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Cut Off for various Exams Polity Material for SSC exams
1) FCI Assistant cut-off is expected to be around 90-95. 2) The result of Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner(APFC) conducted by UPSC on 23 rd September 2012 is expected to come out in 1st week of January. The expected cut-off is 65-70. The result will be out on upsc.gov.in

Indian Polity

1. Idea for a Constituent Assembly for drafting a constitution for India was first provided by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1895. Tw eet 0 Like 0
0 Add a comment 2. The elections for the first Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Initially it had 389 members, but later the reformed Assembly had 324 members.

Posted 30th December 2012 by punit ranjan

3. The State of Hyderabad did not participate in elections to the Constituent Assembly.
DEC

Bank Related G.K. (important for Clerk and PO Interview)


4. The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946 its president was Dr Sachidanand Sinha.

21

BANKING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE


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Dynamic View s template. Pow ered by Blogger. Name: 5. The second meeting was held on December 11, 1946. Its president Batch: was Dr Rajendra Prasad. Time: 45 mins 1. On the recommendation of which committee was NABARD established? (a) Shivraman (b) Rangarajan (c) Malegam (d) Vijay Kelkar

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2. Swabhiman, the financial inclusion scheme, comes under the purview of which ministry? (a) Ministry of Commerce (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of Finance (d) Ministry of External Affairs 3. RBI was established on ___________. (a) April 1, 1925 (c) April 1, 1945

(b) April 1, 1935 (d) April 1, 1955

4. The one-rupee note bears the signature of____________. (a) RBI Governor (b) Deputy Governor (c) Finance Secretary (d) Finance Minister 5. Which among the following does the RBI not decide? (a) CAR (b) CRR Rate (d) Bank Rate 6. What does T in RTGS stand for? (a) Transaction (b) Transfer (c) Tax

(c) Base

(d) Time

7. In banking, IFSC code stands for_________________.


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(a) International Format System Code (b) Indian Function System Code (c) International Forex System Code (d) Indian Financial System Code 8. If a customer does not get a satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within _____ days, then he can approach the Banking Ombudsman. (a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 30 (d) 15

9. Which of the following organizations is the Mutual Fund Market regulator? (a) AMFI (b) SEBI (c) CIBIL (d) CRISIL 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding RTGS system? (a) The transactions take place in real time (b) The system operates on DNS (Deferred Net Settlement) basis (c) The minimum amount that can be remitted is Rs. 2 lakh (d) Service charges for RTGS transactions vary from one bank to another 11. Banks have recently launched a service through which money can be transferred using mobile phones. This service is known as (a) MMTF (Mobile Money Transfer Facility) (b) MTMT (Mobile To Mobile Transfer) (c) IMPS (Inter Bank Mobile Payment Service) (d) IBMPS (Internet Banking Mobile Payment Service) 12. Which among the following is at times mentioned as a kind of Direct Debit Facility?
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12. Which among the following is at times mentioned as a kind of Direct Debit Facility? (a) ECS (b) RTGS (c) IMPS (d) UTR 13. The discounting rate at which RBI borrows government securities from commercial banks is known as (a) Repo Rate (b) Reverse Repo (c) Deposit Rate (d) Base Rate 14. Which among the following is an instrument of monetary policy used by the RBI? (a) Base Rate (b) PLR (c) CRR (d) BPLR 15. Which among the following statements is incorrect in the context of IMPS? (a) Its a mobile-to-mobile fund transfer facility (b) For this facility we need a GPS-enabled mobile phone (c) Both the sender and the receiver must have an account in the same bank (d) Both the customers must have an MMID (Mobile Money Identifier Number) number 16. ________is the organization that maintains the borrowers history in India. (a) CRISIL (b) CIBIL (c) CARE (d) RBI 17. RBI has directed commercial banks to resolve ATM transaction-related complaints within seven working days. If a commercial bank is unable to do so then it has to pay Rs.________per day as compensation. (a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 225 18. RTGS as well as NEFT uses: (a) UTR Number (b) MICR (c) IFSC

(d) DNS

19. Which of the following statement is incorrect about SEBI?


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(a) SEBI is a capital market regulator (b) SEBI is the mutual fund regulator (c) SEBI also regulates the credit rating agencies in India (d) None of them is wrong 20. What does liquidity mean? (a) It means how cash is converted into gold (b) It means how cheaply and quickly an asset is converted into cash (c) It means how cash is converted into SDR (Special Drawing Rights) (d) It means how uncertain the money market conditions are 21. SWIFT is a commonly used acronym in the banking industry. The I in SWIFT stands for_____________. (a) Interbank (b) International (c) Intercom (d) Indian 22. What does the term Open Market Operations refer to? (a) Selling of equities in the open market (b) Selling of commodities in the open market (c) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market (d) Buying and selling of products in the wholesale market 23. Under which act does RBI issue directives to banks? (a) PMLA Act, 2002 (b) RBI Act, 1934 (c) DICGC Act, 1961 (d) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
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24. Which committee recommended the change in the base year of the Wholesale Price Index? (a) Narsimhan committee (b) Vijay Kelkar committee (c) Srikrishna committee (d) Abhijit Sen committee 25. ____________is the base year of the New Consumer Price Index Series. (a) 2009 (b) 2008 (c) 2006 (d) 2010 26. __________________isnt a method of measurement of National Income. (a) Value-added method (b) Income method (c) Investment method (d) Expenditure method 27. With which among the following countries has India signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)? (a) Japan (b) Singapore (c) Malaysia (d) France 28. In India, the commercial banks are required to provide_______% of their ANBC (Adjusted Net Bank Credit) to priority sector. (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 40

29. What does FSDC stand for? (a) Financial Security and Development Council (b) Financial Stability and Development Council
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(c) Fiscal Security and Development Council (d) Fiscal Stability and Development Council 30. ___________________has been declared the first total banking state in India, successfully implementing the total financial inclusion thereby ensuring banking facility to all households. (a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand 31. Since April 1, 2012__________has become the validity of cheques and bank drafts. (a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months (d) 6 months 32. On what basis is Ad Valorem Tax levied? (a) Volume (b) Value (c) Imports (d) Exports 33. RBI is coming up with the concept of____________to protect banks against possible harmful effects arising from the operations of their non-banking financial subsidiaries. (a) Financial Holding Company (b) Bank Holding Company (c) Bureau of Credit Union (d) Financial Institutions Audit Cell 34. RBI has introduced Marginal Standing Facility with the objective of: (a) Controlling Inflation (b) Containing instability in long term inter-bank rates (c) Containing instability in the overnight inter-bank rates
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(d) All of the above 35. _____________are the beneficiaries of the Reverse Mortgage Scheme. (a) Government employees (b) Senior citizens (c) Unemployed persons (d) Persons of BPL category 36. RBI was nationalized in the year (a) 1949 (b) 1952 (c) 1955 (d) 1964 37. Which of the following is/are associated with the fiscal policy? 1. Marginal Standing Facility 2. Devaluation of Currency 3. Market Stabilization Scheme (a) 1 & 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 & 3 (d) Only 2 38. When was Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) started in India? (a)1990 (b)1996 (c)1992 (d)1998 39. National income of India is estimated by (a) NCAER (c) Central Statistical Office

(b) Ministry of Statistics (d) Ministry of Finance

40. What is understood by Fiduciary Issue of currency? (a) The issue of currency notes without keeping gold or silver as deposit (b) The issue of currency notes keeping gold or silver as deposit (c) The issue of currency notes with partial gold or silver deposits (d) The issue of currency notes with comparative gold or silver deposits 41. _____________is the percentage of total deposits of a bank which it has to keep
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with itself in the form of liquid assets. (a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (c) Statutory Reserve Ratio

(b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (d) Cash Ratio

42. The exchange rate in India is dependent upon: 1. Government policy 2. Demandsupply forces 3. Monetary policy objectives (a) Only 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1 & 2 (d) 1, 2 & 3 43. Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) is a/an ________. (a) Money Market Instrument (b) Instrument of Monetary Policy (c) Type of Risk Cover (d) Stock Market Instrument 44. Often, we read in newspapers that the RBI has changed the Repo rate and the Reverse Repo rate by a few basis points. What is a basis point? (a) Ten % of one hundredth point (b) One hundredth of 1% (c) One tenth of 1% (d) Ten % of 100 45. Banks generally dont pay interest on money deposited in which of the following accounts? (a) Savings account (b) Current account (c) Fixed deposit account (d) None of these 46. Fiat Money is defined as the money which is (a) Accepted internationally (b) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold (c) Issued by keeping gold or silver as deposit (d) Decreed as money by the government
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47. Demand-pull inflation can be caused by which of the following? (a) A decline in consumption expenditure (b) A sharp increase in lending rates (c) A steep decline in income tax (d) An increase in direct taxation 48. For obtaining which among the following does a customer not require a bank account? (a) A loan (b) A cheque (c) A bankers draft (d) A credit card 49. RBI isnt expected to perform the role of (a) Acting as a clearing house (b) Working as a banker to the government (c) Managing forex (d) Accepting deposits from general public 50. For paying which among the following will a bank standing order be suitable? (a) Telephone bills (b) Electricity bills (c) Grocery bills (d) Mortgage repayments 51. A bank draft can be defined as a/an (a) Letter from commercial bank (b) Cheque drawn on the bank itself (c) Direction to a banker to collect a customers debt (d) Instruction to dishonour a stop payment 52. When RBI sells government securities, its result is that
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(a) The liquidity in the banking system increases (b) The liquidity in the banking system remains unchanged (c) The liquidity in the banking system gets diminished (d) None of the above 53. It has been made mandatory for NBFCs to get themselves registered with before July 8, 1997. (a) RBI (b) SEBI (c) Ministry of Finance (d) CBDT 54. Which of the following is not an instrument in the hands of the RBI to check inflation in our country? (a) Open Market Operations (OMO) (b) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) (c) Bank Rate (BR) (d) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

55. In India, which among the following is/are a part of Legal Tender Money? (a) Both coins and currency notes (b) Both coins and bank drafts (c) Both currency notes and SDRs (d) Only currency notes issued by RBI 56. __________has become the first state in India to launch RBIs e- payment system for commercial tax payers. (a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra 57. In which among the following types occurs the Interest Rate Risk? (a) Credit risk (b) Market risk
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(c) Operational risk

(d) All the above

58. Which among the following is true regarding Forex (Foreign Exchange) markets? (a) Foreign exchange markets are a type of localized markets (b) Foreign exchange markets operate within the time zone of region (c) Foreign exchange markets are dynamic and round-the-clock markets (d) Foreign exchange markets are used only for business transactions 59. Securities Trading Corporation of India Limited (STCI) has been promoted jointly by __________and Public sector Banks. (a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) SIDBI (d) ICICI Ltd 60. ____________is an agreement under which an issuing bank at the request of the importer undertakes to make payment to the exporter against certain specified documents. (a) Bill of exchange (b) Letter of exchange (c) Letter of credit (d) Bill of entry 61. ____________is the duty applied by a government to control the exports of an article of trade, so that the article of trade can be used by the local markets rather than in foreign countries. (a) Customs duty (b) Excise duty (c) Anti-dumping duty (d) Dumping duty 62. ____________________finalizes the market-borrowing programmes of state governments in India. (a) State governments (b) RBI (c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Planning Commission

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63. Which among the following is not incorrect? (a) Money market provides long term source of finance (b) Recession in the industrial sector in India is normally due to a fall in exports (c) Ways and means advances given by RBI are nowhere related to the states revenue (d) Exchange rate is fixed by RBI 64. We have read in the newspapers that the Government of India has signed a DTAA to broaden the scope of article of exchange of information to include exchange of banking information. What does DTAA stand for? (a) Double taxation article agreement (b) Double taxation avoidance agreement (c) Double taxation avoidance arrangements (d) Dual tax agreement arrangement 65. Which of the statements mentioned below is/are correct? 1. T-bills are issued by the Government of India on behalf of the RBI 2. T-bills are short-term money market instruments 3. T-bills cannot be purchased by a resident of India (a) All are correct (b) 2 & 3 are correct (c) Only 2 is correct (d) Only 3 is correct 66. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (a) Reverse Repurchase operation by RBI is aimed at increasing the liquidity in the banking system (b) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are issued by IMF (c) Rupee appreciation results in decrease in imports (d) Increase in the inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate
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67. What purpose does the MICR number, which is present on a cheque, serve? (a) It is used to identify the genuineness of the cheque (b) It is used to identify the bank branch (c) It is nothing but a type of cheque number (d) Both (a) and (b) 68. In TRIPS, what does I stand for? (a) Intellectual (b) Information (c) Indian (d) Infra 69. Insurance companies use the bank sales channels to sell their products. Which of the following terms describes this selling process? (a) Scheduled banking (b) Scheduled Insurance (c) Bankinsuring (d) Bancassurance

70. Which of the following acts is useful in controlling HAWALA transactions? (a) FEMA Act (b) RBI Act (c) DICGC Act (d) Banking Regulation Act 71. What does the term SME stand for? (a) Small and Micro Enterprises (b) Small and Medium Enterprises (c) State and Medium Economy (d) Small and Medium Economy 72. CAMELS is a type of Bank Rating System. In CAMELS, what does C stand for? (a) Currency (b) Compensation (c) Capital Adequacy (d) Capitalization 73. A Eurobond is
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(a) A bond released in a currency of the European countries (b) A bond released in an Indian currency in European nations (c) A bond released in Euro in our country (d) A bond released in a currency other than the currency of the country in which it is issued 74. In banking parlance, NPA stands for (a) Non Performing Asset (b) Net Producing Asset (c) Net Performing Asset (d) Not Promoting Asset 75. LAF is an indirect instrument of monetary policy, which is used by \RBI to regulate the liquidity in banking system. LAF stands for: (a) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (b) Liquidity Account Facility (c) Liquidity Allotment Facility (d) Long Adjustment Facility 76. On the basis of which commission was RBI established? (a) Hilton Young Commission (b) British Commission (c) Federal Commission (d) Federation Commission 77. Life insurance and general insurance companies like LIC, ICICI Prudential, ICICI Lombard, and National Insurance etc. are regulated by which organization? (a) RBI (b) PFRDA (c) IRDA (d) IBA 78. Bank rate is defined as the (a) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers (b) Rate of interest at which RBI lends money to banks against government securities (c) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits (d) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of
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Commercial Banks

79. An IDR (Indian Depository Receipt) is (a) An instrument of monetary policy used by RBI (b) A deposit account with a depository in India (c) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company (d) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by an Indian depository 80. Fiscal deficit is_______ (a) total income less government borrowing (b) total payments less total receipts (c) total payments less capital receipts (d) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing 81. _____________are NOT a part of the Scheduled Banking structure in India. (a) Money lenders (b) Public sector banks (c) Private sector banks (d) Regional rural banks 82. MAT is an acronym which stands for (a) Maximum Alternate Tax (b) Minimum Alternate Tax (c) Minimum Affordable Tax (d) Maximum Affordable Tax 83. Often, we read in the newspapers that several Indian companies are taking the FCCB route to raise capital. What does the term FCCB stand for? (a) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond (b) Foreign Convertible Credit Bond
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(c) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau (d) Future Credit and Currency Bureau 84. Which of the following interest rates signifies RBIs long term stance of monetary policy? (a) Repo Rate (b) CRR (c) Bank Rate (d) Reserve Repo Rate 85. As per RBI instructions, places having a population of 2000 and above have to be provided with banking facilities by (a) March 2011 (b) March 2012 (c) March 2013 (d) March 2015 86. ________________was the main objective of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. (a) Achieving fiscal surplus (b) Eliminating revenue deficit (c) Eliminating fiscal deficit (d) Stopping money laundering 87. DEPB (Duty Entitled Passbook) scheme which ended in September 2011 was related to (a) Foreign direct investment (b) Foreign institutional investment (c) Export promotion (d) Import substitution 88. Recently, the Ministry of commerce has introduced a new Niryat Bandhu scheme for the guidance and mentoring of first generation entrepreneurs. Who are the Niryat Bandhus? (a) Entrepreneurs (b) Officers (c) Agents (d) Export assistants 89. In capital markets, the term arbitrage is used in reference to the (a) purchase of securities to cover the sale (b) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase (c) concomitant sale and purchase of securities to make profits from price
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(d) variation in different markets 90. If RBI wants to limit the capital outflows and control currency depreciation, which of the following would be the most viable action? (a) Increase interest rates (b) Decrease interest rates (c) Purchase government bonds (d) Decrease statutory liquidity ratio 91. The buying of shares and bonds of Indian firms by foreign institutional investors is known as (a) FDI (b) Portfolio investment (c) NRI investment (d) Foreign indirect investment 92. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) is a comprehensive and in-depth analysis of a countrys financial sector. Which among the following bodies conducts this programme? (a) International Monetary Fund (b) G-20 (c) World Economic Forum (d) World Bank 93. The ability of commercial banks to increase their deposits by expanding their loans and advances is known as (a) Capital expansion (b) Credit expansion (c) Credit control (d) Credit creation 94. Which among the below mentioned is/are dealt by the Indian Capital Market? 1. Short-term funds 2. Medium-term funds 3. Long-term funds (a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3 95. Net Interest Income is defined as the
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(a) Interest earned on advances (b) Interest earned on investments (c) Total interest earned on advances on advances and investment (d) Difference between interest earned and interest paid 96. KYC (Know Your Customer) norms were implemented in the Indian banking system in 2002 as per the directive of (a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) IBA (d) IRDA 97. ___________ has got RBIs nod to issue prepaid card to its clients. (a) LIC (b) SIDBI (c) NABARD (d) GIC 98. If there is an inflationary trend in the economy, what would be the trend in the pricing of banking services? (a) Increasing trend (b) Decreasing trend (c) Constant trend (d) There is no relevance of inflation in pricing of the banking products 99. The SBI (Amendment) Bill-2010, which was passed by the parliament, reduces the statutory minimum shareholding of the Central Government in the bank from _______% to ______ %. Which among the following figures fills the blanks correctly? (a) 59, 52 (b) 55, 51 (c) 59, 55 (d) 62, 51 100. Inflation happens when there are (a) fewer goods and more buyers (b) more goods and fewer buyers (c) fewer goods and fewer buyers (d) more goods and more buyers

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Posted 21st December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Revised SSC CGL

21

Scheme of Combined Graduate Level Examination.


The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in its report on Refurbishing of Public Administration Scaling of New Heights had made recommendations to restructure the examinations of the Staff Selection Commission with a view to reducing the recruitment cycle to one year. The Commission had constituted an Expert Group in July 2009 under the Chairmanship of the then Director, Indian Institute of Public Administration, with members drawn from the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, IIM, Ahmedabad, IIT, Delhi and the National Productivity Council and an internationally acclaimed expert on testing and assessment, to study the recommendations of the 2nd ARC and to recommend restructuring of the Commissions examinations and interviews. Detailed Notes, placed by the Chairman, SSC, were studied and recommendations made by the Expert Group by and large on the lines of notes of the Commission. The recommendations of the Expert Group were examined by the Commission and most of its recommendations were accepted for implementation in a phased manner.2. The Commissions periodical proposals on Restructuring the Combined

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Graduate Level, Combined Higher Secondary Level, Stenographers Gr.C&D and Multi Tasking Staff (NT) Examinations, based on the recommendations of the Expert Group, have been accepted by the Government. The Restructured Combined Graduate Level Examination with the following Scheme has been in vogue for three years and has greatly facilitated in reducing the recruitment cycle - from Notification of the Examination to Final Results to one year, despite the increased number of applications and also the fact that the Scheme envisages four stages for the post of Assistant in CSS, three stages for other interview posts, three stages for the post of Tax Assistant in CBEC and CBDT and two stages for other non-interview posts. Scheme of the Examination Different Tiers of existing Scheme of Examination for Combined Graduate Level Examination are as follows: Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type) Tier -II -Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type) Tier -III -- Personality Test /Interview/Computer Proficiency Test or Skill Test (wherever applicable).

There is negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I.In Tier-II, there is negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and III and 0.50 marks in Paper-I for each wrong answer. Candidates are advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

The Restructured Examination, which tests the native intelligence of the candidates with reduced emphasis on mere reproduction from memory, has elicited appreciation from user departments, who now get the 4. The Commission has been undertaking post-examination analysis based on valid and sound statistical principles since 2011. Action taken by the Commission in cancellation of candidature sometimes even after
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selection-based on post examination analysis has been questioned in a few cases. There has also been a suggestion from a user department, the Department of Personnel & Training, which recruits Assistants in CSS out of the Combined Graduate Level Examination, for re-introduction of descriptive papers, despite its rejection in the report of the 2nd ARC, on account of time taken for examination and lack of consistency, objectivity, and accuracy in evaluation. 5. While the restructured scheme of Combined Graduate Level Examination has proved itself in the last three examinations, the Commission has been considering, for some time now, incorporation of a mechanism, without prolonging the recruitment cycle and without any drastic modification of the existing scheme, to ensure that only bonafide candidates finally qualify in the examination and those taking recourse to mal-practices in examination, which has become possible with modern communication technology are screened. This will also obviate the need for detailed posts-examination analysis and wasting scarce human and financial resources in fighting litigation. 6. It has, therefore, been decided by the Commission that the candidates qualifying in Tier-II of the Examination, for Computer Proficiency Test and Interview for posts of Assistant in CSS, Interview for other Interview posts, Data Entry Skill Test for posts of Tax Assistant and document verification for other non-interview posts, will be subjected to a short descriptive paper of not more than one hours duration, with questions drawn from English Language and Comprehension, Quantitative Abilities and General Awareness. If adequate infrastructure with reliable real time connectivity is available, at least in the Regional Headquarters and Lucknow, the Commission will at its option, change this to an online examination. The examination will be qualifying in nature and will not be taken into account for determining the position of the candidates in merit order. This is expected to screen those candidates who might have been able to take
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advantage of unfair means in Tier-I and II examinations. The proposed short descriptive papers/online test will not only screen but deter those candidates who intend to use unfair means in examination. 7. As the number of candidates qualifying for the final stage will be in the range of 25,000 to 35,000 and also in view of the fact that Interviews/Computer Skill Test/Data Entry Skill Test take about 8 to 10 weeks, the evaluation of the additional qualifying paper, even if it is not administered online and is of descriptive type, is not expected to lead to lengthening of the recruitment cycle beyond the present one year. Analysis of performance of the candidates in the qualifying examination and other papers will also be facilitated due to very small number of candidates qualifying for the final stage. 8. The Commissions decision is now placed on its website for the information of the public, in particular candidates intending to apply for the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2013, which is scheduled to be notified on 19th January, 2013. ****

Posted 21st December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Recent Sarkari Vacancy


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Recent Sarkari Vacancy


20
Sarkari Vacancies for now are: Engineering/ Science Related Vacancies

1) RITES walk-in for Civil Engineers in Kolkata on 12th Jan 2013. Click Here for more details 2) Scientist, Senior Scientist, Senior Technical Officer in CSIR-Structural Engineering Research Centre. Last Date : 31/01/2013 Click Here for more details 3) Chemical Engineers in Hindustan Newsprint Limited Click Here for more details 4) Junior Research Fellowship in Physics and Biophysical Science in Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics. Last Date : 31/12/2013 Click Here for more details 5) Asst. Engg Post in LIC. Last Date :14/01/2013. Click Here for more details 6) Junior Engg Uttrakhand PWD on conrtact.Last Date :06/01/2013. Click Here for more details 7) Scientist/ Engineer in AndhraPradesh Remote Sensing Application Centre. Last Date :27/01/2013 Click Here for more details. 8) Agriculture Research Service Examination 2012. Last Date :18/12/2012. Click Here for more details
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9) Executive Trainee Power Grid (Electrical) through GATE. Last Date :08/02/2013. Click Here for more details 10) Executive Trainee GAIL India Ltd. through GATE. Last Date :15/01/2013 Click Here for more details 11) Graduate Engg HPCL through Gate . Last Date :14/02/2013. Click Here for more details 12) Mechanical Engineer BPCL through Gate .Last Date :09/02/2013. Click Here for more details 13) Non-Teaching Scientific posts in NISER (National Institute of science Education and Research). Last Date :11/01/2013. Click Here for more details 14)Recruitment in CSIR through CASE (Combined Administrative Service Examination). Last Date : 31/12/2012. Click Here for details 15) Managment Trainee in Mecon through GATE. Last Date : 14/02/2013 Click Here for more details 16) Managment Trainee in Container Cooperation of India through GATE. Last Date : Jan 2013 Click Here for more details 17) Graduate Engineer in NALCO through GATE. Last Date: 31/01/2013 Click Here for more details 18) Engineer Trainee in BHEL through GATE. Last Date : Jan 2013 Click Here for more details
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19) Assistant Executived Engineer in DDA through GATE. Last Date: 14/02/2013 Click Here for more details 20) Probationary Engineer in BEL through GATE. Last Date : 14/02/2013 Click Here for more details 21) Engineer Trainee and Officer Trainee in MECL through GATE. Last Date : 31/01 2013 Click Here for more details 22) Engineer Officer and Assistant Officer Trainee in Indian Oil through GATE. Last Date : 31/01 2013 Click Here for more details 23) Graduate Engineer Officer and Assistant Officer Trainee in Indian Oil through GATE. Last Date : 19/01/2013 Click Here for more details 24) Executive Trainee Engineer in NTPC through GATE. Last Date : 31/12/2012 Click Here for more details 25) Executive Trainee Electrical Engineer in Power Grid through GATE. Last Date : 08/02/2013 Click Here for more details 26) Stipendery Trainee BARC. Last Date:01/01/2013. Click Here for more details

Bank/Insurance Related Vacancies 1) Gurgaon Gramin Bank JMG Scale 1 and Office Assistant. Last Date :02/01/2013 Click Here for more details
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2) Central Bank Single Window Operator. CWE(Clerical Cadre) IBPS 2011-2012 Last Date :07/01/2013 Click Here for more details 2) Chartered Accountants Bank of Maharashtra.Last Date:29/12/2013 Click Here for more details 3) Officer and Office Assistants in Shreyas Gramin Bank. Last Date :22/12/2012 Click Here for more details 4) Officer and Office Assistants in Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank. Last Date :26/12/2012 Click Here for more details 5) Apprentice Development Officer LIC. Last Date:22/12/2012 Click Here for more details 6) Assistant Manager Baroda UP Grameen Bank through IBPS (RRB). Last Date :02/01/2013 Click Here for more details

SSC Related Vacancies 1) SSC- Recruitment of constables in CRPF and Rifleman in Assam Rifle. Last Date:11/01/2013 Click Here for more details 2) SSC- Eastern Region, Kolkata. Last Date :24/12/2012
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Click Here for more details 3) SSC- North Western Region, Chandigadh. Last Date :28/12/2012 Click Here for more details

UPSC Notification and vacancies 1) National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy Examination (1),2013. Last Date :21/01/2013. Click Here for more details

Defence/ Army Related Vacancies 1) Appointment of Ex-Serviceman in Banglore Metro Rail Corporation. Last Date: 30/01/2012 Click Here for more details 2) Multi Tasking Staff (MTS), Naval Armament Depot, Vishakapatnam. Details in Page 42 Employment News 22-28 Dec 2012 3) Sailors for Artificer Apprentice (AA). Last Date : 06/01/2013 Click Here for more details 4) Applications invited for Air Force Common Admission Test(AFCAT). Last Date : 08/01/2013. Click Here for more details
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Click Here for more details 5) Indian Army Religious Teacher. Last Date :12/01/2013. Click Here for more details 6) Various jobs in Bharat Dynamics Ltd. Last Date :02/02/2013. Click Here for more details 7) Posts in Defence Research and Defence Organisation on Deputation Basis. Details in Page 28 Employment News 15-20 Dec 2012

Railway Vacancies 1) Centralised Notification for Recruitment of Sports Person in South Eastern Railway. Last Date :21/01/2013 Click here for more details 2) Sports Quota in Carriageband Wagon Workshop, Eastern Railway, Liluah. Click here for more details

Miscellaneous Vacancies 1) Company Secretary cum Finance Officer and Accounts Officer 'Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd.' Click Here for more details

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2) Walk-in-Interview for Research Associate in 'Indian Veterinary Research Institute '. Details in Page 9 Employment News 22-228 Dec 2012 3) 200 Post Doctoral Fellowships for SC/ST Candidates by UGC Click Here for more details 4) Junior Hindi Translator, CSIR- National Institute of Oceanography, Dona Paula, Goa Last Date: 28/01/2013 Click Here for more Details

Posted 20th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Top IAS Coaching institutes in Delhi


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Top IAS Coaching institutes in Delhi

1) Vajiram & Ravi Website : http://www.vajiramandravi.com/

2) Dhyeya IAS Website: http://www.dhyeyaias.com/

3) CHANAKYA IAS ACADEMY Website: http://www.chanakyaiasacademy.com/

4) Raus IAS Website : http://www.rauias.com/eligibility.php 5) ALS Website: http://www.iasals.com/

Posted 19th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

CWE held on 15.12.2012 in clerical grade cancelled


IBPS has cancelled CWE in clerical gradeheld on 15.12.2012. For more information please visit IBPS officials site Posted 19th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Why Government Jobs?


Why Government Jobs? Earlier the economic slow down was a decadal affair. But now-a-days every 2-3 years we come across an economic slow down threatening jobs of millions. Over last 5 years we have seen 2 such slow downs firstly due to housing bubble burst in USA and latter one due to liquidity crunch in European countries. India is sustained by IT sector which boast to serve various clients across the globe. However, this necessarily means that any bubble that bursts anywhere in this world threatens the employment situation in our country. Various studies have shown that there is an increased tendency of psychological disorder in youths of India. The growing opportunities in various cities has led youths to leave their traditional

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family support structure in small towns. In cities great challenges awaits these youths. Corporate jobs with its 'hire and fire ethics' keep them on their toes round the year. Most of them also gets entrapped into the nets of EMI payments. With EMI payment staring at their face every month and continuous possibility of a job loss which may make EMI payment more difficult, many people gets carried away to the heights of despondency and frustration. Government jobs in India provides stability to individuals. The Conclusion that the people who donot want to work hard aspires for government jobs is no more valid. In private sectors even hard working people's jobs are threatened with an onset of economic slow down. This is where government sector provides independence from continous fear. With the emergence of private sector, public sector has modified its working ethics to exist in the newly found competition. Best example of this is the change in working pattern of PSU Banks. They have also become target oriented but at the same time employees there are not under perennial tension of a job loss. With good and ever increasing professional environment and good pay scale (Thanks to 6th pay commission, now employees in govt sector are better paid than their friends in private sectors) government jobs are the jobs to look for in India.

Posted 19th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Top coaching institutes for banking and SSC Exams in Delhi


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T o p Ba n k in g a n d S S C Co a c h in g in stitu te s in De lh i 1 ) Ba n k P o we r We b site : www.bankpower.in 2) Banking Services Chronicle (BSC) We b site : www.bsccareer.com 3) Edu Mentor We b site : www.edumentor.co.in 4) Sachdeva New P.T. College We b site : www.sachdevacollege.com 5) Tara Institute We b site : www.tarainstitute.in 6) Institute of Management Education(T.I.M.E.) We b site : www.time4education.com
Posted 18th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

Polity Material for SSC exams

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Indian Polity
1. Idea for a Constituent Assembly for drafting a constitution for India was first provided by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1895. 2. The elections for the first Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Initially it had 389 members, but later the reformed Assembly had 324 members. 3. The State of Hyderabad did not participate in elections to the Constituent Assembly. 4. The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946 its president was Dr Sachidanand Sinha. 5. The second meeting was held on December 11, 1946. Its president was Dr Rajendra Prasad. 6. The Objectives Resolution was passed under chairmanship of J.L. Nehru.
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7. The Draft of Indian Constitution was presented in October 1947. President of the Drafting Committee was Bhim Rao Ambedkar. 8. The Flag Committee worked under J.B. Kripalani. 9. The total time consumed to prepare the draft was 2 years, 11 months, 18 days . Total 11 were held for this. meetings

10. The Indian Constitution was enacted on November 26, 1946 and put into force on January 26, 1950. 11. The Constitution today has 444 Articles and 12 schedules . Originally there were 395 Articles and 8 schedules. 12. SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITYthese words were added to the Preamble later, through the 42nd Amendment, 1976. 13. The Preamble contains aims and objectives of our Constitution. 14. Fundament Rights are contained in Part III called Magna Carta of the Constitution. The idea was borrowed from USA. Initially there were 7 fundamental rights, now there are only 6. (The Right to Property was deleted by the 44th amendment in 1978. It is now a judicial rightit has been moved to Article 300(A).)

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15. The Supreme Court judgement in Keshwanand Bharti vs Kerala case provided that Fundamental Rights can be altered by the Parliament as long as the basic structure of the Constitution remains intact.

16. The Minerva Mills case ruling of the Supreme Court, however, ruled that Fundamental rights are basic part of the Constitution. The power to alter them was snatched away. 17. Fundamental Right of Equality provides for: Equality in government jobs (Article 16). No discriminations (Article 15). No untouchability (Article 17). Abolition of titles (Article 18).

18. The important freedoms granted are a. Against exploitation (Article 23).
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b. Against child labour (Article 24). 19. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under Article 32. Dr Ambedkar has called this article as soul of the Constitution. 20. The Constitution provides that High Courts and the Supreme Court can issue various writs (written orders) to safeguard freedom of an individual. There are five types of writs:
1. Habeas Corpus may I have the bodyit orders to present reasons as well as physical presence of

a body in court, within 24 hours of arrest.


2. Mandamus issued to person, office or courtto enforce dutiesalso called Param Aadesh. 3. Prohibitionissued to inferior courts, by superior courtsit prohibits (stops) action of acts outside

their jurisdiction.
4. Quo Warrantoit asks how one has gained unauthorized office. 5. Certiorari Higher Court takes over case from lower courts.

20. Directive Principles of State Policy act as guidelines or morals for the government. 21. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution. They were borrowed from Ireland. 22. Some important directive principles are:
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Gram Panchayats (Article 40). Uniform Civil Code (Article 44). Free and Compulsory Education (Article 45).

23. Fundamental duties are contained in part IV (A). There are 11 fundamental duties listed in the Constitution. This idea was borrowed from Russia. 24. The Vice President is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. However, he is not a member of any House. 25. If a member is found sitting in another House of Parliament, of which he is not a member, he has to pay a fine of Rs 500. 26. Rajya Sabha has 250 members 238 elected and 12 nominated by the President. Uttar Pradesh elects maximum number of members for the Rajya Sabha (34), followed by har (22) and Maharashtra (19). 27. In one year time, the President must hold at least two meetings of the Rajya Sabha.
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28. If a state of Emergency is declared, the Lok Sabha is dissolved, but not the Rajya Sabha (It is a permanent House). 29. Lok Sabha has 547 members 545 elected and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian Community. 30. During a state of emergency, the tenure of Lok Sabha can be extended by a maximum of one year. 31. Minimum age for becoming member of Lok Sabha is 25 years and Rajya Sabha is 30 years. 32. Minimum age to be eligible for the post of the President is 35 years. 33. The President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies. 34. The Vice President is elected by all members of the Parliament. 35. To discuss an important topic, the normal procedure of the Parliament is stopped under the Adjournment motion. 36. Decision about whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is taken by the Lok Sabha Speaker. 37. The first High Courts in India were established at Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras, in 1862. Allahabad and Delhi were established next in 1866.
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38. Maximum age to remain a High Court judge is 62 years and maximum age to remain a Supreme Court judge is 65 years. 39. The process for removal of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is same as that of judges of the Supreme Court.

40. Attorney General is the law expert to government. He can participate and speak in both Houses of Parliament, but is not allowed to vote. 41. The idea of having a Lokpal to check corruption at the highest level has been borrowed from Ombudsman of Sweden. In the States, we have the Lokayukta. 42. There are three types of Emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. Emergency under Article 352due to war or internal rebellion. (Implemented three times (1962, 71, 75).) Emergency under Article 356Constitutional problems. (Implemented many times, in various States like J&K, Punjab, etc.) Emergency under Article 360Financial Emergency. (Not implemented so far).
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43. The Constitution initially recognized 14 National Languages. Later, four more were added. These were: Sindhi (21st amendment), Nepali, Konkani and Manipuri (71st amendment). 44. To gain the status of a National Party, a political party must be recognized in four or more States, attaining at least 4% votes on national scale and 9% in each State. 45. The flag of the Congress party was accepted as the National Flag (with few changes) on July 22, 1947. 46. The new Flag Code of India gives freedom to individuals to hoist the flag on all days, but with due respect to the flag. 47. The Question hour in the Parliament is observed from 11 am to 12 noon. The Zero hour is observed from 12:00 noon to 1:00 pm. 48. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested a three-tier structure for Panchayati Raj- Gram Panchayat village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Zila Parishad in districts. 49. First Constitutional Amendment1951; put a ban on propagating ideas to harm friendly relations with foreign countries. 50. Planning Commission is only an advisory and specialist body. Its chairman is the Prime Minister. It is neither a statutory nor a constitutional body.
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51. National Development Council is the main body concerned with the actual planning process. Its chairman is also the Prime Minister. 52. The first leader of the Opposition was Ram Subhag Singh, in 1969. 53. The shortest Lok Sabha span was 13 days (12th Lok Sabha in 1998).

54. Although the Parliament can pass impeachment motion against judges, their conduct cannot be discussed by it. 55. There are at present 18 High Courts in India. 56. Article 370 gives special status to Jammu & Kashmir. 57. The Indian Constitution was the first of the preceding two centuries which was not imposed by an imperial power, but was made by the people themselves, through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 58. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is not enforceable in a court of law. It states the objects which the Constitution seeks to establish.
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59. The Indian Constitution endows the Judiciary with power of declaring a law as unconstitutional if it is beyond the competence of the Legislature according to the distribution of powers provided by the constitution, or if it is in contravention of the fundamental rights or of any other mandatory provision, e.g. Articles 286, 299, 301 and 304. 60. As part of the integration of various Indian States into the Dominion of India a three-fold process of integration, known as the Patel Scheme, was implemented. 61. 216 States were merged into the respective Provinces, geographically contiguous to them. These merged States were included in the territories of the States in Part B in the First Schedule of the Constitution. The process of merger started with the merger of Orissa and Chhattisgarh States with the then province of Orissa, on January 1, 1948. The last instance was merger of Cooch-Behar with West Bengal in January 1950. 62. 61 States were converted into Centrally-administered areas and included in Part C of the First Schedule. 63. The third form was consolidation of groups of States into new viable units, known as Union of States. The first Union formed was the Saurashtra Union on February 15, 1948. The last one was Union of Travancore-Cochin on July 1, 1949. As many as 275 States were integrated into five UnionsMadhya Bharat, Patiala and East Punjab States Union, Rajasthan, Saurashtra and Travancore-Cochin. These were included in Part B of the First Schedule. Besides, Hyderabad, J&K and Mysore were also included in Part B. 64. At the time of accession to the Dominion of India, the States had acceded only on three subjects
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(Defense, Foreign Affairs and Communications ). Later, revised Instruments of Accession were signed by which all States acceded in respect of all matters included in Union and Concurrent Lists, except only those relating to taxation.

65. The process of integration culminated in the Constitution (7th Amendment) Act, 1956, which abolished Part B States as a class and included all the States in Part A and B in one list.

Posted 18th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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DEC

APFC Result
Hi Students, The result of Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner(APFC) conducted by UPSC on 23 rd September 2012 is expected to come out in 1st week of January. The expected cut-off is 65-70. The result will be out on upsc.gov.in Thanks Team

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I want Sarkari Naukari Posted 18th December 2012 by punit ranjan

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