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# Alex Bernstein April 2, 2014 Math 4121

Homework 9
Question 1. Let µ denote the Lebesgue measure in [0, 1]. Given any r, 0 < r < 1, show that there is a dense open set E of [0, 1] such that µ(E ) = r. Proof. Begin by taking [0, 1] ∩ Q. This is clearly a countable set, so it can be enumerated such that [0, 1] ∩ Q = {x1 , x2 , . . .}. Take B (xn ; 2nr +1 ), that is, the set around each xn that has measure 2r n . If these were disjoint,

µ(
n=1

B (xn ;

2

)) = n+1
n=1

r

µ(B (xn ;

r )) = = r. n +1 2 2n n=1

r

However, they are not necessarily disjoint, so

µ(
n=1

B (xn ;

r 2n+1

)) = µ(F ) = q ≤ r

−r with F the set as deﬁned by the union. Choose a scaling value t = 1 1−q . Clearly, 0 < t ≤ 1 because r < 1 and q < 1 and q = r. (Clearly, If q = r, we are already ﬁnished.) Create the scaled set:

F = {tx|x ∈ F } with µ(F ) = tµ(F ) Clearly (t, 1), the open interval from t to 1 is disjoint with F , and µ(t, 1) = 1 − t. Let E = F ∪ (t, 1) Therefore, µ(E ) = µ(F ∪ (t, 1)) = µ(F ) + µ((t, 1)) = tµ(F ) + 1 − t = 1 + t(µ(F ) − 1) 1−r =1+ (q − 1) 1−q =1+r−1 µ(E ) = r Clearly, E is both open and dense in [0, 1], and it has measure 0 < r < 1. Question 2. Let x = Rn with the Lebesgue measure µ and let f ∈ L1 (µ). Show that the set {x ∈ X |f (x) = 0} is a countable union of measurable sets, each of which has ﬁnite measure. Proof. Clearly, because f ∈ L1 (µ), a ∈ Rn , 0 ≤ a ≤ |f |, adµ ≤
x x X

|f |dµ < +∞. This means that, for any

|f |dµ < +∞ and
x

adµ = aµ(X ) < +∞.

1

n n But since |f |dµ < ∞. Let fn (x) = (1 + n ) e . If this were the case fn (x) ∈ L1 (µ) for R+ . so if each {x ∈ X : |f (x)| ≥ n 1 we have a countable union of measurable sets. it suﬃces to show that gn (x) = x − nln(1 + x ) ≥ 0. and ∞ x ∈ X : |f (x)| ≥ n=1 1 n is a countable union of ﬁnite sets. Then. clearly. |f |dµ ≥ X An |f |dµ ≥ An 1 1 dµ = µ(An ). µ(X ) is ﬁnite. Because x n −2x e−x and (1 + n ) e are greater than 0 for all x. for all n ∈ N. Question 3. since µ(An ) is ﬁnite. n→∞ lim fn (x) = ex e−2x = e−x Because ∞ |e−x |dx = 1 < +∞ 0 We wish to show that |e−x | ≥ |(1 + x n −2x ) e | n for all x ≥ 0 and for all n. Let {x ∈ X : |f (x)| ≥ n } = An . Calculate limn→∞ n (1 0 x n −2x ) e dx.Alex Bernstein April 2. so µ(An ) is ﬁnite for every n. +n x n −2x Proof. this means that An is measurable. n 2 . then which is a countable union of sets. it suﬃces to show that (1 + x n ) ≤ ex . 2014 Math 4121 Therefore. n In order to do this. n Since aµ(x) < ∞ for any a. so their union is also measurable. It is clear that ∞ {x ∈ X : f (X ) = 0} = {x ∈ X : |f (x)| ≥ n=1 1 } n 1 } is ﬁnite. x 1 µ(An ) < ∞.

each fn (x) must be measurable because it is simply the additive construction of previous functions in the sequence and characteristic functions. we wish to show that f = fn + k=1 2 k . Prove that there exists ∞ χAn measurable sets An such f = n=1 2 n .Alex Bernstein April 2. f = fn + k=1 χAk = fn+1 + 2k n+1 k=1 χAk . Let 0 ≤ f ≤ 1 be measurable on X . because f = f1 + χA1 χA χA1 = f2 + + 22 2 2 2 χAk 2n Assume this is true for the nth case. If the derivative gn (x) of gn (x) is such that gn (x) > 0 for all n. gn (x) is strictly increasing for all n. Clearly. Clearly. We know the original A1 is measurable. fn+1 = fn − n . f= χAn 2n n=1 ∞ All that remains is to show that each fn (x) is measurable. n n→∞ lim (1 + 0 x n −2x ) e dx = lim n→∞ n e−x dx = 1. because it is the inverse image of a closed interval with a measurable function. 0 Question 4. χA1 Deﬁne the sets such that A1 = {x|f (x) ≥ 1 n ’s 2 } and f1 = f − 2 . Deﬁne other A χAn 1 such that An = {x|fn−1 (x) ≥ 2n } and other fn ’s such that fn = fn−1 − 2 n . both of which are measurable. 3 . The derivative gn (x) is gn (x) = 1 − Therefore. 2014 Math 4121 Clearly. So. so by the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem. This is clearly true. Proof. this is true for n = 2. χA k n By induction. Because all other An ’s are inverse image of closed intervals with measurable functions. because each fn (x) is bounded above by and limn→∞ 21 n = 0. limn→∞ fn (x) = 0. holds. g (0) = 0 for all n. as is each 2 n . and therefore f1 (x) is measurable. 2k 1 2n Furthermore. χAn because f (x) is measurable. This represents the binary expansion of any real number between 0 and 1. |e−x | ≥ |(1 + x n −2x ) e | n n 1 1+ x n > 0 for all x and n. they are also clearly measurable sets. Furthermore. Therefore.

Furthermore. and X is compact.Alex Bernstein April 2. n=1 2n and since 0 ≤ gn ≤ 1 for all n and for all x. we can ﬁnd a function gn for each An such that gn ∈ Cc (X ) and Fn ≺ gn ≺ Un . µ(U ) < µ(A) + 2 .e. 2 2 Question 6. converges uniformly to some function g (x) = gn n 2 n=1 ∞ 4 . so we can ﬁnd a Un open and an Fn closed such that given ε > 0 Fn ⊂ An ⊂ Un where µ(Un − Fn ) < ε 2n Also. Use the above two problems to prove the following: Let X ⊂ Rn be compact and f a Lebesgue measurable function on X with 0 ≤ f ≤ 1. Fn is compact for each n. note that F ⊆ A. so µ(F ) + µ(A − F ) = µ(A). µ(M − A ) < 2 . Because ε c the Lebesgue measure is countably additive. and the sets are disjoint. So µ(A − M c ) < 2 ε set with µ(A) − µ(F ) < 2 . since Fn ⊂ X . so F ∪ A − F = A. and Fn is closed. with F closed and U open with µ(U − F ) < ε. To verify that µ(A − F ) = µ(A) − µ(F ). If A ⊂ Rn is a Lebesgue measurable and given ε > 0. Similarly. we can also create V open such that A ⊆ V . We know that if A is measurable. ∞ n=1 gn (x) 1 ≤ =1 n 2n 2 n=1 ∞ g n ( x) n=1 2n ∞ so by the Weierstrass M-Test. prove that there exists F ⊂ A ⊂ U . Proof. because U and F are disjoint. By the Additive property of the Lebesgue measure of disjoint sets. show there exists a continuous function g on X such that the set {x ∈ X |f (x) = g (x)} has measure at most ε. Ac is measurable. We can create an ε ε open set of M such that. we can ε ﬁnd a U ⊆ V such that A ⊆ U . and An ⊂ X implies An ⊂ Rn . Ac ⊆ M and µ(M ) < µ(Ac ) + 2 . If we take the summations of all the gn ’s ∞ gn over 2n . and given any ε. ∞ χAn From 4: We have that there exists measurable sets An such that f = n=1 2 n From 5: We have that because X is compact. µ(U ) − µ(A) + µ(A) − µ(F ) < ε ε + = ε. i. given 2 . Proof. it is Lebesgue measurable. Given ε > 0. therefore µ(A − F ) = µ(A) − µ(F ). 2014 Math 4121 Question 5. with M c = F a closed M − Ac = M ∩ A = A ∩ M = A − M c . ε . by the Riesz Representation Theorem. By the Tietze extension theorem.

the claim is true. Fn ≺ gn ≺ Un and gn = 0 if x ∈ / Un . n 2 n=1 ∞ Because µ(B ) < ε and g (x) is continuous. and since each An . so the points where χAn = gn are only in Un − Fn . Bn aren’t necessarily pairwise disjoint: ∞ ∞ ∞ µ(B ) = µ( n=1 Bn ) ≤ n=1 µ(Bn ) ≤ n=1 µ(Un − Fn ) < ε = ε. So µ(Bn ) ≤ µ(Un − Fn ). 2014 Math 4121 gn and since each 2 n is continuous. g (x) is also continuous. so Bn ⊂ Un − Fn for all n and therefore B ⊂ Un − Fn where B = ∪∞ n=1 Bn . gn = 1 since n n }. χAn gn Let Bn = {x ∈ An | 2 = 2 We know that for Fn ⊂ An .Alex Bernstein April 2. We wish to ﬁnd the set B = {x ∈ An |f (x) = g (x)} = {x ∈ X | gn χAn = } n n 2 2 n=1 n=1 ∞ ∞ and show that µ(B ) < ε. 5 .