cord polyp C. epiglottis MPL: 1. CT scan of the neck D. B 49 Your initial impression is: A. One month PTC. Chest X-ray B.00 The best way to examine the larynx in the OPD is by A. direct laryngoscopy B.00 392 484 A 50 484 A 51 384-385 C 53 D 54 384 . The following day. D 47 Your initial impression is: A. Tracheal foreign body C.00 The most common congenital laryngeal anomaly is A. Laryngeal papilloma D. Tracheomalacia D. palpation C. Patient was relieved by sitting up with mouth open and chin forward. Chest X-ray B. Foreign body in laryngotracheobronchial tree MPL: 1. Chest X-ray B. He was restless and cyanotic with flaring of alae nasi. The patient was sent home with antibiotics. Antibiotics MPL: 0. Bronchial foreign body B.75 461 C 48 461 A 3 year-old girl was taken to the ER because of stridor and cyanosis.25 The only bony structure in the laryngeal skeleton is the A. and in respiratory distress. The patient was restless with audible slap and palpable thud.75 The patient requires: A. CT scan of the neck C. Neck node excision biopsy MPL: 0. Few hours PTC. Direct laryngoscopy and biopsy D. laryngeal hemagioma D. B 45 Your initial impression is: A. indirect laryngoscopy D. Drug allergy B.

foreign body impaction in the sinus B. Titanium plate and screw fixation. Vertex view D. operation for prominent ear lobe deformity is called: tympanoplasty myringotomy otoplasty 288 531 531 532 390 A 62 C 63 528 B 64 535 B 65 B 66 535 C 67 B 68 532 B 69 537 A 70 537 C 72 C 73 96 . Caldwell Luc Operation B. Craniofacial dysjunction D. soon after birth B. ORIF B. Valecula MPL: 0. Septorhinoplasty C.00 X-ray evidence of unilateral haziness of the maxillary sinus in a trauma case indicates A. epistaxis C. B. MPL: 0.25 Procedure of choice for neglected nasal bone fracture A. Guerin fracture B. lateral neck numbness MPL: 1. Alveolar ridge fracture D. Water‟s view C. before speech develops D. Rhomboid fracture MPL: 1. Mandibular fracture C. Craniofacial dysjunction D.00 The A.75 Tear drop” sign indicative of blow-out fracture is seen best on: A.00 The Le Fort II fracture is also known as A.00 Repair of a cleft palate is best done A. Titanium plating The second most common fracture in the face is: A. Guerin fracture B. nasal bone fracture B.00 The Le Fort I fracture is also known as A. MPL: 1. True vocal cords B. Zygomatic fracture MPL: 1. before dating age (adolescent). Pyramidal fracture C. Gillie's Operation C. before school age C. blood in the sinus D. total collapse of the sinus walls C. AP view B.75 Symptoms of mandibular fracture include A. Forced Duction Operation D. Septoplasty MPL: 0.A 55 The primary structure preventing laryngeal aspiration is: A. a flat face D. Closed reduction D. False vocal cords C. Transorbital view MPL: 0.75 The treatment of choice for depressed zygomatic arch fracture is A. Pyramidal fracture C. sinusitis MPL: 0. c. d. Simple septorhinoplasty B. Epiglottis D. Open reduction C. C. Closed reduction D. malocclusion B. Rhomboid fracture MPL: 1.50 A simple depressed fracture of the nose is best treated by: A.

The capillaries in the donor site MPL: 0. pains in the right pre-auricular area. post-auricular area MPL: 0. The capillaries in the recipient site C. Your primary diagnostic impression would be. Neoplastic B. neck B.75 A 54-year-old patient presented with a midline mass that moves with deglutition. wound is filled with extracellular matrix C. Autogenous graft MPL: 0. MPL: 0. abdomen D. Inflammatory MPL: 1. Split thickness skin graft C. Mumps MPL: 1. Thyroid nodule. Thyroglossal duct cyst that manifested late in life. tender. lidocaine injection C. FNAB showed pleomorphic adenoma. thigh C.50 Which of the following grafts has a better chance of “take”(survival of the graft) ? A. Is the mass cystic or solid? D. B. Is the mass growing rapidly? C. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Full thickness skin graft B. formation of hemostatic plug composed of fibrin and platelet MPL: 0. Is there any source of infection? MPL: 1. Treatment of choice is superficial parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation D.D. What is the diagnosis? A. Congenital C.75 The most logical question to ask when probing whether the mass is congenital. A neighboring artery in the recipient site B. epinephrine MPL: 0. On examination. Recurrence is not a problem in such a case. Sialolithiasis B.75 The most usual donor site for split thickness skin graft A. Primary consideration as to the nature of the mass would probably be: A.75 In wound healing. The tumor has a slow growth pattern C. It is the most common benign neoplasm in the parotid gland B.00 505 517 B 77 514 D 78 B 79 512 B 80 516 B 81 439-440 A 82 431 C 83 319 D 84 327 D 85 319 . The arterial supply in the donor site D.75 A free flap derives its blood supply from: A. you see a swollen. PMN leukocytes predominate the population of inflammatory cells in wound B. probably benign C. What is the age of the patient? B. The orifice of the stensen‟s duct is also swollen with minimal purulent material comi ng out.00 A 30 year old female comes in with fever. auditory meatoplasty MPL: 1. fibroblasts fill up the wound D. that maybe it‟s a/an: A. erythematous right parotid area.00 A 40 year old male presents with a 3 X 3 cm right pre-auricular mass. Thyroid malignancy D. during the stage of injury. which of the following occurs: A.00 C 76 Scar tissue formation may be delayed by using A. Inflammatory nodule MPL: 0. Free bone graft D.50 A 20 y/o male came to the clinic with a mass at the left submandibular area. would be: A. steroids D. Acute bacterial sialadenitis D. Cystic D. antibiotics B. Chronic sialadenitis C.

1st upper molar B. Warthin‟s tumor D. The age of the patient and duration of the mass MPL: 0. Bell‟s palsy C. nodular mass on the right pre-auricular area. Removal of hyoid bone MPL: 0. Sore throat B. Schwannoma MPL: 0. movable. Surgery B.75 Sudden facial paralysis associated with vesicles in the external audiotory canal and pinna: A.75 The opening of the parotid duct is at level: A. Dyspnea MPL: 0.A 60 y/o female teacher from Iriga City came in for a right pre-auricular mass of 2 months duration. D 86 The finding in the above patient which supports the possibility of a parotid gland malignancy: A.75 The most common histologic type of carcinoma in the head and neck area is A. Distribute lymph as a defense mechanism MPL: 1. The age of the patient B. Dysphagia C. The absence of cervical lymphadenopathy C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Hoarseness D. Pleomorphic Adenoma D. Be evident in the histopath D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma MPL: 0. 2nd lower molar MPL: 1.50 The treatment of choice in malignant lymphoma is/are: A.75 Surgical treatment of choice for thyroglossal duct cyst is A. Initially the patient palpated a tender 1 X 0.50 Knowledge of the lymphatic drainage is important because it will: A. Hemangioma MPL: 0. Sarcoma MPL: 0. Ramsay hunt syndrome D.00 A neoplasm that occurs primarily in the parotid gland. Excision of cyst and tract D. Pleomorphic adenoma C. 1st lower molar C. The overlying skin is not indurated and moves freely over the mass. Adenocarcinoma B. Radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy C. Leukoma . Oncocytoma B. Melkersson‟s syndrome B. Give an idea where the primary lesion is C. The presence of pain and duration of the mass D. more commonly seen in males in the older age group and is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum A. Papilloma B. Chemotherapy D. Excision of cyst tract and portion of hyoid bone C. No cervical lymphadenopathy was noted. Hemangioma C.E there is 3 X 4 X 2 cm tender. Macula b. Surgery and/or chemotherapy MPL: 0.25 a.00 327 445 431 B 91 434 B 93 437 C 94 444 C 95 B 96 325 B 97 448 C 98 C 99 83 C 100 317 1.5 cm mass which progressively enlarged to its present size. Go to the primary lesion B. Marsupialization procedure B. Basal cell carcinoma C. firm to stony hard.50 The earliest sign of carcinoma of the larynx is A. On P.75 The most commonly benign salivary gland tumor in children: A. In which of the following conditions is the cornea most opacified? MPL = 0. 2nd upper molar D.

25 a.25 a.0 a. Most accidental eye injuries can be prevented by… MPL = 0. Luminous blue d.0 a. Magnification c. Illiterate „E‟ Chart c. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Media Clarity b.5 a.25 a. . Luminous red c. Just right d.0 a. … a good surgical mask c.0 a. Too long c. b. 4. Optic neuritis d. Palpation d. Orbital cellulitis c. Allen Chart d. Octopus Perimetry b.5 a. …Glaucoma The most useful chart attractive to preschool illiterate children: MPL = 0. …Cataracts. Literacy d. Concomitant systemic hypertension In hyperopia. Determination of Visual Field Extent is best demonstrated by: MPL = 0. Scotoma b. Asthenopia 3. Cup / Disc features 14. …Corneal leukomas c. 5. Of no significance The leading cause of avoidable and reversible blindness worldw ide is/are … MPL = 0. d. Inspection b. d. scleritis The most important factor for developing diabetic retinopathy is: MPL = 0. Auscultation c. Confrontation Fields Test 13. Duration of the diabetes b. The most important consideration in Testing Near Acuity: MPL = 0. Stereoscopic Vision 12.0 a. In the three-part step-wise sequence in external eye examination. 2. Snellen Chart b. Too short b. Percussion . 8.. Luminous orange b. common sense d. …Trauma. 9. Macular changes d. In performing Direct Ophthalmoscopy. one procedure that is not usually included: MPL = 1. Testing Distance c. 10. Automated Keratometry c. all of the above 11.. Epiphora c. Wider Field of Vision Flouresecin dye when viewed using a cobalt blue light will appear as: MPL = 0. Red reflex c. Concomitant renal disease d.c. ETDRS Chart One advantage of Direct Ophthalmoscopy over Indirect Ophthalmoscopy is: MPL = 1. the axial length is: MPL = 1. Poor metabolic control of diabetes c. Luminous green Blind spot on a normal visual field is also known as: MPL = 1. …a good pair of protective goggles b. 7. Diplopia d. Nebula Corneal abrasion A condition that gives painless blurring of vision is: MPL = 1.5 a.5 a. the first element that must be observed: MPL = 0. Stereoscopy b. Age b. Light Intensity d. Amsler Grid Testing d.5 a. 6.

5 a. Oral amoxicillin. Which of the following conjunctivitides is almost always bilateral? MPL =0.d. the three branches of the cranial nerve V that is being tested are…MPL=0. Bulbar 24.. mandibular n.. In assessing facial sensation. abducens n. Only rarely of bacterial cause d. c.3 a.3 a.15. Tarsal b. zygomatic n. trochlear n. J16 b.5 a. Putting prophylactic medication on the eyes b. J16 -2 lines* c. Limbal d. d. Ocular complications of steroid eye drops are independent of dosage and duration of use 26. Bacterial . may develop keratinized conjunctiva 25.i. Ophthalmic n.. Check light perception* b. A patient is only able to read the first line of the Jaeger chart. Gentamycin intravenous. Which of the following is a term used to describe normal binocular eye movement in the same direction? MPL=0. Which is not an anatomic locale description of the conjunctiva? MPL =0. intraorbital n. Ceftriaxone 1gram intramuscular injection once only. b. Which of the following statements regarding the use of steroid eye drops for red eyes is correct? MPL =0. Avoiding crowded places c. Frontal n. c. maxillary n. The definitive management of gonococcal conjunctivitis is: MPL =0. Viral b. Ductions b. Steroids may be used so long as the dosage is less than 4 times a day. The spread of epidemic viral conjunctivitis is best curtailed by: MPL =0.0 a.. There is no specific medication against adenovirus 27. The patient was not able to see hand movement. Visual startle reflex should be stimulated 19. Check color perception test 16. The medication specifically used against adenovirus conjunctivitis currently is: MPL =0. The afferent arm of the reflex is the trigeminal nerve* c. Fornix c. Supraorbital n. 200mg q 6hrs for one week.5 a. d. Chalazion 21. Adenoviral conjunctivitis may cause: MPL =0. Preseptal cellulitis c. The possible complications of steroid use include Glaucoma AND Cataract formation d.25 a.. 4th generation flouroquinolone eye drops (moxifloxacin) c. 500mg t.3 a. b. True b. Convergence 20. Frequent hand washing 23.3 a. c. Tobramycin eye drops every hour to affected eye for 10 days. Versions* c. His near visual acuity is recorded as…MPL=0. Interferon eye drops d. Patients may self medicate with steroids when they have red eyes. Vergence d. Contact lens overuse b. Which of the following is/are true of the corneal blink reflex? MPL=0. Avoid touching one‟s own eyes d. lacrimal n.3 a. J16 +2 17.* 18.3 a. False c. The efferent arm of the reflex is the optic nerve d. Giant papillary reaction is common in… MPL = 1.5 a. Facial n. b. What is the next step to check his visual acuity?MPL= 0.. Test is done by touching the eyelashes lightly with a wisp of cotton b. infraorbital n. a pseudomembrane c. Real causative organism is unknown 22. Have the patient walk closer to the Snellen chart and ask if he can see the biggest letter c.. Do counting fingers d. never forms any membrane d. for one week 28. a true membrane on the tarsal conjunctiva b. Steroid antibiotic combination eye drops..3 a. J16 +2 lines d. Orbital cellulitis d. b.3 a. Ophthalmia Neonatorum is usually a bacterial cause of conjunctivitis: MPL =0.

Coagulase production specifies etiologic agent to be Staphylococcus aureus b. d. Flower like grouping of tumor cells which look like photoreceptors: Fleurettes d. the corneal light reflex did not fall at the same relative position on each eye instead it was located at the temporal borders of the pupils. A 5 year old child was brought to an ophthalmologist because his family had noticed a strange. Allergy d. d. Islands of blue cells in a sea of pink necrosis b. In cover testing. silver-wiring of arterioles b. Hypertropia 37. B and c only 39. Central retinal vein occlusion d.5 a.3 Ankyloblepharon. The systemic condition that presents with the most complications in the posterior pole of the eye: MPL = 0. In testing for strabismus. Esotropia c. Adenovirus . 30. 29. Catalase negative reaction identifies normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Painful a.25 a. c. A 23/M consulted the OPD because anterior eyelid crusting of 3 days duration. Which statement is consistent with the impression of Staphylococcal blepharitis? MPL = 0. white reflection that appeared in one of his eyes in photographs while the rest have red eyes due to the flash. Computed Tomogram of the above child showed a unilateral tumor filling the left eye. optic disc edema d. Strabismus 38. Fusion a. B-lactamase production increases susceptibility to penicillins 40. Symblepharon Eryblepharon Blepharitis blurring of vision can be due to: MPL = 1. the patient has: MPL = 0. the patient has: MPL = 0. Diabetes Mellitus c. Conjunctival discharge d. the uncovered eye moves inward to fixate. Hyphema b.5 a.25 a.5 a. Cuboidal cells circled around a central luman: Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes c. Esotropia c. All of the above e. Red eye e. Impression of Retinoblastoma is confirmed with the following histologic features: MPL=0. Blood dyscrasias 35.25 a. Hyphema d. The hallmark of Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy associated with malignant hypertension is: MPL = 0. c. leucocoria c. Hypertropia 36. Exudates c. Further examination disclosed Retinoblastoma. This white pupil is known as: MPL=0. Herpes simplex virus b. Exotropia d. b. Damage to optic nerve head 32. Orthophoria b. Toxic Allergic of the bulbar and tarsal conjunctiva as a result of prolonged inflammation and scarring is termed: MPL =0. macular „star‟ (hard exudates) c.5 a. Orthophoria b.5 a.25 a. Nasal third of the tumor is calcified. b. Exotropia d. Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical instrumentation is cleaned with alcohol? MPL = 0. pseudohypopyon b. Secondary glaucoma may occur in: MPL = 0. Glaucoma is characterized by: MPL = 0. The resident requested for a gramstain which revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Acute Bacterial conjunctivitis c. All staphylococcus species are catalase negative d.c.5 a. Retinal detachment 33. cotton-wool spots 34.0 Hypertensive Retinopathy Acute angle closure glaucoma Vitreous hemorrhage Mature Cataract 31. d. Blurred disc margin b. Tuberculosis b.

Enucleation d. HPV RNA integrates with epithelial genome leading to squamous cell carcinoma 44. A detailed slit-lamp biomicroscopic examination demonstrated clinical features of trachoma. d. Fungi can easily be visualized using the routine hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) preparation b. What bacterial features are consistent with the neonatal ocular finding? MPL = 0.5 a. Chlamydiae are obligate intracellular parasites that need to exist within host cells to synthesize ATP 42. A white pupillary reflex is called: MPL = 1.5 a. Proptosis c. A newborn was admitted to the NICU because of mucopurulent eye discharge at birth. The outer cell wall resembles the cell-wall of gram-negative bacteria d. Which are features of an adult trachoma compared to a neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis is TRUE? MPL = 0. one should screen the eyes for: MPL = 1. A 30/M consulted the OPD because of foreign body sensation with mucopurulent discharge of 6 days duration. The mother had a documented chlamydial genito-urinary tract infection. Clinical history alone leads to a strong suspicion of fungal keratitis. glaucoma c. An infant born less than 31 weeks. The following are treatment options for Retinoblastoma except MPL = 1. Trichiasis d. At 8 years old. This is the second most common mode of presentation in Retinoblastoma which account for about 20 % of cases: MPL =0. test for ocular fixation and ocular movement b. secondary glaucoma c.5 a.5 a.5 a. Evisceration 51. At 6 months. Entropion d. Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP) 49. leukocoria d. Ectropion 47.5 a. Condition in which there is discoloration of the eyelashes MPL = 0. Madarosis b. anisocoria 48. The excision biopsy revealed squamous papilloma. HPV subtypes 6 and 11 have been identified in hypertrophic papillomas c. Follicular response is greater 45. Which of the following statements is a recommended diagnostic management of fungal keratitis? MPL = 0. Membranes develop almost immediately c. A 50/M farmer consulted the OPD because of right corneal opacity of 3 weeks duration. Persistent Hyperplastic Primary Vitreous (PHPV) b. test with tumbling “E” chart picture chart c. A 43/F consulted because of a sessile mass at the limbus. The cell wall polysaccharides are uniquely stained by periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) c. weighing less than 1500g (3 lb 5 oz) plus exposure to supplemental oxygen. Elementary bodies stain blue with Giemsa in contrast to the purple of the host cell cytoplasm b. Corneal scrapings are best collected at the center of the main lesion rather than the small satellite lesions 43.5 a. The percentage of intracytoplasmic inclusions is greater d. Human immunodeficiency virus Epstein-Barr virus 41. test with a Snellen chart 52. At 16 years old.5 a. Distichiasis c. Chlamydia trachomatis strains synthesize folates thus are resistant to sulfonamides c. congenital cataract c. Leukocoria caused by the presence of red cells in the vitreous secondary to birth trauma MPL=0. At 4 years old. strabismus 50. The condition in which an extra row of lashes exists is MPL =0.5 . The following are correct in visual acuity testing in a child EXCEPT MPL=0. HPV DNA induces cellular proliferation and can lead to malignancy d. Trichiasis b.0 a. Poliosis 46.0 a. test with an Amsler grid chart d. a retinal astrocytoma d. leukocoria b.0 a. The amount of mucopurulent discharge is greater b. Cryotherapy b. Radio Therapy c.c. The gold standard for morphologic classification is blood agar at room temperature d. leukoma b. He claimed his right eye was hit by a palay strand while harvesting. Which of the following is true about the association of the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) with squamous papilloma? MPL = 0. HPV DNA induces cellular necrosis leading to a secondary papilloma growth b. proptosis d.

the fluid used need not be sterile.5 a. Genetic counseling c. A and B 64. enucleation b.5 a. White pupil d. A biconves.25 a. Papilledema 60. retrobulbar alcohol 58. Red eye b. Retinopathy of prematurity Persistent Hyperplastic Primary Vitreous Vitreous Hemorrhage Posterior Uveitis 53.5 a. colorless structure that focuses light rays to the retina. Vitreous floaters d. an opacity of which will cause leukocoria MPL=0. B and C only 59. d. Indirect ophthalmoscope b. Visual acuity testing b. The TRUE statement regarding chemical burns MPL = 1. Cherry red spot in the macula c. Ophthalmological examination that would identify presence of an intraocular mass MPL=0. Strabismus 56. Ductions b. A and B only e. c. May be normal c.a. Lens b.5 a. Oxygen inhalation d. Absence of venous pulsations on funduscopy MPL =0. Intraocular lens d. Pupillary examination d. Alternate compression and decompression of the globe c.25 a. Nystagmus d. To examine the optic nerve binocularly. Visual loss c. EOM movement of one eye is called MPL =0. The first thing to do in cases of chemical burns is to check the visual acuity c. Due to the inheritance pattern of retinoblastoma. Acid burns cause more extensive damage than alkali burns b. Psychological counseling b. b. Management of CRAO includes MPL =0. A surgical procedure involving removal of intraocular contents: MPL=0. Non contact fundus lens c. Cotton wool spots b. “Brown bagging” b.0 a. In copious irrigation of the eye. use MPL = 0. so that an alkali burn can be treated by instilling an acidic substance and vice versa d. Neutralization should be achieved. All of the above . May indicate increase intracranial pressure b. Visual field exam b.3 a.5 a. Is a sign of glaucoma d. Vitreous c. A and b 63. Sit lamp examination 55. Versions c. Diplopia 62.3 a. evisceration c.5 a. Characteristic findings in Central Retinal Artery Occlusion MPL = 0. The most common presenting sign of retinoblastoma is MPL=1. Visual evoked potential c. Color test d. Psychotherapy d. Optic Nerve 54. exenteration a. provided the chemical is diluted properly 61. a vital part of treatment would incude: MPL=0. Indirect Ophthalmoscopy c. What ancillary procedures should you do if suspecting optic nerve toxicity? MPL = 0. avascular. Rehabilitation counseling 57.0 a. Retina d.

Loss of venous pulsation is always present b. Which of the following statements regarding papilledema is not true? MPL =0. Nerve fiber layer hemorrhages around the disc are often present d. Compressive b. b. Most common visual field finding in papilledema MPL = 0. do lumbar tap c. Direct ophthalmoscopes provides a Binocular view of the fundus c.25 a.0 a. the following is not a characteristic finding of optic neuritis in children MPL = 0. Upon arising in the morning b. the most common reasons for Neuroophtha referral … MPL = 1. An obese 26 year old woman presents with headaches and transient visual obscurations. Do CT or MRI of the brain . d. Most common condition associated with nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy MPL = 0. At the end of the day d.5 a.3 a. Altitudinal defect d. Nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy 77. Demyelinating c. Non arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy 74. Cecocentral scotoma c.0 a. Central scotoma b. Typically the onset of visual loss in demyelinating optic neuritis is noted MPL = 0. The next step should be which of the following MPL = 0. blockage of the enzyme phospholipase A c. Bilateral papilledema is documented. There is no temporal pattern for visual loss 72. skin rashes 68. One of a.25 capillary dilation abnormal branching of vessels around the disc disc hemorrhages blurring of disc vessels along the margin 73. regulation of endorphin levels in the blood 69. Demyelinating optic neuritis c. Infectious optic neuritis b. One of a. advised weight reduction b. d.65. What is the most important adverse effect of local anesthetic overdosage? MPL = 0. One of a. Blurring of the peripapillary vessels 70. renal failure c. Hypertension 76. Leber optic neuropathy d. Start on acetazolamide d. b.3 a. Direct ophthalmoscopy provides greater detail of the fundus d. b. bronchoconstriction b. Which of the following is true regarding viewing the fundus… MPL = 1.3 a. Diabetes mellitus b. convulsion d. d. Mid-day c. Coagulopathies d. Indirect ophthalmoscopes provides a monocular view of the fundus b. Carotid artery disease c. Cortocosteroid stops the inflammatory process by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis through the following mechanism: MPL = 1. none of the above 67.3 a. c. Symptoms accompanying papilledema may include visual loss and diplopia c. 10. c. Enlargement of the blind spot 71.0 …unexplained vision loss …cataracts …retinal disorders none of the above 66. blockage of GABA pain receptors d.25 a. the following findings is not a characteristic of true disc edema MPL = 0. blockage of the enzyme cyclooxygenase b. Most common cause of optic disc swelling in children MPL = 0. Which of the following is the most common optic neuropathy in patients over the age of 50? MPL = 0.3 a. c. Traumatic d.25 Often present simultaneously as a bilateral condition More often anterior in location with optic disc edema seen on exam Occurs 1-2weeks after a known or presumed viral infection Always resistant to steroids 75.

Thyroid disease b. He has a habit on putting his weight at the elbow . Keratoconus d. C. A. B. B. A. is a feature of Impingement Syndrome Limited Passive ROM of the shoulder Pain active on shoulder flexion Limited active abduction of the shoulder Positive Spurling sign 5. A. The ff. The grip strength of a dominant hand is usually stronger than the non dominant hand by . Exophthalmos is a term used specifically in which of the following conditions? MPL = 1. B. A. The Following can lead to Frozen Shoulder EXCEPT Rotator cuff Tear Bicipital tendenitis Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Trigger finger 8. D. C. D. De Quervains Trigger finger Carpal tunnel syndrome Tennis elbow 2. D. The ff. C. D. A worker comes with a lump on the dorsal elbow. C. C. C. B.0 a. In Reflex sympathetic dystrophy the ff. is an indirect cost of injury among workers medical Cost Lost Time Wages Training replacements Compensation Premiums 3. C. B. B. D. The most common lump on the hand is Trigger finger Ganglion cyst Tendenitis Dupuytrens contracture 7. Avascular necrosis of the Lunate Panners Keinbocks Dupuytrens Osgood 9. C. is true Pathology originates at the fingers Autonomic changes Complete shoulder ROM Splinting the shoulder helps a lot 6. D. A. D. Anemia c. B. D. C. is an indication for surgical release of CTS Severe causalgia Weak Abductor Pollicis brevis Atrophy of hypothenar eminence edema on the wrist 4.The ff. A. The most commonly observed Cumulative Trauma disorder is A. A. B. he has A. D. The best thing to do in acute tendenitis is To stretch it to increase tensile strength To rest it in a splint To move it to prevent contracture To apply hot moist pack 11. A. Myopia 1. B. C. B. it is movable. D.78. soft with tenderness. Golfer‟s elbow Tennis elbow Tendinitis Student‟s elbow 10.

A positive Gowers sign is Pathognomonic in muscular dystrophy Present in pelvic and proximal leg weakness seen in hip flexion contracture a feature of McArdle‟s disease 18. B. Cramps is the usual complain of Duschenne Myotonic SMA Limb Girdle 16. Spinal dysraphism can be detected in utero after 18 weeks by taking the Amniotic C -reactive protein Amniotic Alpha feto protein Amniotic phosphofructokinase Amniotic amylase 17. D. C. A. B. D. A. A. Spinal Dysraphism D. D. C. Most of children with this condition cannot reach adulthood except Duschenne Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy Werdnig Hoffman (Acute) Pompe‟s Disease 22. C. C. A. B. C. D. B. A. B. C. A. SMA 21. B. B. A. B. A. 30 lbs D. D. Limb Girdle Duschenne Facioscapulo-humeral Beckers 15. A dive bomber sound on EMG is seen in Beckers MD Myotonia Spinal Dysraphism SMA 20. 20 lb. Myocardial infarction 23. Ischemic Compression Test is for Duschenne MD Myotonia SMA McArdle‟s Disease 19. D. C. C. B. Pulmonary problem D. C. B. 10 lb. The following will suggest a non organic findings in back pain Pain on straight leg raising at 30 degrees light pinch tenderness of skin on vast area of the back Sensory deficit on the lateral thigh weak extensor hallucis longus 14. A. C. Fasciculation‟s of the tongue and limb muscles is frequently seen in Beckers MD Myotonia C. A. 40 lbs 12. D. B. To prevent overvaluation and subjection to potential risk of tests. The most common cause of death of children with myopathies is Renal Problem Weakness C.A. The most common type of muscular dystrophy is A. This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord . B. A functional non organic sensation deficit is evident if there is vibratory deficit in the upper arm sensory deficit in the whole leg numbness of the thumb numbness on the right side of the face 13. D. D.

Integrated in the cortex D. Dresses without supervision C. Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex A. Presence of strabismus B. heating pads C. This reflex develops mouth opening. Demand feeding reflex 25. Automatic head turning D. . Which of the following is considered as a deep heating modality: A. D. A child of 3 years is expected to A. This reflex will not interfere in balance and rolling over D. Rolls over from supine 35. rehabilitation may be started: as soon as the patient‟s neurological and medical condition stabilizes after 2 weeks of onset neurologic symptoms as soon as the diagnosis of a stroke is made as soon as a motor grade of at least 2/5 in the affected extremities are noted 31. D. Flexor withdrawal D. C. Enables each side of the body to be used separately B. At four months of age the child is expected to A. Rooting reflex C. Sucking reflex B. planometer 28. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex B. A dyskenitic Cerebral palsy is frequently associated with A. Presence of hormonal problem 27. Stroke A. On stimulation the baby extend and abduct the limbs followed by flexion and adduction A. helps find the breast and develops various tongue position A. Sucking reflex B. Rooting reflex C. B. Presence of hip dislocation D. Increased flexion of the trunk D. . Appears at six month of age 26. Grasp objects dangled in front of face C. Automatic head turning D. goniometer D. This is a normal reaction in baby of all ages 30. tachometer B. This reflex develops mouth opening. If this is a normal baby he is less than four months B. Demand feeding reflex 33. Patient with Spina bifida should be examined for A. C. Roller skates B. B.This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord A. whirlpool baths D. Appears at six month of age 34. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex Optical righting Flexor withdrawal Landau reflex 24. This is a reflex integrated in the midbrain C. paraffin baths 29. Enables each side of the body to be used separately B. Sit with good balance B. Skips 36. Integrated in the cortex D. . ultrasound B. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body C. helps find the breast and develops various tongue position A. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body C.Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex A. Landau reflex 32. tape measure C. Presence of Mongolian spot C. Bilirubin encephalopathy . This instrument is used to measure range of motion of joints: A.A. Walks up stairs alternating feet D. Optical righting C.

4 to 6 years after menopause C. Visual loss 41. He is a quadriplegic 48. Hip B. Judgment B. Elbow D. Failure to take antihypertensive B. His corresponding motor level is T12 C. Decline in the number of motor units B. Cardiorespiratory changes in elderly A. Hearing loss D. comprehension D. Standing slowly while holding to a bar D. Walking D. 5 to 7 years after menopause D. Exercise upon standing 46. This means A. Lower maximal heart rate B. Reasoning 40.Crystallized intelligence is preserved in elderly this is A. Central cord syndrome C.Elderly patient is prone to bed sore because of A.B. Keep him in bed most of the time C. Jogging C.The most common site of heterotrophic ossification among burn patient is at the A. Less cardiac output 45. A bilateral brachial plexus injury D. Swimming B. His sensory level is T10 B. A spinal cord injury with weaker upper extremities than lower extremities is A. Shoulder .Exercise prescription for an osteoporotic patient is A. His lesion is over T10 vertebra D. Lower total lung capacity C. without movement over his legs.Osteoporosis has an earlier onset in women . 10 years after menopause 43. Abstract thinking C. Increase in visual acuity 39.True of a geriatric individual  Most of them are institutionalize  They are not interested in sexual activities  They prefer to be independent  They wanted to live with adult children 38. Dementia D. More prominent blood vessels C. Knee C. Sudden change in position or abrupt standing C. Elderly has tendency to fall. Loss of subcutaneous fat B.Some of the changes in the elderly is A. One reason is a sudden drop of blood pressure which can be due to A. A hemi section of the spinal cord 47. And this is usually evident during A. Preservation of vibratory perception D. Restriction of salt intake B. Anoxic spells Birth Trauma Hypotonic type 37.To prevent hypotension in elderly it is best to observe A. Increased heat dissipation 44. C. 1 to 3 years after menopause B. Bicycling 42. A posterior cord syndrome B. Less Reserve volume D. D. An SCI patient states that he has intact sensation up to the umbilicus. Increase in muscle mass C.

deltoids D. Gunshot wound D. Fracture of the hip B. C4 C. The working diagnosis is DVT .The most common tumor of the bone A.Physical finding in scoliosis on convexity side A. TB arthritis 50. Lower shoulder level D. compression deformities of the spine 60. Osteod osteoma 51. Dantrolene sodium B. Metastatic D. osteoporosis B. Tennis elbow 62. sacral sparing D. Prominent front chest B. C5 D. The most commonly observed Cumulative Trauma disorder is A. muscle strengthening 57. Diazepam C. Rotation of the vertebral body B. Rotation of the spine C. use of transcutaneous nerve stimulation D. hypertension. medical Cost Lost Time Wages Training replacements Compensation Premiums .49. biceps B. cauda equina 56. Injuries above this level generally require mechanical ventilation: A. areflexia C. . This is the most important aspect to consider in the management of decubitus ulcer: A. . is an indirect cost of injury among workers A. Vehicular accident B. diaphoresis and reflex bradycardia is known as: A. Prominent front chest C.Physical finding in scoliosis on concavity side A. autonomic dysreflexia B. D. C7 59. Scoliosis secondary to leg length discrepancy C. This is generally considered the drug of choice for spasticity in SCI: A. C6 B. Better chest excursion 55. Fall C.A C-curve scoliosis is common in A. characterized by headache. Scoliosis due to hemivertebra D. Heterotopic ossification C. This is referred to as an ectopic bone formation occurring within 6 months after spinal cord injury: A. Osteomylitis D. Trigger finger C. Sports injury 52. Osteosarcoma B. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. This syndrome of massive sympathetic discharge associated with the SCI patients with lesions at T6 level.A bedridden quadriplegic has painful inflamed thigh . What is the key muscle for testing C7 myotome. first dorsal interossei 58. This level is generally the highest level of injury at which spontaneous ventilation can be sustained. heterotopic ossification C. Multiple Myeloma C. Paralytic scoliosis 53. triceps C. Clonidine 61.The most common cause of Traumatic brain injury is A. degenerative joint disease D. C. Baclofen D. use of hot packs B. De Quervains B.. according to the American Spinal Injury Association? A. B. The ff. Idiopathic scoliosis B. Prominent scapula 54. relief of pressure C. Wider rib Space D. it is best to differentiate this with A.

The ff. A. C. is an indication for surgical release of CTS A. B. 20 lb. D. A. D. C. Sensory deficit on the lateral thigh D. D. C. B. C. C. B. Avascular necrosis of the Lunate Panners Keinbocks Dupuytrens Osgood 69. he has A. D. A. B. B. it is movable. A. A. D. light pinch tenderness of skin on vast area of the back C.The ff. Pain on straight leg raising at 30 degrees B. D. C. B. A worker comes with a lump on the dorsal elbow. C.63. To prevent overvaluation and subjection to potential risk of tests. C. The best thing to do in acute tendenitis is To stretch it to increase tensile strength To rest it in a splint To move it to prevent contracture To apply hot moist pack 71. B. D. C. Severe causalgia Weak Abductor Pollicis brevis Atrophy of hypothenar eminence edema on the wrist 64. soft with tenderness. The following will suggest a non organic findings in back pain A. Limb Girdle . A. is true Pathology originates at the fingers Autonomic changes Complete shoulder ROM Splinting the shoulder helps a lot 66. A functional non organic sensation deficit is evident if there is vibratory deficit in the upper arm sensory deficit in the whole leg numbness of the thumb numbness on the right side of the face 73. is a feature of Impingement Syndrome Limited Passive ROM of the shoulder Pain active on shoulder flexion Limited active abduction of the shoulder Positive Spurling sign 65. B. In Reflex sympathetic dystrophy the ff. C. The most common lump on the hand is Trigger finger Ganglion cyst Tendenitis Dupuytrens contracture 67. A. 30 lbs D. B. Golfer‟s elbow Tennis elbow Tendinitis Student‟s elbow 70. weak extensor hallucis longus 74. The grip strength of a dominant hand is usually stronger than the non dominant hand by 10 lb. A. D. B. The Following can lead to Frozen Shoulder EXCEPT Rotator cuff Tear Bicipital tendenitis Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Trigger finger 68. The most common type of muscular dystrophy is A. 40 lbs 72. D. He has a habit on putting his weight at the elbow .

C. Myotonia D. C.B. This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord A. helps find the breast and develops various tongue position A. A. Presence of strabismus . Asymmetric tonic neck reflex B. Duschenne Facioscapulo-humeral Beckers 75. B. Fasciculation‟s of the tongue and limb muscles is frequently seen in A. Appears at six month of age 86. Optical righting C. Spinal Dysraphism B. A. C. D. C. D. Cramps is the usual complain of Duschenne Myotonic SMA Limb Girdle 76. Most of children with this condition cannot reach adulthood except A. C. A. B. Duschenne Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy Werdnig Hoffman (Acute) Pompe‟s Disease 82. Patient with Spina bifida should be examined for A. C. Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex A. The most common cause of death of children with myopathies is Renal Problem C. D. D. Myocardial infarction 83. A. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body C. Pulmonary problem Weakness D. D. C. Automatic head turning D. B. Enables each side of the body to be used separately B. This reflex develops mouth opening. Beckers MD C. D. Integrated in the cortex D. Sucking reflex B. D. B. C. SMA 81. Landau reflex 84. D. B. Spinal dysraphism can be detected in utero after 18 weeks by taking the Amniotic C -reactive protein Amniotic Alpha feto protein Amniotic phosphofructokinase Amniotic amylase 77. Flexor withdrawal D. B. A. A dive bomber sound on EMG is seen in Beckers MD Myotonia Spinal Dysraphism SMA 80. A positive Gowers sign is Pathognomonic in muscular dystrophy Present in pelvic and proximal leg weakness seen in hip flexion contracture a feature of McArdle‟s disease 78. B. Ischemic Compression Test is for Duschenne MD Myotonia SMA McArdle‟s Disease 79. A. Rooting reflex C. Demand feeding reflex 85.

True of a A. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body C. Preservation of vibratory perception D. This is a reflex integrated in the midbrain C. Walks up stairs alternating feet D. Enables each side of the body to be used separately B. If this is a normal baby he is less than four months B. . C. whirlpool baths D. Birth Trauma D. On stimulation the baby extend and abduct the limbs followed by flexion and adduction A. Presence of hormonal problem 87. Increase in visual acuity 99.Some of the changes in the elderly is A. Flexor withdrawal D. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex B. Increased flexion of the trunk D. This is a normal reaction in baby of all ages 90. geriatric individual Most of them are institutionalize They are not interested in sexual activities They prefer to be independent They wanted to live with adult children 98. helps find the breast and develops various tongue position A. C.Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex A. This instrument is used to measure range of motion of joints: A. rehabilitation may be started: as soon as the patient‟s neurological and medical condition stabilizes after 2 weeks of onset neurologic symptoms as soon as the diagnosis of a stroke is made as soon as a motor grade of at least 2/5 in the affected extremities are noted 91. Skips 96. Roller skates B. Integrated in the cortex D. Decline in the number of motor units B. paraffin baths 89. Reasoning 100. B. heating pads C. At four months of age the child is expected to A. Anoxic spells C. goniometer D. Failure to take antihypertensive . ultrasound B.Crystallized intelligence is preserved in elderly this is A. . Rooting reflex C. comprehension D. Sit with good balance B. Abstract thinking C. tape measure C. Judgment B. Presence of hip dislocation D. Which of the following is considered as a deep heating modality: A. Appears at six month of age 94. Demand feeding reflex 93. tachometer B. Automatic head turning D. Increase in muscle mass C. Optical righting C. D. Stroke A. D. Rolls over from supine 95. Bilirubin encephalopathy B. Presence of Mongolian spot C. . Landau reflex 92.This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord A. Hypotonic type 97. This reflex develops mouth opening. Grasp objects dangled in front of face C. planometer 88. Elderly has tendency to fall. B. Dresses without supervision C. This reflex will not interfere in balance and rolling over D. A dyskenitic Cerebral palsy is frequently associated with A. Sucking reflex B.B. A child of 3 years is expected to A. One reason is a sudden drop of blood pressure which can be due to A.

A bedridden A. Lower maximal heart rate B. Vehicular accident B.B. 10 years after menopause 103. Osteod osteoma 111. Gunshot wound D. B. Loss of subcutaneous fat B. C. Multiple Myeloma C. D. Knee C. Walking D. Bicycling 102. Paralytic scoliosis 113. A posterior cord syndrome B. Shoulder 109. Exercise upon standing 106. without movement over his legs. Jogging C. quadriplegic has painful inflamed thigh . Metastatic D. Less Reserve volume D. A bilateral brachial plexus injury D. Sports injury 112. Scoliosis secondary to leg length discrepancy C.Exercise prescription for an osteoporotic patient is A. Restriction of salt intake B.A C-curve scoliosis is common in A. Fall C. Osteosarcoma B.Physical finding in scoliosis on convexity side A. 4 to 6 years after menopause C. C. Cardiorespiratory changes in elderly A.Elderly patient is prone to bed sore because of A. states that he has intact sensation up to the umbilicus. Increased heat dissipation 104. This means His sensory level is T10 His corresponding motor level is T12 His lesion is over T10 vertebra He is a quadriplegic 108. Less cardiac output 105. Hip B. Dementia D. Central cord syndrome C. 1 to 3 years after menopause B. Sudden change in position or abrupt standing Hearing loss Visual loss 101. it is best to differentiate this with Fracture of the hip Heterotopic ossification Osteomylitis TB arthritis 110. More prominent blood vessels C. Idiopathic scoliosis B. Standing slowly while holding to a bar D.To prevent hypotension in elderly it is best to observe A. Keep him in bed most of the time C. 5 to 7 years after menopause D. Lower total lung capacity C. An SCI patient A. B. The working diagnosis is DVT . And this is usually evident during A. Swimming B. A hemi section of the spinal cord 107.Osteoporosis has an earlier onset in women . Prominent front chest . Scoliosis due to hemivertebra D. C.The most common tumor of the bone A.The most common site of heterotrophic ossification among burn patient is at the A.The most common cause of Traumatic brain injury is A. A spinal cord injury with weaker upper extremities than lower extremities is A. D. D. Elbow D.

first dorsal interossei 118. opioids plus anti depressants _____ 5. cauda equina 116. Management of pain due to excision of mass in the anterior abdominal wall: A. This is referred to as an ectopic bone formation occurring within 6 months after spinal cord injury: A. Most likely cause of her pain is: A. degenerative joint disease D. hypertension. . shooting and electric like in character. Diazepam C. Major toxicity of short term use of NSAIDs: A. . NSAIDs. Results in neurotoxicity due to its metabolite. This syndrome of massive sympathetic discharge associated with the SCI patients with lesions at T6 level. Dantrolene sodium B. C. Biofeedback _____ 3. Opioids B. Better chest excursion 115. Injuries above this level generally require mechanical ventilation: A. D. Bone metastasis D. D. characterized by headache. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation B. A. C. diaphoresis and reflex bradycardia is known as: A. D. Baclofen D. A peripheral type of pain: A. Rotation of the vertebral body B. biceps B. Chronic use or prolonged intermittent administration of this opioids. Opioids and NSAIDs D. use of transcutaneous nerve stimulation D. Effective in neuropathic pains: A. What is the key muscle for testing C7 myotome. Myofascial pain syndrome B. Gastro duodenal irritation C.Physical finding in scoliosis on concavity side A. Oxycodone _____ 6. This is generally considered the drug of choice for spasticity in SCI: A. D. Clonidine _____ 1. areflexia C. Post herpetic neuralgia C. Non-steroidal anti inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) B. Treatment related _____ 2. sacral sparing D. . Anticonvulsants _____ 8. relief of pressure C. C5 D. deltoids D. Tension headache _____ 4. Exacerbation of hypertension B. Hemostasis D. C.. according to the American Spinal Injury Association? A. heterotopic ossification C. Wider rib Space D. muscle strengthening 117. Compression of a nerve by the enlarged mass C. autonomic dysreflexia B. Massage D. Cold compress C. This level is generally the highest level of injury at which spontaneous ventilation can be sustained. Acupuncture based on traditional Chinese medicine. C. The enlarged mass itself B. Acute deterioration of renal function _____ 7. Gate‟s Control Theory of pain is th e basis for all the following non pharmacologic pain management EXCEPT: A. triceps C. radiating. C4 C. C6 B. Morphine D. osteoporosis B. Meperidine C. Fentanyl B.B. Rotation of the spine Lower shoulder level Prominent scapula 114. Opioids C. This is the most important aspect to consider in the management of decubitus ulcer: A. compression deformities of the spine 120. A female cancer patient is in constant pain which is severe. Antidepressants C. NSAIDs D. C7 119. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy D. use of hot packs B. Prominent front chest C.

One of the following is on objective sign of CNS toxicity: A. A. Lidocaine B.A. A. Nalbuphine B. Prilocaine B. Saphenous nerve D. Ropivacaine B. Lidocaine D. Tetracain _____ 22. Morphine D. Deep Peroneal nerve C. A. Bupivacaine D. Medial cord D. Median nerve D. Drowsiness B. from occupying NKI receptor in the post synaptic cell membrane. Etidocaine _____ 20. D.Convulsion C. The following local anesthesic exhibit vasoconstricting effect at low and high doses. A. Prevent substance P. Bupivacaine D. Etidocaine D. Morphine D. Mechanism of action of ketamine. Neither A & B _____ 23. Lidocaine B. C. Both A & B B. Demerol C. Aromatherapy B. Mu 1 receptor C. Kappa 1 receptor B. Procaine C. Lidocaine C. Which of the following NSAIDs act on the central cyclooxygenase? A. Local anesthetic that belongs to amide group. The median nerve originates from the: A. A. Local anesthetic that is converted to O-toluidine in the liver: A. Local anesthetic with arrtiarrhythmic effect A. A. Fentanyl _____ 12. B. C. when local anesthetic is injected between the palmaris longus and tendon longus and flexor carpi radialis at the wrist. Biofeedback C. Sural nerve _____ 24. Procaine C. Caudal anesthesia is a form of: A. Kappa 2 receptor _____ 15. Nalbuphine B. Cocaine _____ 19. Hypnosis D. Demerol C. Superficial Peroneal nerve B. Lateral cord C. A focussed concentration used as a guide to patients to focuss away from their pain. The Dorsalis Pedis Artery is used as landmark to block the: A. Ulnar nerve C. Tetracaine _____ 18. Mu 2 receptor D. None of the above _____ 25. Fentanyl _____ 13. Tetracaine C. A. Spinal anesthesia C. Enhances GABA receptor in the pre-synaptic nerve C. _____ 14. Lightheadedness _____ 17. Inhibits adenyl cyclase in the post-synaptic nerve B. Local anesthetic that causes unidirectional block and re-entry type of cardiac arrhythmia. All of the above _____ 11. Aspirin B. Relaxation exercises _____ 10. Increase the potency of the drug D. Which of the following opioids is an agonist-antagonist. The nerve blocked. Dizziness D. Ibuprofen C. Opioids receptor responsible for the respiratory depressant effect of opioids A. Radial nerve B. Etidocaine D. The gold standard to which all of the other opioids are being compared to. Paracetamol D. Prevents the removal of magnesium from the NMDA receptor in the post-synaptic nerve D. shorten the duration of action of local anesthetic B. Addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics will: A. Decrease the potency of the drug _____ 21. Cocaine B. D. A. Prolong the duration of action of local anesthetic C. Cocaine _____ 16. Local block . Bupivacaine C. Solid needles inserted into trigger bonds Solid needles inserted along meridians Local anesthetic injected into or near trigger bonds Electrical stimulation along trigger bonds _____ 9.

Boundaries of the anatomic Snuff Box EXCEPT: A. D. Umbilius B. Digital Nerve _____ 31. Radial nerve B. patient can be discharged from the Postoperative care unit if he is: Drowsy but responds to pain Blood pressure is more than 30% of baseline Still in pain even if analgesics has been given Pulse oximeter reading is 97% at room air. Median Nerve C. CASE: LA. Anterior scalene muscle C. C. Transdermal therapeutic system D. Supraclavicular Approach B. C. Oral on a time contingent basis _____ 40. The nerve found at the anatomic snuff box nerve A. 35 years old female is schedule for appendectomy: BP=130/80 PR=88/min anesthesia given is subarachnoid block: _____ 41. Axillary Approach _____ 35. S2 D. Branch of intercostals nerve often spared when injection of local anesthetic is done at the anterior axillary line: A. Extension Pollicis Longus C. L3 _____ 39. Interscalene Approach C. L4 interspace B. Subcostal line D. Hypotension B. L1 interspace C. C. Posterior cutaneous branch C. Medial cutaneous branch D. T6 level of sensory blockade is at the level of : A. Epidural block _____ 26. Puncture of fetal head C. Intravenously on a per need basic C. D. Sural nerve C. The nerve blocked posterior to the lateral malleolus. Occulomotor nerve C. Peripheral block D. C. L1 B. D. Patient controlled analgesia (PCA) B. C. Abduction Pollicis Longus D. S1 C. B. Post spinal headache as a delayed complication of spinal anesthesia is due to: A. Infraclavicular Approach D. Saphenous nerve B. Tibial nerve D. Lateral cutaneous branch _____ 33. Optic nerve _____ 32. Hamatoma B. Ciliary Ganglion D. D. Urinary retention D. Drug administration that allows patient to titrate analgesics according to their needs: A. What is the ideal level of the block? . In adult the spinal cord ends at the level of: A. C. A. Anterior cutaneous branch B. Nerve blocked in Retrobulbar nerve block A. Xiphoid process _____ 37. Complication of pudendal nerve block during vaginal delivery: A. Referred pain _____ 36. L3 interspace D. Approach in doing brachial plexus block that anesthetize the entire plexus: A. Toxicity to local anesthetic _____ 29. A. Omohyoid muscle _____ 34. The line joining the highest points of iliac crest (ASIS) crosses: A. CSF leakage D. Internal jugular vein B. L2 interspace _____ 38. Abductor Pollicis Brevis _____ 27. Sternocleidonastoid muscle D. Inadvertent IV injection B.B. Injury to the nerve D. Delayed complication of spinal anesthesia A. Nipple line C. Ophthalmic nerve B. Superficial peroneal nerve _____ 28. Landmark in doing superficial cervical plexus block. A A. Ulnar Nerve D. Difficulty of breathing C. Nausea _____ 30. Extension Pollicis Brevis B. D. D. Muscle strain C.

Distribution of general anesthetic drugs is influenced by: A. High spinal Midspinal C. Metabolism _____ 47. Henry Hickman _____ 49. D. Class II D. Class IV _____ 53. All of the above _____ 55. What is the immediate management of the bradycardia? A. C. Heat and cold sensations are transmitted through this type of nerve fibers: A. D. Cardiovascular intolerance to changes in position after anesthesia is a sign of: A. Five minutes after assuming the supine position. C. Motor block D. Para sympathetic block B. Action is reversed by acetylcholinesterases _____ 51. Bioavailability C. Sufficient depth of anesthesia D. All of the above _____ 56. Crawford T. the sensory block is at the level of the nipple (T4). Medullary center B. Reduced sensitivity to post junctional membrane D. D. Route of administration B. C-fibers C. What is the immediate management? Of hypotension A. Muscle relaxation is the result of : A. D. Regional blood flow D. Mental block C. Atropine sulfate D.Fibers B. C. Upon doing the pinprick test. T2 B. Increase IV fluid infusion D. C. Spinal cord D.Delta fibers D. Referred pain occurs due to convergence of nerve fibers in this neurons: A. A beta fibers C. Low spinal D. T8 D. A delta fibers D. Sensory block D. T6 C. True of nondepolarizing muscle relaxant: A. Intravenous fluid infusion C. Sensory block _____ 44. All of above _____ 54. for inguinal herviorhaphy the American Society of Anesthesiologists risks classification under: A. B. Class I C. Midazolam IV _____ 46. Intake of an agent by the body and the uptake of the agent by the tissues is termed. Ephedrine sulfate IV B. Sympathetic block C. Give vasoconstrictors _____ 45. D. C. Cortical center C. Circulation C. Motor block B. Joseph Priestly D. Elimination D. Absorption B. Basal ganglion & cerebellum _____ 52. A. Saddle block _____ 42. Head up position B. Competetive inhibition with acetylcholine B. A. Prolonged depolarization C. Class III B. A 16 year old healthy patient with incarcerated inguinal hernia. Excessive depth of anesthesia C. Last CNS structure depressed by general anesthesia is: A. Nociceptive specific neurons . C. T10 _____ 43. the BP because 90/60 PR=50/min Give the reason for hypotension: A. Long B.A. Discovered oxygen and nitrous oxide: A. Insufficient depth of anesthesia B. John snow C. oxygenation C. D. Sharp cut on the skin are transmitted mostly through this type of nerve fibers: A. Give the level of motor block: A. Block of reflexes _____ 50. A beta fibers B. Metabolites _____ 48. C.

Brain stem neurons Wide dynamic range neurons D. Benigs hypothermia _____ 65. Degree of Ionization _____ 72. pCO2 ______ 70. Numerical . D. fibers _____ 61. A beta fibers A delta nerve fiber D. Lidocaine C. D. Thalamus C. pKA B. C type fiber C. D. Malignant hyperthermia D. When asked about the pain he categorically says it is minimal. Xylocaine C. Benigs hyperthermia C. C. An inherited abnormality resulting from exposure of patient to certain anesthesic: A. D. Protein buiding D. Lipid solubility C. Morphine sulfate C. First order neuron are found in: A. D. Factors that affect absorption of local anesthetic. Protein buiding D. Lamina V _____ 59. Malignant hypothermia B. Norepinepherine _____ 58. A. Bupivacaine _____ 69. Known as carrier gas: A. the opioid receptor are found in: A. Lamina II D. Lipid solubility C. Prilocaine B. C. C. C. Which of the following is an excitatory nerve transmitter for the pain pathway: A. Convulsions B.B. Dorsal root ganglion _____ 60. C. Addiction _____ 68. Ethyline _____ 66. PKA B. In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. All of the above _____ 57. Serotonin D. Bupivacaine D. Atropine sulfate D. Protein buiding D. Degree of Ionization _____ 73. Onset of action of a local anesthetic correlates with. Degree of Ionization ____ 71. Acetylcholine B. A. A. C. Duration of action of local anesthetic correlates with : A. Increase awareness _____ 63. Nitrous oxide C. pKA B. Pontocaine B. Local anesthetic with vasoconstriction effect: A. Lower intracranial pressure B. Carbogen _____ 62. Cocaine _____ 67. Which of the following is a belladona alkaloid? A. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon dioxide D. D. Potency of a local anesthetics correlates with. Systemic toxicity to local anesthesia is manisfested by: A. C. Protein buiding D. Increase intraocular pressure C. One of the following is a weak anesthetic but a potent analgesic. Lamina I C. A. A. True of ketamine HCL effect: A. Ventral root ganglion D. Diphenhydramine HCL B. Nalbuphine _____ 64. Lower blood pressure D. Oxygen C. D. Site of injection C. Causes methemoglobinemia because it is degraded in the liver to otoluidine w/c causes oxidation of hemoglobine. Glutamate C. Methemoglobinemia C. Primary afferent fibers with fastest conduction velocity: A. Dorsal horn B. Coccaine D. pKA B. Nitrous oxide B. Skeletal muscle irritation D. Lamina III B. Oxygen B. Lipid solubility C.

D. D. Nerve missed in doing the axillary approach in brachial plexus block A. 1 to 3 B. Lungs _____ 92. Sural nerve C. T12 – L1 D. Ulnar nerve B. 5 to 6 C. Most common complication of intercostals nerve block. Retrobulbar hemorrhage D. Lateral malleolus _____ 79. Needle puncture during spinal anesthesia can be made safely at the interspace. A. A. Carbogen C. Liver D. Opioids D. L4 – L5 B. Pop-off value . Between L1 – L2 C. Musculo cutaneous nerve _____ 86. Intravascular injectionD. Part of the anesthesia machine that releases gas to the atmosphere. Dorsalis pedis vein C. Monoamineoxydase inhibitor _____ 75. Pneumothorax C. Convulsions B. Tibial nerve D. Topical _____ 82. Oxygen D. Cyclioxygenase inhibitor D. Management for central type pf pain: A. Axillary nerve C. zero _____ 74. Blood B. Enlarged tonsils _____ 90. Mechanism of action of NSAIDs A. D. Salivary secretions B. A. Dorsalis pedis artery B. C. A. C. Green is the standard color code for : A. Inhibits nor adrenalin receptor C. A. L5 – S1 _____ 83. B. The most common cause of airway obstruction is general anesthesia is: A. A weak mu receptor agonist B. Lateral rectoral nerve D. Steroids _____ 85. Inhibition of cyclioxygenase inhibitor C.score is. Psychophysiologic _____ 84. Presence of enlarged adenoids C. NSAIDs C. Elimination of general inhalation anesthetics is mainly thru: A. Carbon dioxide B. A. Inhibition of lipooxygenase B. Bier block B. Mechanism of action of tramadol. Failed block _____ 80. Vaporizer B. Inhibits serotonin receptor D. C. A. 8 to 10 D. Common complication of retrobulbar block in extremely myopic eye. Central D. Globe perforation C. Medial malleolus D. Mechanism of chronic pain which is often referred to as “nociceptive pain”. Blindness _____ 78. A. Nitrous oxide _____ 91. Field block C. Saphenous nerve _____ 87 . Tramadol and Meperidine should not be given in patients receiving. All of the above _____ 76. Nerve blocked posterior to the medial malleolus. Superficial peroneal nerve B. C. Kidney C. Aspirin B. Falling back of the tongue D. Central peripheral B. A. Paralysis of retrobulbar nerve B. Inhibition of phospholipase D. Peripheral C. A. All of the above _____ 77. Infiltration D. The anesthetic potency of volatile liquid anesthetic is measured by: Minimum arterial concentration Minimum alveolar concentration Maximum alveolar concentration Maximum airway concentration _____ 89. The landmark for doing deep peroneal nerve block. Local anesthetic technique which uses lidocaine spray 10%. D. A. A. C. Lipooxygenase inhibitor C. Adenycyclase inhibitor B.

Subperiosteal space C. ASA III B. Ligament of Lockwood D. Retinal pigment epithelium B. CL – ions C. Lowest intensity at which a given stimulus is perceived as painful. C. Spontaneous ventilation C. Positive end expiratory pressure ventilation _____ 98. D. extrinsic muscle that is not inserted in front of the equator: Medial rectus Superior rectus Lateral rectus Inferior rectus 3 37 39 36 C 5 D 6 B 7 40 A 8 The adult size of the cornea is attained at: A. Ca + ions B 2 Which of the following layers of the retina does not terminate at the optic disc margin: A. Layer of rods and cones The A. Carbon dioxide C. Episcleral space D. One of the following is an example of acute pain. Headache B. Na + ions B. Properties of diencephalic neurons D. A. Assisted ventilation B. Recurs at intervals for months _____ 100. ASA II D. Characteristics of acute pain: A. Ganglion cell layer D. Projections of spinal neurons C. Pain suffering B. B. K + ions D. will have a physical status classification. Low back painD. ASA I C. Annulus of Zinn Which of the following does not pass thru the Superior orbital fissure: A. 6th year of life . B. C. Whitnall‟s ligament B. adult orbital measurement is attained at this age: 5th year 3rd year 9th year 20th year 23-24 C 3 35 A 4 The orbital space formed by the recti muscles and their intermuscular membrane with the Tenon‟s capsule: A. Type of ventilation used for apneic patient. C. This gas is known as a “Laughing Gas” A. Peripheral terminals of primary afferent neurons B. D. Transduction occurs in the : A. Associated with depression D. Nerve fiber layer C. Controlled ventilation D. Peripheral surgical space The condensation of fibrous tissues that thickens to form a sling (hammock) upon which the globe rests: A. ASA IV _____ 94. D. Post-operative pain _____ 96. Trochlear C. A. Projections of wide dynamic range neurons _____ 99. Pain tolerance C. A. All of the above _____ 95. Long duration intervals for months C. Check ligament C. Nitrous oxide B. Pain threshold D. Ethylene D. Abducens B. Optic nerve The A. A. Oxygen _____ 97. D. Pressure reducing value D. A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Central surgical space B. Flow meter _____ 93. The nerve fiber is freely permeable to: A. Arthralgia C. Oculomotor D.C. Generate reflexes B.

except: 60-61 .B. C. Responsible for secreting the oily layer of the tear film C. Modified sweat gland D. C 10 at birth 3rd year of life 9th year of life 46 B 20 Which of the following is not TRUE of the Meibomian gland: A. D. Originates from the tarsus True of the Optic nerve. Does not communicate with hair follicles B.

D. opacity in the lens is called: Cataract Leukoma Nebula None of the above optic nerve is actually a collection of axons of the: cells of the inner nuclear layer cells of the outer nuclear layer photoreceptors ganglion cells C 22 353-354 A 33 369 D 34 353 D 35 As it courses through the orbit. Emerges from the posterior aspect of the globe. Myelinated all throughout. D. none of the above 37 Mass lesions of the pituitary gland classically produce the following field pattern: A. the fovea C. C. iridocyclitis. None of the above 211-212 True of Conjunctival injection: A. none of the above 295 C 531 A 66-67 . D. pial vessels B. both D. orbit C. Associate with keratitis. B. B. centrocecal scotoma 38 To enable stereoscopic vision. vessels of the dura D. C. the optic nerve derives its blood supply from the: A. C. neither Any A. central retinal artery 352 B 36 The center of the visual field corresponds to visual perception from the following anatomic structure: A. The A. cannaliculus D. the optic nerve B. d. binasal hemianopsia C.A. posterior staphyloma C. bitemporal hemianopsia D. but its occurrence suggests: A. pupils distorted. vision reduced Marked enlargement of the optic disk is rarely seen. quadrantic hemianopsia B. B. the ora serrata D. optic chiasm B. The crossover of fibers occur at the: A. B 21 Consists of about 1 million axons from the ganglion cells of the retina. Cornea cloudy. myopia B. Vessels constrict with a drop of 1:1. Vessels most numerous at the limbus and fade toward the fornix B. and angle closure glaucoma D.000 epinephrine C. the visual fibers are so arranged that fibers over the nasal retina decussate while temporal fibers continue ipsilaterally to their corresponding lateral geniculate body. arachnoid vessels C.

B. enlarged blind spot cecocentral scotoma altitudinal field defect bitemporal hemianopsia 360 A 50 True of pinguecula: A. except: A. Retina D. all of the above Middle coat of the eye is composed of the following. vision remains fairly good and the only deficit in the visual field is a: A. B. B. C. D. epidemic keratoconjunctivitis . C. B 42 Ischemic optic neuritis presents with this classical field defect: A. The type of conjunctivitis characterized by a localized whitish nodule with a necrotic excavated center surrounded by conjunctival injection: a. D. more common in the young D.B 39 Despite the seemingly horrendous appearance of the optic disc in acute papilledema. Iris The A. lower tendon of zinn C. D. whitnall‟s ligament D. chief cause is chemical burn B. B. ligament of lackwood B. C. all of the above True of symblepharon: A. cecocentral scotoma enlarged blind spot bitemporal hemianopsia central scotoma following is true of optic nerve meningiomas: occurs most frequently during the first 2 decades of life symptoms are different from that of sphenoid wing meningiomas visual loss mainly through compression or atrophy more symptomatic than gliomas 364 357 B 41 The A. Vitreous D. tumor of the eyelids C. Choroid 15-16 215 214 D 51 C 74 D 75 Structure that regulates the amount of light reaching the visual receptors of the eye: A. embryologic tertiary vitreous is known as what structure in the adult eye: Ora serrata Vitreous body Zonules None of the above 20 B 76 72 A 90 Portion of the Tenon capsule that forma a sling upon which the globe rests: A. Iris B. benign degenerative tissue B. Aqueous C. obliterate conjunctival cul-de-sac D. Cornea B. keratitis occurs because of exposure C. check ligament 39 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUESTIONS Conjunctivitis 1. C. Ciliary body C. D.

101) c. both A & B d. corneal ulcer phlyctenular conjunctivitis vernal conjunctivitis (Espiritu etal. p. keratomalacia (Espiritu etal. 88) A 45-year old female suddenly experienced blurring of vision. rubella (Newell. Which of the following is responsible for scotopic vision or dim illumination: a. 60) c. adenovirus b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are given as a treatment for glaucoma. A few days later. Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for this case? a. Blurring of vision was also noted. branched retinal vein occlusion d. 6. 5. atropine sulfate b. The virus that can cause congenital cataract: a. keratoconus b. 377) d. p. central retinal vein occlusion b. to increase the aqueous humor outflow facility b. hypertensive retinopathy A 2-year-old boy was brought in for consultation because the mother noted a “white pupil”.b. Mooren‟s ulcer d. with a sensation of a curtain in a part of the field of vision. He experienced foreign body sensation and eye redness. Its mechanism of action is: a. p. he noted a fluffy. retinal detachment (Espiritu. 326) b. rods only (Espiritu. to decrease production of aqueous and enhance its exit d. corticosteroids (Newell. p. Softening of the cornea associated with malnourishment: a. grayish white elevation on the center of his eye. rubeola Glaucoma 1. central retinal artery occlusion (Espiritu. retrolental fibroplasias c. 249) d. cones only c. persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous d. amphotericin B 3. 86) b. 92) c. Staphyloma An ophthalmic emergency characterized by sudden blurring or complete loss of vision with a characteristic cherryred spot on funduscopy: a. to decrease aqueous humor production (Espiritu. No consult was done and no medications were instilled. toxocariasis Retina 4. c. . none of the above Systemic Ophthalmology 8. branched retinal artery occlusion c. p. p. p. Which of the following medications is contraindicated? a. picornavirus c. p. The primary consideration in this patient is: a. central serous chorio-retinopathy d. 54) Cataract 2. diabetic retinopathy b. d. congenital glaucoma (Newell. to increase aqueous humor production Cornea 2. The ocular lesion in congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized as: 7. 5% natamycin c. p. a 50-year old male felt a small piece enter his left eye. While cutting grass in his garden.

The palpebral a. drusen d. p. b. meibomianitis d. corneal dendritic ulcer which stains with fluorescein follicular conjunctivitis. 9-12 c. Passive swelling of the optic nerve occurring secondary to increased pressure in the subarachnoid space of the meningeal coverings of the brain and optic nerves: a. papilledema (Newell. chalazion (Newell. c. It is the second most common epithelial tumor of the lacrimal gland b. 263) d. characterized by a gradual painless swelling of the gland without other external signs of inflammation: a. It is composed of aggregates of small undifferentiated neoplastic cells separated by small and large cystoid spaces with mucin Eyelids 10. p. internal hordeolum 11. 8-12 b. p. external hordeolum b. d. Which is true of his condition? a. A chronic inflammatory lipogranuloma of a meibomian gland. It has the worst prognosis c.126) big necrotic lesion in the retina and choroids surrounded by smaller lesions Lacrimal apparatus 9. optic neuritisand non-granulomatous uveitis single choroidoretinal scar prominently in the posterior fundus (Espiritu. p. pseudo-papilledema c.a. It contains mesenchymal elements and double-layered tubular epithelial units (Newell. 357) b. p. 8-10 fissure among Filipinos measures: mm in height and 25-29 mm in length mm in height and 26-29 mm in length mm in height and 25-29 mm in length mm in height and 26-29 mm in length ( Espiritu. 9) Neuro-ophthalmology 12. A 45-year-old male presents with a painless mass on the upper outer portion of his upper eyelid. optic neuritis . There was moderate proptosis. 8-10 d. 204) c.

73 .

Sign up to vote on this title
UsefulNot useful