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Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1

50 questions Time allowed 1hr Pass mark 75% 38/50 1. In the diagram below, the item arrowed is a:

A) Former B) Rib C) Longeron D) Stringer 2. Which of the following best describes items to be checked during a pilots pre -flight inspection of an aircraft tyre? A) Tyre inflation, creep, bulging, cuts and flat spot B) Tyre inflation, colour, bulging, size C) Tyre type, creep, tracking, cuts and flat spots D) Tyre inflation, creep, type of tread pattern 3. Failure of the torque link can lead to: A) Spring leaf undercarriage leg failure B) Brake failure C) Nose wheel shimmy D) Tyre creep 4. A light aircraft with direct nose wheel steering usually has: A) Rods linking the rudder pedals and the nose wheel steering mechanism B) No need for differential braking C) A free-castoring nose wheel D) A nose wheel steered by the ailerons 5. Compression ratio is: A) The rate at which air ignites in a diesel engine B) The ratio of cylinder volume with the piston at Bottom Dead Centre, to the cylinder volume with the piston at Top Dead Centre C) The ratio of the volume of one cylinder to the volume of all that engines cylinders D) The ratio of pressure inside the cylinder during the compression stoke to the pressure during the exhaust stroke

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Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


6. Within the engines oil system, oil is routed via an oil cooler. The bypass valve that can allow oil to bypass the oil cooler in the event of a blockage is: A) Temperature-activated B) Pressure-activated C) Time-switch activated D) Pilot controlled 7. Within a four stroke engine the opening and closing of valves during the Otto cycle is controlled by a camshaft turning at half the speed of the engine. During a complete Otto cycle: A) The inlet valve opens once, the exhaust valve opens twice B) The inlet valve opens once, the exhaust valve opens once C) The inlet valve opens twice, the exhaust valve opens once D) The inlet and outlet valves both open twice 8. An engine system where a scavenge pump takes oil from the sump and returns it to a separate oil tank is a: A) Wet-sump oil system B) Wet oil tank system C) Dry-sump oil system D) Gravity feed oil tank system 9. During flight, the cylinder head temperatures of an air-cooled engine increase to their maximum limit. An appropriate response by the pilot would be to: A) Lean the mixture B) Reduce airspeed C) Dry-sump oil system D) Gravity feed oil tank system 10. High oil temperature and low oil pressure should be taken as indicating: A) Faulty gauges, which can be ignored B) A serious emergency, necessitation an immediate forced landing and Mayday call C) A possible serious engine problem, necessitating a landing at the nearest airfield to have the problem investigated D) An electrical problem 11. If the magnetos become disconnected from the cockpit magneto switch: A) The can be stopped by turning off the Master Switch B) They will stop working C) They will remain live, even if the magneto switch is selected off D) Their operation will not be affected 12. When air is flowing through the narrowest point of a venture: A) Airflow speed will increase, static pressure will increase B) Airflow speed will increase, static pressure will decrease C) Airflow speed will decrease, static pressure will decrease D) Airflow speed will decrease, static pressure will increase

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Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


13. Within the engine compartment of an air-cooled engine, airflow is directed over the hottest parts of the engine by: A) Baffles and seals B) The oil system C) Electrically powered pumps D) The mixture control 14. Why is a propeller blade twisted along its length? A) To reduce centrifugal stress B) To reduce propeller torque C) To maintain a constant angle of attack along the blade D) To permit different RPM settings 15. On an aviation refuelling installation, what colour labels would you expect to indicate AVGAS 100LL and AVTUR Jet A-1 respectively: A) Blue; Black B) Red; Blue C) Black, Blue D) Red; Black 16. Oil Temperature as displayed on the cockpit oil temperature gauge is measured: A) In the oil sump B) After passing through the oil cooler C) Over the course of several flights and averaged D) Referenced to the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) 17. The ideal fuel/air mixture for efficient aero engine operation is: A) 12 parts air to 15 parts fuel (12:15) B) 15 part fuel to 1 part air (15:1) C) 1 part fuel to 12 parts air (1:12) D) 1 part fuel to 1 part air (1:1) 18. The mixture control can be used: A) Only above 5,000ft AGL B) To stop the engine when Idle Cut Off (ICO) is selected C) To increase the amount of air entering the engine D) Only if carburettor icing is suspected 19. A fully charged 30 amp hour battery of an average light aircraft is (in theory) capable of supplying: A) 15 amp for 2 hours B) 30 amp for 30 hours C) 30 amps for 30 minutes D) 1 amp for 30 flights 20. If a fuse blows during a flight: A) It should not be replaced until the aircraft has landed B) It should be replaced with one of a higher rating to ensure it will not blow again C) It can be replaced in the air with one of the same rating, but only once D) It can be held in MikeASimmons Page 3

Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


21. A suction (vacuum) pump operates the suction (vacuum) driven instruments by: A) Drawing air through the instruments to the gyro rotors B) Blowing air through the instruments to the gyro rotors C) Sucking against diaphragms in the associated instruments D) Providing electrical power to the gyro via an air-driven generator 22. If the alternator fails during flight: A) Electrical loads should be reduced to the bare minimum and a landing made as soon as practical B) The master switch should be turned off, and the flight continued as planned C) The battery will supply all the electrical loads for as long as required, so the flight can continue as planned D) All electrical services should be switched on to stop the battery going flat 23. The pitot tube of a moving aircraft senses: A) Static pressure B) Dynamic pressure C) Static and Dynamic pressure D) Either, depending on pilot selection 24. During a descent the static source becomes blocked. Which of the following statements correctly describes the likely effect on (i) the airspeed indicator; (ii) the altimeter and (iii) the vertical speed indicator if the descent continues at a constant rate: (i) (ii) (iii) A) Under-read Over-read Read correctly B) Over-read Under-read Over-read C) Under-read Under-read Show zero D) Over-read Over-read Show zero 25. The effect of magnetic deviation on the compass can be allowed for if the pilot refers to: A) Isogonals on an aeronautical chart B) The compass deviation card C) The POH/FM D) The pressure indicated on the altimeter sub-scale 26. Static pressure drawn from an alternate static source in the cockpit of an average light aircraft will be: A) Exactly the same as the outside ambient pressure B) Less than the outside ambient pressure C) The same as pitot pressure D) The pressure indicated on the altimeter sub-scale 27. The normal operating range airspeed is denoted by: A) A red line on the airspeed indicator B) A yellow arc on the airspeed indicator C) The same as pitot pressure D) A green arc on the airspeed indicator MikeASimmons Page 4

Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


28. The Heading Indicator should be checked during cruising flight: A) Only following an event such as a lightning strike or electrical failure B) At any time against a GPS reading C) Against a compass at any time the wings are level D) Regularly against the compass during straight and level, balanced and steady airspeed flight 29. Which of the following aircraft instruments dos NOT incorporate a gyroscope? A) The Heading Indicator B) The Compass C) The Attitude Indicator D) The Turn Co-ordinator 30. A duplicate inspection on a control system may be carried out by: A) The aircrafts owner and another PPL holder B) The aircrafts owner and a licenced engineer C) Two licensed engineers D) Any two pilots 31. Which of the following statements regarding a certificate of airworthiness is corret? A) It is invalidated if a new aircraft owner is not notified to the authority within 28 days of change of ownership B) It is valid for the same period as the certificate of registration C) It is invalidated unless the aircraft also has a valid certificate of insurance D) Its period of validity is stated on the certificate 32. Carbon Monoxide: A) Can be identified by its black colour B) May be identified by its strong smell C) Is not easy to identify because it is colourless and odourless D) Cannot enter the cockpit 33. Unless the POH/FM specifies otherwise, the correct action in the event of an engine fire in the air would be to: A) Open the cockpit heater controls fully and operate the fire extinguisher into the vents B) Shut down the engine immediately and close the cockpit heater controls C) Keep running the engine at full throttle to draw the fire into the cylinders D) Climb at full throttle to gain more height 34. A dry powder fire extinguisher can be used on which types of fire? A) Brake and wheel fires B) Wood, paper or cloth fires only C) Flammable liquids only D) Electrical fires only

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Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


35. The force that acts perpendicular to the wings in a balanced turn is: A) The centrifugal force B) The total lift force C) The centripetal force D) The mass 36. Increasing the load carried by an aircraft: A) Increases stall speed at the same rate as the increase in load factor B) Decreases stall speed by the square root of the load factor C) Increases stall speed by the square root of the load factor D) Does not affect the load factor 37. Controls are mass balanced in order to: A) Aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls B) Prevent control flutter C) Provide equal control forces on all the controls D) Remove the requirement for a trimmer 38. Aerodynamic balances designed to assist a pilot in deflecting a flight control surface may be: A) A balance tab that mores in the opposite direction to the main control surface B) A trim tab on the flying control surface that moves in the same direction as the control surface C) A mass placed forward of the hinge line D) A spring in the control linkages 39. The angle of attack is: A) the angle between the chord and the longitudinal axis B) The angle between the wing and lateral axis C) The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow D) The angle between the lateral axis and the longitudinal axis 40. In decreasing order of percentage, the major components of the atmosphere are: A) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Water vapour B) Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Nitrogen C) Oxygen, Water vapour, Carbon Dioxide D) Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen 41. If the temperature of a parcel of air is increased, but pressure remains constant, the density will: A) Remain constant B) Increase C) Decrease D) Only be affected by a change in pressure 42. If outside air temperature at 10,000ft is -15C, the deviation from International Standard Atmosphere is: A) ISA +10C B) ISA -30C C) ISA - 15C D) ISA -10C MikeASimmons Page 6

Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


43. A slot or slat in the leading edge of a wing will: A) Re-energise the airflow over the wings upper surface, delaying airflow separation B) Move the centre of gravity rearwards, thus reducing stall airspeed C) Reduce drag at cruise speed D) Reduce lift at high angles of attack 44. A fixed bendable trim tab, such as might be used on a rudder or aileron, is: A) Set by the authority when the initial C of A is issued, and is not to be adjusted B) Designed to be ground adjustable C) Set by the manufacturer, and not to be adjusted by any other person or organisation D) For training purposes only 45. Washout on an aeroplane wing means that there is a: A) Reduction of angle of incidence from the wing root towards the wing tip B) Reduction of angle of incidence from the wing tip towards the wing tip C) Tendency for the wing tips to stall first to increase stability in the stall and during slow flight D) Increase in downwash at the outer wing 46. Yawing is a rotation about the: A) Normal axis B) Lateral axis C) Longitudinal axis D) Perpendicular axis 47. Adverse yaw can be minimised by: A) A butterfly tail B) Differential ailerons C) An aileron trim tab D) Mass balance 48. When an aircraft is in equilibrium in straight and level, un-accelerated flight: A) Lift, weight, thrust and drag are all equal B) Weight equals drag C) Drag is greater than lift D) Life is greater than thrust 49. The fin on an aeroplane: A) Helps to turn the aeroplane B) Balances the weight of the engine C) Increases directional stability D) Reduces directional stability 50. The Primary purpose of an anti-balance (anti-servo) tab is on: A) Aid movement of the flying control by reducing loads B) Increase flying control forces C) Prevent flutter D) Reduce adverse yaw MikeASimmons Page 7

Aircraft General and Principles of flight, Practice paper 1


Answers 1D 2A 3C 4A 5B 6B 7B 8C 9D 10C 11C 12B 13A 14C 15D 16B 17C 18B 19A 20C 21A 22A 23C 24D 25B 26B 27D 28D 29B 30C 31D 32C 33B 34A 35B 36C 37B 38A 39C 40A 41C 42D 43A 44B 45A 46A 47B 48D 49C 50B

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