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Blood Banking Questions 1. The interval between blood donation is a. 6 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 3 months 2.

The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed a. 37C b. 37.5C c. 98.6F d. 98F 3. The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is a. 12.5 g/dl b. 13.0 g/dl c. 13.5 g/dl d. 4.0 g/dl 4. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors a. 36% b. 38% c. 41% d. 43% 5. Prospective donors who have malaria should be a. Permanently rejected b. Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment c. Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment d. Deferred for six months 6. Symnptom-free donors who have been immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptable after a period of a. 24 hours b. 2 days c. 2 weeks d. 24 days 7. An autologous blood donor must a. Be over 21 years old b. Be treated for bacterecimia c. Have at least an 11g/dl hemoglobin d. Be on oral iron therapy 8. Which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood? a. Plasma pH decreases b. Plasma K decreases c. Plasma NH3 increases

Dosage effect b. d. Never react at 20C d. Kell d. 6-10C d. 1-10C c. 16. All react at 4C c. 15. 1-6C d. React best at room temperature or 4C c. Kidd Select the incorrect statement below. 12. 4-6C Which blood group system was discovered first? a. Are usually IgG . ABO b. Inorganic phosphate increases What is the acceptable temperature range for blood bank refrigerator? a. MNS c. Antigenic determinant c. Which is expressed only in the homozygous state c. Prozone Antibodies a. With a variable effect Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is referred to as a. 11. Do not usually cross the placenta d. the blood temperature must be kept between a. Rh An amorph is a gene a. 13. Rh c. 1-6 C b. Which is expressed in the heterozygous state b. Naturally occurring antibodies a. With no observable effect d. React best in saline b. 1-10C c. P d. That react at 37C are considered the most dangerous clinically Naturally occurring antibodies are found regularly in which system a. 32-37C If blood is to be transoported.9. 2-8C b. All react at 37C b. 10. ABO b. 14. Independent segregation d.

The frequency of a group A individuals in the united states is a. greater reactivity when a greater number of cells are used c. 9% c. Dolichos biflorus 20. Anti-A1 b. Which of the following blood groups react most strongly with anti-H a. O d.17. B c. Anti-A is a seed extract from a. Anti-B d. Have anti-A in their sera c. Who proposed a numerical Rh nomenclature? a. stronger reactions with homozygous cells than heterozygous cells d. 4% b. Intermuscular injection of blood b. Which of the following blood groups will not be agglutinated by anti-A. What reagent is made from the seeds of the plant dolichos biflorus a. Arachis hypogea d. Have neither anti-A nor anti-B in their sera d. Vicla graminea c. Group B individuals a. B 24.A. O 23. 41% d. Anti-H 25. repeated blood transfusions d. Fisher and race . the dosage effect means a.B typing serum a. A1 c. 46% 21. Have A antigens on their red cells b. AB d. all of the above 18. Have –B in their sera 22. AB b. greater reactivity when more serum is used b.B c. Anti. reaction with heterozygous cells only 19. Ulex europaeus b. pregnancy c. A b. Immune antibodies may be produced by a.

R2R2 cells Anti-hr” will react with a. 30. r1r cells antgi –E will react with a. Wiener Which of the following is true of Du? a. R1R1 c.26. rr cells b. R2r d. Ror cells d. DuCe/dce b. Dce/dce Anti-C will not react with a. R1R2 cells b. Du is a weak variant of the Rho (D) antigen) c. Rr cells b. R2R2 cells d. Landsteiner c. R1r cells c. b. Duce/dce c. Du is common in Caucasians A Du of the gene interaction variety would have the following genotyope a. Rr Anti-hr1 will not react with= a. 31. R2R2 cells Anti-c can eb formed by persons wioth the genotype a. CE . 32. Ce b. R1R1 cells c. Du cells should be considered Rho(D) negative when used as donor blood d. 29. R1r1 cells c. R1R1 cells d. 27. Rr cells d. DuCe/dCe d. 33. R1R1 cells c. R1R2 b. RzRz cells The f antigen refers to a. 28. Rosenfield d. Du cannot be inherioted b. R2ry cells b. cE c.

Found on al cord cells b. Room temperature b. Rh In the duffy blood group system. such as anti-P1. 35. P d. Anti-Lewis The system compose of antigens found primarily in saliva nad plasma is a. Anti-I is opften the causative antibody in case of CHAD9Cold hemagglutinin disease) b. Coombs phase d. anti-M and anti-Lea . 37C c. however. Anti-Lea b. 38. Fya genes are dominate Which of these is an acquired antibody a. ce the symbol for the Bombay blood group is a. OH c. 37. 36. Anti-I agglutinins are usually clinically insignificant. Fyb are dominate c. A rare antigen d. OPh b. Anti-A b. Absent on all cord cells c. Anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the sera of normal individuals d. Anti-N The antigen I is a. Lewis c. Ho d. All of these Select the incorrect statement a. Fya genes are recessive b. Anti-H d.34. which of the following is true? a. d. 39. 40. Not found in Blacks Anti-I is usually best detected in which crossmatch phase a. Anti-B c. 41. Lutheran b. Anti-I reacts best with cord cells c. HO All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serumk of a Bombay genotype a. Anti-I d. they may mask more significant antibodies. Fya and Fyb genes are codominate d. Anti-Jka c.

Anti-K is also known as a. 68% 47. Approximately what percentage of females are Xga negative? . 36% c. CAN BE PRODUCED BY Le9a-b+) individuals\ b. Kidd d. What is the grequency of the Fy (a-b-)blacks a. Is commonly implicated in HDN c. Anti-Cellano 46. What percentage of the population lacks the kell antigen? a. The antigen Tja is part of which system a. 0. 22% d. Anti-Lea a. 90% 44. Select the incorrect statement: a. 1% b. 88% 50. Anti-K can cause HDN d. Approximastely what percentage of males are Xga positive? a.02% b. 12% b. Viral hepatitis 48. Is present in 15 of the population d. Anti-K1 b. 10% d. Malaria c. 64% d. 2% c. Anti-K reacts best in salie at room temperature c. Next to Rho(D). Anti-Mcleod c.42. Recent findings suggest there is an association between the Fy (a-b-) phenotype and resistance to a. MNS c. Syphilis d. Rh b. P 49. 90% of the population is kell negative b. the Kell antigen is the most immunogenic 45. CGD (chronic granulomatous disease b. Does not react with pretreated enzyme cells 43. Anti-Ku d. 9% c.

Distilled water Which of the following enzyme is not uysed in blood bank procedures a. 12% b. 53. 57. Is obtained from group a2B individuals d. 55. a. 54. Yellow d. Blue c. 52. 58. Yellow b. Is used to confirm group O individuals b. Kidd system b. Black Wjhat is the standard acceptable color for anti-a grouping serum a. Green d. b serum a.green b. blue c. Yellow What is the color of the dye added to commercially oprepared anti-B blood grouping serum a.51. Elution . Serum c. Papain Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the a. Ios obtained from A1B individuals c. Group A is a. Blue. Saline b. Duffy system c. Agglutinates cells of all group O indivudlas Which of the following is not suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking a. Lewis system d. Red d. None of the above Anti-a. Albumin d. Absorption b. Amylase c. Bromelin d. 56. Colorless c. 36% c. 64% d. 88% When color-coding is used for donor blood labels. Pink b. Rh system The technic used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called a. Ficin b.

All of the above A patient that forward groups as an AB but reverse groups as group B probably is a group A2B with a. Rh Forward grouping is a. 61. Using known red cell antigens to detect unkown antibodies b. 32c d. 62. P c. PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglubinuria) d. MNS b. Anti-B d. 63. K antigen Paroxysmal cold hemoglubinuria (PCH) is often associated with antibodies of which system a. Geriatric patients c. e antigen c.59. CGD (cnronic granulomatous disease) b. Anti-A1 b. 64. Translocation The Donath-Landsteiner test is associated with a. PRV (polycythenia rubra vera) A cold agglutinatinin will usually have specificity for the a. Lewis d. 4c b. 60. Titer d. c. 65. Using anti-A. Newborn infants b. PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria) c. 37c Antiglobulin reagent a. Is produced in laboratory animals b. 25c c. Using known serum antibodies to detect unknown antigens c. B to confirm group O d. Using anti-A1 to detect subgroups Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances: a. Patients undergoing chemotherapy d. I antigen d. 66. Anti-D The most dangerous antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at a. Anti-A2 c. Is produced in human beings c. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies . D antigen b.

IgG and C4 b. 70. In the presence of a negative primary reaction. 72. Patient cells b. 5-10 minutes at 37C d. Diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn b. Inadequate washing d. IgG and C3D The direct antiglobulin test is most useful for a. and agglutination after addition of the check cells. a poly specific anti-human serum contains at least antibodies to a. Patient serum was added c. Patient serum c. 68. Occurs naturally in most human beings He direct antiglobulin test (DAT) using polyspecific coombs sera is not of value in a. IgG. Bacterial contamination of test cells c.67. 15-30 minutes at 25C b. 15-60 minutes at 37C c. d. IgG and IgM c. Test cells being direct Coombs positive b. you are testing a. 73. Detection of unexpected antibodies In a direct antiglobulin test. Extreme reticulocytosis A false negative antioglobulin test can be caused by a. Diagnossi of HDN b. 74. Overcentrifugation Laboratories must now check each negative antiglobulin test by adding washed cells previously coated with antibody. Prozone reaction c. Differentiation of cell surface coating (complement or IgG) By common usage. Patient cells against donor serum d. 15-60 minutes at 56C A false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by a. Leukopagglutinin assays d. Active antiglobulin serum was added b. Diagnosis of haemolytic transfusion reactions c. Patient serum against donor cells An indirect antioglobulin test is incubated for a. Inadequate washing b. 69. AgA and C3D d. Washing phase was performed satisfactorily . 71. Elution due to delayed washing d. which of the following is not necessarily true? a. Compatibility testing c. Diagnosis of drug-induced haemolytic anemia d.

A clerical error d. Detected leukocyte antibodies in recipient serum All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of a crossmatch a. Anti-M d. d. Detects antibodies in donor serum that react with recipient cells b. Detects leukocytes antibodies in donor serum d. 80. Anti-Le(a) c. An ABO grouping error b. Anti-Kell b. 77. Which of the following is the most common reason for mixed field agglutination? a. Anti-JKa b. Anti-Fya c. Twin chimeras b. A incomplete antibody If a group O blood is crossmatched for a group B recipient a. Weak subgroups of A or B d. 76. one should suspect a. Anti-cellano If a recipient is incompatible with only one donor. 82. 78. Detect antibodies in recipient serum that react with donor cells c. Chelating agents b. Asntigen strength altered disease states The minor crossmatch a. Autoantibodies Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cells among many free cells. Antiglobulin serum has not reacted with the original red cells being tested Fresh serum (less than 2 days old) must be used for compatibility testing to preserve a. The most likely antibody is a. 81. A recipient antibody to a low incidence antigen c. Complement d. Anti-Fya c. 79. Antui-Jka d. Transfused cells mingling with patient cells c. None of the above One of the eight units crossmatched is incompatible in the antiglobulin phase of testing. The major crossmatch will be incompatible . Sialic acid c. Anti-Kidd b. Anti-D d.75. Anti-P1 Which of the following antibodies is inactivated opr destroyed by enzyme treatment? a.

84. 88. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible c. 90. The major crosssmatch will be incompatible b. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible d. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible c. No reaction providing the unit otherwise compatible d. The patient’s having a fatal hemoluytic transfusion reaction c. Haemophilia A b. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia d. b.83. 21 c. 87. AO b. 86. BO c. and is crossmatched with a D-negative donor a. Supplying deficient coagulation factors b. 85. Von Willebrand’s disease c. The opatient’s producing anti-A If a patient has anti-D in his serum. White cell antibodies The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotyopes? a. Thrombocytopenia c. Anti-HLA antibodies b. 4 b. 24 d. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible Platelet concentrates are often used to treat patients with a. The patient’s producing anti –A2 b. Hypofibrinogenemia Red blood cells are the product of choice for a. Red cell antibodies d. Platelet antibodies c. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be compatible Transfusion of a Group A1 patient with the red cells of a group A2 donor will result in a. Increasing oxygen carrying capacity Deglycerolyzed frozen red blood cells must be transfused within how many hours? a. OO . 72 Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following except a. Multiple myeloma Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not used to treat a. Acute massive blood loss c. Exchange transfusion d. Haemophilia B d. HDN b. 89.

Group AB c. 94. The patient is group B with an acquired A-like antigen d. R1R0 c. 95. what is the most probable genotype a. rr d. a.B + Anti – A1 O Give the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the forward and reverse groupings: a. cde/cde c. CDe/CDe b. 93. D+C+E+c+e+. what is the most probable genotype? a. R0R2 . The cells and serum of a neonate were tested at room temperature. D+C+E-c+e+. None of the above Patient cells with: Patients serum with Anti-A + A1 cells + Anti-B + B cells O Anti-A. cDE/cDE d. Group B b. 96. R1r” c. R1r Given the reactions. R2R2 b. The patient is group A1B with an autoantibody b. Patient cells with: ANTI-A Anti-B O + Patient serum with: A1 cells B cells O O 92. R1r d. The patient is group A2B with anti-H The wiener genotype R2R2 is equivalent to a. R1R2 Given the reactions. R1R2 b. R2r d. The patient is group A2B with anti-A1 c.d. R1R1 b. A2O 91. cdE/cdE What is the most common genotype that could result from the phenotype D+C-E+c+e-? a. Group O d. R1R1 c.

what is the mostlikely genotype? a. R1R0 d. the mother possesses an antigen the father alcks d. cdE/cde 101. Anti-M d. Which of the following genotype is impossible? a. what is the most likely genotype? a. and anti-hr”. R0r’ 100.97. R1R0 d. antirh’. R0r’ 99. Cde/cde c. If red blood cells give positive reactions when tested with an Rh. R1R2 c. when red cells are positive when tested with anti-c and anti-e and negative when tested with anti-D. Using the information given in the previousquestion. none of the above 103. RoRo d. r’r’ 102. When severe HDN is due to an unidentified antibody a. Anti-C b. R1R1 98. R2R2 b. and a negative reaction with anti-rh”. anti-hr’. No blood is acceptable for transfusion b. anti-C and anti-E. the mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses c. R1R2 c. If cells are positive when tested with anti-D. haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) casn occur when a. Anti-Jsa 104. R’r c. R2r’ d. O negative cells with AB plasma should be used for transfusion c. R1r1 c. Anti-Lea c. Which is the most common of the Rh0(D) negative genotypes? a. what is the genotype? a. cde/cde b. and negative when tested with an anti-e and anti-c. what antibody is most likely to be involved in haemolytic disease of the newborn? a. The mother’s red cells maybe used for transfusion . R1r b. Rr b. R1r b. the infant lacks an antigen the mother possesses b. anti C and anti-e. Cde/CdE d.

which would be impossible in the offspring? a. A1 b. In a case of HDN. Kell c. A2B c. BO d. In the phenotype mating A2B X O. A2 c. A b. A1 b. P d. O d. A 108. O 111. In the phenotype mating O x O. which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a. B c. In cases of ABO haemolytic disease of the newborn. A2B 109. A2B c. AB 107. BB b. A2B c. the infants blood group genotype is a. O d. when the mother is group O and the baby is group A. A1 b. Group AB b. None of the above 105. A1A2 b. An A1B mother and an A2O father could not produce which of the following genotypes? a. red cells for an exchange transfusion should be what group? a. A1B 112. B d. the mother is usually which of these a. Which of the following blood groups has not bee reported to cause HDN? a. which of the following is possible in the offspring? a. Group O c.d. B 110. If the mother is group O and the infant is group B. B d. Rh b. If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A2B. AO . RhO (D) negative d. Duffy 106.

How many units will you crossmatch? a. AB and OO d. Given a mother of group O and An infant of group B. AO and BB 115. Approximately what percentage of donor blood is compatible with a patient who has anti-JKa a. You must find two units of compatible blood for a patient who has anti-JKa. 80% 118. CDe/cDE b. Anti-E b. 20 . 5 b. it would be possible for him to form which of the following antibodies? a. CDe/cde d. 40% c. BO d. approximately what percent of donor blood tested would be compatible? a. Anti-Ce c. B c. cde/cde c. 15% c. Paternity could not be ruled out 114. If an R2R2 patient is transfused with r1R1 blood. AB b. If a group AB is mated with a group O. which of the following is impossible in the offspring? a. Anti-ce d.c. AB 113. 20% d. AO and BO b. 25% b. 75% d. the following genotypes will result a. Anti-c 117. CDe/cdE 116. which of the following blood groups would eliminate paternity? a. 2% b. If a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e(hr”). AA and BB c. 90% 119. In the mating of the R1rx R2r genotypes. 10 c. O d.

Crossmatching b. 30% c. Thawing frozen cells 124. LISS c. 2 of 3 units d. 2% b. Anti-Lea 121. Albumin d. approximately what percentage of donor blood tested will be compatible? a. select the approximate number of compatible units: a. Weak agglutination with anti-A typing serum is to be expected with which blood group(S) a. Is found in all A2B patients d. Is occasionally found in A2 patients c. Anti-e b. A1 b. Anti-A1 agglutinin a. Is found in group B group O patients 126. 70% d. Preparing elautes c. Anti-cellano d. A1B c.d. A 56C water bath is commonly used for a. Anti-c c. 1 of 10 units c. 50 120. Enzymes 125. Isotonic saline b. According to statistics. Is found in group A1 patients b. If a patient with anti-e needs a blood transfusion. A . 98% 122.134 may have more than one correct answer 123. 1 of 4 units b. It should be easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with a. Inactivating sera d. A blood bank has 10 units of O Rh0 (D) positive blood from random donors. Testing media for antigen antibody reactions include a. Patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1. 3 of 4 units Questions 123.

Anti-N f. AB 127. Positive HBsAg b. In the very acute phase opf hepatitis. Is obtained from A2B individuals c. Ant-JKa e. Are acquired from transfusion or pregnancy d. Rh antibodies a. What is the expiration date (in days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate-phospatedextrose-adenine (CPDA-1) a. A2A2 c. A1O d. A3B c. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C b. 40 . Positive HBeAg c. Is obtained from A1B individuals b. 24 c. The phenotype A1 can result from which of these genotypes? a. Anti-A. 21 b. Anti-S 130. The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype(s) a. Anti-Lea d. Can cross the placenta 129.B serum a. BO 131. which of the following would be indicative of the onset of a viremic state? a. 35 d. Confirm group O individuals 128. Positive anti-HBc d. Is obtained from group O individuals d. Anti-K c.d. BB d. A1B 132. Anti-P1 b. Anti-HAV 133. Are frequently noted to be cold agglutinins c. Which of the following are naturally occurring a. A1B b. AO e. A1A2 b. A2O e.

134. a. low ionic strength solution (LISS) causes an increase in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells causes a decrease in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells usually consist of phosphate saline and glycine enhances the rate and sensitivity of antigen-antibody reactions . d. b. c.