You are on page 1of 62

Practice MCAT 4

Ken Evans, MSc, MD Charlene Bramwell, MEd

Reviewed by Rodney Doyle, PhD Peter Minns, PhD copyright © Dr. Ken Evans

Practice MCAT 4

Physical Sciences
Passage I Passage II Passage III Passage IV Passage V Passage VI Passage VII Capacitors Electrochemistry Independent questions Electricity Electrophoresis Refraction Independent questions Hess’s Law Standing waves Independent questions

Verbal Reasoning Writing Sample Biological Sciences
Passage I Passage II Passage III Passage IV Passage V Passage VI Passage VII Kidneys Carbohydrates Independent questions Genetics Extraction Evolution Independent questions Transamination Embryology Independent questions


Practice MCAT 4

Physical Sciences
Number of Items: 52 Time Allowed: 70 minutes

DIRECTIONS: Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each preceded by a descriptive passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question. Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. You should also select the one best answer to these independent questions. A periodic table is provided and you may consult it whenever you wish.


9 53 I 126.0 31 Ga 69.6 50 Sn 118.9 4 Be 9.7 46 Pd 106.1 37 Rb 85.0 15 P 31.9 45 Rh 102.3 21 Sc 45.8 13 Al 27.4 5 B 10.9 43 Tc (98) 26 Fe 55.2 76 Os 190.0 12 Mg 24.5 55 Cs 132.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.1 32 Ge 72.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.8 44 Ru 101.0 17 Cl 35.9 36 Kr 83.0 3 Li 6.9 40 Zr 91.yolasite.2 78 Pt 195.8 8 O 16.9 74 W 183.0 14 Si 28.0 80 Hg 200.2 82 Pb 207.4 48 Cd 112.6 81 Tl 204.5 35 Br 79.9 28 Ni 58.6 9 F 17.5 23 V 50.9 57 La* 138.9 2 He 4.9 73 Ta 180.4 29 Cu 63.1 27 Co 58.9 30 Zn 65.9 51 Sb 121.6 56 Ba 137.9 24 Cr 52.2 83 Bi 209.7 7 N 14.3 75 Re 186.2 18 Ar 39.8 54 Xe 131.2 77 Ir 192.0 42 Mo 95.0 16 S 32.9 22 Ti 47.0 84 Po (209) 85 At (210) 86 Rn (222) 87 Fr (223) 88 Ra (226) 89 Ac† (227) 104 Rf (261) 105 Db (262) 106 Sg (266) 107 Bh (264) 108 Hs (277) 109 Mt (268) 110 Ds (281) 111 Uuu (272) 112 Uub (261) 114 Uuq (289) 116 Uuh (289) * † 58 Ce 140 90 Th 232 59 Pr 140 91 Pa 231 60 Nd 144 92 U 238 61 Pm 144 93 Np 237 62 Sm 150 94 Pu 244 63 Eu 152 95 Am 243 64 Gd 157 96 Cm 247 65 Tb 158 97 Bk 247 66 Dy 162 98 Cf 251 67 Ho 164 99 Es 252 68 Er 167 100 Fm 257 69 Tm 168 101 Md 258 70 Yb 173 102 No 259 71 Lu 175 103 Lr 262 3 .0 19 K 39.1 34 Se 79.5 47 Ag 107.9 25 Mn Periodic Table of the Elements IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA VIIA 1 H 1.0 39 Y 88.9 41 Nb 92.8 6 C 12.1 79 Au 197.0 52 Te 127.0 33 As 74.0 10 Ne 20.7 49 In 114.9 11 Na 23.2 72 Hf 178.

C) voltage remains the same and the charge on each plate remains the same. 5. 1. The capacitance is 1. respectively. B) voltage decreases and the charge on each plate remains the same. A d. while electric field intensity remains the same. What is the electric field intensity inside the ball when it is between the plates and far away from the plates. What is the charge on each plate? A) 12 C B) 18 C C) 8 C D) 0. An astronaut takes a hollow metallic ball out of a pouch and. The ball is taken far away from the plates. If the area of each plate is tripled A) capacitance remains the same.c. D) increase in both Passage I The space shuttle is conducting an experiment with a large parallel plate capacitor in the vacuum and weightlessness of outer space. 6. respectively. respectively? A) 2 N/C and 6 N/C B) cannot be determined with the information provided and 0 N/C C) 6 N/C and 2 N/C D) cannot be determined with the information provided. 4. B) remain the same and decrease. by means of electrostatic induction.5 F. 3. A thick sheet of glass (which acts as a dielectric) is placed between the plates. The potential difference and charge on each plate should A) remain the same and increase. D) capacitance and electric field intensity are tripled. B) capacitance and electric field intensity remain the same. while electric field intensity increases.yolasite. C) capacitance is tripled.8 C When the plates are moved farther apart A) voltage decreases and the charge on each plate decreases. voltage of 12 V is applied across the plates. What is the electric field intensity at a point 4 m away from the center of the ball? 4 2. C) remain the same in both cases. gives it a net positive charge of 2 C. .Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. D) voltage remains the same and the charge on each plate decreases.

09 0.→ Cu 2H+ + 2e. C) The copper bursts into greenish A) k/4 N/C B) k/2 N/C C) k/6 N/C D) k/8 N/C Passage II Below is a table showing some Standard State Reduction Potentials. F2 + 2e.00 -0.→ Fe2+ Cu2+ + 2e. The standard reduction potential for the reduction of Br2 would be A) 1.→ Na 7. D) Nothing happens.yolasite.13 -0.71 What should happen when a piece of copper is placed in 1M HCl? A) The copper is dissolved by the acid.25 -0.→ Pb Ni2+ + 2e.80 0.→ 2ClBr2 + 2e. How many voltaic cells with a voltage greater than 2V can be made using the standard half-cell reactions listed? A) 11 B) 9 C) 17 D) 15 Suppose that the half-cell reaction Ni2+ + 2e. B) 0.09 V.87 1.→ Ni Zn2+ + 2e.34 0.→ 2FCl2 + 2e.34 V. 9.→ Ag Fe3+ + e.→ H2 Pb2+ + 2e.→ Ni is assigned to have a potential of 0. C) 1.76 -2. .00V. 5 8.→ 2BrAg+ + e. D) 1.36 1. Half reaction E (V) 2.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.77 0.25 V.84 V.→ Zn Na+ + e. B) The copper is dissolved by the acid with the release of hydrogen gas.

the reaction is far to the right. 12.78 V C) 1. B) quadruples.07 V If standard state oxidation potentials are used instead of standard state reduction potentials and the half reactions are listed in descending order. The forward reaction must be A) ectoplasmic. which one of the following would be true? A) the lead reaction would be above the silver reaction B) the fluorine reaction would be above the chlorine reaction C) the iron reaction would be above the nickel reaction D) the hydrogen reaction would be below the copper reaction 11.09 V D) 2.96 V B) 1. D) cannot be determined with the information given. When the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) is at equilibrium. .as one half cell and Br2/Br. B) remains the the other. B) exothermic. What is the voltage of the cell at standard state? A) 3. A voltaic cell is set up with F2/F. Questions 13 to 17 are independent of any passage and of each other. 15. In the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g).36 V D) 10. the period A) doubles. 13.yolasite.36 V C) 1.07 V B) -1. D) increases by √2.87 V NaCl is melted in a beaker and electrolysis carried out. 6 14. the entropy A) increases. If the length of a pendulum is doubled. C) decreases. What is the minimum potential difference required to separate sodium and chlorine? A) -4.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. C) triples.

B) triple.67 Ω and 3 Ω B) 1 Ω and 6 Ω C) 1. His weight.67 Ω and 6 Ω 19. Passage III A student is provided with a variety of electrical components and asked to perform certain tasks.33 Ω and 6 Ω D) C) D) 16. C) half. It is attached to its pivot point with two 3 m ropes. D) cannot be determined with the information given. She is provided with three 2 Ω resistors. endergonic.5 µF 7 . is A) double. What is the total capacitance? A) 0. The student connects three 2 µF capacitors in parallel. 20. endothermic. compared to his weight on earth.yolasite.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. What is the maximum tension in each rope? A) 200 N B) 260 N C) 60 N D) 130 N 17. A 20 kg child is playing on a swing of negligible mass. 18.67 µF B) 6 µF C) 1. A man travels to a planet that has twice the radius of the earth and twice the mass. How many different total resistances can be produced if all the resistors must be used in a circuit? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 What are the minimum and maximum total resistances produced above? A) 0. The maximum speed of the child during a swing cycle is found to be 3 m/s.

000. What is the current in the circuit? A) 0 A B) 1 A C) 1.000 A D) 2 A 8 .com D) 21.yolasite. 3 µF The capacitors in parallel above are connected to a 6V d.c. voltage supply.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

Which form of glycine predominates in cytoplasm? A) H3N+-CH2-COOB) H2N-CH2-COOH C) H3N+-CH2-COOH 9 25.0 D) pH > 9.0 and 22. Glycine is predominantly deprotonated at A) pH > 2.4 The pH of cytoplasm is about 7. What is the impedance? A) 1/(6π) Ω B) 1/(2π) Ω C) 1/(12π) Ω D) 1/(24π) Ω The rms voltage of this circuit is 4 V.6 Which functional group in glycine is the strongest acid? A) -NH3+ B) -COOH C) -CH2D) None of the above At which pH’s does glycine exhibit the most buffering effect? A) 6.6.0 C) pH > 7.0. Passage IV Glycine is an amino acid with the formula H2N-CH2-COOH.0 C) 2.3 and 9. .0 and 7.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.6 D) 6. 26.yolasite. The capacitors in parallel above are connected to an a.c. The isoelectric point is at pH 6.3 B) pH > 6.2. 27.3 and 6.6 B) 2. 24. What is the rms current? A) 48π A B) 24π A C) 40π A D) 3π A 23.3 and the pKa of the -NH3+ group is 9. The pKa of the -COOH group is 2. voltage of frequency 1 MHz.

42 B) 0.yolasite.67 B) sin-1 0. He uses a glass-bottomed boat. D) its wavelength decreases. In preparing for his project. an ordinary camera. B) It will migrate to the cathode.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.125 D) 1. vacuumnwater = 1. B) its frequency decreases. A) its frequency increases. C) its wavelength increases. What is waternglass? A) 1. C) It will not migrate. What will happen to the glycine sample? A) It will migrate to the anode. but in an unpredictable direction. Passage V A biologist is studying the ecology of a lake. he assembled the following data. 31. H2N-CH2-COO- A small quantity of glycine is placed in a buffer solution of pH 2. When light travels from air to water. and a compound microscope for his study. D) It will migrate. 10 . a magnifying glass.5 focal length of camera lens = 5 cm focal length of magnifying glass = 12 cm 29.89 C) 1.33 vacuumnglass = 1.00 What is the maximum angle of incidence at the water/glass interface for a light ray to be seen by the biologist on board the boat? A) sin-1 0.75 C) sin-1 1 D) sin-1 0 30.0 and an electrical field is D) 28.

yolasite. what must be the distance between the lens and the film in the camera? A) 7 cm B) 8 cm C) slightly less than 5 cm D) slightly more than 5 cm 11 . He photographs some geese 5 m away. In order to have a focused 32.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

the voltages of cells which are not in standard states A) B) C) D) 36. The force acting parallel to the plane pushing the block upwards is A) 100 N B) 25 N C) 50 N D) 70 N When a 5B8 atom decays by the emission of a positron. equilibrium constants of reactions III. 33. He examines a butterfly that has landed on the boat. Its siren is emitting a sound of 400 Hz.) A) 470 Hz B) 485 Hz C) 450 Hz D) 500 Hz With the relevant standard state reduction potentials and use of the Nernst Equation. . With the magnifying glass held 4 cm from the butterfly. what is the magnification obtained? A) 1. A 10 kg block is accelerated at 2 m/s2 up a frictionless plane inclined at 30 degrees to the horizontal. solubility products II.yolasite. An ambulance is travelling towards you at 50 m/s. What is the frequency of the sound you hear before you pass each other? (Assume the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. I and II I and III II and III All are true 35. one could calculate I.5 B) 3 C) 12 D) 18 Questions 34 to 37 are independent of any passage and of each other. You are travelling in the opposite direction to the ambulance at 20 m/s. the resultant atom is A) 4Be8 B) 6C8 C) 5B8 12 37.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

. 40.096 C-H O-H O=O C=O C-C triple bond C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) Mg(s) + ½O2(g) → MgO(s) Mg(s) + C(s) + 1½O2(g) → MgCO3(s) 38. Mg(s) + C(s) + 1½O2(g) → MgCO3(s) III.992 kJ/mol Which of the following has a ΔHf of zero? A) H(g) B) I2(g) C) Hg(l) D) CO(g) Which of the following describes a reaction for which ΔH is equal to ΔHf of the product? I. Below are some bond dissociation energies and enthalpies of formation.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.992 kJ/mol D) D) 3Li 4 Passage VI Hess’s law is used to predict the heat energy released or consumed in chemical reactions. What is the approximate ΔH for the combustion of ethyne in oxygen (per mole of ethyne)? A) -996 kJ/mol B) 996 kJ/mol C) -1.yolasite. It states that the enthalpy change is the same regardless of whether a reaction occurs in one step or in several steps. ΔH (kJ/mol) 415 464 498 745 837 ΔHf (kJ/mol of product) -394 -602 -1. 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) II. MgO(s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s) A) B) I and II I and III 13 39.

. A device that produces pure tones is placed adjacent to one end. What is ΔH for the reaction MgO(s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s) A) 2. 43.yolasite. At a frequency of 320 Hz. the tube resonates. What are the three lowest resonant frequencies? (Assume the speed of sound is 340 m/s. What is this frequency? A) 320 Hz B) 960 Hz C) 640 Hz D) 1. C) D) 41. 45.) 14 44.280 Hz What is the next higher frequency at which resonance will occur? A) 1.092 kJ/mol C) 100 kJ/mol D) -100 kJ/mol What is the formal charge on the carbon atom in the carbonate ion? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) -2 Passage VII A 50 cm long hollow glass cylinder open at both ends is held in the air.920 Hz B) 960 Hz C) 990 Hz D) 480 Hz The end of the cylinder farthest away from the sound source is sealed with a glass cap. What is the speed of sound in air during this experiment? A) 320 m/s B) 640 m/s C) 330 m/s D) 160 m/s The frequency is increased until resonance occurs again. The frequency of the sound is initially set very low then increased gradually. II and III I only 42.092 kJ/mol B) -2.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. 510 Hz.1M acetic acid to which 50ml of 0. 850 Hz The setup in the previous question is placed in a chamber filled with helium. What happens to the respective resonant frequencies? A) They remain the same. I and III are correct. 48. Which of the following is true? I. What is the pH of a 100 ml solution of 0. B) They increase. 610 Hz. 150 Hz. 850 Hz 170 Hz. C) They decrease. friction is proportional to the component of weight acting normally on the surface A) B) C) D) 50. 49. the force required to overcome dynamic friction is greater than the force required to overcome static friction III. 510 Hz. What happens to the respective resonant frequencies? A) They remain the A) B) C) D) 47. The setup in the previous question is now subjected to a 20 K decrease in temperature. I and II are correct. D) Some increase while others decrease.1M NaOH has been added (Ka of acetic acid is 1. the force required to overcome static friction is greater than the force required to overcome dynamic friction II. II and III are correct. Questions 49 to 52 are independent of any passage and of each other. A brick is resting on a concrete surface. C) They decrease. D) Some increase while others decrease. 510 Hz. B) They increase. All are correct. 870 Hz 170 Hz.8 x 10-5)? A) 5 B) 7 C) 3 D) 10 15 . 850 Hz 170 Hz.

D) It goes up but only 51.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. what happens to the pH when a further 10 ml of 0.1M NaOH is added? A) It goes up to 6 or 7. B) It goes down. C) It stays the same. 16 . Referring to the previous question.

it goes up vertically 3 feet. How far does the shell travel (ignore air resistance)? A) 20 km B) 18 km C) 12 km D) 24 km STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. 17 .Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. CHECK YOUR 52. When a shell is fired. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THE PHYSICAL SCIENCES TEST BOOKLET.yolasite. the speed on leaving the muzzle is 500 m/s. A cannon is angled so that for every 4 feet traveled horizontally.

18 . Each passage is followed by several questions. Indicate your selection by clicking on the answer bubble next to it.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. After reading a passage. If you are not certain of an answer. select the one best answer to each Verbal Reasoning Number of Items: 40 Time Allowed: 60 minutes DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in the Verbal Reasoning test.

The few indirect studies indicate that the apparent roughness of the surface increases somewhat under high-wind conditions. recent measurements seem to agree. In some way the motion of the waves seems to modify the airflow so that air slips over the surface even more freely than it would without the waves. some observations in light winds of two or three meters per second indicate that the force on the wavy surface is less than it is on a surface as smooth as glass. does their momentum become available to generate currents. The force exerted on a surface varies with the roughness of that surface and approximately with the square of the wind speed at some fixed height above it. At 10 meters per second. or otherwise lose energy.the waves . The roughness of the water is not a given characteristic of the surface but depends on the wind itself. Not only that. or produce Ekman layers. the whole thing is much more complicated. as far as the wind is concerned. Nevertheless. a great deal of experimental data have been collected on flows over solid surfaces. as though it were very smooth. Recent evidence indicates that a large portion of the momentum transferred from the air into the water goes into waves rather than directly into making currents in the water. When the wind blows over water. the elements that constitute the roughness . Waves carry a substantial amount of both energy and momentum (typically about as much as is carried by the wind in a layer about one wavelength thick). This seems not to be the case at higher wind speeds. so that the force on the surface increases rather more rapidly than as the square of the wind speed. so that. the force is only about 10 tons per square kilometer. A violently wavy surface belies its appearance by acting. On a really smooth surface. from an engineering point of view at least. A wind of 10 meters per second (about 20 knots. or 22 miles per hour) measured at a height of 10 meters will produce a force of some 30 tons per square kilometer on a field of mown grass or of about 70 tons per square kilometer on a ripe wheat field. 19 . the situation is fairly well understood. above about five meters per second.themselves move more or less in the direction of the wind. and so the wave-generation process is far from negligible.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. One serious deficiency is the fact that there are no direct observations at all in those important cases in which the wind speed is greater than about 12 meters per second and has had time and fetch (the distance over water) enough to raise substantial waves. only as the waves break. the force on the surface is quite a lot less than the force over mown grass and scarcely more than it is over glass. but the force remains strikingly low compared with that over other natural surfaces. both in the laboratory and in Passage I Turbulent flow over a boundary is a complex phenomenon for which there is no really complete theory even in simple laboratory cases. such as glass.

If it should be shown that. According to the passage. 20 54. B) create an ocean roughness which reduces the force exerted by the high winds. it is evident that highwind conditions produce effects far more important than their frequency of occurrence would suggest.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. D) experiments in wind force. According to the passage. B) the effects of wind on bodies of water. ocean current will be more affected by the hurricane winds than the following light winds III. the force on the surface increases appreciably more rapidly than as the square of the wind speed. then the transfer of momentum to the ocean will turn out to be dominated by what happens during the occasional storm rather than by the long-term average winds. a rough-like ocean surface A) is independent of the force of the wind. 55. for high winds. ocean current will be unaffected by the light winds II. several hours of storm winds (60 miles per hour) over the ocean would A) be similar to the force exerted by light winds for several hours over glass. I. . the force of the light winds on the ocean would be less than that exerted on a wheat field The correct combination is: A) I only B) II and III C) I and III D) II only 56. D) is a condition under which the approximate square of wind speed can never be an accurate figure in measuring the wind force. where a hurricane is followed by light winds of 10 meters per second or less. B) has the same force exerted against it by high and light winds. C) eventually affect ocean current. C) is more likely to have been caused by a storm than by continuous light winds. The author indicates that. The main purpose of the passage is to discuss A) oceanic momentum and Assuming that the force increases at least as the square of the wind speed. Five hours of 60-knot storm winds will put more momentum into the water than a week of 10-knot breezes. 53. D) create a force not greater than 6 times the force of a 10 mile-per-hour wind. C) wind blowing over water as related to causing tidal flow.yolasite.

Practice MCAT 4


The author would be incorrect in concluding that the transfer of momentum to the ocean is dominated by the occasional storm if A) high-speed winds slipped over waves as easily as low speed winds. B) waves did not move in the direction of wind. C) the force exerted on a wheat field was the same as on mown grass. D) the force of wind under normal conditions increased as the square of wind speed.

Passage II There are four arguments that may be used in the justification of euthanasia. Compassion This argument maintains that when a patient is faced with a situation of intolerable misery and distress arising from an incurable disease, it is kinder to end his life rather than to allow him to continue to suffer. The right to die The right to demand his death is often regarded as part of human autonomy by which a patient has the right to make decisions about their treatment by health care professionals. Social progress This argument claims that society has a eugenic obligation to eliminate the physically and mentally unfit from amongst its members. Economic necessity This argument has been added in recent years with the recognition of the high cost of the medical and social care of those people who might be candidates for euthanasia. We have now set out briefly the arguments used in favor of the practice of euthanasia. Let us now consider the important assumptions that underlie these arguments, which may be set out in three separate categories: philosophical, medical, and legal. Philosophical That man has a right to die That the value of human life is measurable That human life can be dealt with in the same way as animal life That suffering can have no beneficial function That an unmixed motive of compassion can be guaranteed That a request for euthanasia is always rational and reliable 21

Practice MCAT 4

Medical That medical diagnosis and prognosis are always certain That the degree of suffering of another person can always be realistically and objectively assessed That effective alternative methods for the relief of suffering are not available That euthanasia is the justifiable duty of a doctor Legal That the legalization of euthanasia can control its abuse That euthanasia can be clearly distinguished from murder Any decision to legalize the practice of euthanasia is one that will have serious ethical, legal, social, and professional implications. The third and fourth arguments in favor of euthanasia have implications that do much to weaken their force. The argument from social progress has been destroyed by the racial policies and genocidal activities of Nazi Germany. The argument from economic necessity is not acceptable because it reduces human life and personal happiness to the impersonal terms of money and expediency, which are not the terms in which the human situation should be assessed. The argument based on an alleged right to die arises from a confusion of rights and liberties. Man is free to end his life when he chooses, but this does not mean that he has a right to do so. Such a right does not exist ethically, legally, or socially. We are left then with the argument from compassion. This is especially strong in cases where relatives have been obliged to watch a loved one suffer unbearable agony and to listen to repeated requests for them to end it all by euthanasia. Nevertheless, it remains doubtful how far compassion can be allowed to over-ride the other principles that govern human behavior in any given situation. If an action is ethically wrong, or even legally wrong, then it is clearly doubtful whether an appeal to a motive of compassion can make it ethically or legally right. If we look at the assumptions that we have suggested underlie the practice of euthanasia, it is clear that a number of them are of questionable validity. This is particularly true of those we have classified as medical. In addition to these considerations there are a number of arguments which can be advanced against the practice of euthanasia. Euthanasia is unnecessarily radical. It destroys the problem rather than solving it. By ending the life of the patient, it deprives him of hope and any opportunity of regretting or reversing his decision. Euthanasia is ethically indefensible. There is an ethical principle of totality that allows a part to be sacrificed for the sake of the whole. There is no corresponding principle that allows the 22

Practice MCAT 4

whole to he sacrificed for the sake of the part. That would be an illogical position and certainly an unethical one. Euthanasia is legally inadmissible. No country has so far legalized euthanasia, although The Netherlands has come very near to doing so. The danger in the legalization of euthanasia lies in the possibility of its abuse. Legalization of abortion has failed to control the abuse of abortion, and similar legislation on euthanasia cannot be expected to control its abuse either. The legal problem is how to distinguish euthanasia from murder. Euthanasia is increasingly unnecessary. When euthanasia was first advocated in the 1930s, the concept and practice of palliative medicine was unknown. Doctors had no guidance and little experience in the alleviation of distressing symptoms arising from incurable disease. The most effective use of opioids to control pain was not understood and other methods of relieving pain and other symptoms were not known. The situation is very different today. Even if we reject euthanasia as inadmissible ethically, this cannot be the end of the matter. The problem of the control of suffering still remains. What then ought we to do? We can make available to our patients all the methods of relief and control of distressing symptoms that are available. And we can promote research aimed at the improvement of the means of relief of suffering. Finally, we must recognize that the care of the sufferer is not a purely medical concern, and we must provide for his physical, mental, and spiritual welfare by involving all the caring professions in an effective and sensitive approach to the patient and his family. 58. According to the passage, the essential element in euthanasia is A) the alleviation of distressing symptoms arising from incurable disease. B) the intention to kill. C) to provide no heroic measures. D) to make remaining life as happy and fulfilling as possible. From the passage, it can be inferred that I. there are 12 assumptions underlying the concept of euthanasia. II. there are 4 arguments used to justify euthanasia. III. euthanasia is absolutely unacceptable regardless of a patient’s situation. IV. euthanasia is illegal. A) B) C) D) 60. I, II, and III are correct. I and II are correct. I, II, and IV are correct. All are correct.


Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? 23

D) a patient’s inability to pay for health care. arguments in favor of euthanasia include all of the following except A) eugenics.. liver. newer radiopharmaceuticals include technetium-99m sestamibi and technetium-99m tetrophosmin. Myocardial perfusion imaging usually uses thallium-201. C) The part can be sacrificed for the whole. Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? A) Some countries have legalized euthanasia. 62. According to the passage. a radioactive cation that is useful because it behaves as a potassium analog. C) neither for nor against euthanasia. Following IV administration. B) scarce resources could be put to better use. Incurable patients have the duty to die an early death. Generally. Patients have the privilege to die. C) human autonomy. the author seems to be A) against euthanasia. relatively easy to perform. Other. B) supportive of euthanasia. and exposes patients to less radiation than X-ray studies that give comparable information. 63. D) ignorant of the main issues surrounding euthanasia.g. Patients have the right to die. kidneys. D) The strongest argument for euthanasia is compassion. and those that allow evaluation of ventricular function and wall motion (ventriculography). About 4% of the dose enters the myocardium temporarily. an equilibrium occurs between myocardial thallium201 and that in the blood and other structures (e. requires only relatively moderately expensive equipment. When 24 .com A) B) C) D) 61. this small accumulation shows the heart in relief against the low surrounding background of lung activity. Patients have the freedom to die.yolasite. B) Pain and suffering can be controlled. After thallium-201 reaches its initial distribution. The procedures fall into 2 broad categories: those that show myocardial perfusion.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. etc). Passage III Cardiac radionuclide imaging is easily tolerated. skeletal muscles. thallium-201 rapidly leaves the vascular compartment and enters the cells in proportion to initial blood flow.

The exercise test usually is done on a conventional treadmill using the Bruce protocol or a similar exercise schedule.g. the sensitivity of planar thallium-201 imaging for significant CAD is 80 to 85% and its specificity is more than 90%. Compared with coronary angiography as the standard. If the original thallium-201 myocardial defect was caused by a nonviable scar. exercise is increased to at least 85% of the age-predicted maximum. Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? A) Patients who cannot exercise may be given dipyridamole. infarct) and in viable regions with reduced blood flow (e. and normal myocardium can be quantified. The resulting image thus appears similar to one following exercise. The patient continues at this level for an additional 30 to 60 seconds to allow for distribution of radioactivity under the influence of exercise-related blood flow patterns.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. This is the basis for detecting regions of exercise-induced ischemia by sequential thallium-201 studies. defects in the myocardial distribution will occur in nonviable areas (e. and thallium-201 chloride is injected. When thallium-201 imaging and stress ECG findings are coupled. Identification of the vessels responsible for the defects also is improved. which is valuable in determining prognosis. Imaging of thallium-201 injected 3 to 5 minutes after intravenously administered dipyridamole has a sensitivity for coronary artery disease (CAD) similar to that of exercise testing. the volume of infracted. the distribution will change.. Imaging of thallium-201 distribution may be done as a series of planar images using a conventional scintillation camera or as a tomographic reconstruction following acquisition by a rotating camera system.yolasite. the sensitivity for CAD increases to more than 90%. with most of the gain in the detection of inferior and posterior abnormalities that are not well visualized on planar images. using single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT). if it was an ischemic area. an ischemic zone distal to a hemodynamically significant coronary stenosis).com thallium-201 is injected into someone who is exercising. SPECT improves the sensitivity for CAD to at least 90%. ischemic. B) A disadvantage of cardiac radionuclide imaging is the considerable exposure to ionizing radiation. If no contraindications arise.g. This drug increases myocardial blood flow in normal coronary arteries but not in arteries distal to a stenosis. Subsequently. In addition.. the late image is likely to show disappearance or diminution of the initial defect. Thallium-201 imaging is more sensitive and specific than ECG stress testing. 64. However. after several hours with the patient at rest. it will appear unchanged. 25 . Oral dipyridamole also has been used but is less reliable because of variability in drug absorption. An alternative to exercise testing is the use of dipyridamole.

68. D) the patient is injected with thallium-201. III. To a certain extent. II. Which of the following statements are supported by the passage? I. injected with thallium-201. To a certain extent cardiac radionuclide imaging and ECG stress testing complement each other. scanned. cardiac radionuclide perfusion imaging. Cardiac radionuclide imaging requires a very heavy investment in equipment. III. III. then scanned again after resting. IV. D) supportive of the judicious use of cardiac radionuclide imaging. Oral dipyridamole is less reliable than intravenous dipyridamole. IV 66. then scanned again. 26 69. SPECT is more sensitive than planar imaging. which is detected by special cameras. Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? A) Thallium-201 is radioactive.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. Thallium-201 emits radiation. II. exercised. In performing cardiac perfusion studies. III I. B) the patient is scanned. scanned. exercised. then scanned again after resting. IV I. Cardiac radionuclide imaging consists of two broad subgroups: perfusion studies and ventriculography. B) Thallium-201 can be used for ventriculography. C) D) 65.yolasite. the passage implies that A) the patient is injected with thallium-201. IV I. coronary angiography and ECG stress testing could be considered substitutes for each other. injected with thallium-201. D) Thallium-201 is a cation. On the whole. C) not very knowledgeable about the subject. . II. exercised. 67. The concentration of thallium-201 may be the same in normal and ischemic myocardium when the patient is at rest. then scanned again. II. C) the patient is exercised. Which of the following statements are supported by the passage? I. B) indifferent about whether cardiac radionuclide imaging should be used or not. A) B) C) D) II. C) Thallium-201 can be used to assess the functional significance of coronary artery disease. the author seems to be A) against the use of cardiac radionuclide imaging.

three great themes underlie the story of oil. III. Among Hitler’s most important objectives in the invasion of the Soviet Union was the capture of the oil fields in the Caucasus. the battle for control of oil between international companies and developing countries was a major part of decolonization and emergent nationalism. Of the top twenty companies in the Fortune 500. IV I. seven are oil companies. II. IV I. IV A) B) C) D) Passage IV Though the modern history of oil begins in the latter half of the nineteenth century. II. and by the end of the war German and Japanese fuel tanks were empty. In particular. In the Cold War years. IV. III. SPECT is more specific than planar cardiac radionuclide imaging. smooth-talking promoters. But whatever the evolution of this new international 27 . World War I established the importance of petroleum when the internal combustion engine overtook the horse and the coal-powered locomotive. And oil was at the heart of the first post-Cold War crisis – Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait. II. contrarily. Until some alternative source of energy is found. III I. Regional struggles and ethnic rivalries may replace ideology as the focus of international and national conflict. But America’s predominance in oil proved decisive. it is the twentieth century that has been completely transformed by the advent of petroleum. a new world order is taking shape. catapulting states heretofore peripheral to international politics into positions of great wealth and influence. and domineering entrepreneurs to great corporate bureaucracies and state-owned companies embodies the twentieth-century evolution of business.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. Oil power loomed very large in the 1970s. The purpose of exercise in cardiac radionuclide imaging is to detect viable regions of myocardium with reduced blood flow. The Suez Crisis of 1956 was as much about oil as about anything else. The expansion of the business in the twentieth century encompassing everything from wildcat drillers. major price movements can fuel economic growth III. The Japanese attacked Pearl Harbor to protect their flank as they grabbed for the petroleum resources of the East Indies. The second theme is that of oil as a commodity intimately intertwined with national strategies and global politics. oil will still have far reaching effects on the global economy. With the end of the Cold War. and indeed of both national and international economies. The first is the rise and development of capitalism and modern business.yolasite. drive inflation and kick off recessions. of corporate strategy. Petroleum was central to the course of World War II. Oil is the world’s biggest and most pervasive business.

With the rise of the environmental movement. acid rain. Oil also became the basis of the great postwar suburbanization movement. the peoples of the developing world give no indication that they want to deny themselves the benefits of an oil-powered economy. oil. But just as the invention of the incandescent light bulb seemed to signal the obsolescence of kerosene. in the language of anthropologists. and ozone depletion. a new era opened with the development of the internal combustion engine powered by gasoline. John D. coal.yolasite. oil will remain the strategic commodity.” In its first decades. his suburban home. “Hydrocarbon Man. supplemented by natural gas.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. oil makes it possible to transport food to the totally non-selfsufficient megacities of the world. and natural gas . the stage has been set for one of the great and intractable clashes between the support for greater environmental protection and a commitment to economic growth.because of the resultant air pollution. mostly from the sale of kerosene. A third theme illuminates how we have become. and a new civilization was born. And any notion of scaling back the world’s consumption of oil will be influenced by the expected extraordinary population growth ahead. Also. 28 . Efforts are mounting around the world to curtail the combustion of all fossil fuels . the USA must import half of the oil it consumes. Oil also provides the plastics and chemicals that are the bricks and mortar of contemporary civilization. Rockefeller had become the richest man in the United States.oil. a precarious situation for a great power. Gasoline was then an almost useless by-product. Yet Hydrocarbon Man shows little inclination to give up his cars. In the meantime. Oil and natural gas are the essential components in the fertilizer on which world agriculture depends. the oil business provided an industrializing world with a product called kerosene. For most of the twentieth century. The oil industry had a new market. growing reliance on petroleum was almost universally celebrated as a symbol of human progress. and what he takes to be the essentials of his way of life. and the specter of climate change. the basic tenets of industrial society are being order. But no longer. toppled King Coal from his throne as the power source for the industrial world. Today. At the end of the nineteenth century. In the twentieth century.

C) discuss the role oil has had in the rising nationalism of former colonies. B) Man’s advanced understanding of the chemistry and uses of oil.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. D) J. If the world population explosion can be controlled.D. the horse and coal-powered locomotive were predominantly in use. Oil has been an important commodity throughout recorded history. III.” the author means A) our society’s daily life is pervaded by and dependent on oil. B) Before the internal combustion engine. D) discuss the impact oil has had in modern history. Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? A) Seven oil companies are part of the top twenty companies in the Fortune 70. Passage V 29 . the future environmental challenges anticipated can be more easily overcome. 74. A) B) C) D) I only I and II I and III I.yolasite. II and III 72. Which of the following is not described as a disadvantage of the oil industry? A) Environmental pollution B) The deterioration of inner cities C) Potential political instability D) Potential economic instability The main purpose of the passage is to A) discuss possible alternative energy sources. II. The USA’s position as a super power would be strengthened if it were less dependent on oil. 71. C) The USA imports a third of its oil supply. D) Man is chemically composed mainly of carbon and hydrogen. C) Man is a terrible polluter. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? I. Rockefeller became rich primarily from the sale of kerosene. By “Hydrocarbon Man. B) analyze the economics of oil. 73.

as was the case with the worst products of the neoclassical school. draw that attention on themselves which they should transmit to things. according to the usual interpretation of Wordsworth’s 1800 Preface to the Lyrical Ballads. The author of the passage demonstrates his ideas concerning Johnson mainly by A) contrasting Johnson’s critical methods with those of his contemporaries. Note. indeed. poetic diction should serve the ends of direct emotional impact and ease of comprehension. Johnson’s critical method has much in common with that of the Romantics. but its hopes and fears communicate no vibration to the heart. as is the willingness to jettison “laws” of criticism when to do so makes possible a more direct appeal to the emotions of the reader. and words to which we are nearly strangers. with whom Johnson and. In other ways. not those of false profundity or grandiosity. the natural. defeat the purpose of a poet. and delivers just and noble sentiments. we do not easily receive strong impressions. that envisioned by Johnson would do just the opposite: it would put the reader in closer contact with the things that are the poem’s subject.” is damned with faint praise by Johnson: “Cato affords a splendid exhibition of artificial and fictitious manners. vivid. His famous argument against the slavish following of the “three unities” of classical drama is a good example. for example. “will be readily allowed.yolasite. erects needless barriers between reader and meaning. For Johnson. in diction easy. highly praised in Johnson’s day for its “correctness.” Johnson wrote. but his reasons are all important. and the spontaneous in a work of literature. which. elevated. in particular. he would underscore the need for the telling rather than the merely accidental detail. “or too remote. Johnson was well aware. and the regulated to the Many readers assume that. Samuel Johnson would normally prefer the abstract.” he wrote. too. “Words too familiar.” If the poetic diction of the neoclassical poets. Yet any close reading of Johnson’s criticism shows that Johnson is not blind to the importance of the immediate. rather. he defends the use of a special diction for poetry. the empiricism it exemplifies is a vital quality of Johnson’s criticism. Addison’s Cato.” Wordsworth could hardly demur.” The sentiment thus expressed could easily be endorsed by any of the Romantics. the formal. but there is always an appeal from criticism to nature.” In his Life of Dryden. whenever they occur. or delightful images. was the central area of conflict between Romantic and Augustan. are generally supposed to be in conflict. it is true. Even on the question of poetic diction. 30 . From those sounds which we hear on small or on coarse occasions. C) alluding to contemporary comments concerning Johnson’s theories. B) citing specific illustrations drawn from Johnson’s work. the basis of that defense: “That this is a practice contrary to the rules of criticism. as is his defense of the supposedly illegitimate tragicomic mode of Shakespeare’s latest plays. 75. of the sterility of literary criticism that is legalistic or pedantic. at its worst. Johnson’s views are surprisingly “modern.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. as a neoclassical literary critic. the entire neoclassical tradition. specific detail in literature. and harmonious.

According to the passage. . 31 77. D) Although many of Johnson’s critical opinions resemble those of the Romantic critics. The passage implies that the neoclassical critics generally condemned A) Shakespeare’s use of the tragicomic literary mode. D) 76. B) the slavish following of the “three unities” in drama. Which one of the following statements best summarizes the main point of the passage? A) Although many of Johnson’s critical opinions resemble those of the neoclassical critics. C) ultimately negative. C) attempts to judge literary merit on the basis of correctness.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. C) The Romantic critics were mistaken in their belief that the critical ideas they formulated represented a departure from those propounded by Johnson.yolasite. C) was the primary neoclassical technique against which the Romantics rebelled. According to the passage. D) artificiality and abstraction in literary works. C) “Romantic” in their defense of the idea that a special diction for poetry could be stylistically effective. 79. B) The usual classification of Johnson as a member of the neoclassical school of criticism is based on an inaccurate evaluation of his critical theories and ideals. Johnson’s views concerning the use of a special diction in the writing of poetry were A) “modern” in their rejection of a clear-cut division between the diction of poetry and that of prose. his basic concerns are closer to those of the neoclassical critics. quoting Johnson’s remarks about the critical approaches prevalent in his own day. his basic concerns are closer to those of the Romantics. B) is the primary distinguishing mark of the neoclassical critic. D) characterizes examples of the worst neoclassical criticism. 80. D) “Modern” in their underlying concern for the impact of the literary work on the sensibility of the reader. The passage implies that the judging of literary works according to preconceived rules A) tends to lessen the effectiveness of much modern literary criticism. D) effusively adulatory. Johnson’s opinion of Addison’s Cato was A) roundly condemnatory. B) somewhat self-contradictory. B) “neoclassical” in their emphasis on the use of language with a direct emotional appeal for the reader.

There have been some good results from the PPS. but no major change in medical care quality has been clearly discernible. is autonomy in practice. The PPS has changed the way hospitals are reimbursed and the way hospitals and physicians think about the provision of care. on average. home care agencies. a variety of cost-containment strategies have been developed. Consequently. or it may consist of several diagnoses or procedures that. With the advent of managed care. If a hospital can find a way to reduce the costs and provide the care for less than the amount reimbursed by the PPS. all thirdparty payers in the state had to conform to the same prospectively determined rates. In an analysis of the social structure of medical care. DRGs were first developed to enable hospitals to look for cost “outliers. the medical care cost inflation rate is one of the highest in the world. state. there are now more and better data. If a hospital is inefficient and has higher than average costs for a hospital admission. Often. This system began to be used in the treatment of Medicare patients in 1983. and nursing homes. the medical care system has developed without strong direction from the local. including medicine. Each hospital admission is classified into a diagnosis-related group (DRG). Although there is no federal requirement that hospital payers other than Medicare use the DRG system for reimbursement. The full impact of the PPS on the quality of medical care has not been determined. yet approximately 15% of Americans still have no financial protection from the costs of medical care. have similar hospital costs per admission.yolasite. Two that are used extensively today in the USA are the prospective payment system (PPS) and managed care. There is evidence that some patients are being discharged sooner than desirable. early discharge merely passes the medical care problems (and therefore costs) down the line to the care institutions receiving the patients from the hospital: the home. also known as utilization management. and hospitals have a greater ability to find unnecessary costs.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.” For example. hospitals could analyze and identify those physicians who regularly generated greater than average costs for a given DRG. it will lose money on that admission. The per capita cost of medical care and the proportion of the gross domestic product used for medical care are higher in the USA than anywhere else in the world. When this happened. For example. it can retain the excess amount. A DRG may consist of a single diagnosis or procedure. The federal government decided to go further and use the DRG system to pay hospitals on the basis of a prospectively determined average cost for each of the DRGs. or federal governments. the trend appears to be away from 32 . The result is a confusing mix of ways in which services are organized and paid for. Moreover. Freidson claimed that the characteristic that uniquely defines the professions. several states requested and received federal permission to incorporate DRGs into their own prospectively determined rate-setting Passage VI In the USA.

the goal of which is to reduce the costs of medical care. None are correct. B) to control health care costs.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. If a patient is admitted through the emergency department. there will be no major. the uncertainty of its benefits. D) to make greater profits. or a combination of both. a single-payer system. I and II are correct. such as deciding which patients can be admitted to the hospital and how long they may remain there. C) to improve the quality of health care. II and III are correct. reduces the autonomy of physicians II. II. high-cost case management. In managed care. is a system of administrative controls III. in the immediate future. The current medical care system in the USA has many costly inefficiencies which may not be correctable without major changes. Managed care is a system of administrative controls. use of primary care physicians as gatekeepers (all referrals to specialists are required to be approved by the patient’s primary care practitioner). 81. the primary purpose of PPSs and managed care is A) to ensure more Americans have financial protection from health care costs. the length of stay is closely monitored. rapid change in the organization or financing of medical care in the USA. . Once a patient is in the hospital. this admission is reviewed the next day and if not approved by the third-party payer. then A) they would be in the same DRG. 33 83. Nevertheless. Other aspects of managed care include second opinions before elective surgery. and the patient may be forced to leave the hospital as soon as possible. seeks to better manage the utilization of health services A) B) C) D) 82. the possibly high initial costs of shifting to a new system. and the complex political compromises that would be required suggest that. Managed care I. If the costs of hospitalization for two medical different conditions are approximately the same. reimbursement may not be paid. such as national or regional health insurance.yolasite. hospitalizations will be reimbursed by a third-party payer only if the payer has approved the admission beforehand (pre-admission review and certification). and III are correct. benefit design. I. and the provision of financial incentives for physicians to practice economically. According to the physician autonomy in some aspects of medical practice.

Which of the following is supported by the passage? A) The PPS has resulted in a decrease in the quality of care. if their interest happens to be intense. one may ask: Why does the great and universal fame of classic authors continue? The answer is that the fame of classic authors is entirely independent of the majority. B) The PPS has helped stimulate the trend from inpatient care to outpatient care. they would be in different DRGs. B) can co-exist in the same health care system. they are not quite indifferent to it. C) necessarily occur together. Managed care and PPSs A) are mutually exclusive. But their interest in it is faint and perfunctory. C) DRGs are groups of diagnoses in which the same organs and organ systems are affected. and it is maintained. B) C) D) 84. by a passionate few. or.yolasite. and you will gather that they have utterly forgotten it. B) while PPSs endeavor to prevent unnecessary use of health services. In the face of this. 34 . C) Managed care and PPSs endeavor to prevent unnecessary use of health services. Ask the two hundred thousand persons whose enthusiasm made the vogue of a popular novel ten years ago what they think of that novel now. They do not entirely ignore it. Do you suppose that if the fame of Shakespeare depended on the man in the street it would survive for a fortnight? The fame of classic authors is originally made. PPSs endeavor to keep the cost of each hospital stay within reasonable bounds. they would be in the same DRG but in different subsections. D) are unique to the USA. 86. The passage indicates that A) while managed care endeavors to prevent unnecessary use of health services. they may or may not be in the same DRG. D) DRGs were first used for Medicaid patients. Passage VII The large majority of our fellow citizens care as much about literature as they care about archaeology or the program of the legislature. it is spasmodic. managed care endeavors to keep the cost of each hospital stay within reasonable bounds.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. D) Managed care and PPSs endeavor to keep the cost of each hospital stay within reasonable bounds.

is eternally curious and is therefore engaged in an eternal process of rediscovery. 87. D) The Indifferent Majority and the Fate of Literature According to the passage. has ever finally explained why he thought a book beautiful. 35 . Nobody. They kept on savoring him. A classic does not survive for any ethical reason. knowledge. B) truth to nature. And I shall never know. 88. It is all very well for Keats in his airy manner to assert that beauty is truth. especially the first and last. eager to renew the sensation of pleasure.yolasite. and talking about him. that at last the majority grew accustomed to the sound of his name and placidly agreed to the proposition that he was a genius. You may talk lightly about truth. C) ability to give pleasure. wisdom. It lives on because the minority. And in the case of an author who emerged into glory after his death. and they generally behaved with such eager zeal. and they were so authoritative and sure of themselves. this has been due solely to the obstinate perseverance of the few. The majority really did not care very much either way. I. It survives because it is a source of pleasure. humor. need to know a lot more. the most fundamental source of value in a work of literature is its A) evocation of beauty. and that is all he knows or needs to know. A classic is a work that gives pleasure to the minority that is intensely and permanently interested in literature. And what are the qualities of a book that give keen and lasting pleasure to the passionate few? This is a question so difficult that it has never yet been completely answered. not even a great critic like Hazlitt or Sainte-Beuve. They enjoy literature as some people enjoy beer. They find a keen and lasting pleasure in it. insight. for each of them has to be Even on those rare occasions when a first class author has enjoyed immense success during his lifetime. and beauty. truth beauty. for one. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage above? A) The Laws of Literary Greatness B) What Makes a Classic a Classic? C) The Sources of Shakespeare’s Reputation. The first-class author has always been reinforced by the ardor of the passionate few. but these comfortable words do not really carry you very far. What causes the passionate few to make such a fuss about literature? There can be only one reply. the majority has never appreciated him so sincerely as they have appreciated secondrate writers. D) adherence to aesthetic canons or rules. and buying him.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. It does not survive because it conforms to certain canons or rules.

D) closely akin to the aesthetic principles of Hazlitt and Sainte-Beuve. B) a work that unites truth and beauty in the Keatsian sense. C) the work of a “second-rate” writer. 36 . truth beauty” to be A) mysteriously apt. D) commercial.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. 89. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would probably consider the novel mentioned in the first paragraph as an example of A) the kind of classic work that attains genuine renown only after its author’s death. According to the passage.yolasite. D) the kind of book that is truly appreciated only by the passionate few. C) supportive. B) vague and inadequate. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers the aesthetic principle embodied in Keats’ assertion that “beauty is truth. the role of the majority in establishing certain literary works as classics is primarily A) antagonistic. 90. C) unorthodox but refreshingly simple. B) passive. 92. D) If an author is destined to attain classic status.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. 37 . IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. B) A book that the average reader can appreciate is one that is likely to be of lasting value. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A) A great work of literature embodies admirable moral as well as artistic qualities. CHECK YOUR WORK. STOP. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THE VERBAL REASONING TEST BOOKLET. C) Those who truly love literature share certain tastes. his worth is usually immediately obvious. though they cannot clearly define them.

each separately timed. 38 .yolasite. 93. Explain what you think the above statement means. 30 minutes per essay. Describe a specific situation when the press might be justified in attempting to influence the public’s opinion. Discuss what you think determines whether or not the press should attempt to influence public opinion. Essay Topic 2 Technology solves many problems. Explain what you think the above statement means.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. Essay Topic 1 The function of the press should be to report only the facts of daily events. 94. Discuss what you think determines when a technology’s benefits outweigh its potential problems. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. but in the process often creates new Writing Sample Time: 60 minutes total. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. not to influence the public’s opinion about those facts. Describe a specific situation in which a technology might not create a new problem.

Practice MCAT 4 39 .yolasite.

Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. After studying the passage. You should also select the one best answer to these independent questions. each preceded by a descriptive Biological Sciences Number of Items: 52 Time Allowed: 70 minutes DIRECTIONS: Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups.yolasite. 40 . A periodic table is provided and you may consult it whenever you wish.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. select the one best answer to each question.

9 51 Sb 121.1 38 Sr 87.9 25 Mn 54.9 28 Ni 58.6 56 Ba 137.0 16 S 32.9 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.0 39 Y 88.8 54 Xe 131.5 55 Cs 132.1 27 Co 58.0 17 Cl 35.3 21 Sc 45.2 83 Bi 209.8 8 O 16.5 23 V 50.0 31 Ga 69.1 32 Ge 72.9 4 Be 9.0 10 Ne 20.2 72 Hf 178.3 20 Ca 40.0 80 Hg 200.8 6 C 12.2 76 Os 190.0 19 K 39.0 15 P 31.9 57 La* 138.8 44 Ru 101.7 49 In 114.4 29 Cu 63.3 75 Re 186.0 84 Po (209) 85 At (210) 86 Rn (222) 87 Fr (223) 88 Ra (226) 89 Ac† (227) 104 Rf (261) 105 Db (262) 106 Sg (266) 107 Bh (264) 108 Hs (277) 109 Mt (268) 110 Ds (281) 111 Uuu (272) 112 Uub (261) 114 Uuq (289) 116 Uuh (289) * † 58 Ce 140 90 Th 232 59 Pr 140 91 Pa 231 60 Nd 144 92 U 238 61 Pm 144 93 Np 237 62 Sm 150 94 Pu 244 63 Eu 152 95 Am 243 64 Gd 157 96 Cm 247 65 Tb 158 97 Bk 247 66 Dy 162 98 Cf 251 67 Ho 164 99 Es 252 68 Er 167 100 Fm 257 69 Tm 168 101 Md 258 70 Yb 173 102 No 259 71 Lu 175 103 Lr 262 41 .4 5 B 10.6 50 Sn 118.2 77 Ir 192.9 45 Rh 102.6 81 Tl 204.1 37 Rb 85.9 53 I 126.0 42 Mo 95.0 52 Te 127.9 40 Zr 91.2 18 Ar 39.9 2 He Periodic Table of the Elements IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA VIIA 1 H 1.5 35 Br 79.9 36 Kr 83.yolasite.0 33 As 74.1 34 Se 79.6 9 F 17.0 14 Si 28.0 12 Mg 24.9 24 Cr 52.1 79 Au 197.0 3 Li 6.8 13 Al 27.2 82 Pb 207.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.9 73 Ta 180.9 43 Tc (98) 26 Fe 55.9 22 Ti 47.7 46 Pd 106.5 47 Ag 107.9 11 Na 23.2 78 Pt 195.9 74 W 183.7 7 N 14.9 41 Nb 92.

and convert vitamin D into its active form. and III are correct. D) an increase in plasma proteins. C) disease resulting in fewer functioning Biological Sciences Passage I The kidneys adjust loss of water and electrolytes from the body to keep body fluids constant in amount and composition. B) a narrowing in the renal artery. C) is regulated by antidiuretic hormone. The consumption of oxygen by the kidneys A) is greatest in the medulla. D) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. . I. B) remains constant as blood flow increases. I and II are correct. Which of the following is the least important in controlling the synthesis and secretion of aldosterone? 42 97. Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by A) a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure. 98. D) is proportional to the level of sodium transport. 99. II and III are correct. Renin A) causes loss of sodium and water from plasma. Which of the following substances are mostly reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule? I. amino acids IV. II. They excrete wastes and foreign substances.yolasite. C) converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. B) is secreted by the cells of the proximal tubule. urea A) B) C) D) 96. secrete the hormones erythropoietin and rennin into the blood. 95.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. All are correct. water II. glucose III.

the walls of the tubules are impermeable to NH4+ A) B) C) D) I and II are correct. II and III are correct. Ammonia is an effective urinary buffer because I. it has a low pKb (4. the carbonyl groups are often present as hemiacetals and acetals.yolasite. and III are correct. its production can be increased if necessary II. The stereochemical relationship of compounds (3) and (4) is that they are I. I and III are correct. enantiomers III. Below are the structures of some carbohydrates. Passage II Carbohydrates are polyhydroxyaldehydes or polyhydroxyketones.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. II.8) III. O H HO H O OH H OH OH O H H H O OH OH OH OH O H HO HO O OH H H OH O H H HO O OH OH H OH 1 2 3 4 101. The tubules (mainly proximal) of the nephron secrete ammonia into lumen to enhance the excretion of hydrogen ions. A) B) C) D) ACTH Angiotensin II Plasma sodium concentration Blood pressure 100. However. diastereomers II. in actuality. epimers A) B) C) D) III only I and II I and III II and III 43 .

com 102.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. If the (-) enantiomer of each compound is oxidized by bromine water to yield the corresponding dicarboxylic acid. which will still be optically active? A) 2 and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 4 44 .

B) oxidize the C-1 aldehyde to a carboxylic 103. Referring to the previous question. one must A) cyclize the chain by forming a hemiacetal with the C-4 hydroxyl and the C-1 aldehyde. Which of the following compounds will give a negative Benedict’s test? OH OH H H OH HO H OH H H O OH O H HO H HO OH H OH HO H OH H H OH H H CH3 OH O CH 3 O A) B) C) D) Questions 106 to 109 are independent of any passage and of each other. 106. when compound 1 is converted to a ribose. To convert these compounds to riboses (five-carbon sugars). D) reduce the C-5 carboxylic acid to an aldehyde. 104. C) reduce the C-5 carboxylic acid to an alcohol.yolasite. the cyclic hemiacetal it forms is HO H O OH HO OH H H HO O H H OH OH H OH H H OH H HO O OH H OH H HO H H O OH HO OH H H H A) B) C) D) 105.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. Which of the following RNA sequences would be transcribed if the sequence of the DNA coding strand were TATTGCATCAA? A) UAUUGCAUCAA B) AUAACGUAGUU C) TTGUTGCUUTU D) AUAAGCAUCAA 45 . 46 .Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

Passage III Single-gene defects may be autosomal or X-linked. C) purines. In humans. B) bile acids. which is carried out in a weakly basic solution? H3C + O H2C O OH O H3C CH3 H3C H3C CH2 H3C O O O CH3 A) B) C) D) 108. How would you produce m-bromonitrobenzene? A) m-bromonitrobenzene cannot be made with these materials.yolasite. D) prostaglandins. then brominate. You have at your disposal benzene. essential fatty acids are required for the synthesis of A) estrogen. D) Do either B or C. What is the main product of the following reaction. A specialist in medical genetics encounters the following cases. nitric acid. and sulfuric acid. B) Brominate the 107. bromine. and either dominant or recessive. 109. 47 . then nitrate. C) Nitrate the benzene.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

every affected person had at least one affected parent 2. nearly all affected persons were males 2. It shows a pattern of inheritance in which: 1. about the same number of males as females were affected. but half were carriers What type of inheritance is this likely to be? A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive 48 . who in turn also had normal offspring 3. What type of inheritance is this likely to be? A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive 111. all daughters of an affected male seemed to be carriers 3. A family history is obtained from a person affected with a suspected genetic disease. normal persons had normal offspring. none of the carrier 110. carrier females transmit the trait to half of their sons 2. Another patient has a family history in which: 1. all daughters of an affected male were affected 3. none of the sons of an affected male and unaffected female were affected What type of inheritance is this likely to be? A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive 113. Another patient has a family history in which: 1. the disease was equally distributed among the male and female offspring of affected females 2.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. Another patient has a family history in which: 1. daughters were affected. none of the sons of an affected male were affected What type of inheritance is this likely to be? A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive 112.

it is important to be able to purify substances so that they can be better studied or better 114. and chromatography. Common methods of separating substances are extraction. two of the offspring from two unaffected parents were affected.yolasite. To this is added an equal volume of 0. A mixture contains the three compounds shown in the table below. distillation. What type of inheritance is this likely to be? A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive Passage IV In various scientific pursuits.11 5.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.5 3 O 2N OH 3. two layers are formed: an aqueous layer and an ether layer. while the other six offspring were unaffected.01 M HCl(aq). After shaking. The layers are then separated. recrystalization.31 25. The mixture is dissolved in a small amount of ether.0 2 O 2N NH2 0. Solubility (g / 100 mL solvent) in H2O in ether 1 O 2N COOH 0. Another patient has a family history in which: 1. Which of the compounds will be found in the aqueous layer? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only 49 .02 106 115. males and females were equally affected 2.

two layers are formed.01 M NaOH(aq).com D) 2 and 3 116. which of the compounds will be found in the aqueous layer? A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 3 50 . To the ether layer is added an equal volume of 0. After separating them.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. Again.

Ten milliliters of aqueous acid of pH 3 are added. The best definition of an organism’s fitness in the evolutionary sense is its A) probable genetic contribution to future generations.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. the distribution constant is the ratio of the concentrations of a particular species between two solvents at equilibrium. In extractions. the residue is smaller. 120. C) chance of surviving to maturity.31 g. If the distribution constant for an organic acid (HA) between chloroform and water is 100. increasing the pH of the aqueous phase from 4 to 10 will have what effect on the quantity of HA in the chloroform phase? (Assume HA does not dissociate or dimerize in the chloroform phase. [HA]CHCl3 / [HA]H2O = 100. D) Toluene will be eluted first since it is less polar than aniline. A mixture of toluene (methyl benzene) and aniline (amino benzene) is subjected to liquid column chromatography with alumina (Al2O3) as the solid 117.) A) The quantity is reduced to less than half of what it was. What is the identity of the residue? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 118. C) The quantity is increased but is not more than double what it was.yolasite. This aqueous layer is evaporated to dryness leaving a solid residue of mass 0. and studying the fossil record. B) The quantity is reduced but remains more than half of what it was. After stirring. C) Aniline will be eluted first since it is more polar than toluene. B) Separation will not occur since the molecules are about the same size. B) ability to perform optimally in its environment. i. D) The quantity is more than double what it was. Which is most likely to occur? A) Toluene will be eluted first since it has a lower boiling point. and the dissociation constant of the acid in water is 10-5. D) reproductive health. 119.e. examining DNA. 51 . Evidence of the descent of separate species from a common ancestor can be found from various sources such as comparing anatomical structures. Passage V The theory of evolution maintains that all species came into existence by gradual and continuous changes from earlier forms.

125. 52 . this is called A) genetic drift. C) 121. 126. Random fluctuations in gene frequencies in small populations is called A) mutagenic disequilibrium.yolasite. B) genetic drift.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. If selection acts to remove one extreme in a distribution of phenotypes. B) natural selection. B) populations. 123. 124. D) heterogenesis. Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of a species? A) Sharing of a common gene pool B) Reproductive isolation from all other groups C) Ability to mate within the group D) A genetically distinct group of natural populations Questions 126 to 130 are independent of any passage and of each other. Which of the following conditions would not be susceptible to natural selection? A) A dominant allele in the homozygous condition B) A dominant allele in the heterozygous condition C) A recessive allele in the homozygous condition D) A recessive allele in the heterozygous condition 122. Removal of the adrenal glands would be expected to have all of the following consequences except A) poor mobilization and use of adipose tissue. D) directional selection. D) individual phenotypes. B) hyperglycemia. Selection acts upon A) species. C) selection. C) excessive loss of sodium in the urine. C) balancing selection. D) poor resistance to infection.

D) Baby 1 belongs to Couple X and Baby 2 belongs to Couple Y. An infrared absorption spectrum is obtained from a compound known to have a hydroxyl group and a carbonyl group. but Baby 2 could belong to either couple.620 cm-1 B) 7. A hospital has possibly switched the babies of couples X and Y. 129. D) testosterone. 130. Their blood types are as follows: Couple X: type A and type A Couple Y: type AB and type O Baby 1: type O Baby 2: type B. B) 127.560 cm-1 128. An important metabolic pathway in the catabolism of 53 . C) ACTH. Passage VI Reactions in living systems have basically the same mechanisms as those carried out in laboratories. Absorption due to hydroxyl group O-H bond stretching occurs at 3. To make reactions proceed more rapidly. these enzymes allow only specific reactions to occur and not numerous other possible reactions.yolasite. Which baby belongs to which couple? A) Both babies belong to Couple Y. Also.700 cm-1 D) 9. enzymes take the place of heat and inorganic catalysts.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. D) glucagon. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biosynthesis of all of the following except A) aldosterone. B) Baby 1 belongs to Couple Y and Baby 2 belongs to Couple X.200 cm-1 C) 1. Hyperglycemia can be induced by all of the following except A) thyroxine. C) endorphins. At what wavenumber would absorption due to C=O stretching likely occur at? A) 3.620 cm-1. C) Baby 1 belongs to Couple X. B) cortisol.

Tansaminations use pyridoxal phosphate.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. a derivative of vitamin B6. Part of this pathway is shown proteins is the transamination of amino acids.yolasite. as a cofactor. 54 .

Practice MCAT 4 PO 3 O 2- PO 3 O NH2 2- H N + + O OH step 1 R C H H N + CO 2 N OH R - COOH H3C H3C step 2 PO 3 O 2- PO 3 O CO 2 - 2- H N NH2 H3C OH + step 3 H N N H3C OH R CO 2 O R - step 4 PO 3 O 2- CO 2 N NH2 H3C OH + O R 55 .yolasite.

133. B) An amino acid is reduced to a β-keto acid. D) an aldol reaction. Pyridoxal phosphate has a net positive charge. 135. Which of the following is/are true? I. D) An amino acid is reduced to an α-keto acid. Step 2 involves A) hydration. C) decarboxylation. D) hydration. Step 4 involves A) condensation. C) An amino acid is oxidized to an α-keto acid. Pyridoxal phosphate has an ester linkage. Step 3 involves A) hydrolysis. 134. C) 131. D) deprotonation of an acid followed by bond rearrangements. A) Only III is true.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. II. What is likely to occur further along the pathway? 56 . D) I and III are true. Step 1 involves A) condensation. B) tautomerization. B) I and II are true.yolasite. 132. C) II and III are true. B) oxidation. 136. B) nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. III. D) an aldol reaction. This pathway actually carries on for many more steps. C) decarboxylation. 137. Pyridoxal phosphate has an aromatic ring. B) oxidation. C) phosphorylation. The overall effect of this pathway is that A) An amino acid is oxidized to a β-keto acid.

com A) B) C) D) Pyridoxal phosphate is regenerated Oxidative phosphorylation Substrate-level phosphorylation Glycolysis 57 .yolasite.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.

141. C) the mouth. D) the side that did not contain the blastopore was destined to become the placenta. 140.yolasite. C) the gastrula is very sensitive to disturbances. which folds over itself forming a buried tube called the neural tube. this becomes hollow and the structure is called a blastula. 138. In the mature frog. When a frog gastrula is cut in half. called the blastopore. Referring to the previous Passage VII Since frog embryos are easily available and easy to work with. When the dorsal lip of the blastopore is microsurgically transplanted into the blastocoele of another frog gastrula. D) the liver. The three layers are the ectoderm. B) the brain. the end of the neural tube farthest away from the blastopore will form the brain. This is because A) the transplanted dorsal lip induces a second gastrulation in addition to the first one. a siamese twin tadpole (joined at the belly) sometimes results. and endoderm. After fertilization of a frog egg. B) contradicted by the data. C) neither supported nor contradicted by the data. even agitation with a fine needle would produce the same result. the side containing the blastopore develops into a mature frog while the other side dies. B) the blastopore is necessary to induce proper development. Eventually. D) None of the above.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. The cells of the dorsal lip of the blastopore migrate into the blastopore forming a three-layered gastrula. The embryo at this stage is called a neurula. Gradually. D) the transplanted dorsal lip causes dedifferentiation and redevelopment of the cells around it. Following this is neurulation. 139. mesoderm. the hypothesis that cells within the blastocoele induce the transplanted dorsal lip cells to dedifferentiate is A) supported by the data. invaginates. The most plausible explanation is that A) cells lacking a distinct morphology are unimportant to development. an area on the blastula. 58 . During gastrulation. B) the transplanted dorsal lip carries different genetic information. the blastopore will have given rise to A) the anus. C) the side that did not contain the blastopore failed to undergo any determination. they are often used in studies of animal development. A thick plate of cells forms a ridge along the ectoderm. the zygote divides many times forming a ball of cells called a morula.

and who is capable of fathering children with blue eyes? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1/8 D) 1/16 145. B) neural crest cells are relatively undetermined when they leave the neural tube. In the neurula. 2 and 3. 3 and 4 1 and 3. 1 and 142. In an experiment. Schwann cells. and sensory neurons. 2 and 4 1 and 4. 2 and 3. neural crest cells eventually become detached. 1 and 4. 2 and 4 144. D) these four types of cells have the same basic structure. This indicates that A) neural crest cells are insensitive to induction. these cells were injected with a dye and their migrations were followed.yolasite. What is the probability they will have a son who has brown hair and brown eyes. The dye was later found in cartilage. 1 and 3. 143.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep. Which of the following molecules are diastereomers? COOH H H H3C NH2 OH H2N HO COOH H H CH3 H HO H3C COOH NH2 H H2N H H3C COOH H OH 1 A) B) C) D) 2 3 4 1 and 2. Physiologically-active thyroxine exists in which of the following forms? A) Bound to prealbumin B) Bound to albumin C) Bound to thyroxine-binding globulin 59 . C) these four types of cells have the same basic function. A woman who is heterozygous for brown eyes (blue is recessive) and heterozygous for brown hair (blond is recessive) marries a man who has blond hair and is heterozygous for brown eyes. adrenal glands. Questions 143 to 146 are independent of any passage and of each other.

yolasite.Practice MCAT 4 D) Unbound 60 .

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. What is the major product of the following reaction? H2C CH3 Cl Cl CH3 CH2 CH3 Cl CH3 H3C Cl Cl A) B) C) D) STOP.Practice MCAT 4 mcatprep.yolasite. CHECK YOUR WORK. END OF MCAT EXAM 61 . YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THE BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES TEST 146.