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Pharmacology Practice Questions 2010 True/ False Section 1.

An elevated HDL level is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis 2. Vascular release of nitric oxide results from smooth muscle NOS activity 3. Aspirin binds permanently to COX-1 in platelets 4. Parkinsons didease is associated with a massive loss of Noradrenaline in the substantia nigra pars compacta 5. Delta 9 THC has a half life of approximately 5 hours 6. The phenomenon once known as sparteine/ debrisoquione metabolism is now known to occur because of genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6 7. Morphines analgesic effects in the central nervous system are mainly, but not exclusively mediated by the activation of delta-opioid receptors 8. The rate at which ethanol is eliminated from the body depends upon its concentration in the plasma 9. During situations of saturable metabolism, small increases in dose usually result in disproportionately large increases in plasma concentration 10. Steady state is reached when the dose rate is equal to the metabolism rate of a drug 11. An inactive pro-drug requires metabolism to an active metabolite before pharmacological activity is seen 12. Some pharmacologically active drugs may be metabolised to compounds with similar pharmacological activity Multichoice questions 1. The muscarinic effects of acetylcholine include which if the following? a) Slowing of the heart and of AV conduction b) Decrease in gut motility c) Stimulation of watery salivary secretion d) Retention of urine e) Depolarisation of the motor endplate of skeletal muscle 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. Which if the following has direct sympathomimetic activity? Amphetamine Selegilline Adrenaline Phenelzine Methylphenidate Which of the following statements is NOT correct? a) Phentolamine is a mixed alpha1 and alpha2 antagonist b) Phentolamine is a long acting antagonist c) Phenoxybenzamine is a selective alpha2 antagonist d) Prazosin is an alpha1 specific antagonist e) Prazosin is used in the treatment of hypertension Which of the following is a selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor? a) Phenelzine b) Selegiline c) Diphenhydramine d) Cimetidine e) Cyclohexadine Which of the following beta blockers is beta 1 selective and has low lipid solubility? a) Atenolol b) Propanolol c) Metaprolol d) Sotalol e) Timolol An example of a drug used to treat NSAID- induced gastric ulceration is a) Diclofenac b) Misoprostol c) Cimetidine d) Ranitidine




e) 7.


An example of a propionic acid derivative NSAID is a) Ibuprofen b) Indomethacin c) Piroxicam d) Diclofenac e) Sulindac Which of the following drugs is NOT an H2 receptor antagonist? a) Diphenhydramine b) Cimetidine c) Ranitidine d) Nizatidine e) Famotidine Which of the following statements concerning muscarinic receptors is NOT correct a) M1 receptors are present in the brain b) M3 receptors are present in the brain c) M2 receptors are present in the heart d) M1 receptors are present in the stomach e) M3 receptors are present in smooth muscle



10. The major cellular source of histamine in the blood is a) Platelet b) Monocyte c) Eosinophil d) Basophil e) Neutrophil 11. Which one of the following drugs inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells? a) Diphenhydramine b) Cromolyn c) Loratadine d) Terfenadine e) Cimetidine 12. a) b) c) d) e) Which of the following drugs is NOT a disease modifying anti rheumatic Sulphasalazine Piroxicam Methotraxate Auranofin Chloroquine

13. Hemicholinium acts by inhibiting which of the following? a) The transport of choline into the nerve b) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) c) Re-uptake 1 d) Re-uptake 2 e) Catechol O methyltransferase 14. An EC50 or ED50 is: a) A measure of the half life of drugs b) The concentration of a drug that will elicit a 50% response of the maximal effect of the drug c) 50% of the drug concentration which will elicit a maximal effect d) a measure of drug efficacy e) a log10 drug concentration 15. which one of the following statements about the action of the following renal drugs is correct? a) Furosemide acts primarily on the proximal tubule b) Furosemide inhibits Na+/Cl- transport at the distal tubule c) Mannitol directly inhibits the Na+/K+/Cl- exchanger in the primary tubule

d) Aldosterone achieves diuresis by increasing plasma Na+ in exchange for K+ e) Aldosterone increases plasma volume and thereby increases cardiac output 16. Which one of the following drugs does NOT have a fibrolytic action? a) Reteplase b) Urokinase c) Streptokinase d) Warfarin e) Alteplase 17. Select the correct option: A shift of a curve to the right on a log dose response curve a) A decrease in efficacy b) An increase in efficacy c) A decrease in potency d) An increase in potency e) None of the above


17. Which of the following statements about hypertension and anti-hypertansive therapy is correct? a) Secondary hypertension is generally of an unidentifiable cause b) Thiazide diuretics are generally used to combat hypertension c) Hypertansion predisposes to a pathological reduction in cardiac mass d) Prazosin achieves vasodilation but may decrease HDL profiles e) Prazosin therapy may cause constipation in a patient 18. In which of the following pathologies has histamine NOT been indicated? a) Urticaria pigmentosa b) Systemic mastocytosis c) Pemicious anemia d) Myelogenous leukemia e) Gastric carcinoid tumour 19. Select the correct option. Which of the following breaks down acetyl choline? a) MAO b) COMT c) Tryptophan hydroxylase d) Tyrosine hydroxylase e) None of the above 20. Select the correct option. Amandamide a) Acts on CB2 receptors b) Is metabolised by fatty acid amide hydrolyse c) Acts on the immune system d) Is released by presynaptic neurons e) Acts on GABA receptors 21. MDMA is an example of a drug which acts mainly on which of the following? a) Voltage- dependant ion channels b) Enzymes c) Transporter proteins d) Receptors e) Protein kinases 22. The drug tolcapone is used in which one of the following disorders? a) Schizophrenia b) Anxiety c) Hypertension d) Parkinsons disease e) Excessive vomiting 23. Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse reaction to diazepam? a) Drowsiness b) Confusion c) Slurred speech

d) Improved memory e) Motor performance deficits 24. Select the correct option. 2 neurotransmitters released by nociceptive fibres in the spinal cord are: a) Acetyl choline and noradranaline b) Substance P and beta endorphin c) Glutamate and adrenaline d) Glutamate and substance p e) CGRP and beta endorphin 25. Which of the following drugs is probably most useful in the treatment of neuropathic pain? a) Amitiptylline b) Morphine c) Aspirin d) Pethidine e) Glyceral trinitrate 25. Select the correct option. The enzyme primarily responsible for 5 HT metabolism is: a) MAO b) COMT c) Tryptophan hydroxylase d) Tyrosine hydroxylase e) L-aromatic acid decarboxylase