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433 INVESTMENTS Classes 6: The CAPM and APT Part 1: Theory

Spring 2003

Introduction

So far, we took the expected return of risky asset as given. But where does expected return come from? Using the intuition that investors are risk averse, one explanation is that the risk premium - expected return in excess of the riskfree rate - is a reward for bearing risk. Does this make sense? The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) provides a simple, yet elegant framework for us to think about the question of reward and risk.

you’d make a lot of money in Las Vegas. since this uncertainty can be mitigated through appropriate diversiﬁcation.the type of risk that cannot be diversiﬁed away. investors are only rewarded for bearing systematic risk . There’s got to be some economics behind it or else the world is a very crazy place. one of the originators of the CAPM. They should not be rewarded for bearing idiosyncratic risk. . I don’t think diﬀerently about those basic ideas at all”. Otherwise. in an interview with the Dow Jones Asset Manager: ”But the fundamental idea remains that there’s no reason to expect reward just for bearing risk. If there’s reward for risk. Sharpe on CAPM Bill Sharpe.”The CAPM ” In market equilibrium. it’s got to be special.Sharpe (1998) .

perfectly divisible • No short-sale constraints • Same riskfree rate for borrowing and lending 2. Perfect Markets • Perfect competition . near-sighted .each investor assumes he has no eﬀect on security prices • No taxes • No transactions costs • All assets publicly traded. short-sighted.Assumptions 1. or aﬀected with myopia. Identical Investors • Myopic1 • Same holding period • Normality or Mean-Variance Utility • Homogeneous expectations 1 myopic: adj. Of. pertaining to.

The tangent portfolio has become the equilibrium market portfolio.The Equilibrium Market Portfolio Recall that every investor holds some combination of the riskless asset and the tangency portfolio. and the value of the aggregated risky portfolio will equate the entire wealth of the economy. When we aggregate the portfolios of all individual investors. lending and borrowing will cancel out. . µi mean µ (%) CM L µΜ Market o rf o 0 0 σΜ std σ (%) σi Figure 1: Equilibrium market portfolio and eﬃcient frontier.

N A1 A1 A1 . µ M −r f 2 A σM N Aggregating over all Investors. + A1 A2 AN � (1) In equilibrium. each with $1.The Market Price of Risk There are N mean-variance investors in the economy.... the total wealth invested in the market portfolio is: µM − r f $1 · σM � 1 1 1 + + .. .. .. Investor Risk Aversion 1 2 3 . AN Portfolio Weight µ M −r f 2 A σM 1 µ M −r f 2 A σM 2 µ M −r f 2 A σM 3 . + AN A (4) . the total wealth invested in the market portfolio must be: $1 · N (2) This implies: 2 ¯ µM − r f = σ M A (3) where is an overall measure of the risk aversion among the market participants: � � 1 1 1 1 1 ¯ = N · A1 + A2 + ...

. How are the individual risky assets priced in equilibrium? To answer this question. + w N rN ) + (1 − y ∗ ) rf (6) (7) What is his y ∗ ? ∗ In equilibrium.Pricing the Individual Risky Assets The market portfolio is made of individual risky assets: r M = w 1 r1 + w 2 r2 + . what if we change wi a little? ∂E (r) = E (r i ) − r f ∂wi (8) (9) ∂var (r) = 2 · cov (rM . . ri ) ∂wi (10) . . This means: ∂U (r) =0 ∂wi Keeping everything else ﬁxed. . and see how such a deviation aﬀect our investor’s maximized utility. 1¯ U (r) = E (r) − A var (r) 2 His portfolio holding: ∗ ∗ ∗ r = y ∗ (w1 r1 + w 2 r2 + . + w N rN (5) where wi is the fraction of total market wealth invested in asset i. wi is the optimal solution for this investor. Let’s focus on a representative investor with the average risk aversion . we deviate the equilibrium holding wi of asset i slightly away from its optimal level.

In general. the proof goes through for any utility function with a preference for mean. ri ) E (ri ) − rf = A (11) Recall that: ¯ var (rM ) E (rM ) − rf = A (12) This takes us to: E (ri ) − rf = βi (E (rM ) − rf ) (13) where βi = cov (rM . .So it must be that: ¯ cov (rM . ri ) var (rM ) (14) Our derivation uses the quadratic utility function. and aversion to variance.

rM ) with the market. the reward is zero. the reward is: βi · (E (rM ) − rf ) (17) (16) For zero exposure to the market risk. Systematic vs. • Idiosyncratic risk involves unexpected events peculiar to a single security or a limited number of securities. no matter how risky the asset is. Idiosyncratic Each investment carries two distinct risks: • Systematic risk is market-wide and pervasively inﬂuences virtually all security prices. Examples are the loss of a key contract or a change in government policy toward a speciﬁc industry. ri ) var (rM ) (15) For one unit exposure to the market risk. the right measure of the rewardable risk is not its variance var (ri ). the risk and reward relation in the CAPM is a linear relation.Risk and Reward in the CAPM For a risky asset ri . The exposure to the market risk can be best quantiﬁed by: βi = cov (rM . In summary. . Examples are interest rates and the business cycle. but its covariance cov (ri . the reward is the same as the market: E (r M ) − r f For β unit of exposure to the market.

.The Security Market Line Expected Return ( µi) M ity ar L ket ine Alpha (α ) Sec ur (µM) M Expected Risk Premium (r f) defensive aggressive β = 1 βi Beta (β ) Risk free Investment Investment in Market Figure 2: Equilibrium market portfolio and eﬃcient frontier.

. • Idiosyncratic risk involves unexpected events peculiar to a single security or a limited number of securities. Examples are the loss of a key contract or a change in government policy toward a speciﬁc industry. Examples are interest rates and the business cycle. Idiosyncratic Each investment carries two distinct risks: • Systematic risk is market-wide and pervasively inﬂuences virtually all security prices.Systematic vs.

• idiosyncratic εi : speciﬁc only to security i.A Linear Factor Model A simple model to capture these two types of risks is the linear factor model: ri = E (ri ) + βi · F + εi (18) which carries two risky components: • systematic F : common to all securities. . Both the common factor F and the idiosyncratic component are zero mean random variables.

with E (F ) = 0. There is no short-sale constraint. . In deriving APT. Possible common factor: unexpected changes in inﬂation. The APT is not an equilibrium concept. etc. or assume any speciﬁc distribution for the asset returns. Assume a one-factor linear model: • βi asset i’s sensitivity to the common factor. Assets are perfectly divisible. industrial production. It is based purely on no-arbitrage conditions. and independent of the common factor or other ﬁrms’ idiosyncratic component. • εi ﬁrm-speciﬁc return. The Arbitrage Pricing Theory: E (r j − r f ) E (ri − rf ) = βj βi (19) The expected return of any asset is determined by its exposure to the common factor. one need not make any assumption about investors’ preferences. • F common factor.The Arbitrage Pricing Theory A SINGLE-FACTOR VERSION Assume a frictionless market with no taxes or transaction costs. and has nothing to do with its idiosyncratic component. with zero mean. It does not rely on the existence of a market portfolio.

eq. 335 ﬀ.2. questions 3. 19 chapter 11 concept check question 2. 17. 11. Multifactor APT.15. Focus: BKM Chapters 9-11 • p. the tangency portfolio becomes the market portfolio.10. 11. eq.10. 10. APT and CAPM. 11. 324 to 334 middle (diversiﬁcation. beta. 3 & 4. p. 10. zero-beta model. p. 5. liquidity. 286 ﬀ. The intuition of the CAPM: expected return of any risky asset depends linearly on its exposure to the market risk. 7. eq. It builds on a power mathematical machine called Strong Law of Large Number. 5. 6. 3. 18. 2. the basic concept of the APT is that diﬀerences in expected return must be driven by diﬀerences in non-diversiﬁable risk. 263 bottom to 284. 10. eq.6) Reader: Roll and Ross (1995). The expected return of the market portfolio depends on the average risk aversion in the market. p. 2.Summary In equilibrium. questions 4. Diversiﬁcation is an important concept in ﬁnance. 16 .16) • p. 25 chapter 10 concept check question 1. The APT is based purely on no-arbitrage condition. covariance. eq. 22. measured by β . 4 & 5. 314 ﬀ. and does not depend on having a market portfolio.6 & eq. SML. It is not an equilibrium concept. questions 1.5.5. assumptions. 3 & 4. eq. type of potential questions: chapter 9 concept check question 1. 300 to 308 • p. alpha) • p. 308 to 313 middle (eq. expectations. 7. 287. 4.7 • p. (CAPM. 10. 23. Like the CAPM.

• Jagannathan and McGrattan (1995). • Kritzman (1993). and • Kritzman (1994) Think about the following questions: • What are the predictions of the CAPM? • Are they testable? • What is a regression? • What is t-test? .Questions for Next Class Please read: • BKM Chapter 13.

STRONG LAW OF LARGE NUMBERS: Let x1 . (20) . . . We have: 1 xi = µ N →∞ N lim almost surely. there is deep.TECHNICAL NOTES: The Mathematical Foundation of Diversiﬁcation Behind the concept of diversiﬁcation. elegant. . be a sequence of identically distributed and independent random variables with mean µ. . x2 . and powerful mathematical machinery.

Chart: ..000 times. we write y1 = xi . x2 . we plot its ”empirical” probability distribution. and simulate it 10.000 scenarios normalized so that the total probability is one. 5 4 3 Likelihood 2 1 n = 10 -4 -2 2 4 Figure 3: Likelihood and simulation outcome for y1 at n=1.000 scenarios of y10 = 1 (x1 + x2 + · · · + x10 ) 10 (21) We then plot the ”empirical” probability distribution of y10 .. .A Simulation Based ”Proof” STEP 1: We start with X1 .000 scenarios. Using the 10. For notational purpose. That is. so that xi . we have 10. scenario by scenario. We add them up. and re scale the sum by 10.. each time with a new seed in our random number generator. x10 are indeed independent. assume that it is standard normal. STEP 2: We repeat STEP 1 ten times. which is basically the histogram of the 10.

000 scenarios of: y100 = 1 (x1 + x2 + · · · + x100 ) 100 (22) . STEP 3: Finally. we repeat STEP 1 one hundred times. obtaining 10.5 4 3 Likelihood 2 1 n = 10 -4 -2 2 4 Outcome of Simulation Figure 4: Likelihood and simulation outcome for y1 at n=10.

Since: N 1 1 � var (yN ) = 2 var (xi ) = N N i−1 �N i−1 xi will ap- (24) . N 1 � yN = xi N i−1 (23) approaches zero with probability one.5 4 n = 100 3 Likelihood 2 1 -4 -2 2 4 Outcome of Simulation Figure 5: Likelihood and simulation outcome for y1 at n=100. According to Law of Large Number. it is actually easy to see that yN = 1 N proach zero with probability one. as N grows inﬁnitely large. For xi normally distributed.

5 4 n = 100 3 Likelihood 2 1 n = 10 n = 10 -4 -2 2 4 Outcome of Simulation Figure 6: Likelihood and simulation outcome for y1 at n= 1 / 10 / 100. .

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